Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. A hypertensive patient is scheduled for surgery. What antihypertensive drugs should not be taken the
morning of surgery
a) Thiazide diuretics
b) ACE Inhibitors
2. Anisocoria refers to
a. Uneven pupils
b. Corneal Lacerations
3. An unconscious patient undergoing CPR, the respiration changes that needs to be made
a. NSAIDS
b. Acetaminafen
c. Beta Blockers
d. Pencillin
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6. The skin over the parotid is supplied by which nerve
a. Facial
b. Auriculotemporal
c. Greater Auricular
7. A 34 year old female patient is rushed to the ER following MVA. Her limbs are cold and clammy. The
following vitals were recorded.
1. BP- 100/60 mm of Hg
4. Urine – negligible
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
a. Malnutrition
b. Anemia
c. Luekemia
d. Lymphocytopenia
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a. Submental
b. Submandibular
c. Deep cervical
d. Superficial cervical
11. Which of the following values would you term to be hyper tensive
a. 135/85
b. 140/90
c. 145/95
d. 150/90
12. 18 year old girl is predisposed to fainting attacks and gives a positive history of syncope and shortness of
breath. Her examination reveals a mid systolic click and a late systolic murmur. She is on GTN and anti
hypertensives. The dental treatment for such a patient includes
a. SABE prophylaxis
13. A 54 year old man with a ho of type 2 DM is diagnose and taking treatment with Glipizide and diet
control and exercise. His blood reports are as follows RBS, FBS, PPBS, glycosylated Hb. (All within normal
values)(THEY HAVE GIVEN THE RANGE)
a. Infective prophylaxis
b. No change in treatment
A. Buccinator
B. Buccinator and inferior orbicularis
C. Buccinator and superior orbicularis
D. Buccinator and orbicularis oris++
16. - In an upright position, blood from medial cantus, lateral nose and upper lip drains into:
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17. After doing CPR to an adult patient the pulse returns but without breath. Management is:
A. Provide rescue breathing at rate of 10-12/mint ++
B. Provide rescue breathing at rate of 5-6/mint
C. Put the patient in recovery position
19. Skin below the ear covering the parotid gland is supplied by:
A. Superficial temporal
B. Greater auricular++
C. Temporal nerve
D. ?
23. The five soft plate muscles arise from (controversial question with no answer)
A. Hard palate
B. Palatal bone
C. Base of skull
D. Palatopharyngeal arch
24. Best plain film to show maxillary sinus and orbital rim
A. Caldwell view
B. Water view ++
C. Lateral oblique
25. Antibiotic for empiric treatment in end stage renal deficiency is:
A. Flagyl
B. Doxycillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Penicillin
26. Ibuprofen:
A. Peak effect (concentration) after 6-8 hours of administration
B. Initial secretion is via liver biliary rout
C. Mostly found bound to plasma protein ++
28. Patient has been treated for rheumatoid arthritis was taking steroids for the last year and he needs
multiple tooth extraction. The surgeon should
A. Give supplement 50-100mg before surgery ++?
B. Give 100-150mg steroid supplment
C. Proceed extraction without steroid supplement
31. 24 year women with history of fatigue and lethary and history of syncope. Clinically mid systolic click with
late systolic murmur. Probably she is suffering from
a. Hypertrohic Cardiomyopathy
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Mitral stenosis
32. 24 year woman with history of fall with fracture central incisor comes to the clinic for extraction and
immediate implant placement. She gives history of fatigue and lethargy and history of syncope. Clinically mid
systolic click with late systolic murmur. What is your line of management in this pt
b. SABE prophylaxsis
d. Do nothing
a. NS
b. DNS
c. RL
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d. Plasma
a. Dialysis
b. Blood products
c. Transfusion
d. Child birth
a. Dehydration
b. Renal problem
c. Liver problem
d. GIT
a. HbA1c
b. FBS
c. GTT
d. 24 hr serum creatinine
a. 2.5 L oxygen
b. 4L oxygen
c. 6L oxygen
a. CN 9
b. CN 10
6
c. CN 7
d. CN 6
a. Narrow spectrum
b. Broad spectrum
c. Bacteriostatic
d. Highly toxic
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DENTOALVEOLAR AND IMPLANT SURGERY
1. A 45 year old man has an asymptomatic impacted mandibular third molar detected on radiograph. What are
the treatment options that you would choose from
d. No treatment required
2. As part of preoperative assessment for elective facial cosmetic surgery, photographs need to be done
d. In natural light
3. During implant placement surgery, the head of the implant fractured but the surgeon was able to seat the
healing abutment. What are the surgeons options
4. The surgeon has a patient for whom he has placed an implant last week in relation to 15 region. The
patient returns with the implant in his hand. What should be done
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c. Fix the same implant with addition of bone
d. ?
5. The radiograph is shown of a tooth #10. (The crown is destroyed completely up to the level of bone with
some bone loss at the apical third)The plan is for immediate placement of implant following surgery. What is
the plan for extraction
b. Transalveolar extraction
6. Surgeon wants to place an immediate implant after extraction. The role of resorbable membrane in this case
b. Should be used only in case of bone grafting when primary closure is not possible
a. Orbital space
b. Pterygomandibular space
c. Infratemporal space
d. Temporal space
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
a. Root resorption
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b. Periapical abcess
c. Ankylosis
a. Incisor
b. Canine
c. Molar mandible
d. Molar maxilla
a. Vestibular abcess
c. Ludwig's Angina
13. A short maxillary central incisor with short roots is due for endodontic surgery. How much of root tip
should be cut
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4 mm
14. A patient has ceramic crowns and requires endodontic surgery. Which is the best approach
a. Semilunar
b. Para semilunar
c. Sub marginal
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d. Sulcular
15. A 24 year old has an impacted full bony 38 distoangular third molar. During extraction, the mandibular
angle fractured. The proximal fragment is displaced upwards. What is the next step
a. IMF 4 weeks
d. Transoseous wiring
16. A surgeon is placing a dental implant irt #12. Implant displaced into sinus. What is next step?
b. Just leave it as it is
a. 2000-12000 rpm
b. 12000-20000 rpm
18. The antibacterial best suited to treat odontogenic infections in end stage renal failure patients who is
allergic to pencillin
a. Trimethoprim/Sulbactum
b. Flagyl
c. Clindamycin
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d. Doxycycline
e. Cefaclor
19. The best antibacterial of choice to treat ethmoidal and maxillary sinusitisi is
a. Pencillin
b. Ceftazidime
c. Ampicillin
d. Trimethoprim\sulfamethaxozole
e. Metronidazole
21. While doing implant in #22 severe bleeding is encountered. The surgeon should:
a. continue implanting
b. Pack the socket and reevaluate ++
c. Fill the socket with bone and continue implant
d. Place surgical stent and follow up patient the following day
22. The forceps used for extraction of of 2nd mandibular molar with decayed crown is:
A. No 23 ++
B. No 151
C. No 286
D. 88
23. The following day of inserting and implant in #22, the patient returns complaining of numbness.
Management is:
. Remove the implant
B. Surgical exploration of the area
C. Keep the implant in site since the numbness will resolve spontaneously in few days
D. Follow up for few days to and remove implant if numbness persists ++
24. In 12 year old patient, after doing extraction of maxillary first molar for orthodontic treatment, what
implant is required:
A. Use correct size implant
B. Use smaller size implant
C. Use larger size implant
D. Do not implant but wait until full growth is reached. ++
25. In thrombocytopenic patient, extraction of upper molar is contraindicated when platelets count is:
A. Less than 40000 mm³
B. Less than 80000 mm³
C. Less than 150 mm³
D. Less than 250mm³
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B. Penicillin (1st choice is Penicillin and then Clindamycin)
C. Ceftazine
27. The test for determining if a patient is affected with cat-scratch disease is:
A. Handberg ?
B.(It should be Warthin–Starry stain but this test was not included -PCR, IMMUNOFLUROSCENT
ANTIBODY TEST)
C. Skin protein test?
d. hanger – rose ( fonseca )
28. The optimum speed of rotation when preparing a tap for inserting an implant is:
A. 30-40 ( contemporary tells only 15rpm)
B. 40-60
C. 60-80
D. 80-100
29.
30.
31. Patient with Osteomyelitis treated with sequestrectomy and prolonged antibiotic but without improvement.
Management is:
A. Review culture results ++++
B. Give longer antibiotic regime
C. ?(May be repeat procedure is the right answer)
33. Patient returned the following day after extraction with gross bleeding from socket. Management is:
A. Irrigate and apply packing to stop bleeding and local anesthesia.
B. Gentle exploration of socket and local anesthesia. ++
38. Opening ostectomy to gain access when doing microsurgical apicectomy and using ultrasound tip is
A. 3mm
B. 5mm
C. 7mm
D. 12mm
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39. Patient with shallow vault and severely resorbed alveolar ridge require full denture. What augmentation is
needed for this patient
A. Onlay bone graft ++
B. Interpositional bone graft
C. Transpositional bone graft
D. Vestibuloplasty
41. The most common route of spread of infection from lower third molar
A. Lingucoritcal plate ++
B. Buccocortical palate
C. Lingo-Bucco cortical
D. Through associated muscle
42. 58 years patient with deficient alveolar ridges required construction of full denture and was determined by
the surgeon to undertake Dean’s method of alveoloplasty (augmentation). Disadvantage of this method is
A. ?
B. ?
Main disadvantage
1. Reduced ridge thickness
2. Inability to place implants (Contemporary Peterson)
43. 8 year old patient required extraction of decayed tooth and had history of easy bleeding. Hematological
picture includes increases BT, elevated APTT and normal PT. His condition is
a. Deficiency Factor VIII-C
b. ?
c. Von Willebrand disease++
d. Thrombocytopenic purpura
49. Pt after lower third molar surgery suffer severe bleeding, how will you control bleeding
50. 8 year girl require lower molar extraction due to severe caries. Gives history of bleeding. On lab
investigation, increased bleeding, increased APTT, normal PT. she is suffering from
c. DIC
d. Thrombocytopenia
c. –
d. –
52. 18 year old with impacted third molar bilateral with soft tissue and bone chance of eruption is
a. 10 – 30%
b. 30 – 50%
c. 50 – 80%
d. 100%
b. 15 degree angulation
c. 30 degree angulation
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d. Revaluate
a. Depth of impaction
56. Cyclosporine
d. –
d. No manipulation at base
c. –
d. –
a. Intraoral
b. Pharyngeal
c. Anterior to SCM
d. Angle of mandible
a. Interrupted suture
b. running suture
c. Subcuticular suture
d. Suture 1-0
64. Dsyesthesia is
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65. Maxillary molar teeth extraction infection spreading in to cranium through all except
c. Pharyngeal plexus
a. Staph
b. Streptococcus
c. Bacteriods
a. Intramembraneous ossification
b. Endochondral ossification
c. –
d. –
68. Extraction forceps number for lower anterior tooth (Only theory written)
151 – lower ant., 151A – mand bicuspids, 17 – molars lower, 23- cowhorn mandibular,
53 – up molars
18
210s – upper 3rd molar
88 – cowhorn
286 – bayonet
69. upper molar extraction IOPA – RS 26 Diabetic patients – open or closed extraction
70. cyst in the maxilla –enucleation or endodontic surgery or extraction – order of treatment
72. bleeding from the anterior maxilla while placing implant…. what will u do … just place implant
73. PPS Maxilla – 1mm bone from sinus.. narrow palatal vault – which surgery will u do…
increases
decreases,
no change,
SM,
79. Cavernous Sinus thrombosis – doesn’t occur ---- via Sup ophthalmic vein , inferior opthalmic, angular,
pterygoid plexus ?????????
81. Management of impacted tooth in 45 year old patient without any problem
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94. Following statement is true about ibuprofen
95. 24 year women with history of fatigue and lethargy and history of syncope. Clinically mid
systolic click with late systolic murmur. Probably she is suffering from
a. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Mitral stenosis
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LOCAL ANESTHESIA
1. A patient with history of uncontrolled hyperthyroidism requires surgery. Which is the surgeon’s is choice
of LA
a. Lidocaine
b. Mepivacaine -
c. Propoxycaine
2. A patient presents with submandibular space infection requiring I and D. The surgeon wishes to makes use
of EMLA for the site of Venipuncture. Which of the statements are correct
a. 0.2 mg
b. 0.02mg
c. 0.04mg
d. 0.0018 mg
4. A surgeon wants to use X tip system for intraosseous anesthesia of the mandibular premolar. What is the
size of the needle used(study from malamed)
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d. 30 gauge short needle
Mental – 27 short
Supraperiosteal – 27 short
PDL – 27 Short
Intraosseus – 27 short
a) prilocaine
b) mepivacaine
c) bupivacaine
d) lidocaine
6. A person on tricyclic antidepressants if injected with Lidocaine containing 1:100000 of epinephrine will
have the following effects
7. The heart has the following number of receptors sensitive to adrenaline in the body
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
8. An 8 year old child who weighs 16 kg is in need of extraction. How many carpules of 2% lidocaine with
1:100000 epi be safely given
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
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9. Pain conduction is through which nerve fibres
a. Unmyelinated c fibres
b. Myelinated c fibres
c. A fibres
10. After reversal of the IANB, in which of the structures will the effects first be felt
a. Central incisor
b. Canine
c. Premolar
d. Molar
11. An inexperienced dentist soaks his dental anesthetic cartridges in isopropyl alcohol. When he delivers a
nerve block what will be the effect ?
a. Gingival sloughing
b. Palatal ulcerations
c. Prolonged anesthesia
d. No change
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a. Tetracaine
b. Benzocaine
c. Prilocaine
d. Etidocaine
GENERAL ANESTHESIA
1. A patient who cannot maintain the airway has a tendency for vomiting. Best method to prevent aspiration is
by employing
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a. A cuffed ET tube
b. Laryngeal mask
c. ??
2. In a conscious patient with intact pharyngeal reflexes, which is the best method of maintaining
airway patent?
a. Nasopharyngeal airway
b. Venturi mask
d. Oropharyngeal airway
3. The anesthetist is at work in a pt with limited mouth opening and manages to secure his airway after
repeated attempts. Which of the following laryngeal cartilages are most likely traumatized
a. Cuneiform
b. Cricoid
c. Thyroid
4. Which of the following drugs need to be stopped on the day of the surgery
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Beta blockers
c. Thiazide Diuretics
d. Ca Channel blockers
5. During anesthesia, the patient starts coughing and body becomes rigid. The pt is apneic. Which of the
following drugs is not helpful in this condition
a.Lidocaine
b. Suxamethonium
c. Propofol
d. fentanyl
6. Which of the following devices can hold the maximum gastric content in case the patient accidently vomits.
a. Cuffed ET tube
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c. Cobra LMA(PLA - Perilaryngeal airway)
7. The drug of choice in Fentanyl associated chest wall rigidity is one of the following
a. Lido caine
b. Flumezenil
c. Nalaxone
d. Propranol
8. A 26 year old male patient has a skeletal class 2 with retrogenia. His BMI is 32. What is the best way to
secure his airway before surgery
d. Treacheostomy
9. In a post trauma patient who is obtunded, in whom pharyngeal reflexes are intact, which of the folowing is
advised to secure airway
b. Orotracheal airway
c. Nasopharyngeal airway
d. Nasal cannula
e. Venturi mask
10. General anesthetist uses topical anesthesia – which area– supraglottic , infraglottic (transtracheal) or glottic
(Question not clear)
11. Rotameter - used for what --- GAS flow ANESHTHESIA MEASURMENT.
15. Patient with difficult airway posted for surgery, premedication all except
A. Diazepam++
B. Ranitidine
18. TMJ ankylosis to pt. induced by inhalation anesthetic after 60 minutes pt produces crowing sound and
severe chestwall movement. Drug which will be not be useful is
a. IV Propofol
b. IV lidocaine
c. Sch
d. Fentanyl
19. Surgeon plans for surgery. Desires decreased secretion with slight depression of CNS, drug of choice
a. Atropine
b. Scopolamine +++
c. Glycopyrolate
20. First skeletal muscles to contract after using succinyl choline used during general anesthesia is
A. Eyelids
B. Shoulder
C. Hands
D. Abdomen
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c. Norepinephrine induced relapse of depression
DENTOFACIAL DEFORMITIES
1. A pt with Class 1 molar relation has severe retrogenia and a severe disparity in the anteroposterior relation
of her mand to maxilla relation. What Treatment plan
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a. Genioplasty
2. A patient walks into your clinic with subconjunctival ecchymosis without visualization of posterior limit.
(She also has black eye.? No nerve paresthesia. She gives h/o an Orthognathic surgery done to correct mid face
deformity. What would be the most likely procedure
a. High Lefort 1
b. Quadrangular lefort 2
c. Lefort 3
d. Pyramidal Lefort 2
3. A patient has midface deformity with deficiency in the malar and zygomatic regions. How would you
correct her condition.
b. Quadrangular lefort 2
c. Lefort 2
d. Lefort 3
4. While doing an IVRO osteotomy of the mandible for advancement, there is an unfavourable fracture high
in the proximal segment. What is the most apt way the surgeon should proceed.
b. Do a C osteotomy
6. Post operative numbness associated with the lower lip after BSSO is seen commonly after
d. Mandibular manipulation
9. After doing bimaxillary osteotomy and fixation the surgeon realises that the occlusion is unstable.
Management is:
A. Remove maxillary fixation and stabilise the occlusion and fix again
B. Remove mandibular fixation and stabilise the occlusion and fix again
C. Remove both maxillary and mandibular fixation and stabilise occlusion and fix again
D. Do nothing
a. Advancement genioplasty
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a. Dental midline and midsymphseal mismatch
d. –
PATHOLOGY
b. Temporalis
c. SCM
d. Skin graft
c) CEOT
3. Ulcer in the FOM in a 65 yr old. SOHND ( 1 to 3) is chosen to treat him. What are the reconstructive
options that are best suited?
a. PMMC
b. Temperomyofascial flap
c. Massetric ?
4. A ca of lower lip entails sacrificing 80% of the lower lip. Which is the best reconstructive option available?
b. Rotation flap
d.
5. A 54 year old man has undergone an anterior en-bloc resection of the mandible for treating as part of
cancer therapy. The surgeon wishes to use the clavicle based on the SCM to reconstruct the mandibular defect.
Select the statement which is true.
6. A 56 year old lady has a small giant cell granuloma in her mandible. She is diagnosed to be having
secondary hyperparathyroidism. What is the next step
c. Treat her renal condition and supplement with Vit D and Calcium
a. Sialolith
b. Mucocele
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c. Ranula
d. Pleomorphic adenoma
8. In a patient who is 30 years old, which of the following is the most common tumour
a. Ameloblastoma
b. CEOT
c. Cementoblastoma
d. AOT
e.
a. Lichen Planus
b. Erythema Multiforme
d. Pemphigus Vulgaris
10. A 45 year old man who is a chronic smoker for the past 25 years has been diagnosed with a well
differentiated carcinoma of the lower lip measuring 2 cm. On examination there are no palpable lymph nodes.
Which is the best method of treatment for him?
a. Wedge excision
b. Chemotherapy
c. Just observe
d. Radiotherapy
11. A 58 year old male presents with an ulcer that is 3x2 cm in size with no palpable lymph nodes. Contrast
enhanced CT is done and reveals no cortical perforation in the lesion and no lymphatic involvement. A SND(i-
iii) is planned for his treatment. The surgeon wishes to reconstruct the defect. His best option is
a. PMMC
12. cysts of jaws usually cause CORTICAL EXPANSION, ROOT RESORPTION, TOOTH DISPLACEMNT
14. Most common tumor in pediatric age group – haemangioma. Lipoma, fibroma
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15. Recent modality of treatment of pagets disease
19. 0.4 cm lesion found below ear lobe. The lesion is:
A. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying connective tissue sebaceous cyst.
B. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying connective tissue epidermoid cyst.
C. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying connective tissue sebaceous cyst.
D. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying connective tissue epidermoid cyst.
a. Lateral cutaneous
b. Lateral femoral
c. Superior cuneal
d. –
24.
25.
c. Abbe flap
d. Radial ?
e.
a. Indicated in OKC
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c. Treatment of Dentigerous cyst
d. –
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CLEFTS AND SYNDROMES
a. Collumela lengthening
b. Creation of vermillion
2. A 7 year old boy has come to your maxillofacial clinic with a history of congenital facial deformity. His
OMENS score is 8. What systemic examination will you send the boy to next.
7. Patient with Treacher Collins syndrome needed correction of mandibular deficiency which included 12cm
advancement. Best approach is
A. BSSO
B. Inverted L osteotomy ++ extra oral
C. Intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy
D. Extraoral vertical ramus osteotomy
Peter ward Booth 2 page 947
9. Cleft palate patient prepared for modified lefort I osteotomy. How much advancement the surgeon plans to
counteract relapse during osteotomy and bone graft healing period and to adjust posterior placed condyle
intraoperatively.
a. 1mm
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b. 2mm
c. 4mm
d. 6mm
a. Synovial joint
b. Fibrous joint
c. Catrilagenous tissue
d. Fibrous tissue
11. Pt with wide cleft lip and palate lip adhesion or nasoalveolar molding planned
c. Third to sixth
d. 6–9
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TRAUMA
1. A 25 year old man is admitted for surgery after RTA with diagnosis of Bilateral Condylar # with
communition of Midface. This condition is a case for
a. Medial displacement
b. Lateral displacement
c. Inferior displacement
d. No displacement
a. Pulse pressure
b. Heart rate
4. An 8 year old child has sustained a fracture of the condyle. What is the indication for ORIF
a. Dentoalveolar injury
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5. A 34 year old man has sustained a MVA with fractures of the skull base with orbital fractures. On
examination for consensual light reflex in the right eye, there is a negative response. The same reflex for the left
eye is normal. There is associated ptosis of the left eye. The pt has damage to
a. CN1 on the L; CN 2 R
6. A patient has sustained head injury after MVA. He has cerebral concussion and is in coma. If the patient
stays in coma for how many hours, will there be residual nuerological deficit.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8 0r 6
7. predominant medial wall of orbit – ethmoid(lateral wall – zygomatic & gr wing of sphenoid, floor – orbital
surface of maxilla, palatine bone and zygoma)
8. Placement of
13. What is the CT scan interval for zygomaticfracture: (OBLIQUE PARASAGITTAL VIEW FOR ORBITAL
FRACTURES)
A. 0.5mm
B. 1-1.5mm
C. 15.2.5mm
D. 2.5-3.5
14. In maxillofacial trauma patient with suspected injury to cervical thoracic vertebra, the diagnostic
radiograph is:
A. ?
B. ?
C. ?
D. swimmers view or cross table views
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C. 5-6 weeks
16. Trauma patient with pulse rate =130, BP 100/60, breathing =30/mint, how much blood loss is expected in
this patient
A. Less than 15%
B. 15-30%
C. 40%
D. 30-40 % ++
18. Glasgow comma scale score in trauma patient who is non responsive to verbal communication + can open
the eye + responds to pain stimuli
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
21. Trauma patent to the skull showed vertical diplopia and torsional diplopia. The most likely injured nerve
A. II
B. III
C. IV++
D. V
22. Trauma patient developed asymmetrical pupil (Not round). The most likely cause
A. Blow out fracture
B. Blow in fracture
C. Perforation of the eye ball
D. ?
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25. Orbital floor trauma which gaze cause diplopia
26. 24 year female with angle fracture. Surgeon decides to fix with compression plating technique. Following
is true
b. Incomplete fracture
d. –
d. –
29. Ptosis
B. –
C. –
D. –
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TMJ
d. ??
3. What is the position of disc irt to condyle in case of early internal derangement when mandible is in closed
position
d. No change
5. stylomandibular ligament
a. Formed from the parotid fascia
b. Runs from styloid process to the angle mandible
c. Lateral check ligament
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d. Prevents the movement of the condyle
6. Disc position
b. –
c. –
d. –
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