1. What is the standard unit of mass? B. N-m 14.
One election volt is equivalent to _______
C. C.N-m/s joules. A. Kilogram D. Unitless B. Pound 8. What is the SI unit of pressure? A. 1.6 x 10^-17 C. Gram B. 1.6 x 10^-18 D. Newton A. Pa C. 1.6 x 10 ^-19 2. What is defined as the distance the light travels in B. N-m D. 1.6 x 10^-20 a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second? C. N/m 15. What is the unit of capacitance? D. N-m/s A. Yard 9. Which one is equivalent of the unit “Pascal’? A. Farad B. Feet B. Weber C. Meter A. N/nm2 C. Coulomb D. Inch B. N/m2 D. Gauss 3. What is the SI unit of work? C. N/m 16. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit D. D.N/nm “farad”? A. Newton 10. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many B. Watt pascals? A. coulomb/volt C. Newton-Second B. joule/volt D. Joule A. 1,000,000 C. joule/coulomb 4. What is the SI unit of power? B. 100,000 D. coulomb/joule C. 10,000 17. What is the unit of electric current? A. Newton D. D.1000 B. Watt 11. What is the SI unit of intensity? A. Volt C. Newton-Second B. Watt D. Joule A. Joule/m2 C. Ampere 5. What is the SI unit of temperature? B. kg/m2 D. Coulomb C. N/m2 18. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit A. Fahrenheit D. watt/m2 “ampere”? B. Kelvin 12. What is the unit of potential difference? C. Celsius A. joule/second D. Rankine A. Watt B. volt/second 6. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity? B. Coulomb C. coulomb/second C. Volt D. watt/second A. Candela D. Weber 19. What is the unit of resistance? B. Lumens 13. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt? C. Lux A. Ohm D. Candlepower A. watt/coulomb B. Watt 7. What is the unit of relative intensity? B. joule/coulomb C. Volt C. joule/watt D. Ampere A. Pa D. watt/joule 20. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following? A. coulomb/ampere 27. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of 33. The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of B. watt/ampere units? _______. C. volt/ampere D. joule/ampere A. lumen/cm2 A. milligram 21. What is the unit of luminous intensity? B. lumen/ft2 B. gram C. lumen/m2 C. microgram A. Footcandle D. lumen/in2 D. nanogram B. Lumen 28. How many dynes are there in one newton? 34. Which one is equivalent to the unit ‘joule’? C. Candela D. Lux A. 10,000 A. Newton-second 22. What is the unit of luminous flux? B. 100,000 B. Newton-meter C. 1,000,000 C. Newton-meter per second A. Candela D. D.1000 D. Newton-meter per second squared B. Lumen 29. What is an elemental unit of energy? 35. Which one is equivalent to the unit “watt”? C. Lux D. Footcandle A. Quartz A. Newton-second 23. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit B. Quark B. Newton-meter “candela”? C. Photon C. Newton-meter per second D. Quantum D. Newton-meter per second squared A. lumen/m2 30. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at 36. One horsepower is equivalent to how many B. footcandle/steradian the rate of one foot per second when acted on by a watts? C. lux/steradian force of one pound? D. lumen/steradian A. 550 24. What is the unit of luminous efficiency? A. Slug B. 746 B. Erg C. 33,000 A. lumen/watt C. Dyne D. 250 B. lumen/volt D. BTU 37. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______. C. lumen/ampere 31. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in D. lumen/coulomb the order of _______. A. work 25. What is the unit of illumination? B. energy A. centimetre C. power A. Lux B. millimetre D. work or energy B. Lumen C. nanometer 38. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______. C. Candela D. micrometer D. Lumen/watt 32. The size of the largest atom is in the order of A. work 26. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units? ________. B. energy C. power A. lumen/cm2 A. centimeter D. work or energy B. lumen/ft2 B. millimeter 39. The English unit “slug” is a unit of _______. C. lumen/m2 C. nanometer D. lumen/in2 D. micrometer A. mass A. Cross product A. Displacement B. weight B. Vector product B. Velocity C. force C. Dot product C. Acceleration D. energy D. Plus product D. Time 40. How is sound intensity measured? 46. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors 52. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of is always _______. mechanics? A. In beats B. In decibels A. equal to 1 A. Length C. In phons B. greater than 1 B. Mass D. In sones C. less than 1 C. Volume 41. An electron volt is the energy required by an D. equal to 0 D. Time electron that has been accelerated by a potential 47. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel 53. What is an arrowed line whose length is difference of how many volts? vectors is always ______. proportional to the magnitude of some vector quantity and whose direction is that of the quantity? A. 1 volt A. equal 1 B. 0.1 volts B. greater than 1 A. Vector diagram C. 10 volts C. less than 1 B. Vector D. 0.01 volts D. equal to 0 C. Component 42. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and 48. The vector product of any vector with itself is D. Resultant with no unit? ______. 54. What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities involved in the A. Single vector A. equal to 1 motion of a body? B. Unit vector B. greater than 1 C. Dot vector C. less than 1 A. Vector diagram D. Scalar vector D. equal to 0 B. Vector 43. What is the purpose of a unit vector? 49. What refers to physical quantities that are C. Component completely specified by just a number and a unit or D. Resultant A. To describe the direction in space physical quantities that have magnitudes only? 55. The _______ of a moving object is the distance B. To indicate a magnitude without reference to it covers in a time interval divided by the time direction A. Scalar quantities interval. C. To serve as comparison with other vectors B. Vector product D. To set a standard among vectors C. Dot product A. acceleration 44. What is another term for a scalar product of two D. Vector quantities B. instantaneous speed vectors? 50. What refers to physical quantities that have a C. average speed magnitude and a direction? D. instantaneous velocity A. Cross product 56. The rate at which velocity changes with time is B. Vector product A. Scalar quantities known as ________. C. Dot product B. Vector quantities D. Plus product C. Dot product A. acceleration 45. What is another term for vector product of two D. Vector quantities B. instantaneous speed vectors? 51. Which is NOT a vector quantity? C. average speed D. instantaneous velocity C. Mass B. Mass 57. “The work done by the net force on a particle D. Force C. Weight equals the change in the particle’s kinetic energy.” 63. What is the property of matter which is the D. All of the above This statement is known as _________. reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform 68. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug? motion? A. Law of conservation of energy A. 11.9 B. Work-energy theorem A. Impulse B. 12.5 C. Law of conservation of work B. Momentum C. 13.2 D. Total work theorem C. Inertia D. D.14.6 58. The ________ of a particle is equal to the total D. Equilibrium 69. What refers to an actual force that arises to work that particle can do in the process of being 64. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will oppose relative motion between contracting brought to rest. remain at rest and an object in motion will remain in surfaces? motion at constant velocity”. This statement is the A. kinetic energy _______. A. Action force B. potential energy B. Reaction force C. total energy A. first law of motion C. Friction D. mechanical energy B. second law of motion D. Drag 59. Work is defined as the product of: C. third law of motion 70. What refers to the force between two stationary D. d’Alembert’s principle surfaces in contact that prevents motion between A. Force and displacement 65. “The net force acting on an object equals the them? B. Force and time product of the mass and the acceleration of the C. Displacement and time object. The direction of the force is the same as that A. kinetic friction D. Power and time of the acceleration”. This statement is the _______. B. sliding friction 60. What is defined as the time rate at which work C. starting friction is done? A. first law of motion D. static friction B. second law of motion 71. What is the maximum value of the static A. impulse C. third law of motion friction? B. Momentum D. d’ Alembert’s principle C. Power 66. “When an object exerts a force on another A. Starting friction D. Energy object, the second object exerts on the first a force B. Sliding friction 61. What is defined as any influence that can of the same magnitude but in the opposite C. Kinetic friction change the velocity of an object? direction”. This statement is the _____. D. Dynamic friction 72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static A. Impulse A. first law of motion friction? B. Force B. second law of motion C. Energy C. third law of motion A. Kinetic friction is always to static friction D. Work D. d’Alembert’s principle B. Kinetic friction is always less than static 62. What is a measure of the inertia of an object? 67. What refers to the force with which the earth friction attracts an object? C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static A. Density friction B. Weight A. Gravitational pull D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than 78. What is the energy something possesses by A. It is conserved. static friction virtue of its position? B. It is lost to maximum value. 73. What is another term for kinetic friction? C. It is gained from the loss of potential A. Kinetic energy energy. A. Dynamic friction B. Potential energy D. It is lost to minimum value. B. Starting friction C. Rest energy 84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of: C. Sliding friction D. Mechanical energy D. All of the above 79. When the vector sum of the external forces A. relative speed after collision to relative 74. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE acting on the system of particles equals zero, the speed before collision between coefficient of static friction and coefficient total linear momentum of the system __________. B. relative speed before collision to relative of kinetic friction? speed after collision A. becomes zero C. relative speed to absolute speed A. Coefficient of static friction is always less B. maximizes D. absolute speed to relative speed than the coefficient of kinetic friction C. changes abruptly 85. What is the coefficient of restitution for a B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal D. remains constant perfectly elastic collision? to the coefficient of kinetic friction 80. What is conserved in an elastic collision? C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater A. 0 than the coefficient of kinetic friction. A. Kinetic energy B. 1 D. Coefficient of static friction may be greater B. Potential energy C. Less than 1 than or less than the coefficient of kinetic C. Rest energy D. Greater than 1 friction. D. Mechanical energy 86. What is the coefficient of restitution for a 75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of: 81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. perfectly inelastic collision? This statement is: A. power output to power input A. 0 B. power input to power output A. true B. 1 C. total work done to total energy B. false C. Less than 1 D. total energy to total power C. is either true or false, depending upon the D. Greater than 1 76. What is the energy something possesses by colliding bodies 87. The coefficient of restitution always applies virtue of its motion? D. is either true or false, depending on the _______. impact of two colliding bodies A. Kinetic energy 82. When can we say that a collision is a completely A. to only one of the colliding objects B. Potential energy inelastic collision? B. to neither of the colliding objects C. Rest energy C. jointly to the colliding objects D. Mechanical energy A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum. D. to the bigger colliding object 77. What is the energy something possesses by B. When the kinetic energy is conserved. 88. “When the vector sum of the external forces virtue of its mass? C. When the two colliding objects stick together acting on a system of particles equals zero, the total after impact. linear momentum of the system remaining A. Kinetic energy D. When the two colliding objects will separate constant.” This statement is known as: B. Potential energy after impact. C. Rest energy 83. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a A. Law of universal gravitation D. Mechanical energy completely inelastic collision? B. Law of conservation of impulse C. Law of conservation of momentum A. path time C. always true D. Law of conservation of energy B. orbit time D. always false 89. What refers to the product of the force and the C. revolution 100. What type of energy is usually transmitted by time during which a force acts? D. period rotary motion? 95. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in A. Impulse uniform motion is _______ to the radius of its path. A. Kinetic energy B. Momentum B. Potential energy C. Power A. directly proportional C. Mechanical energy D. Energy B. inversely proportional D. Rest energy 90. Momentum is the product of: C. equal D. not related in any way A. mass and time 96. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the 101. Angular momentum is the product of B. velocity and mass universe by virtue of their ________. ________. C. force and time D. force and mass A. mass A. moment of inertia and linear speed 91. The coefficient of restitution always applies B. density B. moment of area and angular speed _________. C. weight C. moment of inertia and angular speed D. volume D. moment of area and angular speed A. to only one of the colliding objects 97. “Every object in the universe attracts every 102. “When the sum of the external torques acting B. to neither of the colliding other object with a force directly proportional to the on a system of particles is zero, the total angular C. jointly to the colliding objects product of their masses and inversely proportional momentum of the system remains constant “. This D. to the bigger colliding object to the square of the distance separating them”. This statement is known as: 92. What refers to the force perpendicular to the statement is known as: velocity of an object moving along a curve path? A. Conservation of energy A. Law of conservation of energy B. Conservation of impulse A. Centrifugal force B. Law of universal gravitation C. Conservation of linear momentum B. Centripetal force C. Law of conservation of momentum D. Conservation of angular momentum C. Reverse-effective force D. Law of conservation of impulse 103. What particles will experience tangential D. Gravitational force 98. The gravitational force of the earth on an object acceleration? 93. The centripetal force is: varies of the ______ the distance of the object from the center of the earth. A. Those particles whose angular speed A. directed away from the center of the changes curvature of the path A. inversely as B. Those particles whose angular speed B. directed toward the center of curvature of B. inversely as the square of remains constant the path C. directly as C. All particles C. tangent to the curvature of the path D. directly as the square of D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero. D. either directed away or toward the center of 99. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This 104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is curvature of the path statement is ________. the rotational analog of mass of the body is 94. What refers to the time needed by an object in distributed about the axis. uniform circular motion to complete an orbit? A. sometimes true B. sometimes false A. moment of mass B. moment of area C. axle D. Specific density C. moment of inertia D. wedge 116. All are values of the density of water except D. torque 110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates one. Which one? 105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis what type of equilibrium? is the product of the magnitude of the force and the A. 1000 kg/m3 perpendicular distance from the line of action of the A. stable equilibrium B. 62.4 lb/ft3 force to the axis. B. neutral equilibrium C. 10 g/cm3 C. unstable equilibrium D. 9.81 kN/m3 A. inertia D. translational equilibrium 117. The __________ of a substance is its density B. mass moment 111. When the net torque acting on an object is relative to that of water? C. torque zero, the object is in _______. D. moment A. density 106. When the forces that act on an object have a A. unstable equilibrium B. weight density vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in B. stable equilibrium C. viscosity _______. C. rotational equilibrium D. specific gravity D. translational equilibrium 118. What is another term for specific gravity? A. unstable equilibrium 112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine? B. stable equilibrium A. Density C. rotational equilibrium A. lever B. Weight density D. translational equilibrium B. incline plane C. Relative density 107. Which of the following is an example of a C. hydraulic press D. Viscosity neutral equilibrium? D. wedge 119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s 113. Where is the center of gravity of an object atmosphere at sea level? A. A cone balanced on its apex. located? B. A cone balanced on its base. A. 1.042 bar C. A cone on its side. A. It is always inside the object. B. 1.021 bar D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its B. It is always outside the object. C. 1.013 bar base. C. It is always at its geometric center. D. 1.037 bar 108. Which of the following is an example of a D. It may sometimes be inside the object and 120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is stable equilibrium? sometimes outside the object. transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the 114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume? fluid”. This statement is known as ________. A. A cone balanced on its apex. B. A cone balanced on its base. A. Density A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem C. A cone on its side. B. Weight density B. Pascal’s principle D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its C. Relative density C. Archimedes principle base. D. Specific density D. Torricelli’s theorem 109. A device that transmits force or torque is called 115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume? 121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which _______. uses one of the following theorems. Which one? A. Density A. mechanical tool B. Weight density A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. machine C. Relative density B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle the opposite direction to its displacement from its 132. What refers to a shell of high pressure D. Reynold’s principle equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the produced by the motion of an object whose speed 122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the exceeds that of sound? one of the following theorems. Which one? displacement? A. Shock wave A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem A. Damped harmonic motion B. Mach wave B. Pascal’s principle B. Pendulum C. Beat wave C. Archimedes principle C. Simple harmonic motion D. Sonic wave D. Reynold’s principle D. Damped harmonic oscillation 133. What refers to the change in frequency of a 123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to 128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces wave when there is relative motion between its measure __________. the amplitude of the vibrations? source and an observer?
A. pressure of a liquid A. Force A. Superposition principle
B. density of a liquid B. Period B. Shock effect C. Reynold’s number C. Frequency C. Doppler effect D. viscosity of liquid D. Friction D. Wave motion 124. The maximum displacement of an object 129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point 134. What occur when the individual particles of a undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its at which it can be struck without producing a medium vibrate back and forth in the direction in equilibrium position is called the _________ of the reaction force on its pivot. which the waves travel? motion. A. center of gravity A. Longitudinal waves A. frequency B. center of oscillation B. Transverse waves B. oscillation C. axis of oscillation C. Wave motions C. period D. center of mass D. Shock waves D. amplitude 130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that 135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies 125. What quantity is often used in describing results in periodic pressure variations? are below _________. harmonic motion? A. Sound A. 20 Hz A. Amplitude B. Resonance B. 30 Hz B. Frequency C. Wave C. 40 Hz C. Period D. Beat D. 50 Hz D. Oscillation 131. What occurs when periodic impulses are 136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies 126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is applied to a system and frequency equal to one of are above __________. _______ its amplitude. its natural frequencies of oscillation? A. 10,000 Hz A. directly proportional to A. Beat B. 20,000 Hz B. inversely proportional to B. Resonance C. 30,000 Hz C. equal to C. Doppler effect D. 40,000 Hz D. independent of D. Shock wave 137. What occur when the individual particles of a 127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that medium vibrate from side to side perpendicular to occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body in the direction in which the waves travel? A. Longitudinal waves A. 10 W/m2 C. Lenz’s law B. Transverse waves B. 0.1 W/m2 D. Faraday’s law C. Wave motions C. 1 W/m2 148. What refers to a region of space at every point D. Shock waves D. 0.01 W/m2 of which an appropriate test object would 138. “When two or more waves of the same mature 143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must experience a force? travel just a given point at the same time, the have a minimum intensity of ______ W/m2? amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude A. Energy field of the individual waves”. This statement is known as A. 10^-10 B. Electric field ________. B. 10^-11 C. magnetic field C. 10^-12 D. Force field A. Mach principle D. 10^-13 149. The _________ of an electric field is the B. Doppler principle 144. How many decibels should a sound to be electric potential energy per unit volume associated C. Principle of superposition barely audible? with it. D. Wave motion principle 139. What occurs when the resulting composite A. 0 A. capacitance wave has amplitude greater than that of either of B. 1 B. polar energy the original waves? C. 0.1 C. energy density D. 1.5 D. dielectric distance A. Local interference 145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed 150. What is the ratio between the charge on either B. Ordinary interference of sound is called the _________. plates of a capacitor and the potential difference C. Constructive interference between the plates? D. Destructive interference A. Wave factor 140. What occurs when the resulting composite B. Supersonic number A. Resistance wave has amplitude less than that of either of the C. Sonic number B. Inductance original waves? D. Mach number C. Capacitance 146. “The net electric charge in an isolated system D. Potential difference A. Local interference remains constant”. This statement is known as 151. What refers to the measure of how effective a B. Ordinary interference ________. material is in reducing an electric field set up across C. Constructive interference a sample of it? D. Destructive interference A. Principle of conservation of attraction 141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries B. Principle of conservation of charge A. Electronegativity energy per unit cross-sectional area is called C. Coulomb’s law B. Potential difference ________. D. Principle of superconductivity C. Dielectric constant 147. “The force one charge exerts on another is D. Energy density A. beats directly proportional to the magnitudes of the 152. The potential difference across a battery, a B. frequency charges and inversely proportional to the square of generator or other source of electric energy when it C. gain the distance between them”. This statement is is not connected to any external circuit is called its D. intensity known as ________. ________. 142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans. A. Coulomb’s law A. electromechanical force B. Kirchhoff’s law B. electrostatic force C. electromotive force A. 0.1 candela C. Maxwell’s hypothesis D. internal resistance B. 1.0 candela D. Doppler’s effect 153. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit C. 10 candela 164. Light ray that passes at an angle from one area? D. 100 candela medium to another is deflected at the surface 159. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 between the two media. What is this phenomenon A. Luminous intensity candela source? called? B. Luminous efficiency C. Illumination A. 2π lm A. Dispersion D. Lumen B. 4π lm B. Reflection 154. What refers to the brightness of a light source? C. 8π lm C. Refraction D. π lm D. Incidence A. Luminous intensity 160. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a 165. “Every point on the wavefront can be B. Illumination light source per watt of power input? considered as a source of secondary wavelets that C. Luminous flux spread out in all directions with the wave speed of D. Luminous efficiency A. Luminous factor the medium. The wavefront at any time is the 155. What is the approximate luminous intensity of B. Luminous efficiency envelope of these wavelets”. This statement is a candle? C. Luminous intensity known as ________. D. Illumination A. 1 candela 161. What coating material is used in the inside of A. Huygen’s principle B. 1 flux the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light when B. Snell’s law C. 1 lumen it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation? C. Maxwell’s hypothesis D. All of the above D. Doppler’s effect 156. What unit is defined in terms of the light A. Mercury 166. What is an imaginary surface the joins points emitted by a small pool of platinum at its melting B. Inert gas where all the waves from a source are in the same point? C. Phosphor phase of oscillation? D. Argon A. Footcandle 162. What refers to the ratio between the speed of A. Gamma ray B. Candela light in free space and its speed in a particular B. Wavefront C. Lux medium? C. Electromagnetic wave D. Lumen D. Microwave 157. What refers to the total amount of visible light A. Index of refection 167. What refers to the effect when a beam given off by a light source? B. Total internal reflection containing more than one frequency is split into a C. Index of dispersion corresponding number of different beams when it is D. Index of refraction refracted? A. Luminous intensity B. Luminous flux 163. “The ratio of the sines of the angles of C. Luminous efficiency incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the A. Flux D. Illumination speeds of light in the two media”. This statement is B. Refraction 158. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls known as ________. C. Reflection on each square meter of a sphere 1 meter in radius D. Dispersion at whose center is a ________ light source that A. Huygen’s principle 168. What refers to the band of colors that emerges radiates equally well in all directions. B. Snell’s law from the prism? A. Spectrum A. Focal index D. minorpia B. Luminance B. Focal factor 180. What lens is commonly used to correct C. Facet C. Focal length nearsightedness? D. Reflection D. All of the above 169. What is the index of refraction of air? 175. In optical system, what refers to the ratio of A. Magnifying lens the image height to the object height? B. Convergent lens A. 1.3 C. Divergent lens B. 1.03 A. Linear magnification D. Microscopic lens C. 1.003 B. Object magnification 181. What lens is commonly used to correct D. 1.0003 C. Image magnification farsightedness? 170. What is the index of refraction of water? D. Height magnification 176. If the linear magnification of an optical system A. Magnifying lens A. 1.33 is less than one, it means that: B. Convergent lens B. 1.63 C. Divergent lens C. 1.43 A. the image and the object are of the same D. Microscopic lens D. 1.53 size 182. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea 171. What type of lens deviates parallel light B. the image is larger than the object having different curvatures in different planes? outward as though it originated at a single virtual C. the image is smaller than the object focal point? D. the image may be larger or smaller than the A. Astigmatism object B. Myopia A. Magnifying lens 177. A camera usually uses what type of lens to C. Hyperopia B. Convergent lens form an image on a light-sensitive photographic D. Presbyopia C. Divergent lens film? 183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between D. Microscopic lens the angles subtended at the eye by the image and 172. What type of lens bring parallel light to a single A. Magnifying lens the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen real focal point? B. Convergent lens directly? C. Divergent lens A. Magnifying lens D. Microscopic lens A. Magnifying power B. Convergent lens 178. One of the common defects of vision is B. Linear magnification C. Divergent lens _______ commonly known as nearsightedness. C. Angular magnification D. Microscopic lens D. Object magnification 173. Which one best describes the meniscus lens? A. hyporopia 184. What type of mirror that curves inward its B. hyperopia center and converges parallel light to a single real A. It has only concave surfaces. C. myopia focal point? B. It has only convex surfaces. D. minorpia C. it has no concave surface and no convex 179. One of the common defects of vision is ______ A. Convex mirror surface. commonly known as farsightedness. B. Concave mirror D. It has one concave surface and one convex C. Spherical mirror surface A. hyporopia D. Chromatic mirror 174. What is the distance from a lens to its focal B. hyperopia 185. What type of mirror that curves outward point called? C. myopia toward its center and diverges parallel light as though the reflected light came from a single virtual B. Polarization 196. What consists of various wavelengths of light focal point behind the mirror? C. Coherent waves absorbed by a substance when white light is passed D. Reflection through it? A. Convex mirror 191. The emission of electrons from a metal surface B. Concave mirror when light shines on it is called _______. A. Excited spectrum C. Spherical mirror B. Light spectrum D. Chromatic mirror A. Absorption effect C. Absorption spectrum 186. What refers to an artificially made polarizing B. Spectrum emission D. Emission spectrum material that transmits light with only a single plane C. Quantum effect 197. Every electron has a certain amount of angular of polarization? D. Photoelectric effect momentum called its _________. 192. What are high-frequency electromagnetic A. Quartz waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on A. spin B. Fiber optic matter? B. shell C. Polaroid C. state D. Tounnaline A. Beta rays D. quantum number 187. In optical system, what refers to its ability to B. Alpha rays 198. What is the distance from a lens to its focal produce separate images of nearby objects? C. X-rays point called? D. De Broglie waves A. Coherent power 193. What refers to the increase in the measured A. Focal index B. Brewster’s power mass of an object when it is moving relative to an B. Focal factor C. Polarization power observer? C. Focal length D. Resolving power D. All of the above 188. The resolving power of an equal system is A. Exclusion principle 199. What does LASER stands for? _________ the objective lens of the optical system? B. Quantum theory of mass C. State of mass A. Light amplification by spectral emission of A. directly proportional D. Relativity of mass radiation B. inversely proportional 194. What device is used for producing a narrow, B. Light amplification by state emission of C. equal monochromatic, coherent beam of light? radiation D. not related to C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of 189. What refers to the ability of waves to bend A. Spectral device radiation around the edges of obstacles in their paths? B. Prism D. Light amplification by saturated emission of C. Fiber optic radiation A. Coherence D. Laser 200. A free falling object is acted upon by which of B. Reflection 195. What consists of various wavelengths of light the following? C. Refraction emitted by an excited substance? D. Diffraction A. Weight of the body 190. What refers to a series of parallel slits that A. Excited spectrum B. Air resistance and gravitational pull produces a spectrum through the interference of B. Light spectrum C. Gravitational pull light that is diffracted? C. Absorption spectrum D. Air resistance D. Emission spectrum A. Diffraction grating 201. If the forces acting on a falling body balance C. Electromanometer A. 10^-12 one another, the body continues to fall at a constant D. Sphygmomanometer B. 10^-10 velocity. What is thus constant velocity called? 207. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves and X- C. 10^-8 rays have in common? D. 10^-6 A. Instantaneous velocity 213. What refers to a measure of the energy of B. Free-falling body A. These waves were predicted by only one sound? C. Gravitational velocity person, James Maxwell. D. Terminal velocity B. These do not need a medium to travel in. A. Intensity 202. The first law of motion is also known as C. These waves are all mechanical waves. B. Loudness ___________. D. These waves are all serendipitous C. Pitch discoveries. D. Sone A. Law of acceleration 208. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic 214. What refers to the sensation in the ear which B. Law of inertia waves in 1865? depends on the energy in the sound wave? C. Law of interaction D. Law of momentum A. Roentgen A. Pitch 203. The second law of motion is also known as B. Maxwell B. Intensity _________. C. Tesla C. Loudness D. Doppler D. Timbre A. Law of acceleration 209. What is the velocity of light in meters per 215. How can loudness of sound be increased? B. Law of inertia second? C. Law of interaction A. By increasing the energy of sound D. Law of momentum A. 3 x 10^6 B. By preventing sound waves to spread in 204. The third law of motion is also known as B. 3 x 10^9 different directions. __________. C. 3 x 10^7 C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at D. 3 x 10^8 the receiving end. A. Law of acceleration 210. What is the sound level of the threshold of D. All of the choices. B. Law of inertia pain? 216. Which of the following is dependent upon the C. Law of interaction frequency of sound vibrations? D. Law of momentum A. 100 dB 205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the car’s B. 110 dB A. Timbre motion. What is this force called? C. 120 dB B. Loudness D. 130 dB C. Intensity A. Reverse effective force 211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold D. Pitch B. Terminal force of pain? 217. The “Doppler effect” is named after which C. Drag force scientist? D. Aerodynamic force A. 1 206. What instrument is used to measure blood B. 10 A. Christopher Jacques Doppler pressure of human beings? C. 0.1 B. Christian Jacques Doppler D. 0.01 C. Christopher Jason Doppler A. Stropomanometer 212. What is the intensity of the threshold of D. Christian Johann Doppler B. Pumpmanometer hearing in W/m2? 218. When a person tells you that the pitch of your A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch. D. Green voice is high, he is referring to _________. B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch. 229. What color has the shortest wavelength? C. A high-frequency sound has low energy. A. the intensity of your voice D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and A. Indigo B. the number of sound waves you are sending low energy. B. Violet out per second 224. What part of the human ear where sound C. Blue C. the loudness of your voice energy is converted into electrical energy? D. Green D. the equality of your voice 230. What is the wavelength band of orange? 219. At what intensity level will a noise be A. Ear drum considered pollutant in the environment? B. Cochlea A. 550 nm – 600 nm C. Tympanum B. 600 nm – 650 nm A. Above 50 dB D. Ear canal C. 650 nm – 700 nm B. Above 100 dB 225. In which medium do sound waves travel the D. 500 nm – 550 nm C. Above 120 dB faster? 231. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of D. Above 150 dB visible light? 220. The velocity of sound in air increases by how A. Liquids many m/s for every 1ºC increase in temperature? B. Solids A. 350 – 700 C. Gases B. 350 – 800 A. 0.2 D. Vacuum C. 300 – 700 B. 0.4 226. Who provide evidence that light and D. 300 – 800 C. 0.6 electromagnetic waves have the same nature and 232. What terms is used to describe the angular D. 0.8 that they travel at the same speed and exhibit the opening of a sphere that encloses the mirror? 221. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than same properties such as refraction, reflection and in air? interference? A. Angle of curvature B. Focal point A. Because water has greater density than air. A. Townes C. Aperture B. Because water has greater bulk modulus B. Maxwell D. Vertex than air. C. Hertz 233. What makes the sun visible even before it is in C. Because water has more in terms of number D. Huygens the line with the horizon? of molecules than air. 227. Which of the following has the smallest D. Because water has more in volume than air. wavelength band? A. Diffraction 222. What will happen to the wavelength if the B. Reflection velocity and frequency of a wave are both reduced A. Blue C. Refraction to one-half? B. Indigo D. Diffusion C. Green 234. When the white light is passed through a A. It will double. D. Yellow prism, the different lights are bent to varying B. It will reduce in half. 228. What color has the longest wavelength? degrees and are dispersed into different colors. C. It will quadruple. Which of these colors bends the most? D. It will remain the same. A. Orange 223. Which of the following statements is TRUE? B. Red A. Violet C. Yellow B. Red C. Orange D. It is the absorption of white light in the D. Visible spectrum D. Green atmosphere. 245. What refers to the property of some media to 235. When the white light is passed through a 240. What is dispersion? transmit light wave in a diffused matter to make prism, the different lights are bent to varying objects behind them undistinguishable? degrees and are dispersed into different colors. A. It is the scattering of white light behind an Which of these colors bends the least? obstruction. A. Lucidity B. It is the separation of white light into its B. Limpidity A. Violet component colors. C. Transparent B. Red C. It is the merging of component colors into D. Translucent C. Orange white light. 246. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic D. Green D. It is the absorption of white light in the waves shorter than the visible violet wave but 236. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to atmosphere longer than the Roentgen ray? _______. 241. What are primary colors? A. Beta ray A. diffraction A. Blue, Red and White B. Ultraviolet light B. reflection B. Light colors C. Alpha ray C. refraction C. Colors which when combined produce white D. X-ray D. diffusion light 247. What refers to the part of the shadow from 237. What refers to the defect in lenses which D. Blue, Red and Green which all light is excluded? causes unequal refraction of the different colors? 242. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and is consists of a glass tube sealed at A. Footprint A. Chromatic diffraction one end filled with mercury and a slide with a B. Lumbra B. Chromatic polarization vernier scale? C. Umbra C. Chromatic aberration D. Sunspot D. Chromatic dispersion A. Bourdon gage 248. The range of the projectile is: 238. What property of a light wave is determined by B. Aneroid barometer its wavelength? C. Mercury barometer A. directly proportional to the gravitational D. Manometer acceleration A. Color 243. A wave that needs a material medium through B. directly proportional to the square of the B. Shape which it can travel as it transfers energy? velocity C. Size C. directly proportional to the velocity D. Density A. Electromagnetic wave D. inversely proportional to the velocity 239. What is diffraction? B. Radiowave 249. What instrument is used to measure humidity C. Microwave of air? A. It is the scattering of white light behind an D. Mechanical wave obstruction. 244. What refers to the band of colors produced A. Hydrometer B. It is the separation of white light into its when sunlight passes through a prism? B. Hygrometer component colors. C. Lactometer C. It is the merging of component colors into A. Light spectrum D. Radiometer white light. B. Solar spectrum 250. It explains combustion as a result of loss of a C. White spectrum substance. a. Phlogiston c. Enthalpy Of Solution 261. It is customary to indicate accuracy by using a b. Roasting d. Partition Coefficient certain numbers of figures or digits. c. Reduction 256. It is a product of the weathering of complex d. Fission silicates, particularly of feldspars which are a. atomic mass unit 251. The volume of a definite quantity of dry gas is abundant minerals. b. International system inversely proportional to the pressure provided the c. significant figures temperature remains constant. a. clay d. supplementary units b. chalk 262. It is required for organic compounds. a. Charles’ Law c. pyrite b. Boyle’s Law d.diamond a. hydrogen c. Gay-Lussac’s Law 257. Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a given b. oxygen d. Dalton’s Law subshell singly before pairing begins. These c. boron 252. It refers to matter that do not have definite unpaired electrons have parallel spins. This is known d. carbon form or structure. as: 263. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit scale have the same a. Amorphous a. Building Up Principle temperature? b. Morphous b. Aufbau Principle c. Transient c. Hund’s rule A. – 40 d. Extrinsic d.David’s rule B. – 30 253. Three grams of sulphur dissolved in 200 g of 258. This law states that at constant temperature C. – 20 naphthalene C10H8, was found decreasing the the volume of a sample of gas varies inversely with D. – 25 freezing point of the solvent to 0.72 ⁰C. Find the the pressure. 264. The _______ of the source is the luminous flux molecular weight of the solute. (Kf C10H8 = 6.9 per unit area of the source. ⁰C/molar) a. Avogadro’s Law b. Boyle’s Law A. luminous emittance a. 351.16 g/mole c. Charle’s Law B. luminous efficiency b. 115.32 g/mole d. Gay-Lussac’s Law C. luminous intensity c. 135.61 g/mole 259. It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles D. illumination d. 151.23 g/mole 265. Brightness is the same as __________. 254. Substance having a pH level less than 7 a. Mott Scaterring b. Tyndall Effect A. luminous emittance a. acid c. Rayleigh Scattering B. luminous efficiency b. base d. Wolf Effect C. luminous intensity c. salt 260. Consider H3AsO3, Arsenic acid D. illumination d. hydrate (H=1.01,As=74.9,O=16.0).How many mole is 1kg 266. What is a monochromatic light? 255. It is the enthalpy change associated with the of H3AsO3? condensation of gaseous positive and negative ion A. Light with only one color into a crystal. a. 7.94 moles B. Light with only one wavelength b. 6.94 moles C. Light with only one color and one a Raoult’s Law c. 5.94 moles wavelength b. Lattice Energy d. 8.94 moles D. Light with many colors 267. What is a three-dimensional image of an object A. Interference 278. What refers to two colors which combine to illuminated by a broad band of coherent light? B. Superposition form white light? C. Reinforcement A. Hologram D. Polarization A. Complementary colors B. Polygram 273. What type of waves is produced in the stem B. Secondary colors C. Opaque image when tuning fork? C. Primary colors D. Translucent image D. Elementary colors 268. In opaque material, A. Transverse wave 279. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of B. Longitudinal wave unseparated wavelength is called ________. A. light is able to pass through C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal B. the reflected energy is absorbed within a wave A. visible spectrum very thin layer and converted to heat D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave B. continuous spectrum C. light is partially absorbed 274. The moment of inertia of an object is C. emission spectrum D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a dependent on which of the following? D. discontinuous spectrum thick layer and converted to heat 280. What refers to the emission of electrons from a 269. In translucent material, A. The object’s size and shape heated metal in a vacuum? B. The object’s mass A. light is able to pass through C. The location of the axis of rotation A. Geiger effect B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a D. All of the above B. Edison effect very thin layer and converted to heat 275. Which of the following statements about center C. Eddy current C. light is partially absorbed of gravity is TRUE? D. Fraunhofer effect D. the reflected energy is absorbed within a 281. The six colors of which sunlight is composed thick layer and converted to heat A. It may be outside the object are called __________. 270. In transparent material, B. It is always at its geometrical center C. It is always in the interior of the object A. secondary colors A. light is able to pass through D. It is sometimes arbitrary B. primary colors B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a 276. A diatomic scale is a musical scale build up of C. complementary colors very thin layer and converted to heat how many major chords? D. elementary colors C. light is partially absorbed 282. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a A. 2 from an incandescent solid, liquid and gas is thick layer and converted to heat B. 3 271. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different C. 4 called ________. media is known as ________. D. 5 277. A chromatic scale is a diatomic scale with how A. visible spectrum A. index of refraction many added half tones? B. continuous spectrum B. index of diffraction C. emission spectrum C. relative index of refraction A. 2 D. discontinuous spectrum D. index of diffusion B. 3 283. What is the type of force which binds the 272. What occurs when two waves combine so that C. 4 protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an one subtracts from the other? D. 5 atom? A. Drag force B. Radioactive counter A. Polariscope B. Bind force C. Fraunhofer counter B. Polarimeter C. Exchange force D. Geiger effect C. Polargraph D. Intact force 289. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones D. Polagraph 284. The “f” number of the lens is the ration of the: whose frequencies are whole number multiples of 295. What refers to the property of sound waves the fundamentals? which depends on the number of harmonics present A. focal length of the lens to the effective and on their prominence? aperture A. Harmony B. effective aperture to the focal length of the B. Beats A. Pitch lens C. Treble and bass B. Quality C. magnifying power of lens to effective D. Harmonics C. Harmonic aperture 290. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit D. Fundamental D. effective aperture to magnifying power of images having wavelengths characteristic of the 296. What refers to the failure of one set of color the lens atoms parent is called __________. receptors in the eye to be stimulated? 285. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number of radioactive nuclei will A. line spectrum A. Retinal failure disintegrate? B. continuous spectrum B. Retinal fatigue C. slit spectrum C. Pupil imperfection A. active life D. image spectrum D. Astigmatism B. half cycle 291. What is an instrument used to determine the 297. The theory that the retina of the eye is C. half life mass of atomic particles? provided with three sets of receptors, each of which D. half period is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is 286. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a A. Mass indicator known as ___________. musical tone source? B. Mass spectrograph C. Mass counter A. True color vision theory A. Treble D. Mass technograph B. Young – Helmholtz color vision theory B. Bass 292. What is a nucleon? C. Primary vision theory C. Octave D. Young – Huygen primary vision theory D. Fundamental A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom. 298. What is a probable explanation for observe 287. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom. phenomena which is supported by abundant data? short wavelength emitted from the nucleus of a C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom. radioactive atom? D. A proton or a neutron of an atom. A. Theory 293. What is a glass bottle used to determine the B. Hypothesis A. Beta ray specific gravity of liquids? C. Axiom B. Alpha ray D. Conclusion C. Gamma ray A. Beaker 299. A tempered scale is a musical scale with D. X-ray B. Flask _______ equal frequency ratio intervals between 288. What is an instrumental used to detect and C. Pyonometer the successive notes of an octave. measure radioactivity? D. Graduated cylinder 294. What is an instrument used to determine the A. 9 A. Edison counter angle of rotation of the plane of polarized light? B. 10 C. 11 A. 20 N A. 739.7 Hz D. 1 B. 30 N B. 857.4 Hz 300. What is unifying theory applicable to the C. 10 N C. 716.4 Hz divergent phenomena of light which assumes that D. 40 N D. 786.7 Hz the transfer of energy between light and matter 305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m and a 310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward each occurs only in discrete quantities proportional to the mass of 21.0 g in under tension of 6.4 x 103 N, other at speeds of 45km/hr and 70 km/hr frequency of the energy transferred? what is the fundamental frequency? respectively. If A blowing its horn, what is the relative pitch heard by a passenger in B, considering A. Quantum theory A. 225 Hz that the velocity of sound is 344 m/s B. Radioactive theory B. 187 Hz C. Nuclear energy C. 255 Hz A. 1.043 D. Quark energy D. 290 Hz B. 1.021 301. The wavelength of a source wave in a certain 306. A rope 4 ft long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow on the C. 1.096 material as measured is 18 cm. The frequency of rope produces a transverse wave. Determine the D. 1.078 the wave is 1900 Hz. Compute the speed of sound velocity of the wave considering that the tension is 311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 km from wave? 40 lb. the observer. How long after the explosion does a person hear if the temperature is 18°C? Note: the A. 342 m/s A. 75.8 ft/s speed of sound at STP (standard temperature and B. 400 m/s B. 95.7 ft/s pressure) is 332 m/s and changes by 0.6 m/s for C. 542 m/s C. 78.5 ft/s every 1 °C change in temperature. D. 300 m/s D. 85.8 ft/s 302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass of 2.5 307. What is the relative intensity level of sound in A. 14.58 s grams. What must be the tension in the cord if the decibels it its intensity is 3 x 10-7 W/cm2? B. 12.45 s wavelength of a 120 Hz wave on it is to be 50 cm? C. 11.87 s A. 94.8 D. 17.54 s A. 1.50 N B. 78.7 312. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at B. 1.80 N C. 80.5 temperature of 25°C considering that the molecular C. 2.50 N D. 75.4 mass if this gas is 20.18 kg/mol? Neon is D. 4.30 N 308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 monoatomic. Use k = 1.67 303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator at dynes/cm^2 and a velocity of 35.7 m/s, what is the its end. Determine the speed of transverse waves absolute intensity considering that 0.001293gm/cm? A. 543.7 m/s on the string if it resonates four segments? B. 478.6 m/s A. 1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2 C. 321.7 m/s A. 340 m/s B. 1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm2 D. 447.5 m/s B. 360 m/s C. 3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2 313. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose C. 430 m/s D. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm2 frequency is 5 x 1014 Hz? D. 420 m/s 309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz 304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates in its approaches a station at the rate of 35mph. What A. 800 mm fundamental to a frequency of 250 Hz. What is the frequency is heard by a man standing at the station B. 200 mm tension in the string if 80 cm of the string “weighs” considering the velocity of sound in air 1100 ft/s? C. 600 mm 0.80 grams? D. 700 mm 314. What is the angle of refraction of light as a C. 67.4° that the object be placed so that its image appears beam of parallel light enters a block of ice at angle D. 50.9° on the screen? of incidence of 30°? The index of refraction of ice is 319. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 1.31 and that of air is 1.0. 1000 lumens and distributed uniformly over 25% of A. 43.5 cm a sphere. What is the luminous intensity at 2.5- B. 35.7 cm A. 45° meter distance? C. 27.6 cm B. 30° D. 50.7 cm C. 22° A. 413 cd 324. In what positions will a converging lens of focal D. 26° B. 243 cd length 10 cm from an image of luminous object on a 315. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45° on one C. 134 cd screen located 50 cm from the object? side of a glass plate of index of refraction 1.6. Find D. 318 cd the angle at which the ray emerges from the other 320. A light bulb emits a total luminous flux of 1700 A. 11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object side of the plate. lumens, distributed uniformly over a hemisphere. B. 10 cm and 40 cm from the object What is the illuminance at a distance of 2 meters? C. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the object A. 26° D. 12.56 cm and 37.44 cm from the object B. 20° A. 67.65 lm/m2 325. A lens has a convex surface of radius 17 cm C. 22° B. 35.70 lm/m2 and a concave surface of radius 38 cm and is made D. 28° C. 59.87 lm/m2 of glass of refractive index 1.55. Calculate the focal 316. It was found out that the speed of light in D. 23.56 lm/m2 length of the lens and classify the type of lens water is 75% of its speed in vacuum. What is the 321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 10 ft whether diverging or converging? index of refraction of water? below. A chair sits on the floor of the bunker 3 feet from a spot directly below the bulb. What is the A. 55.93 cm converging lens A. 1.46 illumination on the floor around the chair if the B. 57.45 cm diverging lens B. 1.33 luminous intensity is 150 candles? C. 55.93 cm diverging lens C. 1.26 D. 57.45 cm converging lens D. 1.67 A. 2.38 footcandles 326. A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a B. 2.43 footcandles 18 cm. When an object is 20 cm from the lens, a refractive index of 1.55. Compute how long will it C. 3.87 footcandles real image is formed 30 cm from the lens. What is take for a pulse of light to pass through the plate? D. 1.38 footcandles the focal length of the lens? 322. A light ray passing through air and strikes a A. 4.41 x 10-12 s glass surface at an angle of 55° from the normal A. 11 cm B. 3.11 x 10-11 s surface. What is the angle between the reflected B. 10 cm C. 1.34 x 10-12 s light and the surface? C. 12 cm D. 2.34 x 10-11 s D. 14 cm 318. A light passes from glass to water. If the index A. 55° 327. A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and of refraction for glass is 1.54 and for water is 1.33, B. 25° 24 cm. When an object is 30 cm from the lens, a compute the critical angle for this light to pass the C. 35° real image is formed 45 cm from the lens. Compute glass. D. 45° the refractive index of the lens material 323. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is A. 59.7° placed 37 cm in front of a screen. At what distance A. 1.64 B. 45.8° B. 1.32 C. 1.21 C. 20.78 cm 337. What is the frequency of photon having energy D. 1.76 D. 17.55 cm of 2 eV? 328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a mean 333. If a beam of polarized light has one-twelfth of spherical luminous intensity of 66.5 candelas. its initial intensity after passing through an analyzer, A. 560 THz Compute the total luminous flux radiated by the what is the angle between the axis of the analyzer B. 300 THz lamp? and the initial amplitude of the beam? C. 250 THz D. 480 THz A. 842 lm A. 65.73° 338. A red light passes an empty space. What is the B. 457 lm B. 76.27° momentum of a single photon of red light whose C. 786 lm C. 73.22° frequency is 400 x 1012 HZ? D. 987 lm D. 67.54° 329. A 250 W light source has a mean spherical 334. An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 A. 8.8 x 10 -28 kg m/s luminous intensity of 87.5 candelas. Compute the m long when at rest. He passed by in uniform B. 7.6 x 10 -28 kg m/s luminous intensity of the lamp? motion with the speed of 0.5 c. While the observer C. 5.4 x 10 -28 kg m/s is watching the spaceship, a time of 2 s elapses on a D. 6.5 x 10 -28 kg m/s A. 4.7 lm/s clock on board the ship, what is the length of the 339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x 10^-18 J of B. 4.4 lm/s moving spaceship? electromagnetic energy. How many photons of C. 2.0 lm/s orange light whose wavelength is 600 nm present in D. 1.7 lm/s A. 82 m the energy? 330. Compute the illumination on a surface 5 ft B. 85 m distance from a 100-cd source if the surface makes C. 83 m A. 5 an angle of 18° with the rays? D. 87 m B. 4 335. The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of C. 3 A. 1.67 lm/ft2 light towards earth and then exactly 1 min. later (as D. 1 B. 1.50 lm/ft2 measured by the clock on the spacecraft), sends a 340. What is the speed of sound through C. 1.24 lm/ft2 second pulse. An observer on earth sees the second compressed water (100 kPa) if its volume decreased D. 2.13 lm/ft2 pulse arrive 4 minutes after the first. What is the by 0.005% of its original volume? 331. Estimate the distance for which a 30-cd lamp velocity of the spacecraft relative to the earth? provide the same illumination as a standard lamp of A. 1414 m/s 80-cd placed 17 ft from the screen? A. 0.987c B. 1250 m/s B. 0.968c C. 1130 m/s A. 9.76 ft C. 0.954c D. 1200 m/s B. 8.5 ft D. 0.953c 341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if the sound C. 12.7 ft 336. What is the rest energy of electron equivalent waves traveled at approximately 5900 m/s? Note: D. 10.41 ft to its rest mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x 10^-13 J and mass the density of steel is 7900 kg/m3 332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 of electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg. cm and an index of refraction 1.53. Find the radius A. 2.75 x 1011 Pa of the convex surface. A. 0.512 MeV B. 1.25 x 1011 Pa B. 0.987 MeV C. 1.15 x 1011 Pa A. 18.55 cm C. 0.345 MeV D. 2.45 x 1011 Pa B. 15.78 cm D. 0.675 MeV 342. A certain loud speaker has a circular opening C. 1.56 x 10-31 kg energy per unit volume have the same value.” The with a diameter of 15 cm. Assume that the sound it D. 1.61 x 10-31 kg concept is known as emits is uniform and outward through this entire 347. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m directly opening. How much power is being radiated by the above the table. To what distance should it be A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles loudspeaker if the sound intensity at opening is lowered to increase the illumination to 4.45 times its B. Fluid theorem 150µW/m^2? former value? C. Pascal’s theorem D. Hydraulic theorem A. 1.77 µW A. 4.02 m 352. The work done by all forces except the B. 1.87 µW B. 3.86 m gravitational force is always equal to the one of the C. 2.65 µW C. 3.79 m system. D. 3.41 µW D. 4.21 m 343. Sound intensity that reaches 1.2 W/m2 is 348. A floodlight emitting 25,000 candelas in the A. Total mechanical energy painful to human ear. How many decibels is 1.2 center of its beam is aimed at 50° to a point on the B. Total potential energy W/m2? ground 20 meters away. The illumination of the C. Total kinetic energy point in flux is: D. Total momentum A. 240.5 dB 353. When the two waves of the same frequency, B. 170.4 dB A. 54.12 speed and amplitude traveling in opposite directions C. 120.8 dB B. 62.5 are superimposed, D. 134.5 dB C. 31.25 344. Compute the ratio of the intensities of sounds D. 625 A. the phase difference is always zero if one is 12 times louder than the other? 349. Compute the speed of sound in neon gas at B. distractive waves are produced 27°C of molecular mass 20.18 kg/kmol and k of C. standing waves are produced A. 13.47 dB 1.67. D. constructive interference always results to B. 15.85 dB zero C. 18.76 dB A. 454 m/s 354. According to this law, “The force between two D. 14.54 dB B. 564 m/s charges varies directly as the magnitude of each 345. An automobile moving at 30 m/s is C. 356 m/s charge and inversely as the square of the distance approaching a building whistle with a frequency of D. 434 m/s between them.” 500 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s what 350. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of is the apparent frequency of the whistle heard by refraction 5.4 and radii of curvature of 2.95 feet and A. Law of Universal Gravitation the driver? 4.27 feet for the two faces. What is the B. Newton’s Law magnification of the lens when it is held 2.36 inches C. Inverse Square Law A. 459 Hz from an object being viewed? D. Coulomb’s Law B. 458 Hz 355. It describes the luminous flux incidence per C. 457 Hz A. 1.6 unit area and is expressed in lumens per square D. 456 Hz B. 2.78 meter. 346. What is the mass of electron traveling at half C. 2.16 the speed of light? D. 1.98 A. Illuminance 351. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal B. Luminance A. 1.05 x 10-30 kg fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure, the C. Luminous Intensity B. 2.31 x 10-30 kg potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic D. Radiance 356. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. A. Q = -mif A. increases This is known as B. Q = -miv B. remains unaffected C. Q = mif C. decreases A. Pascal’s Principle D. Q = miv D. Any of the above is possible B. Bernoulli’s Theorem 362. Which of the following is true? The density of 368. Which one of the following processes of heat C. Ideal Fluid Principle water transfer requires the presence of a fluid? D. Archimedes Principle 357. The amount of heat needed to change solid to A. Is maximum at 4oC A. conduction liquid is B. Decreases as the temperature is increased B. convection C. Is minimum at 4oC C. radiation A. condensation D. Increases with temperature D. none of the above B. cold fusion 363. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its 369. When salt is added to water, its boiling point C. latent heat of fusion D. solid fusion A. frequency decreases A. increases 358. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor B. wavelength is increased B. decreases pressure C. frequency increases C. remains unaffected D. None of the above is true D. may increase/decrease depending on the A. is equal to external pressure on the surface 364. Cohesion is the attraction between like pressure of the liquid 370. Which one of the following propagates with the B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure A. atom same speed as speed of light? C. is less than the atmospheric pressure B. element D. can have any value C. compound A. The sound waves 359. Which of the following thermometers is best D. molecule B. The heat waves suited for measuring a temperature of nearly 365. The quality known as specific heat is based on: C. The shock waves 1500oC? D. The Beta rays A. the increase in temperature due to induction 371. Which of the following is not true about sound A. Gas thermometer B. the heat needed for one pound of water to waves? B. Platinum resistance thermometer boil C. Thermo couple thermometer C. the heat needed to increase the temperature A. They transmit the energy D. Mercury thermometer to one gram of a substance one degree Celsius B. They are propagated as a series of 360. The energy stored in a starched elastic D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg compressions and the rare fractions material such as spring is of lead C. They travel faster in air than in solids 366. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point D. They produce interference A. Mechanical energy of water will 372. Sound waves in air are B. Elastic potential energy C. Internal energy A. increase A. longitudinal D. Kinetic energy B. remain unaffected B. neither longitudinal nor transverse 361. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of C. decrease C. transverse fusion and vaporization, respectively, which of the D. may increase/decrease depending on the D. stationary following equations apply in determining the amount pressure 373. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which of energy needed to freeze a liquid? 367. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point the human beings can hear, is A. Less than 20 Hz C. Its volume will decrease when its 384. When the temperature of an ideal gas is B. More than 25,000 Hz temperature is lowered increased at constant pressure, C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz D. Its volume will increase when its D. All of these temperature is lowered or raised A. the potential energy of molecules increases 374. The loudness of sound depends upon its 379. Heat will flow from one body to another in B. the potential energy of molecules decreases thermal contact with it, when they differ in C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases A. Wavelength D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases B. Frequency A. mass 385. The root mean square speed of the molecules C. Amplitude B. specific mass of a gas is D. All of the above C. density 375. Sound above the frequency of 20,000 Hz is D. temperature A. independent of its pressure P called 380. The amount of heat which is absorbed during B. directly proportional to square root of P the change of state of a substance without rise in its C. directly proportional to the square of its A. Supersonic sound temperature is called its temperature T B. Intrasonic sound D. proportional to T C. Hypersonic sound A. Specific heat 386. At what temperature do both the centigrade D. Ultrasonic sound B. Latent heat and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same 376. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for C. Thermal conductivity reading? minimizing heat transfer by what process? D. Water equivalent 381. The scientist who systematically demonstrated A. -38oC A. conduction the equivalence of mechanical energy and heat was B. -40oC B. radiation C. -42oC C. convection A. Joule D. -50oC D. vaporization B. Boltzmann 387. A mercury thermometer is constructed at 377. Water starts boiling when C. Faraday D. Kelvin A. room temperature A. Its temperature reaches 100oC 382. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so B. a temperature higher than the maximum B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury hot and the water stays relatively cool is due to the range of the thermometer C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the difference in of water and sand. C. a temperature lower than the minimum external pressure on its surface range of the thermometer D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the A. density D. atmospheric pressure atmospheric pressure B. specific heat 388. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. 378. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain C. depth At hills it will be volume V. Which of the following statements is D. thermal conductivity correct? 383. The instrument, which measures temperature A. 100oC by radiation, is called B. Less than 100oC A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at C. More than 100oC 0oC A. thermopile D. May be any of the above B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at B. thermometer 389. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the 0oC C. pyrometer same distance on the sides because of: D. hydrometer A. convection of heat A. Energy and matter ball strikes the ground level 4 seconds later. B. conduction of heat B. Wavelength and matter Determine the height of window above the ground. C. radiation of heat C. Frequency only D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat D. Energy only a) 66.331 m. 390. The density of water is 396. The phenomenon of damping results in b) 66.450 m. decrease in c) 67.239 m. A. same at all temperature d) 67.492 m. B. maximum at 4oC A. frequency 402. A stone was dropped freely from a balloon at a C. minimum at 4oC B. velocity height of 190 m. above the ground. The balloon is D. maximum at 0oC C. wavelength moving upward at a speed of 30 m/s. Determine the 391. When a substance is heated, its D. amplitude velocity of the stone as it hits the ground. 397. Echo is formed as a result of A. molecules move more slowly a) 69.03 m/s B. molecules move more rapidly A. refraction of sound b) 68.03 m/s C. there is no change in the speed of its B. diffraction of sound c) 67.30 m/s molecules C. interference of sound d) 69.23 m/s D. its temperature always increases D. reflection of sound 403. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 20 m/s 392. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the 398. The characteristic of sound which enables us to from a bldg. 100 m. above the ground. Find the temperature of ice distinguish two musical notes having the same velocity and position of the stone above the ground frequency and loudness is called after 5 seconds. A. increases B. decreases A. pitch a) 4.67 m, 48.30 m/s C. remains unchanged B. intensity b) 4.54 m, 47.68 m/s D. none of these C. timber c) 5, 43 m, 47.69 m/s 393. The minimum temperature which can be D. decibel d) 5.68 m, 48.20 m/s measured with a mercury thermometer is 399. Which of the following could be a longitudinal 404. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 30 m/s wave? from the top of a tower 200 m. Determine the A. 0oC velocity of the stone and the time that it strikes the B. -273oC A. electromagnetic waves ground. C. -39oC B. a sound wave in air D. -143oC C. a water wave a) 1 1.50 sec, 65.80 m/s 394. A wave in which the particles of the material D. waves on vibrating string b) 1 1.45 sec, 66.59 m/s move up and down as the waves goes from left is 400. A Decibel is a c) 10.30 sec, 67.21 m/s called a d) 10.14 sec, 69.45 m/s A. musical instrument 405. A ball is thrown vertically with a velocity of 20 A. Longitudinal wave B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork m/s. from the top of a bldg. 100 m. high. Find the B. Transverse wave C. a measure of intensity level velocity of the stone at a height of 40 m. above the C. Standing wave D. a measure of clarity of sound ground. D. None of these 401. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial 395. When waves go from one place to another they velocity of 3 m/s from a window of a tall bldg. The a) 39.71 m/s transport b) 40.23 m/s c) 39.88 m/s 410. A ball thrown at an angle of 30º with the d) 26.35 d) 39.68 m/s horizontal from a point60 m. from the edge of a 414. A projectile is fired with a muzzle velocity of 406. A projectile is fired from the top of a cliff 92 m. vertical cliff 48 m. high. The ball just misses the 300 m/s from a gun aimed upward at an angle of high with a velocity of 430 m/s directed 45º to the edge of the cliff. Determine the initial velocity of the 20º with the horizontal, from the top of a building horizontal. Find the range on the horizontal plane ball and the distance beyond the cliff where the ball 30m. high above a level ground. With what velocity through the base of the cliff. strikes the ground. will it hit the ground in m/s?
a) 18.959 km. a) 28.4 m/sec; 32.6 m. a) 300.98
b) 23.408 km. b) 26.1 m/sec; 46.9 m. b) 310.96 c) 15.273 km. c) 27.5 m/sec; 56.5m c) 320.96 d) .20.365 km. d) 31.1m/sec; 43.2m d) 330.96 407. A stone is thrown outward, at an angle of 30º 411. A block passes a point 4 m from the edge of a 415. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an with the horizontal as shown in the drawing, into the table with a velocity of 5 m/sec. It slides off the angle of 30 with the horizontal. Find the maximum river from a cliff that is 120 meters above the water edge of the table which is 5 m. high and strikes the height that it could reach? level at a velocity of 36 kilometers per hour . At floor 3 m from the edge of the table. What was the what height above the water level will the stone coefficient of friction between the block and the a) 31.86 start to fall? table? b) 41.26 c) 28.46 a) 121.27 m. a) 0.65 d) 51.26 b) 189.29m. b) 1.04. 416. A ball is shot at a ground level at angle of 60 c) 1 1 1.38 m. c) 0.21. degrees with the horizontal with an initial velocity of d) 152.22 m. d) 0.1 1 100 m/s. Determine the height of the ball after 2 408. A stone was thrown upward at an angle of 60º 412. A ball is shot at a ground level at an angle of sec. with the horizontal and a resultant vertical speed of 60 degrees with the horizontal with an initial 100.0 meters per second. If gravity decelerates the velocity of 10 m/sec. Which of the following most a) 162.46 m. speed at 9.8 meters/sec², what is the actual speed nearly gives the maximum height (h) attained by b) 153.59 m. of the stone, in meters per second, 10.0 seconds the ball? c) 175.48 m. later, in the direction it was thrown? d) 186.42 m. a) 2.47 m 417. A ball is shot at an average speed of 200 m/sat a) 57.77 m/s b) 3.29 m an angle of 20º with the horizontal. What would be b) 64.22 m/s c) 4.61 m the velocity of the ball after 8 sec.? c) 60.35 m/s d) 3.82 m d) 67.23 m/s 413. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 30º a) 188.21m/s 409. A projectile is launched at 45º to the horizontal with the horizontal. It lands 60 m. measured b) 154.34m/s on a level ground at a speed of 60 m/s. Neglecting horizontally and 2 m. below measured vertically c) 215.53 m/s air resistance, what is the range of the projectile? from its point of release. Determine the initial d) 198.37 m/s velocity of the stone in m/s. 418. A projectile has a velocity of 200m/s acting at a) 366.86 m. an angle of 20º with the horizontal. How long will it b) 355.29 m. a) 27.35 take for the projectile to hit the ground surface? c) 663.24 m. b) 28.35 d) 386.66 m. c) 25.35 a) 13.95 sec. b) 15.75 sec. d) 875 m. weight is then raised 100 m. How much work is c) 10.1 1 sec 23. A shot is fired at an angle of 45º with the done in Joules? d) 24.23sec. horizontal and a velocity of 300 fps. Calculate, to 419. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 20º the nearest, the range of the projectile. a) 915000 with the horizontal from the top of a tower 30 m. b) 938700 high and hits the ground at a distance of 5976.4 m. a) 3500 ft. c) 951000 horizontally from the base of the tower. Find the b) 1200 ft. d) 905100 time of flight of the stone until it hits the ground. c) 4000 ft. 428. What is the kinetic energy of a 4000 lb. d) 934 yds. automobile which is moving at 44 fps. a) 21.20 sec. 424. Three crates with masses A = 45.2 kg, B = b) 22.20 sec 22.8 kg and C = 34.3 kg and are placed with B a.) 1.21 x 105 ft-lb. c) 19.39 sec. along a horizontal frictionless surface. Find the force b.) 2.1 x 105 ft-lb. d) 24.15 sec. exerted by B and C by pushing the crates to the c) 1.8 x 105 ft-lb 420. A projectile is fired upward at an angle of right with an acceleration of 1.32 m/sec². d) 1.12 x 105 ft-lb. 20ºwith the horizontal from the top of a tower 30 m. 429. A box slides from rest from point Adown a high above a level ground. Find the range on the a) 45.3 kN plane inclined 30º, to the horizontal. After reaching horizontal plane will the ball hit the ground after b) 54.2 KN the bottom of the plane, the box moves on 20.20 seconds. c) 43.2kN horizontal floor at a distance 2 m before coming to d) 38.7kN rest. If the coefficient of friction between the box a) 5386.30 m. 425. Three blocks A, Band Care placed on a and plane and between the box and floor is k = b) 5642.22 m. horizontal frictionless surface and are connected by 0.40, what is the distance of point “A” from the c) 5415.37 m. chords between A, Band C. determine the tension intersection of plane and the floor? d) 6329.33 m. between block B and C when a horizontal tensile 421. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an force is applied at C equal to 6.5 N. Masses of the a) 7.24 m angle of 30º with the horizontal. Find the time it blocks are A = 1.2 kg, B = 2.4 kg and C = 3.1 kg. b) 5.21 m would take for the projectile to reach the maximum c) 4.75 m height. a) 3.50 N d) 9.52 m b) 4.21 N 430. A 400 N block slides on a horizontal plane by a) 2.55 sec. c) 3.89 N applying a horizontal force of 200 N and reaches a b) 2.60 sec. d) 4.65 N velocity of 20 m/s in a distance of 30 m. from rest. c) 3.10 sec. 426. A constant force P = 750 N acts on the body Compute the coefficient of friction between the floor d) 2.89 sec. shown during only the first 6 m. of its motion and the block. 422. A baseball is thrown from a horizontal plane starting from rest. If u = 0.20, find the velocity of following a parabolic path with an initial velocity of the body after it has moved a total distance of 9m. a) 0.18 100 m/s at an angle of 30º above the horizontal. b) 0.24 How far from the throwing point will the ball attain a) 3.93 m/sec² c) 0.31 its original level? b) 4.73 m/sec² d) 0.40 c) 2.32 m/sec² 431. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2 a) 890 m. d) 3.1 1 m/sec² percent upgrade with a velocity of 30 mph. If the b) 884 m. 427. A weight of 9 kN is initially suspended on a 150 train resistance is 10 lb/ton, how far up the grade c) 883 m. m. long cable. The cable weighs 0.002 kN/m. If the will it go? a) 1124 ft. on slope 435. A 500 N block on a n incline plane with an b) 489.3 b) 2014 ft. on slope angle of 30º has move 3 m up the incline plane due c) 384.6 c) 1203 ft. on slope to 600 N force applied. Find the velocity of the block d) 248.7 d) 1402 ft on slope when it returns to its initial position. 440. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 432. A car weighing 10 KN is towed along a 28º with respect to the horizontal. The block is horizontal road surface at a uniform velocity of a) 8.6 m/s pushed 2 feet horizontally. What is the work done 80kph. The towing cable is parallel with the road b) 5.6 m/s by this force? surface. The road is straight and smooth. When the c) 6.4 m/s car is at the foot of an incline as shown having an d) 7.1 m/s a) 320 J elevation of 30 m, the towing cable was suddenly 436. A 10 Kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. b) 480 J cut. At what elevation in the inclined road will the What is the change in potential energy? Answer in c) 540 J car stop in its upward motion? SI units closest to: d) 215 J 441. A 50 Kg object strikes the unscratched spring a) 55.16 m a) 350 kg-m2/sec attached to a vertical wall having a spring constant b) 60.24 m b) 320 J of 20 KN/m. Find the maximum deflection of the c) 51.43 m c) 350 N-m spring. The velocity of the object before it strikes d) 49.62 m d) 294 J the spring is 40 m/s. 433. A wooden block starting from rest, slides 6 m 437. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2% down a 45º slope, then 3 m along a level surface upgrade with a velocity of 30 mph. if the car is then a) 1 m and then up a 30º incline until it comes to rest allowed to run back, what velocity will it have at the b) 2 m again. If the coefficient of friction is 0.15 for all foot of the grade? c) 3 m surfaces of contact, compute the total distance d) 4 m traveled. 442. To push a 25 Kg crate up a 27º incline plane, a a) 37fps b) 31fps worker exerts a force of 120 N, parallel to the a) 20m c) 43 fps incline. As the crates slides 3.6m, how much is the b) 1 1m d) 34 fps work done on the crate by the worker and by the c) 14 m 438. A 200 ton train is accelerated from rest to a force of gravity. d) 18m velocity of 30 mph on a level track. How much 434. A 1000 N block on a leveled surface is attached useful work was done? a) 400 J to250 N block hanging on the pulley. The pulley is 3 b) 420 J m away from the first block. If the first block started c) 380 J a) 12024845 ft-lbs at rest and moves towards the right. What is the d) 350 J b) 13827217 ft-lbs velocity of block B as it touches the ground? How far 443. A train weighing 12,000 KN is accelerated at a c) 11038738 ft-lbs will the block A travel along the horizontal surface if constant rate up a 2% grade with a velocity d) 10287846 ft-lbs the coefficient of friction between block A and the increasing from 30 kph to 50 kph in a distance of 439. A drop hammer weighing 40 KN is dropped surface is .20? Assume pulley to be frictionless. 500 meters. Determine the horse power developed freely and drives a concrete pile 150 mm into the ground. The velocity of the drop hammer at impact by the train. a) 1.44 m is6m/sec. what is the average resistance of the soil b) 2.55 m in KN? a) 5.394 kW c) 5.22 m b) 5.120 kW d) 3.25 m c) 4.486 kW a) 542.4 d) 4.591 kW 448. The speed of a compressional wave in silver, c. Chemical Equilibrium 444. An elevator has an empty weight of 5160 N. It specific gravity 10.5, is 2610 m/s. compute y for d. Distance is design to carry a maximum load of 20 passengers silver. 453. The rate of change of angular velocity with from the ground floor to the 25th floor of the respect to time. building in a time of 18 seconds. Assuming the a) 71.6 G N/m2 average weight of a passenger to be 710 N and the b) 76G N/m2 a. Angular Velocity distance between floors to be 3.5 m, what is the c) 7.16 G N/m2 b. Acceleration minimum constant power needed for the elevator d) 716 GN/m2 c. Angular Acceleration motor? 449. Two waves whose frequencies are 500 and 511 d. none of the above per second travel out from a common point. Find 454. What is a physical quantity expressing the size a) 94.3 kW their difference in phase after 1.40 s. of a part of a surface? b) 85.5 kW c) 97.4 kW a) 143° a. Lever d) 77.6 kW b) 144° b. Area 445. A piano string is 80 cm long and weighs 5 N. if c) 145° c. Measurement the string is stretched by a force of 500 N. what is d) 146° d. Bend the speed of the wave set up when the hammer 450. A copper has a density of 9 g/cm3 and a bulk 455. The rate of change of angular displacement strikes the string? modulus of 120 G N/m2. What is the speed of a with respect to time. wave through it? a) 26m/s a. Angular Velocity b) 27m/s a) 3600 m/s b. Load c) 28 m/s b) 6300 m/s c. Instantaneous d) 30m/s c) 6030 m/s d. Brittle 446. A 16-16 wire cable 100 ft. long is stretched d) 1460 m/s 456. A rigid, usually horizontal, structural element between two poles under tension of 500 lb. If the 451. The time rate of change of velocity. Since cable is struck at one end, how long will it take for velocity is a directed or vector quantity involving a. Beam Bridge the wave to travel to the far end and return? both magnitude and direction, a velocity may b. Force change by a change of magnitude (speed) or by a c. Core a) 0.63 s change of direction or both. d. Beam b) 0.64 s 457. A simple type of bridge, composed of c) 0.65 s a. Gravitation horizontal beams supported by vertical posts d) 0.66 s b. invariant mass 447. Assume that young modulus for silver is 77.5 G c. Acceleration a. Beam N/m2. If it has density 10.5×103 kg/m3, how fast d. none of the above b. Brace does sound travel through the silver? 452. The closeness of an indication or reading of a c. Beam Bridge measurement device to the actual value of the d. Buckle a) 2600m/s quantity being measured. Usually expressed as ± 458. To curve; bending occurs when a straight b) 2700m/s percent of full scale output or reading. material becomes curved; one side squeezes c) 1600 m/s together in compression, and the other side d) 1700m/s a. Accuracy stretches apart in tension. b. Compression a. Tension d. Compression based on other criteria. In mathematics, distance b. Brace 464. A projecting structure supported only at one must meet more rigorous criteria. c. Buckle end, like a shelf bracket or a diving board. d. none of the above a. Force 459. Is mechanics applied to biology (Fung). This a. Cantilever b. Distance includes research and analysis of the mechanics of b. Equilibrium c. mass living organisms and the application of engineering c. Cable d. deformation principles to and from biological systems. d. Irreversible 470. Is the mathematical description of an object or 465. A condition in which a chemical reaction is substance’s tendency to be deformed elastically (i.e. a. Biomechanics occurring at equal rates in its forward and reverse non-permanently) when a force is applied to it. b. engineering mechanics directions, so that the concentrations of the reacting c. mechanics substances do not change with time. a. modulus of elasticity d. none of the above b. fluid power 460. A structural support; a. Chemical Equilibrium c. Hydraulics b. Equilibrium d. Gravitation a. Brittle c. force 471. A profession in which acknowledge of math and b. Cable d. Pile natural science is applied to develop ways to utilize c. Brace 466. A pressing force that squeezes a material the materials and forces of nature for the benefit of d. Cantilever together. all human beings. 461. Characteristic of a material that fails without warning; brittle materials do not stretch or shorten a. force a. Mechanics before failing. b. Compression b. Engineering Mechanics c. steel c. Engineering a. Beam d. modulus d. None of the above b. Brace 467. Central region of a skyscraper; usually houses 472. A condition in which all acting influences are c. Beam Bridge elevator and stairwell. canceled by others, resulting in a stable, balanced, d. Brittle or unchanging system. 462. To bend under compression. a. Core b. physical constant a. Chemical Equilibrium a. Brittle c. gravitational attraction b. Equilibrium b. compression d. dimension c. invariant mass c. bend 468. To change shape d. Gravitation d. Buckle 473. The capacity to do work or cause physical 463. A structural element formed from steel wire a. dimension change; energy, strength, or active power: the force bound in strands; the suspending element in b. deform of an explosion. abridge; the supporting element in some dome c. deformation roofs. d. instantaneous a. Inertia 469. Is a numerical description of how far apart b. Quantity a. Beam objects are at any given moment in time. In physics c. Lever b. Cable or everyday discussion, distance may refer to a d. Force c. Brace physical length, a period of time, or estimation 474. Is a natural phenomenon by which all objects a. Inertia 484. Is the long dimension of any object? The with mass attract each other? In everyday life, b. energy length of a thing is the distance between its ends, gravitation is most commonly thought of as the c. force its linear extent as measured from end to end. agency that gives objects weight. d. none of the above 479. Occurring or completed without perceptible a. distance a. gravitational attraction delay b. rigid b. universal gravitation c. free body c. Gravitation a. volume d. length d. mass b. Shear 485. A simple machine consisting of a rigid bar 475. Is a physical constant involved in the c. Instantaneous pivoted on a fixed point and used to transmit force, calculation of the gravitational attraction between d. none of the above as in raising or moving a weight at one end by objects with mass? It appears in Newton’s law of 480. Is the same for all frames of reference? A mass pushing down on the other. universal gravitation and in Einstein’s theory of for a particle is m in the equation general relativity. a. mass a. Inertia b. invariant mass b. Quantity a. gravitational attraction c. force c. Lever b. universal gravitation d. all of the above d. Force c. Gravitation 481. That cannot be revoked or undone. 486. Weight distribution throughout a structure; d. gravitational constant loads caused by wind, earthquakes, and gravity, for 476. Is the measurement of vertical distance, but a. measurement example, affect how weight is distributed has two meanings in common use. It can either b. Irreversible throughout a structure. indicate how "tall" something is, or how "high up" it c. base unit is. d. none of the above a. Angular Velocity 482. A device connecting two or more adjacent b. Load a. magnitude parts of a structure; a roller joint allows adjacent c. Instantaneous b. Height parts to move controllably past one another; a rigid d. Brittle c. distance joint prevents adjacent parts from moving or 487. A property by which it can be large or smaller d. none of the above rotating past one another. than other objects of the same kind; in technical 477. Is a topic of science and engineering dealing terms, an ordering of the class of objects. with the mechanical properties of liquids. Hydraulics a. energy is part of the more general discipline of fluid power. b. velocity a. magnitude c. force-field b. Height a. Hydraulics d. joint c. distance b. physical body 483. Is the base unit of mass in the International d. none of the above c. fluid power System of Units (known also by its French-language 488. Is a fundamental concept in physics, roughly d. momentum initials “SI”). corresponding to the intuitive idea of "how much 478. The tendency of a body to resist acceleration; matter there is in an object". Mass is a central the tendency of a body at rest to remain at rest or a. mass concept of classical mechanics and related subjects, of a body in straight line motion to stay in motion in b. measurement and there are several definitions of mass within the a straight line unless acted on by an outside force. c. weight framework of relativistic kinematics. d. kilogram a. mass a. law of inertia d. load b. measurement b. Newton’s Law of Motion 499. A force that causes parts of a material to slide c. weight c. Newton’s Law past one another in opposite directions. d. kilogram d. none of the above 489. Is commonly defined as the substance of which 494. A long, round pole of wood, concrete, or steel a. force physical objects are composed, not counting the driven into the soil by pile drivers b. stress contribution of various energy or force-fields, which c. shear are not usually considered to be matter per se. a. Chemical Equilibrium d. momentum b. Equilibrium 500. Is a stress state where the stress is parallel or a. mass c. force tangential to a face of the material, as opposed to b. magnitude d. Pile normal stress when the stress is perpendicular to c. matter 495. Is a collection of masses, taken to be one. For the face. d. none of the above example, a cricket ball can be considered an object 490. Science of the action of forces on material but the ball also consists of many particles. a. shear stress bodies. It forms a central part of all physical science b. tensile stress and engineering. a. Hydraulics c. shear b. physical body d. none of the above a. engineering mechanics c. fluid power b. mechanics d. momentum c. mechanism 496. Is a kind of property which exists as magnitude d. none of the above or multitude? 491. Is the estimation of the magnitude of some attribute of an object, such as its length or weight, a. magnitude relative to a unit of measurement? b. fluid power c. quantity a. mass d. none of the above b. measurement 497. Ability to resist deformation when subjected to c. weight a load; the measure of a structure’s ability not to d. kilogram change shape when subjected to a load. 492. Is the product of the mass and velocity of an object? Motion – The act or process of changing a. distance position or place. b. rigid c. free body a. Hydraulics d. length b. physical body 498. Is the effort to understand, or to understand c. fluid power better, how nature works, with observable physical d. momentum evidence as the basis of that understanding. 493. The three laws proposed by Sir Isaac Newton to define the concept of a force and describe a. physics motion, used as the basis of classical mechanics. b. science c. physical evidence