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UNIVERSIDADE FEDERAL DO CEARÁ

CASA DE CULTURA BRITÂNICA
UPPER
TESTE DE NÍVEL – UPPER – PERÍODO 2012.2
NOME DO CANDIDATO: __________________________________ No. de inscrição:________

Part I – READING COMPREHENSION – Read the following text and answer questions 1 to 10.
THE BRITISH EMPIRE – A FLOURISHING POWER
The long 17th century was the period
in which Britain rose to a dominant
position among European trading
empires and became the first western
5 nation to industrialise. In 1688
England and Wales had a population
of 4.9 million and the internal
economy was still largely based on
agricultural work and production.
10 Then, domestic industry flourished, with many workers
pursuing dual occupations on a seasonal basis in
industry and agriculture. Merchants sent out ships to
trade with North America and the West Indies, where
England had established a network of colonies.
15 Some 350,000 people had emigrated from England
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mainly of woollen textiles; imports included sugar,
20 tobacco and other tropical groceries.
The triangular slave trade had begun to supply these
Atlantic colonies with African labour, for work on
tobacco, rice and sugar plantations. Trade and
settlement also occurred in Asian waters. Overseas
25 commerce was conducted through the Navigation Acts,
which stipulated that all commodity trade should take
place in British ships, manned by British seamen,
trading between British ports and those within the
empire.
30 Despite these developments, in 1688 Britain was still a
vulnerable competitor in overseas colonies and trade –
its rivals were the trading empires of France and the
Netherlands, as well as Spain and its client state,

across the Atlantic by the end of the 17th century. In Portugal.

1686 alone these colonies shipped goods worth over £1
35 Adapted from: www.bbc.co.uk
million to London. Exports to the colonies consisted
I – UNDERSTANDING THE TEXT
1. The main idea of the text above is to show:
a) the development of the commerce between the British Empire and North America.
b) how Great Britain started to spread its dominance beyond its borders.
c) the economic problems Britain faced during the 17th century.
d) how Britain became the empire that it is today.
2. The text above says that:
a) at the end of the 17th century England had almost 5 million inhabitants.
b) when the British industry started to grow, people abandoned their agricultural jobs.
c) merchants started trading first with European countries and then with the British colonies.
d) as the 17th century came to an end, thousands of people from England crossed the Atlantic Ocean.
3. Choose the CORRECT alternative according to the text.
a) By the end of the 17th century, London received £1,000 in cash from British colonies.
b) By the end of the 17th century, England exported products such as sugar and tobacco.
c) African slaves worked in British colonies on some specific types of plantations.
d) The British reached the West Indies but they did not establish any settlements.
4. Choose the INCORRECT alternative according to the text.
a) The Navigation Acts established all seamen could trade goods outside the British colonies.
b) Both Spain and Portugal competed with Britain for the international commerce and colonies.
c) With the growth of the domestic industry, the British could get jobs in both agriculture and industry.
d) In spite of the developments in Britain, the British Empire still had competitors like France and the Netherlands.
II – REFERENCE
5. The word ‘where’ (line 13) refers to:
a) North America and the West Indies c) the West Indies
b) North America d) a network of colonies
6. The word ‘which’ (line 26) refers to:
a) overseas commerce b) trade and settlement c) the Navigation Acts d) Asian waters
III – VOCABULARY
7. In the text, the word ‘flourished’ (line 10) means:
a) occurred b) was deviated c) was altered d) expanded
8. The word ‘pursuing’ (line 11) means:
a) finding b) rejecting c) looking for d) buying
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9. The word ‘Despite’ (line 30) states in the sentence the idea of:
a) contrast b) addition c) consequence d) condition
10. The word ‘manned’ (line 27) means:
a) established b) operated c) humanized d) produced
PART II – USE OF ENGLISH
For questions 11 to 20, choose the option that CORRECTLY completes the sentences. (X = no word)
11. Don’t be ________ by the future. Come see Madam Mafalda and hear her ________ predictions.
a) mystified / astonished b) mystified / astonishing c) mystify / astonishing d) mystifying / astonished
12. Beth was ________ inspired yesterday and decorated her bedroom ________.
a) extremely / beautiful b) extreme / beautifully c) extremely / beautifully d) extreme / beautiful
13. We’ve been living here _____ 2004, but Robert moved here 10 years _____.
a) since / ago b) for / already c) for / ago d) since / yet
14. It’s interesting to meet _____ foreign students, but _____ ones that go to _____ school near my house aren’t very friendly.
a) X / the / the b) the / X / the c) the / X / X d) X / the / an
15. Joseph ________ to the shop and hasn’t returned yet. He ________ there several times this week.
a) has been / has gone b) has gone / gone c) has been / has been d) has gone / has been
16. Jordan doesn’t drive very well and is driving carelessly now. He _______ without a doubt.
a) will probably to crash b) is going crash c) will probably going crash d) is going to crash
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17. We have to buy ________ and ________.

a) others chairs / another tables c) other chairs / another table
b) others chairs / another table d) other chairs / one anothers tables
18. We haven’t decided if on Saturday we _____ watch a football match _____ go to the cinema.
a) won’t neither / nor b) will neither / or c) won’t either / nor d) will either / or
19. He has two __________ about __________.
a) thesis / these phenomenons c) theses / these phenomena
b) thesesis / this phenomenon d) theseses / this phenomena
20. Margaret has won ________ Oscars and has had ________ success in the theatre.
a) a little / a lot of b) many / many c) a few / a lot of d) much / much
For questions 21 to 25, choose the INCORRECT option.
21. a) In spite of the problems, she won the elections easily. c) Although we didn’t know the way, we didn’t get lost.
b) Despite of the heavy traffic, we got there on time. d) Women love shopping, whereas men enjoy football.
22. a) David is able to dribble the ball skillfully. c) He might stay home and wait for his mother.
b) We ought take our umbrellas with us this morning. d) You shouldn’t eat all this for lunch today.
23. a) We don’t need a place to stay in London any longer. c) We don’t live near Susan any more.
b) I’m not allowed to watch that TV series any more. d) Sheila doesn’t work at this company no longer.
24. a) My father suggested to go to the cinema tonight. c) She won’t let me stay here until midnight.
b) We expected to receive some money from the bank. d) I don’t mind going to the supermarket now.
25. a) Betsy is very good at maths and physics. c) Her son spends a lot of time on the internet.
b) I laughed a lot on the joke he told us. d) He hit the car because he was driving at 100 kph.
For questions 26 to 30, choose the option which has the same meaning and idea as the sentences in italics.
26. We want to see the neighbor’s maid’s dogs.
a) maid who has a neighbor with dogs. c) dogs that belong to the neighbor’s maid.
b) neighbor who has a maid and dogs. d) dogs that belong to the neighbor and his maid.
27. Thomas has a brother who has a shop where I worked.
a) Thomas has a shop where I worked with his brother. c) I worked with Thomas at his brother’s shop.
b) Thomas’ brother worked with me at a shop. d) I worked at the shop owned by Thomas’ brother.
28. Ann lent her book to the guy who had helped her.
a) Ann lent her book to the guy before he helped her. c) The guy helped Ann because she lent him the book.
b) Ann lent her book to the guy after he helped her. d) The guy helped Ann after she lent him the book.

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29. ‘How come you haven’t eaten?’ my sister asked me.
a) My sister did not know if I had eaten. c) My sister asked if I had eaten.
b) My sister asked why I had not eaten. b) My sister wanted to know how I had eaten.
30. I dislike milk and so does my husband.
a) My husband doesn’t like milk, so I don’t either. c) Neither I nor my husband dislike milk.
b) My husband doesn’t like milk, but I do. d) I don’t like milk and neither does my husband.
Answer questions 31 to 40 according to the instructions.
31. Choose the option where the word “why” is used CORRECTLY.
a) I went to see the play why it had good reviews. c) I went for a walk why the sun was shining.
b) Why he’s very busy, he’s seldom at home. d) I can’t understand why they don’t get on well.
32. Choose the option with the CORRECT definition.
a) Crew – all the people who act in a film. c) Recipe – a piece of paper a patient gets from a doctor.
b) Plot – the story of a film. d) To resign – to enter a university course.
33. Choose the CORRECT option in relation to the use of the verb ‘make’.
a) make an agreement b) make the shopping c) make a good deed d) make a favour
34. Choose the option where all the words are in the same vocabulary group.
a) calf / shin / draught b) hurricane / chilly / curly c) cast / soundtrack / screen d) intern / retire / witty
35. Choose the option where the spelling of both words is CORRECT.
a) audience / sequell b) conducter / stuntman c) eyebrow / translator d) scientist / psycologist
36. Choose the option where the underlined vowels have the same pronunciation as the vowels in the word ‘laugh’.
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a) enough b) often c) stuff d) garden

37. Choose the option where the underlined consonants have the same pronunciation as in ‘singer’ ‘.
a) tongue b) finger c) singular d) hunger
38. Choose the option where the letters ‘s’/‘es’ at the end of the verb are pronounced as in ‘bananas’.
a) apples b) oranges c) peaches d) grapes
39. Choose the option that answers the question: “Who don’t you put up with in your class?”
a) My teacher, of course. He’s great. c) I sometimes go out with Brad.
b) I just can’t tolerate Seth. d) I don’t dislike Matthew.
40. Choose the option in which the words underlined are CORRECT in the sentence.
a) I lost my English class last week. c) Your friend turned up at the party last night.
b) I called you off last night but your mobile phone was off. d) Please take up the volume of the radio.
For questions 41 to 50, fill in the blanks with the appropriate word(s) and mark the CORRECT alternative.
New Year is a more ______41 occasion in Scotland than in the other countries of the UK. In fact, the New Year ______42 so
______43 that people come from all over the world to join in the fun. ______44 origin of the special name used in Scotland for
the festival, “Hogmanay”, is a Gaelic phrase meaning “new coming”. In ancient times, the pagan practice of sun and fire
worship ______45 into one of the most important celebrations of the year, the mid-winter festival. For a time, the Church
banned this festival but it had such great popularity that it continued underground. Since 1992, Hogmanay ______46 on a
______47 scale than ever before in cities like Edinburgh and Glasgow. During the millennium, some of the ______48
celebrations took place in Scotland. “First footing” is one of the most famous customs associated with Hogmanay. At midnight,
if ______49 knocks on your door with a lump of coal for your fire, you ______50 a prosperous year if you let him in. The more
hospitable you are the luckier you will be. The ancient message of Hogmanay is as relevant today as it has ever been.
41. a) wide celebrating b) widely celebrating c) wide celebrated d) widely celebrated
42. a) is celebrated b) is celebrating c) can be celebrating d) can be celebrate
43. a) exhuberantely b) exhuberantly c) exuberantely d) exuberantly
44. a) More likely b) The more likelier c) The most likely d) Most likely
45. a) were being evolved b) evolved c) evolving d) were evolving
46. a) has celebrated b) has been celebrated c) had been celebrated d) had celebrated
47. a) much larger b) more larger c) much large d) more large
48. a) longer lasted b) more longer lasting c) longest lasted d) longest lasting
49. a) dark no one b) dark anyone c) somebody dark d) dark somebody
50. a) would have had b) will have c) will have had d) would have

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 UNIVERSIDADE FEDERAL DO CEARÁ CCB – UPPER
CASA DE CULTURA BRITÂNICA
TESTE DE NÍVEL / 2012.2 - DATA: 30/09/2012
Nome do Candidato (conforme ficha de inscrição) _______________________________________________
Número de Inscrição ______________ Data de Nascimento (dd / mm / aaaa) _____/_____/____________
Identifique abaixo sua escolaridade para critério de desempate. A informação assinalada abaixo deve ser comprovada na matrícula. Leia
atentamente todas as opções antes de assinalar a sua. Assinale somente uma opção (a mais alta que você consiga comprovar).

CANDIDATO COM SOMENTE O ENSINO FUNDAMENTAL COMPLETO ANO DE CONCLUSÃO ____________________

CANDIDATO CURSANDO O ENSINO MÉDIO 1º ANO 2º ANO 3º ANO

CANDIDATO COM SOMENTE O ENSINO MÉDIO COMPLETO ANO DE CONCLUSÃO ____________________

CANDIDATO ALUNO DE CURSO SEQUENCIAL CURSO ___________________________________________________ SEMESTRE EM CURSO ___________

CANDIDATO COM CURSO SEQUENCIAL CONCLUIDO ANO/SEM DE CONCLUSÃO ________________

CANDIDATO CURSANDO 3º GRAU TÉCNICO CURSO ___________________________________________________ SEMESTRE EM CURSO ___________

CANDIDATO COM CURSO 3º GRAU TÉCNICO CONCLUIDO ANO/SEM DE CONCLUSÃO ________________

CANDIDATO CURSANDO NÍVEL SUPERIOR (GRADUAÇÃO) CURSO ___________________________________________________ SEMESTRE EM CURSO ___________

CANDIDATO COM CURSO DE GRADUAÇÃO CONCLUIDO ANO/SEM DE CONCLUSÃO ________________

CANDIDATO CURSANDO PÓS GRADUAÇÃO ESPECIALIZAÇÃO MESTRADO DOUTORADO SEMESTRE EM CURSO ____________

CANDIDATO COM CURSO DE PÓS-GRADUAÇÃO CONCLUIDO ESPECIALIZAÇÃO MESTRADO DOUTORADO ANO/SEM DE CONCLUSÃO __________

CANDIDATO COM PÓS-DOUTORADO ANO/SEM DE CONCLUSÃO ____________________________

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FOLHA DE RESPOSTAS
** Preencha o quadrado que corresponde à resposta correta de cada item.
01. a b c d 21. a b c d 41. a b c d
02. a b c d 22. a b c d 42. a b c d
03. a b c d 23. a b c d 43. a b c d
04. a b c d 24. a b c d 44. a b c d
05. a b c d 25. a b c d 45. a b c d
06. a b c d 26. a b c d 46. a b c d
07. a b c d 27. a b c d 47. a b c d
08. a b c d 28. a b c d 48. a b c d
09. a b c d 29. a b c d 49. a b c d
10. a b c d 30. a b c d 50. a b c d
11. a b c d 31. a b c d
12. a b c d 32. N U L A
13. a b c d 33. a b c d
14. a b c d 34. a b c d
15. a b c d 35. a b c d
16. a b c d 36. a b c d
17. a b c d 37. a b c d
18. a b c d 38. a b c d
19. a b c d 39. a b c d
20. a b c d 40. a b c d

RESULTADO: APROVADO REPROVADO

NOTA : ________________ASSINATURA DO PROFESSOR: ______________________________

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