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BIOLOGY
964/1
UPPER 6
SEPT 2010
1¾ HOURS
BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
UPPER 6
1 HOUR 45 MINUTES
NAME : ………………………………………………….
FORM : UPPER 6
Instructions :
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1. Which of the following properties of water are important to living organisms?
I polar molecule
II high heat of vaporisation
III high specific heat capacity
A. glycogenesis C. gluconeogenesis
B. glycogenolysis D. glucose oxidation
A. the cell can retain the ability to divide and differentiate into other types of plant cells
B. the mature cell exists in the region of the plant that has stopped growing in length
C. the mature cell has primary wall that is relatively thin and flexible, and most of the
cells lack secondary cell wall
D. the cell can perform most of the metabolic functions, synthesise and store the various
organic products
6. Which of the following graphs shows the possible changes in the rate of a reaction catalysed
by an enzyme in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?
A B
C D
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7. Which of the following are true of both enzymes and inorganic catalysts?
I specific in action
II required in small amounts
III increase the rates of reactions
IV unable to function at high temperatures
A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III D. III and IV
8. What are the molecules generated by photosystems I and II which are used to synthesize
organic molecules?
I O2 III NADH
II ATP IV NADPH
A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV
9. Rubisco binds with both carbon dioxide and oxygen in
A. C3 plants C. CAM plants
B. C4 plants D. C4 and CAM plants
10. Which statement is true of non-cyclic photophosphorylation?
A. it involves photosystem II only
B. it involves two wavelengths of light
C. It produces ATP and NADPH only
D. it occurs in the stroma of chloroplast
11. What will become of all carbons from a glucose molecule after it is completely oxidised?
A. pyruvate C. carbon dioxide
B. carbohydrate D. acetyl coenzyme A
12. The diagram below shows an overview of cellular respiration. Which of the following modes
of ATP synthesis at X, Y and Z are correct?
X Y Z
A. oxidative substrate-level oxidative
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
B. oxidative oxidative substrate-level
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
C. substrate-level oxidative substrate-level
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
D. substrate-level substrate-level oxidative
Phosphorylation phosphorylation phosphorylation
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13. Which are true of the modes of nutrition for Mucor sp?
I parasitic
II saprophytic
III products of intracellular digestion are absorbed by the mycelium
IV enzymes are secreted at the tip of the hypha to digest the substrate
14. The oxygen dissociation curve for the haemoglobin of an individual is further left compared
to the oxygen dissociation curve for the haemoglobin of a normal individual. Which
statements are true of that individual?
15. Which blood vessel supplies oxygen and nutrients directly to the myocardium?
A. it acts as a pacemaker
B. it initiates atrial systole
C. it initiates ventricular systole
D. it is controlled by the cardiovascular centre
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20. Which process takes place in the liver?
A. regulation of pH C. synthesis of glucagon
B. synthesis of cholesterol D. Production of corticosteroid
21. The statements below are the steps involved during the propagation of impulse at the
synapse
I the released acetylcholine molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft and fuse with
the receptors at the post-synaptic membrane
II the arrival of action potential at the synaptic knob causes the influx of calcium ions
into the synaptic knob
III the depolarisation of the post-synaptic membrane occurs and produces action
potential
IV calcium ions cause the vesicles to fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps in the propagation of impulse at
the synapse?
A. I, II, III, IV B. I, III, IV, II C. II, IV, I, III D. III, I, IV, II
22. When a skeletal muscle contracts,
A. the sarcomere shortens
B. the width of the A band decreases
C. thick and thin myofilaments shorten
D. the widths of the H zone and I band do not change
23. During the primary immune response, the main antigen-presenting cells are
A. plasma cells C. B lymphocytes
B. macrophages D. T lymphocytes
24. Oestrogen and progesterone are used in contraceptive pills to
A. maintain the endometrium of the uterus
B. inhibit the production of gonadotropic hormones
C. stimulate the release of luteinising hormone
D. stimulate the release of follicle stimulating hormone
25. Which are the common functions of auxin and gibberellins?
I inhibit abscission
II induce seed dormancy
III stimulate parthenocarpy
IV stimulate stem elongation
A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III D. III and IV
26. The diagram below shows the findings of an experiment on the effect of light on the following
of a plant.
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Which of the following are true of the plant?
27. Based on the table below, match the types of immune response to the structures involved.
28. During lactation, hormone P stimulates the development of alveoli, hormone Q stimulates
the production of milk in the alveoli and hormone R controls the release of milk from the
mammary gland. What are the hormones P, Q and R?
P Q R
A. oxytocin prolactin progesterone
B. progesterone oxytocin prolactin
C. progesterone prolactin oxytocin
D. prolactin progesterone oxytocin
Which of the following is responsible for producing hydrolytic enzymes after imbibitions?
A. P B. Q C. R D. S
P Q R S
A. lag phase log phase linear phase plateau phase
B. lag phase linear phase log phase plateau phase
C. plateau phase log phase linear phase lag phase
D. plateau phase linear phase log phase lag phase
What genotypes of the individuals I-1, II-5 and III-4 could be predicted?
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34. A type of gene mutation is as follows:
A. a chromosomal mutation of the deletion type involves the deletion of a base pair from
a gene
B. genetic disease called cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by a deletion in chromosome
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C. the deletion of two bases causes frame-shift mutation during triplet coding in
transcription
D. allopolyploidy is a chromosomal mutation which involves chromosome doubling
caused by different genomes
37. In a population of 360 rabbits, 100 are albino. The gene for albino is recessive to the gene
for Himalayan coat pattern. The number of rabbits in this population which are heterozygous
for Himalayan coat pattern is
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39. An operon consists of
40. The kingdoms Fungi and Animalia share the following characteristics except
41. Which of the following are the products of the translation of the lactose operon?
I permease
II transacetylase
III β-galactosidase
IV RNA polymerase
42. Bacteria carrying a plasmid with an antibiotic resistance gene are important in cloning
because
43. Helianthus and Zea are different from Pinus and Dryopteris because they have
45. Which is the most important factor for the occurrence of evolution?
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46. Based on the table below, match the evidence of evolution theory to its example.
I II III IV
A. P Q S R
B. P S R Q
C. R P Q S
D. R Q P S
47. A species of organism is separated into two populations by a mountain range. Mating
between individuals of the two populations produces sterile progeny. Which of the following
explains this phenomenon?
A. Speciation does not take place
B. genetic drift does not take place
C. allopatric speciation takes place
D. sympatric speciation takes place
48. The table below shows the taxonomic hierarchy from kingdom to genus for three different
organisms.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
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