Mixing

1. Which of the following randomization during mixing unit operation?

A. Dissimilar charges C. Dissimilar ions
B. Dissimilar forces D. Dissimilar particles

2. Mixing must be done at lower speed for semisolid, as some of them many exhibit one of
the following rheological behavior.
A. Dilatants flow C. Pseudo plastic flow
B. Plastic flow D. Thixotropy

3. In which type of mixer, the trough is stationary?

A. Barrel mixer C. Ribbon mixer
B. Double cone blender D. Zigzag mixer

4. When paddle is used for mixing of liquids, the flow pattern of a fluid is;
A. Axial and tangential C. radial and tangential
B. Axial or tangential D. radial or tangential

5. Which of the following forces aids the tumbling action for promoting inter-particle
movement
A. Electrostatic force C. Surface force
B. Gravitational force D. Van der walls force

6. Which type of particle-particle interactions is experienced on account of surface charges

reduced during mixing of solids?
A. Attractions C. Diffusion
B. Collisions D. Repulsions

7. In dispensing, which one of the following terms is NOT used for mixing?
A. Sizing C. Trituration
B. Spatulation D. Tumbling

8. Solid mixing does NOT differ from liquid mixing in one of the following ways.
A. Flow currents are not possibles
B. Homogeneity of components
C. Large sample is required for analysis
D. Mixing requires high power

9. Mixing of ingredients is a problem when

 A. Amount of active constituent is low
B. Dose of drug is high
C. Materials are non-cohesive
D. Shape of the components are similar

10. Uneven mixing leads one of the following problems in tablets manufacture.
A. Content uniformity variation
B. Disintegration time fluctuates
C. Friability problems
D. Poor flow of granules

11. Which mixing equipment produce tumbling as a mechanism in solid-solid mixing?

A. Fluidized mixer C. Sigma blender
B. Ribbon blender D. V-Cone blender

12. Which one of these is NOT a factor influencing the selection of emulsifier?
A. Conductivity of liquids
B. Quantity of emulsion to be prepared
C. Rheological properties of liquids
D. Temperature maintenance
13. Silverson mixer is used for the preparation of:
A. Elixir C. Mouth wash
B. Emulsion D. Syrup

14. Which of these is NOT a mechanism of liquid mixing?

A. Bulk transport mixing C. Shear mixing
B. Laminar mixing D. Turbulent mixing

15. Convective mixing is also termed as ;

A. Diffusive mixing C. Micro-mixing
B. Macro-mixing D. Shear mixing

16. Which type of action is required for wet granulation, when planetary mixer is used?
A. Agitator action C. Kneading action
B. Blending action D. Shearing action

17. What is the shape of mixing element present in Zig-zag mixer?

A. Cube shape C. Sigma shape
B. Double cone shape D. V-shape
18. The mechanism of mixing in Silverson mixer is:
A. Convective mixing C. Molecular diffusion
B. Laminar mixing D. Turbulent mixing

19. Degree of mixing is also known as:

A. Degree of homogeneity C. Ordered mixing
B. Extent of mixing D. Random mixing

20. Mixing of semisolids is carried out using one of the following equipment.
A. Double cone mixer C. Planetary mixer
B. Fluidized bed mixer D. Cube mixer

21. Which is the example of solid-liquid mixing?

A. Aluminum hydroxide gel
B. B . complex elixir
C. Cod liver oil emulsion
D. Ephedrine syrup

22. Select one of these is a suitable mixing element for emulsification.

A. Marine type propeller C. Simple propeller
B. Paddles D. Turbines

23. The mechanism of mixing in sigma blade is:

A. Convective mixing C. Shearing
B. Diffusive mixing D. Tumbling
 Flow of Fluids
1. Which one of the following is known as fluid?
A. Always expands until it fills in the container
B. Cannot be subjected to shear forces
C. Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear forces
D. Practically compressible
2. Which one of these instruments is suitable for measuring a minute pressure differences in
a fluid?
A. Diaphragm pressure gauge
B. Inclined manometer
C. Simple manometer
D. U-tube differential manometer

3. Which type of head is measured using pitot-tube?

A. Kinetic velocity heat
B. Pressure head
C. Static velocity head
D. Total head

4. Which one of the properties is responsible for the use of mercury in manometers?
A. High surface tension
B. High vapour pressure
C. Low specific gravity
D. Low vapour pressure

5. How many liquids are used in differential manometer?

A. Four C. Three
B. One D. Two

6. Which one of the following experiments is used for the study of flow of fluids?
A. Bernoulis C. Reynolds
B. Orifice meter D. strokes

7. Reynolds number is indicative of one of the following.

A. Fluid flow type C. Pumping rate
B. Frictional factor D. Roughness of the pipe

8. Reynolds number depends on one of the following factors.

A. Roughness of the pipe
 B. Surface area of the pipe
C. Viscosity of the liquid
D. Volume of the liquid

9. Pressure at a point in a static mass of liquid depends on one of the following factors.
A. Depth below the free liquid surface
B. Shape and size of bounding container
C. Specific weight of liquid and depth below the free liquid surface
D. Specific weight of liquid, depth below the free liquid surface and shape and size
of the bounding container

10. Reynolds number may be defined as the ratio of the following factore.
A. Elastic forces to pressure forces
B. Gravity forces to inertial forces
C. Inertial forces to viscous forces
D. Viscous forces to inertial forces

11. In the flow of fluids ,the inertial forces depend on one of the following.
A. Mass
B. Mass and velocity
C. Mass, velocity and density
D. Mass, velocity, density and velocity

12. Measurement of time of flow is important for the determination of flow of fluids in one
of the following.
A. Displacement meter
B. Orifice meter
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter

13. Which of the following gives direct reading of flow of fluids?

A. Orifice meter
B. Pitot tube
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter

14. Which one of the following does NOT require manometer in the construction of flow
meters.
A. Orifice meter
B. Piot tube
 C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter

15. Which one of these is having a single tapered section for the measurement of flow of
fluids?
A. Orifice meter
B. Pitot tube
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter
16. Which one of the following uses a thin plate for the measurement of flow of fluids?
A. Orifice meter
B. Pitot tube
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter
17. Displacement meter is used to measure one of the following.
A. Head loss of liquid
B. Velocity of liquid
C. Volume of liquid
D. Weight of liquid
18. Which one of the following is NOT covered under the definition of fluids?
A. Gases C. solids
B. Liquids D. Vapour
19. Which one of the following factors is responsible for frictional factor, f, of a rough pipe
and turbulent flow?
A. Relative roughness
B. Reynolds number
C. Reynolds number and relative roughness
D. Size of the pipe and the discharge
20. The fluid flow in which the fluid particles in one layer do not mix with the fluid particles
in the other layer is called as
A. laminar flow
B. turbulent flow
C. layer flow
D. none of the above
21. If the Reynolds number is less than 2000, the flow in a pipe is

A. Turbulent
B. Laminar
C. Transition
D. Viscous flow
 Size Reduction
1. Choose the mill that does NOT involve shearing mechanism for size reduction.
A. Fluid energy mill
B. Edge runner mill
C. End runner mill
D. Hammer mill
2. Size reduction of materials has one of the following disadvantages.
A. High degradation
B. High dissolution
C. High flow of materials
D. High surface area
3. Which one of the following sequences is involved in the mechanisms of size reduction?
A. Chipping and cracks
B. Chipping and flaws
C. Chipping, flaws and cracks
D. Chipping, flaws, cracks and cleavage
4. Which mechanism is observed in a ball mill for size reduction?
A. Attrition and cutting
B. Compression and impact
C. Cutting and compression
D. Impact and attrition
5. Which milll includes a screen as an integral part of the size reduction?
A. Ball mill
B. Colloidal mill
C. Edge runner mill
D. Hammer mill
6. Which one of the following is not true in case of construction of hammer mill?
A. Hammers are flat or sharp edges
B. Hammer are rigid or swing type
C. Metal sheet with holes or slots
D. Woven type of screen
7. Fluid energy mill is also known as
A. Micronizers
B. Jet mill
C. Pulverizers
D. Pebble mill
8. End runner mill works on the principle of
A. Crushing and friction
B. Cutting and attrition
C. Crushing and shearing
D. Crushing and grinding
 9. This mill do not have any moving part in the grinding area:

A. Disintegrator mill
B. Hammer mill
C. Colloid mill
D. Fluid energy mill
10. Which of following mill is free from wear?

A. Ball mill
B. Roller mill
C. Edge runner mill
D. Fluid energy mill
11. In Ball mill, how much volume should be occupied by material:
A. 10-30%
B. 5-20%
C. 50-70%
D. 30-50%

12. Fluid energy mill reduces the particles upto___________

A. 8 micron or less
B. 6 micron or less
C. 5 micron or less
D. 3 micron or less

13. Which of the following is NOT a method used for size reduction?
A. Cutting
B. Impact
C. Burning
D. Shear

14.According to Rittingers law, work required is proportional to

A. Energy Consumed
B. Surface area created
C. Final Volume
D. Initial feed

15. On which of the given, Kick’s law is based?

A. Cumulative analysis
B. Frequency analysis
C. Stress analysis
D. Screen analysis
16. The ratio of initial particle size to final particle size is defined as _____

A. Reduction ratio
B. Kick’s ratio
C. Rittingers ratio
D. Bond’s ratio

17. Which kind of mill can be used for hygroscopic materials:

A. Colloid mill
B. Percolation ball mill
C. Fluid energy mill
D. Hammer mill
18. As the rate of feed increases, the size reduction ____

A. Increases
B. Remains constant
C. Equals
D. Decreases
19. The output of size reduction of material in a machine depends on:

A. Chemical nature
B. Physical characteristics
C. Bulk density
D. All of the above
20. which one of the following is NOT a size reduction process?
A. Clarification
B. Communition
C. Diminution
D. Pulverization

Size Separation
1. Size separation is NOT based on one of the following properties.
A. Particle density
B. Particle Shape
C. Particle size
D. Particle Texture
2. Which one of the screen is used for size separation of big and heavy particles?
A. Bar screens
B. Blotting cloth sieves
C. Punched plate screens
D. Woven wire screens
3. In cyclone separator, the separation depends on:
A. Density and Shape
B. Shape and Surface area
C. Size and Density
 D. Surface Texture and Size
4. During size separation, movement of particles can be enhanced by one of the following modes.
A. Agitation
B. Attrition
C. Gravitation
D. Mixing
5. In Air separator, centrifugal force for circulation of air is applied by one of the following ways.
A. Applying Vacuum
B. Atomizing air
C. Pumping
D. Rotating blades
6. Choose the equipment in which filtering period and shaking period are alternatively observed.
A. Air separation
B. Bag filter
C. Cyclone separator
D. Sieve shaker
7. Choose one of the following statements do NOT suit sieve shaker
A. Aperture get clogged
B. Attrition causing size reduction
C. Lower limit of particle size is 50 micrometer
D. Method is tedius
8. size classifying is also known in one of the following terms
A. size analysis
B. size distribution
C. size reduction
D. size separation
9. which is the term used to describe the material that remain on the screening surface
A. medium size material
B. over size material
C. minus material
D. undersize material
10. which equipment is used for separation of solid suspended in fluid
A. sieve shaker
B. air separator
C. cyclone separator
D. vertex screen
11. Which one of the screen is attached to the Hammer mill.
A. Bar screens
B. Bolting cloth sieves
C. Punched plate screens
D. Woven wire screens
12. Which one of the following indicates the nominal size of aperture?
A. Area of the mesh as percentage
B. Distance b/w two adjacent wire
 C. Number of meshes per linear length
D. Wire having specific diameter that gives suitable aperture.
13. Brushing methods hastens the movement of one of the following materials
A. Coarse material
B. Dry material
C. Sticky material
D. Light material
14. Flywheel is used to enhance the spinning motion of particles by one of the following modes.
A. Brushing mode
B. Gyration mode
C. Centrifugal mode
D. Oscillation mode
15. Which equipment is used for sieve analysis according to its particle size with nest.
A. cyclone separator
B. Sieve shaker
C. Air separator
D. Rotex screen
16. Which is the disadvantages of Sieve shaker method
A. Rapid
B. Capacity limited
C. Expensive equipment
D. Tedious
17. which is the term used to describe the material that passing from the screening surface
A. medium size material
B. over size material
C. minus material
D. undersize material
18. Choose the equipment in which low density of fine particle and high density of coarse particle are
separated?
A. Air separator
B. Bag filter
C. Elutriation method / tank
D. Cyclone separator
19. Which is the sieve number used to separate the moderately fine particle according to B.P
A. 10
B. 85
C. 120
D. 44
20. Which particle/ powder it is referred as 10/44 powder.
A. Coarse particle
B. fine particle
C. Moderately coarse particle
D. Very fine particle
21. Which particle/ powder it is referred as 44/85 powder.
 A. Coarse particle
B. Moderately fine particle
C. Fine particle
D. Very fine particle
22. Which is the sieve number used to separate the Very fine particle according to B.P
A. 120
B. 10
C. 44
D. 85
23. Which one of the following disadvantages of oscillation method of size separation.
A. Agitation method have lower limit of the particle size
B. Expensive
C. The material may roll on the surface of the sieve
D. Useful for only fine powder
24. What is the distance b/w the number of mesh in each direction?
A. 25.3 mm
B. 25.7 mm
C. 25.9 mm
D. 25.4 mm
25. Choose the material is NOT used for the manufacturing of sieves
A. Iron
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Stainless steel

Evaporation
1. Which one of the following condition is correct for evaporation?
A. Constituents must be thermo labile
B. Liquid must be viscous
C. Solvent must be non-volatile
D. Solvent must volatile

2. In climbing film evaporator, the problem in evaporation is:

A. Boiling point of liquid
B. Droplet formation
C. Entrainment of liquid
D. Film formation

3. Which is the factor that does not influence the rate of evaporation?
A. Difference in vapour pressure
B. Melting point of solid
C. Surface area of the evaporator
D. Viscosity of the solution
4. Which type of equipment gives porous on evaporation?
A. Film evaporator
B. Multiple effect evaporator
C. Open pan evaporator
D. Vacuum evaporator

5. Calendria consists of a number of:

A. Baffles
B. Jackets
C. Outlets
D. Tubular surface

6. Which is operation subsequent to evaporation?

A. Crystallization
B. Distillation
C. Drying
D. Extraction

7. The cost per square meter of heating surface is usually high in one of the evaporators.
A. Horizontal tube evaporator
B. Falling film evaporator
C. Steam jacketed kettle
D. Vertical tube evaporator

8. Which evaporator is used to concentrate insulin, liver extraction and vitamins?

A. Climbing film evaporator
B. Falling film evaporator
C. Horizontal tube evaporator
D. Vertical tube evaporator

9. In climbing film evaporator, what is the purpose of the entrainment separator?

A. Allowing the heat to transfer
B. Allowing the vapour to escape
C. Breaking the foam
D. Pulling the liquid up

10. In equation ,Q=UA∆t ,U is overall heat transfer coefficient and its unit are:
A. W/m²xk
B. m²x K/W
C. W/m x k²
D. m x K²/W

11. What is the source of heat in most of evaporators?

A. Coal
B. Hot water
C. Oil bath
 D. Steam

12. Pick a suitable evaporator also helps in growing of coarse crystals.

A. Forced circulation evaporator
B. Long tube vertical evaporator
C. Multiple effect evaporator
D. Short tube vertical evaporator

13. Triple effect evaporator uses one of the following type evaporators?
A. Climbing film evaporator
B. Falling film evaporator
C. Horizontal tube evaporator
D. Vertical tube evaporator

14. Which one of following factors increases the efficiency of evaporator?

A. High moisture content
B. High velocity flow
C. High viscosity of liquid
D. High volume of liquid
15. Which is the purpose of a deflector in a forced circulation evaporator?
A. Creates large surface area
B. Facilitates pumping of liquid
C. Promotes separation of liquid and vapour
D. Provides heat to evaporator

16. Which condition of evaporation is used for the production of malt extraction
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. High pressure
C. Normal pressure
D. Reduced pressure

17. Dry extraction of belladonna is prepared by exposing the material to one of the following
condition
A. First to higher temperature and then to lower temperature
B. First to lower temperature and then to higher temperature
C. Higher temperature
D. Lower temperature

18. Steam side film coefficient are increased by one of the following method.
A. Condensing liquid at low temperature
B. Decreasing the velocity of liquid
C. Non-condensed gas in steam should be minimum
D. Temperature drop should be small

19. From the following, select the one that forms scales in a evaporator.
A. Benzoic acid
B. Calcium sulphate
 C. Salicylic acid
D. Sodium chloride

20. Which one the following is more heat sensitive during evaporation?
A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Hormones
D. Volatile oils
21. Which type of evaporator is suitable for thermo labile substance and highly viscous preparations?
A. Forced circulation evaporator
B. Horizontal tube evaporator
C. Short tube vertical evaporator
D. Steam jacketed kettle

22. Select the preferable evaporator suitable for corrosive liquid that gives a crystalline products.
A. Falling film evaporator
B. Forced circulation evaporator
C. Horizontal film evaporator
D. Vertical evaporator

23. Normally evaporation process is called out at one of the following experimental conditions.
A. Above the boiling temperature
B. At the boiling temperature
C. Below the boiling temperature
D. Room temperature

Flow Heat Transfer

1. Heat brings ------- changes
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Reversible
D. Periodic
2. In convection heat transfer energy transfer takes place between
A. Two solid surfaces connected physically
B. Solid surface and fluid system in motion
C. For Immiscible fluids
D. Metallic rod
3. Micro wave oven, the heat flows in one of the following mechanisms.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
E. Diffusion
4. Which heat interchanger consist of bent tubes?
 A. Double pipe heat interchanger
B. Floating head two pass heater
C. Multi pass heater
D. Tubular heater
5. Which one of following has high thermal conductivity?
A. Copper
B. Glass
C. Stainless steel
D. Steel
6. According to Fourier’s law, conduction of heat through a metal wall is:
A. Inversely proportional to temperature difference
B. Proportional to area of metal wall
C. Proportional to thickness of wall
D. Proportional to weight of metal wall
7. Which type of steam is NOT suitable for heat transfer?
A. At saturated temperature
B. Dry steam
C. Steam at low pressure
D. Super heated steam
8. Which one of the following bodies radiates maximum amount of energy at a given temperature
A. Black body
B. Grey body
C. Light grey body
D. Polished black body
9. In convection process for a liquid in a tube, one of the following offers great resistance.
A. Central layer of liquid
B. Liquid layer adhered to the metal wall
C. Metal wall
D. Stagnant liquid layer between viscous and turbulent flow
10. A black body satisfies one of the following conditions.
A. Absorb less energy than it receives
B. Absorb energy, it receives
C. Radiate all the energy it receives
D. Radiate less energy than it receives
11. Which one of the following is responsible for the heat transfer by natural convection?
A. Agitation
B. Density of vapour
C. Material of construction
D. Surface area
12. Which of the following is correct according to Stefan- Boltzmann Law?
A. q = bA T
B. q = bA T2
C. q = bA T3
D. q = bA T⁴
13. Forced convection is applied in one of the following operations.
A. Centrifugation
B. Crystallization
C. Distillation
D. Evaporation
14. Which one of the following equipment is an example of heat transfer by radiation?
A. Hot air oven
B. Incubator
C. Microwave oven
D. Refrigerator
15. In double pipe heat exchanger, the two tubes are arranged in one of the following ways.
A. Coaxial
B. Concentric
C. Parallel
D. Series
16. Heat exchangers are NOT used in one of the following unit operations.
A. Centrifugation
B. Crystallization
C. Drying
D. Size separation
17. What is the purpose of baffles in a heat exchangers?
A. Allowing a single pass
B. Increasing the cross section of path
C. Increasing the path of travel
D. Reducing turbulence
18. Which heater is highly efficient heat interchanger?
A. Double pipe heater
B. Multi pass heater
C. Tubular heater
D. Two pass floating head heater
19. Which one of the following is responsible for the heat transfer by natural convection?
A. Agitation
B. Density of vapour
C. Material of construction
D. Surface area
20. The reason for arranging baffles in a liquid-liquid interchangers is NOT true.
A. Increase the velocity of flow of outside liquid
B. Enhance multipass of cold fluid
C. Enhance the surface area of contact
D. Create more turbulence

Drying
1. Drying is essential after one of the following unit operation.
 A. Crystallization
B. Evaporation
C. Mixing
D. Size reduction
2. For mixing the effective drying conditions, which processing factors is essential ?
A. Height
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Weight
3. At a given temperature and humidity, if the moisture content of a material is greater than
equilibrium moisture content, then the following process tales place.
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Desorption
D. Sorption
4. Fluidized bed dryer has one of the following advantages?
A. Attrition is not observed
B. Entire material is continuously exposed to heat source
C. Fluffy mass is formed
D. Humidity can be increased
5. Which one of the following dryers is known as lyophiliser?
A. Fluidized bed dryer
B. Freeze dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Vacuum dryer
6. Which product is NOT dried by spary dryer?
A. Bacterial and viral cultures
B. Fruit juice
C. Lactose
D. Serum
7. Hot spot are formed during one of the following drying periods?
A. Constant rate periods
B. First falling periods
C. Initial readjustment periods
D. Second falling periods
8. Drying process takes long time in one of the following equipment.
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Tray dryer
9. The product becomes porous, when the following equipment for drying is used.
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Spray dryer
 D. Tray dryer
10. Thermo labile substances can NOT be dried using one of the following equipment.
A. Drum dryer
B. Lyophilizer
C. Spray dryer
D. Tray dryer
11. In drying process, the final product is in the form of:
A. Slurry
B. Solid
C. Solution
D. Solvent concentrate
12. Which condition is highly critical for drying operation?
A. Moisture
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume
13. High vaccum is applied in one of the following drying processes?
A. Drum drying
B. Freeze drying
C. Spray drying
D. Tray drying
14. In a fluidized bed dryer, a pre filter is included for filtering one of the following.
A. Air
B. Fines
C. Moisture
D. Particles
15. After the unsaturated drying is completed------------- start to evaporate?
A. Bound
B. Unbound
C. Equilibrium
D. Moisture
16. Boiling bed” term is connected with one of the following dryer
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Tray dryer
17. In which dryer final container such as single dose and multi dose vials are dried.
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Freeze dryer
D. Tray dryer
18. In a spray dryer, the particle size is closely controlled by one of the following part of the dryer.
A. Atomizer
B. Cyclone separator
 C. Drying chamber
D. Fluid bed
19. For drying blood plasma the following technique is used.
A. Vaccum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Freeze dryer
D. Tray dryer
20. In which step of the freeze dryer, most of the water is removed during drying?
A. Prefreezing
B. Pretreatment
C. Primary drying
D. Secondary drying

FILTRATION
1. Filtration is a unit operation that is commonly used for collecting
A. Filtrate
B. Particular matter
C. Precipitate
D. Slurry
2. In clarification process, which is the factor more important?
A. Depth of the media
B. Pore size of the filter media
C. Surface area of filter
D. Volume of slurry
3. Who has proposed that the filtration process is similar to the streamline flow of a liquid under
pressure through capillaries?
A. Carman
B. Darcy
C. Kozeny
D. Poiseuilli
4. The fluid flows through the filter medium by virtue of:
A. Potential difference across the filter
B. Pressure difference across the filter
C. Temperature difference across the filter
D. Volume difference across the filter
5. Filter ads are mainly used when:
A. Liquid id required as product
B. Filter medium is not available
C. Solid and liquid are required as product
D. Solids are required as product
6. On what aspect of pressure does the filter leaf works?
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Negative pressure
C. Normal pressure
 D. Pressure is zero
7. Which one the following is NOT a mechanism of filtration?
A. Entanglement
B. Impact
C. Impingement
D. Straining
8. Cellulose membrane filter is an example for which type of filtration?
A. Cake filtration
B. Decantation filtration
C. Depth filtration
D. Screen filtration
9. Which of the following acts as a mechanical support for the filter cake and is also responsible for
the collection of solids?
A. Feed
B. Filter aid
C. Filter medium
D. Funnel
10. The efficiency of filtration increases if:
A. Compressibility of solid is high
B. Filter aid is added to the slurry
C. Filter medium is used
D. Size distribution of solids is wide in slurry
11. Which is the operation that is next to filtration?
A. Centrifugation of filtrate
B. Distillation of filtrate
C. Drying of solids
D. Washing of filter cake
12. One of the following equation is used for explaining the theory of filtration?
A. Darcy’s equation
B. Stefan-Boltzmann equation
C. Stokes equation
D. Daltons equation
13. For sterile filtration, one the following techniques is used
A. Cake filtration
B. Depth filtration
C. Electrostatic filtration
D. Surface filtration
14. Which one of the following is NOT an example of filter aid?
A. Activated charcoal
B. Bentonite
C. Kaolin
D. Talc
15. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of filter aid?
A. Chemically active
B. Porous
C. Recoverable
D. Removes coloured substance .
 16. Which one of the following mechanisms is involved in case of meta filter ?
A. Cake filtration
B. Depth filtration
C. Surface filtration
D. Zig zag filtration
17. In the filter press operation, the plates, frames and washing plates are arranged in the following
sequence (1 represents plate 2 represents frame 3 represents washing plates).
A. 1,2,3.1,1,2,3,1
B. 1,2,3,2,2,3,2
C.1,2,3,2,1,2,3,2,1
D.1,2,3,1,2,1,3,1

18. which is the filter used for clarification of syrups ?

A. Drum filter
B. Filter leaf
C. Meta filter
D.Plate and frame
19. which one of the following types of filters is suitable for separation of mycelium from a penicillin
broth ?
A. Cartridge filter
B. Leaf filter
C. Membrane filter
D. Rotary drum filter
20. which is the made of polypropylene ?
A. Cartridge filter
B. Meta filter
C. Rotary drum filter
D. Plate and frame filter

CENTRIFUGATION
1. Which is the principle difference(in the properties) that influences centrifugation?
A. Densities C. Particle sizes
B. Interfacial tensions D. Viscosities

2. Centrifugal method is used for one of the following process.

A. Mixing C. Separation
B. Purification D. Sizing

3. Centrifugal effect counter-acts one of the following forces

A. Brownian forces C. Electrostatic forces
B. Cohesive forces D. Gravitationalforces

4. Which of the following centrifuges works against the gravitational acceleration?

A. Conical disk centrifuge
B. Continuous horizontal centrifuge
C. Perforated basket centrifuge
D. Semi-continuous centrifuge
 5. The solid that has high specific gravity remains in one of the following states in the centrifuge
tube, once centrifugation is completed.
A. Bottom
B. Middle
C. Top
D. Uniform

6. Which one of the following forces greatly enhances the separation forces?
A. Brownian forces
B. Centrifugal forces
C. Gravitational forces
D. Van der Waals forces

7. Centrifugal effect is expressed in one of the following ratios.

A. Centrifugal force to density of liquid
B. Centrifugal force to gravitational force
C. Centrifugal force to sedimentation force
D. Gravitation force to sedimentation force

8. What are the two factors responsible for separation by centrifugation?

A. Density and sedimentation force
B. Density and speed of rotation
C. Diameter and speed of rotation
D. Speed of rotation and sedimentation force

9. Centrifugation is useful in one of the following types of dispersions.

A. Coarse dispersions
B. Colloidal dispersions
C. Molecular dispersions
D. Multi-size dispersions
11. For the sedimentation type, the centrifuge has one the following conditions

A. Basket is non perforated.

B. Basket is perforated
C. Containing filter aid.
D. Containing filter medium
12. Washing of solid is NOT possible in one of the following centrifuges
A. Non-perforated basket centrifuge
B. Perforated basket centrifuge
C. Semi-continuous centrifuge
D. Super-centrifuge
13. Conical disc centrifuge works on the following mechanisms of separation

A. Clarification
B. Filtration
 C. Gravity separation
D. Sedimentation
14. Continuous horizontal centrifuge consists of the following parts
A. Filter cloth
B. Knife
C. Screw elements
D. Weirs
15. Weirs are employed in centrifugation process for one of the following purpose
A. Adding water for washing
B. Prevention Air entrapment
C. Removing liquid
D separate solid

16. Centrifuge are used for the analysis of dosage form in term of the following stabilities
A. Chemical stability
B. Photostability
C. Physical stability
D. Thermal stability
17. Which one of there is the gravitational constant in SI unit (m/s2)?

A. 0.09807.
B. 0.9807
C. 9.807.
D. 98.07
18. The velocity of the centrifuge of Commonly expressed in term the following

A. Diameter
B. Meter per second square
C. Meter square per serving.
D. Revolution per Minute
19. Which is example of batch type centrifuge?

A. Conical disc centrifuge.

B. Horizontal centrifuge
C. Perforated basket centrifuge.
D. Superifuge
20. Which one of the following is an under driven centrifuge

A. Horizontal continuous centrifuge

B. Perforated basket centrifuge
C. Semi-continuous centrifuge
D. Conical disc centrifuge
21.During discharge, breaking of crystals is possible in one of the following centrifuges

A. Horizontal continuous centrifuge

B. Non-perforated basket centrifuge
 C. Semi-continuous centrifuge
D. D. Super centrifuge
22. Which factor does NOT affect the separation process of a centrifuge?

A. Centrifugation time
B. Natural of slurry
C. Temperature
D. Speed of centrifuge
23. Which one of the following is a filtration centrifuge?

A. Conical disc centrifuge.

B. Continuous horizontal centrifuge
C. Perforated basket centrifuge
D. super-centrifuge
24. De lavalclasifier is used for

A. Centrifugation.
B. Clarification
C. Sedimentation centrifuge.
D. Sedimentation
25. Bacteria enzymes are prepared by removing bacteria. Suggest the possible method of separation

A. Filtration centrifuge.
B. Perforated centrifuge
C. Sedimentation centrifuge
D. Vacuum filter

MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION &

CORROSION
1. In pharmaceutical packing, collapsible tubes made from lead are not used as such, for one of the
following reasons.
a. Costly metal b. Difficulty in packing
c. Risk of poisoning d. Soft in strength

2. One of the following glass containers is used for the storage of light sensitive pharmaceuticals.
a. Air-tight b. Amber coloured
c. Unit dose d. Well closed

3. Hermetic sealed containers are also known as:

a. Air-tight containers b. Multi-dose containers
c. Single-dose containers d. Well-closed containers
4. Which metal makes the steel corrosion resistant?
a. Chromium and nickel b. Copper and selenium
c. Tantalum and molybdenum d. Titanium and niobium

5. Which type of rubber is used as lining material that can bond easily to the steel, in the plant
construction?
a. Butyl rubber b. Carbon rubber
c. Hard rubber d. Soft rubber

6. Phenolic plastics are one of the following types of plastics

a. Flexible material b. Metallic surface
c. Plastic cement d. Rigid material

7. Which metals improve creep and fatigue resistance properties of lead?

a. Chromium b. Copper
c. Silicon d. Tin

8. Increase in temperature does NOT enhance the extent of corrosion by one of the following conditions
a. Diffusivity of the corroding medium
b. Solubility of the constituents of the metal in the corroding media
c. Thickness of the oxide film
d. Volatility of the constituents of the metal

9. The ability of a metal surface to withstand repeated cycles of corrosion is known as:
a. Cavitation erosion b. corrosion fatigue
c. Erosion d. Stress of corrosion cracking

10. One of the following types of corrosion is NOT related to liquids flow related corrosion
a. Cavitation erosion b. Erosion
c. Fretting corrosion d. Impingement corrosion

11. The corrosion of aluminum metal is prevented, due to one of the following film characteristics
a. Thick and nonporous film b. Thick and porous film
c. Thin and nonporous film d. Thin and porous film

12. In cathodic protection, one of the following effects is suppressed

a. Dissolution of anode b. Dissolution of cathode
c. Dissolution of oxide film d. Electric current

13. Which one of the following conditions is NOT responsible for preventing the corrosion?
a. Inhibiting the flow of current b. Decreasing the temperature
c. Removing air and oxygen d. Removing inhibitor

14. Anodic protection controls the corrosion based on one of the following mechanisms.
a. Adding inhibitors b. Decreasing the current flow
c. Drainage of liquid d. Promoting oxide layer

15. Which one of the following metals can retard the corrosion of metals?
 a. Carbon steel b. Chromium
c. Iron d. Zinc

Distillation
1. Equilibrium distillation is also known as
A. Azeotropic distillation
B. Flash distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation
2. Which liquid distills first among the following
A. Benzene
B. Ethanol
C. Furfural
D. Glycerine
3. Which type of distillation is used for the preparation of aromatic spirit of ammonia?
A. Flash distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Simple distillation
4. Water for injection is prepared by using
A. Simple distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Flash distillation

5. Which one of the following method is used for distillation of camphor.

A. Simple distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation
6. Which type of distillation is called as evaporative distillation?

A. Simple distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation.
7. Mean free path is associated with?

A. Simple distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation
8. Separation of liquid by distillation is based upon one of the following?

A. Boiling point
B. Miscibility
C. Vapour pressure
D. Viscosity
9. Complete separation is not possible in ?

A. Simple distillation
B. Flash distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation

10. Find the Azeotropic mixture.

A. Air-water
B. Acetic acid- water
C. Acetic acid- alcohol
D. Air-alcohol
11. Which of the following is not separated through distillation process?
A. Acetone and water
B. Aniline and chloroform
C. Impurities in Sea water
D. Milk and water
12. The distilled water is collected in
A. Reciever
B. Adapter
C. Condenser
D. Round bottom flask
13. Which type of the liquid evaporates first in the distillation
A. Immiscible liquid
B. Less volatile
C. More volatile liquid
D. Non- volatile liquid
14. Distillation operation involves one of the following steps.
A. Vaporization
B. Vaporization and Condensation
C. Vaporization, Condensation and Crystallization
D. Vaporization, Condensation, Crystallization and Drying.
15. In Distillation apparatus, condenser functions as one of the following
A. Energy Exchanger
B. Heat Exchanger
 C. Liquid Exchanger
D. Material Exchanger
16. Vacuum pump is attached to one of the following parts of the distillation apparatus?
A. Adopter
B. Condenser
C. Receiver
D. Still
17. In fractionating column of fractional distillation, higher in column
A. the temperature becomes lower
B. the temperature becomes higher
C. minimum absorption is carried out
D. risks of sublimation exists