Situation 1- Donxkie, investigated the effects of “tawa-tawa” in increasing the

platelet count of patients with dengue fever. He separated the population into two
groups. Group D and F. First both groups are selected randomly. Next, platelet
count is measured. Then Group D will be given “tawa-tawa”, while Group F will not
receive “tawa-tawa”. Finally, platelet count of both groups is measured again.

1. The best design will be:

a. Experimental c. Pre-experimental
b. True Experimental d. Quasi-experimental

2. Group D is the:
a. Independent variable c. Experimental Group
b. Control Group d. Dependent variable

3. What is the Independent Variable?

a. Effects of tawa-tawa c. Platelet count
b. Tawa-tawa d. Dengue fever

4. What is the Dependent Variable?

a. Effects of tawa-tawa c. Platelet count
b. Tawa-tawa d. Dengue fever

5. Give the standard p value:

a. .05 c. .0001
b. .01 d. 1

6. The hypothesis developed was: TAWA-TAWA INCREASES PLATELET Count of

patients with DENGUE FEVER. This is an example of:
a. Simple, directional c. Complex, directional
b. Simple, Non-directional d. Complex non-directional

7. TAWA-TAWA INCREASES PLATELET Count of patients with DENGUE FEVER. This is

an example of:

a. Simple, directional c. Complex, directional

b. Simple, Non-directional d. Complex non-directional

8. Which f the following is the best NULL HYPOTHESIS?

a. Tawa-tawa has no effect on the platelet count.
b. Tawa-tawa has an effect on the platelet count.
c. Tawa-tawa has no effect on the platelet count of patients with dengue fever.
d. Tawa-tawa has an effect on the platelet count of patients with dengue fever.

9. Which of the following is the best ALTERNATIVE HYPOTHESIS?

a. Tawa-tawa has no effect on the platelet count.
b. Tawa-tawa has an effect on the platelet count.
c. Tawa-tawa has no effect on the platelet count of patients with dengue fever.
d. Tawa-tawa has an effect on the platelet count of patients with dengue fever.
10. What variable is being manipulated?
I. independent III Tawa-tawa
II Dependent IV. Platelet count

a. I, III
b. II, IV
c. I, II
d. I, II, IV
11. What variable is being measured?
I. independent
II Dependent
III Tawa-tawa
IV. Platelet count

a. I, III c. I, II
b. II, IV d. I, II, IV

12. Donzkie will used what specific type of TRUE experimental research design?
a. Pre test post test control group c. Pre test post test one group
b. Post test only control group d. Post test only one group

13. In Pre test post test control group design, pre-test is given to:
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Both groups
d. Neither experimental or control group

14. In Pre test post test control group design, post test is given to:
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Both groups
d. Neither experimental or control group

15. In Pre test post test control group design, the experimental treatment is given
to:
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Both groups
d. Neither experimental or control group

16. “To know the effect of tawa-tawa in increasing the platelet count of patients
with dengue fever: is the:
a. Title c. Problem
b. Purpose d. Analysis

17.” The effects of tawa-tawa on the platelet count oamong dengue fever clients” is
the:
a. Title c. Problem
b. Purpose d. Analysis

18. “What is the effect of tawa-tawa on the platelet count among dengue fever
clients?” Is the:
a. Title c. Problem
b. Purpose d. Analysis

19. The appropriate statistical test will be:

a. T-Test c. ANOVA
b. Chi-square d. Linear regression

20. Considering that the aklpha value is 0.1, standard deviation was 1.60, the
experimental group mean was 5.73, the control group mean was 5 and you have 15
samples. Looking at the table, the critical value was 1.25 and the T twst was
computed and the result was 1.5, the nurse will interpret this as:
a. There is no p value to make an accurate interpretation
b. More data is needed to make an interpretation.
c. Tawa-tawa affects the platelet count among dengue fever patients
d. Tawa-tawa did not affect the platelet count among dengue fever patients

Situation 2. The managerial process is a very important tool that helps the nurse
manager in performing different managerial tasks. The following questions test your
knowledge n these managerial principles.

21. According to Minzber, the 3 role of a manager are:

1. Interpersonal 3. Decision role
2. Informational 4. Technical human relation

a. 1,3,4,5
b. 1, 4,5
c. 2,3,4,5
d. 1,2,3

22. According to Katz, the 3 necessary fundamental skills of a manager are:

1. Technical
2. Human
3. Conceptual
4. Operational
5. Financial

a. 1,2,3 d. 3,4,5
b. 1,3,4 e. 1,2,3,4,5
c. 1,4,5

23. Jayson was tasked to decide how many staff members are needed to provide
quality nursing care in her unit. This specific task would require which of the
following skills:
a.evaluating skills c. cognitive skills
b. managerial skills d. communication skills
24. This skills deal with the ability to see individual matters as they realte to the
total picture and to develop creative ways of identifying pertinent factors,
responding to big problems and discarding irrelevant facts:
A. technical C. conceptual
B. human D. operational

25. The use of interpersonal decision making, psychomotor skills, and application of
knowledge expected in the role of a licensed health care professional in the context
of public health welfare and safety is an example of:
a. Delegation c. Responsibility
b. Supervision d. Competence

26. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of
relationships used in delivering nursing care?

A. Type of illness of the client C. Effective communication

B. Transference and counter D. Personality of the participants
transference

27. Which of the following roles BEST exemplifies the expanded role of the nurse?

a. Circulating nurse in surgery c. Obstetrical nurse

b. Medication nurse d. Pediatric nurse practitioner

28. According to DeRosa and Kochura’s (2006) article entitled “Implement Culturally
Competent Health Care in your workplace,” cultures have different patterns of
verbal and nonverbal communication. Which difference does NOT necessarily
belong?

A. Personal behavior C. Subject matter

B. Eye contact D. Conversational style

29. The nurse is working with an adolescent who complains of being lonely and
having a lack of fulfillment in her life. This adolescent shies away from intimate
relationships at times yet at other times she appears promiscuous. The nurse will
likely work with this adolescent in which of the following areas?

A. Isolation C. Lack of fulfillment

B. Loneliness D. Identity

30. FOCUS methodology stands for:

A. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand and Solution

B. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous, Utilize, Substantiate
C. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand, Substantiate
D. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous (process), Understand, Solution

Situation 3. Conflict is a part of the daily fabric in nursing life. It is essential that a
nurse in a managerial position should be able to mediate between conflicts.
31. Competition results in:
A. WIN WIN C. LOSE LOSE
B. WIN LOSE D. LOSE WIN

32. The best method for conflict resolution is through:

a. Collaboration c. Competition
b. Compromise d. Accommodation

33. In conflict resolution, when one person neglects his own need to give way to
another party, the conflict resolution used was:
a. Accommodation c. Compromise
b. Collaboration d. Avoidance

34. Which of the following conflict resolution method that creates a LOSE LOSE
scenario:
a. Accommodation c. Compromise
b. Collaboration d. Avoidance

35. Accommodation will create which scenario?

A. WIN WIN
B. WIN LOSE
C. LOSE LOSE
D. LOSE WIN

36. Which type of research inquiry investigates the issues of human complexity ( e. g.
understanding the human expertise?)
A. positivism C. logical position
B. quantitative research D. natural inquiry

37. A literature review should be:

A. brief and limited C. systematic and exhaustive
B. broad and theoretical D. general and context

38. Mr. Barmonte was brought home with an advance directive, but the nurse is not sure that she
can follow his wishes.
The nurse should:
A. follow the directive even though the nurse is uncomfortable with the directives
B. call Mr. Barmonte’s lawyer
C. discuss with the interdisciplinary team in charge of Mr. Barmonte and the organization’s ethics
Committee
D. ignore the advance directive

39. A positive or negative feeling toward a person, object, or idea is known as a/an:
A. merit C. moral
B. value D. attitude

40. A strategy for a change that focuses on teaching workers new technology is:
a. Normative-reeducative c. Providing information
b. Training d. power-coercive
Situation 2 – As the CPE is applicable for all professional nurse, the professional growth and
development of Nurses with specialties shall be addressed by a Specialty Certification
Council. The following questions apply to these special groups of nurses.

41. Which of the following serves as the legal basis and statute authority for the Board of
Nursing to promulgate measures to effect the creation of a Specialty Certification Council
and promulgate professional development programs for this group of nurse-professionals?
A. R.A. 7610 C. R.A. 9173
B. P.D. 223 D. R.A. 7164

42. By force of law, therefore, the PRC-Board of Nursing released Resolution No. 14 Series of
1999 entitled: “Adoption of a Nursing Specialty Certification Program and Creation of
Nursing Specialty Certification Council.” This rule-making power is called:
A. Quasi-Judicial Power C. Quasi-Legislative Power
B. Regulatory Power D. Executive/Promulgating Power

43. Under the PRC-Board of Nursing Resolution promulgating the adoption of a Nursing
Specialty Certification Program and Council, which two (2) of the following serves as the
strongest for its enforcement?
(a) Advances made in Science and Technology have provided the climate for specialization
in almost all aspects of human endeavor; and
(b) As necessary consequence, there has emerged a new concept known as globalization
which seeks to remove barriers in trade, industry and services imposed by the national
laws of countries all over the world; and
(c) Awareness of this development should impel the nursing sector to prepare our people
in the services sector to meet the above challenge; and
(d) Current trends of specialization in nursing practice recognized by the International
Council of Nurses (ICN) of which the Philippines is a member for the benefit of the
Filipino in terms of deepening and refining nursing practice and enhancing the quality
of nursing care.
A. b & c are strong justifications C. a & c are strong justifications
B. a & b are strong justifications D. a & d are strong justifications

44. Which of the following IS NOT a correct statement as regards Specialty Certification?
A. The Board of Nursing intended to create the Nursing Specialty
Certification Program as a means of perpetuating the creation of an elite
force of Filipino Nurse Professionals.
B. The Board of Nursing shall oversee the administration of the NSCP through the
various Nursing Specialty Boards which will eventually be created
C. The Board of Nursing at the time exercised their powers under R.A. 7164 in order
to adopt the creation of the Nursing Specialty Certification Council and Program
D. The Board of Nursing consulted nursing leaders of national nursing associations
and other concerned nursing groups which later decided to ask a special group of
nurses of the program for nursing specialty Certification.

45. The NSCC was created for the purpose of implementing the Nursing Specialty policy
under the direct supervision and stewardship of the Board of Nursing. Who shall comprise
the NSCC?
A. A Chairperson who is the current President of the APO; a member from the
Academe; and the last member coming from the Regulatory Board
B. The chairperson and members of the Regulatory Board ipso facto acts as the CPE
Council
C. A Chairperson, chosen from among the Regulatory Board members; a Vice
Chairperson appointed by the BON at-large; two other members also chosen atlarge;
and one representing the consumer group;
D. A Chairperson who is the President of the Association from the Academe; a Member from the
Regulatory Board; and the last member coming from the APO

Situation 8 – As Filipino Professional Nurses we must be knowledgeable about the Code of

Ethics for Filipino Nurse and practice these by heart. The next questions pertain to this Code
Of Ethics.

46. Which of the following is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses?
A. the Philippine Nurses Association for being the accredited professional organization was given
The privilege to formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses which the Board of Nursing promulgated
B. Code for Nurses was first formulated in 1982 published in the Proceedings of the Third Annual
Convention of the PNA House of Delegates
C. The present code utilized the Code of Good Governance for the Professions in the Philippines
D. Certificates of Registration of registered nurses may be revoked or suspended for violations of
any provisions of the Code of Ethics.

47. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of
nursing responsibility and accountability?
A. Human rights of clients, regardless of creed and gender
B. The privilege of being a registered professional nurses
C. Health, being a fundamental right of every individual
D. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes

48. Which of the following nurses behavior is regarded as a violation of the Code of Ethics of
Filipino Nurses?
A. A nurse withholding harmful information to the family members of a patient
B. A nurse declining commission sent by a doctor for her referral
C. A nurse endorsing a person running for congress.
D. Nurse Reviewers and/or nurse review center managers who pays a
considerable amount of cash for reviewees who would memorize items
from the licensure exams and submit these to them after the
examination.

49. A nurse should be cognizant that professional programs for specialty certification by the
Board of Nursing accredited through the:
A. Professional Regulation Commission
B. Nursing Specialty Certification Council
C. Association of Deans of Philippine Colleges of Nursing
D. Philippine Nurse Association

50. Mr. Santos, R.N. works in a nursing home, and he knows that one of his duties is to be
an advocate for his patients. Mr. Santos knows a primary duty of an advocate is to;
A. act as the patient’s legal representative
B. complete all nursing responsibilities on time
C. safeguard the well being of every patient
D. maintain the patient’s right to privacy

SITUATION: Scientific Management was established in order to analyze and synthesize workforce
to improve labour productivity. We believe that to accomplish a certain task, there is always a
best move.

51. To perform a task with quality, speed and minimal waste of both resources and time are all
characteristics of:

A. Thouroughness B. Efficiency C. Reliability D. Analytic Sense

52. The core ideas that movements should be measured and the best motions should be used to
perform a task at a greater speed and mobility are the root foundation of the Scientific theory of
Management. Founded in 1880 by:

A. Lilian Gilbreth B. Frank Gilbreth C. Benjamin Graham D. F.W.Taylor

53. A form of reactivity whereby subjects improve an aspect of their behavior being
experimentally measured simply in response to the fact that they're being studied is known as
the:

A. Hawthorne Effect B. Horns Effect C. Halo Effect D. Pareto Effect

54. Planning, Organizing, Directing and Controlling are the four primary functions in
management. This was introduced by:

A. Henry Fayol B. Elton Mayo C. Lilian Gilbreth D. Douglas McGregor

55. Which of the following best described the Pareto principle developed by Joseph Juran?

A. Specialization is needed for an individual to develop mastery and efficiency

B. X are best lead using autocratic leadership while Y are lead using laissez fire
C. For many events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes
D. Each worker should only report to one superior

Situation: Budgeting is an important part of a nurse managerial activity. The correct allocation
and distribution of resources is vital in the harmonious operation of the financial balance of the
agency.

56. Which of the following best defines Budget?

A. Plan for the allocation of resources for future use

B. The process of allocating resources for future use
C. Estimate cost of expenses
D. Continuous process in seeing that the goals and objective of the agency is met

57. Which of the following best defines Capital Budget?

A. Budget to estimate the cost of direct labour, number of staff to be hired and necessary number
of workers to meet the general patient needs
B. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses
C. These are related to long term planning and includes major replacement or expansion of the
plant, major equipments and inventories.
D. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to
be time-related, such as salaries or rents being paid per month

58. Which of the following best described Operational Budget?

A. Budget to estimate the cost of direct labour, number of staff to be hired and necessary number
of workers to meet the general patient needs
B. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses
C. These are related to long term planning and includes major replacement or expansion of the
plant, major equipments and inventories.
D. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to
be time-related, such as rent
59. Which of the following accurately describes a Fixed Cost in budgeting?

A. These are usually the raw materials and labor salaries that depend on the production or sales
B. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business
C. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to
be time-related, such as rent
D. This is the summation of the Variable Cost and the Fixed Cost

60. Which of the following accurately describes Variable Cost in budgeting?

A. These are related to long term planning and include major replacement or expansion of the
plant, major equipments and inventories.
B. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business
C. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to
be time-related, such as rent
D. This is the summation of the Variable Cost and the Fixed Cost

61. Vision states the:

A. Future role and function

B. The reason for existence
C. The belief of an agency
D. Things that the agency wants to achieve
62. Which of the following states the agency’s belief. Values, ideals and purposes to achieve the
agency’s mission and goals?

A. Mission B. Vision C. Philosophy D. Goals and Objectives

63. Development of job description and qualifications of hospital personnel are all performed
during which managerial phase?

A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling

64. Communication as well as coordination with various members of the health care team are
performed during which managerial phase?

A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling

65. Quality assurance, the nursing audit, standards such as process, structure and outcome are
all utilized and performed during which managerial phase?

A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling

66. Budgeting is formulated during which managerial phase?

A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling

67. The hospital just acquired a new ventilator as well as an anaesthesia machine. This is covered
using which type of budget?

A. Capital B. Cash C. Operational D. Personnel

68. The salary of the employee, employee benefits as well as in service education programs are
all covered using which budget?

A. Capital B. Cash C. Operational D. Personnel

69. This budget is the cash on hand or the amount of money to be collected from the patient in
the hospital.

A. Capital B. Cash C. Operational D. Personnel

70. The monthly fees such as electricity, water, internet and magazine subscription bills are all
covered using which type of budget?

A. Capital B. Cash C. Operational D. Personnel

Situation : Your nursing unit plans to conduct a study on the use of structured preoperative
preparation in lessening the demand for post-operative pain medications.

71. Which of the following research activities should you initially do?

A. find out from interview how many patients are willing to participate
B. get the permission from the hospital director
C. review literature on the topic
D. prepare the tool for collecting data

72. Which of the following statements do NOT contribute to the researchabilty of your proposed
problem?

A. potential use of findings C. well-defined problem statement

B. readability of findings D. measurability of variables

73. A study /research table should NOT contain which of the following ?

A. categories of data collected C. specific title of table

B. relevant rows and columns D. names and sample of the selected

74. Which of the following actions will facilitate analysis of research data?

A. consult a physician C. consult a complete expert

B. consult an adviser D. categorize data collected

75. The research methodology that is appropriate for the above problem would be:

A. descriptive B. normative
C. experimental D. quasi experimental

SITUATION : Nursing is a profession. Miss Linda is a newly appointed nurse in a hospital in Manila.
Born May 1985, Her knowledge of nursing’s professional development is required in order to
project the profession in a way that it lifts the standards of nursing.

76. Mrs. Linda defined nursing as one of the following except:

A. Assisting individual, family and community in attaining health

B. Assisting basic health needs
C. Establishing nursing diagnosis and implementing nursing care
D. Diagnosing, treating, prescribing medication and doing minor surgery

77. PNA was established in:

1. 1922
2. 1926
3. With Mrs. Rosario Delgado as first president
4. With Mrs. Anastacia Tupas as first president
A. 1,3 C. 2,3
B. 1,4 D. 2,4

78. As a national nurses association, it is characterized as follows except:

A. Both a professional body and a labor union

B. Affiliated with the International Council Of Nurses
C. Advocating for improved work and life condition of Nurses
D. Accrediting body for continuing education program

79. CPE Units per year is needed for license renewal. The number of CPE units per year should
be:

A. 20 units C. 60 units
B. 30 units D. 100 units

80. As a nurse, R.A 1080 Exempts her from:

A. Paying her professional tax C. Qualifying for the CGFNS

B. Examination for civil service eligibility D. Paying business permit

81. In resigning for her job as a staff nurse, she must give advance notice of:

A. 15 days C. 45 days
B. 30 days D. 60 days
82. A nursing student or a beginning staff nurse who has not yet experienced enough real
situations to make judgments about them is in what stage of Nursing Expertise?

A. Novice B. Newbie C. Advanced Beginner D. Competent

83. Benner’s “Proficient” nurse level is different from the other levels in nursing expertise in the
context of having:

A. the ability to organize and plan activities

B. having attained an advanced level of education
C. a holistic understanding and perception of the client
D. intuitive and analytic ability in new situations

84. Who among the following can work as a practicing nurse in the Philippines without taking the
Licensure examination?

A. Internationally well known experts which services are for a fee

B. Those that are hired by local hospitals in the country
C. Expert nurse clinicians hired by prestigious hospitals
D. Those involved in medical mission who’s services are for free

85. A License is renewed every:

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years

Situation: nurse Rock used statistics to organize, describe and analyze dat. KLnowledge of the
various statistical tools will aid him in making conclusive findings in the research topic. He is
comparing the observed frequency of smokers to expected frequency, the nurse got the following
values P value =.05; critical value=8.75; chi square=0.24

86. Statistics that are used to make data into a concise and compact form is measure to
condense data. All of the following is a measure to condense data EXCEPT:
I. percentage
II. Scatter plot
III. Frequency distribution
IV. Mean

a. I and III c. II only

b. I, II, III d. II and IV

87. Nurse Rock has established the expected ratio of smokers vs. Non-smokers in a group of male
nurses was at 40:60. To compare the actual ratio against expected norm, the data would have to
be analyzed using a:
a. ANOVA c. Chi square
B. T-test d. Standard deviation

88. CHI SQUARE is the most widely used statistical study to determine the plausibility of the
hypothesis. The Chi Square is 0.24. Which of the following is an explanation to this finding?
a. The null hypothesis is correct.
b. The null hypothesis is correct.
c. The alternative hypothesis is correct.
d. The null hypothesis is possibly rejected.

89. If the study is highly significant, it would reflect a p value of:

a. 0.05 c. 0.005
b. 0.001 d. 0.0001

90. The alternative hypothesis has a 5 in a hundred chance of accepting the null hypothesis, has
95% chance of being correct and has a 5 in a hundred chance that the null hypothesis is true.
Nurse CJ is correct if the p value would be:
a. 0.05 c. 0.01
b. 0.005 d. 0.001

91. The alternative hypothesis has a 1 in a hundred chance of accepting the null hypothesis, has
99% chance of being correct and has a 1 in a hundred chance that the null hypothesis is true.
Nurse CJ is correct if the p value would be:
a. 0.05 c. 0.01
b. 0.005 d. 0.001

92. P value is 0.8, it means:

a. Null hypothesis is accepted.
b. Null hypothesis is rejected.
c. Alternative hypothesis is correct.
d. Alternative hypothesis might be corrected correct.

93. P value is 0.01, it means

a. Null hypothesis is accepted.
b. Null hypothesis is rejected.
c. Alternative hypothesis is rejected
d. Alternative hypothesis is false.

94. If the Alpha value is at 0.1, the nurse interpretation is that:

a. There is a 10% chance that the null hypothesis is correct.
b. There is a 0.1% chance that the null hypothesis is correct.
c. The study is statistically significant.
d. There is a 10% chance that the alternative hypothesis is correct.

95. If the researcher rejected the null hypothesis where in fact the null hypothesis is correct,
which type of error does he commit?
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Type III error
d. Type IV error

Situation: Health maintenance Organization or HMO is increasing popularity in the community.

96. Which of the following BEST describes what an HMO is?

a. It’s a prepaid health insurance
b. It is usually funded by the government
c. It requires membership
d. The fees paid by the members depends on the care given bty the practioner

97. Mang Robert asked you if HMO will cover his plan of having rhinoplasty. Which of the
following is the best response to Mang Robert?
a. HMO will cover anything, the HMO will pay the rhinoplasty cost.
b. HMO will only pay a few portion of the cost of rhinoplasty, it will not pay the entire operation
c. Rhinoplasty is subjected for approval. If approved, HMO will pay the operation
d. Aesthetic surgeries are not covered by the HMO.

98. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of HMOs?

a. HMOs should cure the patient immediately to prevent complication
b. HMOs should select the best practitioner that will render the best care.
c. HMOs should prioritize on preventing the disease and maintenance of health
d. HMOs focus on early detection and screening.

99. Which of the following is an advantage of HMOs in the poor community?

a. It is a cheaper form of health insurance
b. The care is well collaborated by the primary practitioner, referrals are widely used.
c. The patient only pays a fixed amount on a periodic basis
d. HMOs main focus is the restoration of health and alleviation of disease.

100. Which of the following is a disadvantage of HMOs?

a. Expensive
b. Not cost effective
c. It has some restrictions on referrals that might lead to worsening of the disease condition.
d. Too many referrals can cause confusions to members as to who is their primary caregivers

Answer sheet: 4. C 8. C
1. B 5. A 9. D
2. B 6. A 10.A
3. B 7. B 11.B
12.A 61.A
13.C 62.C
14.C 63.B
15.A 64.C
16.B 65.D
17.A 66.A
18.C 67.A
19.A 68.C
20.C 69.B
21.D 70.C
22.A 71.C
23.B 72.B
24.C 73.D
25.D 74.D
26.C 75.C
27.D 76.D
28.C 77.A
29.D 78.A
30.A 79.A
31.B 80.B
32.A 81.B
33.A 82.A
34.C 83.C
35.A 84.D
36.D 85.C
37.A 86.D
38.C 87.C
39.D 88.A
40.A 89.D
41.D 90.A
42.C 91.C
43.B 92.A
44.A 93.B
45.NO CORRECT 94.A
ANSWER 95.A
46.B, C, D 96.A
47.D 97.D
48.D 98.C
49.B 99.A
50.D 100. C
51.B
52.D
53.A
54.A
55.C
56.A
57.C
58.B
59.C
60.B