AnswerKey PDF

FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2018 for students presently in
Class 8
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 210
Code 8000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
SECTION – III
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd. ICES House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -1100 16, Ph : 26569493, 26515949 Fax : 26513942
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In the following question a number series is given. Below the series, a number along with (1), (2), (3)
(4) and (5) is given. You have to complete the series following the same sequence as that of the
given series. Then answer the question that follows.
8, 4, 6, 15, 52.5, 236.25
4, (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
What will come in place of (4)?
(A) 36.25 (B) 26.25
(C) 16.25 (D) 32.75
2. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given
letter series shall complete it?
W_YZ_X_ZW_Y_
(A) ZWZXX (B) YWYYZ
(C) XWYYZ (D) XWYXZ
3. Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Flow : River : : Stagnant : ?
(A) Pond (B) Rain
(C) Stream (D) Canal
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-2
4. If '–' stands for division, '+' for multiplication, '÷' for subtraction and 'x' for addition, which one of the
following equations is correct?
(A) 18 ÷ 3 × 2 + 8 – 6 = 10 (B) 18 – 3 + 2 × 8 ÷ 6 = 14
(C) 18 – 3 ÷ 2 × 8 + 6 = 17 (D) 18 × 3 + 2 ÷ 8 – 6 = 15
5. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the equation correct?
5 + 3 × 8 –12 ÷ 4 = 3
(A) – and ÷ (B) + and ×
(C) + and ÷ (D) + and –
6. Find the odd word from the given alternative.

(A) Shimla (B) Ooty
(C) Darjeeling (D) Agra
7. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the
given figure?
8. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
Biosphere, Hydrosphere, Atmosphere
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
website: www.fiitjee.com
9. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will appear on the opposite to the face
containing 5 points?
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
10. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the equation.
48 * 4 * 6 * 3 * 30
(A) –, +, =, × (B) ÷, =, ×, +
(C) ÷, +, ×, = (D) –, =, ×, +
11. X is the husband of Y. W is the daughter of X. Z is the husband of W. N is the daughter of Z. What is
the relationship of N to Y?
(A) Cousin (B) Niece
(C) Daughter (D) Grand daughter
12. Introducing a boy, a man says, "He is the son of the brother of my grandfather's son." How is the boy
related to the man?
(A) Brother (B) Grandfather
(C) Nephew (D) Cousin
13. X walked 20 feet from A to B in the East direction. Then X turned to the right and walked 6 feet. Again
X turned to the right and walked 28 feet. How far is X from A?
(A) 28 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 27
14. Ankita travels 35 km towards the west, takes a right turn and travels 50 km more. Next, she takes
another right turn and travels 35 km in that direction. How far is she now from her original position?
(A) 75 km (B) 25 km
(C) 50 km (D) 20 km
15. In the “PRELIMINARY” find out how many such pairs of letters are there in the given word each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four
16. Arrange the following words as per the order in the dictionary:
1. RESIGN
2. REPAIR
3. RESIDUE
4. RESEARCH
5. RESCUE
(A) 4 5 3 1 2 (B) 2 5 4 3 1
(C) 2 5 4 1 3 (D) 5 4 3 1 2
17. If the letters in the word INTERNATIONAL are rearranged in the alphabetical order, which one will be
in the middle in order after the rearrangement?
(A) L (B) I
(C) O (D) N
18. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 7986032451 are interchanged. Similarly
the positions of the third and fourth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be
the fifth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 0
19. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there
are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 12 (D) 23
20. Forty boys are standing in a row facing the North. Amit is eleventh from the left and Deepak is thirty-
first from the right end of the row. How far will Shreya, who is third to the right of Amit in the row, be
from Deepak?
(A) 2nd (B) 3rd
(C) 4th (D) 5th
21. Find the missing number from the alternatives.
(A) 125 (B) 175

(C) 225 (D) 250
22. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is:
(A) 80° (B) 75°
(C) 60° (D) 105°
23. If FRIEND is coded as HTKGPF then REVEAL will be coded as:

(A) TGXFCN (B) TGXNGC
(C) TXGNCG (D) TGXGCN
24. In a certain code language, "CUTE" is written as "9251" and "REST" is written as "4135". How is
"RESCUE" written in that code language?
(A) 413921 (B) 431291
(C) 423911 (D) 413912
25. In the following question, two statements are given each followed by two conclusions I and II. You
have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statements:
A. All tables are boxes.
B. Some boxes are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are windows.
II. All boxes are tables.
III. No window is table.
(A) None follows (B) Only either I or III follows
(C) Only either II or III follows (D) Only I and II follow
Directions (Q.26 – Q.30): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
A , B ,C ,D ,E ,F ,G and H are sitting around a circular table. Only two of them are not facing the centre but sit
opposite each other. G is the second to the right of A and third to the right of C. B is second to the left of C
and fourth to the right of D. E is second to the right of H and is facing the centre. One of the persons who is
facing outwards is an immediate neighbour of G and A both. D sits second to the right of C and is not an
immediate neighbour of A.
26. Who among the following is an immediate neighbours of E?

(A) C,B (B) A,F
(C) B,H (D) G,D
27. Who among the following is second to the left of F?

(A) B (B) E
(C) G (D) D
28. Who among the following sits second to the right of C?

(A) H (B) F
(C) D (D) A
29. Who among the following are not facing the centre?
(A) CA (B) CF
(C) GF (D) EB
30. Who among the following is third to the left of B?

(A) G (B) H
(C) C (D) F
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity ?

(A) (m)2 (B) m2
1
(C) m2 (D) m
2
32. Newton’s second law of motion gives us a measure of

(A) force (B) inertia
(C) mass (D) acceleration
33. The S.I. unit of thrust is

(A) Newton (B) N m–1
(C) N m (D) Pascal
34. Fluids are

(A) solids and liquids (B) liquids and gases
(C) solids and gases (D) only liquids
35. An instrument commonly used in laboratory to produce a sound of some particular frequency is
(A) sonar (B) electric bell
(C) tuning fork (D) a stretched wire
36. Galileo’s law of inertia is another name for Newton’s ……… law of motion
(A) first (B) third
(C) second (D) none of these
37. In which of the three mediums: air, water and steel, does sound travel the fastest?
(A) Air (B) Water
(C) Steel (D) None of these
38. Buoyant force exerted by different fluids on a given body is

(A) same (B) different
(C) zero (D) negligible
39. When a sound wave travels in air, the physical quantity which is transferred from one place to the
other is
(A) mass (B) force
(C) momentum (D) energy
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
40. The most abundant element in the universe is

(A) hydrogen (B) oxygen
(C) helium (D) carbon
41. The major raw materials for rayon is obtained from

(A) wood (B) coal
(C) petroleum (D) both coal and petroleum
42. The conversion of wood into coal occurs by a biochemical process that takes over millions of years
and is known as …………
(A) catenation (B) carbonization
(C) pyrolysis (D)destructive distillation
43. Select the one that occurs in native form:

(A) Calcium (B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium (D) Gold
44. Main constituent of marsh gas is

(A) ethane (B) acetylene
(C) ethyne (D) methane
45. Which of the following contains isoprene units?

(A) Natural rubber (B) Nylon-6, 6
(C) Polyethylene (D) Dacron
46. Now-a-days coal gas is used as a source of

(A) light (B) heat
(C) electricity (D) steam
47. Which among the following alloys contain mercury as one of its constituents:
(A) Alnico (B) Solder
(C) Stainless steel (D) Zinc Amalgam
48. Correct full form of abbreviation PET is

(A) Polyethylene terephthalate (B) Polyethane terephthalate
(C) Polyacetylene terephthalate (D) None of these
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
49. The value of 10  25  108  154  225 is

(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10
50. There are two positive numbers in the ratio 5:8. If the larger number exceeds the smaller by 15. Find
the smaller number
(A) 25 (B) 30
(C) 20 (D) 35
51.  x  4  x  3    x  4  x  3  is equal to
2
(A) 2x  14x  24 (B) 2x 2  14x  24
(C) 14x (D) 24
52. What number should be divided by 0.25 to give the result 25?
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 12.5 (D) 125
5
53. If of 49 + 20% of 130 = x + 49, then x =
7
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 18
54. The least number which is a perfect square and has 540 as a factor.
(A) 8100 (B) 6400
(C) 4800 (D) 3600
55. Diagonals of a rhombus are 6 cm and 8 cm respectively. The side will be equal to (in cm)
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
56. Which of the following is not a pythagorean triplet?

(A) (8, 15, 17) (B) (12, 35, 38)
(C) (18, 80, 82) (D) (10, 24, 26)
2 1
57. A rational number between and is
3 2
3 1
(A)  (B)
4 12
5 5
(C) (D)
6 6
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
58. Moat, Dhekli and Rahat are different

(A) Traditional methods of cultivation (B) Traditional methods of weeding
(C) Traditional methods of seed sowing (D) Traditional methods of irrigation
59. ________ is a biological preparation that provides active immunity to a particular disease.
(A) Vaccination (B) Antibiotics
(C) Medication (D) none of these
60. The Ranthambore National Park and wildlife sanctuary is located at

(A) Odisha (B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh
61. Which of the following is not true for fertilizers?

(A) They increase the yield
(B) Their excessive use disturbs the balance of nutrients in soil
(C) They are generally used in small quantity
(D) They are environment friendly
62. Which one of the following agricultural implement is used for soil preparation?
(A) Sickle (B) Plough
(C) Harvester (D) None
63. Tuberculosis is caused by

(A) Bacillus (B) Plasmodium
(C) Paramyxovirus (D) Mycobacterium tuberculi
64. Food preservation ensures that the food lasts for a longer time without getting spoiled. Which of the
following methods is used to preserve the food materials?
(A) Drying and dehydration (B) Sterilization
(C) Saltation (D) All of these
65. The conversion of Ammonia (NH3) to Nitrite (NO2–) and then to Nitrates (NO3–) is called–
(A) Nitrification (B) Denitrification
(C) Deamination (D) Nitrogen fixation
66. Which of these is used to store grains on a large scale?

(A) Gunny bags (B) Silos
(C) Containers (D) none of these
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III
Section – III
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
67. The forces of action and reaction are

(A) always equal only (B) always equal and opposite
(C) always equal but in same direction (D) always unequal and opposite
68. The inertia of an object tends to cause the object

(A) to increase its speed
(B) to decrease its speed
(C) to resist any change in its state of rest or motion
(D) to decelerate due to friction
69. A beaker is filled with a liquid of density  upto a height h. If the beaker is at rest, the mean pressure
on the walls is
(A) 0 (B) h  g
(C) h  g/2 (D) 2 h  g
70. Which of the following gas is the densest of all?

(A) Air (B) Chlorine
(C) Ozone (D) Argon
71. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train
is
(A) accelerated (B) uniform
(C) retarded (D) along circular tracks
72. When each side of a cuboid is doubled, its volume becomes

(A) two times (B) four times
(C) eight times (D) sixteen times
73. The construction of a submarine is based on

(A) Archimedes principle (B) Bernoulli’s principle
(C) Pascal’s law (D) Newton’s law
74. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

(A) mass (B) energy
(C) momentum (D) velocity
75. A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is

(A) zero (B) less than its weight
(C) equal to its weight (D) none of these
76. The force of friction (F) is equal to _________. (where  = coefficient of friction and R = normal
reaction)
(A) R/2 (B) R
(C) 2R (D) R/3
77. The speed of sound in a certain medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves pass over a certain point in 1
minute, the wavelength is
(A) 2 m (B) 8 m
(C) 4 m (D) 16 m
78. A source of frequency 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.2 m. How long does it take to travel 300
m?
(A) 70 s (B) 60 s
(C) 12 s (D) 3 s
79. Which of the following is a step-growth polymer?

(A) Styrene (B) Nylon-6, 6
(C) Teflon (D) Rubber
80. What is the percentage of gold in a 22 carat gold bar?

(A) 75.6% (B) 91.6%
(C) 82.6% (D) 66.6%
81. The non-combustible element of producer gas is

(A) CO (B) N2
(C) H2 (D) H2O
82. Coal is mainly carbon, also having some other elements like
(A) oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen and Sulphur
(B) chlorine, nitrogen, sulphur and helium
(C) sulphur, phosphorus, iodine and oxygen
(D) bromine, nitrogen, phosphorus and hydrogen
83. For vulcanization of rubber we use which one of the following non-metal?
(A) Sulphur (B) Phosphorus
(C) Chlorine (D) Carbon
84. Caprolactam is the monomeric unit of which polymer?

(A) Nylon 6,6 (B) Nylon-2,6
(C) Nylon 6 (D) None of these
85. The gas which is present in the coal mines and is the cause of explosion in coal mines is
(A) methane (B) carbon monoxide
(C) hydrogen (D) carbon dioxide
86. Artificial silk is a modified

(A) polyester (B) polyamide
(C) polysaccharide (D) polythene
87. Study the following equations and mark the correct option.
2A  2B 
 2AOH  H2
S  O 2  C
C  B  D
A B C D A B C D
(A) Na H2O SO2 H2SO3 (B) Na H2O SO2 H2SO4
(C) K H2O SO2 H2SO4 (D) K H2O SO3 H2SO3
88. We can use coke

(A) as an oxidizing agent (B) as a reducing agent
(C) in printers ink (D) as electrode
89. Which of these elements is used as an antiseptic in medicine?

(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Iodine
90. Match the following:

Column-I Column -II
(P) Raincoats (1) Styrofoam
(Q) Plugs and switches (2) Bakelite
(R) Bags for storage (3) Polythene
(S) Thermocol (4) PVC
(A) (P)(4), (Q)(2), (R)(3), (S)(1) (B) (P)(4), (Q)(3), (R)(2), (S)(1)
(C) (P)(1), (Q)(2), (R)(3), (S)(4) (D) (P)(4), (Q)(2), (R)(1), (S)(3)
91. What is the least number of four digits, when increased by 7, divisible by 35, 48 & 56
(A) 1480 (B) 1473
(C) 1487 (D) 1673
92. If each angle of a regular polygon is 135o . How many sides does it have.
(A) 8 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
93. If p is the probability of an event, then

(A) 0 < p (B) p > 1
(C) 0 < p < 1 (D) 0  p  1
94. The number of revolutions a wheel of diameter 40 cm makes in traveling a distance of 176 m is equal
to
(A) 140 (B) 150
(C) 160 (D) 166
2
95. If a 2  b2  36 and a  b  4, then  a  b   _______
(A) 36 (B) 9
(C) 81 (D) 44
3 9 1 7
96. What is the percentage of least number in the greatest number if , , , are arranged in
5 5 5 5
ascending order?
1
(A) 11 % (B) 10%
9
(C) 20% (D) 25%
97. The value of 0.23  0.22 is

(A) 0.45 (B) 0.43
(C) 0.45 (D) 0.45
1
98. If x  15  4 then x  ?
x
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 1
99. If median and mean of same data are 6 and 4 respectively then mode =
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 10
100. P  x   2x and Q  x   8x 2 then LCM of p  x  and q  x  is

(A) 16x3 (B) 16x 2
(C) 8x 3 (D) 8x 2
1
101. The multiplicative inverse of  x  1  is
 x  1
1 1
(A)   x  1 (B)  x  1 
 x  1  x  1
x 1 x 1
(C) (D)
x2 x2
102. ABCD is a rhombus such that ACB = 40o. Then ADB is

(A) 40o (B) 45o
o
(C) 50 (D) 60o
103. Cod liver oil from fish is rich in which of the following vitamin?
(A) Vitamin B10 (B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D (D) none of the above
104. Amount of nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere is:-

(A) 58% (B) 68%
(C) 78% (D) 88%
105. Scientist who discovered fermentation was

(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Louis Pasteur
(C) John Mendel (D) Edward Jenner
106. The place meant for conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitat are
(i) Zoological garden (ii) Botanical garden
(iii) Wildlife Sanctuary (iv) National Park
(A) (i) & (ii) (B) (ii) & (iii)

(C) (iii) & (iv) (D) (i) & (iv)
107. Combines are used for:-

(A) Sowing of seeds (B) Harvesting the crop
(C) Threshing (D) Harvesting and threshing both
108. Mustard is Rabi crop, whereas ________ is kharif crop.

(A) Barley (B) Cotton
(C) Gram (D) Pea
109. Plant disease citrus canker is caused by

(A) Virus (B) Fungi
(C) Bacteria (D) none of these
110. Which of the following is not a fungi?

(A) Paramecium (B) Bread mould
(C) Penicillium (D) Aspergillus
111. The species which are at the verge of the extinction are
(A) Endemic (B) Extinct
(C) Endangered (D) none of these
112. Conservation within the natural habitat is known as–

(A) In situ conservation (B) Ex situ conservation
(C) In vivo conservation (D) Ex vivo conservation
113. Rhizobium (a bacteria) which fixes atmospheric nitrogen are found in nodules growing in
(A) roots of leguminous plants (B) leaves of leguminous plants
(C) stem of leguminous plants (D) all of the above
114. The weed which grows along with every crop is:
(A) Amaranthus (B) Wheat
(C) Bazra (D) Both (A) & (B)
CLASS – VIII (PAPER – 1)

ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B
5. A 6. D 7. A 8. A
9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D
13. C 14. C 15. C 16. B
17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. A
25. B 26. A 27. D 28. C
29. B 30. B 31. D 32. A
33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A
37. C 38. B 39. D 40. A
41. A 42. B 43. D 44. D
45. A 46. B 47. D 48. A
49. A 50. A 51. C 52. C
53. B 54. A 55. C 56. B
57. B 58. D 59. A 60. B
61. D 62. B 63. D 64. D
65. A 66. B 67. B 68. C
69. C 70. B 71. A 72. C
73. A 74. C 75. C 76. B
77. D 78. D 79. B 80. B
81. B 82. A 83. A 84. C
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. B
89. D 90. A 91. D 92. A
93. D 94. A 95. C 96. A
97. A 98. C 99. D 100. D
101. C 102. C 103. C 104. C
105. B 106. C 107. D 108. B
109. C 110. A 111. C 112. A
113. A 114. A
FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2018 for students presently in
Class 8
Paper 2
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 240
Code 8008
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 50 Minutes on Section-II, 50

Minutes on Section-III and 50 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 13 to 18 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 25 to 32 +3 –1
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 33 to 40 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 41 to 48 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 49 to 54 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 55 to 60 +3 –1
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 61 to 66 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 67 to 72 +3 –1
SECTION – IV PHYSICS (PART-D) 88 to 90 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 91 to 93 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 94 to 96 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 88 to 96.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 96 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
For questions 88 to 96
Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
1. Echo is a phenomenon of :
(A) reflection of sound (B) interference of sound
(C) refraction of sound (D) diffraction (bending) of sound
2
2. A water tanker filled up to of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden application
3
of the brake, the water in the tank would
(A) move backward (B) move forward
(C) be unaffected (D) rise upwards
3. Under the action of force F, a body is moving with a uniform acceleration of 5 m/s2. The force
required to produce a retardation of 10 m/s2 is
(A) –F (B) –2 F
(C) 2 F (C) none of these
4. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Both sound waves and light waves are transverse.
(B) Both sound waves and light waves are longitudinal.
(C) Sound waves are longitudinal and light waves are transverse.
(D) Sound waves are transverse and light waves are longitudinal.
5. If two liquids of same mass but densities 1 and 2 respectively are mixed, then the density of the
mixture is :
1  2 1  2
(A)   (B)  
2 21 2
21 2 1 2
(C)   (D)  
1  2 1  2
6. If a ladder weighing 250 N is placed against a smooth vertical wall having coefficient of friction of
0.3 between it and floor, then what is the maximum force of friction available at the point of
contact between the ladder and the floor?
(A) 75 N (B) 50 N
(C) 35 N (D) 25 N
7. At what temperature range petrol is obtained from petroleum?

(A) 0°C – 40°C (B) 40°C – 170°C
(C) 170°C – 250°C (D) 250°C – 350°C
8. Calcination is the process of heating the ore

(A) in a blast furnace (B) in absence of air
(C) in presence of air (D) none of these
9. Polypropylene is NOT used in

(A) clothes (B) gloves used by surgeons
(C) heat resistant plastics (D) ropes and fishing nets
10. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

(A) MgO (B) ZnO
(C) Al2O3 (D) Both (B) and (C)
11. In elastomers the intermolecular forces are

(A) nil (B) weak
(C) strong (D) very strong
12. Compounds obtained from coal tar is

(A) Benzene, Toluene, Phenol (B) CO2, CH4 & NH3
(C) Fibers, Pesticides (D) None of these
13. The area of a convex quadrilateral ABCD, if AC  BD, AC = 3 cm and BD = 8 cm is

(A) 12 cm2 (B) 24 cm2
(C) 11 cm2 (D) none of these
14. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the values of a and b
are, respectively
(A) 3 and 5 (B) 5 and 3
(C) 3 and 1 (D) –1 and –3
15. Four – fifth of a number is 10 more than two – third of the number. What is three – fifth of that
number?
(A) 90 (B) 75
(C) 60 (D) 45
16. If ‘a’ is six times as large as ‘b’ then by what percent ‘b’ is less than ‘a’?
2
(A) 16 % (B) 60%
3
1
(C) 83 % (D) 90%
3
17. Find the mean of following data: 12 ,22 ,3 2 ,........20 2

(A) 132.5 (B) 140
(C) 143.5 (D) 148
18. If 444  4 44  4 44  4 44  4 x then x is

(A) 45 (B) 44
(C) 176 (D) 11
19. llegal hunting of animals is called

(A) Restoration (B) Poaching
(C) Migration (D) none of these
20. Compost includes:

(A) Vegetable waste (B) Fruit peels
(C) Animal dung (D) All of these
21. Some farmers were seen adding a type of algae (or microorganism) to barren field to support
crop growth. Which algae could they be using?
(A) Blue green algae (B) Brown algae
(C) Red algae (D) Both (B) and (C)
22. Intercropping is a system of cropping to make the maximum use of:

(A) Solar energy (B) Water resources
(C) Soil resource (D) All of the above
23. The system of irrigation where in water is supplied similar to as if it is raining–

(A) Pulley system (B) Drip system
(C) Sprinkler system (D) Lever system
24. Which leaves are used by farmers to protect their crop from weeds and insects?
(A) Peepal leaves (B) Orange leaves
(C) Neem leaves (D) Mango leaves
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
25. A body moving along a straight line is brought to rest in 2 sec by a force F1 and in 3 sec by a force
F2. The ratio F1/F2 is
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 9 : 4
26. The speed of sound waves having a frequency of 512 Hz compared with the speed of sound
waves having a frequency of 256 Hz in a given medium is:
(A) half as great (B) the same
(C) twice as great (D) four times as great
27. When a loaded boat enters into sea from a river, it rises because
(A) there is more water in sea than in river.
(B) sea water is denser than river.
(C) there is difference of temperature between the sea water and the river water.
(D) sea is deeper than river.
28. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 m s–1 on a frictionless horizontal
table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(A) 32 N (B) Zero
(C) 2 N (D) 8 N
29. In case of reflection of sound waves

(A) angle of incidence has no relationship with the angle of reflection
(B) angle of incidence = angle of reflection
(C) angle of incidence < angle of reflection
(D) angle of incidence > angle of reflection
30. Relative density of a substance depends upon

(A) mass of the substance (B) shape of the substance
(C) volume of the substance (D) material of the substance
31. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on the floor. The coefficient of static

friction is 0.4. If a force F of 2.5 N is applied on the block as shown
in the figure, the frictional force between the block and the floor will F
be
(A) 2.5 N (B) 5 N
(C) 7.84 N (D) 10 N
32. Displacement-time graph of an object of mass 2 Kg is shown in figure. The force required to
move the object for first four seconds is
Displacement
12
In (meter)
4, 2 4 6
Time in seconds
(A) Zero (B) 4 N
(C) 8 N (D) None of these
33. Calamine is an ore of:

(A) Cu (B) Pb
(C) Zn (D) Al
34. The characteristics of different fibres are listed as

W: I am strong, elastic, light and burn slowly.
I shrink on heating and form hard beads with smell of burning hair.
X: I burn completely leaving least residue.
Y: I can be woven like silk fibres and dyed in a wide variety of colours. I burn quickly with a
smell of burning paper.
Z: I do not get wrinkled easily. I burn slowly and produce black smoke.
W, X, Y and Z are respectively
(A) Terylene, rayon, cotton and nylon (B) Bakelite, nylon, rayon and cotton
(C) Melamine, PVC, nylon and rayon (D) Nylon, cotton, rayon and polyester
35. Activated charcoal is used in gas masks because

(A) it is a good adsorbent (B) it is a good reducing agent
(C) it burns without smoke (D) it is highly active
36. Which of the following elements produces basic oxide on reacting with oxygen?
(A) Chlorine (B) Sulphur
(C) Potassium (D) Phosphorus
37. Which of the following is an example of co-polymer?

(A) PVC (B) PAN
(C) PET (D) PTFE
38. Which amongst the following is NOT a free state of carbon?

(A) Coke (B) Charcoal
(C) Petrol (D) Graphite
39. Which of the following plant is used to obtain bio fuel?

(A) Mustard (B) Sunflower
(C) Jatropha (D) Opuntia
40. The metal that forms a self protecting film of oxide to prevent corrosion is
(A) Cu (B) Al
(C) Pt (D) Au
41. The ratio of present ages of a father and a daughter is 3: 1. After 12 years, the ratio of their ages
would be 11:5. Find the present age of the Father.
(A) 68 years (B) 64 years
(C) 58 years (D) 54 years
20
42. If mean of x1, x 2 , x 3 ,.......x 20 is 25, then  x
i 1
i  25   ?
(A) 20 (B) 0
(C) 25 (D) None of these
43. Which of the following is true for given below set of numbers: 2, 4, 2, 3, 5, 3, 1, 4, 3, 3
(A) mean = mode  median (B) mean = median  mode
(C) mode = median  mean (D) mean = mode = median
3 3 3
44. Find the value of  x  y    y  z    z  x 
(A) 3  x  y  z  (B) 3  x  y  y  z  z  x 
(C) 0 (D) 3xyz
3
45. If x  9 3 9 3 9.......... then find x.
(A) 3 9 (B) 3 3
(C) 0 (D) 3
46. Three numbers are in ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The sum of their cubes is 33957. Find the difference between
largest and smallest number.
(A) 14 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 11
1 1 1 1
47. The value of    .....  is
1 2 2  3 3  4 99  100
99 99
(A) less than (B) Equal to
100 100
100 100
(C) Greater than (D) Equal to
99 99
48. If n is a perfect square, then the next perfect square greater than ‘n’ is
2 2
(A) n  1 (B) n  n
(C) n  2 n  1 (D) 2n  1
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
49. A boat at anchor is rocked by the waves, such that the distance between two consecutive crests
is 100 m. If the wave velocity is 20 m s–1, the frequency of rocking boat is
(A) 2 Hz (B) 1 Hz
(C) 0.5 Hz (D) 0.2 Hz
50. A bullet of mass 5 g is fired from a gun weighing 5.0 kg. If the initial velocity of the bullet is
250 m s–1, calculate the velocity with which the gun recoils.
(A) –0.50 m s–1 (B) –0.25 m s–1
–1
(C) +0.05 m s (D) +0.25 m s–1
51. If the density of iron is 7900 Kg m –3, then its relative density is
(A) 790 (B) 79
(C) 7.9 (D) 0.79
52. A body is accelerating in a straight line. The unbalanced force acts

(A) in the direction of motion of the body
(B) in a direction opposite to the direction of motion
(C) in a direction perpendicular to the direction of motion of the body
(D) none of these
53. A person can hear a sound of maximum frequency 20,000 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is
344 m s–1, the wavelength is
(A) 0.176 m (B) 0.178 m
(C) 0.0172 m (D) 0.0176 m
54. A piston of cross-sectional area 100 cm 2 is used in a hydraulic press to exert a force of 107 dyne
on the water. The cross sectional area of the other piston which supports an object having a
mass of 2000 kg is
(A) 100 cm2 (B) 109 cm2
4 2
(C) 2 10 cm (D) 2  1010 cm2
55. Among cellulose, Poly Vinyl Chloride, nylon and natural rubber the polymer in which the
intermolecular force of attraction is weakest is
(A) nylon (B) Poly Vinyl Chloride
(C) cellulose (D) natural rubber
56. LPG is a mixture of

(A) C6H12  C6H6 (B) C4H10  C3H8
(C) C2H2  C2H4 (D) CH4  C2H4
57. Sodium reacts with cold water to form

(A) sodium hydroxide and hydrogen (B) sodium hydroxide and oxygen
(C) sodium hydride and oxygen (D) none of these
58. The order of appearance of the following with rising temperature during the refining of crude oil is
(A) kerosene oil, gasoline, diesel (B) diesel, gasoline, kerosene oil
(C) gasoline, diesel, kerosene oil (D) gasoline, kerosene oil, diesel
59. Four ‘R’ in 4R-principle are reduce, reuse and:

(A) recycle & recover (B) recycle and retain
(C) regain & retain (D) reform and regain
60. Which of the following is NOT a component of the alloy duralumin?

(A) Aluminium (B) Magnesium
(C) Copper (D) Zinc
Direction (Questions 61 to 65) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
400
Team A Team B Team C
350
300
250
Runs
200
150
100
50
O Match 1 Match 2 Match 3 Match 4 Match 5 Match 6
Figure: Number of the runs scored by three different teams in six different cricket matches
61. What is the percentage increase in the number of runs scored by Team B in Match 4 as
compared to that in the previous match (Match 3)?
(A) 40% (B) 30%
(C) 20% (D) None of these
62. What is the ratio of the number of runs scored by Team A in Match 2 to the number of runs
scored by Team C in Match 6?
(A) 5 : 4 (B) 2 : 5
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 4
63. What is the average number of runs scored by Team B in all the matches together?
(A) 250 (B) 275
(C) 200 (D) 300
64. The number of runs scored by all the teams together in Match 3 is approximately what
percentage of the total runs scored by Team C in all the matches together?
(A) 37% (B) 57%
(C) 52% (D) 42%
65. In which match is the total runs scored by all the teams together the second highest?
(A) Match 2 only (B) Match 6 only
(C) Match 4 only (D) Both Match 2 and Match 6
66. Triangle ABC is right angled at A. AD is perpendicular to BC. If AB = 5cm and AC = 12 cm, then
length of AD is
(A) 4.5 cm (B) 5 cm
(C) 5.5 cm (D) 4.6 cm
67. In an anaerobic (without oxygen) environment, on adding yeast, sugar in dough is converted into
–
(A) Glucose (B) Carbon tetra chloride
(C) Alcohol (D) Carbon monoxide
68. Match the Column I with respect to Column II.

Column - I Column - II
(P) Vibrio (1) Algae
(Q) Penicillium (2) Bacteria
(R) Chlamydomonas (3) Protozoan
(S) Amoeba (4) Fungi
(A) P  2; Q  4; R  1; S  3 (B) P  1; Q  4; R  2; S  3
(C) P  2; Q  3; R  1; S  4 (D) P  2; Q  4; R  3; S  1
69. Which of the following act as disease carrier?

(A) Female Anopheles mosquito (B) Male Anopheles mosquito
(C) Female Aedes mosquito (D) Both (A) & (C)
70. Name the first Reserve forest of India?

(A) Satpura National Park (B) Kaziranga National Park
(C) Guindy National Park (D) Bannerghatta National Park
71. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through use of:
(A) Compost (B) Biofertilizers
(C) Green manure (D) All of these
72. Large areas of protected land for conservation of wild life, plant and animal resources and
traditional life of the tribals living in the area. The above statement is the feature of which of the
following protected area.
(A) Sanctuary (B) National Park
(C) Biosphere Reserve (D) None of these
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – IV
Section – IV
73. An echo is returned in 3 s. If the speed of sound is 342 m s–1, then the distance between the
source of sound and the reflecting body is
(A) 351 m (B) 513 m
(C) 153 m (D) none of these
74. A truck is of mass 50,000 kg. Its tyres exert a pressure of 2,500,000 Pa. The surface area of tyres
in contact with ground is
(Take g = 10 m s–2).
(A) 2 m2 (B) 0.2 m2
(C) 2.5 m2 (D) 2.75 m2
75. A body of mass ‘m’ kg starts from rest and travels a distance of ‘s’ metres in ‘t’ seconds. The
force acting on it is
2m s ms
(A) N (B) N
t2 t
ms2 ms2
(C) N (D) N
2t t
76. Velocity-time graph of an object of mass 2 kg is shown in figure. The force required to move the
object for first four seconds is
Velocity in (m s–1)
8
0 2 4
Time in seconds
(A) 0 (B) 4 N
(C) 2 N (D) 8 N
77. Calculate the wavelength of radio waves of frequency 109 Hz. The speed of radio waves is
3 x 108 m s–1
(A) 60 cm (B) 40 cm
(C) 30 cm (D) 10 cm
78. Which of the following is biodegradable polymer of polyamide class?

(A) Dextron (B) Nylon-2-nylon-6
(C) Nylon-6, 6 (D) PHBV
79. What can you say about the boiling points of liquids that collect at the bottom as residue in
fractional distillation?
(A) Their boiling points must be very low
(B) Their boiling points must be much higher
(C) Their temperature is equal to the temperature of column
(D) None of the above
80. The green layer developed on copper on exposure to air is due to

(A) copper carbonate layer (B) basic copper carbonate layer
(C) copper sulphate layer (D) copper nitrate layer
81. Coke is starting material for the preparation of

(A) Acetylene, Acetic acid (B) Plastics (PVC)
(C) Water gas (D) All of these
82. Match the column.

Column – I Column – II
1. Neoprene p. Addition copolymer
2. Buna-S q. Condensation copolymer
3. Nylon-6 r. Addition homopolymer
4. Nylon-6, 6 s. Condensation homopolymer
(A) 1s; 2q; 3r; 4 p
(B) 1s; 2r; 3q; 4p
(C) 1r; 2p; 3s; 4q
(D) 1r: 2s; 3p; 4q
xy yz xz

83. If    p, then which of the following can be the value of p?
xyz xyz xyz
1
(A) (B) 2
2
2
(C) (D) 3
3
84. In a trapezium ABCD, AB  CD and  D = 2B. If DC = p and AD = q then AB =

(A) p + q (B) 2p + p
(C) 5p – 3q (D) 3p – 2q
85. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 20 cm and 10 cm. Its non – parallel sides are both equal,
each being 13 cm. Find the area of trapezium.
(A) 390 cm2 (B) 200 cm2
2
(C) 180 cm (D) 130 cm2
86. A certain number of men went to a hotel. Each man spent as many rupees as one – fourth of the
men. If the total bill paid was Rs. 20,449, then how many men visited the hotel?
(A) 222 (B) 246
(C) 264 (D) 286
87. If A, B, C and D of a quadrilateral ABCD taken in order, are in the ratio 3 : 7 : 6 : 4, then
ABCD is a
(A) rhombus (B) kite
(C) trapezium (D) parallelogram
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 88 to 90. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
88. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on the rough floor of a lift. The coefficient of friction between the
block and the floor is 0.3. When the lift falls freely, the block is pulled horizontally on the floor.
What will be the force of friction (in N)?
89. The mass of an empty bucket of capacity 10 liters is 1 kg. Find its mass (in kg) when completely
filled with a liquid of relatively density 0.8.
90. A bullet is fired normally on an immovable wooden plank. It loses 25% of its momentum in
penetrating a thickness of 3.5 cm. Find the total thickness (in cm) penetrated by the bullet.
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
91. Out of the following, number of amorphous forms of carbon is:

Graphite, Lamblack, Coke, Coal, Fullerene, Sugar Charcoal, Gas carbon, Wood charcoal,
Diamond.
92. Number of non-biodegradable polymers out of the following is:

Nylon-2,6, Polythene, Nylon-6,6, Starch, Proteins.
93. Out of the following how many is/are sulphide ore(s) of metal:
Copper glance, Rock salt, Zinc blende, Iron pyrites, Cinnabar, Galena, Haematite.
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
1 1 1 9
94. Let a,b,c  R  such that a   3, b   4, c   then abc 
b c a 11
95. The value of 3  2 2  3  2 2 is
96. The perimeter of a triangle is 30 cm and the circumference of its incircle is 88 cm. If the area of
triangle is 30k cm2 then find k
CLASS – VIII (PAPER – 2)

ANSWERS
PAPER-2
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C
5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B
9. C 10. D 11. B 12. A
13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C
17. C 18. A 19. B 20. D
21. A 22. D 23. C 24. C
25. C 26. B 27. B 28. B
29. B 30. D 31. A 32. A
33. C 34. D 35. A 36. C
37. C 38. C 39. C 40. B
41. D 42. B 43. D 44. B
45. D 46. A 47. B 48. C
49. D 50. B 51. C 52. A
53. C 54. C 55. D 56. B
57. A 58. D 59. A 60. D
61. C 62. C 63. A 64. D
65. D 66. D 67. C 68. A
69. D 70. A 71. D 72. C
73. B 74. B 75. A 76. B
77. C 78. B 79. B 80. B
81. D 82. C 83. C 84. A
85. C 86. D 87. C 88. 0
89. 9 90. 8 91. 6 92. 3
93. 5 94. 1 95. 2 96. 7

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FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2018 for students presently in

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Marking Scheme for each question

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

3. Select the related word from the given alternatives.

6. Find the odd word from the given alternative.

Space for Rough Work

21. Find the missing number from the alternatives.

(A) 125 (B) 175

23. If FRIEND is coded as HTKGPF then REVEAL will be coded as:

26. Who among the following is an immediate neighbours of E?

27. Who among the following is second to the left of F?

28. Who among the following sits second to the right of C?

30. Who among the following is third to the left of B?

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

31. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity ?

32. Newton’s second law of motion gives us a measure of

33. The S.I. unit of thrust is

34. Fluids are

38. Buoyant force exerted by different fluids on a given body is

40. The most abundant element in the universe is

41. The major raw materials for rayon is obtained from

43. Select the one that occurs in native form:

44. Main constituent of marsh gas is

45. Which of the following contains isoprene units?

46. Now-a-days coal gas is used as a source of

48. Correct full form of abbreviation PET is

49. The value of 10  25  108  154  225 is

56. Which of the following is not a pythagorean triplet?

58. Moat, Dhekli and Rahat are different

60. The Ranthambore National Park and wildlife sanctuary is located at

61. Which of the following is not true for fertilizers?

63. Tuberculosis is caused by

66. Which of these is used to store grains on a large scale?

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

67. The forces of action and reaction are

68. The inertia of an object tends to cause the object

70. Which of the following gas is the densest of all?

72. When each side of a cuboid is doubled, its volume becomes

73. The construction of a submarine is based on

74. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

75. A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is

79. Which of the following is a step-growth polymer?

80. What is the percentage of gold in a 22 carat gold bar?

81. The non-combustible element of producer gas is

84. Caprolactam is the monomeric unit of which polymer?

86. Artificial silk is a modified

88. We can use coke

89. Which of these elements is used as an antiseptic in medicine?

90. Match the following:

93. If p is the probability of an event, then

97. The value of 0.23  0.22 is

100. P  x   2x and Q  x   8x 2 then LCM of p  x  and q  x  is

102. ABCD is a rhombus such that ACB = 40o. Then ADB is

104. Amount of nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere is:-

105. Scientist who discovered fermentation was

(A) (i) & (ii) (B) (ii) & (iii)

107. Combines are used for:-

108. Mustard is Rabi crop, whereas ________ is kharif crop.

109. Plant disease citrus canker is caused by