Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Table of Contents
Unit 1...................................................................................................... 4-27
Sentence Correction ............................................................................................................ 4-19
Sentence Completion ......................................................................................................... 20-27
Unit 2.................................................................................................... 28-51
Voice & Accent .................................................................................................................. 28-30
Stress & Intonation ............................................................................................................ 31-36
Unit 3.................................................................................................... 52-76
Narration ........................................................................................................................... 52-60
Vocabulary Enrichment...................................................................................................... 61-76
Unit 4.................................................................................................. 77-104
Essay Writing ..................................................................................................................... 77-86
Reading Comprehension .................................................................................................. 87-104
• Types of errors
Sentence Correction • Strategies to solve
• Types of questions
Sentence Completion • Strategies to solve
• Types of essays
Essay Writing • Tips and tricks to write essays effectively
Knowing the common structures and the nuances of the language is crucial
Subject-Verb Agreement
Pronoun Agreement
Modifiers
Parallelism
Comparisons
Redundancy
Error of Participles
Verb Tenses
In the present tense, a verb must agree in number with its subject. That's the basic principle of subject-verb agreement.
It's a simple enough rule, but on certain occasions even experienced writers can slip up on it.
CASE #1: Making Subject and Verb Agree When Words Come Between Them
In determining subject-verb agreement, don't let yourself be confused by words that come between the subject and the
verb. Let's compare these two sentences:
In both sentences, the verb “belongs” agrees with its subject, “box”. Don't let the prepositional phrase in the second
sentence fool you into thinking that “ornaments” is the subject. It's simply the object of the preposition “of” and does not
affect the agreement of subject and verb.
Remember to add an -s to the end of the verb in the present tense if the subject is one of the indefinite pronouns listed
below:
In the following sentences, each subject is an indefinite pronoun and each verb ends in -s:
In that last sentence, note that “has” agrees with the subject “each”, not with “divers” (the object of the preposition).
CASE #3: Making Have, Do, and Be Agree With Their Subjects
In particular, many agreement errors result from the misuse of the common verbs “have, do, and be.”
We need to remember that the verb “have” appears as “has” if the subject is a singular noun or a third-person singular
pronoun (he, she, it):
If the subject is a plural noun or the pronoun “I, you, we, or they”, use “have”:
Similarly, the verb “do” appears as “does” if the subject is a singular noun or, once again, a third-person singular pronoun
(he, she, it):
If the subject is a plural noun or the pronoun “I, you, we, or they”, use “do”:
The verb “be” has three forms in the present tense: is, am, are. Use “is” if the subject is a singular noun or a third-person
singular pronoun (he, she, it):
Finally, if the subject is a plural noun or the pronoun “you, we, or they”, use “are”:
Now, let's take one more look at these three verbs—-but from a different angle.
Sometimes a subject may follow (rather than precede) a form of the verb “have, do, and be”. As shown in the sentences
below, this reversal of the usual order occurs in questions that require a helping verb:
In all of these sentences, the present forms of “have, do, and be” serve as helping verbs and appear in front of their
subjects. Another case in which a form of the verb comes before the subject is in sentences beginning with the
words “there or here”:
Let’s Practice 1: The article on the subject of Colombian drug lords published in The Economist this morning neither allude
to nor specifically describe the methods that the police employs in the fight against crime.
A) neither alludes nor specifically describes the methods that the police employ in the fight against crime.
B) neither allude to nor specifically describe the methods that the police employ in the fight against crime.
C) neither alludes to nor specifically describes the methods that the police employs in the fight against crime.
D) neither alludes nor specifically describes the methods that the police employs in the fight against crime.
E) neither alludes to nor specifically describes the methods that the police employ in the fight against crime.
Pronoun Agreement
Correct pronouns match their antecedent (the word they stand in for). For example, in the sentence, “Sara took off her
hat,” “Sara” is the antecedent for “her.” Plural pronouns (we, they, them, us) match with plural antecedents, and
singular pronouns (I, he, she, her, him, it) match with singular antecedents.
Let’s look at one example: I never go to that restaurant because they have moldy cheese.
Who has moldy cheese? We can’t tell from the sentence. “They” is a plural pronoun, and its possible antecedents (“I” and
“restaurant”) are both singular. We would rewrite it like this:
Let’s Practice 2: While the Senate of the Roman Republic did not have the power to enact laws, their decrees generally
were obeyed like law, and through them they exercised considerable influence.
(A) their decrees generally were obeyed like law, and through them they
(B) its decrees generally were obeyed as if to be law, and through these it
(C) their decrees, generally obeyed as law, through it they
(D) its decrees generally were obeyed like law, and through them it
(E) their decrees were generally obeyed as was the law, and through it they
Modifiers
Look at the part of the sentence before the comma. This is the modifier. It modifies or changes the rest of the sentence in
some way.
What is the subject of the verb? You may notice that in the modifier there is no subject for this verb. This makes the
modifier a dangling modifier. It is not connected to the rest of the sentence properly. The rule is that the correct
subject of the verb must come immediately after the comma.
To determine what the subject is, you can ask yourself the question: Who or what performed the action? The answer
to that question gives you the subject. The answer is that “she” did the looking. It cannot be the trees looking out the
window. Therefore, “she” must come directly after the comma.
The correctly written sentence would become: Looking out the window, she saw the trees.
In a dangling modifier, the modifying phrase is misplaced, describing the incorrect word or phrase so that the sentence
is illogical. Take a look at the following sentence:
A beautiful red-haired mermaid, the president thought Ariel was highly intelligent.
This sentence contains a dangling modifier: The president is likely not a beautiful red-haired mermaid (though that would
be cool). The modifier “A beautiful red-haired mermaid” belongs next to the noun it modifies, which is Ariel. Let’s rewrite
it to remove the dangling modifier:
The president thought Ariel, a beautiful red-haired mermaid, was highly intelligent.
Let’s Practice 3: Between 1892 and 1893, Claude Monet produced a series of paintings of the Rouen Cathedral, revised in
his studio in 1894, and with the French public receiving it as an emblem of all that was noble about their history and
customs.
(A) produced a series of paintings of the Rouen Cathedral, revised in his studio in 1894, and with the French public receiving
it
(B) produced a series of paintings of the Rouen Cathedral, which he revised in his studio in 1894 and which the French
public received
(C) produced a series of paintings of the Rouen Cathedral, which he revised in his studio in 1894, and that the French public
received it
(D) painted the Rouen Cathedral, which he revised in his studio in 1894, and that the French public received it
(E) painted the Rouen Cathedral, revised in his studio in 1894, and the French public received it
Parallelism
While forming a sentence, the structure of the sentence should be kept parallel. If an infinitive is used, then all the phrases
should have an infinitive.
Example: She likes to cook, dance and play.
Let’s Practice 4: With companies spending large parts of their advertising budgets online, the market for content such as
feature articles and opinion essays created by a professional writer, a blogger, and by individual users, are
expanding rapidly.
A. the market for content such as feature articles and opinion essays created by a professional writer, a blogger, and by
individual users, are expanding
B. the market for content such as feature articles and opinion essays created by professional writers, bloggers, and by
individual users, are expanding
C. the market for content such as feature articles and opinion essays created by a professional writer, a blogger, and
individual users, is expanding
D. the market for content such as feature articles and opinion essays created by professional writers, bloggers, and
individual users, are expanding
E. the market for content such as feature articles and opinion essays created by professional writers, bloggers, and
individual users, is expanding
Comparisons
The comparisons made should be between two similar things. If we say: - The population of London is greater than any
other city in India.
We are comparing: - (a) The population of London (b) Any other city in India.
While comparison had to be made between the populations of both. So, the correct expression should be:-
The population of London is greater than that of any other city in India.
(a) When comparative degree is used with than, make sure that we exclude the thing compared from the rest of class of
things by using the
Example: He is stronger than any man living.(incorrect).
(A) programs that enable a family with insufficient savings for a conventional down payment to be able to move into new
housing and to apply
(B) programs that enable a family with insufficient savings for a conventional down payment to move into new housing
and to apply
(C) programs, which enable a family with insufficient savings for a conventional down payment to be able to move into new
housing, applying
Error of Participles
They function as the subject or object in the sentence. If you ask the question ‘what is injurious or a good exercise’
or ‘what has he given up’ you will get the –ing words as answer. You should ask ‘what’ questions before the verb
to know the subject.
In the sentences above the words smoking and swimming don’t answer the question ‘what entered or who crossed’ but
tell how he entered or how they crossed.
Smoking is a participle here and the main function of a participle is to combine two sentences.
The two sentences, in this case, are : He was smoking. At that very same time he entered the hall. Or,
Consider the other sentence: While swimming, they crossed the flooded river.
If we split the same, we can say: They swam. This is how they crossed the river.
Having been a very good scientist, they made him the president.
Ask ‘who wrote the novel his name or some person?’ It was some person. The sentence, therefore, should be
‘Writing a novel, he became famous’.
In the second sentence, who was a scientist–they or the president? It was the president. Therefore, the sentence
should be ‘Having been a very good scientist, he was made president by them’.
It is clear from the above discussion that the doer of the participle verb should not be distanced from it or
interrupted by any other subject, noun or verb.
Let’s Practice 7: After she attended the career fair, many more resources were at Ankita’s disposal, including job boards,
new contacts, and numerous books and pamphlets to help her improve her resume and cover letter.
Verb Tenses
Sequence of Tenses Is the principle in accordance with which the tense of the verb in a subordinate clause follows
the tense of the verb in the Principal clause.
1. When verb in Principal clause is in Present or Future tense, the verb in the dependent clause may be in any
tense (according to sense).
2. When the verb in the Principal clause is in the Past Tense, the verb in the Dependent clause must also be in one
or other of the four forms of the past Tense.
EXCEPTIONS:
3. If the Dependent clause states a universal truth or a habitual truth, a Past Tense in the Principal clause is
followed by Present Tense in the Dependent clause.
5. A Past tense in the Principal Clause may be followed by any tense in the adjectival clause as:
Let’s Practice 8: Shortly after their first expeditions to the region, the Spanish initiated a number of attempts to subjugate
the Maya, but it takes some 170 years before the Spanish established substantive control over all Maya lands.
Correlative conjunction
When you use correlative pairs of conjunctions in a sentence, make sure that the words or
groups of words immediately following each conjunction are in the same form.
For all good things: You, he and I have achieved remarkable success.
For all bad things: I, you and he are responsible for the failure of the project.
ORDER OF ADVERB
1.The three friends, Max included, was supposed to meet for dinner later that night.
A) was supposed to meet
B) was supposed to have met
C) were suppose to be meeting
D) were supposed to meet
E) they were supposed to be meeting
2.The number of students chosen for the prestigious medical internship have more than doubled in the past fifteen years.
A) have more than doubled
B) have been more than doubling
C) has more than doubled
D) has been more than doubling
E) has doubled even more
3.Following intense debate, the faculty has approved the measure to increase class size by 15% over the next four years.
4.Without proper funding and a better campaign strategy, there is no chances that our candidate will be elected to office.
5.Some members of the tribe has been protesting the recent passage of hunting laws applying to indigenous populations.
6.The results of the study clearly indicates a reduction in the number of useable pounds that can be salvaged from an average ton of
recyclable goods.
A) indicates a reduction
B) indicates that a reduction
C) indicating a reducing
D) indicate a reducing
E) indicate a reduction
7.The president of Costa Rica, along with two vice presidents, are elected for a four-year term by the people.
8.Neither of our school’s students nominated for the national spelling bee were able to win the competition
A) Neither of our school’s students nominated for the national spelling bee were
B) Neither of our school’s students nominated for the national spelling bee was
C) Neither of the students from our school nominated for the national spelling bee were
D) Neither of the students nominated for the national spelling bee from our school were
E) Neither one of our school’s students who was nominated for the national spelling bee was
9. His co-workers praised both his determination and the way he paid attention to detail.
10. The art studio is spacious, pleasantly cluttered, and has good lighting.
11. The school board requested that a waiver be obtained and that the residency requirements are reviewed.
12. Richard is not only a terrific pianist, but also great at playing hockey.
A) Richard is not only a terrific pianist, but also great at playing hockey.
B) Richard not only is a terrific pianist, but is also great at playing hockey.
C) Not only great at playing hockey, Richard also is a terrific pianist.
D) Richard is not only a terrific pianist, but also a great hockey player.
E) Also great at playing hockey, Richard is a terrific pianist.
13. I don’t remember whom has the most stock in the company.
EXERCISES: Intermediate
1. The Egyptian Museum in Cairo, which contains 120,000 objects from prehistoric times through the Greco-Roman period, are
home to one of the most impressive collections of ancient Egyptian artifacts.
A) which contains 120,000 objects from prehistoric times through the Greco-Roman period, are home to
B) which contain 120,000 objects from prehistoric times through the Greco-Roman period, are home to
C) containing 120,000 objects from prehistoric times through the Greco-Roman period, are home to
D) which is containing 120,000 objects from prehistoric times through the Greco-Roman period, are home to
E) which contains 120,000 objects from prehistoric times through the Greco-Roman period, is home to
2. The professor's consistent late arrival is offset somewhat by the remarkable quality of his lectures.
3. The concerto sounds more sophisticatedly in the 200-year-old concert hall than it did in the practice room, which has decidedly
inferior acoustics.
4. Previously thought to have been extinct, a team of biologists rediscovered the New Caledonia crested gecko in 1994.
5. Some of the many renovations set for Memorial Field in the coming years include building additional seating, improving
safety, and the construction of a new varsity athletics centre.
6. Valerie recalls her college years with such nostalgia that she often lost herself in reminiscence.
7. Even though he does not like crowds, John still likes New York City more than Akshay.
8. Both candidates oppose increased defence spending. Neither of the two candidates oppose the war in Iraq.
(a) Neither of them oppose the war
(b) Neither of the two candidates are opposed to the war
(c) Neither of the two candidates is opposed to the war
(d) Either of the two candidates are not opposed to the war
9. Of the numerous decisions a student has to take, the question of which career path to choose is for certain the
more confusing.
(a) the question of which career path to choose is certainly the most confusing
(b) it seems certain that the more confusing is the question of which career path to choose
(c) certainly choosing their career path is the most confusing
(d) the question of which career path to choose is certainly the more confusing
10. Recent historians have begun to reevaluate the career of General William Tecumseh Sherman, paint him as a war criminal and a
monstrous villain.
11. The new regulations are largely meant to curtail small-scale corruption, but the loopholes present in the law created a sharp
increase in white collar crime.
12. Very few politicians are willing to make a promise to eliminate social safety net programs, which made the congressman a rarity
in Washington.
13. The teacher sought new ways of teaching, believing her students would get more from lessons featuring playing, acting, and
creativity.
a) featuring playing, acting, and creating.
b) featuring play, act, and creativity.
c) featuring the playing, acting, and creativity.
d) featuring playing, acting, and creativity.
e) featuring playing, acting, and creative things.
14. The kids took too much time cleaning their rooms, left little time to do outdoor chores.
a) left little time to had done outdoor chores.
b) left little time to do outdoor chores.
c) leaving little time to do outdoor chores.
d) left few times to do outdoor chores.
e) leaving little time to doing outdoor chores.
15. All people choose their own religious denomination when they have been adults.
a) when they have been adults.
b) they have been adults.
c) when adults they have been.
d) when being adults.
e) when they are adults.
16. The United States Navy announced that, beginning next year, they plan to close several of their bases in order to reduce
operating expenses.
17. A good writer can avoid these errors unless they haven’t internalized the rules of grammar.
a) A good writer can avoid these errors unless they haven’t internalized the rules of grammar.
b) A good writer can avoid these errors provided they haven’t internalized the grammar rules.
c) A good writer can avoid these errors unless they have internalized the rules of grammar.
d) A good writer can avoid these errors after having internalized the rules of grammar.
e) A good writer can avoid these errors while not having internalized grammar rules.
18. With no previous experience in politics, Harvey’s campaign is more popular than other candidates.
A. With no previous experience in politics, Harvey’s campaign is more popular than other candidates.
B. With no previous experience in politics, Harvey and his campaign is more popular than other candidates.
C. With no previous experience in politics, Harvey’s campaign more popularly than other candidates.
D. With no previous experience in politics, the campaign is more popular with Harvey than other candidates.
E. With no previous experience in politics, Harvey is more popular than other candidates.
19. Because of a server delay in delivering her reply, he thought she hadn’t received his e-mail.
A. Because of a server delay in delivering her reply, he thought she hadn’t received his e-mail.
B. Because of a server delay in delivering her reply; he thought she hadn’t received his e-mail.
C. Because of a server delay in delivering her reply he thought she hadn’t received his e-mail.
D. Because of a server delay in delivering her reply—he thought she hadn’t received his e-mail.
A. Professors operating fairly know that he or she cannot base grades on emotions or personality.
B. Professors operating fairly know that they cannot base grades on emotions or personality.
C. Professors operating fairly know that he cannot base grades on emotions or personality.
D. Professors operating fairly know that she cannot base grades on emotions or personality.
EXERCISES: Advanced
1. Reporting a 90 percent drop in net income during the second quarter, dragged down by restructuring charges and weak sales, the
earnings guidance for the year was withdrawn by Best Buy Co.
a) Reporting a 90 percent drop in net income during the second quarter, dragged down by restructuring charges and weak sales,
the earnings guidance for the year was withdrawn by Best Buy Co.
b) Best Buy Co. is reporting a 90 percent drop in net income during the second quarter, dragged down by restructuring charges and
weak sales; the company also withdrew its earnings guidance for the year.
c) Reporting a 90 percent drop in net income during the second quarter and dragged down by restructuring charges and weak sales,
Best Buy Co. withdrew the earnings guidance for the year.
d) Best Buy Co. has reported a 90 percent drop in net income during the second quarter, dragged down by restructuring charges
and weak sales; the company has also withdrawn its earnings guidance for the year.
e) Best Buy Co. is reporting a 90 percent drop in net income during the second quarter, dragged down by restructuring charges and
weak sales; the company has also withdrawn its earnings guidance for the year.
2. The philosophical doctrine of Incompatibility posits an inherent irreconcilability among the doctrine of Determinism, which holds
that each state of affairs is necessitated by the states of affairs that preceded it, and the existence of free will.
A) among the doctrine of Determinism, which holds that each state of affairs is necessitated by the states of affairs that preceded it,
and the existence of free will
B) between the doctrine of Determinism, holding each state of affairs as necessitated by the states of affairs that preceded it, and free
will existing
C) in the doctrine of Determinism, which holds the idea that each state of affairs is necessitated by the states of affairs preceding, and
the existence of free will
D) between the doctrine of Determinism, which holds that each state of affairs is necessitated by the states of affairs preceding it, and
the existence of free will
E) among the doctrine of Determinism, which holds that each state of affairs may be necessitated by the states of affairs preceding it,
and free will existing
3. Erasmus's tomb lies inside the Basel Munster, located in Switzerland, an architectural monument which having survived medieval
earthquakes, and remains one of Switzerland's most well-known buildings to this day.
A) Erasmus's tomb lies inside the Basel Munster, located in Switzerland, an architectural monument which having survived medieval
earthquakes, and
B) Erasmus's tomb lies inside Switzerland's Basel Munster, an architectural monument that survived medieval earthquakes and
C) Switzerland's Basel Munster, an architectural monument that survived medieval earthquakes, houses Erasmus's tomb,
D) The Basel Munster, in Switzerland, an architectural monument which, having survived medieval earthquakes, is now home to the
tomb of Erasmus and
E) The tomb of Erasmus, being housed inside Switzerland's Basel Munster, is an architectural monument that survived medieval
earthquakes and
4. Simon Bolivar (1783 – 1830) is remembered in that he led the independence revolutions in several South American counties, like
Venezuela and Bolivia, and for instilling the ideals of democracy across the continent.
(A) in that he led the independence revolutions in several South American counties, like Venezuela and Bolivia, and for instilling
(B) to have led the independence revolutions in several South American counties, such as Venezuela and Bolivia, and that he instilled
(C) to have led the independence revolutions in several South American counties, including Venezuela and Bolivia, and having instilled
PEV 107 Page 17
(D) for leading the independence revolutions in several South American counties, like Venezuela and Bolivia, and to have instilled
(E) for leading the independence revolutions in several South American counties, such as Venezuela and Bolivia, and for instilling
5. While larger banks can afford to maintain their own data-processing operations, many smaller regional and community banks are
finding that the cost associated with upgrading data-processing equipment and with the development and maintenance of new
products and technical staff are prohibitive.
(A) cost associated with (B) costs associated with (C) costs arising from
(D) cost of (E) costs of
6. Inertia-gravity waves cause characteristic stripy patterns in the clouds in the lower atmosphere but they are disregarded by
conventional weather forecasts because they are thought to be too small to interact with larger systems such as warm and cold
fronts.
A. they are disregarded by conventional weather forecasts because they are thought to be too small
B. they are disregarded by conventional weather forecasts because these waves are thought to be too small
C. conventional weather forecasts disregard them because they think they are too small
D. conventional weather forecasts disregard these waves because they are thought to be too small
E. conventional weather forecasts think them too small
7. The recent photographs of the giant squid are remarkable because they show these enormous living creatures as moving around
in their natural environment, whereas previous pictures have been of only dead animals.
8. It is usual for scientists and social scientists to abandon their theories only if another more attractive theory comes along and not
when they have been proved incorrect.
A. their theories only if another more attractive theory comes along and not when they have been proved incorrect
B. a theory not because it has been proved incorrect, but because another more attractive theory comes along
C. their theories not when they have been proved incorrect, but because other more attractive theories come along
D. a theory only when other more attractive ones come along, rather than when they are proved wrong
E. their theories not if they have been proved wrong, but if another more attractive theory comes along
9. Once a hurricane is identified, it is given a name from a list drawn up by the United States Weather Service, a list that is reused
after a few years, but with the names of the worst hurricanes omitted.
10. Dunbar argues that gossip is important in human societies in the maintenance of social cohesion, just as social grooming does
for other primates.
A. gossip is important in human societies in the maintenance of social cohesion, just as social grooming does for other primates
B. gossip is important in the maintenance of social cohesion in human society, just as social grooming does for other primates
C. in human societies gossip is important in social cohesion like social grooming for other primate societies
D. similar to social grooming in primates, human gossip is important in maintaining social cohesion
E. gossip is important in human societies in the maintenance of social cohesion, just as social grooming is in other primate groups
11. Ricks has written extensively on not only major figures in English poetry like Milton and Housman, but also on the lyrics of Bob
Dylan.
12. An analysis of sixteenth century probate inventories in the major English towns show that even some artisans and yeomen
owned silver spoons, cups or salt cellars.
A. show that even some artisans and yeomen owned silver spoons, cups or
B. show that some artisans and yeomen even owned silver spoons, cups or
C. show that even some artisans and yeomen owned silver spoons, cups and
D. shows that some artisans and yeomen owned even silver spoons, cups and
E. shows that even some artisans and yeomen owned silver spoons, cups or
13. Stress-induced amnesia is a rare phenomenon; it strikes the patient apparently without warning and the memory loss can be as
complete as that induced by physical trauma.
14. It is probable that the prototype cellular motor might be ready for testing around the end of next year.
15. Making use of contemporary diaries and letters, Milton’s complexity is brilliantly revealed by Amit.
• They are nothing but the good old ‘Fill in the Blanks’ type of questions we’ve been handling since primary school!
• The only difference is – the ‘test’ is of a slightly different kind when it comes to your level today; and what companies/
recruiters test in you using this variety of questions.
Question types:
1. Single Blank
2. Double blank
3. Closed Text (Multiple Blanks)
Visualize
Before you go to the choices, think of the possible words for the blanks. It will save you from wrong choices. This is better than trying
out the choices to find out "what sounds good." It is faster and less prone to errors.
Structure Words
Look for words like but, rather, although, however, and, while, but, therefore. They reveal the sentence organization and the hint-
blank relationship. They tell you what kinds of words to look for, as they change the thought process in the sentence.
Working Backwards
The two-blank questions can be easier as you have more opportunities to eliminate wrong choices. If you can eliminate a choice
based on one word, you don't need to know the other word. Often, working backwards i.e. picking the second blank choice first
works better.
Positive/Negative Flow
When you read the sentence, you have to look out for adjectives/adverbs which tell you the idea of the sentence. After finding these
adjectives/adverbs, you need to find out if the idea of the sentence is positive/negative. All the negative ideas may be a "bad
word/bad phrase" or any term which has no/none/not... in it. In simple words, if the flow of the first part of the sentence is positive
and the second part is negative, then the blank must be negative to even the flow of the sentence. This would solve the sentence
completion question without even understanding the question.
Transitional Words
Be alert to transitional words. Transitional words tell you what is coming up. They indicate that the author is now going to draw a
contrast with something stated previously, or support something stated previously.
i. Contrast Indicators:
To contrast two things is to point out how they differ. In this type of sentence completion problem, we look for a word that has the
opposite meaning (an antonym) of some key word or phrase in the sentence.
Example: Although the warring parties had settled a number of disputes, past experience made them _________ to express
optimism that the talks would be a success.
"Although" sets up a contrast between what has occurred--success on some issues--and what can be expected to occur--success for
the whole talks. Hence, the parties are reluctant to express optimism. The common word "reluctant" is not offered as an answer-
choice, but a synonym--reticent--is. The answer is (E).
Supporting words support or further explain what has already been said. These words often introduce synonyms for words elsewhere
in the sentence.
Example: Davis is an opprobrious and ________ speaker, equally caustic towards friend or foe--a true curmudgeon.
"And" in the sentence indicates that the missing adjective is similar in meaning to "opprobrious," which is very negative. Now,
vituperative--the only negative word--means "abusive." Hence, the answer is (B).
These words indicate that one thing causes another to occur. Some of the most common cause and effect indicators are
Example: Because the House has the votes to override a presidential veto, the President has no choice but to ________.
Since the House has the votes to pass the bill or motion, the President would be wise to compromise and make the best of the
situation. The answer is (E).
Tutorial
Exercises: Beginner
A) the level of trust between them will always remain, at best, tenuous
B) they weren’t able to agree on the subject
C) they will eventually reach an agreement
D) it is impossible for him to succeed
E) the president unexpectedly rejected it
3. You had better take your mobile phone with you ----.
4. ---- when they learned that the chairman would not be able to join the meeting.
Directions: Complete the sentence using the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
1. Although it’s not remotely frightening in the daylight, the estate takes on ______ quality at night.
A. city … downtown B. rural … urban C. attractive … beautiful D. quiet … tranquil E. magnificent … majestic
3. Though the accident damaged the car pretty severely, mechanics were able to ____ it and make it almost good as new.
4. Silvio first arranged the anthology in ______ order based on when the writers published each piece, but he later switched to
______ ordering system based on the spelling of the authors’ names.
5. The other children did not want Alexander to play with them, so they ______ him from their game.
6. Apart from the one small river running through it, the desert is entirely ______.
7. Eleanor is ______ peanuts: the smallest taste of peanut butter can stop her breathing and put her in the hospital.
8. The dancer tried to ______ the movements of his teacher, exactly copying every graceful step.
9. The professor told her students about the project months in advance so that they would have ______ time to complete their
work.
10. Because the soldier fought so valiantly, he was ______ by the president who awarded him an honorary medal.
11. Stalin often purged the Communist Party of his enemies and ______ in order to eliminate ______ and maintain his control over
the party.
12. Northampton High School is ______: students come from 24 different countries and speak 15 languages.
13. A new rule prohibits students from ______ on campus after school, so, now, all students must leave campus by 4 PM.
14. My mother’s ______ salary never left us with enough money to afford luxuries such as vacations, new cars, or nice clothes.
15. Trying to teach a dog to speak English is ______ task; the creature will never be able to use language like we do.
Exercises: Intermediate
1. Elise always envisioned the monastery as an austere place of worship; however, upon visiting it, she found it surprisingly
______.
i. comfortable
ii. barren
iii. strict
iv. ornate
v. simple
2. Although it is necessary to carry a relatively large number of provisions when traversing the Australian Outback, it is ______
that you keep your pack from becoming too ______.
i. crucial...ponderous
ii. mandatory...insulated
iii. helpful...elongated
iv. imperative...compact
v. important...convoluted
3. After living a life of depravity and transgression, the offender felt so ______ that he declared he would become a priest, and
devote the remainder of his life to ______.
i. melancholy...sadness
ii. tentative...shame
iii. terrible...sin
iv. contrite...atonement
v. stolid...repentance
4. He vowed to embrace a newfound ______ once the trial began; nonetheless the accused resorted to his typical manner of
______ as soon as he took the stand.
i. ingenuousness…naïveté
ii. mendaciousness...deceitfulness
iii. passion...exuberance
iv. candor...duplicity
v. residence...decrepitude
5. Mr. Plainview is a man of secrecy. He deals with the mob and other ______ organizations, and regularly participates in their
______ activities.
i. clandestine...unlawful
ii. anarchistic...fraudulent
iii. amiable...illegitimate
iv. disdainful...scrupulous
v. illegal...exhilarating
6. Even the most ______ gambler stops betting when he or she runs out of money.
i. intelligent
ii. cautious
iii. hazardous
iv. foolhardy
v. circumspect
7. Upon hearing the ______ argument for the opposition, Mr. Algene felt ______ that he would win the debate.
i. dubious...uncertain
ii. substantial...sure
iii. deplorable...convinced
iv. tenuous...confident
v. hardy...positive
9. The orator's speech was too ______; it would have been more succinct if she avoided discussing ______ subjects.
i. complicated...germane
ii. prolix...tangential
iii. resplendent...pertinent
iv. convoluted...complex
v. terse...florid
10. Don was the most ______ individual I had ever met; good fortune eluded him at every turn.
i. contentious
ii. auspicious
iii. venerable
iv. hapless
v. ignominious
11. Due to the workers’ ______ and unremitting work ethic, the bridge was built in under one month.
i. assiduous
ii. laborious
iii. stolid
iv. pedantic
v. jovial
12. It is not a good idea to befriend ______ animals; they are exposed to foreign environments and therefore may carry diseases
that the human immune system has not evolved to combat.
i. domesticated
ii. ponderous
iii. feral
iv. indigenous
v. endangered
13. Although my sister’s ______ with the rock star seemed ridiculous, she actually ______ her dream of going on a date with him
last night.
i. obsession...engaged
ii. fixation...participated in
iii. infatuation...fulfilled
iv. fascination...obliterated
v. affair...succumbed to
14. With such a(n) ______ personality, it is difficult to imagine what made Amanda feel so melancholy.
i. ebullient
ii. exciting
iii. passionate
iv. seditious
v. irascible
15. Being the ______ host that she was, Anika made sure to approach each lodger with ______ disposition.
i. convuvial...an affable
ii. churlish...a reputable
iii. engaging...a specious
iv. wicked...benign
v. amiable...a scrupulous
1) In order to appreciate the (i) ______________ of damaging the ozone layer on earth, it is important to realize
that our planet is built upon relationships between different elements, and that damage to any one component
may result in (ii) ______________ effects to many others.
2) Most high quality short stories written before the birth of Christ have traditionally been credited to men rather
than women by most historians; but this dominance has, in modern times, been attributed to (i) ______________
bias rather than a true reflection of (ii) ______________ quality.
3) In many cases, data is more enjoyable to share than theories, but interestingly, the probability of errors is much
greater when sharing information that supposedly contains (i) ______________ pieces of truth than it is when
(ii) ______________ on a potential model of understanding.
4). Artists consider unintentional surrealism in their work to be an abomination rather than a gift; in fact, many
creative souls, by nature, consider themselves to be (i)______________ monitoring their ideas like little children,
and making sure that all of the written work is in line with (ii) ______________ meanings.
5) Heald’s latest literary critique (i) ______________ his reputation for brilliance, and begins with a clever
title and attractive book cover, (ii) ______________ the cliche that we should not judge a book by mere
(iii) ______________.
6) Despite legal recourse for nonpayment of taxes being (i) ______________ in governments, the
expense of enforcing these payments is sometimes more costly than the (ii) ______________ itself.
8) Andrew’s caustic temperament and extreme views can turn off the most patient political adviser; he even
angered a board of ______________ moderates.
A. evenhanded
B. didactic
C. equivocal
D. ostentatious
E. polemical
9) Many times the work of a fledgling writer is clearly (i) ______________ even when the work as a whole
is (ii) ______________, since a lack of skill does not always equate to a boring read.
10) It is hypocritical to be the type of leader who is very (i) ______________ about what you know, especially
when you do not (ii)______________ others this privacy because you are constantly (iii) ______________
information about their personal goals.
The term accent has various meanings, but in speaking, an accent is an identifiable style of pronunciation, often varying regionally
or even socioeconomically. But, our aim is to neutralize & globalize your accent.
It can be contrasted with a person's dialect, which includes regional vocabulary. "Standard English has nothing to do with
pronunciation," In fact, most people who speak Standard English do so with some sort of regional pronunciation, so that you can tell
where they come from much more by their accent than by their grammar or vocabulary.
An accent is a particular way of pronouncing a language. 'Warsh' for wash in Cajun Louisiana, 'New Yawk' for New York among native
New Yorkers, 'aboot' for about in Canada. The appeal of dialects and accents comes from our appreciation of their
musical intonations, imaginative word choices, and emotive speech rhythms.
Components of Accent
There are 2 main parts to an accent:
Intonation
Pronunciation
When we talk, we use our vocal organs – parts of our mouth and throat, such as our lips, teeth, tongue and larynx (voice box). This
whole area of the body is called the vocal tract.
To make a consonant sound, we position some of our vocal organs together or close to each other. For example, our lips
come together when we make the first sound in the word pie.
To make a vowel sound, we position the vocal organs further apart. The vocal tract is more open. For example, the word I is
pronounced as a vowel sound (the same one as the second sound in pie).
Speech sounds are broadly categorized as Vowels & Consonants. Vowels are those sounds during the utterance of which the air
escapes freely, without any obstruction. In written English there are 5 vowels i.e. a, e, i, o, u.
But, in spoken English there are 20 distinctive vowel sounds, made up of 12 pure vowels or monophthongs and 8 vowel glides or
diphthongs.
Definition: Vowel sounds are sounds that are produced by the un-interrupted flow of air.
Diphthongs : Diphthongs are 'gliding vowels', where one vowel sound glides into another one, as a result of the lips or tongue
moving. A diphthong is a change in vowel quality, whose sound changes within the same syllable.
Monophthong : A vowel with a single sound quality, such as the middle sound in "rat" or "bit". These sounds are made with one
tongue position.
AE sound
IE sound
OY sound
E-UR sound
A-UR sound
O sound
UA sound
AO Sound
Consonant sounds are produced by partial or full interruption of the breath flow. Consonants give clarity and sharpness to the
words. They do the work of making our speech crisp and clear, just like the function of treble in a music system. When you
whisper it is consonants that carry forward the sound and the meaning.
‐ They also convey logic
A-Z is the Alphabet
B C D are called letters of the alphabet
The English Consonant sounds are divided into two broad buckets, which are
Voiced Consonants-Plosive
Unvoiced Consonants- Non Plosive
Consonant sounds can be produced either with or without a vibration of the vocal cords.
Activity : Try speaking these tongue twisters and differentiate amongst the vowel sounds.
The sheep on
the ship slipped
Gnats are not
on the sheet of
now gnawing
sleet. The keen
on the nuts at
king kissed the
night.
quick queen on
her green ring.
Syllables are sound units that build up the structure of every word. They are a very important part of speech. They give a word its
pronunciation. Without them speech would sound dull, boring and meaningless.
Syllable Stress is very important to understand as using stress on the wrong syllable can affect our pronunciation.
In most two syllable nouns and adjectives, the first syllable takes on the stress.
Examples:
In most two syllable verbs and prepositions, the stress is on the second syllable.
Examples:
About 80% of two-syllable words get their stress on the first syllable.
There are, of course, exceptions to this rule, but very few nouns and adjectives get stress on their second syllable.
Verbs and prepositions usually get stress placed on the second syllable, but there are exceptions to this too.
Note: There are many two-syllable words in English that can be pronounced in two different ways. The stress change also changes the
part of speech of the word.
Examples:
3. Three-Syllable words
For three-syllable words, word stress in on 2nd syllable most of the times. However, exceptions are always there.
If there is a word that ends in a consonant or in a y, then the first syllable usually gets the stress.
Take a good look at the list of suffixes below (suffixes are word endings).
The stress is going to be on the syllable right before the suffix. This applies to words of all syllable lengths.
Examples:
Words that use the suffix ade, ee, ese, eer, que, ette, or oon have the primary stress actually placed on the suffix.
You put stress on the second syllable from the end of the word with words ending in ic, sion, and tion.
A. Compound noun
A compound noun is a noun made out of two nouns that form one word. In a compound noun, the most stress is on the stressed
syllable of the first word.
B. Compound adjectives
Often, hyphens are used in compound adjectives. In compound adjectives, the most stress is placed in the stressed syllable of the
second word.
ten-MEter
rock-SOlid
fifteen-MInute
old-FAshioned
C. Compound verbs
A compound verb is when a subject has two or more verbs. The stress is on the second or on the last part.
Noun + compound Nouns are two word compound nouns. In noun + compound noun, the stress is on the first word.
AIRplane mechanic
PROject manager
BOARD member
Reflexive pronouns show that the action affects the person who performs the action. For example: I hit mySELF.
At the moment, nothing is particularly stressed. The meaning seems fairly obvious. But what if some stress is placed on the first word -
I:
Then the meaning contains the idea that someone else said it, not me. Stress the second and third word and you get another shade of
meaning:
I did not say you stole my red hat. (Strong anger and denial of the fact.)
I did not say you stole my red hat. (Strong anger and denial of the fact.)
I did not say you stole my red hat. (But I implied it that you did. Did you?)
I did not say you stole my red hat (I wasn't accusing you. I know it was someone else)
I did not say you stole my red hat. (I said you did something else with it, or maybe borrowed it.)
I did not say you stole my red hat. (I meant that you stole someone else's red hat)
I did not say you stole my red hat. (I said that you stole my blue hat.)
I did not say that you stole my red hat. (I said that you stole my red bat. You misunderstood my pronunciation)
Analyzing this way, you can see how important stress is in English. Now, you need to understand which words we generally stress and
which we do not stress.
Content words
Content words are the key words of a sentence. They are the important words that carry the meaning or sense—the real
content.
Structure words
Structure words are not very important words. They are small, simple words that make the sentence correct grammatically.
They give the sentence its correct form—its structure.
If you remove the structure words from a sentence, you will probably still understand the sentence. If you remove the content words
from a sentence, you will not understand the sentence. The sentence has no sense or meaning.
This sentence is not complete. It is not a "grammatically correct" sentence. But you probably understand it. These 4 words
communicate very well. Somebody wants you to sell their car for them because they have gone to France. We can add a few words:
Intonation
Intonation is the music of the language. In English, we use tone to signal emotion, questioning, and parts of the sentence among many
other things. It's important to recognize the meaning behind the tones used in everyday speech, and to be able to use them so that
there are no misunderstandings between the speaker and the listener. It is generally true that mistakes in pronunciation of sounds can
be overlooked, but mistakes in intonation make a lasting impression.
In other words we can say that, the intonation of a language refers to the patterns of pitch variation, or the tones,
its uses in its utterance.
Statements
o Nice to meet you.
o I’ll be back in a minute.
o She doesn’t live here anymore.
o Dad wants to change his car.
o Here is the weather forecast.
o Cloudy weather is expected at the end of the week.
Commands
o Write your name here.
o Show me what you’ve written.
o Leave it on the desk.
o Take that picture down.
o Throw that out.
o Put your books on the table.
o Take your hands out of your pockets.
Questions Tags that are statements requesting confirmation rather than questions.
Not all tag questions are really questions.
Some of them merely ask for confirmation or invite agreement, in which case we use a falling tone at the end.
Exclamations
o How nice of you!
o That's just what I need!
o You don't say!
o What a beautiful voice!
o That's a surprise!
Yes/no Questions
(Questions that can be answered by 'yes' or 'no'.)
o Do you like your new ➚teacher?
o Have you finished ➚already?
o May I borrow your ➚dictionary?
o Do you have any ➚magazines?
Questions tags that show uncertainty and require an answer (real questions).
o We've met already, ➚haven't we?
o You like fish, ➚don't you?
o You're a new student ➚aren't you?
o The view is beautiful, ➚isn't it?
We sometimes use a combination of rising and falling intonation in the same sentence.
The combination is called Rise-Fall or Fall-Rise intonation.
Conditional sentences
(The tone rises in the first clause and falls gradually in the second clause.)
o If he ➚calls, ask him to leave a ➘message.
o Unless he ➚insists, I'm not going to ➘go.
10. He __________ his motorbike along the __________. (road/ rode/ rowed)
7. In English, many written words contain consonant letters that are not pronounced. These letters are
referred to as ‘silent’ letters. Match each word with the appropriate meaning below.
1. The __________________ going around the mountain is very scary. (rode, road)
2. _____________________ not going to believe what I saw today. (your, you’re)
3. I don’t know if I would like ___________________ soup or not. (beet, beat)
4. Stanley ran around two ____________________ before they threw him out. (bases, basis)
5. The huge _________________________ sat dangerously close to the edge. (bolder, boulder)
6. The ______________________ in our new house will be ten feet tall. (ceiling, sealing)
7. The ________________________ ripped on the curtain when the cat climbed it. (seem, seam)
8. My neighbor delivers the ______________________ on your ___________________. (mail, male) (rode, road)
9. He said the dog was __________________ but __________ not. (theirs, there’s) (its, it’s)
10. My mom bought us four different kinds of __________________________ to eat. (cereal, serial)
11. An independent _________________________ is a sentence. (clause, claws)
12. We rented a hotel ___________________ when we went on vacation. (suite, sweet)
10. Write sentences for 2 pairs of words, demonstrating the different word class:
1. Conduct
Noun ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Verb ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Digest
Noun ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Verb ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Escort
Noun ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Verb ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Insult
Noun ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Verb ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Produce
Noun ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Verb ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Record
11. Use underlining to show the correct stress on these compound words which have been given in a sentence to
make the word class obvious:
1. I heard a blackbird singing.
2. Put the seedlings in the greenhouse until they are taller.
3. He is a bad-tempered old man.
4. My grandparents are a little old-fashioned. (2 words)
5. I don’t understand what you mean.
6. The water will overflow and come out through this overflow pipe. (2 words)
7. I need to go to the supermarket before I leave for the airport. (2 words)
8. He is waiting at the bus-stop on the main highway. (2 words)
9. He came straight out of the swimming-pool and into the living-room to answer the telephone. (3 words)
10. This raincoat isn’t waterproof. (2 words)
11. Traffic-lights are confusing because I’m colour-blind. (2 words)
12. What’s he like? Well he’s easy-going, and good-looking, very self-confident and always well-dressed. (4 words)
12. Read the sentence. Write the correct word on the line:
1. ____________________ going to be the first to recite ___________________ poem? (Whose, Who’s) (their, there,
they’re)
2. The window ____________________ needs to be painted white. (pain, pane)
3. The yellow part of an egg is called the _______________________, (yoke, yolk)
4. Cindy makes ____________________ salad every time I eat at her house. (pare, pair, pear)
5. Grandma taught me how to _________________ bread __________________. (need, knead) (doe, dough)
6. I love going to the county _______________________ each year. (fare, fair)
7. My dad always says, “I love you _____________” to my mom. (deer, dear)
8. You need to make up your ___________________ before _________ too late. (mined, mind) (its, it’s)
9. They are going to _____________________ Tuesday with __________________ friends. (meat, meet) (there, their,
they’re)
10. The dress looks much better with a belt around the __________________. (waist, waste)
11. Martha Steward showed us how she ____________________________ her turkey. (trust, trussed)
12. Melvin ____________________ make that mistake again. (want, won’t)
2. I want to be a photographer.
a) PHO-to-graph-er
b) pho-TO-graph-er
14. Where is the stress in each of these words? Decide which syllable:
1. reception
st nd
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3rd
2. comparison
st nd rd
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4th
3. potato
st nd rd
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
4. bedroom
5. fourteen
a) 1st b) 2nd
6. forty
a) 1st b) 2nd
7. delicious
st nd rd
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
8. playful
st nd
a) 1 b) 2
15. Mark the stress on the following words as shown in the sample:
oO Oo Ooo oOo
today table confident tomorrow
16. How many syllables are there in each word? Choose the correct answer.
1. monkey
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2. relocation
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
3. magnet
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
5. characterise
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
6. travelling
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
7. rocket
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
8. trying
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
9. garden
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
10. caterpillar
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
17. Match the following conversations with the correct sentence stress:
A. Where did you get these flowers from? The cemetery? 1. I asked you to buy me a bunch of white roses.
B. Yes....
A. Here are the flowers Bob asked me to get. 2. I asked you to buy me a bunch of white roses.
A. Why do these roses have your mother’s name on them? 3. I asked you to buy me a bunch of white roses.
A. In what world would I ask you to buy your mother flowers on our
anniversary? _______________
A. Oh, lilies, they’re beautiful, but _____________ 5. I asked you to buy me a bunch of white roses.
A. I was kind of busy today, so my secretary did me the favour of ordering 6. I asked you to buy me a bunch of white roses.
secretary?
A. Listen, I know a single rose is supposed to be very romantic, but 7. I asked you to buy me a bunch of white roses.
________________
A. Susie, you’re always bossing me around. Ordering me to buy you 8. I asked you to buy me a bunch of white roses.
18. Use the clues provided to find 8 words in the puzzle that contain the diphthongs ou or ow:
19. Look at each of these words. Decide on which syllable the stress falls?
1. personal
st nd rd
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
2. personnel
3. adjective
st nd rd
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
4. enhance
st nd
a. 1 b. 2
5. Canadian
st nd rd th
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
6. Japanese
st nd rd
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
7. psychology
st nd rd th
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
8. politician
st nd rd th
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
The English Learner’s Guide to UK Slang: 18 Must-know British Words for Casual Use
1. Chuffed-When someone is chuffed, they are very pleased or happy about something.
I’m absolutely chuffed with my birthday present. Thanks!
3. Bants-is an abbreviation of “Banter.” means to joke or to exchange witty remarks with others.
I’m going to Nando’s for some bants with the lads.
4.Cheeky-it means that they are being a little rude or disrespectful, but usually in a way that is funny and endearing (cute).
That is a cheeky smile…are you up to something?
Did you just take the last biscuit? That was a bit cheeky!
It can also be used if you are eating, drinking or doing something that you maybe should not or that is not good for
you.
I’m just going to have a cheeky burger on the way home.
Are you coming to the pub tonight? On a Tuesday?! Well OK, just a few cheeky drinks.
6.Cuppa-comes from the phrase “cup of.” You only need to make it clear if it is a “cuppa” coffee or a “cuppa” something
other than tea.
Would you like a cuppa? I’d love one. I’ll get the kettle on.
7.Bum-You may already know that this word is the informal word for “bottom.” It also has another meaning. It is used
when somebody uses or gets something from someone else without paying.
Can I bum a fag?
How did you get here? I bummed a lift with Tony.
8.Mate-While in standard English a mate is a life partner, it is commonly used in Britain to mean a friend. It is also often
used to address strangers in informal situations, such as in bars or on public transport. It is particularly used between men.
What are you doing this weekend? Hanging out with some of my mates.
Excuse me, mate, is anyone sitting here?
9.Gutted-It also has the meaning of being bitterly disappointed about something.
I was gutted when I failed the exam.
11.Fluke-A “fluke” is something caused by chance or luck. Something can also be described as being “flukey,” meaning
that it is particularly lucky or coincidental.
I hit the bulls-eye (the red target on a darts board)!, That was a total fluke! You wouldn’t be able to do it again.
I won 10 pounds on the lotto again!, That is so flukey!
12.Gagging-The original meaning of this word is choking or retching (making movements and sounds like vomiting).
However, it also means to desperately need or want something.
I’m gagging for a cuppa. I haven’t had one all day!
13.Cracking-When something is cracking it is particularly good or excellent. People can also be described as “cracking.” For
example: “He’s a cracking lad.” It can also mean to get started on something (and this meaning is also used in American
speech).
14.Bloody-In standard English, “bloody” usually refers to something covered in blood. In British slang, though, this is an
intensifier (something that puts stress or importance on another word) and a mild expletive (swear word).
Bloody British English is bloody confusing! Bloody hell! Why do they have so much bloody slang's?
Direct Speech: the message of the speaker is conveyed or reported in his own actual words without any change. It is also called as
REPORTED SPEECH.
Indirect Speech: the message of the speaker is conveyed or reported in our own words.
Example on Process of Conversion from Direct to Indirect Speech
a) Direct: Radha said, “I am very busy now.”
b) Indirect: Radha said that she was very busy then.
The verb that introduces the Reported Speech is called the Reporting Verb.
In the above sentence, “Said” is the Reporting Verb and “I am very busy now” is the Reported Speech.
All inverted commas or quotation marks are omitted and the sentence ends with a full stop.
Conjunction ‘that’ is added before the indirect statement.
The Pronoun is changed in Person.
Present Tense is changed to Past.
The adverb ‘now’ is changed to ‘then’.
The first person of the reported speech changes according to the subject of reporting speech.
Words expressing nearness in time or place in Direct Speech are generally changed into words expressing distance in Indirect
Speech.
Now -- then
Here -- there
Ago -- before
Thus -- so
Today -- that day
Tomorrow -- the next day
This -- that
Yesterday -- the day before
These -- those
Hither-- thither
Come -- go
Hence -- thence
Next week/month -- following week/month
a) Direct: She said, “My father came yesterday.”
b) Indirect: She said that her father had come the day before.
c) Direct: She says/will say, “My father came yesterday.”
Indirect: She says/will say that her father had come yesterday. (Here the reporting verb ‘says’ is in the present tense OR ‘will say’ is
in future tense; hence the time expression ‘yesterday’ won’t change.)
Tip 9: Punctuation
The words that are actually spoken should be enclosed in quotes and begin with a capital letter
Example: He said, “You are right.”
Comma, full stop, question mark, or exclamation mark must be present at the end of reported sentences and are placed inside the
closing inverted comma or commas.
Example: He asked, “Can I come with you?”
1. Use the reporting verb, "say" or "said to" in its correct tense.
2. Remove the conjunctions "that, to, if or whether etc" wherever necessary.
3. Insert quotation marks, question mark, exclamation and full stop, as per the mood of the sentence.
4. Write the first word of the statement with capital letter.
5. Change the past tense into present tense wherever the reporting verb is in the past tense.
Example
a) Indirect: He asked whether he is coming.
b) Direct: He said to him, “Are you coming?”
Tutorial
Exercises: Beginner
Spot the Errors: Each of the following sentences has a mistake. See if you can spot that mistake.
Indirect: The boy said that he is happy with his results. (Incorrect)
Indirect: The boy said that he was happy with his results. (Correct)
Indirect: Roshni said that she may meet him here. (Incorrect)
Indirect: Roshni said that she might meet him there. (Correct)
Indirect: She says that she would go to school the day after. (Incorrect)
Indirect: He said that she was coming this week to discuss this. (Incorrect)
Indirect: He said that she was coming that week to discuss it. (Correct)
#8: Direct: The teacher said, “Be quiet and listen to my words.”
Indirect: The teacher said them to be quiet and listen to my words. (Incorrect)
Indirect: The teacher urged /ordered them to be quiet and listen to his words. (Correct)
1. The girl said, ‘It gives me great pleasure to be here this evening.’
2. The man said, ‘I must go as soon as possible.’
3. She said, ‘I don’t want to see any of you; go away.’
4. The teacher says, ‘If you work hard, you will pass.’
5. He said, ‘I have won.’
6. He said, ‘Let’s wait for her return.’
7. Alice said, ‘How clever I am!’
8. ‘Which way did she go?’ asked the young man.
9. He said to me, ‘Where are you going?’
10. ‘Please wait here till I return,’ she told him.
Exercises: Intermediate
Complete the sentences in reported speech. Note whether the sentence is a request, a statement or a
question.
Exercises: Advanced
Mike: "What are you doing here, Liz? I haven't seen you since June."
Liz: "I've just come back from my holiday in Ireland."
Mike: "Did you enjoy it?"
Liz: "I love Ireland. And the Irish people were so friendly."
Mike: "Did you go to the Wicklow Mountains?"
Liz: "It was my first trip. I can show you some pictures. Are you doing anything tomorrow?"
Mike: "I must arrange a couple of things. But I am free tonight."
Liz: "You might come to my place. What time shall we meet?"
Mike: "I'll be there at eight. Is it all right?"
Mike asked Liz _______________ . And he said ______________
Example : what she was doing there; he had not seen her since June
Complete the sentences in reported speech (no backshift). Note the change of pronouns and verbs.
Words are all around us. Sitting down and looking up words in a dictionary is not the only way to find new vocabulary. You can find
new words by talking with English speakers, watching shows in English, reading the news—anywhere, anytime. To keep track of new
words, keep a vocabulary list.
Now that you have a list, it can be easy to forget about these words as you move on to new ones. This is especially true for common
words and words that you’re not sure how to use. The more you use the words, the better you’ll remember them.
3. Play games
Games are a good way to learn because they make learning fun, and they help give you context for your new words. That means
you’re giving the word you learn an extra meaning. For example, you might remember the way that the word was used during the
game. You might remember your friend laughing about how the word was used. You might remember that it was very hard to think of
that word the first time while playing! Having a real-life memory attached to that word makes it much more memorable.
As we already mentioned, it is better (and easier) to learn new vocabulary by giving them some context. One way to do this is to
remember words in a sentence. This is a great option because you will not only know the word, but you will also know exactly how to
use it in conversation.
Many words can be broken down into smaller parts. For example, the word “dictionary” comes from the Latin word dictio, which
means “to speak.”
This is called the root of the word. A root word is a base used to create many words. Now that you know the root word dictio, you
might notice it in other words too, like dictate, dictator and contradict. Even if you don’t know what the words mean, you now know
that they have something to do with speaking.
Now that you’ve learned a few new words, how well do you remember them? You can have fun learning, but you need to make sure
that you are making good progress.
Learning is easier and more fun when you do it with others! Find a group of friends who want to learn English with you, get an online
native speaking buddy or join a website with other learners. Whatever you choose to do, you will benefit greatly from working with
others.
Finally, never be afraid to ask questions! If someone uses words you don’t understand, ask them “what does that mean?” Many people
are very patient and understanding if you tell them that you’re learning English. In fact, many will actually enjoy helping you!
1. Thei 2. Logy
Thei meaning god/religion Logy means study of something
Ist meaning follower o Theology - Teho means god or religion so theology
Now adding different words means study of religion
o Theist meaning the one who believes in god o Anthropology - Anthrop means human being so
o Atheist meaning the one who don’t believe in god. anthropology means study of human being.
o Monotheist mono+theist mono(only one) so o Morphology - Morph means structure so
monotheist means the one who believes in one morphology means study of structures.
god. o Anthropomorphism - Its antrop+morph+ism
o Polytheist Ploy means many so polytheists means meaning is giving human structure to god.
the one who believe in many gods. o Zoomorphism - Its zo+morph+ism meaning giving
o Pantheist Pan mean all over so pantheist is one animal structure to god.
who believe in all gods across all religions.
3. Phobia 4. Cracy
Cracy means govt /system
Phobia means fear or dislike o Democracy - demo+cracy means govt of people
o Autocracy - auto+cracy means
o Zoophobia - zoo+phobia means fear of animal
dictatorship/kingship (when one person rules the
o Androphobia - Andro means boys/male so
whole government or system)
androphobia means the one who don’t like boys.
o Theocracy - Theo+cracy means when government is
o Gynophobia - Gyno means girl / women so
of religious people like priest, bishops etc.
gynophobia means the one who don’t like girls
o Plutocracy - Pluto means wealthy so plutocracy
o Pedophobia - Pedo means child so pedophobia is
means when government is controlled by wealthy
the one who don’t like children’s.
people like industrialist.
o Demophobia - demo means people so
o Oligocracy - Oligo means selected few so oligocracy
demophobia means the one who fear of public
means when selected few runs the government.
speaking.
5. Somnia 6. Cide
Somnia sleepness
Cide meaning kill/ murder
Insomnia means lack of sleep
o Infanticide - infant+cide meaning to kill child.
Somniferous - ferrous means things causing something so o uxoricide - uxor means wife so uxoricide mean A
somniferous are the things that cause sleep like pills etc. husband who murders his wife.
o Somnambulist - som+amb+ist here som means o Mariticide - marit means husband so maritcide
sleep ambu means walk so somnambulist means mean The murder of a husband by his wife.
the one who walk while sleeping. o Patricide - patri means father so patricide means A
o Ambulant - means things able to walk person who murders their father.
o Somniloquist - loquist means talking so o Matricide - matri mean mother so matricide means
somniloquist means the one who talks while A person who murders their mother.
sleeping.
o Benefactor- person who gives money to a cause o Cataclysm- a flood or other disaster
o Beneficial- producing a good effect o Catalogue- a complete listing
o Benevolent- showing kindness or goodwill o Catastrophe- turning for the worst, a substantial
disaster
join work
o Conjunction- a word that joins parts of sentences o Collaborate- to work with a person
o Disjunction- a disconnection o Elaborate- to work out the details
o Junction- a place where two things join. o Laborious- requiring a lot of hard work.
o Dislocate- to put something out of its usual place o Macroevolution- large scale evolution
o Location- a place o Macromolecule- a large molecule
o Relocate- to move to a new place. o Macroeconomics- study of the overall forces of
economy
30. Migr
29. Meta
move
Change, after, beyond, between
death ship
o Panacea- a cure for all diseases or problems o Polychrome- with many colours
o Panorama- an all- around view o Polyglot- a person fluent in many languages
o Pantheism- the worship of all gods o Polygon- shape with 3 or more straight sides
o Pandemic- affecting all
health alone
word city
o Verbalize- to put into words o Suburb- residential area on the edge of a city
o Adverb- a word relating to a verb o Urban- relating to a city
o Proverb- a short saying that expresses a well- o Urbanology- the study of city life
known truth
four poison
Rule 2: If the word to which the suffix “full” is added ends in “ll”, one “I” is removed from the word also.
Skill +full = skilful
Will + full= wilful
Rule 3: Words of two or three syllables ending in single vowel + single consonant double the final consonant if the last syllable is
stressed. e.g.
Permit + ed = permitted
Occur + ing =occurring
Control + ed =controlled
Begin + ing = beginning
Rule 4: Consonant ‘L’ is doubled in the words ending in single vowel + “I” before a suffix beginning with a vowel e.g.
Signal + ing = signalling
Repel + ent = repellent
Quarrel + ed = quarrelled
Travel + er = traveller
Rule 5: Words ending in silent “e”, drop the “e” before a suffix beginning with a vowel e.g.
Hope + ing = hoping
Live + ed = lived
Drive + er = driver
Tire + ing= tiring
Rule 6: If the suffix begins with a consonant “e” is not dropped e.g
Hope + full = hopeful
Sincere + ly= sincerely
But,
True + ly = truly
Nine + th = ninth
Argue + ment = argument
Rule 7: A final “y” following a consonant changes to “i” before a suffix except “ing”. e.g.
Carry + ed = carried
Happy + ly = happily
Marry + age = marriage
Beauty + full = beautiful
But,
Marry + ing = marrying
Carry + ing = carrying
Rule 8: A final “y” following a vowel does not change before a suffix. e.g:
Obey + ed = obeyed
Play + er = player
Pray + ed= prayed
Rule 10: When the suffix “ing” is added to a word ending in “ie”, “ie” is changed to “y”.
Lie + ing= lying
Die + ing = dying
Tie + ing= tying
Hie + ing= hying
Vie + ing= vying
truly no e Trule
Some of the words in parentheses require the addition of the letter e; others are correct as they stand.
2. Group B: IE or EI?
Some of the words require the addition of ie; others require ei.
3. Group C: A, E, or I?
DIRECTIONS for the question 1 - 15: Choose an option, which can be substituted for a given word/sentence/phrase out
of given options.
Question No. : 1 A person who thinks only of himself
a) Egoist
b) eccentric
c) proud
d) boaster
a) traveller
b) stickler
c) disciplinarian
d) pedestrian
a) democratic
b) monarchy
c) plutocracy
d) autocracy
a) polygamy
b) dotage
c) monogamy
d) bigamy
a) biography
b) autobiography
c) anthropology
d) ornithology
a) matricide
b) patricide
c) homicide
d) suicide
a) manuscript
b) inscription
c) Epitaph
d) engrave
a) avaricious
b) spendthrift
c) splendid
d) cynic
a) cruel
b) misogynist
c) misanthropist
d) philanthropist
a) Disciplinarian
b) Stickler
c) Instantaneous
d) Boaster
A) Barrow
B) Toboggan
C) Tricycle
D) Tandem
2) A body of persons appointed to hear evidence or judge and give their verdict (decision)
A) Committee
B) Audience
C) Lawyer
D) Jury
A) Halt
B) Sojourn
C) Intermission
D) Interlude
A) Sanctuary
B) Facade
C) Boulevard
D) Boudoir
A) Granary
B) Garage
C) Hanger
A) Stadium
B) Gymnasium
C) Auditorium
D) Assembly
A) Orphan
B) Posthumous
C) Bastard
D) Progenitor
8) A collection of slaves
A) Crew
B) Company
C) Cortege
D) Coffle
A) Wreathe
B) Wreth
C) Wrath
D) Wreath
A) Dyke
B) Shed
C) Hutch
D) Cave
11) A disease that affects a large number of people in an area at the same time
A) Academic
B) Incorrigible
C) Contagious
D) Epidemic
A) Incurable
B) Infectious
C) Fatal
D) Contagious
A) Geologist
B) Ophthalmologist
C) Usurer
A) Gynaecologist
B) Physiologist
C) Cardiologist
D) Paediatrician
A) Mascot
B) Masque
C) Mask
D) Mosque
A) Red print
B) Transparency
C) Blue print
D) Manuscript
17) A figure of speech by which a thing is spoken of as being that which it only resembles
A) Alliteration
B) Simile
C) Metaphor
D) Personification
A) Geo-stationary
B) Geo-centric
C) Geo-synchronous
D) Polar
A) Genius
B) Learner
C) Scholar
D) Alumnus
A) Scullery
B) Chaperon
C) Quadruped
D) Matron
This concise, supplemental text helps students understand the intricacies of grammar in order to improve their writing skills. A
variety of well-known literary quotes and excerpts contextualize grammar principles and are accompanied by a range of simple to
complex writing exercises. The author uses the method of first breaking down the quotation into its grammatical elements, and then
rebuilding it to examine how the elements and devices create or enhance meaning, demonstrating how the featured writer has used
a sophisticated knowledge of language to communicate effectively.
In a narrative essay, the writer tells a story about a real-life experience. While telling a story may sound easy to do, the narrative
essay challenges students to think and write about themselves. When writing a narrative essay, writers should try to involve the
reader by making the story as vivid as possible. The fact that narrative essays are usually written in the first person helps engage the
reader. “I” sentences give readers a feeling of being part of the story. A well-crafted narrative essay will also build towards drawing a
conclusion or making a personal statement.
A descriptive essay paints a picture with words. A writer might describe a person, place, object, or even memory of special
significance. However, this type of essay is not description for description’s sake. The descriptive essay strives to communicate a
deeper meaning through the description. In a descriptive essay, the writer should show, not tell, through the use of colorful
words and sensory details. The best descriptive essays appeal to the reader’s emotions, with a result that is highly evocative.
The expository essay is an informative piece of writing that presents a balanced analysis of a topic. In an expository essay, the writer
explains or defines a topic, using facts, statistics, and examples. Expository writing encompasses a wide range of essay variations,
such as the comparison and contrast essay, the cause and effect essay, and the “how to” or process essay.
Because expository essays are based on facts and not personal feelings, writers don’t reveal their emotions or write in the first
person.
While like an expository essay in its presentation of facts, the goal of the persuasive essay is to convince the reader to accept the
writer’s point of view or recommendation. The writer must build a case using facts and logic, as well as examples, expert opinion,
and sound reasoning. The writer should present all sides of the argument, but must be able to communicate clearly and
without equivocation why a certain position is correct.
This is the type of essay where you prove that your opinion, theory or hypothesis about an issue is correct or more truthful than
those of others. In short, it is very similar to the persuasive essay (see above), but the difference is that you are arguing for your
opinion as opposed to others, rather than directly trying to persuade someone to adopt your point of view.
PEV 107 Page 75
Formal Writing Style
Complex – Longer sentences are likely to be more prevalent in formal writing. You need to be as thorough as possible with your
approach to each topic when you are using a formal style. Each main point needs to be introduced, elaborated and concluded.
Objective – State main points confidently and offer full support arguments. A formal writing style shows a limited range of
emotions and avoids emotive punctuation such as exclamation points, ellipsis, etc., unless they are being cited from another
source.
Full Words – No contractions should be used to simplify words (in other words use "It is" rather than "It's"). Abbreviations must
be spelt out in full when first used, the only exceptions being when the acronym is better known than the full name (BBC, ITV or
NATO for example).
Third Person – Formal writing is not a personal writing style. The formal writer is disconnected from the topic and does not use
the first person point of view (I or we) or second person (you).
Descriptive Elements:
1. Think about the dominant impression you want to give; don’t attempt to describe every single thing.
2.Use imagery to put your reader right there with you.
3. Order events in time and space in such a way that the reader can imagine the location and time easily.
4. USE ADJECTIVES AND ADVERBS! Instead of: It was hot. In the afternoon, we rested on a log before hiking further into the woods.
Try: Once the afternoon sun began to blaze down upon us, exhaustion set in, and we collapsed on a nearby moss-covered log,
groaning under the weight of its ancient branches. Our hike into the heart of the forest would soon resume.
5. USE A THESAURUS! Instead of: old , Try: elderly, aged, long in the tooth clean try: spotless, hygienic, sterile
1. Using contractions (for example ‘I don’t think’ or ‘We can’t say’ ) instead of the full form (‘I do not think’ or ‘we cannot say.’) ever
use contractions in academic writing.
1) Introduction
2) Elaboration
3) Conclusion
An attention-grabbing "hook"( To introduce topic. Example: write down mobile and its usage. instead of directly starting from
usage of mobile phones, start it with Technology and scenario.)
A thesis statement( demand of the essay, what should be written in body paragraphs and your opinion too if required.) Something
more about Thesis statement: A very basic thesis statement is one or two sentences at the end of the first paragraph that tells the
reader the main idea of your essay.
Sample:
As people live longer and longer, the idea of cloning human beings in order to provide spare parts is becoming a reality.
The idea horrifies most people, yet it is no longer mere science fiction.
The cloning of animals has been occurring for a number of years now, and this has now opened up the possibility of cloning
humans too. Although there are clear benefits to humankind of cloning to provide spare body parts, I believe it raises a number
of worrying ethical issues.
Thesis
Body Paragraph 1: Topic Sentence:
Main Points: 1.
2.
3.
However, for good reasons, many people view this as a worrying development. Firstly, there are religious arguments against it. It
would involve creating another human and then eventually killing it in order to use its organs, which it could be argued is murder.
This is obviously a sin according to religious texts. Also, dilemmas would arise over what rights these people have, as surely they
would be humans just like the rest of us. Furthermore, if we have the ability to clone humans, it has to be questioned where this
cloning will end. Is it then acceptable for people to start cloning relatives or family members who have died?
Conclusion: To conclude, I do not agree with this procedure due to the ethical issues and dilemmas it would create. Cloning
animals has been a positive development, but this is where it should end.
Another Sample: Popular events like the Football World Cup and other international sporting occasions are essential in easing
international tension and releasing patriotic emotions in a safe way.
Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events such as the Olympics and the Football World Cup in
which athletes show their best performance to make their country proud. These sporting occasions have proved to be helpful in
easing international tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to control the world’s economy and other
governments were fighting over the land.
The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can bring nations together, at least temporarily.
From the ancient History, when Greeks and Romans would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the more recent
international disputes, when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their differences, compete peacefully and even
embrace each other after an event. Moreover, these popular events have called the world’s attention to the terrible consequences
of wars; thus some leaders have tried to reach agreements to end their disputes and live peacefully.
Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries which live in a daily internal civil war. For
example, Brazil has a high rate of unemployment, lack of education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which leads to an
immense embarrassment of being Brazilian and a low self-esteem. However, when the Football World Cup starts, the Brazilian
squad, which is considered the best team in the world, provokes an amazing feeling of pride in their country. Most people seem to
forget all their problems and even the criminal activity decreases. They paint roads with the national colors, wear the Brazilian team
In conclusion, popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing international tensions and liberating patriotic feelings as
history has shown.
Giving reasons
One reason for this is that…
This can be explained by…
This can be attributed to the fact that…
It should also be stated that…
Refuting opinions
I would dispute this, however.
However, this is not necessarily the case.
There are some faults with this reasoning, however.
On the other hand, …
Linking phrases
Nevertheless, however, although, in addition, therefore, furthermore, moreover, also, despite this, finally, in fact, indeed,
consequently, eventually, thereafter … (see speaking brief file)
Trend description
- It is certainly true that / There is no doubt that X is increasingly being used to Y nowadays.
- It is certainly true that [populations in developed countries] are increasingly [overweight nowadays].
- Nowadays more and more [specialists] are Z to Y
- Over the past few decades, Z has improved dramatically, [allowing Y to X] [introducing innovative X], which has changed many
aspects of our everyday life
- Over the decades/centuries, [generations of] scientists have been struggling to find answers to the most complicated questions
about X. However, some of them have not been resolved yet. OR been struggling to understand the nature of X
- Nowadays many people increasingly prefer X rather than Y
- Nowadays parents/people can choose whether to Z or X
Problem
- It is certainly true that people are increasingly [producing more garbage], which has had a significant negative effect on the
environment.
- While many people believe that the situation may be improved by Y, I do not consider this as an effective measure and think that
other approaches can be more useful.
People think
Body
Body paragraph opinion essay starting
Conclusion
Restating estimation of good / bad
- I am convinced that problems related to X should be tackled not only by Y, but by the implementation of other measures as well.
This can include…
- In conclusion, X is clearly alarming, and Z should tackle the issue by the implementation of a set of comprehensive measures.
- As a result, … which will have a significant positive effect on [the environment].
- I am convinced that such a comprehensive approach is the best way to eliminate the root cause of many [social] problems.
- Unless these actions are taken, the devastating effect on [the environment] may be irreversible.
Tutorial
EXERCISE: Identify the type of essay in each statement.
1.According to some people, elderly drivers should be required to reapply for their driving licenses because with age comes
diminished vision, hearing, and reaction time. How do you feel about this issue? Explain what you think should be done and why.
2.Have you ever traveled to a place that you found very meaningful and rewarding? Write an essay that persuades others to visit this
important place.
5.Many people spend a great deal of time with animals. Write about the relationships that people have with animals.
6.People often say “Don’t judge a book by its cover.” Describe a time when you misjudged someone based on his or her appearance
or when someone misjudged you.
7. Carpooling, recycling, and planting trees are all activities that are good for the environment. Write an Essay convincing readers to
actively participate in one of these activities.
1. Right To Privacy
2. Concept of new India
3. Demonitisation and its Impact on Indian Economy
4. Information Technology is a developing Technology
5. Adverts are trying to allure consumers these days and showing hidden facts about products. What do you think?
6. Are we happier than our forefathers?
7. The era of Coalition
8. Challenges to Indian Democracy
9. Cashless Economy
10. Has the Budget 2018 lost its excitement, with the introduction of GST?
1. Universal or Main Idea Questions – This question-type asks about the big picture, the passage as a whole.
“Which of the following best summarizes the passage?”
“What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?”
“What is the thematic highlight of this passage?”
Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
The gist of the passage is:
Which of the following is the principal topic of the passage?
“Which of the following best describes one of the main ideas ____?”
2. Specific – This type asks about details from the passage. The correct answer is often a paraphrase of something directly stated
in the passage.
“Which _____ has not been cited as ______?”
“According to the author, what is ______?”
“By a _______, the author means…”
“According to the passage, _______?”
“Which factor has not been cited _______?”
3. Vocab-in-Context – This is a type of Specific question which asks about the use of a particular word or phrase.
“In the passage, the phrase _____ refers to”
“In the sentence, _______, what is the meaning of ‘___’?”
4. Function – This type of question asks about the logical structure of a passage.
“The author cites ______, in order to”
“The _____ in the passage has been used by the author to”
“Which of the following best describes the reason the author ____?”
5. Inference – Inference questions require you to understand what is implied by but not necessarily stated in the passage. The
correct answer may rely on subtle phrases from the passage and be hard to find/less obvious than Specific questions.
“The passage uses _____ to imply that ___”
“Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?”
“What does the author mean by _____?”
“What can be inferred when the author states____?”
The sentence, ‘______’, implies that”
6. Application – This is a slightly more specific type of inference question, where you’re asking to choose an answer which
mimics a process or exemplifies a situation described in the passage.
Which of the following could be used to replace_______?
“A _____, as conceptualized in the passage, can best be described as____”
“Which of the following best illustrates the situation ____”
7. Tone – This question type is also a specific type of inference, requiring you to infer the author’s point of view and position on
certain statements.
“The author of the passage is most likely to agree with ____?”
“Which of the following views does the author most likely support__?”
8. Context outside passage - Like inference questions, applying information questions deal with topics that are not mentioned
explicitly in the passage. This type of question asks you to take the information given in the passage and apply it logically to a
context outside of the passage. An applying information question could look like:
Main Idea 1
Rock, Paper, Scissors is sometimes used to reach a decision. Two players count to three as they pound one fist into the other,
and then each extends a hand in the shape of one of three symbols: scissor (twofinger “V”), paper (flat hand), or rock (closed
fist). These rules determine the winner: 1) scissor cuts paper; 2) paper covers rock; 3) rock breaks scissor.
A. To explain how to play Rock, Paper, Scissors
B. To tell people how to reach a decision
C. To entertain the reader with an exciting way to reach a decision
D. To describe the hand symbols in Rock, Paper, Scissors
Main Idea 2
George Washington is best known for being our first president. He laid the foundation for the great country we live in today.
Before he took on this important role, he was a leader in many other ways. He was an officer in the French and Indian war, in
1775 he became the commander-in-chief of the Continental Army, and he presided over the Constitutional Convention. All of
these important experiences helped mold Washington into the man he became as our president.
A. Washington was a president, leader of the army, and organizer for the Constitutional Convention
B. Washington was more than just our president
C. The United States would not be what it is today without George Washington
D. Washington led our country in many different roles
Main Idea 3
The attitudes of Americans toward gambling are amazingly contradictory. You may find, for example, that horse racing is legal
in your state, but that you cannot legally play poker for money on your front porch; bookies may be prosecuted by state law,
but they are supposed to purchase a federal license nonetheless; one church condemns gambling, while another raises money
by sponsoring Bingo games. Gambling laws are inconsistent from state to state or even from town to town and are very difficult
to enforce.
A. Americans have negative attitudes toward gambling.
B. Gambling laws are difficult to enforce
C. Gambling laws are inconsistent from community to community.
D. Churches do not have uniform ideas about gambling.
Specific - 1
Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should
have never have happened. It was well designed and carefully maintained. It carried the proper number of lifeboats. It had been
thoroughly inspected the day of its fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the Estonia rolled over and sank in a cold, stormy night. It went down
so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins, had no chance to save themselves: Of those who
managed to scramble overboard, only 139 survived. The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold
sea. The final death toll amounted to 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of questions about why the Estonia sank
and why so many survivors were men in the prime of life, while most of the dead were women, children and the elderly.
According to the passage, when the Estonia sank, ----.
Vocab in context - 1
Her paintings are now very famous and, although the dark colours may not be attractive to some people, they evoke the beauty
and mystery of the deep woods and the skill of a great artist.
The word "Evoke"in the passage means:
a) reason
b) discover
c) make you feel
d) disclose
Seeking a competitive advantage, some professional service firms (for example, firms providing advertising, accounting, or health care
services) have considered offering unconditional guarantees of satisfaction. Such guarantees specify what clients can expect and what
the firm will do if it fails to fulfill these expectations. Particularly with first-time clients, an unconditional guarantee can be an effective
marketing tool if the client is very cautious, the firm’s fees are high, the negative consequences of bad service are grave, or business is
difficult to obtain through referrals and word-of-mouth.
However, an unconditional guarantee can sometimes hinder marketing efforts. With its implication that failure is possible, the
guarantee may, paradoxically, cause clients to doubt the service firm’s ability to deliver the promised level of service. It may conflict
with a firm’s desire to appear sophisticated, or may even suggest that a firm is begging for business. In legal and health care services,
it may mislead clients by suggesting that lawsuits or medical procedures will have guaranteed outcomes. Indeed, professional service
firms with outstanding reputations and performance to match have little to gain from offering unconditional guarantees. And any
firm that implements an unconditional guarantee without undertaking a commensurate commitment to quality of service is merely
employing a potentially costly marketing gimmick.
Which of the following is cited in the passage as a goal of some professional service firms in offering unconditional guarantees of
satisfaction?
Inference – 1
Jessie Street is sometimes called the Australian Eleanor Roosevelt. Like Roosevelt, Street lived a life of privilege, but she devoted her
efforts to working for the rights of the disenfranchised, including workers, women, refugees, and Aborigines. In addition, she gained
international fame when she was the only woman on the Australian delegation to the conference that founded the United Nations,
just as Eleanor Roosevelt was for the United States.
Which of the following inferences may be drawn from the information presented in the passage?
a. Eleanor Roosevelt and Jessie Street worked together to include women in the United Nations Charter.
b. Usually, people who live lives of privilege do not spend much time participating in political activities.
c. Discrimination in Australia is much worse than it ever was in the United States.
d. At the time of the formation of the United Nations, few women were involved in international affairs.
Application – 1
The piranha is a much-maligned fish. Most people think that this is a deadly creature that swarms through rivers and creeks of the
Amazon rainforest looking for victims to tear apart. And woe betide anyone unlucky enough to be in the same water as a shoal of
piranhas. It takes only a few minutes for the vicious piranhas to reduce someone to a mere skeleton. The truth is that the piranha is
really a much more nuanced animal than the mindless killer depicted in the media. In fact, piranhas are a group made up of
approximately twelve different species. Each piranha species occupies its own ecological niche. One type of piranha takes chunks out
of the fins of other fish. Another type eats fruit falling from trees into the river. Each piranha species plays a unique role in the
ecology of the rainforest floodplains. So what should you do next time you hear someone talking about the “deadly piranha”? You
can remind them that the piranha is not always the notorious killer fish that the tough, muscular heroes of popular nature television
shows would have us believe.
In paragraph 1, the author uses hyperbole—characterized by the use of exaggeration for effect—to describe the piranha. The
author most likely uses hyperbole to
A. frame an argument that is supported in a later paragraph
B. create ambiguity so the reader cannot be sure which position the writer supports
C. juxtapose the myth of the piranha with the truth about the fish
D. evoke vivid images of nature television shows in the reader’s mind
Tone :
Critical : denotes negative or fault finding attitude of the author. Sometimes, the word critical is also used to denote deep
analysis of the issue with a neutral outlook.
Laudatory/Eulogistic : To shower high praise on something or somebody.
Cynical : A higher degree of pessimism coupled with a sense of skepticism and helplessness.
Satirical : To use humour as a tool for healthy criticism.
Sarcastic : To use the words opposite to what you mean to taunt or make fun of somebody.
Didactic : When the author tries to teach or instruct through his writing.
Nostalgic : Coveys a sense of longing for the past.
Context outside passage – 1
One may react to someone’s sarcastic comment with anger on one occasion but with amusement on another depending on current
emotional status. How responsive one is to another’s needs can vary significantly if, for example, an employee has just been
reprimanded by a superior or praised for excellence in customer relations, or, if someone a professor perceives as an excellent
student hands in sub-standard work. Perceptions are different for one who just learned of the death of a favorite relative or has been
informed that they have won the lottery.
-From Visual Literacy by David Moore and Francis Dwyer
Based on the passage, which statement about perceptions would the authors of the passage most likely agree?
A. One who is both perceptive and emotionally reactive most likely lacks mental stability.
B. Perceptions are wrong and should never be trusted.
C. Present feelings affect one’s perception.
D. One should react without being swayed by one’s perceptions.
1. Detached / Formal
This is a general highlight of an event. Not too descriptive, not too analytical, Hence, formal.
2. Analytical
This gives a few more details, and now we are analysing the given details, hence, analytical.
3. Critical
Critically questions the aspect, hence critical.
4. Disapproving / Cynical
There is a disapproval of the person, the evil doer.
5. Ironic
Self explanatory.
6. Mocking/ Sarcastic
A mocking statement, that even if he's (the evil doer) dead, the people analyzing the after effects (cops, or the Good
Guys), have little or no value, comparatively.
Tutorial
Exercises: Main Idea, Specific, Vocab, Function
1. Select the Main Idea: Someday we will all have robots that will be our personal servants. They will look and behave much like
real humans. We will be able to talk to these mechanical helpers and they will be able to respond in kind. Amazingly, the robots of
the future will be able to learn from experience. They will be smart, strong, and untiring workers whose only goal will be to make
our lives easier.
A. Someday we will all have robots that will be our personal servants.
B. We will be able to talk to these mechanical helpers and they will be able to respond in kind.
C. They will look and behave much like real humans.
D. Amazingly, the robots of the future will be able to learn from experience.
2. Read and select the main idea: Housework is the first thing to fall by the wayside in the time-pressured lives of professional
women. In a survey by Family Circle magazine, over 80 percent of full-time working women said the only way they could balance a
job, home, and family was to sacrifice high cleaning standards. The next thing to get put on the back burner was sex. Almost 75
percent said that by the end of the day, they or their spouses were too tired for anything but TV. Fifty percent reported that
friends and social events were third in line to get squeezed off the calendar.
A. According to a Family Circle survey, full-time working women have to cut back on several customary activities.
B. Women who work full-time say they must sacrifice high cleaning standards.
C. According to a Family Circle survey, full-time working women would be better off if they took on part-time jobs instead.
D. Half of all full-time working women report that working full-time has meant less time for getting together with friends
3. Read and Select the Main Idea: Newspapers had been carrying reports on the famine in Ethiopia for months. Although stories
described how people were starving, there was little response from the public. All that changed in October 1984, when NBC-TV
showed a five-minute report on the famine. As soon as the pictures of starving children were shown, the network's switchboard lit
up. This was the beginning of a huge worldwide effort to send aid to Ethiopia. Similarly, the television coverage of the Vietnam
War contributed to the growing anti-war movement.
A. The first network TV report on the Ethiopian famine was shown in October 1984.
PEV 107 Page 90
B. People who read newspaper reports are not moved by them.
C. Pictures can be more powerful than words alone in moving people into action.
D. TV viewers are more interested in international news than in local news.
4. Patients should always be aware of a prescription drug's possible side effects. Unexpected side effects, such as nausea or
dizziness, can be frightening and even dangerous. The consumer should ask, if he or she can take the medication along with other
drugs he or she is taking. Some combination of drugs can be lethal. Finally, medication should always be stored in its own labeled
bottle, never transferred to another. Accidental mix-ups of drugs can have tragic results. The main idea of this article is:
5. There are more than 350 different kinds of sharks. Some are as long as a fire truck. Some are so small you could hold one in
your hand. Some sharks have dull teeth. Others have teeth so sharp they can take a bite out of a turtle's shell. Did you know that
some sharks even live in rivers? While other sharks hide on the ocean bottom camouflaging themselves so they can catch fish.
There are even some sharks that glow in the dark! Many people don't know how diverse the species of sharks’ are. The main idea
of this article is:
6. Read the following passage: Something strange is happening to frogs. Many are growing extra legs, and some aren't growing
legs at all. Some frogs grow legs that are deformed. That means they aren't the right shape. When the frogs grow their legs
sometimes they split into two. Some scientists have found frogs with up to 9 legs. They think that fertilizer is changing the way
the frogs develop, or grow. What results is some very odd looking frogs. What would be the best title for this section? (Use what
you think the main idea to be to figure out a title)
A. DOUBLE TROUBLE
B. STOP FERTILIZING!
C. FREAKY FROGS
D. A 9 LEGGED WONDER
7. Read the following passage and answer the questions: In the 1800's, white Australians wanted to hunt. So, they brought
rabbits to eastern Australia. It was a bad idea. Soon, there was an overabundance, or way too many, rabbits. Rabbits started to
invade, or take over, farms in the western part of Australia. They ate up all the grass and the ground was left bare. They ate
people's crops, which they used for food. They ate everything they could and caused a lot of damage. They were also pests and
got into people's homes. After about a hundred years, the government couldn't deal with the pests any longer and they decided
to kill the rabbits. The main idea of this article is:
A. Rabbits in Australia ate people's crops and became pests in their homes.
B. The government came up with a solution and decided to kill the rabbits in Australia.
C. Rabbits are annoying animals.
D. In Australia, there were too many rabbits and it caused a lot of problems.
8. In the 1800's, white Australians wanted to hunt. So, they brought rabbits to eastern Australia. It was a bad idea. Soon, there
was an overabundance, or way too many, rabbits. Rabbits started to invade, or take over, farms in the western part of Australia.
They ate up all the grass and the ground was left bare. They ate people's crops, which they used for food. They ate everything
they could and caused a lot of damage. They were also pests and got into people's homes. After about a hundred years, the
government couldn't deal with the pests any longer and they decided to kill the rabbits. All of the following statements support
the idea that rabbits caused problems to Australia except:
Passage 1: Montaigne’s pursuit of the character he called Myself—“bashful, insolent; chaste, lustful; prating, silent; laborious,
delicate; knowing, ignorant”—lasted for twenty years and produced more than a thousands pages of observation and revision.
When he died, he was still revising and, apparently, not at all surprised, since Myself was a protean creature, impossible to
anticipate but also, being always at hand, impossible to ignore. I like to think of the essays as a kind of thriller; with Myself, the
elusive prey, and Montaigne, the sleuth, locked in a battle of equals who were too close for dissimulation and too smart for
satisfaction. And it may be that Montaigne did, too, because he often warned his readers that nothing he wrote about myself was
likely to apply for much longer than it took the ink he used, writing it, to dry.
1. The words “prating” and “laborious,” in context, most likely mean what respectively?
(A) unfortunate
(B) threatening
(C) unwavering
(D) constantly changing
(E) difficult to describe
Directions: Here are three vocabulary-in-context questions. As you read each partial passage, use the context to help you determine
the correct answer.
The British barons who signed the Magna Carta irrevocably committed themselves to supporting the idea of limited monarchy.
a. confined
b. withheld
c. pledged
d. released from
e. performed
Impressionist paintings are now among the most popular words of art in the world. However, when they first appeared, art critics
denounced the paintings, showing no appreciation for the Impressionist's bold new techniques.
a. increase in value
b. understanding
c. scientific interest
I am supposing, or perhaps hoping, that our future may be sound in the past's fugitive moments of compassion rather than in its solid
centuries of warfare.
a. unbroken
b. rugged
c. firm
d. reliable
e. unanimous
Passage 2: The victory of the small Greek democracy of Athens over the mighty Persian empire in 490 B. C. is one of the most
famous events in history. Darius, king of the Persian empire, was furious because Athens had interceded for the other Greek city-
states in revolt against Persian domination. In anger the king sent an enormous army to defeat Athens. He thought it would take
drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire. Persia was ruled by one man. In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule.
Ennobled by this participation, Athenians were prepared to die for their city-state. Perhaps this was the secret of the remarkable
victory at Marathon, which freed them from Persian rule. On their way to Marathon, the Persians tried to fool some Greek city-states
by claiming to have come in peace. The frightened citizens of Delos refused to believe this. Not wanting to abet the conquest of
Greece, they fled from their city and did not return until the Persians had left. They were wise, for the Persians next conquered the
city of Etria and captured its people. Tiny Athens stood alone against Persia. The Athenian people went to their sanctuaries. There
they prayed for deliverance. They asked their gods to expedite their victory. The Athenians refurbished their weapons and moved to
the plain of Marathon, where their little band would meet the Persians. At the last moment, soldiers from Plataea reinforced the
Athenian troops. The Athenian army attacked, and Greek citizens fought bravely. The power of the mighty Persians was offset by the
love that the Athenians had for their city. Athenians defeated the Persians in archery and hand combat. Greek soldiers seized Persian
ships and burned them, and the Persians fled in terror. Herodotus, a famous historian, reports that 6400 Persians died, compared
with only 192 Athenians.
A. refused help to B. intervened on behalf of C. wanted to fight D. given orders for all to fight
4. The people of Delos did not want to ___ the conquest of Greece.
5. The Athenians were ___by some soldiers who arrived from Plataea.
Passage 3: Many great inventions are greeted with ridicule and disbelief. The invention of the airplane was no exception. Although
many people who heard about the first powered flight on December 17,1903, were excited and impressed, others reacted with peals
of laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was repulsive to some people. Such people called Wilbur and Orville Wright, the inventors of
the first flying machine, impulsive fools. Negative reactions, however, did not stop the Wrights. Impelled by their desire to succeed,
they continued their experiments in aviation. Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a compelling interest in aeronautics and
mechanics. As young boys they earned money by making and selling kites and mechanical toys. Later, they designed a newspaper-
folding machine, built a printing press, and operated a bicycle-repair shop. In 1896, when they read about the death of Otto Lilienthal,
5. The old tables were __ and replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on curved surfaces.
Passage 3: Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her husband, Pierre, she discovered
radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie's
amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom. Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father
was a professor of physics. At the early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning
prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university
in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the
Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in physics. Marie was fortunate to have studied
at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in
1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre
was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish.
Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two
young daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress. Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was
asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the
1. The Curies' ____ collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.
3. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt___.
4. Marie ___ by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne.
6. Her ____ began to fade when she returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her husband.
7. Even though she became fatally ill from working with radium, Marie Curie was never ____.
DIRECTIONS for the question 1- 4 : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
On August 3, 1492 , Christopher Columbus set sail from Palos , Spain , with less than a hundred crew members to discover a new
route to Asia. After spending a difficult time at sea, the party sighted land early on the morning ofOctober 12, 1492. They set foot on
an island in the Bahamas which they named Al Salvador. Columbus presumed that the indigenous people were Native Indians as he
was under the mistaken belief that he had set foot on Indian soil. Probably some 10 million American Indians were natives to the land
before the large-scale inhabitation by Europeans and subsequent annihilation of Native Americans started.
However, it took more than a hundred years after Columbus discovered America for the Europeans to finally take the momentous
decision to make the New World their home.
The Native Americans actually welcomed the pale-skinned visitors primarily out of curiosity than anything else. They were fascinated
by the steel knives and swords, fire spewing cannons, brass and copper utensils, etc. that these visitors brought with them.
Eventually, cultural differences erupted. The natives could not stomach the arrogance of the newcomers and the scant respect they
paid to nature. The European settlers viewed every resource — plants, animals, and people as something to be commercially
exploited.
The native Indians were vastly outnumbered in the wars that ensued. The resistance they put up never proved enough to stop the
European settlers. The nomadic lifestyle of the Indians, the relatively unsophisticated weapons at their disposal, the unwillingness of
some of their own people to defend themselves, and the diseases of the white men — all contributed to the virtual elimination of
their race. Some of the diseases brought by Europeans from their overcrowded cities that decimated the natives were: small pox,
plague, measles, cholera, typhoid, and malaria. These deadly diseases, to which most natives had developed no resistance,
devastated many tribes between 1775 and 1850.
Question No. : 2 From the passage we can infer that in comparison to the Europeans, Native Americans were
A. Careless about their environment
B. A very unhealthy lot
C. More respectful of nature
D. Ignorant about sanitation
E. Afraid of outsiders
Question No. : 4 Based on the information in the passage which of the following cannot be inferred?
I. Alien diseases wiped out a large proportion of certain Native American tribes
II. The early settlers totally eliminated the Native Americans
III. To the early settlers, even people were resources to be exploited commercially
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I & II
D. Only III
E. None of these
Passage 2: An increase in the median income of the middle class does not cause average levels of education for the middle
class to go up. If they did, then countries with the highest median income of the middle class would also have the highest levels
of education for this class. In fact, when the median income of the middle class is made suitably comparable for different
countries (accounting for inflation, currency fluctuations and purchasing power parity), there is no such co-relation.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
a) Countries with the highest median income of the middle class do not have the highest levels of education for the middle class
b) It is difficult to reliably compare the education and income levels of one country with another
c) A reduction in the median income of the middle class of the country will not necessarily lower the average level of education for
the said class
d) Countries with low levels of education for the middle class have comparatively higher levels of median income for the middle
class
Passage 3: An increase in the level of serotonin levels in the human body is known to significantly enhance the mood of the
person and in some cases, help people overcome depression. Serotonin taken orally does not pass into the pathways of the
central nervous system, because it does not cross the blood–brain barrier. However, tryptophan and its metabolite 5-
hydroxytryptophan (5- HTP), from which serotonin is synthesized, does cross the blood–brain barrier. These agents are available
as dietary supplements, and may be effective serotonergic agents.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
A. Individuals who do not consume enough tryptophan can develop depressive tendencies
B. Individuals who consume tryptophan can metabolize enough serotonin and do not run the risk of depression
C. Consumption of serotonin laced foods can help cure depression in some cases
D. Tryptophan is an effective agent that can help cure depression in some cases
Passage 5: All registered cyclists have passed an examination covering traffic rules and safety. Those interested in the new
BikeShare Program must register their bicycles and provide a major credit card to ensure payment. Call 555-1212 for more
information.
(A) argumentative (B) sentimental (C) idealistic (D) informative (E) caustic
Passage 6: On hot summer nights his family drove to the local ice cream stand, where, for just a few minutes, nothing mattered but
the cold, sweet treat. No dessert, before or since, was as delicious as a double-dip cone eaten while he balanced on a log behind the
parking lot.
(A) nostalgic (B) biting (C) irreverent (D) cynical (E) satirical
Passage 7: Iguacu Falls, which sit on the border between Argentina and Brazil, are said to make Niagara look like a leaky faucet. The
great cataracts stretch for two and a half miles across lushly foliaged rocky outcroppings before plunging a staggering two hundred
and thirty feet into the river below.The falls region is densely forested, and is home to a wide variety of plants and animals, including
a number of endangered ones. It is a paradise where parrots dive and swoop through the spray,butterflies cavort among the tropical
plants and coatis, and giant otters and anteaters amble through the trees. The foliage itself varies between tropical and deciduous
with orchids blushing in the shade of pines and ferns nodding gracefully in the shadow of fruit trees.
The author’s attitude toward Iguacu Falls can best be described as which of the following?
Passage 8: Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience
as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theater an actor's dramatic
performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theater
such as scenery, costumes, and acting. However, the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather than spoken. The singers are
accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.
Passage 9: Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them helping drowning sailors have been
common since Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we realize that their society is more complex than
people previously imagined. They look after other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest
in the community, as we do. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language but it is much more probable that they
communicate with each other without needing words. Could any of these mammals be more intelligent than man? Certainly the
most common argument in favor of man's superiority over them that we can kill them more easily than they can kill us is the least
satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear superior when we
destroy them.
5. The fact that the writer of the passage thinks that we can kill dolphins more easily than they can kill us ----.
U) means that they are better adapted to their environment than we are
V) shows that dolphins have a very sophisticated form of communication
W) proves that dolphins are not the most intelligent species at sea
X) does not mean that we are superior to them
Y) proves that Dolphins have linguistic skills far beyond what we previously thought
Exercises : Mixed
RC #1
In the United States the per capita costs of schooling have risen almost as fast as the cost of medical treatment. But increased
treatment by both doctors and teachers has shown steadily declining results. Medical expenses concentrated on those above forty-
In the United States it would take eighty billion dollars per year to provide what educators regard as equal treatment for all in
grammar and high school. This is well over twice the $36 billion now being spent. Independent cost projections prepared at HEW and
at the University of Florida indicate that by 1974 the comparable figures will be $107 billion as against the $45 billion now projected,
and these figures wholly omit the enormous costs of what is called “higher education,” for which demand is growing even faster. The
United States, which spent nearly eighty billion dollars in 1969 for “defense,” including its deployment in Vietnam, is obviously too
poor to provide equal schooling. The President’s committee for the study of school finance should ask not how to support or how to
trim such increasing costs, but how they can be avoided.
Equal obligatory schooling must be recognized as at least economically unfeasible. In Latin America the amount of public money
spent on each graduate student is between 350 and 1,500 times the amount spent on the median citizen (that is, the citizen who
holds the middle ground between the poorest and the richest). In the United States the discrepancy is smaller, but the discrimination
is keener. The richest parents, some 10 percent, can afford private education for their children and help them to benefit from
foundation grants. But in addition they obtain ten times the per capita amount of public funds if this is compared with the per capita
expenditure made on the children of the 10 percent who are poorest. The principal reasons for this are that rich children stay longer
in school, that a year in a university is disproportionately more expensive than a year in high school, and that most private universities
depend—at least indirectly—on tax- derived finances.
Obligatory schooling inevitably polarizes a society; it also grades the nations of the world according to an international caste system.
Countries are rated like castes whose educational dignity is determined by the average years of schooling of its citizens, a rating
which is closely related to per capita gross national product, and much more painful.
1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) The educational shortcomings of the United States, in contrast to those of Latin America, are merely the result of poor allocation
of available resources.
(B) Both education and medical care are severely underfunded.
(C) Defense spending is sapping funds which would be better spent in education.
(D) Obligatory schooling must be scrapped if the goal of educational equality is to be realized.
(E) Obligatory education does not and cannot provide equal education.
2. Consider each of the three choices and select all that apply.
The author most likely would agree with which one of the following solutions to the problems presented by obligatory education?
(A) Education should not be obligatory at all.
(B) Education should not be obligatory for those who cannot afford it.
(C) More money should be diverted to education for the poorest.
3. According to the passage, education is like health care in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
(A) It has reached a point of diminishing returns, increased spending no longer results in significant improvement.
(B) It has an inappropriate “more is better” philosophy.
(C) It is unfairly distributed between rich and poor.
(D) The amount of money being spent on older students is increasing.
(E) Its cost has increased nearly as fast.
4. Why does the author consider the results from increased educational expenditures to be “even stranger” than those from
increased medical expenditures?
(A) The aging of the population should have had an impact only on medical care, not on education.
(B) The “Right to Read” should be a bare minimum, not a Presidential ideal.
(C) Educational spending has shown even poorer results than spending on health care, despite greater increases.
(D) Education has become even more discriminatory than health care.
(E) It inevitably polarizes society.
RC #2
The premise with which the multiculturalists begin is unexceptional: that it is important to recognize and to celebrate the wide range
of cultures that exist in the United States. In what sounds like a reflection of traditional American pluralism, the multiculturalists
argue that we must recognize difference, that difference is legitimate; in its kindlier versions, multiculturalism represents the
discovery on the part of minority groups that they can play a part in molding the larger culture even as they are molded by it. And on
the campus multiculturalism, defined more locally as the need to recognize cultural variations among students, has tried with some
success to talk about how a racially and ethnically diverse student body can enrich everyone’s education.
Phillip Green, a political scientist at Smith and a thoughtful proponent of multiculturalism, notes that for a significant portion of the
students the politics of identity is all-consuming. Students he says “are unhappy with the thin gruel of rationalism. They require a
therapeutic curriculum to overcome not straightforward racism but ignorant stereotyping.”
But multiculturalism’s hard-liners, who seem to make up the majority of the movement, damn as racism any attempt to draw the
myriad of American groups into a common American culture. For these multiculturalists, differences are absolute, irreducible,
intractable—occasions not for understanding but for separation. The multiculturalist, it turns out, is not especially interested in the
great American hyphen, in the syncretistic (and therefore naturally tolerant) identities that allow Americans to belong to more than a
single culture, to be both particularists and universalists.
The time-honored American mixture of assimilation and traditional allegiance is denounced as a danger to racial and gender
authenticity. This is an extraordinary reversal of the traditional liberal commitment to a “truth” that transcends parochialisms. In the
new race/class/gender formation, universality is replaced by, among other things, feminist science Nubian numerals (as part of an
Afro- centric science), and what Marilyn Frankenstein of the University of Massachusetts-Boston describes as “ethno-mathematics,”
in which the cultural basis of counting comes to the fore.
The multiculturalists insist on seeing all perspectives as tainted by the perceiver’s particular point of view. Impartial knowledge, they
argue, is not possible, because ideas are simply the expression of individual identity, or of the unspoken but inescapable assumptions
that are inscribed in a culture or a language. The problem, however, with this warmed-over Nietzscheanism is that it threatens to
leave no ground for anybody to stand on. So the multi-culturalists make a leap, necessary for their own intellectual survival, and
proceed to argue that there are some categories, such as race and gender, that do in fact embody an unmistakable knowledge of
oppression. Victims are at least epistemologically lucky. Objectivity is a mask for oppression. And so an appalled former 1960s radical
complained to me that self- proclaimed witches were teaching classes on witchcraft. “They’re not teaching students how to think,”
she said, “they’re telling them what to believe.”
2. According to a hard-line multiculturalist, which one of the following groups is most likely to know the “truth” about political
reality?
(A) Educated people who have learned how to see reality from many different perspectives.
(B) A minority group that has suffered oppression at the hands of the majority.
(C) High government officials who have privileged access to secret information.
3. The author states that in a “kindlier version” of multiculturalism, minorities discover “that they can play a part in molding the
larger culture even as they are molded by it.” If no new ethnic groups were incorporated into the American culture for many
centuries to come, which one of the following would be the most probable outcome of this “kindlier version”?
(A) At some point in the future, there would be only one culture with no observable ethnic differences.
(B) Eventually the dominant culture would overwhelm the minority cultures, who would then lose their ethnic identities.
(C) The multiplicity of ethnic groups would remain but the characteristics of the different ethnic groups would change.
(D) The smaller ethnic groups would remain, and they would retain their ethnic heritage.
(E) The minority cultures would eventually overwhelm the dominant culture, which would then lose its identity.
4. The author speaks about the “politics of identity” that Phillip Green, a political scientist at Smith, notes is all-consuming for
many of the students. Considering the subject of the passage, which one of the following best describes what the author means by
“the politics of identity”?
(A) The attempt to discover individual identities through political action
(B) The political agenda that aspires to create a new pride of identity for Americans
(C) The current obsession for therapy groups that help individuals discover their inner selves
(D) The trend among minority students to discover their identities in their ethnic groups rather than in their individuality
(E) The increased political activism of minorities on college campuses
5. Which one of the following best describes the attitude of the writer toward the multicultural movement?
(A) Tolerant. It may have some faults, but it is well-meaning overall.
(B) Critical. A formerly admirable movement has been taken over by radical intellectuals.
(C) Disinterested. He seems to be presenting an objective report.
(D) Enthusiastic. The author embraces the multiculturalist movement and is trying to present it in a favorable light.
(E) Ambivalent. Like a moth to a flame he is simultaneously attracted and repulsed by the movement.
6. “Multiculturalist relativism” is the notion that there is no such thing as impartial or objective knowledge. The author seems to
be grounding his criticism of this notion on
(A) the clear evidence that science has indeed discovered “truths” that have been independent of both language and culture.
(B) the conclusion that relativism leaves one with no clear notions of any one thing that is true.
(C) the absurdity of claiming that knowledge of oppression is more valid than knowledge of scientific facts.
(D) the agreement among peoples of all cultures as to certain undeniable truths—e.g., when the sky is clear, day is warmer than
night.
(E) the fact that “truth” is not finitely definable and therefore that any discussion of impartial or objective truth is moot.
RC #3
According to usage and conventions which are at last being questioned but have by no means been overcome, the social presence of
a woman is different in kind from that of a man. A man’s presence is dependent upon the promise of power which he embodies. If
the promise is large and credible his presence is striking. If it is small or incredible, he is found to have little presence. The promised
power may be moral, physical, temperamental, economic, social, sexual—but its object is always exterior to the man. A man’s
presence suggests what he is capable of doing to you or for you. His presence may be fabricated, in the sense that he pretends to be
capable of what he is not. But the pretense is always toward a power which he exercises on others.
By contrast, a woman’s presence expresses her own attitude to herself, and defines what can and cannot be done to her. Her
presence is manifest in her gestures, voices, opinions, expressions, clothes, chosen surroundings, taste—indeed there is nothing she
can do which does not contribute to her presence. Presence for a woman is so intrinsic to her person that men tend to think of it as
an almost physical emanation, a kind of heat or smell or aura.
To be born a woman has been to be born, within an allotted and confined space, into the keeping of men. The social presence of
women has developed as a result of their ingenuity in living under such tutelage within such a limited space. But this has been at the
And so she comes to consider the surveyor and the surveyed within her as the two constituent yet always distinct elements of her
identity as a woman.
She has to survey everything she is and everything she does because how she appears to others, and ultimately how she appears to
men, is of crucial importance for what is normally thought of as the success of her life. Her own sense of being in herself is
supplanted by a sense of being appreciated as herself by another. Men survey women before treating them. Consequently how a
woman appears to a man can determine how she will be treated. To acquire some control over this process, women must contain it
and internalize it. That part of a woman’s self which is the surveyor treats the part which is the surveyed so as to demonstrate to
others how her whole self would like to be treated. And this exemplary treatment of herself by herself constitutes her presence.
Every woman’s presence regulates what is and is not “permissible” within her presence. Every one of her actions—whatever its
direct purpose or motivation—is also read as an indication of how she would like to be treated. If a woman throws a glass on the
floor, this is an example of how she treats her own emotion of anger and so of how she would wish to be treated by others. If a man
does the same, his action is only read as an expression of his anger. If a woman makes a good joke this is an example of how she
treats the joker in herself and accordingly of how she as joker-woman would like to be treated by others. Only a man can make a
good joke for its own sake.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that a woman with a Ph.D. in psychology who gives a lecture to a group of students is
probably MOST concerned with
(A) whether her students learn the material.
(B) what the males in the audience think of her.
(C) how she comes off as a speaker in psychology.
(D) finding a husband.
(E) whether a man challenges her.
PERSONALIZE
The statement “To Whom it May Concern” is concerning! Always address your letter to a specific person. If you do not know who
should receive your letter, research the organization’s Web site or call the main number and ask for the appropriate person’s name
and title.
RESEARCH
In addition to determining the recipient’s name and title, research the organization so that you can convey an appreciation for its
mission and an understanding of the duties and qualifications of the position for which you are applying.
CONVINCE
Articulate how your skills and experiences uniquely qualify you for the position and demonstrate why you are a good fit for the
organization. Be clear and concise and limit your cover letter to one page. Additionally, maintain a professional tone while providing
insight into your personality so that your letter leaves an employer with a sense of wanting to learn more about you.
PROOFREAD
A poorly written or error-laden letter is a surefire way to end your candidacy. If you want an employer to spend additional time
reviewing your resume, you must make time to proofread your letter and ensure that your grammar and spelling are perfect.
Paragraph 1: State why you are writing, how you learned of the organization or position, and basic information about yourself. If you
are writing at the suggestion of someone who knows the recipient, say so.
Paragraph 2: Demonstrate your knowledge and interest in the organization, and use specific examples to show how your background
and skills qualify you for the position.
Paragraph 3: This paragraph is optional and is recommended for elaborating on particularly relevant or impressive details included in
your resume.
Paragraph 4: Indicate that your resume and other supporting materials are enclosed. Reiterate your interest in the position and your
desire to meet for an interview. State your plans to follow up via e-mail or phone within a certain period of time and invite the
employer to contact you to request additional information. Lastly, thank the employer for his/her consideration.
Sincerely,
Your name
October 4, 2017
Ms. Lori Hopkins
VP of Information Technology
ABC Corporation
245 Maple St.
Sometown, NJ 55555
I found your posting on Shine.com for a network administrator and I wanted to apply immediately. ABC Corporation’s reputation for
responsive service and proactive support differentiates your company from the rest, and I would like to be part of your dynamic team.
Since graduating from Lovely Professional University with a BS in computer science, I have worked for three years as a network
administrator for DEF Company. In this role, I am valued as a solutions-focused manager of networks, IT systems, user support
functions and technology projects. I have experience in all areas covered in your job ad, including:
Known as a keen technical trouble-shooter, I am dedicated to providing cost-effective and expedient solutions optimizing network
stability and security; improving performance of systems and equipment; and resolving issues such as network crashes, system
slowdowns and virus outbreaks.
At DEF Company, I provide world-class service technical support in an enterprise environment, and I am confident I would quickly
become a productive network administrator at ABC Corporation. If you agree, please call me at (555) 555-5555 to set up an interview.
Sincerely,
Barbara Holt
I have experience with Java, Python, JavaScript, and SQL. This knowledge will be an asset to this position. I would be thrilled to learn
more alongside your cross-functional team of engineers and developers.
My enclosed resume expands on my coursework, employment, and campus involvement. As I prepare for a career in computer
science, I am dedicated to gaining practical experience to complement my coursework. Thank you for your time and consideration. I
look forward to hearing from you soon.
Sincerely,
Peyton Java
[Application Date]
Mr. Justin Shaw
Robotics Startup
Chicago, IL 56789
Dear Mr. Shaw
When I discovered the electrical engineering internship with Robotics Startup on internships.com, I was excited by the opportunity to
develop electrical and electronic design for autonomous robots and mobility platforms. As a junior majoring in Electrical Engineering at
University College, I enjoy designing circuits and experimenting with new technologies. My academics, campus involvement, and
volunteer work have prepared me well for this position.
Academics. After completing courses in Computer Aided Measurement and Controls, Circuit Analysis, Calculus, Physics, and
Electronics, my Major GPA is 3.9.
Campus involvement. As a member of the Robotics Club, I have gained experience with hardware, data processing, sensors,
microcontroller programming, and communication protocols.
Volunteer work. For the past two years, I have mentored a high school robotics team. In preparation for a Robotics Competition,
the students build and program an industrial robot.
I have experience creating circuit schematics and PCB layouts. These skills will be an asset to this position and I would be thrilled to
learn alongside your interdisciplinary team of innovators.
My enclosed resume expands on my academics, campus involvement, and volunteer work. As I prepare for a career in electrical
engineering, I am dedicated to gaining practical experience to complement my coursework. Thank you for your time and
consideration. I look forward to hearing from you soon.
Sincerely,
Adrian Ware
[Date]
[Name of HR Manager]
[Position Title]
Please accept this letter and the accompanying resume as an expression of my interest in a position with your organization.
As my resume indicates, in June 2006, I expect to receive a Bachelor of Science degree in mechanical engineering from California
Polytechnic State University. I would then like to begin employment with an organization in which which my effective performance will
be met with recognition and growth.
I have acquired a sound overall knowledge of leading edge engineering principles, tools, and practices, with emphasis on designing,
building and testing of mechanical systems. I am proficient in the use of various automated solutions including current releases of
AutoCAD and SolidWorks.
I have applied classroom learning to innovative and successful projects in which I served as sole or principal designer. Additionally, I
have been a responsible leader in a family owned small business.
My personal attributes include leadership and sound judgment as well as creativity, analytical and troubleshooting skills. I interact
productively with people from diverse backgrounds. I have a career history of achieving employment goals. I have a history of quality
work carried to timely completion.
I am certain I could make significant contributions to your organization, and I would welcome the opportunity to meet with you to
discuss how my education and abilities might best be employed by your organization.
Sincerely,
Mark Gunlogson
Please accept this letter and the accompanying resume as an expression of my interest for the Mechanical Engineer position offered by
your organization.
I Graduated as a masters in mechanical engineering from university of Alabama in Huntsville. As a mechanical engineer, I have a strong
background in the basic principles of engineering, methods and practices in mechanical system design, testing and troubleshooting
mechanical equipment. In addition, I am proficient in using FEA software’s & advanced CAD designing tools.
As my years of education and experience make me feel confident that I can excel and live up to the expectations in performing the
duties assigned. My enclosed resume provides more details on my qualifications, skills and work experience.
I would welcome the opportunity to meet with you to discuss how my education and experience might best be employed to your
organization. Please feel free to contact me if you have any further questions. I will be available as soon as possible to take up the
responsibilities if you find me as an potential fit for this position.
Sincerely,
Mark Federick
November 8, 2017
Ms. Diane Smith
HR Manager
ABC Company
55 Circle Point
Sometown, AZ 55555
Your civil engineer trainee position is an exciting opportunity. ABC Company’s stellar reputation for providing quality service and
project support to your clients is well-known, and I am motivated to join your team.
Highlights of my credentials:
In addition, I have worked closely with licensed PEs to save our clients and employers tens of thousands of dollars while maintaining
compliance with regulatory requirements. I have provided creative, cost-effective design solutions to issues including erosion,
corrosive groundwater, insufficient water inflow/drainage, soil instability, steep-slope grading and other engineering challenges.
If my credentials and strong understanding of municipal water and wastewater infrastructure systems are well matched to your needs,
please contact me at (555) 555-5555 or email lm@somedomain.com to schedule an interview. Thanks very much.
Sincerely,
Mr Philip Smith
Hiring Manager
Richmond Engineering Services
London
E12 5DD
Dear Mr Smith
I wish to apply for the post of Civil Engineer as advertised on the Dayjob.com web site. The position seems an ideal opportunity for me
as it matches my experience, knowledge and career aspirations.
As you can see from my CV, I have amassed over 7 years of significant, progressive experience in civil engineering projects within the
construction and gas industries. During my career I have participated in more than 20 civil engineering projects, all of them were
successful.
My progressive engineering experience has provided me with the opportunity to develop strong client relation building skills and an
ability to lead multi-disciplinary teams. I am experienced at applying the principles of civil engineering when planning, designing, and
overseeing the construction and maintenance of structures and facilities.
I enclose my resume for your review and look forward to meeting with you in the near future. Should you have any questions or
require clarification on any information please contact me at the above telephone number.
I would welcome the opportunity to talk to you and I hope that you will invite me for a interview. I thank you for your time and I look
forward to hearing from you.
Your sincerely
Richard Daniels
444 Hanley Road
Birmingham
B18 6NF
Mobile: 0121 638 0026
Email: richad.d@dayjob.com
[date]
Please accept my application for the position of Food Scientist as advertised in the Daily Graphic.
I possess top research skills with the ability to liaise effectively in a team.
My attention to detail and excellent problem-solving skills ensure that every project I work on is done accurately and to the highest
possible standard. My verbal communication skills and positive attitude make me an effective communicator with all clients I work
with.
I look forward to the opportunity of discussing my application with you further and how I can significantly contribute to the ongoing
success of your company.
Yours sincerely
Michael Lemodo
Date
Highly motivated individual seeking employment in the Agriculture industry where I can put my skills and training to good use by
helping to solve some of the problems the world faces today.
I have a real desire to learn more about wildlife and a concern for the health and well-being of the different species located all over the
globe. The animals and plants play a major role in our future. It is my hope to help find ways for humans and wildlife to exist together
without major consequences by reducing the impact humans have on the animals as our habitats and technology continues to grow.
I earned a bachelor’s degree in wildlife management from California State University and completed an internship to gain hands-on
experience in this profession. My training focused on conservation, environmental management and wildlife ecology and
management.
I have the ability to conduct research to identify problems associated with the fisheries and wildlife and to find suitable solutions for
these problems. My abilities include excellent verbal and written skills that help me to convey the need for concern and to explain why
changes are needed to protect our future. I also have the ability to compile reports that show the results of my research, along with
possible solutions that can help solve some of these problems.
Other skills that make me suitable for a position in this industry includes having lots of patience along with excellent time management
and multitasking skills and a real desire to make a difference.
PEV 107 Page 109
Please call (111)-494-6970 if you have a position available.
Respectfully,
Signature
William Mitchell
Tutorial
Exercises:
1. Write a cover letter for applying to a job in Tata Consultancy service, considering yourself as a fresher.
2. Write a cover letter for the post of Software Engineer, giving the details of the past experience and achievements.
3. Write a cover letter for the post of Data Analyst in Adobe in Banglore. Inform Ms. Lori Hopkins ,VP of Information
Technology ,Adobe,245 Maple St.,Banglore.
4. Write a cover letter for the post of Hardware Engineer, giving the details of the past experience and achievements.
5. Write a cover letter to the Robotics Pvt Ltd ,to apply for the internship in the Artificial intelligence and neurological
networks. Also, mention your achievements and subjects of interest.
1. Write a cover letter for the post of Design Engineer in XYZ Pvt Ltd, Bangalore. Write the letter to Mr.PR Rattan who is the
Manager of the company . Also, mention about the software you have worked on for designing.
2. Write a cover letter to the Robotics Pvt Ltd ,to apply for the internship in the field of Industrial engineering and testing. Also,
mention about the project which you were handling for testing the machines and various projects.
3. Write a cover letter to Ms. Elisa Thompson from XYZ Company at Hartford, regarding the vacancy for Automobile engineer.
Also, mention about your research work , achievements and projects done till yet.
1. Write a cover letter to Ms. Anna Thompson from XYZ Company at Hartford, regarding the vacancy for civil engineer. Also,
mention about your research work , achievements and projects done till yet.
2. Write a cover letter for the post of Design Engineer in XYZ Pvt Ltd, Bangalore. Write the letter to Mr.PR Rattan who is the
Manager of the company . Also, mention about the softwares and tools you have knowledge and use for designing.
3. Write a cover letter for applying to a job in Anand Construction company, considering yourself as a fresher.
1. Write a cover letter for the post of Junior embedded software engineer in the ABC Pvt ltd, Pune. Write about the experience,
achievements you have attained and also about the projects done till yet.
2. Write a cover letter to the Robotics Pvt Ltd ,to apply for the internship in the Artificial intelligence and neurological
networks. Also, mention your achievements and subjects of interest.
3. Write a cover letter to HBL Power Systems Limited, for the post of electronic engineer. Write this letter as a fresher and do
mention the projects you did in your bachelor degree.
1. Write a cover letter for the post of Farm manager in the Imagine People Solutions Pvt Ltd in Gwalior. Mention your
experience ,projects and internship.
2. Write a cover letter for the post of Soil Scientist in the Reeracoen India Pvt Ltd, Bangalore. Write this letter as a fresher and
do mention about the projects and research papers.
3. Write to the Dharitri Rural Agrotech Pvt Ltd for the post of Plant breeder . Write your previous experience , reason behind
leaving the previous industry.
Para jumbles are jumbled paragraphs. Basically, you are given a paragraph - but the sentences are not in the right order. It's up to
you to untie this knot and rearrange the sentences so that they logically make sense.
1. In some Para jumbles, the candidates are given the introductory or opening sentence of the Para jumble and they’re required to
un-jumble the remaining sentences.
2. In some, the closing sentence is provided and the candidates are required to use this to rearrange the remaining sentences.
3. In some both the opening and closing (concluding) sentences are given. These are the easiest Para jumbles to solve.
4. In most cases, neither the opening nor the closing sentences are given. The candidate has to figure that out on his/her own. These
are the most challenging Para jumbles to solve.
In the above example, clearly, the second option (b) is the introductory/opening sentence. The passage talks about train, railway
station, vacation etc. The first sentence must essentially introduce the person who’s catching the train to go on a vacation.
Sentences ‘a’ and ‘c’ refer to the person as ‘she’, which is an indication that these aren’t the opening sentences. Therefore, option
‘b’ is the opening sentence; it introduces the person ‘Geeta’ and the place ‘Railway station’.
Hence, the right order of the above example would be: b, a, c.
Activities: Some Para jumbles talk about activities. Determining the order of the activities will help you solve the question. Start by
finding out the initial activity. This will enable you to unfold a sequence that follows the flow of the story, thereby helping you put
the sentences in the right sequence.
Example:
a. She sells cupcakes throughout the day and returns home at 6 in the evening.
b. She has her dinner at 8 and goes to sleep at 11.
c. Maria has a cupcake business.
d. She makes the cupcakes at home in the morning.
Central theme: Activities of a person who owns a cupcake business.
Abbreviations and full-forms: Some Para jumbles contain a sentence with a full-form and other sentence(s) with its abbreviations.
Here the sentence with the full-form comes first, followed by the sentence with the abbreviations. Abbreviations are always
introduced with its full-form in preceding sentences.
Example:
a. The CPU carries out the instructions given by the computer program.
b. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is an important part of a computer.
c. CPUs are considered the heart and brains of a computer.
In the above example, sentence ‘a’ and ‘c’ contain the abbreviations ‘CPU’ and sentence ‘b’ contains the full-form of CPU. Therefore,
sentence ‘b’ comes before sentence ‘a’ and ‘c’. Right order: b, a, c.
Ideas and examples: Ideas always precede the examples. Some Para jumbles contain ideas, and examples of those ideas. The
examples always follow the ideas.
Example:
a. Like, the continental shelf, continental slope, abyssal plain and oceanic trenches.
b. The Ocean floor is divided into many parts.
In the above example, sentence ‘a’ contains examples and sentence ‘b’ introduces an idea. Hence sentence ‘b’ comes before
sentence ‘a’.
Connectives and Transition words: Connectives and transition words are logical connectors of different sentences. Connectives are
words that connect two sentences together. Some examples of connectives are: After, When, Because, Alternatively, Although,
Though, Yet, Until, Since, Etc.
Transition words, are words used by the author to shift one idea in a sentence to another (ushering a change). Some examples of
transition words are: However, Besides, Nevertheless, etc.
Sentences that start with a connective or a transition word are almost never introductory sentences. They always refer to
activities/events/people mentioned/introduced in the preceding sentences.
Articles: The articles ‘The’, ‘A’ and ‘An’ too help in finding out the order of the sentences. ‘The’ is a definite article which is used
before something/someone specific or when something/someone has already been introduced in the previous sentences.
Whereas, ‘A’ and ‘An’ articles are used when something is being introduced for the first time and are also used when stating general
facts. A sentence containing ‘A’ and ‘An’ could be an introductory sentence.
Example:
a. The girl had unusually long hair.
b. There was a girl, living in a tall tower.
c. And the tower was the tallest in town and hidden behind a dense foliage.
In the above example, article ‘A’ is used to introduce the girl and the tower and article ‘The’ is used while mentioning the girl and the
tower in options ‘a’ and ‘c’ respectively. Hence, option ‘b’ comes before opening ‘a’ and option ‘c’. Option ‘c’ contains the
connective ‘And’ which is used to connect two sentences, hence ‘c’ comes after ‘a’. Right order: b, a, c.
Pronouns: Pronouns (He, she, it, him, her, their, etc.) are used in place of a person/place/thing that has already been introduced in
one of the preceding sentences. So, if you find a pronoun in a sentence, it probably isn’t an opening sentence.
In the above example, option ‘b’ contains the pronoun ‘he’. Whoever ‘he’ is, should essentially be introduced in one of the preceding
sentences. Option ‘a’ introduces a person ‘Ajay’, hence, ‘he’ mentioned in option ‘b’ refers to ‘Ajay’. Option ‘a’ comes before option
‘b’.
Adjectives: Sometimes, adjectives can help solve Para jumbles too, especially comparative adjectives like better, worse, taller,
shorter, etc.
Example:
a. Rahul’s performance was good.
b. Rahul and Ashok danced on the same song.
c. Ashok’s performance was better.
In the above example, the adjectives ‘good’ and ‘better’ are used. ‘Better’ always comes after good (Good -> Better -> Best), hence,
the option containing ‘good’ comes before the option containing ‘better. Right order: b, a, c.
Time sequence approach: Sometimes Para jumbles contain a time sequence, i.e., words indicating a time sequence, such as, dates,
years, or words like, before, later, after, when, etc. Notice these words and be aware of them, as they can help rearrange the
sentences according to the right time sequence.
Example:
a. Hemant eats his dinner at 8pm sharp.
b. Post-homework, he is allowed to watch TV for half an hour.
c. After that, he does his homework.
In the above example, the words ‘after’ and ‘post’ denote time sequence. Hence, options ‘c’ and ‘b’ come after option ‘a’. Right
order: a, c, b.
Elimination technique: If you’re running out of time, you can use the elimination technique to arrive at the right option quickly.
After finding the opening and closing sentences, you can eliminate options which contain the wrong order of the opening and
closing sentences.
Example:
a. He sells newspapers in the morning.
b. Ramesh is a hardworking person.
c. He takes tuition for primary school children in the evening.
d. He then goes to work as a personal assistant to a businessman.
In the above examples, option ‘b’ is the opening sentence and option ‘c’ is the closing sentence. Therefore, any option that doesn’t
contain option ‘b’ in the beginning and option ‘c’ in the end can be eliminated.
Conclusions: Conclusions generally start with words like, thus, therefore, hence, in conclusion, etc. and are
usually advises/summaries/recommendations/suggestions. Finding the opening and closing sentences makes it easier to connect
them with the other options.
1. Nonetheless, Tocqueville was only one of the first of a long line of thinkers to worry whether such rough equality could survive in the
face of a growing factory system that threatened to create divisions between industrial workers and a new business elite.
2. "The government of democracy brings the nation of political rights to the level of the humblest citizens. He wrote ," Just as the
dissemination of wealth brings the notion of property within the reach of all the members of the community".
3. Tocqueville was far too shrewd an observer to be uncritical about the US, but his verdict was fundamentally positive.
4. No visitor to the US left a more enduring record of his travels and observations than the French writer and political theorist Alexis de
Tocqueville, whose ‘Democracy in America’, first published in 1835, remains one of the most trenchant and insightful analyses of
American social and political practises.
1). The potential exchanges between the officials of IBBF and the Maharashtra Body-Building Association has all the trappings of a
drama we are accustomed to.
2). In the case of sports persons, there is room for some sympathy, but the apathy of the administrators, which has even led to
sanctions from international bodies, is unpardonable.
3). A case in the point is the hefty penalty of US $10,000 slapped on the Indian Body-Building Federation for not fulfilling its
commitment for holding the Asian Championships in Mumbai in October.
4). It is a matter of deep regret and concern that the sports administrators often cause more harm to the image of the country than
sportsmen and sportswomen do through their dismal performances.
A. 1324 B. 4231 C. 2413 D. 3421
Ques 1. S1 : In 1945, America faced two powerful enemies in the world war.
S6 : This was the weapon that ended the second world war.
P : America found conventional weapons insufficient to crush them.
Q : These were Germany and Japan who posed strong opposition to America.
R : The result of this was the production of the atom bomb.
S : The government ordered the scientists to conduct research and produce a new deadly weapon.
(a) QPSR (b) PQRS (c) QPRS (d) PQSR
Ques 2. S1 : Advertising is also advantageous to the consumers, if it increases the sale of goods, industry prospers and prices may
be reduced.
S6 : Advertising of this particular kind is planned to stimulate new wants or to induce the buyers to change their habits.
P : There is no obvious connection, for example, between a picture of a smiling girl and a certain brand sweets.
Q : The advertiser’s assumption is that by looking at such pictures, the consumer would be influenced to buy his products.
R : On the other hand, much of the canvassing, of which the consumer is the object, does not convey information but endeavours
merely to draw the public attention to certain products.
S : But most people like looking at the pictures of pretty girls.
(a) RQSP (b) SPRQ (c) RPSQ (d) SQRP
Ques 3. S1 : We are living in an age in which technology has suddenly ‘annihilated distance.’
S6 : In that event, we should be dooming ourselves to wipe each other out.
P : We have never been so conscious of our variety as we are now that we have come to such close quarters.
Q : Physically, we are now all neighbours are, but psychologically, we are still the strangers to each other.
R : Are we going to let this consciousness of our variety make us fear and hate each other ?
S : How are we going to react ?
(a) QPSR (b) QPRS (c) PRQS (d) SRPQ
Directions (Ques 6-10) : Rearrange the following four sentences (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph then mark the correct sequence as your answer.
Ques 6. A: It also gives rise to a feeling of animosity among the different sections of the society.
B: In a democratic system, frequent use of power is never desirable, be it on the part of government or the people.
Ques 7. A: He was so busy with them that he did not get time to eat.
B: Thousands of people came to him and asked different types of questions.
C: No one cared to see that he had his food or rest that night.
D:Swami Vivekanand once stayed in a small village. The proper sequence should be
(a) BCDA (b) CBAD (c) DBAC (d) DBCA
Ques 8. A: The facts speak for themselves so, they need exposition only, not demonstration.
B: At the present moment, it is widely recognised that India holds the balance in the world-wide competition between rival
ideologies.
C: It is not, of course, only in geographical sense that India is in a key position.
D: India’s key position simply needs pointing out. The proper sequence should be
(a) DACB (b) CDAB (c) BCDA (d) BDAC
Ques 9. A: This feeling of an extensive group gives rise to a fellow feeling, a feeling of brotherhood amongst the citizens.
B: This feeling takes up beyond the bounds of family, caste, religion as well as region and helps us to develop a broad
perspective that all of us together constitute an extensive group called ‘the nation’.
C: National integration is the feeling among all the citizens of a country that they all are part of one nation.
D: We do not, then, limit our thinking to our own caste or religion but think about all our fellow citizens.
(a) CDAB (b) CABD (c) CDBA (d)CBAD
Ques 10. A: The peasant, the shoemaker, the sweeper and such other lower classes of India have much greater capacity for work
and self-reliance than you.
B: Remember that the nation lives in the cottage.
C: They are producing the entire wealth of the land without a word of complaint.
D: This process of production is going through long ages. The proper sequence should be
(a) BDAC (b) BDCA (c) DCBA (d) BACD
Directions (Ques. 11-15) : In questions 11 to 15, there are six sentences marked as S 1,S6 , P,Q,R,S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed
as the first and last sentence of the passage. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives given below every passage,
which would be most logical sequence of the sentences in the passage.
Ques 11. S1 : His wrist watch had gone out of order.
S6 : His estimate appeared reasonable.
P: He took it to a watch repairer.
Q: He gave an idea of the likely cost of the replacement based on the examination of the watch.
R: He found that some parts needed replacement.
S: The repairer opened the outer case and checked the parts.
(a) PQSR (b) RQSP (c) PSRQ (d) RPSQ
Ques 12. S1 : Now-a-days, soap is going almost out of use as a washing agent.
S6 : There are better washing agents than soap,but scientists are not yet sure if their use is harmless to man.
P: They produce lather due to the presence of calcium salts in water.
Q: Its place has been occupied by a new range of chemicals, called detergents.
R: So, they are called soapless soaps.
S: Detergents are not soaps because they are not sodium or potassium derivatives of fatty acids, as a normal soap is.
(a) SQRP (b) QSRP (c) SQPR (d) QPRS
Ques 13. S1 : Our house is high up on the Yorkshire coast and close to the sea.
PEV 107 Page 118
S6 : Between the two, shifting backwards and forwards at certain seasons of the year, lies the most horrible quicksand
on the shores of Yorkshire.
P: One is called the North spit and another the South.
Q: The sand hills here run down to the sea and end in two stretches of rock, sticking out opposite to each other.
R: This one leads through a dark plantation of fir-trees and brings you out between low cliffs to the loneliest and ugliest little bay on
all our coasts.
S: There are beautiful walls all around us in every direction except one.
(a) SQRP (b) QSPR (c) QPSR (d) SRQP
Ques 14. S1 : Unhappiness and discontent spring not only from poverty.
S6 : We suffer from sickness of spirit and hence, we should discover our roots in the eternal.
P: Man is a strange creature, fundamentally different from other animals.
Q: If they are undeveloped and unsatisfied, he may have all the comforts of the wealth, but still feel that life is not worthwhile.
R: He has far horizons, invariable hopes, spiritual powers.
S: What is missing in our age is the soul, there is nothing wrong with the body.
(a) PRQS (b) SPRQ (c) SPQR (d) PRSQ
Ques 15. S1 : Before we left Bareilly jail, a little incident took place which moved me then and is still fresh in my memory.
S6 : This spontaneous act of courtesy and the kindly thought that prompted; it touched me and I felt very grateful to him.
P: He told me the packet contained old German illustrated magazines.
Q: The Superintendent of Police of Bareilly, an Englishman, was present there, and as I got into the car, he handed to me, rather
shyly, a packet.
R: I had never met him before, nor have I seen him since and I do not even know his name.
S: He said that he had heard that I was learning German and so, he had bought these magazines for me.
(a) RQPS (b) QPSR (c) QPRS (d) RQSP
Exercises : Advanced
Read the given sentences and rearrange them logically to from coherent paragraph:
A. KPDC has been set up by Exim Bank in partnership with AfDB, State Bank of India and IL&FS.
B. Opportunities for infrastructure development in Africa are huge with a World Bank study few years back projecting the annual
investment requirement in infrastructure at $ 90 billion.
C. At their bilateral talks, both sides also discussed the aspect of getting the recently formed Kukuza Project Development Company
(KPDC) “off the ground and run”
D. New Delhi continues to strengthen its relations with Africa, accounting for investments estimated at $ 7.4 billion, mostly lines of
credit channelled through Exim Bank, for the implementation of projects across Africa.
E. It’s main purpose is to essentially look to bring infrastructure projects in Africa to a bankable stage and facilitate exports from
India to Africa.
1. Which is the Fourth sentence after Rearrangement?
a) E b) A c) B d) D
A CEO of a major company noted a serious decline in worker productivity during the previous five years. According to a report done by
an outside consultant, productivity dropped by 35% by the end of that period. The CEO has therefore initiated a plan to boost
productivity by giving employees shares of the company as part of their pay package.
Conclusion
Most problems have a central idea or thesis. This is almost always located in the sentence at the beginning of the text or in the
sentence at the very end. In this case, it is at the end of the passage: The CEO has therefore initiated a plan to boost productivity by
giving employees shares of the company as part of their pay package. Words like therefore, thus, hence, and so usually tell us that
this is the conclusion.
Premise
Premises are the facts or evidence that support or lead to the conclusion. Unlike assumptions, they are explicit. Here is an example
from the text: A CEO of a major company noted a serious decline in worker productivity during the previous five years. This premise
helps the author lead to the conclusion or main idea of the text.
Assumption
Assumptions are the facts that support the conclusion, like the premise does, but unlike the conclusion and premises they are not
stated in the text, they are implicit. Here is what would be an example of an assumption for this particular Critical Reasoning
problem: Owning something or part of something obliges you work harder to make it succeed.
Supporting Information
Like a premise, this is stated and explicit information embedded in the text, but unlike a premise, it does not support the conclusion. At
best, it supports a premise or provides further detail or information regarding a premise. From the text: According to a report done by
an outside consultant, productivity dropped by 35% by the end of that period.
Arguments in real life can take a number of forms, but arguments on Critical Reasoning questions are relatively formulaic. The typical
argument has three parts:
1) Premise: the starting point of deductions; often, agreement to this is assumed.
2) Conclusion: what the author wants you to believe by the end of the argument
3) Assumption: the unstated link between premise and conclusion. Although unstated, the assumption is the nerve center of the
argument, the linchpin holding the whole thing together.
Argument: Every hockey fan I know is nice. I do not know Judy, but since she is wearing a hockey jersey, she must be nice.
Premise: Every hockey fan I know is nice. I don’t know Judy. Judy is wearing a hockey jersey.
Assumption: Since Judy is wearing hockey jersey, she is a fan.
Conclusion: Judy is nice
A premise includes the reasons and evidence behind a conclusion. A conclusion is the statement that the premise supports and is
a way of promoting a certain belief or point of view. To help us better identify the premise and conclusion of an argument, we can
take a look at indicator words.
Consider the following argument: Since carrots are full of vitamins, it follows that your body will benefit if you eat them.
In this argument, how do we know which part is considered the premise and which part is the conclusion? The premise here is the
fact that carrots are full of vitamins. The conclusion is that your body will benefit from you eating carrots.
This statement about carrots includes indicator words. Indicator words provide assistance to you when you are trying to identify
an argument and its parts. The phrase Since carrots are full of vitamins uses the indicator word 'since' which is often associated
with premises. The last part of the sentence uses the phrase, 'it follows that' to show that it is a conclusion.
Because since given that seeing that as shown by assuming that considering that for the reason
that
Therefore thus it follows that which proves/implies that which means that as a result so we may
conclude
Practice: Identify premise and conclusion in the following arguments and label them as (p) and (c) respectively.
1. No brass instruments use reeds, and flutes don't use reeds, so flutes must be brass instruments.
2. Betty will be angry unless someone else brings the music stands. But if Ann doesn't bring them, no one will. So either Ann will bring
the music stands or Betty will be angry.
3. If we don't consolidate city and county school systems, the city school system will continue to deteriorate, producing a large
number of young adults who are not equipped to find work that will keep them out of poverty. We must not allow this disastrou s
social situation to occur, so we must consolidate city and county schools.
4. Many herbs are known to have medicinal properties. So it is not a waste of taxpayer dollars to finance trials of herbal treatments
that appear implausible. Open-mindedness is a friend of scientific investigation, and since herbal treatments are widely used, it is
important to determine whether they work and whether they have any harmful effects.
3. [P1] If we don't consolidate city and county school systems, the city school system will continue to deteriorate, producing a large
number of young adults who are not equipped to find work that will keep them out of poverty. [P2]We must not allow this disastrous
social situation to occur, so [C1] we must consolidate city and county schools.
4. [P1]Many herbs are known to have medicinal properties. So [C1]it is not a waste of taxpayer dollars to finance trials of herbal
treatments that appear implausible. Open-mindedness is a friend of scientific investigation, and since [P2] herbal treatments are
widely used, [C2] it is important to determine whether they work and whether they have any harmful effects.
5. [P1] A steady movement of people from the city to suburban and rural areas has decreased the city's population, increased the
percentage of its population that are poor, and increased the percentage of its population that are African-American and Hispanic.
[P2]If the tax base continues to shrink, then the resulting poor support for education and services, combined with racial and ethnic
polarization, will lead to increasing tension between city and suburban populations. [P3]We must stop this trend. [P4]The only way to
stop it is by consolidating city and county governments, so that there is a single tax base in support of a unified, high quality system of
education and a uniform level of municipal services.
II. If different evidence can strengthen the argument; different evidence can weaken the argument as well. Any new information given
in an answer choice that makes the assumption less likely to be correct will weaken the argument as a whole.
The cellular service quality has dropped significantly in India. Ten years ago, there were no instances of call drop or no connectivity.
There is also a decrease in the speed and reliability of service.
All of the following would tend to strengthen the conclusion of the argument above except:
A. The volume of connections handled by the Mobile operators has increased dramatically over the last ten years.
B. Unprecedented increases in the cost as well as scarce availability of spectrum for mobile services have put severe pressures on the
Mobile companies.
C. Mobile services have diversified from carrying mere voice data to a whole range of internet data such as downloading, video-calling,
data sharing, etc.
Now if we look at the option A, it is uprightly giving us a reason as why there is a decline in the services. If the volume of the mobile
connection subscriber increase in a dramatic way, and the service provider is not in a capacity to handle it perfectly, it will surely lead
to mismanagement.
And similar is the case with option B, as- if there is scarcity of spectrum it will be difficult to give good services.
We are now left with option C and D. Option C says that as compared to the older times when the cellular companies were catering to
only one kind of service whereas, now they have diversified their services. This option is weakening the main argument, which makes it
the correct answer option.
Option D is also strengthening the conclusion as it says that due to the negative externality of the radiation, people are opposing it but
they are not opposing the use of mobile phones, which means there may be less mobile towers in comparison to the increasing
subscriber base.
If you are asked to look for an answer choice that strengthens the argument; then find the answer choice that corroborates that the
central assumption is correct.
II. If the correct answer can confirm the assumption by mentioning an experiment, survey or any other proof and helps the assumption
appear to be true, then it will support our main argument.
Beasley & Halpert Law Firm has instituted an Employee Wellness Program that will provide attorneys and support staff with free
access to Smokers Anonymous programs, diabetes monitoring, and discounted memberships to a local gym. Similar programs at other
firm have been shown to improve workplace attendance and performance, and reduce the employer’s costs for employee health
insurance. Thus, the Employee Wellness Program will be good for both the employees and the firm.
If true, which of the following would best support the conclusion of the argument above?
a) Many employees take advantage of free diabetes monitoring when it is offered by employers.
b) Smokers Anonymous programs are only effective for 20% of those smokers who use them.
c) Discounted memberships at a local gym will make it easier for employees to improve their cardiovascular health and reduce the
incidence of serious illness.
d) Exercising without the help of a personal trainer can often lead to injury due to incorrect use of weight-training equipment.
e) Beasley & Halpert will give employees taking part in the Smokers Anonymous program one paid hour off each Friday afternoon to
attend the group meetings.
Choice B makes it LESS likely that the programs will benefit either the employees or the firm. This answer choice may catch your eye if you didn’t read
the question closely enough, and are mistakenly looking for a weakener instead of a strengthener.
Choice C is the correct answer. The argument seems to imply that the increased attendance and performance and reduced health insurance costs are
due to improved employee health, which would naturally benefit the employees. This choice makes that unstated implication clear, and fills the gap
in the argument.
Choice D might be tempting, but again, it requires too many assumptions to tie it into the argument as a strengthener. In order for this to strengthen
the argument, one must assume that employees would still exercise without the personal training services, and that they would incorrectly use the
weight-training equipment.
Choice E might benefit the employees, but it would be a burden to Company X. Therefore, it’s not the best choice.
Assumption questions will ask you to select the answer choice with the information that must be true (the ‘assumption’) in order for
the given argument to be accurate. To figure out the answer, you’ll first need to figure out the main thrust of the given argument. The
correct answer choice, again, will have to be true in order for that argument to be logical. Incorrect answer choices will often
be possibly true, but won’t be absolutely necessary to the argument’s validity.
Last year, support for the social and behavioural sciences represented only about three percent of the government’s total budget for
research funds in the United States. Thus the particularly sharp reductions imposed on such programmes this year seem to be dictated
not by financial constraints but by social philosophy.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the conclusion of the above passage is based?
A. Government funding is the primary source for research money in the United States.
B. The social and behavioural sciences are as valuable as physical and biological sciences.
C. Three per cent is an insignificant portion of the government’s total budget for research funds.
D. The government funds allocated for research in the social and behavioural sciences are not sufficient for the work that needs to
be done.
It’s a simple assumption question. The conclusion, quite clearly, is that the reduction is dictated not by financial concerns, but by social
philosophy. The reasoning here is that since these fields are a mere three percent of the total money spent on research, it would be
foolish to make drastic reductions purely for financial reasons. The basis of the reasoning is obviously that three percent of the money
spent on research isn’t really a significant sum – which is what option C states. C is the correct answer.
While answering a question, you often find that many options seem extremely relevant to the given situation. Remember then, your
job is not to find what is relevant, but to deduce the basis of the argument.
This test always works, and it always a good way to verify an assumption. Here’s the rule:
If you negate a statement, and it’s still possible to imagine that the conclusion is still true even with this negated statement, then
that original statement is definitely not an assumption of the argument.
A. Both Alex & Betty liked the same movie last year
B. Carla didn’t like this movie, and last year, she & Betty liked the same movie.
Inference questions ask you to make inferences—draw logical conclusions—based on the evidence in the given passage. Key words
you might see are imply or infer.
Which of the following can properly be inferred from the statements above?
Which of the following, if true, best supports as a conclusion??
For inference questions, you must draw conclusions only from the information you’re directly given in the passage. Beware of
answer choices that contain words like ‘any,’ ‘best,’ ‘worst,’ ‘only,’ ‘all,’ or ‘none,’ as they are often overly general and can’t be verified
by the limited information in the passage. Incorrect answer choices will often be overly extreme; make leaps in logic that can’t be
verified based on the given info, or contain tangential/unrelated information.
Randall: Many of the productions of my plays by amateur theater groups are poorly done, and such interpretations do not provide a
true measure of my skills as a dramatist.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred from Randall’s statement?
(A) Some amateur theater groups’ productions of Randall’s plays provide a true measure of his skills as a dramatist.
(B) All amateur theater group productions of Randall’s plays that are not poorly done provide a true measure of his skills as a
dramatist.
(C) All of the productions of Randall’s plays by amateur theater groups that do not provide a true measure of his skills as a dramatist
are poorly done.
(D) If a production of a dramatist’s play is well done, then it provides a true measure of his or her skills as a dramatist.
(E) At least some amateur theatrical groups’ productions of Randall’s plays fail to provide a true measure of his skills as a dramatist.
(A) seriously distorts Randall’s statement. Just because some amateur productions don’t do him justice doesn’t mean that there are
other productions that do. If the GMAT tells you that some marbles are red, you can’t automatically infer that some are not red.
(B) is another sort of distortion. Randall’s statement about certain poorly done productions in no way guarantees anything about
productions that aren’t poorly done.
(C) is far too extreme. Randall does establish a correlation between poor production quality and failure to provide a true measure of
his skills, but that correlation has only been established for a certain set of productions and can’t be extended to all productions.
(D) attempts to extract a broad principle from Randall’s statement, but his statement is too particular to allow this kind of
extrapolation.
Paradox Questions
Paradox/Discrepancy questions will ask you to choose the answer choice that explains the paradox in the given argument. A paradox
refers to the coexistence of two seemingly contradictory pieces of information. The correct answer choice will logically explain why
those pieces of information are not actually contradictory. Key words you might see are explain, paradox, or discrepancy.
Which of the statements below provides the most likely explanation for the two seemingly contradictory statements above?
Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the paradox outlined above?
Which of the following, if true, best explains the reason for the apparent discrepancy described above?
French cuisine is famous for its frequent and liberal use of cream and cheese, both high in saturated fat. For years, medical studies
have shown the strong correlation between diets high in saturated fat and coronary heart disease, and yet, France has a much lower
incidence of such disease than found in comparable countries like the United States. This is the so-called French Paradox.
(A) Certain kinds of cheese can have as much as five times the amount of saturated fat that cream has.
(B) People in the United States, per capita, eat almost the same amount of saturated fat on average as do people in France.
(C) The United States imports more cheese from France than from any other country.
(D) Red wine, typically served with French food, helps to clean the buildup of fats in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease.
(E) It is typically for a French person to have either cream or cheese at each of the three meals in a day.
Both (B) and (E) do the opposite: they make the paradox harder to explain. With (B), if folks in the US and France eat about the same
amount of saturated fat, then why do Americans get heart disease but not the French? With (E), if French are eating high fat foods all
the time, why aren’t they getting heart disease? In other words, neither of these answers the question, and in fact, both of them
simply would make it even harder to understand.
Answers (A) and (C) are off-the-wall irrelevant. Choice (A) says that cheese has more fat then cream, but the French are eating both of
those, so it doesn’t matter: either way, the French are eating high fat food. (C) changes the topic to imports, which is completely
unrelated to the direct relationship of diet and epidemiology.
Only (D) resolves the paradox. Since the French drink red wine, which in moderation cleans the arteries, this explains how they could
eat high fat foods and have a much lower risk of heart disease.
Tutorial
Exercises: Weakening, Strengthening, Assumption
1. During the past 20 years, computer scientists focused increasingly on starting and running successful businesses. However, since
businesses must be profitable, computer scientists must focus on developing products that generate profit. Consequently, computer
science has lost its creative aspect.
Which of the following assumptions is most necessary in order for the conclusion above to be drawn from the argument above?
2. For years, a considerable number of students on West County High School's track team complained about shin splints (medial tibial
syndrome). However, during the most recent season, the number of students who complained about shin splints dropped significantly.
School officials assert that this reduction in complaints occurred entirely as a result of the school's decision to build a new running
track that provided a softer running surface, which absorbed much of the shock on the knees and shins that occurs when running and
causes shin splints.
Which of the following, if true, most severely weakens the school officials' explanation for the decrease in complaints about shin
splints?
A) As a result of West County High School's adoption of better medical staff and new medical scanning devices, many
students whose complaints would have been diagnosed in years past as an instance of shin splints are now diagnosed
with a different condition.
B) West County High School built its track after a number of neighboring schools with similar track teams built new tracks
and each school saw the number of complaints about shin splints drop.
C) This past season, members of West County High School's track team received and wore new and highly acclaimed shoes
designed to soften the impact of running on the shin and knee.
D) This past season, the total number of students who complained of pain while running rose.
E) The maker of the new track claims that on average, complaints about shin splints fall 25% when its tracks are
implemented.
3. If the county continues to collect residential trash at current levels, landfills will soon be overflowing and parkland will need to be
used in order to create more space. Charging each household a fee for each pound of trash it puts out for collection will induce
residents to reduce the amount of trash they create; this charge will therefore protect the remaining county parkland.
A) The collection fee will not significantly affect the purchasing power of most residents, even if their households do not reduce
the amount of trash t
B) The collection fee will not induce residents to dump their trash in the parklands illegally.
C) The beauty of county parkland is an important issue for most of the county's residents.
D) Landfills outside the county's borders could be used as dumping sites for the county's trash.
4. Last year the rate of inflation was 1.2 percent, but for the current year it has been 4 percent. We can conclude that inflation is on an
upward trend and the rate will be still higher next year.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?
A) The inflation figures were computed on the basis of a representative sample of economic data rather than all of the available
data.
B) Last year a dip in oil prices brought inflation temporarily below its recent stable annual level of 4 percent.
C) lncreases in the pay of some workers are tied to the level of inflation, and at an inflation rate of 4 percent or above, these pay
raises constitute a
D) Government intervention cannot affect the rate of inflation to any significant degree.
5. Studies last year concluded coffee drinking had little, if any, effect on the risk of pancreatic or kidney cancer. A study of 59,000
women in Sweden found no link between caffeine and kidney cancer. Another review suggested that those who drink coffee have half
the risk of pancreatic cancer.
Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the conclusion drawn above?
6. We, at Comfort Stationers, have always been striving to provide stationery items that would make your work more enjoyable and
less strenuous. Our latest innovations are a smooth-flow pen and gradual-friction paper. A combination of these two reduces strain on
your fingers and allows faster writing the causes lesser fatigue. Therefore, replacement of your pen and paper with our innovative
products reduces cost of clerical jobs.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion drawn in the above argument?
A. Those who are already using the above new products report greater difficulty in transition from new products to regular ones
than from the regular ones to the new ones.
B. The cost of manufacturing these new products is not more than the cost of manufacturing the regular ones and the new
products last longer than the regular ones.
C. The number of offices using the new products is increasing month by month.
D. These products need to be purchased in huge lots and need to be stored in special conditions. The cost of procurement and
strong is quite high.
E. It is found that children get adapted to the new products faster than grown ups.
7. The Supreme Court in its land mark judgement gave women the right to terminate their pregnancy as a constitutional right.
Which of the following, if true, can go against the Supreme Court's judgement?
8. A salesman of cable TV, while trying to sell his product, was explaining to a perspective customer. "Free TV channels are not really
free. You end up paying heavily for the costly advertisements that support free TV channels."
Which of the following, if true, goes against the statement of the salesman?
A. Consumers who do not own a TV are the ones who spend less on purchase as compared to those who own a TV.
B. At places where the reception of signals is very weak, cable TV will be able to provide a better picture quality.
C. Cable TV channels also have as many advertisements as free TV channels.
D. Those who subscribe to cable TV channels also get access to some free TV channels.
9. The board of directors of C & C, a commercial training institute, are split over whether to continue with NDF course because the
government has instructed all the government approved colleges to take admissions based on the scores obtained by the candidates in
the new KJB test.
Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the case for continuing with NDF course?
10. Many people are of the opinion that physical exercise should be made mandatory for employees to improve their efficiency at
workplace.
Which of the following supports the opinion expressed in the above statement?
11. Electricity would revolutionize agriculture according to a prediction of the not-so-distant future published in 1940. Electrodes
would be inserted into the soil, and the current between them would kill bugs and weeds and make crop plants stronger.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly indicates that the logic of the prediction above is flawed?
A. In order for farmers to avoid electric shock while working in the fields, the current could be turned off at such times without
diminishing the intended effects
B. If the proposed plan for using electricity were put into practice, farmers would save on chemicals now being added to the soil.
C. It cannot be taken for granted that the use of electricity is always beneficial.
D. Since weeds are plants, electricity would affect weeds in the same way as it would affect crop plants.
E. Because a planting machine would need to avoid coming into contact with the electrodes, new parts for planting machines
would need to be designed.
12. In anticipation of the coming year, Tecumseh Autos, a national auto manufacturer, is anticipating sales of its vehicles. Tecumseh
manufactures compact cars, sedans, minivans, trucks, SUVs, and sports cars. In all categories of vehicles, Tecumseh sets prices so that
the profit per vehicle is, on average, about the same. Since the best indicator for sales in each category are the sales last year,
Tecumseh’s marketing analysts’ prediction of the three most profitable categories of vehicles in the coming year will be compact cars,
minivans, and SUVs respectively.
Tecumseh’s marketing analysts’ prediction relies on which one of the following assumptions?
(A) Across all manufacturers, the most popular cars on the road in America are compact cars, minivans, and SUVs.
(B) The models of Tecumseh’s compact cars to be sold in the upcoming year are identical to or similar to those of last year.
(C) Last year, no other category of Tecumseh’s vehicles generated more profits than SUVs and less than minivans.
(D) The prediction will be refined after an analysis of the sales in the first quarter of this year.
(E) The number of models of compacts cars that Tecumseh produces is greater than the number of models of either minivans or
SUVs.
13. Most people can gain vitamin C from fruits such as oranges and cantaloupes. People with Laestrygonian Disease have weakened
digestive systems that cannot digest fruit or vitamin supplements. The easiest foods for these people to digest are grains such as rice
and barley. Regular intake of vitamin C would be extremely beneficial to those who suffer from Laestrygonian Disease, so scientists
have figured out a way to create “fortified rice” by infusing rice with high doses of vitamin C. This fortified rice will provide great
benefit to those with Laestrygonian Disease.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the conclusion depends?
(A) Eventually, this fortified rice will be the optimal way for most people to have a regular intake of vitamin C.
(B) The problems that folks with Laestrygonian Disease have digesting fruit are different from their problems digesting vitamin
supplements.
(C) People with Laestrygonian Disease will not be unable to assimilate the form of vitamin C that is present in the fortified rice.
(D) Only people whose diets consist largely of grains would be able to derive benefit from the vitamin C in the fortified rice.
(E) Vitamin C is the only nutrient which can be infused into rice in such high quantities without compromising the nutritional
integrity of the vitamin.
14. Sale Analyst: When polled, all consumers consistently say that, for household staples, they would buy the lowest cost items. Even
when other factors, such as inherent product quality, are introduce, all consumers still argue that low cost should be the highest
priority in buying household staples. Therefore, these responses demonstrate how little most people are aware of the actual priorities
that drive their purchasing decisions.
The conclusion above is properly drawn if which of the following is assumed?
(A) Many people on restricted incomes are not able to afford any brands of household staples more expensive than the lowest
cost items.
15. Urban planner: The mayor of Dismaston supports a new tax code that would assess local businesses on the property value of their
site rather than on their income or profits; the mayor argues that this change will not contribute to any loss in tax revenue for the city.
Several city council members disagree, citing similar changes to tax code that were unsuccessful in cities similar to Dismaston. The
council members’ argument is without merit, though, because property values rise steadily each year, while business incomes
fluctuate wildly with the national economy.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) The new tax code would not apply to the significant number of online business associated with the city that have no physical
presence on a piece of property in the city.
(B) In previous years, the successes and failures of many previous Dismaston tax codes to generate income have been mirrored
by similar tax codes in the the same cities similar to Dismaston in other respects.
(C) A small number of store fronts in the downtown neighborhood are vacant: under the new code, these businesses are likely to
owe higher taxes than they have paid, unless some loophole is written into the law.
(D) The annual percentage rise in real estate values in Dismaston has been consistently more than the average annual growth
rate percentages across all businesses with properties in Dismaston.
(E) In any year, some unsuccessful businesses will close and other businesses, some quite promising, will open, but total amount
of property in the city is fixed and unchanging, providing greater stability.
16. In order to combat Carville’s rampant homeless problem, Mayor Bloomfield recently proposed a ban on sleeping outdoors in the
city’s many parks. He claims that such a measure will force the homeless to either leave Carville or to find means other than sleeping in
public parks.
Which of the following, if true, suggests that Mayor Bloomfield’s plan will be successful?
(A) Until the ban, the city’s many homeless shelters were at less than fifty percent occupancy.
(B) Many homeless tend to congregate underneath Carville’s numerous overpasses.
(C) Adjacent cities have even tougher measures on the homeless sleeping outdoors.
(D) The percent of Carville’s population that has been homeless has been slowly decreasing in the last five years.
(E) Mayor Jonesmith, Mayor Bloomfield’s predecessor, had been far more tolerant towards the city’s homeless population.
17. Megalimpet is a nationwide owner of office space. They have major office buildings in the downtowns of several cities in the 48
lower states, and rent this space to individual companies. Megalimpet office spaces vary from small office to large suites, and every
space has custom-designed wall-to-wall carpeting. The carpet in several Megalimpet facilities needed replacing. The winning bid for
the nationwide carpet replacement was submitted by Bathyderm Carpet Company (BCC). The bid contract involves all delivery costs,
all installation, and any ongoing maintenance and upkeep while the carpet is under the three-year warranty. Both BCC executives and
independent consultants they hired felt BCC would be able to perform all these services for far less than their bid price; these
circumstances would allow BCC to reap a considerable profit.
Which of the following, if true, most calls in question the argument that BCC will make a large profit from this contract with
Megalimpet?
(A) All the carpets will have to be transported by train from BCC factory in Louisville, KY, to Megalimpet’s locations from coast to
coast.
(B) BCC has already supplied carpets to a number of restaurant chains, and some of those spaces are as large as Megalimpet’s
largest office spaces.
(C) The carpet installation teams will have to cut different sizes of the carpets for the different size office suites in the
Megalimpet buildings.
18. A minor league baseball franchise experienced a drop in attendance this week after they suffered three losses by margins of ten
runs or more last week. Many spectators of those games wrote letters to the editors of the local sporting news, complaining of the
poor play of the team in those three losses. Nevertheless, the front office of this baseball franchise maintains that the team’s poor
play in those three losses has nothing to do with this week’s decline in attendance.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the position held by the front office of the baseball franchise?
(A) The spectators who wrote letters to the local sporting news were long-standing fans of this minor league baseball team.
(B) Many minor league baseball franchises attribute a drop in attendance to the quality of play of the team only after a string of
losses.
(C) Other minor league teams in that region of the state reported a similar drop in attendance this week.
(D) This was not the first time this team suffered multiple lopsided losses in a single week, prompting similar letters to the local
sporting news.
(E) This minor league team is over four hours from the closest major league team, so many of the minor league team’s fans do
not often attend major league games.
19. In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes
always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth
century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the
general public uses the word “beautiful” to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their
expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually
engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.
Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?
(A) Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public.
(B) The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it.
(C) Beauty is a defining quality of art.
(D) All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century.
(E) It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging.
20. The National Farm Administration (NFA) has been concerned over the last decade with the struggles of barley growers.
Plan: In an effort to support these barley growers, two years ago, the NFA began a program of sending them, each autumn, a free
special mix of fertilizer and enzymes designed to multiply barley yield, to be applied the following spring during first growth. This mix
had been stunningly successful in multiplying the yield of barley in laboratory conditions.
Results: Most barley growers reported little change in their economic status over this two year period.
Further information: All barley growers received the shipments, and all used them. Weather conditions have been fair to optimal for
barley growth over the past two years.
In light of the further information, which of the following, if true, does most to explain the result that followed the implementation of
the plan?
(A) During these two years, most of the barley growers reported using no other fertilizer besides the special mix sent by the
government.
1. Many scientific studies have found links between genius and mental illness, particularly bipolar disorder in which patients have
violent mood swings between elation and depression. In one interesting Swedish study, 700,000 Swedes had intelligence tests at age
16 and again 10 years later. Those who scored well were four times more likely than the others to have developed bipolar disorder.
The US neurologist James Fallon came up with a convincing argument based on his own findings in the field: the brain area involved in
mood swings is the same area where creativity is born. This may explain why some people can draw previously unseen connections
among ideas, images, shapes and the like.
2. India’s baffling array of state and national labor laws date to the 1940s: one provides for the type and number of spittoons in a
factory. Another says an enterprise with more than 100 workers needs government permission to scale back or close. Many Indian
businesses stay small in order to remain beyond the reach of the laws. Big firms use temporary workers to avoid them. Less than 15%
of Indian workers have legal job security. The new government can sidestep the difficult politics of curbing privileges by establishing a
new, simpler labor contract that gives basic protection to workers but makes lay-offs less costly to firms. It would apply only to new
hires; the small proportion of existing workers with gold-star protections would keep them.
Which of the following options best summarizes the main idea of the paragraph?
(A) More Indian workers can get permanent jobs and legal job security if existing labor laws are reformed.
(B) Effective labor law reform can encourage many Indian businesses to grow to more than 100 workers.
(C) Outdated Indian labor laws need to be simplified to provide basic protection to workers and curb privileges.
(D) The difficult politics of curbing privileges can be avoided if the changes in the labor law only apply to the new hires.
3. A study published in 2006 by Friedrich Schneider on the world’s shadow economies dealt briefly with the “tax morality” of Germans.
According to the study, two-thirds of the Germans surveyed regarded tax evasion as a “trivial offence,” while only one-third judged
stealing a newspaper this way. Indian tax morality is similar, but it makes a distinction between expatriate illicit money, which is
viewed as a serious crime perpetrated by the very corrupt, and money held within India, which is perceived as a practical measure.
4. Data on planes returning from bombing missions was used to study of the vulnerability of airplanes to enemy fire. Analyzing the
pattern and frequency of hits from enemy gunfire, it was seen that some parts of planes were hit disproportionately more often than
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other parts. How could these planes be optimally reinforced with armor plating? There were tradeoffs to consider. Every addition of
plating added to the weight of the plane, decreasing its performance. Therefore, reinforcements needed to be added only to the most
vulnerable areas of the planes.
5. Oklahoma is not perceived as overpopulated because, in spite of a horrendous drought, it is not facing famine. Famine in Oklahoma
is inconceivable because it receives a fair price for its exports, it has not leased its land to foreign countries, the poorest of the poor
receive a helping hand from the government, and farmers and ranchers receive federal assistance in times of droughts. It is a lack of
these factors in Horn of Africa, plus political insecurity in Somalia, which explain the famine – not overpopulation.
Which of the following options best summarizes the main idea of the paragraph?
(A) Hunger is caused by too many people pressing against finite resources.
(B) In spite of drought and overpopulation, there is no famine in Oklahoma.
(C) Overpopulation and famine are not causally related in the Horn of Africa.
(D) Famine in the Horn of Africa is not only due to overpopulation but, more importantly, due to the lack of government
assistance and political insecurity.
6. In Dec 2014, the Pew Research Center conducted a survey, asking 1507 people spread among all 50 states and the District of
Columbia , “What do you think is more important – to protect the right of Americans to own guns or to control gun ownership?” For
the first time in more than two decades, a higher percentage (52%) said it was more important to protect the right of Americans to
own guns than to control gun ownership (46%). The researchers used 1993 as a reference point because it's seen as the height of gun
violence in America; they also noted that gun-related violence fell sharply in the 1990s and more gradually in later years. But Pew also
noted that many Americans didn't seem to agree with the numbers. A survey found that only 12 percent of respondents thought the
gun crime rate was lower than it was in 1993 — and 56 percent thought it was higher.
7. Contrary to popular belief, the idea of evolution didn’t originate with Darwin, but was around for decades before he came along. His
accomplishment was to come up with a workable scheme by which it likely occurred. Darwin, it must be said, had unusual exposure to
the enormous diversity of life on earth for a man living in his time, through his voyage on the Beagle. However, his eureka moment
came not through studying biology, but by reading the paper of an economist, Thomas Malthus, which showed that populations grow
faster than the resources to sustain them. It was then that Darwin realized that only those best adapted to their environment would
survive and pass on their traits to offspring.
8. It has been argued by behavioral economists in all earnestness that poverty shapes mindsets. From here, it is a hop, skip, and jump
to holding that the poor are poor because their poverty prevents them from thinking and acting in ways that can take them out of
poverty. When behaviorist economics speaks of poverty as a “cognitive tax”, it writes ‘action’ — the political agency of the poor — out
of the equation. In such a case, the focus as well as the onus of poverty-alleviation would shift from the state — from macroeconomic
policy, from having to provide employment, health and education — to changing the behavior of the poor. The structural causes of
9. In an attempt to encourage “livelier” writing, some teachers want children to stop using words like ‘said’, which doesn’t have any
emotion. The assumption here is that emotion is a desirable quality in every word of a sentence, and that a rich word is always more
appropriate than a plain one. You don’t have to invoke Hemingway, who made a fetish of plain words, to recognize that successful
writing modulates the lavishness of its diction for effect, rather than cranking the dial all the way to maximum floridity and leaving it
there.
10. Euphemisms in use seem to change every generation or so – a tendency towards which we often roll our eyes. But the fact is that a
word is always redolent of various associations and metaphorical extensions beyond its core meaning. Indeed, a word is like a bell
tone, with a central pitch seasoned by overtones. As the tone fades away, the overtones can hang in the air. Words then bias as
equivalents to the overtones. As we move on the euphemism treadmill then, from ‘crippled’ to ‘handicapped’ to ‘disabled’ to
‘differently abled’, we acknowledge the eternal gulf between language and opinion. In a linguistically mature society, we should expect
that the terms we introduce to help us kick off new ways of thinking will require periodic replacement, like tyres.
11. Many students, especially those who are poor, intuitively know what the schools do for them. They school them to confuse process
and substance. Once these become blurred, a new logic is assumed: the more treatment there is, the better are the results; or,
escalation leads to success. The pupil is thereby schooled to confuse teaching with learning, grade advancement with education, a
diploma with competence, and fluency with the ability to say something new. His imagination is schooled to accept service in place of
value. Medical treatment is mistaken for health care, social work for the improvement of community life, police protection for safety,
military poise for national security, the rat race for productive work. Health, learning, dignity, independence, and creative endeavor
are defined as little more than the performance of the institutions which claim to serve these ends, and their improvement is made to
depend on allocating more resources to the management of hospitals, schools, and other agencies in question.
Which of the options below conveys the main idea of the paragraph best?
(A) Only organizations that are not very efficient can adapt to change well.
(B) Too little slack in organizations is as bad for innovation as too much slack.
(C) Reducing slack to zero can cost businesses their adaptability to change.
(D) Business processes without slack slow down an organization’s progress.
13. The image of an oral telling may be caught on paper, film or in digital format, but recordings are not the word shared live. The
presence of teller and audience, and the immediacy of the moment are not fully captured by any form of technology. Unlike the insect
frozen in amber, a told story is alive. It always changes from one telling to the next depending on the voice and mood of the
storyteller, the place of its telling and the response of the audience. The story breathes with the teller’s breath.
Which of the options below conveys the main idea of the paragraph best?
(A) Unlike stories in paper, film and digital formats, a told story is alive, and hence more potent.
(B) The immediacy and intimacy of live storytelling cannot be captured by recordings.
(C) Technology and oral storytelling are separated by a deep divide and one cannot take the place of the other.
(D) The living human presence experienced through oral tradition brings out the true power of stories.
14. The median house value in Butlerville has fallen significantly in the last few months. Nonetheless, the number of homes sold has
been at its lowest level in seven years.
Which of the following best explains the discrepancy?
(A) The value of homes is not the only determinant of whether a house will be sold.
(B) The neighboring city of Jacksonburg has seen a recent surge in home sales.
(C) The Butlerville economy is struggling and the unemployment rate has reached historic rates.
(D) Analysts predict that the number of homes sold will increasing in the coming year.
(E) Homes priced over a million dollars have seen the sharpest decline in sales.
15. TV networks believe that football broadcasts provide greater opportunity for profit than any other sport. This belief persists
despite the fact that professional baseball leagues have increased their revenue by fifty percent over the last ten years while
professional football leagues have increased revenue by only fifteen percent over that time.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most help to reconcile the TV networks' beliefs with the statistics cited?
16. Under the modern model for music distribution, musicians sell the right to broadcast their music to companies who give listeners
affordable access to large quantities of music. Some musicians who have been selling their music for many years are displeased with
the new model and have seen decreased revenue. Yet, musicians as a whole are making more money under the new model than they
were previously.
Which of the following, if true, would most help to reconcile the apparent conflict?
(A) Some musicians want to make more money than they made under the old model
(B) The old model could be used now and would generate more revenue than the new model
(C) The new model is not generating as much revenue as it could be generating
(D) A greater number of musicians sell music now than under the old model
(E) Music producers charge higher fees now, leaving less revenue for musicians
Which of the following, if true, would most help resolve this discrepancy?
(A) Most medications that doctors prescribe to reduce cholesterol levels are clinically proven to be effective.
(B) High cholesterol levels are proven be correlated with hypertension disorders.
(C) Many doctors receive large gifts from pharmaceutical companies.
(D) Engaging in extensive physical exercise can stress the human heart.
(E) Low levels of cholesterol are proven to increase quality of life.
18. Over the past ten years, insurance premiums have increased, resulting in a large decrease in insurance enrollment across the
country. Insurance company revenues, however, have progressively increased in each of the ten years during this period, and industry
analysts predict further increases in years to come.
Which one of the following, if true, offers the best explanation for the situation described above?
19. During his second semester of college, Tom enrolled in tutoring sessions to help him improve his grades. However, his GPA for his
second semester was worse than his GPA for his first semester.
Each of the following, if true, helps to explain why Tom's GPA worsened, EXCEPT:
(A) The tutoring sessions that Tom enrolled in were counterproductive because the tutor taught him incorrect information.
(B) Tom took much more difficult courses his second semester than he did during his first semester.
(C) Tom experienced a personal crisis during his second semester that distracted him from school.
(D) Tom's school initiated a new academic policy his second semester, which required all professors to base their grading on a
curve.
(E) The tutoring sessions took more time than Tom had realized they would take.
20. Eye surgery has become a viable alternative to wearing glasses. There have been questions about long term effectiveness for many
years, but the doubt seems to be disappearing. Few people have reported negative effects even years after surgery and many people
say their improved vision has lasted. We should see the demand for eye surgery increasing drastically as a result of doubts being
dispelled. Yet, the number of people obtaining eye surgeries remains relatively constant.
(A) Most people who decide to not have eye surgery, do so because of the high cost
(B) Eye surgery is more popular in some locations than in others
(C) Some people have experienced negative effects from eye surgery
(D) There are many negative effects from eye surgery even though most people now believe that there are none
(E) Previous doubts about eye surgery effectiveness were unreasonable
Exercises: Mixed
1. The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average
of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii,
therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana. Which of the
following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage?
2. The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average
of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii,
therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana. Which of the
following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the conclusion drawn in the passage?
A. As population density increases in Hawaii, life expectancy figures for that state are likely to be revised downward.
B. Environmental factors tending to favor longevity are abundant in Hawaii and less numerous in Louisiana.
C. Twenty-five percent of all Louisianans who move to Hawaii live longer than 77 years.
D. Over the last decade, average life expectancy has risen at a higher rate for Louisianans than for Hawaiians.
E. Studies show that the average life expectancy for Hawaiians who move permanently to Louisiana is roughly equal to that of
Hawaiians who remain in Hawaii.
3. A program instituted in a particular state allows parents to prepay their children's future college tuition at current rates. The
program then pays the tuition annually for the child at any of the state's public colleges in which the child enrolls. Parents should
participate in the program as a means of decreasing the cost for their children's college education. Which of the following, if true, is
the most appropriate reason for parents NOT to participate in the program?
A. the parents are unsure about which public college in the state the child will attend.
B. The amount of money accumulated by putting the prepayment funds in an interest-bearing account today will be greater
than the total cost of tuition for any of the public colleges when the child enrolls.
C. The annual cost of tuition at the state's public colleges is expected to increase at a faster rate than the annual increase in the
cost of living.
D. Some of the state's public colleges are contemplating large increases in tuition next year.
E. The prepayment plan would not cover the cost of room and board at any of the state's public colleges.
4. Company Alpha buys free-travel coupons from people who are awarded the coupons by Bravo Airlines for flying frequently on Bravo
airplanes. The coupons are sold to people who pay les for the coupons than they would pay by purchasing tickets from Bravo. This
making of coupons results in lost revenue for Bravo. To discourage the buying and selling of free-travel coupons, it would be best for
Bravo Airlines to restrict the
A. number of coupons that a person can be awarded in a particular year
B. use of the coupons to those who were awarded the coupons and members of their immediate families
C. days that the coupons can be used to Monday through Friday
D. amount of time that the coupons can be used after they are issued
E. number of routes on which travelers can use the coupons
5. To prevent some conflicts of interest, Congress could prohibit high-level government officials from accepting positions as lobbyists
for three years after such officials leave government service. One such official concluded, however, that such a prohibition would be
unfortunate because it would prevent high-level government officials from earning a livelihood for three years. The official's
conclusion logically depends on which of the following assumptions?
A. Laws should not restrict the behavior of former government officials.
B. Lobbyists are typically people who have previously been high-level government officials.
C. Low-level government officials do not often become lobbyists when they leave government service.
D. High-level government officials who leave government service are capable of earning a livelihood only as lobbyists.
E. High-level government officials who leave government service are currently permitted to act as lobbyists for only three years.
6. A conservation group in the United States is trying to change the long-standing image of bats as frightening creatures. The group
contends that bats are feared and persecuted solely because they are shy animals that are active only at night. Which of the following,
if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the accuracy of the group's contention?
A. Bats are steadily losing natural roosting places such as caves and hollow trees and are thus turning to more developed areas
for roosting.
B. Bats are the chief consumers of nocturnal insects and thus can help make their hunting territory more pleasant for humans.
C. Bats are regarded as frightening creatures not only in the United States but also in Europe, Africa, and South America.
D. Raccoons and owls are shy and active only at night; yet they are not generally feared and persecuted.
7. Meteorite explosions in the Earth's atmosphere as large as the one that destroyed forests in Siberia, with approximately the force of
a twelve-megaton nuclear blast, occur about once a century. The response of highly automated systems controlled by complex
computer programs to unexpected circumstances is unpredictable. Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn, if
the statements above are true, about a highly automated nuclear-missile defense system controlled by a complex computer program?
A. Within a century after its construction, the system would react inappropriately and might accidentally start a nuclear war.
B. The system would be destroyed if an explosion of a large meteorite occurred in the Earth's atmosphere.
C. It would be impossible for the system to distinguish the explosion of a large meteorite from the explosion of a nuclear
weapon.
D. Whether the system would respond inappropriately to the explosion of a large meteorite would depend on the location of the
blast.
E. It is not certain what the system's response to the explosion of a large meteorite would be, if its designers did not plan for
such a contingency.
8. Opponents of laws that require automobile drivers and passengers to wear seat belts argue that in a free society people have the
right to take risks as long as the people do not harm other as a result of taking the risks. As a result, they conclude that it should be
each person's decision whether or not to wear a seat belt. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion
drawn above?
A. Many new cars are built with seat belts that automatically fasten when someone sits in the front seat.
B. Automobile insurance rates for all automobile owners are higher because of the need to pay for the increased injuries or
deaths of people not wearing seat belts.
C. Passengers in airplanes are required to wear seat belts during takeoffs and landings.
D. The rate of automobile fatalities in states that do not have mandatory seat belt laws is greater than the rate of fatalities in
states that do have such laws.
E. In automobile accidents, a greater number of passengers who do not wear seat belts are injured than are passengers who do
wear seat belts.
9. The cost of producing radios in Country Q is ten percent less than the cost of producing radios in Country Y. even after
transportation fees and tariff charges are added, it is still cheaper for a company to import radios from Country Q to Country Y than to
produce radios in Country Y. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?
A. labor costs in Country Q are ten percent below those in Country Y.
B. importing radios from Country Q to Country Y will eliminate ten percent of the manufacturing jobs in Country Y.
C. the tariff on a radio imported from Country Q to Country Y is less than ten percent of the cost of manufacturing the radio in
Country Y.
D. the fee for transporting a radio from Country Q to Country Y is more than ten percent of the cost of manufacturing the radio
in Country Q.
E. it takes ten percent less time to manufacture a radios in Country Q than it does in Country Y.
10. Toughened hiring standards have not been the primary cause of the present staffing shortage in public schools. The shortage of
teachers is primarily caused by the fact that in 11 recent years teachers have not experienced any improvements in working conditions
and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other professions. Which of the following, if true, would most support the claims
above?
A. Many teachers already in the profession would not have been hired under the new hiring standards.
B. Today more teachers are entering the profession with a higher educational level than in the past.
C. Some teachers have cited higher standards for hiring as a reason for the current staffing shortage.
D. Many teachers have cited low pay and lack of professional freedom as reasons for their leaving the profession.
E. Many prospective teachers have cited the new hiring standards as a reason for not entering the profession.
11. Increase in the level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) in the human bloodstream lower bloodstream-cholesterol levels by
increasing the body's capacity to rid itself of excess cholesterol. Levels of HDL in the bloodstream of some individuals are significantly
increased by a program of regular exercise and weight reduction. Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements
above?
A. Individuals who are underweight do not run any risk of developing high levels of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
12. When limitations were in effect on nuclear-arms testing, people tended to save more of their money, but when nuclear-arms
testing increased, people tended to spend more of their money. The perceived threat of nuclear catastrophe, therefore, decreases the
willingness of people to postpone consumption for the sake of saving money. The argument above assumes that
A. the perceived threat of nuclear catastrophe has increased over the years.
B. most people supported the development of nuclear arms
C. people's perception of the threat of nuclear catastrophe depends on the amount of nuclear-arms testing being done
D. the people who saved the most money when nuclear-arms testing was limited were the ones who supported such limitations
E. there are more consumer goods available when nuclear-arms testing increases.
13. A discount retailer of basic household necessities employs thousands of people and pays most of them at the minimum wage rate.
Yet following a federally mandated increase of the minimum wage rate that increased the retailer's operating costs considerably, the
retailer's profits increased markedly. Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox?
(A) Over half of the retailer's operating costs consist of payroll expenditures; yet only a small percentage of those expenditures go
to pay management salaries.
(B) The retailer's customer base is made up primarily of people who earn, or who depend on the earnings of others who earn, the
minimum wage.
(C) The retailer's operating costs, other than wages, increased substantially after the increase in the minimum wage rate went
into effect.
(D) When the increase in the minimum wage rate went into effect, the retailer also raised the age rate for employees who had
been earning just above minimum wage.
(E) The majority of the retailer's employees work as cashiers, and most cashiers are paid the minimum wage.
14. Products sold under a brand name used to command premium prices because, in general, they were superior to nonbrand rival
products. Technical expertise in product development has become so widespread, however, that special quality advantages are very
hard to obtain these days and even harder to maintain. As a consequence, brand-name products generally neither offer higher quality
nor sell at higher prices. Paradoxically, brand names are a bigger marketing advantage than ever. Which of the following, if true, most
helps to resolve the paradox outlined above?
(A) Brand names are taken by consumers as a guarantee of getting a product as good as the best rival products.
(B) Consumers recognize that the quality of products sold under invariant brand names can drift over time.
(C) In many acquisitions of one corporation by another, the acquiring corporation is interested more in acquiring the right to use
certain brand names than in acquiring existing production facilities.
(D) In the days when special quality advantages were easier to obtain than they are now, it was also easier to get new brand
names established.
(E) The advertising of a company's brand-name products is at times transferred to a new advertising agency, especially when
sales are declining.
15. High levels of fertilizer and pesticides, needed when farmers try to produce high yield of the same crop year after year, pollute
water supplies. Experts therefore urge farmers to diversify their crops and to rotate their plantings yearly. To receive governmental
price-support benefits for a crop, farmers must have produced that same crop for the past several years. The statements above, if
true, best support which of the following conclusions?
(A) The rules for governmental support of farm prices work against efforts to reduce water pollution.
(B) The only solution to the problem of water pollution from fertilizers and pesticides is to take farmland out of production.
(C) Farmers can continue to make a profit by rotating diverse crops, thus reducing costs for chemicals, but not by planting the
same crop each year.
(D) New farming techniques will be developed to make it possible for farmers to reduce the application of fertilizers and
pesticides.
(E) Governmental price supports for farm products are set at levels that are not high enough to allow farmers to get out of debt.
16. A famous singer recently won a lawsuit against an advertising firm for using another singer in a commercial to evoke the famous
singer's well-known rendition of a certain song. As a result of the lawsuit, advertising firms will stop using imitators in commercials.
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Therefore, advertising costs will rise, since famous singers' services cost more than those of their imitators. The conclusion above is
based on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Most people are unable to distinguish a famous singer's rendition of a song from a good imitator's rendition of the same song.
(B) Commercials using famous singers are usually more effective than commercials using imitators of famous singers.
(C) The original versions of some well-known songs are unavailable for use in commercials.
(D) Advertising firms will continue to use imitators to mimic the physical mannerisms of famous singers.
(E) The advertising industry will use well-known renditions of songs in commercials.
17. The interview is an essential part of a successful hiring program because, with it, job applicants who have personalities that are
unsuited to the requirements of the job will be eliminated from consideration. The argument above logically depends on which of the
following assumptions?
(A) A hiring program will be successful if it includes interviews.
(B) The interview is a more important part of a successful hiring program than is the development of a job description.
(C) Interviewers can accurately identify applicants whose personalities are unsuited to the requirements of the job.
(D) The only purpose of an interview is to evaluate whether job applicants' personalities are suited to the requirements of the
job.
(E) the fit of job applicants' personalities to the requirements of the job was once the most important factor in making hiring
decisions.
18. Because no employee wants to be associated with bad news in the eyes of a superior, information about serious problems at lower
levels is progressively softened and distorted as it goes up each step in the management hierarchy. The chief executive is, therefore,
less well informed about problems at lower levels than are his or her subordinates at those levels. The conclusion drawn above is
based on the assumption that
(A) problems should be solved at the level in the management hierarchy at which they occur
(B) employees should be rewarded for accurately reporting problems to their superiors
(C) problem-solving ability is more important at higher levels than it is at lower levels of the management hierarchy
(D) chief executives obtain information about problems at lower levels from no source other than their subordinates
(E) some employees are more concerned about truth than about the way they are perceived by their superiors
19. Chaos Inc., a company in the fast moving consumer goods sector had sales output rising by nearly 12% per year. A new
partner, Kim, joined the company and introduced many innovations such as Kaizen groups to solve manufacturing problems, and
e-business applications involving vendors and distributors. But after Kim’s advent, sales output increased by only 6% per year. It
appears that the innovations implemented by Kim caused the reduction in the annual sales growth rate.
Which of the following if true would weaken the above conclusion?
A) Kim’s innovations were focused on long-term improvement and ignored short-term profitability and growth.
B) Chaos Inc. does not price its products based upon the actual cost of production.
C) General demand for the company’s product has declined over time.
D) Managers of the company were busy in creating innovations, rather than focusing on sales promotions.
E) None of these
20. The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude toward artistic expression. Freedom of expression can
easily be violated in even the most outwardly democratic of societies. When a government arts council withholds funding from a
dance performance that its members deem “obscene,” the voices of a few bureaucrats have in fact censored the work of the
choreographer, thereby committing the real obscenity of repression.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
A) Members of government arts councils are screened to ensure that their beliefs reflect those of the majority
B) The term obscenity has several different definitions that should not be used interchangeably for rhetorical effect
C) Failing to provide financial support for a performance is not the same as actively preventing or inhibiting it
D) The council’s decision could be reversed if the performance were altered to conform to public standards of appropriateness.
E) The definition of obscenity is something on which most members of society can agree.
21. It is unfortunate for a country, specially for the poor and women, that whenever any kind of disincentive – even of the mildest
nature such as debarring a person with more than two children from contesting any local body election – is introduced to
promote family planning, there are always some activists and organizations who unnecessarily oppose the measures without
realizing that the voluntary family planning programmes area miserable flop as clearly highlighted by the national family health
surveys.
Which of the following if true would strengthen the author’s contention?
22. In recent study published in The Journal of Family Practice, no significant benefit over a placebo was found from using the
antibiotic Amoxicillin among 135 patients with typical indications of a sinus infection. All the patients complained of sinusitis, with
pus in the nasal cavity, facial pressure of nasal discharge lasting longer than seven days. A small subgroup of patients receiving the
antibiotic became better faster than the others. But the researchers were unable to discern anything about those patients prior
to administering Amoxicillin that indicated a bacterial infection, as opposed to a viral one.
From the above passage it may be inferred that
A) Use of an antibiotic is beneficial for sinusitis patients.
B) Antibiotics should be administered to only those sinusitis patients, who have been diagnosed to have a bacterial infection.
C) Antibiotics do not have any effect on sinusitis patients.
D) Use of an antibiotic may be beneficial for a small percentage of sinusitis patients with bacterial infection, but in general
antibiotics are useless for sinusitis patients.
E) None of these
23. Governments have only one response to public criticism of socially necessary services: regulation of the activity of providing
those services. But governments inevitably make the activity more expensive by regulating it, and that is particularly troublesome
in these times of strained financial resources. However, since public criticism of child-care services has undermined all confidence
in such services, and since such services are socially necessary, the government is certain to respond.
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A) The quality of child care will improve.
B) The cost of providing child-care services will increase.
C) The government will use funding to foster advances in child care.
D) If public criticism of policy is strongly voiced, the government is certain to respond.
E) If child-care services are not regulated, the cost of providing child care will not increase.
24. A survey recently revealed a high correlation between a household’s level of education and its library. Specifically, the more
years of college and graduate school education received by the household’s members, the more books in the household’s library.
The survey also indicated that the higher the education level of the household, the greater the percentage of books that are not
works of fiction in its library.
Which of the following can be properly inferred from the survey results cited above?
A) People with a higher level of education prefer reading nonfiction to works of fiction.
B) Households with low education levels generally own more works of fiction than do households with high education levels.
C) Households with lower levels of education generally own more works of fiction than nonfiction.
D) The higher the education level of a household, the fewer works of fiction owned by the household.
E) Households with high education levels generally own more nonfiction books than do households with low education levels.
25. Columnist: The winner of this year’s national spelling bee won by correctly spelling the spoken word Ursprache, which means
“fame” in German. Given the richness of our language, why must we resort to words taken from modern foreign languages to
challenge our best spellers? Ursprache is listed in our dictionary, as are words from many other foreign languages, but future
spelling bees should limit themselves to words in our dictionary that have been anglicized in all aspects because spelling English
words, not knowledge of linguistics and international phonetics, is the point of these contests.
Which of the following can most reasonably be inferred from the argument above?
A) The spelling contest winner knew how to spell most of the anglicized words in the dictionary.
B) Foreign words are more difficult than anglicized words for all contestants to spell.
C) Spelling contestant winners should be determined by their facility with all aspects of language.
D) To spell foreign words, contestants must recognize the language and know its pronunciation.
E) The English language contains more borrowed words than most other languages.