Admission Start

For

Sure Success Batch

CA INTERMEDIATE
May 2019
Limited Seats
(Only one Batch for English & one for Hindi Medium)

th
From 21 May 2018
(for Students appearing in CA Foundation May, 2018)

th
From 25 June 2018
(for Students appearing in CPT June, 2018)

Registration fee : ` 10,000

In case of negative result of CPT
Registration Fee will be refundable.

Vidya Sagar Institute

K-50, Bhawna Tower, Income Tax Colony, Tonk Road,
Near Durga Pura, Bus Stand, Jaipur - 302018
Mobile :- 93514-68666 Ph. :- 7821821250, 7821821251, 7821821252,
7821821253, 7821821254. web : www.vsijaipur.com
 Result of Sure Success Batch
S. No. Name of the Student Sure Success Batch Rank Marks
1 Nikhil Kumar May 2012 AIR 1 605
2 Tanu Garg May 2015 AIR 1 559
3 Gunjan Garg May 2015 AIR 2 559
4 Gaurav Sarawagi May 2017 AIR 1 565
And Many more Rankers from Sure Success Batch
 VIDYA SAGAR
CAREER INSTITUTE LIMITED
CPT Final Test (Part – A)

Instruction: Maximum Marks: 100

1. Use HB Pencil to fill ovals for correct answer. Time : 2 Hours
2. Each question carry one mark. Date : 13.06.2018
3. Negative marking .25 marks for each wrong answer.
4. No negative marking for unattempted questions.

_____________________________________________________________________
01. Which of the following is not a sub-field of accounting?
(a) Management accounting. (b) Cost accounting.
(c) Financial accounting. (d) Book-keeping

02. According to which concept the owner of an enterprise pays the “interest on drawings”?
(a) Accrual Concept (b) Conservative Concept
(c) Entity Concept (d) Dual Aspect Concept

03. A change in accounting policy is justified:

(a) To comply with accounting standard
(b) To ensure more appropriate presentation of the financial statement of the enterprise
(c) To comply with law
(d) All of the above

04. All of the following have debit balance except”

(a) 6% debentures (b) Loan to contractor
(c) Interest on debentures (d) Audit Fees

05. Insurance unexpired account is a:

(a) Personal account (b) Real account
(c) Nominal account (d) None of the above

06. Cash Sales Rs. 50,000

Cash collected from Debtors Rs. 1,30,000
Bad debts during year Rs. 5,000
Debtors at beginning Rs. 10,000
Total Sales will be :
(a) Rs. 1,75,000 (b) Rs. 1,70,000
(c) Rs. 1,80,000 (d) Rs. 1,78,000

07. A trial balance will not balance if:

(a) Correct journal entry is posted twice.
(b) The purchase on credit basis is debited to purchases and credited to cash.
(c) Rs. 500 cash payment to creditors is debited to creditors for Rs. 50 and credited to cash as Rs.
500.
(d) None of the above
08. The total of the purchases day books is posted periodically to the debit of:
(a) Purchases account (b) Cash book
(c) Journal proper (d) None of these

09. Cost of Assets ` 20,000 on 1st January 2012. Depreciation by Annuity method and Interest Rate is 5%.
Annuity factor is .282012. The Balance of Assets A/c at the end of 3 rd year & Net amount charged to P
& L in 3rd year will be :
(a) ` 10,487.51, ` 4872.25 (b) ` 5640.24, ` 4847.27
(c) ` 5,371.65, ` 5115.86 (d) ` 5371.65, ` 5640.24

10. If repair cost is Rs. 25,000, whitewash expenses are Rs. 5,000, cost of extension of building is Rs.
2,50,000 and cost of improvement in electrical wiring system is Rs. 19,000; the amount to be expensed
is:
(a) Rs. 2,99,000. (b) Rs. 44,000.
(c) Rs. 30,000. (d) Rs. 49,000

11. An item of purchase of Rs. 151 was entered in the Purchase Book as Rs. 15 and posted to Suppliers Ac
as Rs. 51 rectifying entry will be:
Rs. Rs.
(a) Purchase A/c Dr. 136
To Suppliers A/c 100
To Suspense A/c 36
(b) Purchases A/c Dr. 136
To Suppliers 136
(c) Purchase A/c Dr. 136
To Suppliers 136
(d) None of the three

12. If a purchase return of Rs. 1,000 has been wrongly posted to the debit of the sales returns account,
but has been correctly entered in the suppliers' account, the total of the:
(a) Trial balance would show the debit side to be Rs. 1,000 more than the credit.
(b) Trial balance would show the credit side to be Rs. 1,000 more than the debit.
(c) The debit side of the trial balance will be Rs. 2,000 more than the credit side.
(d) The credit side of the trial balance will be Rs. 2,000 more than the debit side

13. Balance as per Cash Book on 31.03.2010 Rs. 10000

Cheque issued and presented on 4th April Rs. 2300
Cheque sent to bank but not credited Rs. 2000
B/P paid by Bank not entered in cash Book Rs. 800
Balance on per pass book will be
(a) Rs. 9,500 (b) Rs. 9,000
(c) Rs. 9,800 (d) None of the three

14. A firm dealing in cloth has 15000 meters of cloth on April 1, 2009 valued at Rs.1,50,000 according to
LIFO. The firm purchased 20000 meters @ Rs.12 per meter during the year ending 31st March, 2006
and sold 30000 meters @ Rs.25 per meter during the same period. As per LIFO, the closing stock will
be valued at:
(a) Rs.60,000 (b) Rs.1,25,000
(c) Rs.50,000 (d) None of the above
15. On 31st March 2001, the closing stock of X Ltd. was Rs. 3,45,000. On 1st April 2001, stock of Rs.
2,25,000 was destroyed by fire. if the Balance sheet of the company on 31st March 2001 was finalized
on 25th April, 2001 then the Balance sheet will show closing Stock at :
(a) Rs. 3,45,000 with no mention of fire (b) Rs. 1,20,000 with no mention of fire
(c) Rs. 3,45,000 showing loss by fire in footnote (d) Rs. 1,20,000 showing loss by fire in footnote

16. A machinery is purchased for Rs. 60,000. Depreciation is to be provided annually on the basis of fixed
instalment method. Useful life of the asset is 8 years and the residual value is Rs. 10,000. Rate of
depreciation will be:
(a) 10.416% (b) 10%
(c) 9.416% (d) 11%

17. A seven years lease has been purchased for a sum of Rs. 60,000 and it is proposed to depreciate it
under annuity method charging 4% interest In reference to annuity table, Rs. 9996.55 should be
charged to Depreciation A/c. Balance of Lease A/c at the end of the 1st year will be:
(a) Rs. 52403.45 (b) Rs. 52,000
(c) Rs. 50,000 (d) None of the above

18. Cost of machine Rs.1,35,000. Residual value Rs. 5,000. Useful life 10 years the company charged
depreciation for the first 5 years on straight line method. Later on, it reviewed the useful life and
decided to take it as useful for another 8 years. Depreciation amount for 6th year will be:
(a) Rs. 8,125 (b) Rs. 8,000
(c) Rs. 8,200 (d) None of the three

19. Mr Prakash sells goods at 25% on sales. His sales were Rs.10,20,000 during the year. However, he sold
damaged goods for Rs.20,000 costing Rs.30,000. This sale is included in Rs.10,20,000. The amount of
gross profit is:
(a) Rs. 1,90,000 (b) Rs.2,50,000
(c) Rs.2,40,000 (d) Rs.2,00,000

20. Advertisement expenditure of Rs.10,000 paid on 30.12.2009, the advertisement in respect of which
has appeared in the magazines of January, 2010.
This expenditure will be:
(a) Shown as 'expense' in the financial statements of the year ended 31st December, 2009.
(b) Shown as 'liability' in the financial statements of the year ended 31st December, 2009.
(c) Shown as prepaid expense in the financial statements of the year ended 31st December, 2009.
(d) None of the three

21. Capital introduced in the beginning by Ram Rs. 16,080; further capital introduced during the year in
the form of machinery Rs. 2000; personal expenses during the year -
Drawings in cash Rs. 3,000
Life Insurance Premium Rs. 250
Closing capital Rs. 21,925
The amount of profit or loss for the year will be:
(a) Profit Rs. 7,095 (b) Profit Rs. 7,085
(c) Loss Rs. 5,000 (d) Loss Rs. 6,000

22. An old furniture appearing in the books at Rs. 10,000 is to be exchanged for a new furniture of Rs.
10,000. The old furniture has been valued at Rs. 2,000 for exchange purpose. Loss on exchange will be:
(a) Rs. 18,000 (b) Rs. 22,000
(c) Rs. 8,000 (d) Rs. 7,000
23. A manager gets 5% commission on sales. Cost price of goods sold is Rs. 40,000 which he sells at a
margin of 20% on sale. Commission will be:
(a) Rs. 2,500 (b) Rs. 2,400
(c) Rs. 2,000 (d) None of the three

24. Consignment stock will be recorded in the balance sheet of consignor on asset side at:
(a) Invoice value (b) At invoice value less stock reserve
(c) At lower that cost price (d) At 10% lower than invoice value

25. Commission to promote credit sale by consignee is known as:

(a) Del-credere commission (b) Over riding commission
(c) Ordinary commission (d) Special commission

26. If del-credere commission is allowed by consignor to consignee the bad debt treatment in the books
of Consignor will be:
(a) will not be recorded in consignor's books
(b) Bad debt will be debited in Consignor's A/c
(c) Bad Debt will be charged to General P/L A/c
(d) Bad Debt will be recoverable along with credit sales

27. X and Y enter into a joint venture. X supplied goods to Y from his own stock worth Rs. 70,000. X
incurred expenses amounting to Rs. 6000 on joint venture. The venture resulted in a total profit of Rs.
15,000 of which their ratio of distribution is 2:1. The entire sale proceeds were received by Y. No stock
left at the end of the venture. Amount received by X from Y in final statement will be:
(a) Rs. 85,000 (b) Rs. 86,000
(c) Rs. 80,000 (d) Rs. 75,000

28. A and B were partners in a joint venture sharing profits and losses in the proportion of 3/5th and
2/5th respectively. A supplies goods to the value of Rs. 60,000 and incurs expenses amounting Rs.
6,000. B supplies goods to the value of Rs. 14,000 and his expenses amount to Rs. 1,000. B sells goods
on behalf of the joint venture and realizes Rs. 1,00,000. B entitled to a commission of 5% on sales. B
settles his account by bank draft. Find out the profit on venture?
(a) Rs. 14,400 (b) Rs. 14,000
(c) Rs. 13,000 (d) Rs. 13,200

29. A promissory note is drawn by____ in favor of his ___________:

(a) Drawer, Drawee (b) Maker, payee
(c) Payer, Payee (d) Drawer, Payee

30. A bill has been drawn on August 10, 2009 payable after 3 months. The Maturity date of the bill will be:
(a) Nov. 13, 2009 (b) Nov. 10, 2009
(c) Oct. 31, 2009 (d) None of the above

31. Parul accepted a bill for 90 days of Rs. 10,000 drawn by Rahul on 10 Feb., 2010. On 18 March, 2010,
Parul wished to retire the bill, Rahul offered rebate @ 12% p.a. considering the year of 360 days
rebate amount will be:
(a) Rs. 184 (b) Rs. 150
(c) Rs. 180 (d) None of the above

32. On 31st December, 2011 goods sold at a sale price of Rs. 30,000 were lying with customer, Mohan to
whom these goods were sold on 'approval or return basis' and recorded as actual sales. Since no
consent was received form Mohan, the adjustment entry was made, presuming goods were sent on
approval at a profit of cost plus 20%. In the balance sheet, the stock with customers account will be
shown at Rs:
 (a) 30,000 (b) 24,000
(c) 20,000 (d) 25,000

33. Following is the difference between partnership deed and partnership agreement:
(a) Partnership deed is in writing and partnership agreement is oral.
(b) Partnership deed is signed by all the partners but partnership agreement is signed by majority of
the partners.
(c) Partnership deed is registered in the court of law where as partnership agreement is not
registered.
(d) Partnership deed is not subject to changes unless all partners agree to it. Partnership agreement
can be amended with the consent of more than 50% partners

34. The profit and losses for the last years are 2007-08 losses Rs. 10,000; 2008-09 losses Rs. 2,500;
2009-10 profits Rs. 98,000 & 2010-11 profits Rs. 76,000. The average capital employed in the business
is Rs. 2,00,000. The rate of interest expected from capital invested is 12%. The remuneration of
partners is estimated to be Rs. 1,000 per month not charged in the above losses/profits. Calculate the
value of goodwill on the basis of two years purchase of super profits based on the average of four
years.
(a) Rs. 9,000 (b) Rs. 8,750
(c) Rs. 9,750 (d) Rs. 8,250

35. Profit and loss of revaluation account is shared among the partners in______________ ratio:
(a) Old profit sharing ratio (b) New profit sharing ratio
(c) Capital ratio (d) Equal ratio

36. A and B having share capital of Rs. 20,000 each, share profits and losses equally. They admit C as an
equal partner and goodwill was valued as Rs. 30,000 (book value NIL). C is to bring in Rs. 20,000 as his
capital and the necessary cash towards his share of Goodwill. Goodwill account will not be shown in
the books. It profit on revaluation is Rs. 13,000, find the closing balance of the capital account:
(a) Rs. 31,500: Rs. 31,500: Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 31,500: Rs. 31,500: Rs. 30,000
(c) Rs. 26,500: Rs. 26,500: Rs. 30,000 (d) Rs. 20,000: Rs. 20,000: Rs. 20,000

37. Retiring or outgoing partner:

(a) Is liable for firm's liabilities.
(b) Not liable for any liabilities of the firm.
(c) Is liable for obligation incurred before his retirement.
(d) Is liable for obligations incurred before and after his retirement

38 A,B,C are partners sharing profits and loss in 5:3:2. The firm's balance sheet as on 31.03.2007 shows
Reserve Balance of Rs. 25,000. Profits of the last year Rs. 50,000. Joint Life Policy of Rs. 10,00,000.
Fixed, assets of Rs. 12,00,000. On 1st June C died and on same date assets were revalued. The
executors of C will get along with capital:
(a) Share in Joint life policy
(b) Share in Reserves
(c) Proportionate share of profit upto the date of death
(d) All of the above

39. The amount of Share application money which is due for refund should be shown under:
(a) Current liabilities (b) Provision
(c) Other current liabilities (d) None of these

40. Dividends are usually paid as a percentage of ______:

(a) Authorized share capital (b) Net profit
(c) Paid-up capital (d) Called-up capital
41. Accounting Section 52 of the Companies Act, the amount in the Securities Premium A/c cannot be
used for the purpose of:
(a) Issues of fully paid bonus shares
(b) Writing off losses of the company
(c) Writing off preliminary expenses
(d) Writing off commission or discount on issues of shares

42. Z Ltd. issued 10,000 shares of Rs.10 each. The called up value per share was Rs.8. The company
forfeited 200 shares of Mr. A for non-payment of 1st call money of Rs.2 per share. He paid Rs.6 for
application and allotment money. On forfeiture, the share capital account will be _________:
(a) Debited by Rs.2,000 (b) Debited by Rs.1,600
(c) Credited by Rs.1,600 (d) Debited by Rs. 1,200

43 Following are the information related to G Ltd.

(i) Equity share capital paid up Rs. 2,85,000
(ii) Calls in advance Rs. 10,000
(iii) Calls in arrear Rs. 15,000
(iv) Proposed dividend 20 %
The amount of dividend payable :
(a) Rs. 57,000 (b) Rs. 54,000
(c) Rs. 56,000 (d) Rs. 60,000

44. The balance ascertained in books of a company at the end of year were: CRR A/c Rs. 50,000, Security
Premium Rs. 5,000 Reserve available for distribution of Bonus shares will be:
(a) Rs. 50, 000 (b) Rs. 55,000
(c) Rs. 45,000 (d) Rs. 57,000

45. T Ltd. purchased land and building from U Ltd. for a book value of Rs.2,00,000. The consideration was
paid by issue of 12% Debentures of Rs.100 each at a discount of 20%. The debentures account will be
credited with:
(a) Rs.2,60,000 (b) Rs.2,50,000
(c) Rs.2,40,000 (d) Rs.1,60,000

46. Beta Ltd. was formed as a public limited company with an authorised capital of Rs. 20,00,000 divided
into shares of Rs. 10 each. Beta Ltd. issued fully paid up shares of Rs. 10 each to consideration of
acquiring asset worth Rs. 3,80,000 from M/s Rahim Bros. The shares are issued at a premium of 25%.
To record this transaction share capital need to be credited by:
(a) Rs. 3,04,000 (b) Rs. 76,000
(c) Rs. 3,80,000 (d) Rs. 3,00,000

47. Light Ltd. has 10,000 5% preference shares of Rs. 10 each to be redeemed after 5 years. The company
forfeited 500 preference shares on which final call of Rs 2 has not been received. after due notice and
cancelled these shares on account of redemption. Remaining shares were redeemed out of reserves of
the company. The amount to be credited to capital redemption reserve will be:
(a) Rs.1,00,000 (b) Rs. 95,000
(c) Rs. 99,000 (d) Rs. 99,500

48. Raj Ltd. purchased machinery for Rs. 20,000 payable Rs. 6,500 in cash and the balance by an issue of
10% debentures of Rs. 10 each at a discount of 10%. Discount on issue of debentures will be:
(a) Rs. 1,000 (b) Rs. 1,500
(c) Rs. 1,400 (d) None of these
49. After rectification of the following errors, effect on Net profit will be:
(i) A Cheque dishonoured ` 3,100 debited to discount A/c
(ii) Sales book (undercast) short by ` 23,000
(iii) A customer returned goods of value of ` 1,200, included in stock but not recorded
(a) Increased by ` 24,900 (b) Decreased by ` 24,900
(c) Increased by ` 23,700 (d) Increased by ` 27,300

50. What is the correct sequence in which the capital of a company is shown:
(a) Issued, Nominal, Subscribed, Called-up (b) Issued, Nominal, Called-up, Subscribed
(c) Nominal, Issued, Subscribed, Called-up (d) Issued, Subscribed, Called-up, Nominal

51. X sold goods to Y at cost + 10% profit.

Y sold goods to Z at 20% profit on sales.
If cost of the goods to X is Rs. 50,000. What is the cost of the goods to Z?
(a) Rs. 66,000 (b) Rs. 68,750
(c) Rs. 65,000 (d) Rs. 69,450

52. A redeemable preference share is that which is redeemable as per provisions laid down in:
(a) Section 55 of the Companies Act (b) Section 90 of the Companies Act
(c) Section 100 of the Companies Act (d) Section 110 of the Companies Act

53. When the proprietor withdraws or takes away some goods from the business for his personal use or
consumption, he record the withdrawals at:
(a) Selling price
(b) Cost price
(c) Selling price or cost price whichever is higher
(d) Selling price or cost price whichever is lower

54. Find out the missing item using the following information:
Opening Stock Rs. 60,000
Purchases Rs. 3,40,000
Sales Rs. 4,80,000
Gross margin on sales 25%
Stock as per physical verification Rs. 32,500
(a) Freight Inward Rs. 32,500 (b) Freight Outward Rs. 7,500
(c) Goods withdrawn by the proprietor Rs. 7,500 (d) None of the above

55. Generally the format for petty cash book is used:

(a) Vertical (b) Horizontal
(c) Analytical (d) Ledger

56. Effect of strike not shown in the accounts. Which accounting concept is applied here?
(a) Matching concept (b) Revenue recognition concept
(c) Money measurement concept (d) Cost concept

57. Main Benefit of LLP is that it is taxed as ______________ but has benefits of being a ________:
(a) Corporate, Partnership (b) Partnership, Partnership
(c) Partnership, Corporate (d) Corporate, corporate
58. Small company means:
(a) Paid up capital is 2 crore or more but upto 20 crore and turnover as per last P & L is 50 Lakh or
more but upto 5 crore
(b) Paid up capital is 5 crore or more but upto 20 crore and turnover as per last P & L is 1 crore or
more but upto 5 crore
(c) Paid up capital is 50 Lakh or more but upto 5 crore and turnover as per last P & L is 2 crore or
more but upto 20 crore
(d) Paid up capital is 20 Lakh or more but upto 2 crore and turnover as per last P & L is 1 crore or
more but upto 10 crore

59. Preference share capital to be redeem is Rs. 20,00,000 for which available Reserve & Surplus is Rs.
12,00,000 and for remaining amount. Equity shares are to be issued of Rs. 90 each. Calculate number
of share to issued without violating section 55 (in multiple of 50):
(a) 8000 Shares (b) 8889 Shares
(c) 8850 Shares (d) 8900 Shares

60. A, B and C share Profit & Loss in the ratio of 5:3:2. They took joint Life Policy in 2007 for Rs. 50,000. A
premium of Rs. 3,000 paid annually on 10th June. Surrender value of Policy on 31st December of
various year was as follows:
2007 - Nil
2008 - 900
2009 - 2000
2010 - 3600
The amount to be charged to P & L in 2009 and Balance of JLP to be carry forward in 2010 will be:
(a) ` 1,000, ` 2,000 (b) ` 2,000, ` 1,900
(c) ` 1,400, ` 2,000 (d) ` 1,900, ` 2,000

61. Which one of the following is an essential element of a valid contract?

(a) Free consent (b) Consideration
(c) Competent parties (d) All of the above

62. A asks B a watch repairer, to repair his watch without forming any contractual relationship, still a legal
relationship has arisen and it will create___________.
(a) Express Contract (b) Implied Contract
(c) Tacit Contract (d) Formal Contract

63. Advertising agent invites a tender. It is known as ________.

(a) An offer (b) A counter offer
(c) An agreement (d) An invitation to offer

64. An offer may be made to the following:

(a) A particular person. (b) A particular group or body of persons.
(c) The public at large i.e. the whole world. (d) All of the above.

65. An agreement made with free consent to which the consideration is lawful but inadequate, is
_________.
(a) void (b) valid
(c) voidable (d) unlawful

66. A minor has been supplied necessaries on credit:

(a) The minor is liable at his option (b) The minor is not liable
(c) The minor is personally liable (d) The minor's estate is liable
67. A Hindu widow borrowed money from a lender for the purpose of filing a suit for maintenance. The
lender advanced money at 100 percent rate of interest. The act of the money lender is induced by
___________.
(a) Coercion (b) Undue Influence
(c) Fraud (d) Misrepresentation

68. H contracted with NIC Corporation for the erection of a number of houses. In calculating his price for
the houses, H by mistake deducted a particular sum twice over. The corporation affixed its seal to the
contract, which correctly represented its intention.
(a) The contract is now binding.
(b) The contract can be avoided by H.
(c) There is no contract at all, since there is no consensus ad idem.
(d) The contract is not binding.

69. R, an optical surgeon, employs S as the assistant for a term of three years and S agrees not to practice
as a surgeon during this period. This contract is:
(a) Valid (b) Void
(c) Voidable (d) Illegal

70. Agreement which are in the nature of bets and gambling are called
(a) Invalid agreements (b) Voidable contracts
(c) Contingent contract (d) Wagering agreements

71. In a contract where personal consideration is not the foundation of the contract, the contract may be
performed by :
(a) promisor himself (b) Promisor's agent
(c) promisor's legal representative (d) Any of the above

72. Novation may take place between:

(a) Different parties (b) The same parties
(c) (a) or (b) (d) (a) & (b)

73. W, a singer enters into a contract with M, the manager of a theatre, to sing at his theatre for two
nights in every week during the next two months and M engages to pay her Rs. 5 Lacs for each night's
performance. On the 7th Night, W wilfully absents herself from the theatre.
(a) W cannot put an end to the contract (b) This contract is unlawful
(c) M is at liberty to put an end to the contract (d) The contract is left at the liberty of W

74. Which of the following are the characteristics of a contingent contract:

(a) The performance of a contingent contract depends upon the happening or non-happening of a
uncertain event in future.
(b) The event must be uncertain.
(c) The event must be collateral to the main contract.
(d) All of the above.

75. 'A' polished B’s shoes without being accepted by 'B' to do so. 'B' does not make any attempt to stop
'A' from polishing the shoes. Decide:
(a) B is bound to pay (b) B is not bound to pay
(c) B is bound to pay damages any incurred by A (d) None of these

76. A contract for sale of goods to be delivered at a future date shall be ______________ even if the seller
has got the goods in present possession.
(a) Invalid (b) Illegal
(c) Valid (d) Voidable at the option of the buyer
77. In case of a sale the position of a buyer is that of _________.
(a) Owner of the goods (b) Bailee of the goods
(c) Hirer of the goods (d) None of the above

78. In F.O.B. Contracts, F.O.B. stands for:

(a) Free on Bill (b) Free on Board
(c) Free on Boarded Ship (d) Free on Bill of Lading

79. In case where goods are purchased under its patent or brand name there is no implied that goods
shall be fit for particular purpose.
(a) Condition (b) Warranty
(c) Any of the above. (d) None of the above

80. In case of sale on approval, the ownership is transfer to the buyer when he:
(a) Accepts the goods (b) Adopts the transaction
(c) Fails to return goods (d) In all the above cases

81. Which of the following sentence is true?

(a) There should be immediate delivery of goods
(b) There should be immediate payment of price
(c) There may be delivery of goods and payment of price on to be made at some future date.
(d) All of these

82. Right of lien is to.........:

(a) Retain possession (b) Regain possession
(c) Remove possession (d) Recharge possession

83. If the seller makes use of pretended bidding to raise the price, the sale is voidable at the option of the:
(a) Seller (b) Buyer
(c) Court (d) Any of the above

84. Which is correct ?

(a) All the essential elements of a valid contract must be present in partnership agreement
(b) No need of essential elements of a valid contract in a partnership contract
(c) Only consideration should be present in partnership agreement
(d) None of the above

85. True test of partnership is…........:

(a) Sharing of profits
(b) Sharing of profits and losses
(c) Mutual agency
(d) Existence of an agreement to share profits of the business

86. A partner who contributes capital in the firm but does not actively participates in the working of the
business is called:
(a) Active partner (b) Dormant Partner
(c) Sub-partner (d) Nominal Partner

87. Consider the following situations

1. Admission of a partner
2. Retirement or death of a partner
3. Partnership firm carry on the business other than the business for which it was orignally formed.
4. Partnership business is carried on after the expiry of the term fixed for the purpose
Which, situation are considered as change in constitution of the firm
 (a) 1,2 (b) 1,2,4
(c) 3,4 (d) 1,2,3,4

88. A, B and C are partners in a firm. C retires from the firm. A and B enter into an agreement with C
restraining him from doing similar business that of the firm for three years. This agreement is:
(a) Voidable at the option of C (b) Valid
(c) Void (d) Invalid

89. XYZ a partnership firm was constituted on 1.4.2008 on 25th April the partners resolved to get the firm
registered with the Registrar of firm.
The firm prepared the necessary documents for registration on 26th April which were signed on 28th
April. They send the documents to the Registrar office on 30th April by Registered post which was
received in the Registrar office on 4th May, 2008. The Registrar filed the statement and entered the
firm name in the Registrar of Firms on 20th May, 2008. The firm will be deemed to have been
registered on :
(a) 30th April (b) 28th April
(c) 20th May (d) 4th may

90. A & B become partners for 16 years. A pays B a premium of Rs. 5,000/-. At the end of 8 years there is
dispute between A & B and they declare a dissolution.
(a) A can get back a reasonable part of the premium
(b) A can get back entire amount of the premium paid by him to B.
(c) A cannot get back any amount of the premium paid by him
(d) A can get back Rs. 2,500/- from B.

91. Suppose time is of the essence of contract but yet promisor does not perform the promise within the
stipulated time. But ten days after the expiry of stipulated time, the promisor offers to perform his
promise. Can the promisee accept such performance and at the same time claim compensation from
the promisor for delay?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) No, because stipulated time is expired
(d) Yes, but for claiming compensation the promisee must notify the promisor of his intention to
claim compensation at the time of accepting the performance

92. A applies to banker for a loan at a time when there is stringency in the money market. The banker
declines to make the loan except at an unusually high rate of interest. A accepts the loan on these
terms. Is the contract induced by undue influence?
(a) Yes
(b) Yes, because unusual high rate of interest amounts to unfair advantage
(c) No
(d) No, because at the time of stringency in money market a banker can charge unusual higher rate of interest.

93. A, an Indian, contract to marry B. A is already married, but B was unaware of the fact. A breaks his
promise in course of time. Thereupon B brings a suit against A for a breach of contract. A pleads that
his promise is impossible of being performed as the Law of the country does not permit polygamy.
Can A get away with plea?
(a) No
(b) No, because A is bound with his promise
(c) Yes
(d) Yes, but not without making compensation to B for the loss occasioned by the non-performance of
the promise
94. A pays B Rs. 1,000 in consideration of B’s promising to marry C, A’s daughter. C is dead at the time of
promise. The agreement is:
(a) Valid (b) Voidable
(c) Void (d) None of these

95. A, B and C own certain cattle in common. A is left by B and C in possession of cow which they sells to
D. D purchased it bona fide. Is the property in the cow transferred to D.
(a) No
(b) No, because B & C exercised fraud against A
(c) Yes
(d) Yes, because sale by one of the joint owner having possession of goods is valid to bona fide buyer

96. ‘P’, the hirer of vehicle under a hire purchase agreement, sells it to a ‘Q’ a bona fide purchaser. Is
property of vehicle passes to Q?
(a) Yes
(b) Yes, because ‘Q’ is bona fide buyers
(c) No
(d) No, because a hirer cannot pass a better title of goods to 3rd party than he himself has

97. A, sold a car to B for Rs. 1,00,000 and delivered the same to the railways for the purpose of
transmission to the buyers. The railway receipt was taken in the name of B and sent to B. Now A can:
(a) exercise lien
(b) not exercise lien
(c) not exercise lien, because lien is lost when documents of title of goods are delivered to buyer
(d) All of the above statement are incorrect.

98. Under English law registration of firm is:

(a) Not compulsory
(b) compulsory
(c) Compulsory and there are some penalty for non registration
(d) Not compulsory similar as India law

99. A, B and C are partners of a place for Car Parking. P stands his car in the parking but A sold the car to
D. For this:
(a) Firm is not liable (b) Firm is not liable only A is liable
(c) Nobody is liable to P (d) Firm is liable for the Act of A

100. A bids for an antique painting at a sale by auction. After the bid, when the auctioneer struck his
hammer to signify acceptance of the bid, he hit the antique which gets damaged. The loss will have to
be borne by:
(a) Buyer
(b) Buyer, because ownership is transferred
(c) Seller
(d) Seller, because the ownership of goods has not yet passed from the seller to the buyer
 VIDYA SAGAR
CAREER INSTITUTE LIMITED
CPT Final Test (Part – B)

Instruction: Maximum Marks: 100

1. Use HB Pencil to fill ovals for correct answer. Time : 2 Hours
2. Each question carry one mark. Date : 13.06.2018
3. Negative marking .25 marks for each wrong answer.
4. No negative marking for unattempted questions.

___________________________________________________
01. A study of how increases in the corporate income tax rate will affect the national unemployment
rate is an example of ------------------------:
(a) macroeconomics. (b) descriptive economics.
(c) microeconomics. (d) normative economics

Questions 02 to 03 are based on Figure which shows production possibilities curve (PPC) for grape
juice and wine. Production possibilities curve (liters)
Grape Juice (Litres)

Wine Litre

02. The opportunity cost of increasing wine production from D to E is:

(a) 0 litres of grape juice. (b) 5 litres of grape juice.
(c) 1 litre of wine. (d) 0.2 litres of wine.

03. Assuming that the PPC does not shift, which of the following is true?
(a) Point A is desirable but is inefficient.
(b) Point D represents a more efficient allocation of resources than points A and F.
(c) Point H is desirable but is not attainable.
(d) If wine production equals 7 litres, the maximum amount of grape juice that can be produced
simultaneously is 28 litres.

04. Normal goods have ______________?

(a) Zero Income elasticity (b) Negative income elasticity
(c) Positive income elasticity (d) Infinite income elasticity

05. What is the original price of a commodity when price elasticity is 0.71 and demand changes from 20
units to 15 units and the new price is Rs. 10?
(a) Rs. 15 (b) Rs. 18
(c) Rs. 20 (d) Rs. 8
06. In case of an inferior good the income elasticity of demand is:
(a) Zero (b) Positive
(c) Negative (d) None of the above

07. In case of necessaries the marginal utilities of the earlier units are large. In such cases the consumer
surplus will be:
(a) Infinite (b) Zero
(c) Marginally positive (d) Marginally Negative

08. The other name of Budget line is:

(a) Demand line (b) Price line
(c) Supply line (d) None of the above

09. A horizontal supply curve parallel to the quantity axis implies that the elasticity of supply is --------
(a) zero. (b) infinite.
(c) equal to one. (d) greater than zero but less than one

10. Labour is defined as...................:

(a) Any work done without remuneration (b) Any exertion of mind or body to get some
reward
(c) Helping the mother (d) Helping the friends

11. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Both AP and MP can be calculated from TP (b) When AP rises then MP>AP
(c) When AP is maximum then MP = AP (d) When AP falls, MP also falls but MP>AP

12. Which cost increases continuously with the increase in production?

(a) Average cost (b) Marginal cost

(c) Fixed cost (d) Variable cost

13. Which of the following statements is true of the relationship among the average cost functions?
(a) ATC = AFC = AVC (b) AVC = AFC+ATC
(c) AFC = ATC + AVC (d) AFC = ATC – AVC

14. Marginal cost is defined as :

(a) the change in total cost due to one unit change in output
(b) total cost divided by output
(c) the change in output due to a one unit change in an input
(d) total product divided by the quantity of input

15. If marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost, a monopolist should _______________:

(a) increase output.
(b) decrease output.
(c) keep output the same because profits are maximized when marginal revenue exceeds marginal
cost.
(d) raise the price
16. With a given supply curve, a decrease in demand causes:
(a) An overall decrease in price but an increase in equilibrium quantity
(b) An overall increase in price but a decrease in equilibrium quantity
(c) No change in overall price but a reduction in equilibrium quantity
(d) An overall decrease in price and a decrease in equilibrium quantity
17. When price is less than average variable cost at the profit maximizing level of output, a firm should:
(a) Shut down, since it cannot recover its variable cost
(b) Produce where MC = MR, if operating in short run
(c) Produce where MC = MR, if operating in long run
(d) None of the above

18. The firms in a perfectly competitive market is a price taker. This designation as a price taker is based
on the assumption that:
(a) the firm has some, but not complete, control over its product price.
(b) there are so many buyers and sellers in the market that any individual firm cannot affect the
market.
(c) each firm produces a homogeneous product
(d) there is easy entry into or exit from the market place

19. In long run equilibrium the pure monopolist can make pure profits because of:
(a) Blocked entry (b) The high price he charges
(c) The low LAC costs (d) Advertising

20. Which is the first order condition for the profit of a firm to be maximum?
(a) AC = MR (b) MC = MR
(c) MR = AR (d) AC = AR

21. Abolition of intermediaries and tenancy reforms are both parts of ----------------------------.
(a) industrial reforms in India. (b) external sector reforms in India.
(c) land reforms in India. (d) banking reforms in India.

22. About ________ percent of the sick units in India are small units and medium enterprises.
(a) 10 percent (b) 4 percent
(c) 30 percent (d) 90 percent.

23. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Expenditure on financial assets which are produced and owned within the country is included in
national expenditure
(b) Expenditure on financial assets of foreign countries is included in national expenditure
(c) Goods produced in preceding years are also included in national income.
(d) None of the above

24. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Income tax was abolished in India in 1991
(b) Gift tax abolished in India in 1998
(c) Except for Andaman and Nikobar and Lakshdweep All the States have adopted VAT
(d) Estate duty was abolished in 1995

25. In the theory of demographic transition in the first stage :

(a) Both birth rate and death rate are high (b) Both birth rate and death rate are low
(c) Birth rate is high and death rate is low (d) Birth rate is low and death rate is high

26. EAS stands for

(a) Easy Assistance scheme. (b) Endless Assistance scheme.
(c) Employment Assurance Scheme. (d) Employment Assessment scheme

27. A situation of employment in which a person is apparently employed but his contribution to the
production is almost nil is called ________ unemployment.
(a) structural. (b) chronic.
(c) disguised. (d) cyclical.
28. NIXI stands for:
(a) National Internet Exchange of India. (b) National International Exchange of India.
(c) National Institute of Exchange of Indian goods. (d) None of the above

29. National Literacy mission was launched for:

(a) Primary education (b) Secondary education
(c) Adult education (d) All of the above

30. Stagflation means -----------------------:

(a) Inflation with recession (b) Recession with stagnation
(c) Inflation galloping like a stag (d) Inflation and increasing output.

31. The FRBM Act aims at reducing gross fiscal deficit to _________% of GDP:
(a) 2%. (b) 1%.
(c) 0.5%. (d) 3%.

32. ________is a systematic record of all the economic transactions between one country and rest of
the world:
(a) Balance of trade (b) Balance of transactions
(c) Budget (d) Balance of payments

33. At present, 100 percent FDI is allowed in ______________:

(a) defence (b) drugs and pharmaceuticals
(c) banks (d) insurance

34. In__________ we remove tariff, subsidies on the flow of goods and services between countries.
(a) globalisation (b) liberalisation
(c) privatisation (d) disinvestment

35. What of the following is false about WTO?

(a) It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreements..
(b) It is global in its membership.
(c) It has far wider scope than GATT.
(d) Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its members.

36. Money in traditional sense:

(a) serves as a medium of exchange.
(b) serves as a store of value.
(c) serves as both medium of exchange and store of value.
(d) serves neither as medium of exchange and store of value.

37. Which of the following is a commercial bank in India?

(a) SBI (b) Citi Bank
(c) ABN Amro Bank (d) All of the above

38. Which is the central bank of India?

(a) The State Bank of India (b) The U.N.O.
(c) The World Bank (d) The Reserve Bank of India
39. The kinked demand curve model of oligopoly assumes that:
(a) response to a price increase is less than the response to a price decrease
(b) response to a price increase is more than the response to a price decrease
(c) elasticity of demand is constant regardless of whether price increases or decreases
(d) elasticity of demand is perfectly elastic if price increases and perfectly inelastic if price decreases

40. Term deposits upto 1 year are included is:

(a) NM1 (b) NM2
(c) NM3 (d) Both NM2 and NM3

41. Under competition Act 2002 which institute was established to prevent activities that adversely
affect competition:
(a) MRTP commission (b) CCI
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

42. Who propound concept of price Elasticity of demand and in which year:
(a) 1860, Alfred Marshall (b) 1960, James Keynes
(c) 1882, James Wilson (d) 1962, J. M. Keynes

43. The rate of substitution of one factor of production with another is:
(a) MRTS (b) MRS
(c) Opportunity Cost (d) None of these

44. SAC curves are known as:

(a) Planning Curve (b) Plant Curve
(c) Envelop Curve (d) Round Curve

45. Micro, Small and Medium enterprises Development Act has been passed in which year:
(a) 1951 (b) 2006
(c) 2008 (d) 1994

46. Which sector units are known as “loss leaders”:

(a) Public Sector units (b) Private Sector units
(c) Joint Sector units (d) All of these

47. Who firstly introduced income tax in India and in which year _____ :
(a) James Wilson, 1860 (b) James Hood, 1960
(c) Keynes, 1936 (d) Ragnar Frisch, 1933

48. Govt. taps 91 days treasury bills which shows as_________:

(a) Budgetary receipts
(b) Revenue receipts under heading “Borrowings and other liabilities”
(c) Capital receipts under heading “Borrowings and other liabilities
(d) None of these

49. Which of the following the autonomous body which facilitates settlement of disputes between
foreign investors and their hosts countries (World Bank):
(a) ICSID, 1966 (b) MIGA, 1988
(c) IDA, 1960 (d) IFC, 1960

50. According to Samuelson, in production function technology is:

(a) Changing (b) Given and Constant
(c) Any of the above (d) None of the above
51. P, Q and R are three cities. The ratio of average temperature between P and Q is 11 : 12 and that
between P and R is 9 : 8. The ratio between the average temperature of Q and R is :
(a) 22 : 27 (b) 27 : 22
(c) 32 : 33 (d) None of these

52. If = = then (b - c) x + (c - a) y + (a - b) z is :
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 5 (d) None of these

53. Show that x x reduces to :

(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 0 (d) 2

54. + + is equal to :
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) -1

55. Y is older than x by 7 years 15 years back X's age was 3/4 of Y's age. Their present ages are :
(a) (X = 36, Y = 43) (b) (X = 50, Y = 43)
(c) (X = 43, Y = 50) (d) (X = 40, Y = 47)

56. The value of

(a) 1+ (b) 1
(c) 1 (d) None of these

57. The equation of the line passing through (5, - 3) and perpendicular to the line 2x - 3y + 14 = 0 is :
(a) 3x + 2y - 9 = 0 (b) 3x + 2y + 14 = 0
(c) 2x - 3y - 9 = 0 (d) 2x - 3y - 14 = 0

58. An automobile company manufactures two cars A and B, Model A requires 15 man - hours for
assembly; 5 man - hours for painting and finishing and 1 man - hours for checking testing. Model
B requires 6 man - hours for assembly; 4 man - hours for painting and finishing and 2 man -
hours for checking and testing. There are 400 man - hours in assembly shop; 150 man - hours in
painting and finishing shop and 40 man - hours are available in checking and testing division.
Express this using linear inequalities :
(a) 15x + 6y ≤ 400 (b) 15x + 6y ≥ 400
5x + 4y ≤ 150 5x + 4y ≥ 150
x + 2y ≤ 40 x + 2y ≥ 40
x ≥ 0; y ≥ 0 x ≥ 0; y ≥ 0

(c) 6x + 15y ≤ 400 (d) None of these

6x + 5y ≤ 150
x + 2y ≥ 40
x ≥ 0; y ≥ 0

59. A person borrows Rs. 5000 for 2 years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately lends to another
person at 6.33% pa. for 2 years. Find the gain in the transaction per year.
(a) Rs. 112.50 (b) Rs. 125
(c) Rs. 225 (d) Rs. 116.50
60. The C.I. on Rs. 40000 at 10% p.a. for 1 year when the interest is payable quarterly is :
(a) Rs. 4000 (b) Rs. 4100
(c) Rs. 4152.51 (d) None of these

61. Paul borrowers Rs. 20,000 on condition to repay it with compound interest at 5% p.a. in annual
instalment of Rs. 2.000 each. Find the number of years in which the debt would be paid off:
(a) 10 years (b) 12 years
(c) 14 years (d) 15 years

62. Six boys and five girls are to be seated in a row such that no two girls and no two boys sit together.
Find the number of ways in which this can be done..
(a) 86400 (b) 85000
(c) 85400 (d) None of these

63. A committee of 3 ladies and 4 gents is to be formed out of 8 ladies and 7 gents. Mrs. X refuse to
serve in a committee in which Mr. Y is a member. The number of such committees is :
(a) 1530 (b) 1500
(c) 1520 (d) 1540

64 On 1st January every year a person buys National Saving Certificates of value exceeding that of his
last years purchase by Rs. 100. After 10 years he finds that the total value of the certificates
purchased by him is Rs. 54,500. Find the value of certificates purchased by him in the first year:
(a) Rs. 6,000 (b) Rs. 4,000
(c) Rs. 5,000 (d) Rs. 5,500

65. The sum of the first eight terms of a GP. is five times the sum of the first four terms; then the
common ratio is:
(a) (b) -
(c) ± (d) None of these

66. (A∩B)' is equal to :

(a) (A'∩B)' (b) A'UB'
(c) A'∩B' (d) None of these

67. f (x) = 3 + x, for - 3 < x < 0 and 3 - 2x for 0 < x < 3, then value of f (2) will be
(a) -1 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 5

68. if f(x) = , then the value of f(x) at x = 5, i.e. f(5) equal to:
(a) 10 (b) Undefined
(c) 1 (d) None of these

69. (ex / logx)

(a) ex (x log x - 1) (b) ex (x log x + 1)

(c) (d) None of these

70. Integrate w.r.t. x, x2 ex:

(a) ex (x² - 2x + 2)+c (b) ex (x² + 2x + 2)+c
(c) ex (x + 2)²+c (d) None of these
71.
(a) +c (b) +c

(c) +c (d) +c

72. If 4x3 + 8x2 – x – 2 = 0 then value of 2x – 3:

(a) -4, 2, -7 (b) -4, -2, -7
(c) 4,2,7 (d) - , , -2

73. If function f(x) is defined as follows:

x when x < 2
f(x) 1+x when x > 2
3/2 when x = 2
Then f(x) is:
(a) Continuous at x = 1 (b) Continuous at x = 2
(c) Undefined at x = 1 (d) None of the above

74. If nPr = nPr+1 and nCr = nCr-1 then find the value of n
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5

75. “Is parallel to” over the set of straight line in a given plane is:
(a) Reflexive (b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive (d) Equivalence

76. Classes with zero frequencies are called:

(a) nil class (b) empty class
(c) class (d) None of these

77. Refer following table:

Frequency distribution of weights of 16 students
Weight in kg. No. of students
(Class interval) (Frequency)
44-48 4
49-53 5
54-58 7
Total 16
Find width of class interval for the second class interval.
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 46 (d) 48

78. The third decile for the number 15, 10, 20, 25, 18, 11, 9, 12 is :
(a) 13 (b) 10.70
(c) 11 (d) 52

79. More laborious numerical calculations are involved in A.M. than G.M:
(a) True (b) False
(c) Both (d) None of these

80. If the AM and GM for two numbers are 6.50 and 6 respectively then the two numbers are :
(a) 6 and 7 (b) 9 and 4
(c) 10 and 3 (d) 8 and 5
81. Which measure of dispersion is based on all the observations?
(a) Mean deviation (b) Standard deviation
(c) Quartile deviation (d) (a) and (b) but not (c)

82. The quartile deviation for the data is:

X: 2 3 4 5 6
f: 3 4 8 4 1
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
(c) 1 (d) 0

83. If for two variable x and y, the covariance, variance of x and variance of y are 40, 16 and 256
respectively, what is the value of the correlation coefficient :
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.625
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.5

84. If │r│ > 6 P.E. then there is ________ correlation :

(a) Significant (b) Not significant
(c) Linear (d) Non – linear

85. Two regression coefficient bxy and byx are 1.2 and -0.5. This is:
(a) True (b) False
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these

86. Tom speaks truth in 30 percent cases and Dick speaks truth in 25 percent cases. What is the
probability that they would contradict each other :
(a) 0.325 (b) 0.400
(c) 0.925 (d) 0.075

87. A card is drawn from each of two well-shuffled packs of cards. The probability that at least one of
them is an ace is:
(a) 1/169 (b) 25 /169
(c) 2/169 (d) None of these

88. If the standard deviation of a Poisson variate X is 2, what is P (1.5 < x < 2.9) :
(a) 0.231 (b) 0.158
(c) 0.15 (d) 0.146

89. The no. of methods for fitting the normal curve is:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

90. A simple random sample of size 10 is drawn without replacement from a universe containing 85
units. If the mean and SD, as obtained from the sample, are 90 and 4 respectively, what is the
estimate of the standard error of sample mean :
(a) 0.58 (b) 1.26
(c) 0.67 (d) 0.72

91. A random sample of a group of people is taken and 120 were found to be in favour of liberalizing
licensing regulations. If the proportion of people in the population found in favor of liberalization
with 95% confidence lies between 0.683 and 0.817, then the number of people in the group is :
(a) 140 (b) 150
(c) 160 (d) 175
92. From the following data :
Commodity Base Price Current Price
Rice 35 42
Wheat 30 35
Pulse 40 38
Fish 107 120
The simple Aggregative Index is :
(a) 115.8 (b) 110.8
(c) 112.5 (d) 113.4

93. The average of certain commodities in 1980 was Rs. 60 and the average price of the same
commodities in 1982 was Rs. 120. Therefore, the increase in 1982 on the basis of 1980 was 100% :
(a) The price in 1980 decreases by 60% using 1982 as base
(b) The price in 1980 decreases by 50% using 1982 as base
(c) The price in 1980 decreases by 90% using 1982 as base
(d) None of these

94. For a binominal distribution, the parameters are 15 and 1/3 Find mode:
(a) 5 and 6 (b) 5.5
(c) 5 (d) 6

95. There were 50 students in a class. 10 failed whose average marks were 2.5. The total marks of class
were 281. Find the average marks of students who passed?
(a) 6.4 (b) 25
(c) 256 (d) 86

96. Consumer Price index number for the year 1957 was 313 with 1940 as the base year. The Average
Monthly wages in 1957 of the workers in to factory be Rs. 160/- their real wages is:
(a) Rs. 48.40 (b) Rs. 51.12
(c) Rs. 40.30 (d) None of these

97. The two regression lines are:

16x – 20y + 132 =0 and 80x -30y – 428 = 0, the value of correlation coefficient is
(a) 0.6 (b) -0.6
(c) 0.54 (d) 0.45

98. There are 6 positive and 8 negative numbers. Four numbers are selected at random without
replacement and multiplied. Find the probability that the product is positive:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

99. If the fluctuations in the observed values are very small as compared to the size of the items, it is
presented by
(a) Z-Chart (b) Ogive chart
(c) False-Base Line (d) Control Chart

100. t-test can be used only when the sample has been taken from _______population.
(a) Binomial (b) Poisson
(c) Normal (d) Exponential
 Final Test Dt 13.06.2018
Part A
1 D 21 A 41 B 61 D 81 C
2 C 22 C 42 B 62 B 82 A
3 D 23 A 43 A 63 D 83 B
4 A 24 B 44 B 64 D 84 A
5 A 25 A 45 B 65 B 85 C
6 A 26 A 46 A 66 D 86 B
7 C 27 B 47 A 67 B 87 D
8 A 28 B 48 B 68 A 88 B
9 C 29 B 49 A 69 A 89 D
10 C 30 A 50 C 70 D 90 A
11 A 31 C 51 B 71 D 91 D
12 C 32 D 52 A 72 C 92 D
13 A 33 C 53 B 73 C 93 D
14 C 34 B 54 C 74 D 94 C
15 C 35 A 55 C 75 A 95 D
16 A 36 A 56 C 76 C 96 D
17 A 37 C 57 C 77 A 97 C
18 A 38 D 58 C 78 B 98 C
19 C 39 C 59 D 79 A 99 D
20 C 40 C 60 D 80 D 100 D
 Part B
1 A 21 C 41 B 61 C 81 D
2 B 22 D 42 A 62 A 82 C
3 C 23 B 43 A 63 D 83 B
4 C 24 C 44 B 64 C 84 A
5 A 25 A 45 B 65 C 85 B
6 C 26 C 46 A 66 B 86 B
7 A 27 C 47 A 67 A 87 B
8 B 28 A 48 C 68 A 88 D
9 B 29 C 49 A 69 C 89 B
10 B 30 A 50 B 70 A 90 B
11 D 31 D 51 B 71 B 91 C
12 D 32 D 52 B 72 B 92 B
13 D 33 B 53 A 73 A 93 B
14 A 34 B 54 B 74 B 94 C
15 A 35 D 55 A 75 D 95 A
16 D 36 C 56 A 76 B 96 B
17 A 37 D 57 A 77 B 97 C
18 B 38 D 58 A 78 B 98 D
19 A 39 A 59 D 79 B 99 C
20 B 40 D 60 C 80 B 100 C