Talk To Us

10/20/2018 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store
Purchased by kumaarmanish95@gmail.com
Q1.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people A, U, G, I, O, D, N and S are sitting in a straight line with equal distances between each
other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing North and some of them are
facing south.
A sit at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only three people sit between A and N. O sits exactly
between A and N. A has only one brother, who is a grandfather. S is a grandmother and G is a son
in law whose grandson does not sit at any of the ends. Both the immediate neighbours of O face
south. Both the sister in laws are sitting at the ends. S sits third to the right of O. U is an immediate
neighbour of S and faces south. G sits second to the right of D. G is not an immediate neighbour of
N. Immediate neighbour of N face opposite directions(i.e. if one neighbour faces North then the
other neighbour faces south and Vice-Versa)
Only one couple is there in the seating arrangement out of which the wife is sitting third to the left
of her husband. Neither O nor her maternal grandfather who is not G, is sitting second from one
of the end have their spouse in the sitting arrangement but both of them have at least one child in
the sitting arrangement. A and I face the same direction as O(i.e. if O faces north then A and I also
face North and Vice-Versa). I is a sister-in-law of G. S is the grandmother of N.
In the given arrangement, if two people come and sit to the immediate left of O, how many people
will sit between D and G? (1 Mark)
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. More than four
E. One
Your Answer: Not Attempted
Correct Answer: B
Talk to Us
https://store.adda247.com/#!/myTestAnalysis/printsolution/mappingId=38381/packageId=599/lang=ENGLISH 1/136
Solution
Q2.
facing south.
Who amongst the following sits third to the right of D? (1 Mark)

A. Paternal aunt of O
B. U
C. Other than those given as options
D. I
Talk to Us
E. O
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q3.
facing south.
How many people face North as per the given arrangement? (1 Mark)
A. Two
B. Three
Talk to Us
C. Can’t be determine
D. Four
E. One
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q4.
facing south.
Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way based upon their seating arrangement and so
Talk to Us
form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group? (1 Mark)
A. OG
B. AD
C. UD
D. GN
E. IN
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q5.
facing south.
Talk to Us
Who among the following is the grandmother of D? (1 Mark)

A. N
B. U
C. S
D. I
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q6.
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I, II and III given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are su cient to answer
the question. Read all the three statements and give answer:
In a ve- oor building, on which oors does Akansha live? (Starting from rst oor going up to fth
oor)
I. Akansha lives exactly above Ram’s at, whose at is exactly above Vinay’s at.
II. Shiva lives on top oor.
III. Rohan lives exactly above Akansha’s at. Vinay lives on the rst oor. (2 Mark)
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both II and III
Talk to Us
D. Both I and III
E. Data inadequate
Correct Answer: D
Solution
From I and III, we can determine only.

Q7.
Who among Mahesh, Siva, Neha and Moorthy is the heaviest?
I. Siva is heavier than Moorthy.

II. Mahesh is not as heavy as either Neha or Siva.
III. Moorthy is neither the heaviest nor the lightest. (2 Mark)
A. Only I
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. All I,II and III
E. Can’t be determined
Correct Answer: E
Solution
From none of statement , we can’t determine as there is no relation.

Q8.
On which day of the week did Neha arrive?
I. Her sister, Anu, correctly remembers that she did not arrive on Monday. Talk to Us
II. Her friend, Mahesh, correctly remembers that she arrived before Friday.
III. Her mother correctly mentions that she arrived before Friday but after Tuesday. (2 Mark)
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. All I, II and III
E. Data inadequate
Correct Answer: E
Solution
M Tu W Th F Sat S
She didn’t arrive on monday from I
From II => before Friday mean Tu Wed Th
From III =>Wednesday and Thursday
So, Data is inadequate.
Q9.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
PS, GS, CS, DS, KS and LS joined six di erent renowned MBA institutes — A, B, C, D, E and F and
opted for six di erent specializations in Management — Finance, IT, Operations, HR, Marketing
and General Management.
Each of them has a di erent educational quali cation out of BCA, B. Com, BBM, B.Sc ,CA and B.
Tech.
The following information is available about them:
(i) DS joined institute B and did not take up marketing or IT and is not a B.Tech.
(ii) The person who joined institute E opted for HR and is not a CA or a B.Sc.
(iii) The person, who is a BCA graduate, joined the institute D and took IT.
Whereas, the person, who is B. Com graduate, took up General Management.
(iv) PS joined institute F, CS is a BCA graduate and GS took up HR.
(v) LS is a CA and has taken nance.
(vi) The person who is B.Tech ,has taken operational management and did not join institute A or C.
What is the educational quali cation of DS and what is the course she opted for ? (1 Mark)
A. B.Sc and Finance
Talk to Us
B. B. Com and General Management
C. BBM and HR
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The educational quali cation of DS is B. Com and the course is General Management.
Q10.
Tech.
Which institute did the B. Tech Graduate join ? (1 Mark)

A. F Talk to Us
B. D
C. A
D. C
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q11.
Tech.
The educational quali cation of KS is (1 Mark)

A. B. Sc Talk to Us
B. BCA
C. BBM
D. CA
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q12.
Tech.
If LS joined the institute C, then the student who joined the institute A opted for (1 Mark)
A. Finance Talk to Us
B. Marketing
C. General Marketing
D. HR
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q13.
Tech.
Which of the following Institute join by CS? (1 Mark)

A. A Talk to Us
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q14.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow–
From a Point X, Vipul starts to walk in west direction and covers a distance of 10 meters then he
takes a right turn and covers a distance of 8 meters then after he takes a left turn and covers a
distance of 6 meters and nally he takes a right turn and covers a distance of 12 meters and
reaches at Point Y. From a Point Z, Vijay starts to walk in south direction and covers a distance of
12 meters then he takes a left turn and covers a distance of 6 meters then after again he takes a
right turn and covers a distance of 6 meters and nally takes a right turn and covers a distance of
22 meters and reaches at Point Y.
Point Z is which direction and how far from Point X? (1 Mark)

A. 26 meters west
B. 38 meters north
C. 32 meters south
D. 36 meters north
E. 34 meters south
Correct Answer: B Talk to Us
Solution
Q15.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow–
From a Point X, Vipul starts to walk in west direction and covers a distance of 10 meters then he
takes a right turn and covers a distance of 8 meters then after he takes a left turn and covers a
distance of 6 meters and nally he takes a right turn and covers a distance of 12 meters and
reaches at Point Y. From a Point Z, Vijay starts to walk in south direction and covers a distance of
12 meters then he takes a left turn and covers a distance of 6 meters then after again he takes a
right turn and covers a distance of 6 meters and nally takes a right turn and covers a distance of
22 meters and reaches at Point Y.
How much distance, Vipul and Vijay (together) covered in west direction? (1 Mark)
A. 36 meters
B. 38 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 44 meters
E. 42 meters
Correct Answer: B
Talk to Us
Solution
Q16.
Each of the questions below consist of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are su cient to
answer the question and mark the appropriate option as answer.
There are seven letters N, H, D, S, B, U and A. Is the word ‘HUSBAND’ formed after performing the
following operations using these seven letters only?
Statements:
I. A is placed to the right of U, which is not near to B. The word ends with letter D.
II. B is placed immediate next (either left or right) to S. N is placed fth to the right of H.
III. Only two letters are placed between N and S.
Which of the following statements are su cient to answer the above question? (2 Mark)
A. I and II together are su cient
B. II and III together are su cient
C. I and III together are su cient
D. All three statements are required
E. All statements together even are not su cient
Correct Answer: E
Talk to Us
Solution
Q17.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family sitting around a circular table and all of
them are facing away from the centre. They likes three di erent TV shows namely Breaking Bad,
Prison Break and The Simpsons. But each of them has a di erent favorite character in the TV
series they like viz. Alexander Mahone, Jesse Pinkman, Saul Goodman, Michael Sco eld, T-Bag,
Homer Simpson, Walter White and Guss Fring, but not necessarily in the same order. C sits second
to the right of F’s wife, whose favourite character is neither Michael Sco eld nor Guss Fring. No
male is an immediate neighbour of C. E’s son sits second to the left of H and on the immediate
right of the person whose favourite character is Saul Goodman. H, who is brother of B, likes Guss
Fring. H is not an immediate neighbour of F’s wife. E’s son’s favorite character is Jesse Pinkman.
Only one person sits between G and H. F’s sister E sits on the immediate right of her father, whose
favourite character is Walter White. G is mother of B. Only one person sits between F’s father and
Talk to Us
A. A sits on the immediate left of the person whose favourite character is Homer Simpson. Only
one person sits between F and B. B sits second to the left of the person whose favourite character
is Alexander Mahone. B is father of D and is not an immediate neighbour of A.
Which of the following person is sitting opposite to the one who likes T-Bag? (2 Mark)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q18.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family sitting around a circular table and
Talk to all
Us of
Whose favourite is Alexander Mahone? (2 Mark)

A. D
B. G
C. Father of D
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Talk to Us
Q19.
Who among the following is E’s son? (2 Mark)

A. B
B. F
C. A
D. D
E. C
Correct Answer: C
Talk to Us
Solution
Q20.
Talk to Us
The person whose favorite character is T-Bag is sitting between whom among the following? (2
Mark)
A. The persons whose favorite characters are Homer Simpson-and Saul Goodman
B. The persons whose favorite characters are Walter White and Jesse Pinkman
C. The persons whose favorite characters are Jesse Pinkman and Michael Sco eld
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q21.
them are facing away from the centre. They likes three di erent TV shows namely Talk
Breaking
to Us Bad,
Which of the following is like jesse pinkman? (2 Mark)

A. D
B. C
C. A
D. F
E. B
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Talk to Us
Q22.
In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II.
Give answer
Statement:
Sealed tenders are invited from competent contractors experienced in executing construction
jobs.
Conclusions:
I. Tenders are invited only from experienced contractors.
II. It is di cult to nd competent tenderers in construction jobs. (1 Mark)
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows; and
E. if both I and II follow
Correct Answer: A
Solution
According to the statement, tenders are invited from contractors experienced in executing
construction jobs. So, conclusion I follows. The availability of competent tenderers in construction
is not mentioned. So, conclusion II does not follow.
Hence, the answer is (a).
Talk to Us
Q23.
and II.
Give answer
Statement:
‘We follow some of the best and e ective teaching learning practice used by leading institutes all
over the world’. – A statement of a Professor of MN. Institute.
Conclusions:
I. The M.N. Institute is one of the leading institutes of the world
II. Whatever is being followed by world’s leading institutes will de nitely be good and useful. (1
Mark)
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The statement hints at following the practices used by leading institutes as a positive feature of
the MN. Institute. So, only II follows while I does not.
Hence, the answer is (b).
Q24.
and II.
Give answer
Statement:
Mr. X is one of the probable candidates short-listed for the post of Director of K.L.M. Institute.
Conclusion
I. Mr. X will be selected as Director of K.L.M. Institute.
II. Mr. X will not be selected as Director of K.L.M. Institute (1 Mark)
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The fact that Mr. X has been short-listed for the post, does not con rm his selection, So, either I or
II follows.
Hence, the answer is (c).
Q25.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight People working in a goldmine company and they live in a building provided by company the
building has 10 oor in it and people live only in eight di erent oors(but not necessarily in the
same order). Two of the oors in the building are vacant. The lowermost oor of the building is
numbered one, the one above that is numbered two, and so on till the topmost oor is numbered
ten. Each one of them also wore di erent metals namely Moonga, Ruby, Diamond, Platinum,
Silver, Gold, Zirconium and Tungsten (but not necessarily in the same order).
The number of people living below F is same as the number of people living between F and H. F
lives an odd numbered oor above the oor numbered four. The top most oors is vacant. Only
one person lives between B and the one who wore Platinum. Only three oors between D and the
one who wore Silver. The number of oors between the one who wore Zirconium and the one
who wore Platinum is two. The one who wore Gold lives immediately above G. Only three oors
between G and A. The one who wore Tungsten lives immediately above the one who wore
Moonga. C lives one of the odd numbered oors above the one who wore Silver. The number of
oors between F and the one who wore Ruby is only one. Only one person lives between the one
who wore Tungsten and the vacant oor. Only two people live between C and vacant oor. The
number of oors between two vacant oors is ve. The one who wore Tungsten and Ruby not live
in the oors numbered 8 and 7 respectively. The one who wore Platinum metal lives immediately
below the oor in which C lives.
Which of the following Statements is true with respect to the given information? (1 Mark)
A. G lives immediately above the one who wore Silver
B. E lives immediately above C
C. Only three people live between F and the one who wore Tungsten.
D. D wore Platinum.
E. All the given statements are true
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q26.
Who amongst the following lives exactly between the two vacant oors? (1 Mark)
Talk to Us
A. B
B. G
C. F
D. A
E. C
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q27.
Talk to Us
Which of the following oors are vacant? (1 Mark)

A. 5, 10
B. 7, 10
C. 4, 10
D. 3, 10
E. 6, 10
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q28.
Talk to Us
Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to the group? (1 Mark)
A. G – Diamond
B. C – Silver
C. F – Platinum
D. E – Moonga
E. D – Ruby
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q29.
Talk to Us
How many people live between C and E? (1 Mark)

A. Four
B. Three
C. None
D. Five
E. Two
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Talk to Us
Q30.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular
rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: yes no is of name the code Neha
Step I: is yes no of name the code Neha
Step II: is no yes of name the code Neha
Step III: is no of yes name the code Neha
Step IV: is no of the yes name code Neha
Step V: is no of the yes code name Neha
(This is the last arrangement and step V is the last step of this input)
If the following is the second step of an input, what will be the fourth step?
Step II : go oh we all you went are have (2 Mark)
A. go oh all we are you have went
B. go we oh all are you have went
C. go oh we all are you have went
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Logic:- The word with the least number of letters (is has only two letters) gets arranged rs. If the
number of words with the same number of letters is more than one, alphabetical preference is
given.
Step II: go oh we all you went are have
Step III: go oh we all are you went have
Step IV: go oh we all are you have went
Q31.
Talk
A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a to Us
particular
If the following is the third step of an input, what will be its rst step?
Step III : to for has been power growing their demands (2 Mark)
A. to for has been growing their demands power
B. to has been growing for their demands power
C. to for has growing been their demands power
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Previous steps can’t be determined.

Q32.
Which of the following is the third step for the following input?
Input : date and month on year happy my dear (2 Mark)
Talk to Us
A. my on and date month year dear happy
B. my month on and date year dear happy
C. my on and date month year happy dear
D. my on date and month year happy dear
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Input: date and month on year happy my dear

Step I: my date and month on year happy dear
Step II: my on date and month year happy dear
Step III: my on and date month year happy dear
Q33.
How many steps will be required to get the nal output from the following input?
Input : did of do dog cat rat animals ago (2 Mark)
A. Four
B. Five
C. Three
D. Two
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Talk to Us
Solution
Input: did of do dog cat rat animals ago

Step I: do did of dog cat rat animals ago
Step II: do of did dog cat rat animals ago
Step III: do of ago did dog cat rat animals
Step IV: do of ago cat did dog rat animals
Q34.
If step I of on input is “is state all out to its trying increase”, what step would be “is to all its out
state trying increase”? (2 Mark)
A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q35.
In each question, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been
given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
the commonly facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: Talk to Us
Some wins are trophies.

Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.
Conclusions:
I. At least some cups are wins.
II. All prizes being trophies is possibility. (1 Mark)
A. Both conclusion I and II are true
B. Only conclusion II is true
C. Only conclusion I is true
D. Either conclusion I or II is true
E. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q36.
Statements:
No layer is a coat.
All coats are deposits.
All deposits are sheets.
Conclusions:
I. All coats are sheets.
II. All deposits can never be layers. (1 Mark)
C. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
D. Either conclusion I or II is true
E. Only conclusion I is true
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q37.
Statements:
Some ats are apartments.
No apartment is a hall.
Some halls are rooms.
Conclusions:
I. At least some rooms are ats.
II. No apartment is a room. (1 Mark)
B. Either conclusion I or II is true
C. Only conclusion II is true
D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E. Only conclusion I is true
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Talk to Us
Q38.
Statements:
Some wins are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.
Conclusions:
I. No trophy is a prize.
II. No prize is a win. (1 Mark)
A. Only conclusion I is true
C. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
D. Both conclusion I and II are true
E. Either conclusion I or II is true
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q39.
Plan: Concerned about the welfare of its senior citizens, the government of Runagia decided two
years ago to increase by 20 percent the government provided pension paid to all Runagians age
sixty- ve and older.
Result: Many Runagian senior citizens are no better o nancially now than they were before the
increase.
Further information: The annual rate of in ation since the pension increase has been below 5
percent, and the increased pension has been duly received by all eligible Runagians.
Talk to Us
In light of the further information, which of the following, if true, does most to explain the result
that followed implementation of the plan? (2 Mark)
A. The majority of senior citizens whose nancial position has not improved rely entirely on the
government pension for their income.
B. The Runagian banking system is so ine cient that cashing a pension check can take as much as
three weeks.
C. The prices of goods and services that meet the special needs of many senior citizens have
increased at a rate much higher than the rate of in ation.
D. The pension increase occurred at a time when he number of Runagians age sixty- ve and older
who were living below the poverty level was at an all-time high.
E. The most recent pension increase was only the second such increase in the last ten years.
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Correct. This statement properly identi es a reason why the plan’s result was that many Runagian
senior citizens were no better o than they were before the increase.
Q40.
A drug that is highly e ective in treating many types of infection can, at present, be obtained only
from the bark of the ibora, a tree that is quite rare in the wild. It takes the bark of 5,000 trees to
make one kilogram of the drug. It follows, therefore, that continued production on the drug must
inevitably lead to the ibora’s extinction.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? (1 Mark)
A. The drug made from ibora bark is dispensed to doctors from a central authority.
B. The drug made from ibora bark is expensive to produce.
C. The leaves of the ibora are used in a number of medical products.
D. The ibora a can be propagated from cuttings and grown under cultivation.
E. The ibora generally grows in largely inaccessible places.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Correct. This information most weakens the argument.

Talk to Us
Q41.
These questions are based on the following informations.
In a certain code:
‘the banner and revolt’ is coded as ‘U14 C15 M14 D15’.
‘Constitution Bench judgement’ is coded as ‘C45 M25 M20’.
‘internal matter judiciary’ is coded as ‘C45 S16 S14’.
What will be the code for ‘Judgement’? (1 Mark)

A. F45
B. E45
C. C45
D. M14
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The given words are coded as per following pattern:

(i) First letter of the code represents the immediate previous letter of the third letter of the given
word.
For example. Bench- third letter is ‘N’=M
(ii) If the total number of letters in the word is even, then the number in the code represents the -
(Total number of letters in the given word)+8. For example. forced – total number of words = 6.
6+8=14. So, code-Q14
(iii) If the total number of letters in the given word is odd, then the number in the code represents
the -(Total number of letters in the given alphabet)x5.
For example. The- D15 (The=3, 3x5=15)
Q42.
In a certain code:
Talk to Us
What will be the code for ‘Bankers Adda’? (1 Mark)

A. C14 M45
B. either (C) or (E)
C. M35 C14
D. C12 N45
E. M35 C12
Correct Answer: E
Solution

word.
6+8=14. So, code-Q14
Q43.
In a certain code:
Which of the following will be the code for ‘Revenue’? (1 Mark)

A. U45
B. V35
C. V45
D. U35
E. None of these
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: D
Solution

word.
6+8=14. So, code-Q14
Q44.
In a certain code:
Which of the following can be coded as ‘B35? (1 Mark)

A. Adverse
B. Context
C. Alcohal
D. Analyst
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution

word.
Talk to Us
6+8=14. So, code-Q14
Q45.
In a certain code:
What could be the code for ‘Supreme Court judges’? (1 Mark)

A. O35 T25 C14
B. O35 T35 C14
C. O35 T25 C15
D. O25 T25 C14
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution

word.
6+8=14. So, code-Q14
Q46.
Table given below shows data of ve institutes regarding number of girls students, percentage of
Talk
boys and number of students (boys + girls) under one mentor. Study the data given to Us
below
carefully and answer the following questions.
Number of mentors in institute D is what percent more/less then number of mentors in institute
A? (2 Mark)
A. 20%
B. 160%
C. 80%
D. 60%
E. 40%
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q47.
boys and number of students (boys + girls) under one mentor. Study the data given below
Talk to Us
If in institute E, girls students increases by 60% and boys students increases by 35% while number
of students under one mentor increases by 20% then how many more mentors are required in
institute E? (2 Mark)
A. No more mentors required
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q48.
Talk to Us
Total number of students in institute B and C together is how much more than total number of
students in institute D and E together? (2 Mark)
A. 130
B. 140
C. 150
D. 160
E. 170
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q49.
Talk to Us
Out of total mentors in institute C, 65% are females, then nd the number of male mentors in
institute C. (2 Mark)
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
E. 13
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q50.
Talk to Us
Total number of students in another institute F is 15% more than that of in institute D, while
number of students under one mentor is 20% more than that of in institute B. Find number of
mentors required in institute F. (2 Mark)
A. 17
B. 19
C. 21
D. 23
E. 25
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q51.
In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You
have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option:
Quantity I – A can complete a task in 24 days and B can do same task in 18 days. another two
persons C & D complete of the same task in 7 days and e ciency of D is 40% more than that
of C. Find in how many days A, B and D will be complete the task together?
Quantity II – Ankit is 60% less e cient than Satish and complete a piece of work in 22.5 days. Ankit
and Saatish start work together and after 4.5 days both left the work, if veer complete the
remaining of work in 4.5 days then nd in how many days the whole work will be completed, if all
three work together ? (2 Mark)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q52.
Quantity I – Veer invested Rs. 21000 in a scheme on compound interest, which o ered interest at
the rate for rst year, for second year and for third year. Then nd how much
interest Veer will get after three years on his principal ?
Quantity II – A, B and C invested in xed deposit schemes. A invested Rs. P, B invested 80% of what
A invested and C invested 1/10 th more than B investment at the rate of 12% ,15% and 20%
respectively compounded annually for two years. If they got a total interest of Rs.9445.8, then nd
Talk to Us
amount invested by A? (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q53.
Talk to Us
Quantity I – A shopkeeper has two articles A & B. Marked price of article B is 20% more than
marked price of article A, shopkeeper sold article A at 25% discount and article B at 20% discount.
He made 20% loss on article A and pro t on article B. If total loss of shopkeeper was Rs. 765,
then nd marked price of article B?
Quantity II – A shopkeeper gives a discount of 24% on marked price of Shirt and cost price of Jeans
is 25% more than selling price of Shirt. If shopkeeper sold Jeans at 10 % pro t and selling price of
Jeans was Rs. 1140 more than selling price of Shirt , then nd the cost price of article Jeans ? (2
Mark)
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Talk to Us
Q54.
Quantity I – A bag contains four green balls, three red balls and ve blue balls. If three balls taken
out at random what is probability of at least one ball is green and at least one ball is blue color .
Quantity II – There are ve red toys and six green toys in a cartoon. What will be the probability of
selection of four toys which contains at least two green toys? (2 Mark)
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II Talk to Us
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q55.
Quantity I – Six years ago ratio between age of Rohit and Prakash was 7 : 8, while six years hence
ratio between 1/6 th of Rohit age and 1/3 rd of Prakash age will be 9 : 20. The age of Rohit two
years hence will be.
Quantity II – Ratio between age of A, B and C is 16 : 9 : 7. Three years hence average of all three
age will be 35 years. The age of A two years hence will be? (2 Mark)
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q56.
Abhi invested some amount on scheme ‘P’ which o er CI at the rate of 15% p.a.. After 2 years he
got Rs. 1032 as interest. Abhi invest the amount he got from scheme ‘P’ in scheme ‘Q’ which o er
15% p.a. at SI for 4 years. Find the total interest he earned from scheme P and scheme Q together?
(2 Mark)
A. 3571.2
B. 3715.2
C. 4232
D. 3148
E. 3379.2
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Talk to Us
Q57.
is a series of ve consecutive multiple of three, whose sum is 180 and is the series of four
consecutive multiple of four whose second smallest number is 13 more than second highest
number of series. Find the average of smallest number of series and highest number of
series. (2 Mark)
A. 51
B. 49
C. 47
D. 45
E. 43
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q58.
Aman is 50% more e cient than Ravi while 20% more e cient than Mohan. If Ravi and Aman
together can complete a work in 18 days, then in what time Ravi and Mohan can complete the
same work if they work alternatively starting from Ravi ? (2 Mark) Talk to Us
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q59.
A milkman mixed 32 liter of water in 48 liter of milk and sold 30 liter of mixture. Then he again
added some milk and water whose quantity is in the ratio 5 : 4 in the remaining mixture so that
ratio of water and milk become 7 : 10. Now he sell 25% of mixture, then nd the amount of milk in
the rest of the mixture. (2 Mark)
A. 30 liter
B. 21 liter
C. 15 liter
D. 22.5 liter
E. 24 liter
Your Answer: Not Attempted Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q60.
A man swimming at 75 percent of his usual speed can covers 128 km in 8 hours in downstream. In
the return journey he swims at 50% of his usual speed and take 32 hours. Speed of man is what
percent more than speed of stream? (2 Mark)
A. 100%
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 400%
E. 500%
Correct Answer: C
Talk to Us
Solution
Q61.
Given below is the table that shows the investment of ve di erent companies, time for which
Investment made and share of pro t out of the total pro ts. Some values are missing, which you
have to calculate according to given information in question. Read the data carefully and answer
the questions:
Airtel and Maruti together invested 315% of, what Tata invested. If ratio between invested amount
of Airtel to amount invested by Maruti is 5 : 4 and they gets total 32% more pro t than pro t share
of Tata. Then nd pro t amount of Airtel and Maruti respectively? (2 Mark)
A. 4500 cr, 5400 cr
B. 4000 cr, 5400 cr
C. 3500 cr, 4500 cr
D. 3000 cr, 4500 cr
E. 4800 cr & 5600 cr
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q62.
the questions:
Pro t share of Tata and Wipro contributes 40% of total pro t share of all the ve companies. Pro t
share of Mahindra and Maruti is in the ratio 1 : 3. Find the total amount invested by Maruti and
TATA together if amount invested by Airtel and Maruti is same while Mahindra invested for 10
months.(in cr) (2 Mark)
A. 52,500
B. 57,500
C. 38,750
D. 33,750
E. 75,000
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q63.
the questions:
If Maruti invested 20% more than that of Tata and gets 80% pro t share of Wipro then nd the
di erence between time period for which Maruti and Tata invested their amount ? (2 Mark)
A. 2 months
B. 1 ½ months
C. 3 months
D. 4 months
E. 2 ½ months
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q64.
the questions:
Maruti and Mahindra gets 37.5% and 12.5% more pro t then Wipro respectively. If ratio between
time of period on which Maruti and Mahindra invested their amount is 2 : 3, then nd investment
of Maruti is how much percent more or less than the investment of Mahindra ? (2 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. Talk to Us
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q65.
the questions:
If average of total amount invested by ve companies is 20,000 cr and ratio of amount invested by
Airtel, Wipro and Maruti is 4 : 6 : 3. Then, nd the total pro t obtained by Airtel and Maruti
together, if Tata invested for the same period of time for which Maruti invested ? (2 Mark)
A. 11625 cr
B. 2625 cr
C. 9625 cr
Talk to Us
D. 10625 cr
E. 10025 cr
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q66.
The following questions are accompanied by two statements A and B. You have to determine
which statements(s) is/are su cient/necessary to answer the questions.
Find the overall pro t or loss percentage of retailer if he sells two bats and four balls.
(A) Cost price of 3 bats is equal to selling price of 4 balls while pro t percentage on selling one bat
is 50%.
(B) On selling two bats retailer earn 50% pro t while on selling four balls retailers loss 40% of his
money. (1 Mark)
A. Statement A alone is su cient to answer the question but statement B alone is not su cient to
answer the questions.
B. Statement B alone is su cient to answer the question but statement A alone is not su cient to
answer the question.
C. Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the
statements alone is su cient to answer the question.
D. Either statement A or statement B by itself is su cient to answer the question.
E. Statements A and B taken together are not su cient to answer the question.
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q67.
A box contains 4 green ball, ‘x’ blue balls, 5 violet balls and ‘y’ yellow balls. Find the value of ‘x + y’.
(A) Probability of choosing two green ball is 1/20.

(B) Probability of choosing one blue ball or one violet ball is ½. (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: A
Talk to Us
Solution
Q68.
If w > 1 and n ≠ 0,1 and ‘w’ and ‘n’ both are integers. Is ‘n’ a positive integer?
(1 Mark)
Correct Answer: A
Talk to Us
Solution
Q69.
Find the number of persons in a group if average weight of the group is 16?
(A) If one person left the group having weight 16 then average weight of the group is same as
before.
(B) If two persons join the group having weight 16 and 28, then the average weight of group
increases by 2. (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: B
Talk to Us
Solution
Q70.
In how many days ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together can complete the work?
(A) A is 50% more e cient then B who is 100% more e cient than C while A and B together can
complete the work in 12 days.
(B) ‘A’ and ‘B’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ and ‘C’ and ‘A’ together can complete the work in 12, 20 and 15 days
respectively. (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: D
Talk to Us
Solution
Q71.
A trader buys goods at 20% discount on marked price. If he wants to make a pro t of 25% after
allowing a discount of 20%, by what percent should his marked price be greater than the original
marked price ? (2 Mark)
A. 15%
B. 65%
C. 25%
D. 20%
E. 30%
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Purchased by kumaarmanish95@gmail.com Talk to Us
Q72.
A car travels from P to Q at a constant speed. If its speed were increased by 10 km/h, it would have
been taken one hour lesser to cover the distance. It would have taken further 45 minutes lesser if
the speed was further increased by 10 km/h. The distance between the two cities is (2 Mark)
A. 540 km
B. 420 km
C. 600 km
D. 620 km
E. 500 km
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q73.
A man gave 50% of his savings of Rs.84,100 to his wife and divided the remaining sum among his
two sons A and B of 15 and 13 years of age respectively. He divided it in such a way that each of
his sons, when they attain the age of 18 years, would receive the same amount at 5% compound
interest per annum. The share of B was (2 Mark)
A. Rs. 20,000
B. Rs. 20,050
C. Rs. 22,000
D. Rs. 22,050
E. Rs. 22750
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q74.
A, B and C can do a job in 6 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. After 1/8 of the work is
completed, C leaves the job. Rest of the work is done by A and B together in :- (2 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q75.
A bucket contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the proportion 6 : 5. If 33 litres of the mixture
is replaced by 33 litres of liquid B, then the ratio of the two liquids becomes 3 : 4. How much of the
liquid A was there in the bucket? (2 Mark)
A. 84 litres
Talk to Us
B. 48 litres
C. 70 litres
D. 64 litres
E. 60 litres
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q76.
Data regarding number of students in di erent streams in a school is as follows:
Total number of students in school X is 1500. Out of total boys 25% are in Commerce which is 40
more than number of girls in same stream. Number of girls in Non-medical stream is 30% of total
number of girls in school. Number of girls in Medical stream is 15% of total number of boys in
school. Total number of students in Arts stream is 26% of the total number of students in school.
Ratio between total number of students in Commerce to total number of students in Arts is 12 :
13. Number of boys in Medical stream is 150% more than number of girls in same stream.
Find the ratio between total number of students in Medical stream to total number of students in
Commerce stream? (1 Mark)
A. 5 : 6
B. 7 : 6
C. 7 : 8
D. 6 : 7
E. 7 : 5
Correct Answer: B
Talk to Us
Solution
Talk to Us
Q77.
Total number of girls in Medical and Non-Medical stream together is what percent more/less than
total number of boys in Non-Medical and Arts stream together? (1 Mark)
A. 30%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 15%
E. 5%
Correct Answer: C
Talk to Us
Solution
Talk to Us
Q78.
In school Y, number of boys in Arts stream is 45% of total number of boys in school ‘Y’. If total
number of boys in school ‘Y’ is 35% more than total number of boys in school X, then nd number
of boys in Arts stream in school ‘Y’ is what percent of the number of boys in Medical stream in
school ‘X’? (1 Mark)
A. 162%
B. 158%
C. 152%
D. 148%
E. 142%
Correct Answer: A
Talk to Us
Solution
Talk to Us
Q79.
Average number of boys in Medical, Non-Medical and Arts stream together is how much more/less
than average number of girls in same streams together? (1 Mark)
A. 40
B. 30
C. 0
Talk to Us
D. 10
E. 20
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Talk to Us
Q80.
In which stream total number of students is second highest? (1 Mark)

A. Medical
B. Non-Medical
C. Commerce
D. Arts Talk to Us
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Talk to Us
Total number of students in Medical stream = 300+120=420
Total number of students in Non-Medical stream = 120+210=330
Total number of students in Commerce stream = 200+160=360
Total number of students in Arts stream = 180+210=390
Total number of students in Arts stream is second highest
Q81.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Until recently, scientists did not know of a close vertebrate analogue to the extreme form of
generosity observed in eusocial insects like ants and bees, whereby individuals cooperate,
sometimes even sacri cing their own opportunities to survive and reproduce, for the good of
others. However, such a vertebrate society may exist among underground colonies of the highly
social rodent Heterocephalus glaber, the naked mole rat.
A naked mole rat colony, like a beehive, wasp's nest, or termite mound, is ruled by its queen, or
reproducing female. Other adult female mole rats neither ovulate nor breed. The queen is the
largest member of the colony, and she maintains her breeding status through a mixture of
behavioral and, presumably, chemical control. Queens have been long-lived in captivity, and when
they die or are removed from a colony one sees violent ghting for breeding status among the
larger remaining females, leading to a takeover by a new queen.
Eusocial insect societies have rigid caste systems, each insect's role being de ned by its behavior,
body shape, and physiology. In naked mole rat societies, on the other hand, di erences in
behavior are related primarily to reproductive status (reproduction being limited to the queen and
a few males), body size, and perhaps age. Smaller non-breeding members, both male and female,
seem to participate primarily in gathering food, transporting nest material, and tunneling. Larger
non-breeders are active in defending the colony and perhaps in removing dirt from the tunnels.
Jarvis' work has suggested that di erences in growth rates may in uence the length of time that
an individual performs a task, regardless of its age.
Cooperative breeding has evolved many times in vertebrates, but unlike naked mole rats, most
cooperatively breeding vertebrates (except the wild dog, Lycaon pictus) are dominated by a pair of
breeders rather than by a single breeding female. The division of labor within social groups is less
pronounced among other vertebrates than among naked mole rats, colony size is much smaller,
and mating by subordinate females may not be totally suppressed, whereas in naked mole rat
colonies subordinate females are not sexually active, and many never breed.
Which of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage? (1.5 Mark)
Talk to Us
A. Naked mole rat colonies are the only known examples of cooperatively breeding vertebrate
societies.
B. Naked mole rat colonies exhibit social organization based on a rigid caste system.
C. Behavior in naked mole rat colonies may well be a close vertebrate analogue to behavior in
eusocial insect societies.
D. The mating habits of naked mole rats di er from those of any other vertebrate species.
E. The basis for the division of labor among naked mole rats is the same as that among eusocial
insects.
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The entire passage simply elaborates the thoughts introduced in the rst two sentences of the
passage. Hence statement (c) is the main idea of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect which can be inferred from the rst few lines of the 3rd paragraph of the
passage, “Eusocial insect societies exhibit social organization based on rigid caste system. On the
other hand, In naked mole rat societies di erences in behavior are related to reproductive status,
body size and age.”
Option (d): The mating habits of naked mole rats are similar to wild dog, Lycaonpictus.
Option (e): In naked mole rat colonies subordinate females are not sexually active and many never
breed, unlike eusocial insects.
Q82.
Talk to Us
The passage suggests that Jarvis'work has called into question which of the following explanatory
variables for naked mole rat behavior? (1.5 Mark)
A. Size
B. Age
C. Reproductive status
D. Rate of growth
E. Previously exhibited behavior
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The rate of growth depends not on age but length of time spent in work. Refer to the last few lines
of the 3rd paragraph of the passage “Jarvis’ work has suggested…………its age”. Hence statement
(b) is true in context of the passage.
Q83.
Talk to Us
It can be inferred from the passage that the performance of tasks in naked mole rat colonies
di ers from task performance in eusocial insect societies in which of the following ways? (1.5
Mark)
A. In naked mole rat colonies, all tasks ate performed cooperatively.
B. In naked mole rat colonies, the performance of tasks is less rigidly determined by body shape.
C. In naked mole rat colonies, breeding is limited to the largest animals.
D. In eusocial insect societies, reproduction is limited to a single female.
E. In eusocial insect societies, the distribution of tasks is based on body size.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
It is not actually shape but size that creates the di erence in performance of tasks in naked mole
rat colonies and in eusocial insect societies.
Option (a): In naked mole rat colonies, all tasks are not performed cooperatively as these
vertebrates are dominated by a single breeding female.
Option (c): In naked mole rat colonies, breeding is limited to its queen (single female).
Option (d): In eusocial insect societies, reproduction is limited to the largest animals.
Option (e): In eusocial insect societies, the distribution of tasks is based on body shape not body
size. Talk to Us
Q84.
The passage supports which of the following inferences about breeding among Lycaon pictus? (1.5
Mark)
A. The largest female in the social group does not maintain reproductive status by means of
behavioral control.
B. An individual's ability to breed is related primarily to its rate of growth.
C. Breeding is the only task performed by the breeding female.
D. Breeding in the social group is not cooperative.
E. Breeding is not dominated by a single pair of dogs. Talk to Us
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The second last sentence suggests a similarity between naked mole rats and Lycaon pictus in view
of their breeding pattern in which breeding is limited to a single female and not cooperative.
Hence option (d) is true in context of the passage.
Q85.
Talk to Us
According to the passage, naked mole rat colonies may di er from all other known vertebrate
groups in which of the following ways? (1.5 Mark)
A. Naked mole rats exhibit an extreme form of altruism.
B. Naked mole rats are cooperative breeders.
C. Among naked mole rats, many males are permitted to breed with a single dominant female.
D. Among naked mole rats, di erent tasks are performed at di erent times in an individual's life.
E. Among naked mole rats, ghting results in the selection of a breeding female.
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Option (a) is correct as naked mole rat are very altruistic in their nature which can be inferred from
the 1st paragraph of the passage, “Until recently, scientists did not know of a close vertebrate
………………survive and reproduce, for the good of others”.
Q86.
Talk to Us
Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in the passage.
Suppress (1.5 Mark)

A. Reticent
B. Proscribe
C. Subdue
D. Ostracize
E. Preposterous
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Suppress means inhibit or forcibly put an end to. Hence it is most similar in meaning to Subdue.
Ostracize means exclude from society. Proscribe means forbid. Reticent means reserved.
Q87.
Talk to Us
Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words
Subordinate (1.5 Mark)

A. Appendage
B. Adjunct
C. Patron
D. Adjutant
E. Indigent
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Subordinate means junior or lower in position and is most similar in meaning to adjutant which
means a military o cer who acts as an administrative assistant to a senior o cer. Indigent means
poor, needy. Appendage, Adjunct means addition or attachment. Patron means contributor or
sponsor.
Q88.
Talk to Us
Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in passage.
Pronounce (1.5 Mark)

A. Enunciate
B. Adjudicate
C. Enshroud
D. Opine
E. Interpose
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Pronounce means declare or announce in a formal or solemn way which is opposite to
enshround. Enunciate and Adjudicate are synonyms of it. Opine means hold and state as one’s
opinion. Interpose means place or insert one thing and another.
Talk to Us
Q89.
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
US President Donald Trump made abandoning the Trans-Paci c Partnership (TPP) trade deal a key
part of his election campaign and on his rst day in o ce, he has proved as good as his word.
Twelve countries that border the Paci c Ocean signed up to the TPP in February 2016,
representing roughly 40% of the world’s economic output. The pact aimed to deepen economic
ties between these nations, slashing tari s and fostering trade to boost growth. Members had also
hoped to foster a closer relationship on economic policies and regulation . The agreement was
designed so that it could eventually create a new single market, something like that of the EU. But
all 12 nations needed to ratify it, before it could come into e ect. Member states include: Japan –
the only country to have already rati ed the pact – Malaysia, Vietnam, Singapore, Brunei, Australia,
New Zealand, Canada, Mexico, Chile and Peru.
The 12 countries involved have a collective population of about 800 million – almost double that of
the European Union’s single market. The 12-nation would-be bloc is already responsible for 40% of
world trade. The deal was seen as a remarkable achievement given the very di erent approaches
and standards within the member countries, including environmental safeguard, workers’ rights
and regulatory consistency – not to mention the special protections that some countries have for
certain industries. The US pulling out will be seen as big blow for other nations that signed up.
Most goods and services traded between the countries are named in the TPP, but not all tari s –
which are taxes on imports – were going to be removed and some would take longer than others.
In all, some 18,000 tari s were included. For example, the signatories said they would either
eliminate or reduce tari s and other restrictive policies from agricultural products and industrial
goods. Under the agreement, tari s on US manufactured goods and almost all US farm products
would have gone almost immediately. But some “sensitive” products would have been exempt
until a later agreed date.
To take e ect, the deal would have had to be rati ed by February 2018 by at least six countries
that account for 85% of the group’s economic output. The US would need to be on board to meet
that last condition. Some countries, including New Zealand, have suggested some sort of
alternative deal may be possible without the US. But Japan’s Prime Minister Shinzo Abe has said a
TPP without the US – and its market of 250 million consumers – would be “meaningless”. Those in
favour say this trade deal will unleash new economic growth among countries involved. It is being
said that the TPP has high potential to promote economic growth and improve people’s living
standards by facilitating the free cross-border movement of key factors of economic activity, such
as goods, people, money, and information. Failure to bring the TPP into force would be a great
loss to not only the TPP countries such as Japan and the US but also the global economy they
argue. According to Trump such deals will a ect American workers in a negative way and
undermine US companies. His stance on trade is protectionist: he has vowed to shield Americans
from the e ects of globalized trade by imposing hefty tari s on cheap Chinese imports
Talk toof
Usup to
45%. Trump says, “The TPP creates a new international commission that makes decisions the
American people can’t veto, making it easier for our trading competitors to ship cheap subsidized
goods into US markets – while other countries restricts their exports.”
TPP, unlike regular bilateral FTAs, has “open architecture,” which means Washington would have
been able to entice new members over time and generate a race to the top in terms of trade pacts
regionally and even globally. Strategically, TPP’s failure will reinforce doubts about American
credibility in the region amid a rising China, as several Asian leaders including Singapore’s Lee
Hsien Loong have warned. It will also undermine Washington’s e orts to strengthen the
capabilities of its Asian allies and partners, who desire both diversi cation in their foreign relations
as well as reforms domestically that TPP would have induced. It will also make U.S. Asia policy
seem unbalanced, since TPP was the major plank in the economic realm of the Obama
administration’s so-called rebalance, even though there were less signi cant initiatives as well that
did not get as much attention.
Walking out from TPP threatens the US strategy of rebalancing Asia, which amounted to India-
Japan-US security cooperation. This will force India — where US anchored its Asia-Paci c policy —
to rethink its Look East Initiative. India was not part of the TPP, but it has been an important
instrument of realpolitik for Washington and New Delhi as they sought to counter the rise of an
assertive China without hurting their economic equations with the country. In the rebalancing of
its resources in Asia-Paci c, the US saw India’s role as the “lynchpin” of the strategy. The US’ “Pivot
to Asia” and India’s “Act East” policies con ate. Washington sees India as having a greater role in
providing security and stability in the region. The two strategies have been shaping the security
order in the region as India was reinvigorating its ties with Asian powers like Japan and Australia
that has rattled China greatly. Now, India should not be complacent because of the current
uncertainty surrounding TPP. We must fully understand the implications of the various TPP
disciplines and how we should strategize ourselves in response to the very many ways they can
impact us.
Why according to the author Donald Trump is against the Trans-Paci c Partnership?
(i) He thinks that this deal will have adverse impact on American workers and undercut U.S.
companies.
(ii) He wants to protect Americans from e ects of globalized trade by slapping huge tari s on
cheap Chinese imports.
(iii) According to him, it will allow foreign countries to continue putting barriers in front of their
exports. (1.5 Mark)
A. Only (i) is correct
B. Only (iii) is correct
C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
D. Both (i) and (iii) are correct Talk to Us
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Refer to the last few lines of third paragraph, “According to Trump ……….. their exports”.
Hence all (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct options in the context of the passage.
Q90.
Talk to Us
from the e ects of globalized trade by imposing hefty tari s on cheap Chinese imports of up to
impact us.
What could be the outcome of the move in which Trump decides to waive TPP? (1.5 Mark)
A. It would a ect the global economy of not only the TPP countries but also the countries like
India. Talk to Us
B. It will make U.S. Asia policy unbalanced.
C. It will hinder the trade among the countries that boost growth.
D. There will be imposition of tari s against all goods and services.
E. Both (a) and (c) are correct.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Refer to the last lines of fourth paragraph, “It will also make…..much attention”. Hence option (b) is
true.
Q91.
Talk to Us
impact us.
Talk to Us
According to the passage, what is/are the advantage(s) of TPP?
(i) Regulation coherence is major a procurement.

(ii) Creating a new single market and fostering economic ties.
(iii) Environment protection and worker’s right. (1 Mark)
A. Only (i) is correct.
B. Only (iii) is correct
C. Both (i) and (iii) are correct
D. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Refer to the third sentence of second paragraph, “The deal was seen ………… certain industries”.
Hence sentences (i) and (iii) are true in the context of the passage.
Q92.
Talk to Us
its resources in Asia-Paci c, the US saw India’s role as the “lynchpin” of the strategy. The
Talk to US’
Us “Pivot
impact us.
What does author mean by “TPP has open architecture”?
(i) That it would help Washington in attracting new members.

(ii) That the member countries could deepen ties and slash tari s.
(iii) Increase in trade agreements both regionally and globally. (1 Mark)
A. Only (i) is true
B. Only (ii) is true
C. Both (i) and (iii) are true
D. Both (ii) and (iii) are true
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Refer to rst few lines of the fourth paragraph, “TPP unlike regular……………………. even Globally”.
Hence sentences (i) and (iii) are true in the context of the passage.
Q93.
Talk to Us
did not get as much attention. Talk to Us
impact us.
Which of the following is not true in context of the passage? (1 Mark)

A. India was not the part of TPP, but it has been an important instrument of realpolitik for
Washington.
B. Failure to bring the TPP into force would be a great gain to the TPP countries.
C. The agreement was designed so that it could eventually create a new single market, something
like that of the EU.
D. TPP will undermine Washington’s e orts to strengthen the capabilities of its Asian allies and
partners.
E. India should not be complacent because of the current uncertainty surrounding TPP.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Refer to third last sentence of the third paragraph, “Failure to ………..TPP countries”. Hence
Sentence (b) is not true in context of the passage.
Q94.
Talk to Us
Hsien Loong have warned. It will also undermine Washington’s e orts to strengthen
Talkthe
to Us
impact us.
Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the work/group of words
Unleash (1 Mark)
A. Emancipate
B. Redeem
C. Wreak
D. In ict
E. Recover
Correct Answer: A
Solution
‘Unleash’ means cause to be released or become restrained. Hence emancipate which means set
free, especially from legal, social, or political restrictions is the correct choice for the given
question.
Q95.
Talk to Us
Talk to Us
impact us.
Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the work/group of words
Entice (1 Mark)
A. Tantalize
B. Beguile
C. Summon
D. Dissuade
E. Benign
Correct Answer: B
Solution Talk to Us
‘Entice’ means attract. ‘Dissuade’ means discourage. Hence ‘Beguile’ which means to charm or
enchant (someone), often in a deceptive way is the word most similar in meaning.
‘Benign’ means gentle and kind. ‘Tantalize’ means torture or tease.
Q96.
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
A large majority of German companies who have taken on refugees are satis ed with their work,
although most hires have been for low-skilled positions, according to a survey conducted last
month and published on Tuesday. The rst of the estimated 1.2 million people who arrived in
Germany in 2015 and 2016 from countries including Syria, Iraq and Afghanistan are starting to
enter the labour market. About 14 per cent have found a job. More than three-quarters of the
employers who took part in the survey said they had only few or no di culties in daily work with
the refugees they had hired. (_______________) (1 Mark)
A. The in ux of migrants has eroded the popularity of Chancellor Angela Merkel and fuelled the
rise of the anti-immigrant Alternative for Germany party, although support for refugees remains
strong in many parts of society.
B. Those who did have di culties most frequently cited a lack of German-language skills,
vocational skills, di erent work habits and uncertainty relating to the length of the employee’s stay
in Germany.
C. The survey of 2,200 German employers was carried out by the Organisation for Economic
Cooperation and Development, the Association of German Chambers of Commerce and Industry
and the German ministry of labour and social a airs.
D. Numbers of native Germans entering the German workforce are beginning to slow as the
population ages.
E. Coupled with an unemployment rate of just 5.9 per cent, the lowest since German reuni cation
in 1990 and one of the lowest in the OECD, that makes for one of the world’s most favourable job
markets for new arrivals, the OECD said.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Option (b) is correct. The sentence , written in option (b) , complete the passage in most
appropriate way. The sentence in option (b) is the follow up on previous sentence.
Q97.
Talk to Us
The Maternity Bene ts (Amendment) Bill, 2016, passed by the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha, will
become an Act as soon as it receives the President’s assent. The salient features of this Bill include
an expansion in the paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks, a leave of up to 12 weeks for
a woman adopting a child below the age of three months, and provision of crèche facilities by
employers with more than 50 employees. This article aims to make a case for a more progressive
and nuanced debate about the pros and cons of the Bill. The supporters of the Bill argue that it
would allow a woman to take care of her infant in the most important, formative months of a child
and provide her with much needed work-life balance at a time when she is most likely to drop out
of the workforce.(__________________) (1 Mark)
A. They maintain that this would help increase women’s participation in the workforce.
B. However, it is important to understand that the de nition of workforce here is limited to the
10% of women working in the organized sector.
C. The economic arguments against the Bill don’t hold for a few reasons.
D. Critics also point out that India should become economically strong before it apes Western
countries in doling out such social bene ts to its citizens..
E. A country’s economic standing should not have any impact on how healthy it wants its
population to be.
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Option (a) is correct. The sentence , written in option (a) , complete the passage in most
appropriate way. Arguments made by the supporters of the bill are discussed in the previous
sentence, therefore option (a) is the most suitable follow up on the previous sentence.
Q98.
A ordability is a key factor in demand for homes. A note by property consultant JLL India says that
individual purchasing power has improved over the last few years as income has risen at a faster
rate than home prices. Importantly, the chart shows the strong inverse relationship between
in ation rate and growth in home loans.(________________________________________________). In other
words, lower in ation elevates consumer con dence through nancial stability. (1 Mark)
A. With in ation expected to remain low and range-bound, given increased housing a ordability
and purchasing power, the environment is conducive for housing demand to revive.
Talk to Us
B. This nding violates the general principle of economics.
C. Further, lower interest rates, the government’s move to bring in stringent regulations in favour
of buyers, faster resolution of disputed property cases and higher discounts in the sector due to
large inventory levels are other factors that could support consumer con dence.
D. Therefore, reducing in ation will also infuse con dence in potential homebuyers as it has a
strong in uence on the decision to borrow to buy a house.
E. In ation rate and interest rate are not related to each other.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Option (d) is correct. The sentence , written in option (d) , complete the passage most
appropriately. Inverse relationship between in ation rate and growth in home loans is discussed
in the previous sentence, so option (d) completes the paragraph.
Q99.
Space projects are long-term and span multiple governments. But the prime minister’s applause
for the Indian Space Research Organisation’s achievements like the Mangalyaan mission may have
given fresh energy to the launch vehicle programme.______________. The polar launch vehicle which
has now placed 104 (almost all foreign) satellites in orbit is the result of a shrewd focus on launch
services, which are in short supply. Demand will increase as satellite swarms and cheap
personalised devices become popular, and bulk launchers like ISRO can look forward to a window
of opportunity. (1 Mark)
A. But the window will close when entrepreneurs like Elon Musk begin to o er reusable launch
vehicles which glide back to earth.
B. Satellite communications networks generate remote sensing and GPS data and deliver media,
telecommunications and telemedicine.
C. These will slash launch costs dramatically, while ISRO’s own reusable vehicle Avatar remains on
the drawing board.
D. Space industries are perceived to work mainly for the national interest, but the commercial
possibilities are immense.
E. ISRO has established a solid reputation as a cheap but reliable bulk carrier of satellites to earth
orbit.
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: E
Solution
After reading the paragraph and given options, we can conclude that sentence (e) ts to the
paragraph. The paragraph talks about ISRO that has established its presence in the booming
launch vehicle market and now it is the time to start spinning o products and services. Sentence
(e) is correct choice as it tells about the ISRO’s achievement as a cheap and reliable bulk carrier of
satellites to the earth’s orbit.
Q100.
Weddings costing more than Rs.5 lakhs are not all same across the board. They are treated as
signi cant life events to be attended by friends and far and wide extended family of the bride and
the groom. To many, this endearingly makes them perfect occasions for reunions. Some families
don’t mind investing heavily for once in providing for their guests, to make it a memorable, well-
catered family event for all. In some progressive cases, both parties – bride’s and groom’s – agree
to split the check for mutual merriment._______________. (1 Mark)
A. In other words, spending above the speci ed amount can take place even if it is not oriented
towards external extravaganza or dowry pressure.
B. A legal x for a social issue is a hard sell in pragmatic situations, as it proposes to regulate a
strictly private a air of citizens.
C. Such a trend amounts to a social malaise in the ever-in ating balloon of wedding expenses, as
the money can be invested in better, bene cial causes.
D. The bill states that if a family spends above Rs.5 lakh on a wedding, it should contribute 10 per
cent of that amount for marriages of girls from poor families.
E. While well-intentioned, an “enforcement” on how to solemnise a wedding is not democratic in
nature.
Correct Answer: A
Solution
The paragraph revolves around the theme of Weddings costs that is treated as signi cant for
reunions and some families who don’t mind spending more. After going through the options, we
nd that sentence (a) goes with the connection of the paragraph as it talks about spending above
speci ed amount if there is no dowry pressure. Hence sentence (a) is true in context of the
paragraph.
Talk to Us
Q101.
In each of the following sentences four options are given. You are needed to identify the best way
of writing the sentence in context of the correct usage of standard written English.
The men's world number one is set to treat as tennis royalty at the Australian Open next week
with the o cial local broadcaster planning to refer to him with "Sir Andy Murray". (1 Mark)
A. The men's world number one is set to be treat as tennis royalty at the Australian Open next
week with the o cial local broadcaster plans to refer to him like "Sir Andy Murray".
B. The men's world number one is set to be treated as tennis royalty at the Australian Open next
week with the o cial local broadcaster planning to refer to him as "Sir Andy Murray".
C. The men's world number one is setting to be treated as tennis royalty at the Australian Open
next week with the o cial local broadcaster plan to refer to him as "Sir Andy Murray".
D. The men's world number one is treated as tennis royalty at the Australian Open next week with
the o cial local broadcaster planning to refer to him with "Sir Andy Murray".
E. No error.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Replace “set to treat” with “set to be treated” and “to him with” with “to him as”.
Q102.
The World Bank have lowered its growth forecast for India to 7 per cent to 7.6 per cent in 2016-17,
citing a slowdown in consumption and manufacturing because demonetization and an ongoing
decline in private investment and credit constraints due to impaired bank balance sheets. (1 Mark)
A. The World Bank has lowered its growth forecast for India to 7 per cent from 7.6 per cent in
2016-17, citing a slowdown in consumption and manufacturing due to demonetization and an
ongoing decline in private investment and credit constraints due to impaired bank balance sheets.
B. The World Bank could lower its growth forecast for India to 7 per cent from 7.6 per cent in 2016-
17, citing a slowdown in consumption and manufacturing as demonetization and an ongoing
decline in private investment and credit constraints due to impaired bank balance sheets.
C. The World Bank is lowering its growth forecast for India to 7 per cent to 7.6 per cent in 2016-17,
citing a slowdown in consumption and manufacturing since demonetization and an ongoing
Talk to Us
D. The World Bank lowered its growth forecast for India to 7 per cent for 7.6 per cent in 2016-17,
citing a slowdown in consumption and manufacturing because of demonetization and an ongoing
E. No error.
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Use “has lowered” in place of “have lowered” as the subject is singular. Replace “to 7.6 per cent”
with “from 7.6 per cent” and “because demonetization” with “due to demonetization”.
Q103.
The US Supreme Court has deduced rights of privacy and parenthood on the reasoning that the
speci c guarantees in the Bill of Rights “have penumbras formed by emanations from those
guarantees that help give them life and substance”. (1 Mark)
A. The US Supreme Court have deduced rights of privacy and parenthood on the reason that the
guarantees that help give them life and substance”.
B. The US Supreme Court deduced rights of privacy and parenthood in the reasoning that the
C. The US Supreme Court may deduce rights of privacy and parenthood over the reason of that
the speci c guarantees in the Bill of Rights “have penumbras formed by emanations from those
D. The US Supreme Court would have deduced rights of privacy and parenthood in reasoning of
the speci c guarantees in the Bill of Rights “have penumbras formed by emanations from those
E. No error.
Correct Answer: E
Solution
The given sentence is grammatically correct.
Q104.
Talkthe
In each of the following sentences four options are given. You are needed to identify to Us
best way
Lack of debate over the issue of demonetization at the winter session of Parliament has fuelling
tremendous interest in the governor’s testimony. (1 Mark)
A. Lack of debate over the issue of demonetization on the winter session of Parliament have
fuelled tremendous interest in the governor’s testimony.
B. Lack of debate at the issue of demonetization over the winter session of Parliament fuelled
tremendous interest in the governor’s testimony.
C. Lack of debate on the issue of demonetization in the winter session of Parliament has fuelled
D. Lack of debate in the issues of demonetization at the winter session of Parliament was fuelling
E. No error.
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The given sentence is in present perfect tense. So replace “over the issue” with “on the issue”, “at
the winter” with “in the winter” and “has fuelling” with “has fuelled”.
Q105.
The changes of the working of parliamentary committees are essential step for securing openness
and transparent. (1 Mark)
A. The changes to the working of parliamentary committees are essential steps for securing
openness and transparency.
B. The change to the working of parliamentary committees was essential steps for securing
openness and transparent.
C. The changes at the working of parliamentary committees were essential steps for securing
opening and transparency.
D. The change on the working of parliamentary committees are essential step for securing
openness and transparency.
E. No error.
Correct Answer: A
Talk to Us
Solution
Replace “of the working” with “to the working”, “step for” with “steps for” and “transparent” with
“transparency” to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Q106.
In each of the following sentence there are three blank spaces. Below each sentence there are ve
options and each option consists of three words which can be lled up in the blanks in the
sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct.
With just days remaining before his stint in o ce draws to an end, U.S. President Barack Obama
______ the American people one last time in a/an _________ speech that highlighted his
administration’s top achievements and warned his fellow citizens about rising economic inequality,
simmering racial divisions and _______into intractable partisanship. (1 Mark)
A. inscribed, tedious, reverting
B. sermonized, escalating, convalescence
C. addressed, soaring, regression
D. consigned, extensive, progression
E. lectured, astounding, gestation
Correct Answer: C
Solution
‘addressed, soaring, regression’ is the correct use.
Soaring means increase rapidly above the usual level.
Regression means a return to a former or less developed state.
Q107.
Mr. Obama has built an impressive ____ spanning domestic and foreign policy. Inheriting an
economy buckling under a severe economic recession, he sprang into action early on in his rst
term and passed numerous pieces of legislation to _____ the sinking assets of American enterprise.
As he pointed out in his speech, today the unemployment rate is near a ten-year low and the U.S.
economy is ___ again. (1 Mark)
A. tradition, beaconed, increasing Talk to Us
B. legacy, buoy, growing

C. bequest, desolate, blooming
D. convention, bring down, enhancing
E. heritage, invigorate, aggravating
Correct Answer: B
Solution
‘legacy, buoy, growing’ is the correct use.
Buoy means an anchored oat serving as a navigation mark, to show reefs or other hazards, or for
mooring.
Q108.
Emojis are everywhere. They are becoming the _____ language that bridges everyone across
di erent ________,” said Wei Ai, a doctoral student at the U-M School of Information and one of the
lead authors of the study. Ai and colleagues found that face with tears emoji is the most popular
emoji, ______15.4 per cent of the total symbols in the study. Heart emoji and heart eyes emoji are
the second- and third-most used ones. (1 Mark)
A. ubiquitous, cultures, comprising
B. sporadic, civilization, consisting
C. pervasive, practice, abandoning
D. universal, traditions, intransigence
E. aberrant, legacies, encompassing
Correct Answer: A
Solution
‘ubiquitous, cultures, comprising’ is the correct use.
ubiquitous means present, appearing, or found everywhere.
Q109.
sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct. Talk to Us
India and Rwanda announced a strategic partnership after a meeting between Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and President Paul Kagame at the ongoing Vibrant Gujarat summit this week,
promising to enhance their exchanges and tighten ______ between them. But the move has raised
eyebrows both within the External A airs Ministry and outside, with o cials ____ that they have
“lost count” of the number of such strategic _________announced by India in the past two decades
(1 Mark)
A. coalition, admitting, patterns
B. communion, announced, deals
C. animosity, accepting, a liation
D. cooperation, conceding, partnerships
E. collaboration, discerning, assistance
Correct Answer: D
Solution
‘cooperation, conceding, partnerships’ is the correct use.
Conceding means admit or agree that something is true after rst denying or resisting it.
Q110.
At present, the Indian High Commission in Uganda is concurrently ____ to Rwanda and Burundi,
though Rwanda opened its mission in Delhi in 1999 and has posted an Ambassador here since
2001. President Kagame has visited India on a number of occasions, including the India Africa
business _________, but the last Indian _____ to visit Rwanda was the then Minister of State for
External A airs, PreneetKaur, in 2012. (1 Mark)
A. prohibited, meeting, luminary
B. authorized, association, nobility
C. accredited, visited, dignitary
D. commissioned , convention , moocher
E. interdicted, conclave, luminary
Correct Answer: C
Talk to Us
Solution
‘accredited, visited, dignitary’ is the correct use.
Sol. Accredited means (of an o cial body) give authority or sanction to (someone or something)
when recognized standards have been met.
Dignitary means a person considered to be important because of high rank or o ce.
Q111.
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has
been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, ve options are given. Find out the appropriate word which ts the blank appropriately. If
the word written alongside the blank ts the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as
the correct choice.
Although our understanding of the linkages between gender and process (111) is still evolving,
there is mounting presumption (112) that economic crises a ect women more than men. Women
are often turn out (113) rst as men are traditionally considered to be the main breadwinners.
Economic shocks that worsen (114) infrastructure, physical and human, a ect women more than
men by reducing their access to markets and basic services. Girls are often distant (115) from
schools to help with household work and informal enterprises during times of economic crisis,
reinforcing gender gaps in education. (1 Mark)
A. stock
B. growth
C. upgrade
D. expansion
E. No correction required
Correct Answer: B
Solution
“growth” is the correct word replacement as it means the process of increasing in amount, value,
or importance. The passage talks about the linkages between gender and growth which can be
found in the later part of the paragraph.
Q112.
Talk
been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage to Us
and against
the correct choice.
A. refutation
B. principle
C. evidence
D. pressure
Correct Answer: C
Solution
“evidence” is the correct word replacement as it means the available body of facts or information
indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid. Read the sentence carefully, the phrase
following the bold word expresses the fact that economic crises a ect women more than men.
Hence “evidence” is the correct usage.
Q113.
the correct choice.
Talk to Us
A. laid o
B. considered
C. let out
D. recalled
Correct Answer: A
Solution
“laid o ” is the correct word replacement as it means give up or stop doing something. Thus the
phrasal verb makes the sentence meaningful. Other words given in options make no relevance to
the meaning of the sentence.
Q114.
the correct choice.
A. intensi es
B. exacerbate
C. multiplies
D. decline
Correct Answer: E
Solution
“worsen” is the correct word in context of its usage in the sentence. It means make or become
Talk to Us
worse. Hence it doesn’t require any correction.
Q115.
the correct choice.
A. withdrawn
B. unreserved
C. absent
D. forbidden
Correct Answer: A
Solution
“withdrawn” is the correct word replacement as it means discontinue or no longer provide
(something previously supplied or o ered). “Girls are withdrawn from schools” is the correct
phrase in context of the theme of the passage.
Q116.
Standard & Poor's (S&P) Global Ratings and its predecessor organizations have been in business
for more than 150 years. (S&P) based in-
A. New York, USA
B. London, UK
C. Paris, France
D. Vienna, Austria
E. Geneva, Switzerland
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Standard & Poor’s Financial Services is an American (New York, USA) nancial services company. It
is a division of S&P Global that publishes nancial research and analysis on stocks, bonds and
commodities.
Q117.
Who is the President of Egypt?
A. Sherif Ismail
B. Nubar Pasha
C. Ahmed Sisi
D. Abdel Fattah al-Sisi
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Abdel Fattah el-Sisi is the incumbent president of Egypt.
Q118.
Which is a full-service credit rating agency exclusively set up for micro, small and medium
enterprises?
A. CRISIL
B. ICRA
C. CARE
D. ONICRA
E. SMERA
Correct Answer: E
Solution
SMERA Ratings Limited (formerly SME Rating Agency of India Ltd.) is a full service credit rating
agency exclusively set up for micro, small and medium enterprises.
Q119.
Which Indian sprinter clinched gold in men’s 1500m race at the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games?
A. Jinson Johnson Talk to Us
B. Manjit Singh
C. Sriram Singh
D. Muhammed Anas
E. Dharambir Singh
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Indian sprinter Jinson Johnson from Kerala clinched gold with a timing of 3 minutes 44.72 seconds
in men’s 1500m race at the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games on August 30. He also holds the credit of
winning silver in the 800m track event at the ongoing event, nishing behind compatriot Manjit
Singh, who won the Gold. With this, India achieved a rare one-two in men’s 800m at the 18th Asian
Games 2018. It was India’s only second one-two nish in 800m at the Games since Ranjit Singh
and Kulwant Singh achieved the feat at the inaugural edition held in New Delhi in 1951.
Q120.
India’s rst dedicated ‘Khadi Mall’ will soon be set up by which state government?
A. Jharkhand
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Gujarat
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
Solution
India’s rst dedicated ‘Khadi Mall’ will soon be set up by the Jharkhand government to boost
market for khadi and khadi made products. The land in the Heavy Engineering Corporation (HEC)
campus will be made available to the Khadi Board to develop the country’s rst Khadi mall. The
artisans would be provided technological aid for value addition in their products, while rural,
urban and tourism ‘haats’ will provide them markets for their goods.
Q121.
The Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) was registered as a society under the
_____________ in February 2006.
A. Companies Act, 1956
B. Societies Registration Act, 1860
C. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 Talk to Us
D. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The Banking Codes and Standards Board of India was registered as a society under the Societies
Registration Act, 1860 in February 2006. It functions as an independent and autonomous body.
Membership of BCSBI is voluntary and open to scheduled banks.
Q122.
Capital First’ announced that the regulator National Housing Bank (NHB) has approved the merger
of the company with ______________.
A. HDFC Bank
B. YES Bank
C. IDFC Bank
D. Kotak Mahindra Bank
E. IndusInd Bank
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Capital First announced that the regulator National Housing Bank (NHB) has approved the merger
of the company along with Capital Home Finance and Capital First Securities Limited with IDFC
Bank.
Q123.
Name the Small Finance Bank that has recently announced the commencement of its banking
operations in India.
A. Samriddhi Small Finance Bank
B. Sukriti Small Finance Bank
C. Utkarsh Small Finance Bank
D. None of the given options is true
E. Jana Small Finance Bank
Correct Answer: E
Talk to Us
Solution
Jana Small Finance Bank (formerly Janalakshmi Financial Services) announced the commencement
of its banking operations. To cover its extensive customer base, Jana Bank will initially open 19
branches across 18 States and expand to 200 banking outlets, including the 25% unbanked rural
branches by June 2018.
Q124.
NPA is a loan or an advance where interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a
period of more than ______ days in respect of a term loan.
A. 100 days
B. 30 days
C. 90 days
D. 60 days
E. 120 days
Correct Answer: C
Solution
A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or an advance where interest and/or installment of
principal remain overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect of a term loan.
Q125.
The Union home ministry has recently launched the e-FRRO scheme to expedite visa services for
foreigners visiting India. What does ‘FRRO’ stands for?
A. Foreigners Regaining Registration O ce
B. Foreigners Reacceptance Registration O ce
C. Foreigners Registry Registration O ce
D. Foreigners Regional Registration O ce
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The Union home ministry agged o the e-FRRO (e-Foreigners Regional Registration O ce)
scheme to expedite visa services for foreigners visiting India.
Purchased by kumaarmanish95@gmail.com Talk to Us
Q126.
The purpose of MUDRA is to provide funding to the non-corporate small business sector through
various Last Mile Financial Institutions like-
A. Banks
B. NBFCs
C. MFIs
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Solution
MUDRA, which stands for Micro Units Development & Re nance Agency Ltd, is a nancial
institution being set up by Government of India for development and re nancing micro units’
enterprises. It was announced by the Hon’ble Finance Minister while presenting the Union Budget
for FY 2016. The purpose of MUDRA is to provide funding to the non-corporate small business
sector through various Last Mile Financial Institutions like Banks, NBFCs and MFIs.
Q127.
Which country to host the 2019 Asian Youth Weightlifting Championships?
A. South Korea
B. Japan
C. China
D. North Korea
E. India
Correct Answer: D
Solution
North Korea will host the 2019 Asian Youth and Junior Weightlifting Championships in its capital
Pyongyang from October 27
Q128.
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is an international nancial
institution that o ers loans to-
A. Multinational Banks
B. Multinational Financial Institutions Talk to Us
C. Middle-Income Developing Countries

D. Non-Government Organizations
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is an international nancial
institution that o ers loans to middle-income developing countries.
Q129.
The Pulitzer Prizes for 2018 has been announced. In Fiction, Andrew Sean Greer’s ___________ has
won the Pulitzer Prize for ction.
A. An American Marriage
B. Everything Here Is Beautiful
C. The Female Persuasi
D. Less
E. Circe
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Andrew Sean Greer’s “Less” has won the Pulitzer Prize for ction. Greer’s novel tells the comic
story of a middle-aged novelist.
Q130.
According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’s annual data, which country has topped the India’s FDI
chart in FY18?
A. Netherlands
B. France
C. Singapore
D. Mauritius
E. Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: D
Solution Talk to Us
According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’s annual data, Mauritius accounted for the largest source
of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India in the nancial year FY18 followed by Singapore. The
data shows that the total India’s FDI stood at $37.36 billion in the FY18, which is a marginal rise
over the $36.31 billion recorded in the previous scal FY17. The provisional data for the nancial
year ended March revealed that FDI into the manufacturing sector witnessed a substantial decline
to $7.06 billion, as against $11.97 billion in the year-ago period. However, FDI into communication
services rose to $8.8 billion in 2017-18 as compared to $5.8 billion. The in ows into retail and
wholesale trade also shot up to $4.47 billion as against $2.77 billion, while nancial services sector
too witnessed a rise in in ows to $4.07 billion from $3.73 billion in the previous year.
Q131.
A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow the additional amount of overnight
money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). It is called?
A. Repo Rate
B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. Bank Rate
D. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
E. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow
additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory
Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Q132.
What is the theme of World Heritage Day 2018?
A. Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism
B. Heritage for Development
C. Heritage for Generations
D. Heritage of Commemoration
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Talk to Usabout
Every year, 18th April is celebrated Worldwide as World Heritage Day to create awareness
Heritage among communities. This year the theme is 'Heritage for Generations'.
Q133.
NASA has launched which mission to study matter between distant stars?
A. TISS
B. CHESS
C. BLUE
D. PRKS
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) successfully launched Colorado High-
resolution Echelle Stellar Spectrograph (CHESS) from the Kwajalein Atoll in the Republic of the
Marshall Islands.
Q134.
BCSBI was set up to ensure that the common person as a consumer of nancial services from the
banking Industry is in no way at a disadvantageous position and really gets what he/she has been
promised. BCSBI stands for-?
A. Branch Codes and Standards Board of India
B. Banking Codes and Stability Board of India
C. Banking Codes and Standards Bank of Industry
D. Banking Codes and Society Board of Investment
E. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
Correct Answer: E
Solution
In November 2003, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted the Committee on Procedures and
Performance Audit of Public Services under the Chairmanship of Shri S.S.Tarapore (former Deputy
Governor) to address the issues relating to availability of adequate banking services to the
common person. Therefore, the Committee recommended setting up of the Banking Codes and
Standards Board of India (BCSBI). BCSBI was set up to ensure that the common person as a
consumer of nancial services from the banking Industry is in no way at a disadvantageous
position and really gets what he/she has been promised.
Talk to Us
Q135.
One97 Communications Limited, the owner of digital payment major, Paytm, announced the
launch of its o ine payments solution named _______________ to provide seamless payments
solutions for non-internet customers.
A. Paytm o ine
B. Paytm Tap Card
C. Paytm Payo
D. Paytm Payments
Correct Answer: B
Solution
One97 Communications Limited, the owner of digital payment major, Paytm, announced the
launch of its o ine payments solution - the Paytm Tap Card, in line with the company's vision to
provide seamless payments solutions for non-internet customers.
Q136.
Who of the following Indians has/have received the 2018 Ramon Magsaysay Award?
A. Deepa Joshi and Nileema Mishra
B. Kulendi Francis and Anshu Gupta
C. Sanjiv Chaturvedi
D. Bharat Vatwani and Sonam Wangchuk
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Two Indians, Dr. Bharat Vatwani and Sonam Wangchuk received the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay
Award for 2018 on August 31. The award, which is regarded as the Asian version of the Nobel
Prize, was established in 1957. The Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation, in its citation, stated that
Wangchuk was recognized for his uniquely systematic, collaborative and community-driven reform
of learning systems in remote northern India, thus improving the life opportunities of Ladakhi
youth. Vatwani was recognized for his tremendous courage and healing compassion in embracing
India’s mentally-a icted destitute. Beside them, Youk Chhang from Cambodia, Maria de Lourdes
Martins Cruz from East Timor, Howard Dee from the Philippines and Vo Thi Hoang Yen from
Talk to Us
Vietnam are the other winners of the 2018 award.
Q137.
Who can set up an SEZ?
A. Private sector
B. Public sector
C. State government
D. All of the above
E. Only (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Private sector, Public sector and State government can set up Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
Q138.
The joint military exercise “Rapid Trident 2018” has started in which country?
A. Ukraine
B. India
C. Australia
D. South Africa
E. USA
Correct Answer: A
Solution
The joint military exercise “Rapid Trident 2018″ held in the western Ukrainian village of Starychi. It
was launched by Ukraine with the United States and a string of other NATO countries as tensions
with Russia remain high over the Kremlin-backed insurgency in the country’s east. The aim of the
exercise is to practice countering armed aggression in conditions of the hybrid war. The exercise is
composed of a multinational, brigade-level, computer-assisted command post exercise i.e.
integrated with a battalion-level eld training exercise, and a platoon-level situational training
exercise.
Q139.
Under which law, the Internal Ombudsman (IO) scheme 2018 gives statutory powers to Internal
Ombudsman?
A. RBI Act
B. Banking Regulaton Act Talk to Us
C. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act

D. Companies Act
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently introduced Internal Ombudsman (IO) scheme 2018 to
tighten internal grievance redressal system at Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs). In it, RBI has
given statutory powers to Internal Ombudsman (IO) under section 35 A of the Banking Regulation
Act, 1949. The central bank has tightened the selection and operating procedure for IO in banks
and made it mandatory for lenders with more than 10 branches (excluding Regional Rural Banks)
to have an independent authority to review complaints that were partially or wholly rejected by
the respective banks. An ombudsman is a person o cially charged with investigating and
addressing public complaints or violation of rights. The tenure of the IO cannot be more than 5
years and it is not open to reappointment. An IO also cannot be removed without consent from
the RBI. This new post will not report to the bank’s CEO but to the customer service committee of
the bank.
Q140.
Which scheme/act has enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers for
resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks?
A. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C. Securitization Act 2002
D. FEMA
E. Banking Ombudsman Scheme
Correct Answer: E
Solution
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank
customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. The Banking
Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI
with e ect from 1995.
Q141.
Talk to Us
The Union cabinet has recently approved the Restructuring of Multi-Sectoral Development
Programme for its continuation during the remaining period of 14th Finance Commission as
PMJVK. What does PMJVK stand for?
A. Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Kaushal
B. Pradhan Mantri Jan Vyaya Karyakram
C. Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram
D. Pradhan Mantri Jan Vyaya Kaushal
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The Cabinet Committee on Economic A airs approved a proposal for renaming and restructuring
the Multi-sectoral Development Programme as the 'Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram' , with an
aim to provide better socio-economic infrastructure facilities to minority communities and widen
the scheme's coverage.
Q142.
The “in-principle” approval for setting up ‘small nance banks’ granted by RBI will be valid for-
A. 12 Months
B. 24 Months
C. 10 Months
D. 18 Months
E. 30 Months
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The “in-principle” approval granted will be valid for 18 months to enable the applicants to comply
with the requirements under the Guidelines and ful l other conditions as may be stipulated by the
RBI.
Q143.
Which cricket team has won the 57th edition of Duleep Trophy 2018?
A. India Red
B. India Blue
C. India Green
D. India Orange
E. None of these Talk to Us
Correct Answer: B
Solution
India Blue has won the 57th edition of Duleep Trophy 2018 by defeating India Red in the nal by
an innings and 187 runs to win. Spinners Deepak Jagbir Hooda and Saurabh Kumar shared 5
wickets each in just 10.5 overs on the 4th day to bundle out India Red for 172 in the second
innings. India Blue scored 541 in the rst innings while India Red scored 182 in the rst innings
and 172 in the second innings. Himachal Pradesh batsman Nikhil Gangta was named man of the
match for his superb knock of 136. The Duleep Trophy is a domestic rst-class cricket competition
played in India. It was named after Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji of Nawanagar, who played for
England.
Q144.
Which of the following movies has become the rst Bollywood lm ever to release in Saudi Arabia?
A. Pad Man
B. Raazi
C. Parmanu
D. Gold
E. Airlift
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Indian movie ‘Gold’ has created history by becoming the rst Bollywood lm ever to release in
Saudi Arabia. The Reema Kagti-directed sports lm ‘Gold’ is a ctional re-telling of India’s iconic win
at the 1948 London Olympics. It stars Akshay Kumar, Mouni Roy, Kunal Kapoor, Vineet Kumar
Singh, Amit Sadh, and Sunny Kaushal. This lm is only the second movie after Rajnikanth’s social
drama “Kala” to hit the theatres in the Gulf country. Saudi Arabia had held a private screening of
international cultural phenomenon, “Black Panther” in May 2018 to herald the launch of movie
theatres in the kingdom and opening them to the public.
Q145.
Who among the following appoints the “Authorized Dealers” for foreign exchange transactions?
A. GOI
B. RBI
C. PSBs
D. FEDAI Talk to Us
E. FIMMDA
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Foreign Exchange Dealer's Association of India (FEDAI) was set up in 1958 as an Association of
banks dealing in foreign exchange in India (typically called Authorized Dealers - ADs) as a self
regulatory body and is incorporated under Section 25 of The Companies Act, 1956. It's major
activities include framing of rules governing the conduct of inter-bank foreign exchange business
among banks vis-à-vis public and liaison with RBI for reforms and development of forex market.
Q146.
NTPC Dadri or National Capital Power Station (NCPS) owned and operated by NTPC is located in
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. West Bengal
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Haryana
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
NTPC Dadri or National Capital Power Station (NCPS) owned and operated by NTPC is located in
the Gautam Budh Nagar district of Uttar Pradesh, about 48km from the Indian capital New Delhi.
Q147.
The Nokrek National Park (NNS) is located in
A. Assam
B. Odisha
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Uttarakhand
E. Meghalaya
Correct Answer: E
Solution
The Nokrek National Park (NNS) is located in West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya Talk to Us
Q148.
Which online retailer site has introduced ‘FurniSure’ a certi cation that assures customers ‘quality
and durability’ of furniture available on the website?
A. Paytm
B. Amazon
C. Flipkart
D. Jabong
E. Ebay
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Flipkart has introduced ‘FurniSure,’ a certi cation that assures customers ‘quality and durability’ of
furniture available on the e-tailer’s website.
Q149.
Priyadharshini Suresh is related with which sport?
A. Cricket
B. Badminton
C. Hockey
D. Athletics
E. Chess
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Priyadharshini Suresh is related with Athletics.
Q150.
Where is the headquarter of DBS Bank?
A. Singapore
B. Canada
C. Switzerland
D. Japan
E. South Africa
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: A
Solution
DBS Banks is a multinational banking and nancial services corporation headquartered in Marina
Bay, Singapore. The company was known as The Development Bank of Singapore Limited. The
bank was set up by the Government of Singapore in July 1968 to take over the industrial nancing
activities from the Economic Development Board.
Q151.
Ottawa is the Capital of which of the following country?
A. Netherlands
B. Australia
C. Austria
D. Canada
E. Ireland
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Ottawa is the Capital of Canada. The Canadian dollar is the currency of Canada.
Q152.
Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh released a book titled ‘My Journey from Marxism-
Leninism to Nehruvian Socialism’. Name the author of this book _____________.
A. Jagdish Bhagwati
B. C H Hanumantha Rao
C. Amartya Sen
D. Arvind Subramanian
E. Bimal Jalan
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh released a book titled ‘My Journey from Marxism-
Leninism to Nehruvian Socialism’ by former Planning Commission and Finance Commission
member C H Hanumantha Rao.
Q153. Talk to Us
The famous Bisket Jatra festival 2018 held in which country?
A. Bhutan
B. Japan
C. Nepal
D. Sri Lanka
E. India
Correct Answer: C
Solution
In Nepal the famous Bisket Jatra celebrated in Bhaktapur and other parts of Kathmandu valley.
The nine day annual festival marks beginning of Nepali New Year.
Q154.
The Tilaiya Dam is a concrete gravity dam build across the Barakar River at Tilaiya in which state?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Meghalaya
C. Assam
D. Jharkhand
E. West Bengal
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The Tilaiya Dam is a concrete gravity dam build across the Barakar River at Tilaiya in Koderma
district of Jharkhand.
Q155.
Which of the following cities was the venue of Defence & Homeland Security Expo and Conference
– 2018?
A. Pune
B. Hyderabad
C. Agartala
D. New Delhi
E. None of these

Talk to Us
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The 3-day Defence & Homeland Security Expo and Conference – 2018 held in New Delhi to enable
nation become self-reliant in Home Land Security (HLS) & defence sector. It is being organized for
the rst time to make leading policy makers and luminaries from diverse defence segments take
part with special focus on MSMEs in defense production and procurement. It was inaugurated by
Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh on September 6, which was organized by PHD Chamber of
Commerce and Industry in association with Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(MSME). The expo is cutting across various industries vis-a-vis surveillance, cyber security,
bulletproof jackets, robots, drones, hi-tech equipment including livelihood items, research and
development and police modernization.
Talk to Us

Talk To Us

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Talk To Us

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

10/20/2018 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store

Who amongst the following sits third to the right of D? (1 Mark)

Who among the following is the grandmother of D? (1 Mark)

From I and III, we can determine only.

Who among Mahesh, Siva, Neha and Moorthy is the heaviest?

I. Siva is heavier than Moorthy.

From none of statement , we can’t determine as there is no relation.

On which day of the week did Neha arrive?

Which institute did the B. Tech Graduate join ? (1 Mark)

The educational quali cation of KS is (1 Mark)

Which of the following Institute join by CS? (1 Mark)

Point Z is which direction and how far from Point X? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B Talk to Us

Whose favourite is Alexander Mahone? (2 Mark)

Who among the following is E’s son? (2 Mark)

is Alexander Mahone. B is father of D and is not an immediate neighbour of A.

Which of the following is like jesse pinkman? (2 Mark)

Which of the following oors are vacant? (1 Mark)

How many people live between C and E? (1 Mark)

Previous steps can’t be determined.

Input: date and month on year happy my dear

Input: did of do dog cat rat animals ago

Some wins are trophies.

Correct. This information most weakens the argument.

What will be the code for ‘Judgement’? (1 Mark)

The given words are coded as per following pattern:

What will be the code for ‘Bankers Adda’? (1 Mark)

The given words are coded as per following pattern:

Which of the following will be the code for ‘Revenue’? (1 Mark)

The given words are coded as per following pattern:

Which of the following can be coded as ‘B35? (1 Mark)

The given words are coded as per following pattern:

What could be the code for ‘Supreme Court judges’? (1 Mark)

The given words are coded as per following pattern:

Your Answer: Not Attempted

(A) Probability of choosing two green ball is 1/20.

Your Answer: Not Attempted

Your Answer: Not Attempted

Purchased by kumaarmanish95@gmail.com Talk to Us

In which stream total number of students is second highest? (1 Mark)

Suppress (1.5 Mark)

Subordinate (1.5 Mark)

Pronounce (1.5 Mark)

(i) Regulation coherence is major a procurement.

What does author mean by “TPP has open architecture”?

(i) That it would help Washington in attracting new members.

Which of the following is not true in context of the passage? (1 Mark)

B. legacy, buoy, growing

D. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

C. Middle-Income Developing Countries

C. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act

Your Answer: Not Attempted

Your Answer: Not Attempted

You might also like