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8. What is the ILS Localizer frequency on the sample approach plate provided
a. 111.3 MHz
b. 111.3 KHz
c. 332.5 MHz
d. 332.5 KHz
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a. phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an amplitude modulated
variable signal.
b. phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz variable signal.
c. phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency modulated
variable signal.
d. phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.
16. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
a. at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station.
b. at the aircraft location.
c. at both the VOR and aircraft.
d. at the VOR.
18. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates TO. CDI
needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
a. 265
b. 085
c. 095
d. 275
20. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090 deg would be achieved by flying ... from the beacon.
a. south
b. west
c. east
d. north
22. If you correctly tuned in a VOT situated to your east, your RMI should read ... and your OBS would read...
a. 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated.
b. 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated.
c. 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated.
d. 000; 000 with needle central an TO indicated.
23.During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located
approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
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24. An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation, because:
a. the spacing between the X and Y interrogation pulses is different.
b. the Y channel accepts three pulse interrogations only.
c. the X channel accepts three pulse interrogations only,
d. the interrogation and reply frequencies are 126 Mhz apart.
25. An aircraft will not accept replies from its own transmissions that are reflected from the ground because
the:
a. interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 Mhz apart.
b. pulses are transmitted in pairs.
c. random PRF which is unique to each transmitter.
d. the aircrafts registration is embedded onto the signal.
26. If an ident signal is received once in 30 seconds on a frequency paired VOR/DME, then:
a. the TACAN signal is degraded.
b. both facilities are operational.
c. the DME only is operational.
d. the VOR only is operational.
28. What is the maximum distance apart, in metres, that an associated en-route VOR/DME can be sited?
a. 2000 m.
b. 600 m.
c. 30 m.
d. 300 m.
29.DME distinguishes between its signals returning from the ground equipment and signals reflected from the
ground because:
a. they are at different frequencies.
b. the time delay between transmitted and received signals is incorrect.
c. they carry a unique coding sequence.
d. they are differently modulated.
30.An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach
side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
a. may receive false course indications.
b. will receive signals without identification coding.
c. can expect signals to give correct indications.
d. will not normally receive signals.
31.On a localizer the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following statements is correct?
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32. The point between two bases from wich it is a quick to fly to either base is called :
a. Check point
b. Point no return
c. Fix point
d. Critical point.
The furthest point along planes route in wich an aircraft can fly and return to the departure point or alternate
33. aerodrome within safe endurance of the aircraft, is called :
a. Check point
b. Point no return.
c. Fix point
d. Critical point
40. The highest point in a locality is marked by a dot with the elevation along side is
a .Hill shading
b. Hachuring
c .Spot height
d .Countours
41.The point between two aerodromes from which if would take the same timne to fly to either
aerodrome is the meaning of :
a. Point No Return
b. Return To Base
c. Point of Equal Time
d. Point of Safe Return
42. The point furthest from the airfiel of departure that an aircraft can fly and still return to base within its
safe endurance is the meaning of :
a. The Point of Safe Return
b. The point of Equal Time
c. The Point of Central of Gravity
d. The Point of Central of Pressure
46 Which one of the following indications on a fixed-card ADF equipment will tell you that you are passing over
the top of an NDB?
a. the on/off flag flickers
d. the first movement of the CDI as the aircraft the cone of confusion
48. You are maintaining a heading of 287oM, and obtain a relative bearing from an NDB of 270o. What is the
magnetic bearing from the NDB ground station to your aircraft?
a. 090o (M) c. 270o (M)
49. If the flight getting head wind, the ground speed will :
a. Smaller than TAS c. greater than TAS
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50. Which one of the following indications on a fixed-card ADF equipment will tell you that you are passing over
the top of an NDB ?
a. The first movement of the CDI as the Aircraft the cone of confusion
b. The first positive complete reversal of the to/from indicator (the sensing).
c. The first full scale deflection of the CDI
d. The movement the to/from indicator becomes blank
52. You are maintaining a heading of 187˚ (MH), and obtain a relative bearing (RB) from the NDB of 270˚. What is
the Magnetic bearing (MB) from the NDB ground station to your Aircraft ?
a. 090
b. 097
c. 270
d. 277.
53. In your VOR position of CDI is 4th dots deflect to the right. OBS set : 300, sensing is showing “TO”, your heading
is 300, it’s mean that the aircraft position is approx on radial ………
a. 128.
b. 112
c. 308
d. 292
54. Refer to the question above, to make off track correction you must be turn your aircraft to heading :
a. 320. c. 100
b. 280 d. 150
55. In your VOR position of CDI is 4th dots deflect to the right. OBS set : 130, sensing is showing “TO”, your heading
is 130, it’s mean that the aircraft position is approx on radial ………
a. 138 c. 318
b. 122. d. 221
56. Refer to the question above, to make off track correction you must be turn your aircraft to heading :
a. 150. c. 290
b. 330 d. 110
57. You plan to fly from CHARLIE to DELTA at a distance 268 Nm, required track : 124˚ (M), Magnetic Variation on
this route is 8˚ E, at flight plan TAS of 144 knot. And the Head Wind component is 6 knot. Your planned fuel
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consumption rate is 47 Ltr/Hour, and you are required to carry 45 minutes fixed reserve at this case. ETD is
02.35 UTC. The minimum fuel you must carry at departure is …….. ltr :
a. 109 c. 139
b. 129 d. 119.
a. 150. c. 158
b. 138 d. 144
59. Refer to the question no. 39, if you have drift : 6˚ left, to maintaining track QDR 124 (from NDB CHARLIE), you
must be maintain your heading :
60. Refer to the question no. 41, and assumed at the moment your heading is 122˚ (M) and our ADF pointer
indicate 190, to make the off track correction, you must alter heading to :
61. Refer to the question no. 39. ETA the Critical Point (CP) is :
a. 03 06 UTC c. 03 26 UTC.
b. O3 16 UTC d. 03 46 UTC
a. 138 Nm c. 108 Nm
b. 228 Nm d. 128 Nm.
63. Refer to the question no. 39. Assumed your save Endurance is 3 hour 20 min, ETA to PNR is :
a. 04 01 UTC
b. O4 11 UTC.
c. 04 21 UTC
d. 03 51 UTC
64. Refer to the question no. 45. Distance from Charlie to PNR is :
a. 239 Nm.
b. 219 NM
c. 249 Nm
d. 259 Nm
65. Refer to the question no. 39, ETA Delta is :
a. 04 02 UTC c. 04 22 UTC.
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b. 04 12 UTC d. 04 32 UTC
66. Refer to the question no. 47, and assumed your fuel consumption is 45 ltr/hour, your trip fuel is :………. Ltr
a. 80 c. 176
b. 126 d. 21,1
67. Refer to the question no. 48. The trip fuel is equal to……………. Lbs
a. 80 c. 176
b. 126 d. 21,1
68. Refer to the question no. 48. The trip fuel is equal to……………. US Gallon
a. 80 c. 176
b. 126 d. 21,1.