CPT 3 Xi S R PMT 20 06 2016 Ques.

[1] Test No.
-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
20/06/2016 CODE
COMMON PRACTICE TEST [PMT] : 2016-18

XI STUDYING
Time: 3 Hr. TEST NO. - 3 MM: 720

INSTRUCTIONS :
 There are four sections in this paper, consisting Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology.
 For each correct answer 4 marks awarded and for each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted.
 Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
 Use of Calculator is not allowed.
 Dark the circle in the space provided only.
 Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on the Answer
Sheet.
USEFUL CONSTANTS
Boltzmann constant (k) = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1 Avogadro’s number (NA) = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
Planck’s constant (h) = 6.63 × 10–34 J s Speed of light in vacuum (c) = 3 × 108 m s–1
Rest mass of electron (me) = 9.1 × 10–31 kg 1 unified atomic mass unit (u) = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J 1 nm = 10–9 m
Charge of Electron (e) = 1.6 × 10–19 C Gas constant (R) = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1
TOPIC
Physics : Present : Addition and Subtraction of vectors, triagnle law and parallelogram law
Previous : Instruments and Errors, Vectors (Indroduction, terms and definitions)
Chemistry : Present : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry : Empirical and molecular formula, Calculation
based on molarity equation
Previous : Some Basic concepts of chemistry : Mole Concept, Limiting reagent concept, Calculation
based on balanced chemical equations, Concentration in terms of mole fraction, Milality, Molarity,
Percentage and parts per million
Botany : Present : Biological classification Monera : eubacteria - Types
Previous : The Living World : Systems of classification, Taxonomical aids
Zoology : Present : Animla tissue (Epithelial Tissue)
Previous : Animla tissue : (Connective tissue - Adipose tissue, areolar tissue, tendon, ligament,
cartilage, Bone, blood and lymph)
NARAYANA INSTITUTE : A-1/171 A, Janakpuri, N.D.58; 196/197/D-12, Sec.-8, Rohini, N.D.-85,; E-14, South Extn.-II, N.D-49; H.O.:Vittalwadi, Narayanaguda, Hyderabad-29
[2] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
PHYSICS
1. If there is a percentage error of 50% in the (1) 0.01 mm (2) 0.001 mm
measurement of speed of a body, then the error in (3) 0.005 mm (4) 0.002 mm
the measurement of kinetic energy is
7. The circular scale (head scale) of a screw gauge is
(1) 25 % (2) 50 % divided into 100 equal parts and it moves 0.7 mm
(3) 100 % (4) 125 % ahead in one revolution. Find the pitch and the least
2. Screw gauge is said to have a negative error count of screw guage.
(1) When circular scale zeroth division coincides (1) 0.5 mm, 0.005 mm (2) 0.7 mm, 0.007
with base line of main scale (3) 0.4 mm, 0.004 mm (4) None of these
(2) When circular scale zeroth division is above 8. The minimum number of vectors in different planes
with base line of main scale which can be added to give zero resultant is
(3) When circular scale zeroth division is below (1) 5 (2) 4
with base line of main scale (3) 3 (4) 2
(4) None of the above 9. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the
3. Pitch of a screw guage is defined as percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and
that in F is 4%. What is the maximum permissible
(1) Linear distance parelled in 100 rotation of error in pressure?
circular scale (1) 8% (2) 6%
(2) Linear distance parelled in one rotation of (3) 4% (4) 2%
circular scale 
(3) Number of division on circular scale 10. What is the angle between P and the resultant of
   
(4) None of these ( P  Q) and ( P  Q) ?
4. The diameter D of a wire is measured using screw
gauge for positive zero error of x. Then 1 P
(1) Zero (2) tan  
(1) D = (main scale reading + circular scale reading Q
× LC) – x
(2) D = (circular scale reading + main scale reading 1 Q 1 ( P  Q)
× LC) + x (3) tan   (4) tan
P (P  Q)
(3) D = main scale reading + vernier scale reading
× LC 11. The magnitude of 3î  2 ĵ  k̂ is
(4) None of the above (1) 5 (2) 6
5. At what angle the two vectors of magnitudes (3) (4) 24
14
 A  B and  A  B  must act, so that the resultant  
12. If A is perpendicular to B , then
is     
A2  B 2 ? (1) A .( A + B )= A2+AB (2) A × B = 0
    
A2  B 2 A2  B 2 (3) A .( A + B ) = A2 (4) A . B = AB
1 1
(1) cos (2) cos
A2  B 2 B 2  A2 13. If voltage V  100  5  V and current
A2  B 2 A2  B 2 I  10  0.2  A , the percentage error in resistance

cos1 cos 1
(3) (4)

2 A2  B 2  
2 B 2  A2  R is (given : V  IR)
(1) 5.2% (2) 25%
6. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm. Its circular
head scale contains total 100 divisions. The least (3) 7% (4) 2.5%
count of the screw gauge is
[3] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16

14. The X and Y component of vector A have numerical (3)  2, 1, 2  (4)  2,1, 2
 
values 6 and 6 respectively and that of A  B have        
20. If A  B  C and magnitude of A , B and C are 5,
numerical values 10 and 9. What is the numerical 
 4, and 3 units respectively, then angle between A
value of B ? 
and B is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) zero (2) cos–1 (3/5)
(3) 4 (4) 5
(3) tan–1 (3/4) (4) 
15. If X is absolute error in the measurement of X and
21. What vector must be added to the sum of two
Y is absolute error in the measurement of Y. then
maximum absolute error in the measurement of vectors 2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ and 3iˆ  2ˆj  2kˆ so that the
difference of X and Y is: resultant is a unit vector along Z axis
(1)   X  Y  (2)   X  Y  (1) 5iˆ  kˆ (2) 5iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ
(3) X / Y (4) XY
(3) 3jˆ  kˆ (4) 3jˆ  kˆ
16. The length of cube is  5.2  0.2%  cm . The 22. To get a resultant displacement of 10 m, two
percentage error in the volume of the cube is: displacement vectors one of magnitude 6m and
(1) 0.11% (2) 0.44% another of 8m should be combined
(3) 0.7% (4) 0.9% (1) at an angle 60° (2) perpendicular to each
(3) parallel (4) anti-parallel
17. The radius of a ball is  5.2  0.2  cm. The percentage  
23. The angle between two vectors A and B is  .
error in the volume of the ball is

(1) 11% (2) 4% Resultant of these two vectors . R makes an angle

(3) 7% (4) 9%  / 2 with A . Which of the following is true?
(1) A = 2B (2) A = B/2
a  
18. If a and b are as shown in (3) A = B (4) A = 1/B
24. If we add two vectors of equal magnitude but opposite
direction, we get
b
(1) Unit vector (2) Unit scalar
(3) Null vector (4) Zero scalar
 25. If n̂ is a unit vector in the direction of the vector
 
diagram then a  b resembles the figure 
A, then n is equal to

A |A|
(1) (2) 
(1) (2) |A| A

(3) A | A | (4) n × |A|
 
26. P  Q is a unit vector along y axis. If
(3) (4)  
P  2iˆ  ˆj  3k,
ˆ then Q is
 (1) 2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ (2) 2iˆ  2ˆj  3kˆ
19. Find direction cosines of vector r  2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ are
 2 1 2  2 1 2 (3) 3iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ (4) 2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ

(1)  , ,  (2)  , , 
3 3 3 3 3 3
[4] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
27. The rectangular components of force 5 dyne can be 33. A force of 6 N and another of 8 N can be applied
(1) 3 and 4 dyne (2) 2.5 and 2.5 dyne together to produce the effect of a single force of
(3) 1 and 2 dyne (4) 2 and 3 dyne (1) 1 N (2) 11 N
28. For the resultant of two vectors to be maximum (3) 15 N (4) 20 N
what must be the angle between, them 34. The value of a unit vector in the directio of vector

(1) 0° (2) 60° A  5iˆ  12ˆj, is
(3) 90° (4) 180°
(1) î (2) ˆj
Xn
29. If Q  m and X is absolute error in the
Y (3)  î  ˆj /13 (4)  5iˆ  12ˆj /13
measruement of X, Y is absolute error in the
1 ˆ ˆ
measurement of Y, then absolute error ( Q ) in Q is:
35. The expression
2
 
i  j is a
 X Y 
(1) Unit vector
(1) Q    n m 
 X Y 
(2) Null vector
 X Y  (3) Vector of magnitude 2
(2) Q    n m Q
 X Y  (4) Scalar
 X Y  36. What is the angle between î  ˆj  2kˆ and î ?

(3) Q    n m Q
 X Y  (1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) none of these
 X Y 
(4) Q    n m  37. Two forces of 12 N and 8 N act upon a body. The
 X Y  resultant force on the body has a maximum value of
30. Two vectors having magnitudes 8 and 10 can have (1) 4 N (2) 0 N
maximum and minimum value of magnitude of their
resultant as (3) 20 N (4) 8 N
(1) 12, 6 (2) 10, 3 38. The maximum and minimum magnitudes of the
resultant of two given vectors are 17 units and 7 units
(3) 18, 2 (4) None of these respectively. If these two vectors are at right angles
31. Which of the following is a unit vector ? to each other, the magnitude of their resultant is:
(1) î  ˆj (2) cos  î  sin ˆj (1) 14 (2) 16
(3) 18 (4) 13
1 ˆ ˆ
(3) sin  iˆ  2 cos ˆj (4)  i  j 39. Two vectors 4iˆ  7ˆj and 2iˆ  3jˆ are added. The
3
magnitude of the sum of these vectors is:
32. For the figure (1) 36 (2) 100
(3) 136 (4) 136
40. The resultant of two equal forces is double of either
C B of the forces. The angle between them is :
(1) 120° (2) 90°
(3) 60° (4) 0°
A 41. At what angle should the two unit vectors be inclined
so that their resultant is also a unit vector?
     
(1) A  B  C (2) B  C  A (1) 30° (2) 60°
      (3) 120° (4) 150°
(3) C  A  B (4) A  B  C  0
[5] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
(1) 5% (2) 2.5%
1 ˆ 1 ˆ
42. The expression i j is a (3) 3% (4) 7%
2 2
45. Least count of screw gauge is defined as
(1) Unit vector (2) Null vector
(3) Vector of magnitude (4) Scalar distance moved by thimble on main scale
(1)
number of rotation of thimble
43. At what angle should the two forces 2P and 3P
act so that the resultant force is P 13 pitch of the screw
(1) 30° (2) 600 (2)
Total number of division on circular scale
(3) 900 (4) 1200
number of rotation of thimble
44. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass (3)
number of circular scale divisions
and speed are 1% and 3% respectively. What is the
percentage error in the kinetic energy? (4) None of the above
[6] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
CHEMISTRY
46. 60 g of a compound on analysis produced 24 g carbon, 56. The mole fraction of oxygen in a mixture of 7 g of
4 g hydrogen and 32 g oxygen. The empirical formula nitrogen and 8 g of oxygen is:
of the compound is (1) 8/5 (2) 0.5
(1) CH 2O2 (2) CH2O (3) 0.25 (4) 1.0
(3) CH4O (4) C2H4O2 57. The amount of anhydrous Na2CO3 present in 250 mL
47. An aqueous solution of glucose is 10%. The volume of 0.25 M solution is:
in which 1 g mol of it is dissolved will be (1) 6.625 g (2) 6.0 g
(1) 0.9 L (2) 9 L (3) 66.25 g (4) 6.225 g
(3) 1.8 L (4) 18 L 58. 9.8 g of H2SO4 is present in 2 litre of solution. The
48. Molality of 40% (by mass of solution) urea solution is molarity of the solution is :
(urea = 60) (1) 0.1 M (2) 0.05 M
(1) 0.40 (2) 0.60 (3) 0.01 M (4) 0.2 M
(3) 11.11 (4) 0.167 59. The amount of H2SO4 present in 400 mL of 0.1 M
49. How many gram of CH3OH should be added to water solution of the acid is:
to prepare 150 mL solution of 2 M CH3OH? (1) 2.45 g (2) 3.92 g
(1) 9.6 g (2) 2.4 g (3) 9.80 g (4) 4.9 g
3
(3) 9.6 × 10 g (4) 2.4 × 103 g 60. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.10 g/mL.
50. A 500 g toothpaste contains 0.2 g fluorine. The The molarity of the solution is:
concentration of fluorine in terms of ppm is (1) 2.9732 (2) 3.05
(1) 100 (2) 250 (3) 3.64 (4) 3.0504
(3) 400 (4) 450 61. The molality of 15% (mass/vol.) solution of H2SO4
51. The molar concentration of 20 g of NaOH present in of density 1.1 g/cm3 is approximately :
5 L of solution is (1) 1.2 (2) 1.4
(1) 0.1 mol/L (2) 0.2 mol/L (3) 1.8 (4) 1.53
(3) 1.0 mol/L (4) 2.0 mol/L 62. Density of 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is
52. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a 1.02 g/mL. The molality of same solution is:
density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% H2SO4 (1) 1.14 mol kg–1 (2) 3.28 mol kg–1
by weight?
(3) 2.28 mol kg–1 (4) 0.44 mol kg–1
(1) 4.18 M (2) 8.14 M
63. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% S. What will be its
(3) 18.4 M (4) 18 M empirical formula?
53. One mole of a substance present in 1 kg of solvent. (1) SO (2) SO2
The correct statement regarding above solution is
(3) SO3 (4) S2O3
(1) strength g/l (2) molar concentration
64. Volume of oxygen gas obtained when 245g (50% pure
(3) molal concentration (4) normality
sample) of KClO3 is thermally decomposed at NTP
54. An organic compound made of C, H and N, contains will be
20% nitrogen. Its minimum molecular weight is (1) 3 × 22.4l (2) 2 × 22.4l
(1) 70 (2) 140 (3) 1.5 × 22.4l (4) 1 × 22.4l
(3) 100 (4) 65 65. The number of sulphate ions in 100 ml of 0.001 M
55. A gas is found to have a formula [CO]x. Its vapour H2SO4 solution
density is 70, then x is (1) 6.022 × 1019 (2) 6.022 × 1023
(1) 3.0 (2) 3.5 (3) 12.044 × 1026 (4) None of these
(3) 5.0 (4) 6.5
[7] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
66. For the reaction A  2B  C , 5 moles of A and 8 76. 0.078 g of a hydrocarbon occupy 22.414 mL of volume
moles of B will produce at S.T.P. The empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is
(1) 5 moles of C (2) 4 moles of C CH. The molecular formula of hydrocarbon is
(3) 8 moles of C (4) 13 moles of C (1) C2H2 (2) C6H6
67. The number of mole of KCl in 1000 mL of 3 molar (3) C8H8 (4) C4H4
–1
solution is: 77. The densiy (in g mL ) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid
(1) 1.5 (2) 3.0 solution that is 29% of acid by mass is
(3) 1.0 (4) 4.0 (1) 1.45 (2) 1.64
68. A hydrocarbon contains 7.70% hydrogen 0.56 L of (3) 1.88 (4) 1.22
the hydrocarbon weigh 1.95 g at STP. Then the 78. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and
hydrocarbon is an oxygen. Its chemical analysis gave C, 38.71% and H,
(1) Alkane (2) Alkene 9.67%. The empirical formula of compound would be
(3) Alkyne (4) Benzene (1) CH3O (2) CH2O
69. Two elements Y(Atomic mass = 64.5) and Z(Atomic (3) CHO2 (4) CHO
mass = 35.5) combine to form a compound, which 79. The VD of a gas is given by:
was found to contain 64.42%Y. The formula of the
mol. wt.
compound could be (1) VD 
(1) Y2 Z 3 (2) Y2 Z 2
(3) YZ (4) YZ 2 wt. of N mole of gas
70. An oxide of a metal (M) contains 40% by mass of (2) VD  wt. of N mole of H
2
oxygen. Metal (M) has atomic mass of 24. The
empirical formula of the oxide is : wt. of 1 mole of gas
(1) M2 O (2) MO (3) VD  wt. of 1 mole of H
2
(3) M2 O 3 (4) M3 O 4 (4) All of these

71. A phosphorus oxide has 43.6% phosphorus (at. mass 80. Mole fraction of A in water is 0.2. The molality of A
= 31). The empirical formula of the compound is : in water is:
(1) P 2 O 5 (2) P 2 O 3 (1) 13.8 (2) 13.6
(3) P 4 O 6 (4) PO 2 (3) 14.0 (4) 16.0
72. If potassium chlorate is 80% pure, then 48 g of oxygen 81. The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal having
would be produced from (atomic mass of K = 39) ; 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of cereal is:
(1) 153.12 g of KClO3 (2) 122.5 g of KClO3 (1) 11% (2) 1.10%
(3) 245 g of KClO3 (4) 98.0 g of KClO3 (3) 0.11% (4) 110%
73. 1.2 g of Mg (At. mass 24) will produce MgO equal to 82. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres
(1) 0.05 mol (2) 40 g of Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed
(3) 40 mg (4) 4 g is equal to
74. The empirical formula of an acid is CH 2O2, the (1) 1.5 mol of HCl (g) (2) 1 mol of HCl (g)
probable molecular formula of acid may be (3) 2 mol of HCl (g) (4) 0.5 mol of HCl (g)
(1) CH2O (2) CH2O2 83. 1.5 mol of O2 combine with Mg to form oxide MgO.
(3) C2H4O2 (4) C3H6O4 The mass of Mg (at. mass 24) that has combined is
75. An organic compound contains 49.3 % carbon, 6.84% (1) 72 g (2) 36 g
hydrogen and its vapour density is 73.
(3) 48 g (4) 24 g
Molecular formula of compound is
84. The reaction of calcium with water is represented
(1) C3H5O2 (2) C6H10O4
by the equation
(3) C3H10O2 (4) C4H10O2
[8] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
Ca  2H2 O   Ca(OH) 2  H 2 88. The vapour density of gas A is four times that of B.
If molecular mass of B is M, then molecular mass
What volume of H2, at STP would be liberated when
of A is
8 g of calcium completely reacts with water
(1) M (2) 4 M
(1) 4480 cm3 (2) 2240 cm3
(3) 1120 cm3 (4) 0.4 cm3 M
85. 4.4 g of CO2 contains how many litres of CO2 at (3) (4) 2 M
4
S.T.P. 89. 1 mol of SO2 and 1 mol of H2S react completely to
(1) 2.4 L (2) 2.24 L form H2O and S as follows :
(3) 44 L (4) 22.4 L
86. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and SO 2  2H 2S 
 2H 2 O  3S
its molecular mass is 120. The molecular formula (At. mass S = 32, O = 16)
of the compound is The mass of S obtained is ;
(1) C2 H4 O 2 (2) C3 H6 O 3 (1) 96 g S (2) 48 g S
(3) C4 H8 O 4 (4) CH 2 O (3) 24 g S (4) 64 g S
87. What will be molarity of 4% (w/w) aq. NaOH 90. A sample of pure compound contains 1.15 g of
solution (d solution = 1.25 g mol–1) sodium, 3.01 × 1022 atoms of carbon and 0.1 mol of
(1) 4 M (2) 2 M oxygen atom. Its empirical formula is
(3) 1.25 M (4) 5 M (1) Na 2CO3 (2) NaCO2
(3) Na 2CO (4) Na 2CO2
[9] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
BOTANY
91. Largest herbarium in India is (3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Madras Herbarium Coimbatore (TN) (4) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Central National Herbarium (Indian Botanical 97. Which of the following characters served as the
Garden) Sibpur, Kolkata (WB) criteria for five kingdom system of classification as
(3) Herbarium of National Botanical Research used by Whittaker?
Institute, Lucknow (UP) (1) Cell structure
(4) Forest Research Institute, Dehradun (UK) (2) Body organisation and mode of nutrition
92. Where labelling is done/pasted on herbarium sheet? (3) Reproduction and phylogenetic relationships
(1) Lower RHS (2) Lower LHS (4) All of the above
(3) Upper RHS (4) Upper LHS 98. Who divided animals into Anaima (animals with no
93. In the five kingdom classification, bryophytes are red blood e.g., invertebrates) and Enaima (animals
included in with red blood e.g., vertebrates)?
(1) Plantae (2) Algae (1) Aristotle (2) Linnaeus
(3) Protista (4) Monera (3) Lamarck (4) John Ray
94. Which one is the most abundant microorganism? 99. Linnaeus sexual system of classification of plants on
(1) Algae (2) Viruses the basis of number and arrangement of stamens and
carpels/morphology of floral parts is
(3) Protists (4) Bacteria
(1) artificial (2) natural
95. Read the following statement about bacteria and select
the correct option (3) phylogentic
(1) Bacteria are simple in structure but complex in (4) partly natural and partly artificial
behaviour 100. Three kindom system of classification was proposed
(2) Bacteria are complex in structure but simple in by
behaviour (1) Haeckel (2) Linnaeus
(3) Bacteria are simple in both structure and (3) Stanier (4) Copeland
behavious 101. Engler and Prantl proposed their phylogenetic system
(4) Bacteria are complex in both structure and in book
behavous (1) Species plantarum
96. Match the following columns (2) Die Naturlichen Pflanzen familien
Column - I Column - II (3) Origin of species
A. Two kingdom system(i) RH Whittaker (4) Phylogeny of flowering Plants
of classification 102. Two kingdom system of classification/artificial sexual
B. Five kingdom system (ii) Carl Woese system of classification was proposed by a Swedish
of classification Biologist
C. Six kingdom system (iii) Carolus Linnaeus (1) Linnaeus (2) Pliny the elder
of classification (3) Leeuwenhoek (4) Aristotle
Codes 103. In which year, Robert H. Whittaker an American
taxonomist, proposed his five kingdom system of
A B C
classification?
(1) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) 1965 (2) 1969
(2) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) 1972 (4) 1989
[10] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
104. Which one of the following is not a correct statement? (2) dinoflagellates
(1) A museum has collection of photographs of plants (3) protozoa
and animals (4) all of the above
(2) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of 113. The smallest bacterium is
specimens
(1) Dialister (2) Spirillum
(3) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved
(3) Escherichia (4) Vibrio
plant specimens
114. When bacteria are rod like, they are called
(4) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants
for reference (1) bacilli (2) cocci
105. In 5-kingdom classification, the kingdom that includes (3) spirilla (4) vibrios
the blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and 115. Shape of Staphylococcus is
methanogenic archaebacteria is (1) rod (2) spherical
(1) Plantae (2) Fungi (3) rectangular (40 cubical
116. A chain of spherical bacteria is called streptococci.
(3) Protista (4) Monera
When spherical cocci are found in grape like irregular
106. In Whittaker’s five kingdom classification, unicellular, aggregates, they are called
eukaryotic, aquatic organisms constitute (1) staphylococci (2) sarcina
(1) Monera (2) Protista (3) palisade (4) streptobacilli
(3) Animalia (4) Plantae 117. Taxonomic keys are based on the
107. Natural system of classification are good for practical (1) Morphological characters
purposes. Who did propose natural classification of (2) Reproductive characters
plants? (3) Anatomical characters
(1) Linnaeus (4) Contrasting characters
(2) Bentham and Hooker 118. Which of the following give comprehensive account
(3) Engler and Prantl of complete compilation of available information of
any family or genus at a given time?
(4) Oswald Tippo
(1) Manuals (2) Monographs
108. Which of the following chemicals is used for poisoning
(3) Publications (4) All of these
the specimens in herbarium technique?
119. Find the correct sequence of various steps of
(1) Hg2Cl2 (2) AgNO3
herbarium technique
(3) HCl (4) HgCl2
a. Drying b. Poisoning
109. The international size of herbarium sheet is c. Collection d. Labelling
(1) 41 × 29 cm (2) 40 × 30 cm e. Mounting f. Deposition
(3) 42 × 27 cm (4) 39 × 28 cm g. Stitching
110. Which group includes decomposers? (1) c, a, b, e, g, d, f (2) c, b, d, e, f, g, a
(1) Monera and Animalia (3) c, a, b, e, g, f, d (4) c, a, b, g, e, f, d
(2) Monera and Fungi 120. The concept of key was introduced by
(3) Plantae and Fungi (1) John Ray (2) Bentham
(4) Monera and Plantae (3) Linnaeus (4) Hutchinson
111. In Whittaker’s classification, which kingdom is main 121. The most convenient way for easy identification of
producer? plants and animals by applying diagnostic features is
(1) Monera (2) Protista use of
(3) Plantae (4) Mycota (1) botanical gardens (2) herbaria
112. The kingdom Monera includes prokaryotes like (3) museums (4) taxonomic keys
(1) cyanobacteria/actinomycetes
[11] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
122. National Botanical Research Institute is situated at 129. Study the following statements and select the correct
(1) Lucknow (2) Kolkata ones.
(3) Mumbai (4) Chennai (i) Herbarium is a store house of collected plant
specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved
123. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
on sheets.
(1) evolutionary relationships
(ii) Catalouge provides the index to the plant species
(2) morphological features found in a particular area.
(3) chemical constituents (iii) Monographs contain information on any one
(4) floral characters taxon.
124. A bacterium that bears flagella all over the surface is (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
called (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) Lophotrichous (2) Cephalotrichous 130. ________ is a taxonomic aid which contains the
(3) Peritrichous (4) Amphitrichous actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of
125. A distrinct lipo-polysaccharide wall layer is found in a given area and also provides the index to the plant
species found in a particular area.
(1) Gram (+) bacteria (2) Gram (–) bacteria
(1) Flora (2) Key
(3) All bacteria (4) Mycoplasma
(3) Monograph (4) Manual
126. Bacteria shown in given figure are
131. Study the following statements regarding the
preparation of herbarium sheets:
I. Plant should be collected in flowering stage
II. Every detail regarding the plant such as locality,
ecological conditions, vegetative and floral
characters, etc. should be noted
III. Plants are evenly pressed by unfolding all the
plant parts between blotting papers (or
A B C newspapers) with the help of plant pressers
(1) Micrococcus Diplococcus Streptococcus IV. Blotting papers need not be changed until the
(2) Bacillus Diplobacillus Streptobacillus plant gets dried
(3) Micrococcus Bacillus Streptobacillus V. After drying, the plant specimen is carefully
(4) Streptococcus Diplococcus Bacillus mounted/pasted on the herbarium sheets
VI. The herbarium sheet is labelled on the lower
127. Identify the type of bacteria from the following right hand corner representing the number of
diagram plant speciment, date of collection etc.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(1) I only (2) IV only
(3) I and IV (4) III and IV
132. Read the following statements regarding biological
museums.
I. Biological museums are generally set up in
educational institutes such as schools and
(1) Bacilli (2) Cocci colleges
(3) Vibrio (4) Spirilla II. Museums have collections of preserved plant
and animal specimens for study and reference.
128. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in
III. Specimens are preserved in the containers of
(1) Protista (2) Fungi jars in preservative solutions.
(3) Archaea (4) Monera IV. Insects are preserved in insect boxes after
collecting, killing and pinning.
[12] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
V. Larger animals like birds and mammals are How many of the above statements are correctly
usually stuffed and preserved. match?
VI. Skeletons of mammals are not allowed to be (1) (i) (2) (i) & (ii)
kept in museums. (3) (i) & (iii) (4) All of these
Which of the above statements is/are not correct? 134. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) II and III (2) I and VI (1) The keys are based on pair of contrasting
(3) V only (4) VI only character called couplet
133. Match Column – I with Column – II and select (2) Each statement in the key is called a lead
the correct option from codes given below: (3) Common taxonomic keys are required for each
Column – I Column – II taxonomic category.
Flora Contain the actual account of habitat (4) Flora contains the actual account of habitat and
and distribution of plants of a given distribution of plant of a given area.
area 135..Find incorrect statement w.r.t. Numerical taxonomy
Manuals Useful in providing information for (1) Tree based on numerical taxonomy is called
identification of names of species dendrogram
found in an area. (2) Vegetative characters gain more weightage
Monographs Contain information of any one taxon (3) Also known as phenetics
(4) Computer softwares are utilized
[13] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
ZOOLOGY
136. Demineralisation of bone is caried out by 145. Hyaline cartilage does not possess
(1) Osteoclasts (2) Osteoprogenitors (1) Cells
(3) Osteoblasts (4) None of the above (2) Lacunae
137. Stomach and intestine are lined with : (3) Mucopolysaccharides
(1) Transitional epithelium (4) Canaliculi
(2) Striated columnar epithelium 146. A cell in blood shows amoeboid movements,
(3) Simple columnar epithelium multilobed nucleus, has granules in the cytoplasm and
(4) Simple squamous epithelium is phagocytic. Which of the following cells it can be?
138. Unicellular glands are (1) Lymphocyte (2) Eosinophil
(1) Goblet cells (2) Salivary glands (3) Neutrophil (4) Monocyte
(3) Pancreas (4) Mammary glands 147. The term lamellae with reference to bones denotes:
139. Processes of osteocytes lie in (1) Concentric rings in which osteocytes are arranged
(1) Dendrites (2) Haversian canals (2) the spaces housing osteocytes
(3) Lamella (4) Canaliculi (3) protoplasmic connections joining adjacent
140. Which of the following statements is/are not correct osteocytes
regarding connective tissues? (4) Oblique canals joining adjacent Haversian canals
(i) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely 148. Basement membrane of the epithelium is secreted
distributed in the body of complex animals by
(ii) They connect and support other tissues (1) Epithelial cells only
(iii) They include such diverse tissues as bone, (2) Underlying connective tissue only
cartilage, tendons, adipose and loose connective (3) Partly by epithelium and partly by underlying
tissues connective tissue
(iv) They form the central and external lining of many (4) Neither by epithelium nor by connective tissue
organs
149. Regeneration of cartilage is brought about by:
(v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells
(1) Fibres (2) Matrix
secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin (3) Perichondrium
(1) (iv) only (2) (v) only (4) Nerves and blood vessels
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) and (v) 150. Sebaceous glands are
141. Matrix of hyaline cartilage contains (1) Apocrine (2) Holocrine
(1) Collagen (2) Chondrin (3) Merocrine (4) Eccrine
(3) Ossein (4) All the above 151. Pseudostratified epithelium is present in:
142. Simple cuboidal epithelium lines all the following (1) Trachea and Bronchi
structures except the (2) Larynx and Pharynx
(1) Ovary (2) Pancreatic ducts (3) Nephron and Neuron
(3) Thyroid follicles (4) Fallopian tube (4) Urinary Bladder and Intestine
143. Collagen fibres are 152. At places where, there is much wear and tear,
(1) Arranged in bundles stratified epithelium becomes flat and cornified due
(2) In the form of unbranched network to?
(3) Single and branched (1) Chondrin (2) Elastin
(4) None of these (3) Keratin (4) Ossein
144. Collagen is 153. Different fibres of connective tissue are made of
(1) lipid (2) carbohydrate special types of proteins. The white fibres are made
of:
(3) fibrous protein (4) globular protein
[14] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
(1) Collagen (2) Elastin 162. The thin, outer fibrous lining around the bone in
(3) Myosin (4) Reticulin mammals is called
154. As compared to blood, lymph contains (1) Endothelium (2) Periosteum
(1) More protein, same number of leucocytes mainly (3) Endoneurium (4) Endosteum
lymphocytes and few erythrocytes 163. Which of the following statements regarding
(2) Less protein, more leucocytes chiefly Haversion system is correct :
granulocytes and a few erythrocytes (a) Presence of Haversian system is a typical feature
(3) Less protein, large number of leucocytes mainly of compact bones in humans only
lymphocytes and a few granulocytes, no (b) Haversian system is formed of Haversion canal,
erythrocytes Lamellae and osteocytes
(4) Less protein, same number of leucocytes mainly (c) Haversian canal contains arteries, vein, nerves
lymphocytes and a few erythrocytes and lymphatic vessels
155. Which of the following is not characteristic of (1) Only (a) (2) (b) and (c)
transitional epithelium?
(3) Only (b) (4) All are correct
(1) Absence of basement membrane or germinative
164. Which of the following can be found in bone but not
layer
in cartilage matrix
(2) It is found in uterus
(1) lacunae (2) protein fibers
(3) Stretchable nature
(4) Consist of 4 to 6 layers of cells (3) blood vessels (4) chondroitin
156. The nature of articular cartilage present in between 165. Epithelial tissue is characterised by each of these traits
joints of limb bone (movable joint) is except that
(1) White fibre cartilage (1) It lacks blood vessels
(2) Yellow elastic fibro cartilage (2) It functions in secretion, absorption and excretion
(3) Calcified cartilage (3) Epithelial cells are loosely packed and have much
(4) Hyaline cartilage intercellular material
157. Connective tissue originated from :- (4) It is anchored to a basement membrane
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm 166. Microvilli, which function to increase surface area
(3) Mesoderm (4) All of above are more likely to be found in
158. Cells of Germinal Epithelium are :- (1) Pseudostratified epithelium
(1) Columnar (2) Squamous (2) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Cuboidal (4) Stratified
(3) Transitional epithelium
159. Inner lining of Blood vessels and heart is tesselleted
Epithelium. Which is :- (4) Simple columnar epithelium
(1) Simple squamous due to tile like appearance 167. An exocrine gland that loses small parts of its cell
(2) Simple squamous due to wavy appearance bodies during secretion is an
(3) Simple cuboidal due to wavy appearance (1) Holocrine gland (2) Merocrine gland
(4) Simple columnar Epithelium (3) Endocrine gland (4) Apocrine gland
160. Urothelium also known as 168. The hardest tissue and the softest tissue in the body
(1) Pavement epithelium are
(2) Mosaic epithelium (1) Enamel and skin (2) Bone and tendon
(3) Tesselated epithelium (3) Enamel and blood
(4) Transitional epithelium (4) Bone and Blood
161. Mammary glands are :- 169. Which of the following is not a characteristic of tight
(1) Apocrine (2) Endocrine junctions?
(3) Holocrine (4) None (1) encircle epithelial cells near their apical surface
(2) attach each cell to its neighbours by fusing plasma
membranes
[15] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
(3) allow free flow of cytoplasm between (3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
neighbouring cells (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) presents substances from leaking in between 175. Which one of the following is the largest cell in
adjacent cells blood?
170. Spongy (cancellous) bone differs from compact (1) Monocyte (2) Basophil
(dense) bone in that spongy bone: (3) Neutrophil (4) Eosinophil
(1) Has a concentric-ring structure 176. Which of the following is not true for connective
(2) Is found primarily in the diaphyses of long bones tissue?
(3) Contains irregularly arranged trabeculae (1) It consists of few cells surrounded by fibers and
(4) Is made up of numerous Haversian systems a ground substance
171. Read the following statements and choose the correct (2) It includes such diverse tissues as bone, cartilage,
answer tendons, adipose, and loose connective tissue
(i) Gap junctions cement adjacent cells together (3) It connects and supports other tissues
(ii) Areolar tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages (4) It forms the internal and external lining of many
and mast cells organs
(iii) Tight junctions facilitate the cells to communicate 177. Which of the following statements is correct about
with each other the loose connective tissues?
(iv) Adhering junctions help to stop substances from I. Areolar tissue and adipose tissue are the
(1) i, ii and iii only are wrong examples of loose connective tissue
(2) i, iii and iv only are correct II. Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres
(3) iii, and iv only are wrong loosely arranged in a semifluid ground substance
(4) i, iii and iv only are wrong III. Areolar connective tissue connects skin with
172. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing like muscles
packed tiles occurs on: IV. Often areolar connective tissue serves as a
(1) Inner lining of intestine support frame work for epithelium
(2) Inner lining of stomach (1) Only I, II and IV (2) Only II
(3) Inner lining of fallopian tubes (3) Only III (4) All
(4) Outer surface of Intestine
178. In the below diagram of adipose tissue, identify A, B
173. Stratified and nonkeratinised squamous epithelium
and C
occurs in
(1) Epidermis of skin (2) Vagina and cervix
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Both 2 and 3. A
174. Match Column-I and Column II and choose the

B
correct option
Column I Column II C
A. Mammalian pinna (i) White fibrous
cartilage
A B C
B. Nasal septum (ii) Yellow elastic
cartilage (1) Vacuole Fat Cell membrane
C. Supra scapula of (iii) Hyaline cartilage (2) Cytoplasm Fat Cell membrane
frog (3) Nucleus Fat Cell membrane
D. Intervertebral disc (iv) Calcified cartilage (4) Fat storage area Nucleus Cell membrane
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
[16] Test No.-3/XI-S/PMT/20-06-16
179. In the below diagram of areolar connective tissue, A B C D
the different cells and parts have been indicated by (1) Adipocyte Collagen fibres Microfilament Mast cells
alphabets, Choose the answer in which these (2) Macrophage Collagen fibres Microfilament Mast cells
alphabets correctly match with the parts and cells (3) Macrophage Collagen fibres Microtubule RBC
they indicate – (4) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cells
A
180.Cartilage of tracheal rings is
(1) Fibrous (2) Hyaline
B (3) Elastic (4) None of these
Paper Setter JANAKPURI

Physics : Mr. Arvind [9718676843]
Chemistry : Ms. Ankita Singh [9654288178]
Botany : Mr. Preeti Mishra [7838154570]
Zoology : Mr. M P. Singh [9718696937]

CPT 3 Xi S R PMT 20 06 2016 Ques.

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[1] Test No.

COMMON PRACTICE TEST [PMT] : 2016-18

Time: 3 Hr. TEST NO. - 3 MM: 720

A2  B 2 A2  B 2 I  10  0.2  A , the percentage error in resistance

 2 1 2  2 1 2 (3) 3iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ (4) 2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ

 X Y  36. What is the angle between ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ and î ?

(3) M2 O 3 (4) M3 O 4 (4) All of these

174. Match Column-I and Column II and choose the

Paper Setter JANAKPURI

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