Communications Engineering MCQ 1 B.

-90 dBm
C. 90 dBm
1. That dielectric material of an optical fiber D. 90 dB
surrounding the core 10. One character or a sequence of characters
A. Cladding forming a part, or the whole of a message with a
B. Armor specific meaning
C. Shield A. Signs
D. Cover B. Call sign
2. An antenna that is circularly polarized is the C. Code
____________. D. Identifier
A. parabolic reflector 11. The K-factor under normal atmospheric
B. helical conditions in a microwave radio data profile
C. Yagi-uda calculation is equal to ___________.
D. small circular loop A. 2/3
3. A word in telegraphy consist of __________ B. 0
characters plus a word space. C. 4/3
A. 11 D. Infinity
B. 7 and ½ 12. What is the IBM’s asynchronous data link
C. 8 protocol designation?
D. 5 A. 83 B
4. The number of voice band channels in master B. 8A1 / 8B1
group per CCITT standard is __________. C. 93 B
A. 300 D. 9A1/ 9B1
B. 480 13. EIRP stands for _______________.
C. 600 A. effective isotropic refracted power
D. 120 B. effective and ideal radiated power
5. The power of standard test tone is normally C. effective isotropic reflected power
____________. D. effective isotropic radiated power
A. 1 dB 14. The modulation system used for telegraphy is
B. 0 mW A. frequency-shift keying
C. 1 mW B. two-tone modulation
D. 1 W C. pulse-code modulation
6. LORAN is a navigational system used primarily for D. single-tone modulation
_____________. 15. The standard that specifies a balanced interface
A. blind landing cable that will operate bit rates up to 10 Mbps with
B. obtaining your fixes location over large in a span distances up to 1200 m.
distances A. RS-423A
C. automatic collision warning B. RS-422A
D. approach control C. RS-550A
7. The expander in a companding device provides D. RS-449A
___________. 16. An antenna which is not resonant at a particular
A. greater amplification for low signal levels frequency and so can be used over a wide band of
B. less amplification for low signal levels frequencies and so can be used over a wide band of
C. greater amplification for high signal levels frequencies is called
D. lesser pressure for transmission cables A. aperiodic
8. LORAN is a navigation system used primarily for B. boresight
A. approach control C. cassegrain
B. obtaining fixes over large distances D. top-loaded
C. blind landing 17. A receiver connected to an antenna whose
D. automatic collision warning resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise
9. At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero resistance of 30 ohms. What is the receiver’s noise
interference (144 weighted)? temperature?
A. -90 dB A. 754 K
 B. 464 K B. the telephone network bandwidth is too high
C. 174 K C. none of the above
D. 293 K D. the telephone network will pass direct
18. ___________ occurs when the microwave beam current
is at point of grazing over an obstacle. 26. The standard reference antenna for the directive
A. Diffraction gain is ___________.
B. Refraction A. elementary doublet
C. Absorption B. isotropic antenna
D. Reflection C. half-wave dipole
19. Atmospheric condition is controlled by D. infinitesimal dipole
A. humidity 27. One hundred twenty µbars of pressure variation
B. pressure is equal to
C. temperature A. 120 dBSPL
D. all of these B. 115.56 dBSPL
20. The characteristics impedance of a transmission C. 41.58 dBSPL
line does not depend upon its ________. D. 57.78 dBSPL
A. conductor spacing 28. It is a spacecraft placed in orbit around the earth
B. conductor diameter carrying onboard microwave receiver and
C. length transmitting equipment.
D. conductor radius A. Fiber optic equipment
21. What is the purpose of a beat frequency B. Communications satellite
oscillator (BFO)? C. Wireless radio system
A. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated D. Coaxial cable system
signals 29. One type of pulse communications system uses
B. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the pulse that appear as a group, and which vary in
same as that of the intermediate frequency number according to the loudness of the voice. This
C. Generates a 1kHz note for Morse code type of pulse modulation is called
reception A. pulse duration modulation
D. Generates an output, whose frequency B. pulse amplitude modulation
differs from that of the intermediate frequency C. pulse code modulation
by 1 kHz D. pulse position modulation
22. The point on the satellite orbit, closest to the 30. A device to be connected across the headset in
earth is telephone receivers to reduce the effects of acoustic
A. prograde shock.
B. perigee A. Ground
C. zenith B. Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite
D. apogee polarities
23. The potential difference between any exposed C. Protector
structured to ground in any electrical installation D. Fuse
should not exceed _________ volts RMS. 31. Judgment on the case against an ECE shall
A. 10 become final and executory after
B. 45 A. 10 days
C. 0 B. 60 days
D. 30 C. 30 days
24. The capture area of an antenna is directly D. 15 days
proportional to the 32. The equivalent noise temperature of the
A. frequency of the received signal amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure?
B. distance between transmitter and receiver A. 1.86
C. gain of the antenna B. 0.1086
D. power density of the signal C. 1.086
25. Modems are required to connect computer to D. 10.86
telephone lines because ___________. 33. The letter-number designation B8E is a form of
A. telephone company rules required them modulation also known as ___________.
 A. pilot carrier system D. F1
B. independent sideband emission 41. What is the number of pins in the RS-232C
C. lincomplex interface?
D. vestigial sideband transmission A. 25
34. When the transmitting and receiving antennas B. 15
are in line-of-sight of each other, the mode of C. 20
propagation is ________ wave. D. 20
A. space or direct 42. SSB transmission requires only ______ of the
B. ground bandwidth for a DSBFC transmission.
C. surface A. ¼
D. sky B. 2/3
35. Crosstalk coupling is ___________. C. ½
A. dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed D. ¾
pair) 43. The method of generating FM used by
B. the difference between readings on a cable broadcasting station is
pair with a tone and a cable pair without tone A. direct
read at the far end of a cable B. all of these
C. signals from one circuit that get into another C. indirect
circuit D. insertion
D. All of these are true 44. What is the transmission rate of a system for
36. According to the Nyquist theorem, the sampling transmitting the output of a microcomputer to a line
rate that can be used in a PCM system is ________ printer operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute?
the highest audio frequency. Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of data per
A. once character and prints out 80 characters/line.
B. eight times A. 800 bps
C. twice B. 400 bps
D. thrice C. 320 bps
37. Passive crossover components cause some D. 640 bps
frequencies to be delayed with respect to the other 45. Communications code is ____________.
frequencies at the crossover point. A. eight bits per character
A. Phase shift B. agreed upon in advance between sender and
B. Phase correction receiver
C. Phase-error correction C. the same in all modern computers
D. Time alignment D. either seven or eight bits per character
38. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity 46. What is the reference tone level for dBm?
level of 90 dB at 10 ft. away. At this distance, what is A. -82 dBm
the sound power in watt? B. -85 dBm
A. 12 W C. -67 dBm
B. 0.12 W D. -90 dBm
C. 0.012 W 47. A type of an underground antenna is a/an
D. 1.2 W __________ antenna.
39. What is the one principal difference between A. Hertz
synchronous and asynchronous transmission? B. isotropic
A. the pulse height is different C. parabolic
B. the clocking is derived from the data in D. Marconi
synchronous transmission 48. Which of the following pulse modulation systems
C. the clocking is mixed with the data in is analog?
asynchronous A. Delta
D. the bandwidth required is different B. Differential PCM
40. The lowest layer in the ionosphere C. PWM
A. D D. PCM
B. F2 49. What is the purpose of the receiver’s squelch
C. E circuit?
 A. To overcome fluctuations in the level the RF D. interstate calls are less costly
signal arriving at the receiver antenna 56. In the phase shift method, how many circuits
B. To prevent fluctuations in the AGC bias level must be balanced?
C. To reduce the receiver’s sensitivity to all A. None of these
incoming signals B. 1
D. To prevent amplified noise from reaching C. 4
the loudspeaker during the absence of an D. 2
incoming signal 57. The carrier swing necessary to provide 80%
50. TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________. modulation in the FM broadcasting band is
A. bearing and distance indication __________.
B. speed and height indication A. 150 kHz
C. bearing and weather information B. 120 kHz
D. instrument-landing glide paths C. 60 kHz
51. In __________ transmission, a unique SYNC D. 75 kHz
character is transmitted at the beginning of each 58. The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted
message. message content is
A. asynchronous A. verified by the modem
B. synchronous B. communications system
C. digital C. determined by the sender and receiver
D. analogue D. ensured by use of digital technique
52. If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to 59. The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB
the characteristic impedance of the transmission line while noise in the same channel is measured to be 9
the return loss is ___________. dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is
A. zero __________.
B. one A. 9/23
C. infinite B. 23/9
D. None of these C. 32 dB
53. What is the main purpose of a communications D. 14 dB
system? 60. Three audio waves with 100,200 and 300 volts
A. None of these amplitude respectively, simultaneously modulate a
B. To have a frequency assignment 450 volts carrier. What is the total percent of
C. For modulation modulation of the AM wave?
D. To provide an acceptable replica of the A. 69 %
information at the destination B. 115.5 %
54. What is meant by antenna gain? C. 50%
A. The final amplifier gain minus the D. 83%
transmission line losses (including any phasing 61. If the percentage modulation of an AM amplifier
lines present) is 88% and the modulating signal is 1 volt, the carrier
B. The ratio of the amount of power produced has an amplitude of _______________.
by the antenna compared to the output power A. 1.14 volts
of the transmitter B. 0.88 volt
C. The ratio of the signal in the backward C. 1.88 volts
direction D. 0.12 volt
D. The numeric ratio relating the radiated 62. It consists of a number of dipoles of equal size,
signal strength of an antenna to that of equally spaced along a straight line with all dipoles
another antenna fed in the same phase from the same source.
55. Binary communications systems are better A. Log-periodic antenna
because B. Yagi antenna
A. they can interface directly with the analog C. End-fire array
telephone network D. Broadside array
B. the components are simpler, less costly, and 63. Data switching systems.
more reliable A. improve the efficiency of data transfer
C. people think better in binary B. are limited to small data networks
 C. required additional lines 72. What quarterwave transformer will match a
D. are not used in data system 100Ω line to an antenna whose value is 175Ω?
64. A type of array antenna which consists of one A. 132.29 Ω
half-wave driven dipole, one reflector and one B. 150 Ω
director C. 16.58 Ω
A. Hertzian dipole D. 137.5 Ω
B. Yagi-uda 73. The local loop of the telephone system is
C. Broadside collinear understood to be
D. Log periodic dipole array A. a single piece of wire connecting the
65. Power is a _____________ amount of energy subscriber’s telephone set to another telephone
used in specific period of time set in an adjacent room
A. large B. a two-wire or four-wire communication
B. definite circuit between the customer’s premise and
C. electrical central office
D. relative C. a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile
66. The midrange frequency range of sound is from machine to a computer
A. 256 to 2048 Hz D. a group of wires connecting a telephone set
B. 2048 to 4096 Hz to a modem
C. 512 to 2048 Hz 74. In what region of the world is sporadic-E most
D. 16 to 64 Hz prevalent?
67. To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire A. The equatorial regions
_________ is the best to use. B. The northern hemisphere
A. directional coupler C. The arctic regions
B. quarter-wave transformer D. The polar regions
C. balun 75. The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute
D. slotted line magnitudes
68. In AM, the carrier carries ____________ A. Overloading
intelligence. B. All of these
A. no C. Quantizing
B. difference D. Multiplexing
C. distorted 76. It is a measure of the microwave power radiated
D. same from an antenna as a function of angular direction
69. Characteristics impedance of a transmission line from the antenna axis.
is the impedance measured at the ___________ A. Antenna pattern
when its length is infinite. B. Polarization
A. input C. Beamwidth
B. shorted end of the line D. Sidelobes
C. output 77. It is the made from semiconductor material such
D. midsection as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenide-
70. Cross modulation on a receiver is eliminated at phosphide.
the A. APD
A. RF stage B. Injection laser diode
B. mixer stage C. Light emitting diode
C. IF stage D. Positive-intrinsic-negative
D. detector stage 78. Which one is not the basic electrical protection
71. A speaker cabinet has an internal volume 84,950 measures in the Philippine Electronics Code?
cm3. It has a port area on the baffle of 3,230 cm2 and A. Voltage/ current limiting and interrupting
baffle thickness of 19 mm. What is the Helmholtz B. Undergrounding
resonance hertz of this speaker enclosure? C. Grounding and bonding
A. 260 Hz D. Shielding
B. 245 Hz 79. What does the noise weighting curve shows?
C. 265 Hz A. Noise signals measured with a 144 handset
D. 250 Hz B. Power levels of noise found in carrier systems
 C. The interfering effect of other frequencies in B. Infrared absorption
a voice channel compared with a reference C. Ion resonance absorption
frequency of one kilohertz D. Ultraviolet absorption
D. Interfering effects of signals compared with a 87. In an FM receiver, which circuit removes
3-kHz tone amplitude variations?
80. What is the difference between phase and A. Exciter
frequency modulation? B. Mixer
A. Is purely theoretical because they are the C. Discriminator
same in practice D. Limiter
B. Lies in poorer audio response of phase 88. A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system in a
modulation space diversity arrangement. Determine “how many
C. Lies in the different definitions of the receivers in all are used?”
modulation index A. 8
D. Is too great to make two systems compatible B. 2
81. When a transmission line uses ground return, it C. 4
is called a/an __________ line. D. 6
A. ungrounded 89. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM
B. balanced signal.
C. unbalanced A. 67 kHz
D. grounded B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
82. What is the gain of four identically polarized C. 19 to 38 kHz
antennas stacked one above the other and fed in D. 30 to 53 kHz
phase? 90. Termination means
A. 3 dB over the gain of one antenna A. result of disconnecting a line from a
B. 10 dB over the gain of one antenna transmitter
C. 4 dB over the gain of one antenna B. result of cutting both ends of a conductor
D. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna C. looking back impedance of a line with no load
83. The ratio of the level of the modulated output of D. load connected to the output end of a
a transmitter under conditions of standard test transmission line
modulation to the level of the demodulated output 91. Asynchronous protocol is
with no modulation applied both measured with the A. message oriented
same bandwidth. B. clock oriented
A. Reference audio output C. bit oriented
B. None of these D. character oriented
C. Audio frequency response 92. Transmission lines are either balanced or
D. Residual noise level unbalanced with respect to _________.
84. The ___________ filter attenuates signals but A. negative terminal
passes frequencies below and above that band. B. input
A. low pass C. ground
B. band pass D. positive terminal
C. band stop 93. What is the velocity factor for non-foam
D. high pass dielectric 50 or 75-ohm flexible coaxial cable such as
85. In a telephone system, the customer’s telephone RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is the A. 2.70
capacity of the system? B. 0.10
A. 1000 lines C. 0.66
B. 100,000 lines D. 0.30
C. 10,000 lines 94. Gain of an isotropic antenna
D. 100 lines A. -1 dB
86. An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in B. 1 dB
the silica material from which fibers are C. 0 dB
manufactured. D. 2 dB
A. Modal dispersion
95. In measuring noise in a voice channel at a 4 dB 3. The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data
test point level, the meter reads -70 dBm (F1A digital form.
weighted), convert the reading to pWp. A. Data communications equipment (DCE)
A. 53 B. UART
B. 93 C. Modem
C. 63 D. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
D. 83 4. Quantization noise is caused by
96. Power is always __________. A. binary coding techniques
A. a definite amount of energy B. serial transmission errors
B. expressed in watts C. the synchronization between encoder and
C. the rate at which energy is used decoder
D. all of these D. the approximation of the quantized signal
97. Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. 5. Speaker is a device that __________.
A. Log normal fading A. convert current variations into sound waves
B. None of these B. none of these
C. Multi-path fading C. convert electrical energy to mechanical
D. Rayleigh fading energy
98. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next D. convert sound waves into current and voltage
stage to align in FM receiver is. 6. An object farther from a converging lens than its
A. local oscillator focal point always has an _______ image.
B. limiter stage A. virtual
C. RF amplifier B. the same in size
D. mixer stage C. inverted
99. ___________ is a device in data transmission to D. smaller size
interface data terminal equipment to an analogue 7. The loss in signal power as light travels down a
transmission line. fiber is
A. RS 232 A. attenuation
B. Connector B. propagation
C. Modem C. absorption
D. RJ-11 plug D. scattering
100. What is the primary advantage of DSBSC in AM? 8. Energy that has neither been radiated into space
A. Reduce bandwidth over standard AM nor completely transmitted.
B. All of these A. Captured waves
C. It is simpler to transmit and receive than the B. Incident waves
standard AM C. Standing waves
D. No transmitter power is wasted in the D. Modulated waves
carrier 9. One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by
TDM is
Communications Engineering MCQ 2 A. noise is amplified with voice when an FDM
system is used
1. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio B. it is difficult to place channels side by side
broadcast? C. there is more time than frequency
A. HF D. Most available frequencies have been used
B. UHF 10. Which determines the number of sideband
C. MF components of FM?
D. VHF A. Modulation frequency
2. A system that performs parallel-to-serial and B. Modulation index
serial-to-parallel conversion of data link. C. Carrier frequency
A. DCE D. All of these
B. DTE 11. How would one squeeze more channels of
C. Modem communication into TDM frames of standard length?
D. PC A. Shorten the time delay for each channel
B. Raise the amplitude
 C. Add modulators 20. What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular
D. Remove the synchronizing pulses system?
12. When one stations is designated as master and A. 64 kbps
rest of the stations are considered slaves message B. 240 kbps
handling is ________. C. 128 kbps
A. polling D. 270 kbps
B. WAN 21. A dipole antenna requires to be feed with 20 kW
C. LAN of power to produce a given signal strength to a
D. OSI particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector
13. How many satellite orbital slots are requested by makes the same field strength available with an
the Philippine government from ITU? input power of 11 kW. What is the gain in dB obtain
A. 2 by the use of the reflector? (Gain referred to this
B. 6 particular dipole)
C. 5 A. 4.24
D. 3 B. 1.81
14. The output of a balanced modulator is ________. C. 4.75
A. LSB and USB D. 2.6
B. LSB 22. Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000 pulse/sec is
C. USB amplitude modulated by an analog signal this type of
D. Carrier modulation is
15. RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V, 24 and X.21 are A. PAM
examples of ____________. B. ADM
A. standards for interfaces between modems C. DM
and transmission facilities D. PCM
B. standards for various types of transmission 23. What is the applied power if a thermal RF
channels wattmeter is connected to a transmitter through a
C. standards for interfaces between terminals variable attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW
and modems when 15 dB of attenuation is used.
D. standards for end to end performance of data A. 4.656 watts
communications system B. 2.656 watts
16. A special service circuit connecting two private C. 3.656 watts
branch exchanges (PBX). D. 2.856 watts
A. Phantom line 24. Collects very weak signal from a broadcast
B. Private line satellite
C. Tie trunk A. Satellite dish
D. Tandem trunk B. LNB
17. What is the baseband frequency of standard C. Yagi-Uda antenna
FDM basic supergroup? D. Satellite receiver
A. 312 to 552 kHz 25. A seven-bit character can represent one of
B. 300 to 600 kHz _________ possibilities.
C. 60 to 2540 kHz A. 14
D. 60 to 108 kHz B. 64
18. What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic Access B C. 128
channel? D. 7
A. 192 kbps 26. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-
B. 32 kbps 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila is
C. 64 kbps A. 10 kW
D. 144 kbps B. 20 kW
19. Which tester is used to measure SWR? C. 15 kW
A. Spectrum analyzer D. 5 kW
B. Multimeter 27. A loudspeaker cabinet has an internal volume of
C. Reflectometer 5,184 in3 (84,950 cm3). It has a port area on the
D. Oscilloscope baffle of 50 in2 (322.58cm2) and a thickness of 0.70
in (18 mm). What is the Helmholtz resonance, in B. CAA
hertz, of this loudspeaker enclosure? C. IATA
A. 250 Hz D. ATO
B. 245 Hz 35. The transformer signal coding method for T1
C. 240 Hz carrier is
D. 255 Hz A. Binary
28. When the clearance above the obstruction is B. NRZ
equal to the radii of even Fresnel zone at the point C. Manchester
of reflection the RSL D. Bipolar
A. remains the same 36. When the value of k increases, the effective
B. is above threshold result is ______ of the equivalent curvatures.
C. is decreased A. downward curvatures
D. is increased B. flattening
29. Digital transmission provides a higher level of C. bulging
signal quality than analog transmission because D. sharp curvature
A. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and 37. An electromagnetic wave consists of
remove distortion A. a magnetic field only
B. digital signals are easier to sample than B. both electric and magnetic fields
analog signals C. an electric field only
C. digital signals are smaller than analog signals D. non-magnetic field only
and cannot easily be distorted 38. In a transmission line, if the maximum current to
D. analog signals are continuous and not easily minimum current ratio is 2:1 what is the ratio of the
distorted. maximum voltage to minimum voltage?
30. A _________ interconnects LAN having identical A. 4:1
protocols at the physical and data link layers. B. 1:2
A. All of these C. 1:4
B. bridge D. 2:1
C. router 39. Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite
D. Gateway transponder to earth’s station.
31. Both frequency and phase modulation utilize A. Vertically polarized
________ modulation B. Uplink
A. Phase C. Downlink
B. AM and FM D. RHCP
C. Digital 40. Multiplexing scheme use by baseband
D. Angle transmission.
32. The different angles of entry of light into an A. FDM
optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many B. Space multiplexing
times the wavelength of the light transmitter is C. TDM
known as ________. D. Statistical multiplexing
A. refraction 41. Which stands for dB relative level?
B. sensor A. dBrn
C. mode B. dBm
D. emitter C. dBr
33. An invitation from the primary to a secondary to D. dBa
transmit a message. 42. What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?
A. Retransmission A. 1.6 MHz
B. Selection B. 0.5 MHz
C. Reuse C. 1.0 MHz
D. Polling D. 1.3 MHz
34. An agency of the United Nations that formulates 43. If Ns = 250, determine the earth radius k-factor.
standards and recommend practices for all civil A. 1.98
aviation B. 1.23
A. ICAO C. 1.33
 D. 1.29 B. Folded Dipole
44. Digital modulation technique used in modems. C. Rhombic antenna
A. ASK D. End fire array
B. PSK 53. The first commercial satellite
C. FSK A. Explorer
D. All of these B. Sputnik
45. Which of the following is not a baseband signal C. Telstar
modulation? D. Early bird
A. RF carrier 54. A quadrature signaling have ________ possible
B. Video System states.
C. Audio signal A. 16
D. Binary coded pulses B. 8
46. The standing wave ratio is equal to ________ if C. 32
the load is properly matched with the transmission D. 4
line. 55. Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as a
A. 1 dielectric waveguide.
B. 50 A. Kao and Keck
C. 10 B. Karpon and Keck
D. 2 C. Karpon and Bockham
47. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise D. Bockham and Kao
that has equal per cycle over a specified total 56. What band does VSAT first operate?
frequency band. A. X-band
A. Thermal noise B. C-band
B. White noise C. Ku-band
C. Gaussian noise D. L-band
D. All of these 57. What is the method of diversity reception where
48. When was the UHF channel (14-83) of television the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies
were added? over the same path?
A. 1852 A. Quadruple
B. 1904 B. Frequency
C. 1947 C. Polarization
D. 1952 D. Space
49. Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs 58. The wavelength of light has no role in
based upon A. Diffraction
A. the position of a frame within the group of B. Interference
frames C. Resolving power
B. the positioning of data within a frame D. Polarization
C. the priority assigned to a connected device 59. Which of the following filters block FM radio
D. the activity of a connected device band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
50. Ethernet is baseband system using CSMA/CD A. High-pass filter
operating at B. Band reject filter
A. 20 Mbps C. Low-pass filter
B. 10 Mbps D. Band-pass filter
C. 30 Mbps 60. The standard ASCII
D. 40 Mbps A. is version II of ASC
51. A microwave communications system space loss B. is used only in US and Canada
calculation formula is C. has 132 characters including 32 control
A. 92.4 + 10 log f +20 log d characters
B. 94.2 + 10 log f +20 log d D. is subset of 8-bit EBCDIC code
C. 92.4 + 20 log f + 20 log d 61. Luminous efficiency is least for a
D. 94.2 + 20 log f +20 log d A. mercury vapor lamp
52. Which is the non-resonant antenna? B. low-wattage light bulb
A. Broadside Antenna C. high-wattage light bulb
 D. fluorescent tube A. agreed upon in advance between sender and
62. Transmission lines when connected to antenna receiver
have B. eight bit per character
A. capacitive load C. the same in all modern computer
B. resistive load whose resistance is less than D. either seven or 8th bits per character
characteristics impedance 71. Combination of modulator, channel and
C. resistive load at the resonant frequency detector.
D. resistive load whose resistance is greater A. Transceiver
than the characteristic impedance of the line B. Discrete channel
63. What is the free space loss, in dB, between two C. T/R channel
microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart D. Transponder
operating at 7.0 GHz? 72. What is the stage of the sand becoming silicon?
A. 145.6 dB A. Hot
B. 138.5 dB B. Gas
C. 135.5 dB C. Liquid
D. 140.89 dB D. Molten
64. What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm, 73. Noise reduction system used for film sound in
if it is has an output of 10 watts? movie
A. 10 dBm A. dBx
B. 30 dBm B. dolby
C. 20 dBm C. dBa
D. 40 dBm D. dBm
65. Satellite engine use 74. What is the principal difference between
A. liquid fuel asynchronous and synchronous transmission?
B. jet propulsion A. The clocking is mixed with the data in
C. ion propulsion system synchronous transmission
D. solar jet B. The pulse height are difficult
66. Low-power radar uses C. The clocking is derived from the data in
A. RIMPATT synchronous
B. TRAPATT D. The bandwidth required is difficult.
C. Magnetron 75. You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test
D. IMPATT point level, the meter reads -73 dBm (pure test tone)
67. Transmission line must be matched to the load convert the reading in dBmCO.
to A. 16
A. transfer maximum voltage to the load B. 18
B. transfer maximum current to the load C. 22
C. reduce the load current D. 12
D. transfer maximum power to the load 76. What is the type of emission use by standard AM
68. Electromagnetic wave travel at __________ in radio broadcast?
free space. A. A0
A. 300,000 km/sec B. F3
B. 100,000 km/ sec C. A3
C. 400,000 km/sec D. A5C
D. 200km/sec 77. ____________ is the average rate of
69. When electromagnetic wave are propagated transmission of sound energy in a given direction
through a waveguide, they through a cross sectional area of 1 sq. m. at right
A. are reflected from the walls but do not angle to the direction.
travel along them A. Sound pressure
B. travel along all four walls of the waveguide B. Sound intensity
C. travel along the broader walls of the guide C. Pressure variation
D. travel through the dielectric without touching D. Loudness
the walls 78. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to
70. Codes must be increase its ___________.
 A. input capacitance 87. Troposheric scatter uses the frequencies in the
B. beamwidth ________ band.
C. bandwidth A. VLF
D. effective height B. UHF
79. What component in the telephone set has the C. VHF
primary function of interfacing the handset to the D. UF
local loop? 88. The unit of pitch
A. Varistor A. Decibel
B. Induction coil B. Phon
C. Resistor C. Mel
D. Capacitor D. Sone
80. The first passive satellite transponder. 89. What kind of receiver is used in conventional
A. Early bird telephone handset?
B. Score A. Capacitor
C. Moon B. Carbon
D. Sputnik C. Electromagnetic
81. The primary purpose of the data modem is to D. Ceramic
A. interface analog terminal equipment to 90. Basic speed rate of digital system.
analog communications channel A. 144 kbps
B. interface digital terminal equipment to B. 1,544 kbps
analog communications channel C. 64 kbps
C. interface analog terminal equipment to digital D. 2,048 kbps
communications channel 91. A horizontal antenna is
D. interface digital terminal equipment to digital A. centrally polarized
communications channel B. vertically polarized
82. ____________ is the out-of-band signaling C. horizontally polarized
between toll central offices (Bell System Standard) D. perpendicularly polarized
A. 2,000 Hz 92. What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used
B. 800 Hz in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100
C. 3,835 Hz ohms/km?
D. 3700 Hz A. 0.108 cm
83. Which symbol indicates that only one sideband is B. 1.082 cm
transmitted? C. 0.017 cm
A. A3E D. 0.0465 cm
B. B8E 93. If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns,
C. C3F the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise
D. H3E time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?
84. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal A. 14 ns
passband of B. 6 ns
A. 0 to 4 Hz C. 9 ns
B. 0 to 4 kHz D. 12.5 ns
C. 0 to 4 GHz 94. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal
D. 0 to 4 MHz if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
85. 1 micron is equal to ___________ meter(s). A. 1.25 µsec
A. 10-6m B. 52 µsec
B. 10-3 m C. 83.33 µsec
C. 106 m D. 26 µsec
D. 109 m 95. What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
86. The lowest resistance grounding on earth A. 6 dB
A. Sand B. 2 dB
B. Clay C. 3 dB
C. Surface loam soil D. 1 dB
D. Limestone
96. You are measuring noise in a voice channel at 7 B. Single line wire
dB test point level. The meter reads -56 dBm (FIA C. Twin-lead
weighted). What is the reading in dBrnc? D. MIcrostrip
A. 20 4. If voltage change equal to twice its original value,
B. 32 what is its corresponding change in dB?
C. 35 A. 9 dB
D. 25 B. 6 dB
97. Space diversity transmission means transmitting C. 10 dB
and receiving on D. 3 dB
A. two or more antennas operating on two 5. To couple a coaxial line to parallel line, it is better
different frequencies to use a ______.
B. two or more identical frequencies A. Slotted line
C. two or more different frequencies B. Quarter-wave transformer
D. two or more antennas operating on the C. Directional Coupler
same frequencies D. Balun
98. Rules governing the transmission of digital 6. What is the characteristic impedance of a single
information. wire with a diameter d= 0.25 mm placed at the
A. Line protocol center between grounded parallel planes separated
B. Isochronous by 1 mm apart. The wire is held by a material with a
C. Data communications velocity factor of 0.75.
D. Digital communications A. 85 Ω
99. A digital identification associated with a cellular B. 63 Ω
system C. 50 Ω
A. SAT D. 75 Ω
B. ESN 7. If you have available number of power amplifiers
C. MIN with a gain of 100 each, how many such amplifiers
D. SIM do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60
100. ____________ is measuring the propagated dB?
field strength over the projected service area A. 3
A. Radio sounding B. 4
B. None of these C. 5
C. Radio monitoring D. 2
D. Radio survey 8. ________ sets a limit on the maximum capacity of
a channel with a give noise level.
Communications Engineering MCQ 3 A. Hartley theorem
B. Shannon-Hartley theorem
1. What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a C. Nyquist theorem
diameter of 0.25 cm and spaced 2.5 cm apart using D. Shannon theorem
an insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56? 9. Transmission sent in both directions
A. 100 Ω simultaneously.
B. 65 Ω A. Full duplex
C. 75 Ω B. Duplex
D. 50 Ω C. Half duplex
2. What is the impedance in ohms of a transformer D. Simplex
marked for 25V, 4W, when the secondary is correctly 10. Industrial noise frequency is between
loaded? _________.
A. 150 Ω A. 200 to 3000 Mhz
B. 156 Ω B. 15 to 160 Mhz
C. 160 Ω C. 0 to 10 Khz
D. 165 Ω D. 20 Ghz
3. A single conductor running from the transmitter 11. Reference noise temperature.
to the antenna. A. 70 deg F
A. RG-8/U B. 30 deg C
 C. 290 Kelvin D. All of these
D. 25 deg C 21. At 100% modulation, the sum for the effective
12. What is the reference frequency of CCITT voltages in both sidebands is equal to ______% of
psophometric noise measurement? the unmodulated carrier voltage.
A. 800 Hz A. 50
B. 1500 Hz B. 71
C. 3400 Hz C. 100
D. 1000 Hz D. 25
13. Which does not effect noise in a channel? 22. A carrier signal has ______.
A. None of these A. Constant peak amplitude
B. Bandwidth B. The information
C. Temperature C. Frequency range 20-20000 Hz
D. Quantizing level D. A varying amplitude
14. The random and unpredictable electric signal 23. Which transmit only one sideband?
from natural causes, both internal and external to A. A3E
the system is know as ________. B. 3AJ
A. Distortion C. 11BE
B. Noise D. H3E
C. Attenuation 24. The final amplifier of either FM or AM
D. Interference transmitter operates as
15. The most common unit of noise measurement in A. Class B
white noise testing. B. Class C
A. dBw C. Class A
B. dBk D. Class D
C. dBm 25. Modulation means
D. NPR A. Varying of information
16. Unit of noise power of psophometer B. Utilization of a single transmission channel to
A. dBa carry multiple signals
B. pWp C. Varying of some parameters of a carrier such
C. dBm as its amplitude to transmit information
D. dBmO D. Transmit pulses in DC form on a copper wire
17. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding 26. What is the advantage of sidetone?
increase in total power by: A. High transmission efficiency
A. 25% B. Results to a strengthened signal
B. 75% C. No energy dissipation
C. 100% D. Assures that the telephone is working
D. 50% 27. The standard test tone
18. If the modulation index of an AM wave is A. 0 dB
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled, the B. 10 dBm
AM system being used is C. 0 dBm
A. A5C D. 10 dB
B. A3J 28. One (1) Erlang is equal to ________.
C. A3H A. 360 CCS
D. A3 B. 100 CCS
19. What particular circuit that rids FM of noise? C. 36 CCS
A. HPF D. 3.6 CCS
B. Phase shifter 29. Transmission of printed material over telephone
C. Limiter lines.
D. LPF A. Video text
20. What is the advantage of PTM over PAM? B. Facsimile
A. Simpler to generate C. Encoding
B. Low sampling rate is required D. Xerox copy
C. Much better noise immunity 30. 1-CCS is equal to?
 A. 60 D. F layer
B. 100 39. What is the effective earth’s radius when N =
C. 600 300?
D. 1 A. 8500 km
31. 1 Erlang is ______. B. 6370 km
A. 1000 TU C. 7270 km
B. 10 TU D. 7950 km
C. 100 TU 40. The polarization of a discone antenna is _____.
D. 1 TU A. Horizontal
32. When waves bend away from straight lines of B. Vertical
travel, it is called _________. C. Omni
A. Refraction D. Directional
B. Reflection 41. _______ is the horizontal pointing angle of an
C. Rarefaction antenna.
D. Diffraction A. Right angle
33. Highest frequency that can be used for skywave B. Angle of elevation
HF communications between two given points on C. Bandwidth
earth. D. Azimuth
A. Gyro frequency 42. Which is properly terminated antenna?
B. Maximum usable frequency A. Rhombic
C. Critical frequency B. Hertz
D. Virtual frequency C. Marconi
34. Electromagnetic radiation theory was D. Dipole
profounded by ______. 43. ______ is a device that detects both vertically
A. Sir Edward Appleton and horizontally polarized signals simultaneously.
B. Sir Isaac Newton A. Crystal
C. James Clerk Maxwell B. Orthomode transducer
D. Michael Faraday C. Light transducer
35. Type of transmission path that permits D. Optoisolator
communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 44. How much does the radiated power of an
MHz and over distances form about 1000 to 2000 antenna increases if its current increased by 3.3
km. times?
A. Ducting A. 6.6 times
B. Ionospheric scatter B. 3.3 times
C. Microwave C. 10.89 times
D. Troposcatter D. 9.9 times
36. What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere? 45. What do you call the energy that was not
A. E radiated into space or completely transmitted?
B. F1 A. Incident waves
C. F2 B. Captured waves
D. D C. Standing waves
37. Distance traveled by a wave in the time of one D. Modulated waves
cycle. 46. What is the estimated medium wind loading in
A. Hop the Philippines for antenna tower design?
B. Frequency A. 200 kph
C. Wavelength B. 250 kph
D. Crest C. 300 kph
38. Which region of the ionosphere is mainly D. 100 kph
responsible for long distance night time 47. The minimum number of turns a helix antenna
communication? must have.
A. A layer A. 4
B. D layer B. 5
C. E layer C. 3
 D. 6 57. What is the reason why companding is employed
48. When testing transmitter to prevent interfering in PCM systems?
with other stations, which type of antenna must be A. To overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers
used? B. To allow amplitude limiting in the receivers
A. Dummy antenna C. To solve quantizing noise problem
B. Hertzian antenna D. To protect small signals in PCM from
C. None of these quantizing distortion
D. Void antenna 58. What is framing?
49. A device that radiates electromagnetic energy A. Is concerned of synchronous system
and or intercepts electromagnetic radiation. B. Refers to parallel transmission
A. Antenna C. Is concerned with the boundaries between
B. Transmitter characters
C. Transmission line D. Is concerned with individual bits
D. Transceiver 59. The method of determining the bandwidth of
50. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna any processing system is ______.
cut to length of 3.4 m. A. Bandwidth analysis
A. 42.9 MHz B. Frequency spectrum
B. 61.3 MHz C. Spectral analysis
C. 38.5 MHz D. Frequency analysis
D. 53.5 MHz 60. It is a protocol used to connect the other packet
51. Full duplex transmission means witching network.
A. One way transmission A. X.25
B. 24-hour transmission B. X.50
C. Broadcast transmission C. X.10
D. Two-way simultaneous transmission D. X.75
52. Transmission system for a multidrop network 61. Slowest communications hardware product.
A. Taken passing A. Synchronous
B. Polling B. Asynchronous
C. Switching C. Ethernet
D. CSMA/CD D. Internet
53. Synchronous modems cost more than 62. Highest theoretical frequency that can be
asynchronous modem because _______. processed at a sampling rate without aliasing.
A. They have larger bandwidth A. Folding frequency
B. They are larger B. Resonant frequency
C. The production volume is larger C. Natural frequency
D. They have clock recovery circuits D. Critical frequency
54. What equation defines the composition of an 63. Data is directly on the transmission cable.
ISDN basic access line? A. Asynchronous
A. B+2D B. Synchronous
B. B+D C. Baseband
C. 2B+2D D. Broadband
D. 2B+D 64. A source code whose average word length
55. Modem is referred to as ______. approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy
A. Universal asynchronous Rx/Tx of a discrete memory less source.
B. Data communication equipment A. Prefix code
C. Universal synchronous Rx/Tx B. Huffman code
D. Data terminal equipment C. Entropy code
56. _______ character signifies the start of the test D. Source code
for Bisync. 65. ______ sets the limit on the maximum capacity
A. STX of a channel with a given noise level.
B. ETX A. Hartley theorem
C. SOH B. Shannon-hartley theorem
D. BCC C. Nyquist theorem
 D. Shannon theorem 75. Type of fiber that has the highest modal
66. Gateway can interconnect LANs that have ____ dispersion
protocols and formats. A. Step-index multimode
A. The same B. Step-index single mode
B. Different or the same C. Graded index mode
C. Totally different D. Graded index multimode
D. None of these 76. Fiber optic cable operates near _______
67. Steps to follow to produce PCM signal. frequencies.
A. Quantizing, sampling, and coding A. 800 THz
B. Sampling, quantizing, and coding B. 20 MHz
C. Sampling, coding and quantizing C. 200 MHz
D. Coding, quantizing and coding D. 2 GHz
68. Transmission sent in both directions 77. Lifetime of ILD’s
simultaneously. A. 150,000 h
A. Full duplex B. 100,000 h
B. Duplex C. 50,000 h
C. Half duplex D. 200,000 h
D. Simplex 78. The sound energy per unit area at right angles to
69. _______ detects the satellite signal relayed from the propagation direction per unit time.
the feed and converts it to an electric current, A. Sound intensity
amplifies and lower its frequency. B. Loudness
A. Feedhorn C. Coherence
B. Satellite dish D. Sound stress
C. Satellite receiver 79. _______ is the transmission of sound from one
D. LNB room to an adjacent room thru common walls, floors
70. What kind of battery panels are used in some or ceilings.
advance satellites? A. Reverberation
A. Gallium Arsenide solar panel B. Refraction
B. Germanium based panels C. Flanking transmission
C. Silicon based panels D. Reflection
D. Gallium Phosphate solar panel 80. The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a
71. Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe height of 1 km is 160 dB. What is the maximum
A. Satellite radiation polarization sound pressure level on the ground directly below
B. Satellite navigation the plane assuming that the aircraft radiates sound
C. Satellite radiation pattern equally in all directions?
D. Satellite coverage A. 59.1 dB
72. Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia? B. 69.1 dB
A. 38 C. 79.1 dB
B. 40 D. 89.1 dB
C. 44 81. Lowest frequency produced by a musical
D. 42 instrument.
73. Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a A. Fundamental
single-mode fiber cable. B. Midrange
A. 0.2 dB C. Period
B. 0.3 dB D. Harmonic
C. 0.09 dB 82. Sound intensity level is ________.
D. 0.38 dB A. 10 log I/I(ref)
74. A non-coherent light source for optical B. 10 log I(ref)/I
communications system. C. 30 log I/I(ref)
A. PIN Diode D. 20 log I/I(ref)
B. ILD 83. Tendency of sound energy to spread.
C. APD A. Reflection
D. LED B. Diffraction
 C. Rarefaction 93. What frequency does oxygen causes excessive
D. Refraction attenuation
84. ______ used to measure speech volume A. 119 GHz
A. Volume meter B. 183 GHz
B. Audio frequency meter C. 310 GHz
C. Volume unit meter D. 60 GHz
D. Speech meter 94. RADAR means
85. What is the local oscillator frequency range A. Radio detection and rating
commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455 KHz. B. Radio detection and ranging
A. 540 to 1600 KHz C. Radio distance and ranging
B. 0 to 1600 KHz D. Radio delay and ranging
C. 995 to 2055 KHz 95. A microwave link between the earth station and
D. 0 to 455 KHz the down-town terminal.
86. TV channels 2, 4 and 5 are known as ________. A. STL
A. Mid band UHF B. Uplink
B. Low band UHF C. Downlink
C. High band VHF D. Terrestrial link
D. Low band VHF 96. The advantage of periscope antenna in
87. ______ is the first component of any MATV microwave
system to received broadcast signals. A. Minimize interference to and from other
A. Receiver neighboring stations
B. Antenna B. Shorten waveguide link
C. Filter C. Reduce tower height
D. Transmitter D. All of these
88. Mechanism or device which enables the TV 97. Professional Regulations Commission was
camera to move in internal and tilting motion. created under ______.
A. Tilting A. PD 323
B. Scanner B. PD 223
C. Pan/tilt device C. PD 232
D. Panning device D. RA 223
89. The allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM 98. The institutionalization of the continuing
broadcast. Professional Education (CPE) Program of the various
A. 25 regulated profession under the supervision of the
B. 15 Professional Regulation Commission.
C. 5 A. E.O. No. 266
D. 75 B. E.O. No. 626
90. ______ is the time duration for one horizontal C. E.O. No. 662
trace. D. P.D. 381
A. 48µs 99. The basic law providing for the regulation of
B. 52 µs radio station, communications in the Philippines and
C. 62 µs other purposes.
D. 50 µs A. Act. No.`3846
91. Which is atmospheric attenuation? B. D.O. No. 11
A. Attenuation due to rain C. D.O. No. 88
B. Attenuation due to other gasses D. D.O. No. 5
C. Attenuation due to mist and fog 100. Listing of the date and time events, programs,
D. Due to water vapor and oxygen equipment, test, malfunctions and corrections in
92. A microwave system that requires the use of communication system.
repeater. A. File
A. Intervening terrain is favorable B. Documentation
B. Distances involved are greater C. Reporting
C. The required reliability is met D. Log
D. All of these
Communications Engineering MCQ 4 B. Bidirectional
C. Omnidirectional
1. Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies D. Figure of eight
from 10. Another SEG function that allows a person to be
A. 0 to 20 KHz superimposed on another scene.
B. Above 2 GHz A. Visual effect
C. 8 to 1.43 GHz B. Wiper
D. 5 to 8 GHz C. Chroma keying
2. Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen D. Special effect generation
by human eye. 11. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for
A. Visible satisfactory telephone services?
B. Infrared A. 50 dB
C. Ultraviolet B. 30 dB
D. Amber C. 40dB
3. Two wires that are bent 90 degrees apart. D. 20 dB
A. Hertz 12. The use of telecommunication for automatic
B. Dipole indicating or recording measurement at the distance
C. Log-periodic from the measuring instrument.
D. Rhombic A. Monitoring
4. The first symbol in the designation of radio B. Tracking
emission under the ITU rules to C. Telemetry
A. Nature of signals modulating the main carrier D. Telecommand
B. Type of information to be transmitted 13. The standard deviation of the variation in the
C. Bandwidth transmission loss of a circuit should not exceed
D. Type of modulation of the main carrier A. 3 dB
5. Operating method in which the transmission is B. 1 dB
made alternately in each direction of a C. 5 dB
telecommunication channel D. 0.5dB
A. Semi-duplex operation 14. Noise caused by the thermal agitation of
B. Duplex operation electrons in resistance.
C. Half-duplex operation A. White noise
D. Simplex operation B. Thermal noise
6. Production of radiation by a radio transmitting C. Johnson’s noise
station D. All of these
A. Monitoring 15. Unity gain antenna
B. Emission A. Isotropic
C. Radiation B. Rhombic
D. Transmission C. Half-wave dipole
7. The third symbol in the designation of radio D. Dummy
emission under the ITU rules refers to 16. The series of periodically recurrent pulses is
A. Type of the modulation of the main carrier modulated in amplitude by the corresponding
B. Bandwidth instantaneous samples.
C. Nature of the signals modulating the main A. PFM
carrier B. PWM
D. Type of information to be transmitted C. PDM
8. A form of telecommunication for the transmission D. PAM
of transient images of fixed or moving objects. 17. This type of transmission permits communication
A. E-mail in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz and over
B. Television distances from about 1000 to 2000 km.
C. Radio A. Troposcatter
D. Internet B. Ionospheric scatter
9. Radiation pattern of a discone. C. Ducting
A. Unidirectional D. Microwave
18. A region in front of a paraboloid antenna. B. Fixed station
A. Transmission zone C. Base station
B. Fresnel D. Land station
C. Fraunhofer 27. The electric field lines in a plane perpendicular to
D. All of these the earth’s surface.
19. Designates the sensation of low or high in the A. Elliptical polarization
sense of the base and treble. B. Circular polarization
A. Frequency C. Horizontal polarization
B. Intensity D. Vertical polarization
C. Pitch 28. Known to be the first satellite capable to receive
D. SPL and transmit simultaneously.
20. A good example of a pilot tone system used in A. Score
commercial frequency modulation stations. B. Syncom I
A. FDM C. Telstar 1
B. Time division D. Echo1
C. Stereo multiplexing 29. A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DSI-
D. Frequency modulation formatted signal at 1.544. Mbps.
21. Emission on a frequency or frequencies A. T2
immediately outside the necessary bandwidth which B. T1
result from the modulation process except spurious C. T4
emission. D. T3
A. Radiation 30. 12 voice channels are sampled at 8000 sampling
B. Noise rate and encoded into 8 bit PCM word. Determine
C. Out of the band the rate of the data stream.
D. Interference a. 354 kbps
22. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking b. 750 kbps
because of ______. c. 768 kbps
A. Broad bandwidth d. 640 kbps
B. Good front-to-back 31. The most common device used as a light
C. Maneuverability detector in fiber optic communications system.
D. Circular polarization A. LED
23. Background noise is the same as the following B. Darlington phototransistor
except C. APDs
A. Impulse noise D. PIN diode
B. White noise 32. Two resistors, 20kΩ, and 50kΩ are at ambient
C. Thermal noise temperature. Calculate for a bandwidth equal to
D. Gaussian noise 100kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the two
24. Electronic equipment used to measure standing resistors connected in parallel.
wave ration. A. 0.4782µV
A. Reflectometer B. 4278 µV
B. Wavemeter C. 4.78 µV
C. Altimeter D. 47.8 µV
D. Multimeter 33. Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared
25. A single sideband emission in which the degree light energy at 1.55µm
of carrier suppression enables the carrier to be A. 1.28 x 10-19 J
reconstituted and to be used for demodulation. B. 1.6 x 10-19 J
A. Reduce carrier single sideband emission C. 1.22 x 10-16 J
B. Half carrier single sideband emission D. 1.9 x 10-14 J
C. Full carrier single sideband emission 34. If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns,
D. Standard single sideband emission the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise
26. Station in the mobile service not intended to be time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?
used while in motion. A. 34.61 ns
A. Coast station B. 14.55 ns
 C. 52.55 ns 44. An electromagnetic wave is ________ polarized
D. 26.25 ns when the electric field lies wholly in one plane
35. Nominal voice channel containing the direction of propagation.
A. 20 to 20 KHz A. Horizontally
B. 16 to 16 KHz B. Linearly
C. 3 to 3 KHz C. Circularly
D. 4 KHz D. Vertically
36. Two or more antennas separated by 9 45. A device that reduces the intensity of light in
wavelengths are used. fiber optics communication systems.
A. Hybrid diversity A. Reducer
B. Space diversity B. Quality factor
C. Polarized diversity C. Optical attenuator
D. Frequency diversity D. Compressor
37. Nif stands for 46. Propagation mode of microwave in a waveguide
A. Narrow intermediate frequency is known as _______.
B. Noise interference figure A. TM
C. Noise improvement factor B. TE
D. Non-intrinsic figure C. SW
38. Any small element of space in the path of a wave D. TEM
may be considered as a source of secondary wavelet. 47. The width of the frequency band which is just
A. De Morgan’s Principle sufficient to ensure the transmission of information
B. Faraday’s Law at the rate and with the quality required under a
C. Huygen’s Principle specified condition and class of emission.
D. Fresnel’s Law of optics A. Occupied bandwidth
39. Modulation in which the modulated wave is B. Reference frequency
always present. C. Necessary bandwidth
A. Carrier modulation D. Frequency tolerance bandwidth
B. Front-end 48. A convenient method of determining antenna
C. Continuous modulation impedance.
D. Log-periodic modulation A. Stub matching
40. Atmospheric noise is less at severe frequencies B. Reactance circle
above C. Smith chart
A. Audio level D. Trial and error
B. 30 MHz 49. Which of the following fall under the high
C. 10 GHz frequency band of the radio spectrum?
D. 1 GHz A. 8.2345 MHz
41. At height about 180 km above the earth exist B. 150.50 MHz
only during daylight. C. 2.4555 MHz
A. F2 layer D. 35.535 MHz
B. D layer 50. The electric field lies in a plane parallel to the
C. E layer earth’s surface.
D. F1 layer A. Elliptical polarization
42. Radiation characteristics of a dipole B. Horizontal polarization
A. Figure of eight C. Vertical polarization
B. Omnidirectional D. Circular polarization
C. Bidirectional 51. The use of telecommunication for the
D. Unidirectional transmission of signals to initiate, modify or
43. Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish terminate functions of equipment at a distance.
operating at 1800 MHz. A. Tracking
A. 30 dB B. Telemetry
B. 11.2 dB C. Telecommand
C. 15.5 dB D. Space telemetry
D. 28.17 dB
52. The product of the power supplied to the A. 1023
antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave dipole in B. 425
a given direction. C. 511
A. Peak envelope power D. 756
B. ERP 61. A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK
C. Rated power transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps with a
D. Carrier power’ carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8.8dB. Find Eb/No.
53. The Ku-band in the satellite service A. 73 dB
A. 14/11 GHz B. 62.4 dB
B. 30/17 GHz C. 81.8 dB
C. 8/7 GHz D. 8.8 dB
D. 6/4 GHz 62. Receives and collects satellite signals form a
54. The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that one of the broadcast satellite.
binary states is represented by a carrier while the A. LNB
other is represented by its absence. B. Yagi-Uda array
A. FSK C. Satellite receiver
B. ASK D. Satellite disk
C. PSK 63. What is the effect in over modulated amplitude
D. QAM modulated radio broadcasting transmission?
55. Width measured in degrees of a major lobes A. Interference to adjacent channel
between end of the love at which the relative power B. Higher fidelity
is one half (-3dB) its value from the peak of the lobe. C. Increase noise
A. Bandwidth D. Higher audio signal
B. Wavelength 64. Average power of a radio transmitter supplied to
C. Radiation the antenna transmission line by a transmitter
D. Beamwidth during one radio frequency cycle taken under the
56. The most common unit of noise measurement in condition of no modulation.
white noise voltage testing. A. Peak envelop power
A. NPR B. Rated power
B. dBm C. Carrier power
C. dBW D. Mean power
D. dBrn 65. A method of expressing the amplitude of
57. Any governmental office responsible in complex non-periodic signals such as speech.
discharging the obligations undertaken in the A. Frequency
convention of the ITU and the regulation. B. Wavelength
A. Administration C. Volume
B. The union D. Pitch
C. Country 66. A government regulation in telecommunication
D. Telecommunications office which provide policy to improve the provision of
58. A large speaker having a large diameter (15 cm local exchange carrier service.
and above) A. E.O. 109
A. Coaxial speaker B. Act 3846
B. Woofer C. E.O. 59
C. Tweeter D. E.O. 546
D. Trixial speaker 67. Radio communication operation service between
59. Coaxial lines are used on those systems mobile and land stations or between mobile
operating _______. stations.
A. Below 2 GHz A. Land mobile satellite service
B. At 300 MHz B. Maritime mobile service
C. Above 10KHz C. Mobile service
D. Above 10GHz D. Land mobile
60. Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign 68. The smaller the f rating, the _____ light that lens
magnitude code. can take in.
 A. More 77. The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission
B. Intense line is always grounded at the
C. Less A. Input only
D. Same B. Input and output
69. A radio communications service use in radio C. Output only
regulation between specified fixed points provided D. Point of high SWR
primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the 78. Sound intensity is given as
regular efficient and economical air transport. A. df/dP
A. Space operation service B. dE/dp
B. Space service C. dA/dP
C. Aeronautical mobile service D. dP/dA
D. Aeronautical fixed service 79. The lowest frequency produced by an
70. Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. instrument.
A. High pass filter A. Harmonic
B. Low pass filter B. Fundamental
C. Tank circuit C. Midrange
D. M-derived filter D. 0 Hz
71. The tendency of the sound energy to spread. 80. The reflector and director of an antenna array
A. Rarefaction are considered as
B. Reflection A. Parasitic elements
C. Refraction B. Transcendental elements
D. Diffraction C. Feed-points
72. An earth satellite whose period of revolution is D. Driven elements
equal to the period of rotation of the earth about its 81. The core of the optical fiber has ______.
axis. A. A medium index of refraction
A. Geosynchronous B. A lower index of refraction than the cladding
B. Steerable C. A lower index of refraction than air
C. Passive D. A higher index of refraction than the
D. Active cladding
73. A figure of merit used to measure the 82. What makes an antenna physically long but
performance of a radiation detector. electrically short?
A. Noise equivalent power A. Top loading
B. Ripple factor B. Adding C in series
C. Safe factor C. Adding L in series
D. Quality factor D. All of these
74. Radio wave concentration in the direction of the 83. An AM transmitter is rated 100W at 100%
signal emitted by a directional antenna. modulation. How much power required for the
A. Back lobe radiation carrier?
B. Side lobe radiation A. 33.33 W
C. Major lobe radiation B. 66.66 W
D. Transmitted signal C. 83.33 W
75. What is the channel bandwidth of a standard D. 100 W
analogue telephone system? 84. Used for time division multiplexing.
A. 300 - 500 Hz A. Frequency modulation
B. 1200 kHz B. Pulsed modulation
C. 100 - 300 Hz C. SSB
D. 300 - 3400 Hz D. Amplitude modulation
76. A satellite receives an uplink frequency of 85. A means of beyond the line-of-sight propagation
_______ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz. of microwave signal.
A. 8150 MHz A. Space wave
B. 1475 MHz B. Microwave link
C. 2225 MHz C. Troposcatter
D. 5925 MHz D. Point-to-point
86. Which of the following refers to the smallest B. Attenuation
beam of satellite antenna’s radiation pattern? C. Bending loss
A. Hemispheric beam D. Rayleigh scattering loss
B. Spot beam 95. What is the unit of electric field strength?
C. Zone beam A. Watt/meter
D. Global beam B. Ohms/meter
87. Theoretical gain of a hertzian dipole C. Ampere/meter
A. 0 dB D. Watt/meter2
B. 1.76 dB E. No answer
C. 3 dB 96. Refers to the first generation of local loop system
D. 2.15 dB in telecommunication technology.
88. Satellite system or part of a satellite system, A. GSM
consisting of only one satellite and the operating B. DECT
earth station. C. Analogue cellular
A. Satellite system D. TACS
B. Satellite network 97. An area on the surface of the earth within which
C. Space system the bore sight of the steerable satellite beam
D. Multi-satellite link intended to be pointed
89. The difference between the original and A. Effective boresight area
reconstructed signal gives rise to B. Countour boresight area
A. S factor C. Coordination boresight are
B. Quantizing noise D. Equivalent boresight area
C. S/N 98. For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the
D. Fade margin maximum analog input frequency
90. An area in the memory used for temporary A. 30 kHz
storage of information, on “Last in First out” basis. B. 40 kHz
A. Core C. 20 kHz
B. Register D. 10 kHz
C. Flag 99. An antenna that can only receive a television
D. Stack signal.
91. Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile A. Isotropic antenna
service B. TVRO
A. Coast station C. Reference antenna
B. Ship earth station D. Yagi antenna
C. Coast earth station 100. Halo is also called
D. Maritime station A. Flare
92. Modulation in which no signal is present B. Dark current
between pulses C. Glitch
A. Pulse modulation D. Ghost
B. QAM
C. PSK Communications Engineering MCQ 5
D. FSK
93. In the designation of bandwidth and emission, 1. Space diversity transmission means transmitting
what letter in the first symbol represents a double- and receiving on _______.
sideband type of modulation? A. Two or more antennas operating on two
A. A different frequencies
B. B B. Two or more identical frequencies
C. C C. Two or more antennas operating on the
D. H same frequency
94. Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes D. Two or more different frequency
on the irregularities formed during the 2. An increase in the effective power radiated by an
manufacturing process of the fiber optics. antenna in a certain desired direction at the expense
A. Absorption loss of power radiated in other directions.
 A. Antenna gain A. Efficiency = effective radiated
B. Antenna back lobe ration power/transmitter output x 100%
C. Antenna total ration B. Efficiency = radiation resistance/ transmission
D. Antenna efficiency resistance
3. A radio land station in the land mobile service C. Efficiency = total resistance/radiation
A. Mobile station resistance x 100%
B. Land station D. Efficiency = radiation resistance/total
C. Base station resistance x 100%
D. Ship earth station 12. This is referred to as a fixed radio station that
4. A major and basic advantage for the use of a broadcasts program material from studio to
klystron. transmitter by radio link.
A. High power A. Aural BC intercity relay
B. Efficiency B. Aural broadcast STL
C. Lesser noise C. Shortwave station
D. Cheaper D. Remote-pickup
5. A band where most military satellite often operate 13. What law does a light traveling in air optical fiber
A. Ku follow?
B. C A. Millman
C. X B. Snell’s
D. L C. Maxwell
6. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter D. Huygen
usually operates class ______. 14. Which of the following is designated as the
A. AB international distress, safety and calling frequency
B. C for radio telephony for stations of the maritime
C. B mobile service when using frequencies in the
D. A authorized bands between 156 and 174 MHz?
7. In television broadcasting vivid strong colors are A. 165.8 MHz
often referred as _______. B. 156.8 MHz
A. Saturation C. 158.6 MHz
B. Hue D. 168.5 MHz
C. Chrominance 15. A device that connects two dissimilar networks
D. Luminance and performs the protocol conversion.
8. Where do the maximum current and minimum A. Gateway
voltage values on a resonant Hertz dipole exist? B. Coupler
A. Center of the antenna C. Transformer
B. Near the end of the antenna D. Converter
C. Near the center of the antenna 16. The use of telecommunication for the
D. Ends of the antenna transmission of signals to initiate, modify or
9. How can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded terminate functions of equipment at a distance.
vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a A. Tracking
half-wave antenna? B. space command
A. By lengthening the vertical C. Telecommand
B. By installing a good ground radial system D. Trunking
C. By shortening the vertical 17. Best described a dip-meter.
D. By isolating the coax shield from ground A. A variable LC oscillator with metered
10. At what distance is VHF propagation normally feedback current
limited? B. An SWR meter
A. Around 500 miles C. A counter
B. Around 1500 miles D. A field strength meter
C. Around 2000 miles 18. Refers to an emission designation for facsimile?
D. Around 1000 miles A. J3E and F4E
11. What is meant by the term antenna efficiency? B. A3J and A4E
C. A3E and F3C
 D. R3E and A3E C. At center
19. How does a SSB transmitter output power D. Near the feed point
normally expressed? 26. This is a flexible vertical rod antenna commonly
A. Average power used on mobiles.
B. In terms of peak envelop power A. Marconi
C. In terms of peak-to-peak power B. Hertz
D. Peak power C. Whip
20. In satellite communication, the Geostationary D. Ground plane
satellites are conveniently located with respect to 27. Referred to as an average power from the radio
the equator at _______. transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission
A. 45 degrees latitude line taken during one radio frequency cycle under no
B. 90 degrees latitude modulation.
C. 0 degrees latitude A. Carrier power
D. 5 degrees latitude B. Rated power
21. Known as the technique for adding a series C. Peak envelop power
inductor at or near the center of an antenna element D. Mean power
in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an 28. _______ is a major cause of the sporadic-E
antenna. condition
A. Dipole A. Temperature inversions
B. Center loading B. Sunspots
C. Reflector C. Meteors
D. loading coil D. Wind shear
22. What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth 29. Which of the following refers to a double side
A. Antenna length divided by the number of band full carrier?
elements. A. A3E
B. The angle between the half-power radiation B. A3J
points C. F3
C. The frequency range over which and D. R3A
antenna can be expected to perform well 30. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for
D. The angle formed between two imaginary public carrier network before a certificate of public
line drawn through the ends of the elements convenience or a provisional authority is issued?
23. A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular A. Franchise
system B. SEC document
A. TACS C. Business permit
B. FDMA D. Radio station license
C. TDMA 31. How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single
D. CDMA GSM carrier?
24. Refers to an effect of selective fading. A. 100 kHz
A. A fading effect caused by phase differences B. 200 kHz
between radio wave components of the same C. 50 kHz
transmission, as experienced at the receiving D. 16 kHz
station. 32. With which emission type is the capture-effect
B. A fading effect caused by small changes in most pronounced?
beam heading at the receiving station. A. CW
C. A fading effect caused by the time differences B. FM
between the receiving and transmitting stations. C. SSB
D. A fading effect caused by large changes in the D. AM
height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the 33. What is a dummy antenna?
receiving station. A. One which is used as a reference for gain
25. Where the voltage node of a half-wave antenna measurements
does exists? B. And antenna used for hand-held radio
A. At feed point C. An non-directional transmitting antenna
B. Near the center
 D. A non-radiating load for a transmitter used 42. Station located on an object which is beyond and
for testing is intended to go beyond the major portion of the
34. Best description of a collinear and broadside earth’s atmosphere.
antenna radiation pattern. A. Terrestrial station
A. Bidirectional B. Space station
B. Perfect circle C. Satellite station
C. Unidirectional D. Mobile satellite station
D. Omnidirectional 43. A radio frequency in the ultra high frequency
35. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of band of the radio spectrum band.
earths surface. A. 235.50 MHz
A. Spot beam B. 450.50 MHz
B. Global beam C. 150.50 GHz
C. Zone beam D. 0.31250 GHz
D. Hemispheric beam 44. Technical study which deals with production,
36. The modulation technique used by GSM cellular transport and delivery of a quality signal from source
system to destination.
A. Phase shift keying A. Transmission system engineering
B. Frequency shift keying B. Communication system engineering
C. Gaussian minimum shift keying C. Telephony engineering
D. QAM D. Telegraphic engineering
37. ________ generates light beam at a specific 45. It is used to connect computers in the same
visible frequency. building or in same area
A. Glass fiber A. MAN
B. Infrared B. LAN
C. Light waves C. SWITCH
D. Laser D. WAN
38. The most common application of satellites 46. Referred by radio regulation as the station in the
A. Surveillance mobile service not intended to be used while in
B. Reconnaissance motion.
C. Defense systems A. Fixed station
D. Communication B. Base station
39. Referred to the dielectric constant of a C. Land station
transmission line material. D. Coast station
A. Inductance and capacitance 47. What is the mixing process?
B. Velocity factor A. Distortion caused by auroral propagation
C. Characteristic impedance B. The combination of two signals to produce
D. Propagation velocity sum and difference frequencies.
40. Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in C. The elimination of noise in wideband receiver
lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter by phase differentiation
and receiver when both are connected to the same D. The elimination of noise in a wideband
antenna. receiver by phase comparison
A. Isolator 48. Which of the following systems is not used in
B. Circulator radio detection and ranging?
C. Coupler A. Frequency shift
D. Diode. B. Frequency modulation
41. _______ is more prevalent in analog signals that C. Pulse radar
have steep slopes or whose amplitudes vary rapidly. D. Amplitude modulation
A. Peak limiting 49. Considered as the main source of an internal
B. Quantization noise noise.
C. Granular noise A. Device imperfection
D. Slope overload B. Thermal agitation
C. Temperature change
D. Flicker
50. In shipboard satellite dish antennas system, C. Frequency deviation
azimuth is referred as the _______. D. Deviation ratio
A. 0 to 90 degrees 59. Find the product of the following binary number
B. Vertical aiming of the antenna 100 to 101.
C. North to East A. 11000
D. Horizontal aiming of the antenna B. 10100
51. What is the period of a wave? C. 10010
A. The number of degrees in tone cycle D. 11100
B. The number of zero crossing in one cycle 60. Which of the following is and impedance
C. The amplitude of the wave matching ration of coax balun?
D. The time required to complete one cycle A. 2:8
52. Is the total useful information processed or B. 1:2
communicated over a specific amount of time C. 4:1
A. Baud rate D. 2:1
B. Bit rate 61. Quantity that do not change when a beam of
C. Information theory light enters on e medium to another.
D. Throughput A. Frequency
53. What is the approximate percentage of earth B. Wavelength
coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree C. Direction
elevation? D. Speed
A. 33.3% 62. Which of the following described the very early
B. 45.2% standard that defines binary digits as space/mark
C. 42.5% line condition and voltage levels?
D. 30.5% A. V.4
54. This refers to an area in the memory used for B. V.2
temporary storage of information on the basis of C. V.1
“Last in First out”. D. V.5
A. Core 63. A form of single sideband emission where the
B. Register degree of carrier suppression enable the carrier to
C. Flag be reconstituted and be used for demodulation.
D. Stack A. Half carrier single sideband emission
55. What is a driven element of an antenna? B. Full carrier single sideband emission
A. Always the rearmost element C. Reduced carrier single sideband emission
B. Always the forward most element D. Double sideband emission
C. The element fed by the transmission line 64. An instrument for recording waveforms of audio
D. The element connected to the rotator frequency.
56. Which of the following term best described the A. Oscilloscope
overload distortion? B. Phonoscope
A. Peak limiting C. Radioscope
B. Quantization noise D. Audioscope
C. Granular noise 65. How much is the required minimum power
D. Slope distortion output of an international AM BC stations?
57. What do you mean by the outward flow of and A. 5 kW
energy from any source in the form of radio waves? B. 30 kW
A. Radiation C. 10 kW
B. Emission D. 50 kW
C. Encoding 66. What is the equivalent of decimal 51 in binary?
D. Tracking A. 111011
58. Refer to the deviation of the operating frequency B. 110011
of a crystal oscillator from its nominal value due to C. 111001
temperature variations. D. 100011
A. Drift
B. Flash over
67. One of the first satellite system catering personal A. Through installing a band-pass filter in the
based communications services scheduled for antenna feed line
operation. B. Through installing terminated circulator or
A. Iridium system ferrite isolator in the feed line of the transmitter
B. Plutonium system and duplexer
C. Indium system C. By using a class C final amplifier with high
D. Gallium system driving power
68. What do you call a circuit that controls the D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna
magnetron output? feed line
A. Inverter 76. What propagation condition is usually indicated
B. Impeller when a VHF signal is received from a station over
C. Modulator 5000 miles away?
D. Converter A. Moonbounce
69. Known as the satellite transmitted signal form a B. D-layer absorption
satellite transponder to earth’s station. C. Tropospheric ducting
A. Uplink D. Faraday rotation
B. Down link 77. In radio High frequency communications the
C. RHCP higher the radio frequency the ______.
D. Vertically polarized A. Higher it can reach
70. Which of the following colors of light rays has the B. Shorter it can reach
shortest wavelength? C. Effect is null
A. Yellow D. Longer it can reach
B. Violet 78. The signal to noise ratio that is required for a
C. Red satisfactory television reception.
D. Blue A. 30 dB
71. Antenna which is not properly terminated B. 40 dB
A. Isotropic C. 10 dB
B. Non-resonant D. 20 dB
C. Whip 79. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic
D. Resonant waves as horizontally polarized?
72. Term in communication which is referred, “to A. The electric field is parallel to the earth
send out in all direction”. B. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
A. Announce vertical
B. Broadcast C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
C. Transmit horizontal
D. Media D. The magnetic fields is parallel to the earth
73. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values 80. What is emission F3F?
of current and voltage exist compared to the A. Facsimile
remainder of the antenna? B. Modulated CW
A. Minimum voltage and minimum current C. RTTY
B. Equal voltage and current D. Television
C. Minimum voltage and maximum current 81. How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
D. Maximum voltage and minimum current. A. Increase the receiver bandwidth
74. One of the following stands for SONET acronym B. Ensure good RF shielding between the
in telecommunication transmitter and receiver
A. System optical network C. Increase the transmitter audio gain
B. Simple operation network D. Decrease the receiver squelch, gain.
C. Synchronous optical network 82. Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber
D. System operating network optics communications links.
75. How can intermodulation interference between A. Attenuator
two transmitters in close proximity reduced or B. Optical repeater
eliminated? C. Optical amplifier
D. Generator
83. What do you call the single booster installed on 91. The latest government regulation in the
the antenna dish of satellite receiver? telecommunication which provides policy for the
A. Low noise amplifier provision of local exchange carrier service.
B. Single amplifier A. E.O. 546
C. Noise amplifier B. E.O. 109
D. Rectifier C. Act 3948
84. Term for the transmission of printed pictures by D. E.O. 59
radio? 92. Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver that
A. Facsimile contributes most of the noise.
B. ACSSB A. IF amplifier
C. Xerography B. Supply stage
D. Television C. Speaker
85. An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling D. Mixer
channel due to telegraph or signaling current by 93. The frequency tolerance of an AM radio
another channel. broadcast station
A. Crosstalk A. 200 Hz
B. Noise current B. 2000 Hz
C. Crossfire C. 20 Hz
D. Intermodulation D. 2 Hz
86. Where is the noise generated that primarily 94. What are electromagnetic waves?
determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF (150 A. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at
MHz) marine-band receiver? right angles to each other
A. In the ionosphere B. A wave consisting of an electric field and a
B. In the receiver rear end magnetic field at right angles to each other.
C. In the receiver front end C. Alternating currents in the core of an
D. In the atmosphere electromagnet
87. Known as the data transfer scheme that used D. A wave consisting of two electric fields at
handmaking principle. right angles to each other
A. Synchronous data transfer scheme 95. What is the frequency range of C-band?
B. DMA data transfer scheme A. 10.95 to 14.5 GHz
C. Asynchronous data transfer scheme B. 27.5 to 31 GHz
D. Uninterrupted data transfer scheme C. 3.4 to 6.424 GHz
88. Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual D. 1.53 to 2.7 GHz
transmitter. 96. Determine from the following the basic mode of
A. Pulse modulation transmission system in the public data network in
B. DSBFC which data are transferred from the source to the
C. Vestigial sideband network and from the network to the destination in
D. SSBFC the frame format.
89. A transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna when A. Voice mode
it is unmodulated, determine the total radiated B. Asynchronous mode
power when modulated at 30%. C. Synchronous mode
A. 5 kW D. Packet mode
B. 20 kW 97. Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses two
C. 15 kW or more straight elements arranged in line with each
D. 8.36 kW other.
90. Best describe as an amplifier used in radio A. Dipole antenna
telephony. B. Yagi antenna
A. Magnifier C. Whip antenna
B. Class B D. Rhombic antenna
C. Class C 98. What is a frequency discriminator?
D. Class A A. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent
signals
B. A circuit for detecting FM signals
 C. An FM generator D. E
D. An automatic bandswitching circuit. 6. Which of the following is not a common
99. These are used to connect non-ISDN equipment microwave application?
of ISDN line. A. Radar
A. Digipeaters B. Data transmission
B. Terminal adapters C. Space communications
C. Local repeaters D. Mobile radio
D. Terminal repeaters 7. Which of the following is referred to as a radio
100. The executive branch of government in charge emission without sidebands
of policy making in the telecommunications. A. Analog
A. National telecommunications commission B. Carrier
B. Telecommunications control bureau C. Data
C. Department of transportation and D. Voice
communications 8. How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a
D. Bureau of telecommunications fiber optic multimode have over a cable?
A. 50 times bigger
Communications Engineering MCQ 6 B. 100 times bigger
C. 10 times bigger
1. When adjusting an RF filter on a transmitter using D. 5 times bigger
a dummy load, how much watts dissipation should it 9. Type of antenna which is normally used for
stand to test a 150 watts transmitter? satellite tracking service.
A. 75 watts A. Omni
B. 300 watts B. Helical
C. 50 watts C. Yagi
D. 150 watts D. Dipole
2. When does broadcast station conduct and 10. One of the following is referred to as a major
equipment test? component of an optical time domain reflectometer
A. During day time A. Pulse generator and vertical plate
B. During night time B. Laser and horizontal plate
C. At any time C. Pulse generator laser
D. During experimental period D. Vertical and horizontal plate
3. Channel 7 of the regular television channel 11. One of the commonly used domain in the
belongs to which band? internet service.
A. Low VHF band A. Yahoo
B. High VHF band B. http
C. Low UHF band C. com
D. High UHF band D. www
4. Which of the following is one of the possible 12. What is meant by the term radiation resistance
causes for a slow drift of frequency in a self exited for an antenna?
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor A. The resistance in the trap coils to received
frequency stability? signal
A. Poor soldered connections B. An equivalent resistance that would
B. Power supply voltage changes dissipate the same amount of power as that
C. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, radiated from an antenna
or antenna circuits C. The specific impedance of the antenna
D. DC and RF heating of resistors, causing then D. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line
to change values. 13. Referred to an oscillator signal “leak through”
5. A third symbol radio emission which represent from a properly neutralized amplifier such as a
telephone transmission including sound master oscillator power amplifier.
broadcasting. A. Carrier
A. W B. Stray signal
B. F C. Back wave
C. C D. Loss wave
14. An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced between channel, what is the center of its first
noise signals from magnetic field or solar storms channel from the lower limit?
flux. A. 401.125 MHz
A. Electric hazard B. 401.00625 MHz
B. Cross talk C. 401.025 MHz
C. Immunity to noise D. 401.0125 MHz
D. Shielding 23. Determine the effective radiated power of 20 kW
15. What kind of effect is referred to a varying light TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna has a field
producing a varying voltage output of a detector? gain of 2.
A. Current effect A. 40 kW
B. Voltage effect B. 80,000 watts
C. Resistive effect C. 40,000 watts
D. Photovoltaic effect D. 8,000 watts
16. ______ is known to be the first satellite capable 24. In indication signal for a handshake form the DCE
of receiving and transmitting simultaneously. to the DTE in response to an active condition for the
A. Syncom I request to send a signal.
B. Telstar I A. Data transmission
C. Score B. Clear to send
D. Aguila C. Receive data
17. The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is in D. Data set ready
the radio spectrum range of _______. 25. In amplitude modulation technique the
A. 30 to 300 kHz unmodulated carrier is referred to as having ______.
B. 30 to 300 GHz A. 100% modulation
C. 3 to 30 MHz B. 0% modulation
D. 3 to 30 GHz C. 50% modulated
18. One of the following is not among the D. Over modulated
advantages of series modulation 26. One of the following is not among the major
A. No transformer components required on board ship under the global
B. Suppressed white noise maritime distress and safety system.
C. Simple A. On board radio facilities
D. Modulates any frequency B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
19. What do you call the service area of a standard C. Shore base facilities
AM broadcast where fading is allowed but not D. Radio personnel on board
objectionable co-channel interference? 27. In what form does the information of data
A. Experimental communications is transmitted between two points?
B. Secondary A. Alphanumeric form
C. Tertiary B. Alphabetic form
D. Primary C. Numeric form
20. A third symbol emission which represent D. Binary form
television. 28. Width of frequency band just enough to ensure
A. C the transmission of information at a required rate
B. D and quality required, and under a specified condition
C. F and class of emission.
D. A A. Occupied bandwidth
21. In telecommunications when we call data B. Transmission bandwidth
communications it means the transmission C. Necessary bandwidth
of________. D. Frequency bandwidth
A. Voice and video 29. Refers to one of the front end circuit of a VHF TV
B. Voice superheterodyne receiver which is usually a separate
C. Video circuit coupled to the mixer.
D. Computer data A. Antenna feed
22. If frequency range of 401.000MHz to B. AGC
401.050MHz has to be channelized at 12.5 kHz C. RF amplifier
 D. Local oscillator D. CRT bias
30. All bits in character are sent and received ______ 37. Determine the dB gain of a receiving antenna
in serial port. which delivers a microvolt signal to a transmission
A. In groups of 3 bits line over that of an antenna that delivers a 20
B. One at a time microvolt signal under identical circumstances.
C. In groups of 2 bits A. 10 dB
D. Simultaneously B. 6 dB
31. One of the following is a possible cause of an C. 3 dB
abrupt frequency variation in a self exited D. 8 dB
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor 38. Refers to one of a commonly used internet
frequency stability to hold a constant frequency service domain.
oscillation. A. www
A. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil B. http
B. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which cause C. gov
change in values D. infoseek
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator 39. A law that specifically requires the service of a
D. Loose connections in the oscillator, duly registered electronics and communications
amplifier, or antenna circuits. engineer in the designing installation and
32. Which of the following parts of the radio receiver construction, operation and maintenance of radio
represent the component that extracts the desire RF stations.
signal from the electromagnetic wave? A. Act 3846
A. AF amplifier B. LOl 1000
B. Antenna C. R.A. 5734
C. Detector D. Dept. order 88
D. Crystal 40. Which band does channel 14 of the television
33. It is an average power of a radio transmitter channel belong?
supplied to the antenna transmission line taken A. High VHF band
during a long sufficient interval of time and B. EHF band
compared with the lowest frequency encountered in C. UHF band
the modulation, taken under the normal operating D. Low VHF band
conditions. 41. How many ship’s area is designated in the
A. Carrier power implementation of the global maritime distress and
B. Rated power safety system.
C. Mean power A. Four
D. Peak envelop power B. Six
34. Determine from the following radio frequency C. Three
that falls under the very high frequency band of the D. Two
radio spectrum. 42. What kind of receiver is used in conventional
A. 345.00 MHz telephone handset?
B. 144.50 MHz A. Capacitor
C. 235.50 MHz B. Electromagnetic
D. 450.00 MHz C. Carbon
35. What is the typical number of bits in a static D. Ceramic
memory location? 43. Determine the lower half-power frequency of a
A. 1 class-C amplifier having upper half-power frequency
B. 2 of 10.025 MHz, a resonant frequency 5 MHz and a
C. 16 circuit Q of 10.
D. 8 A. 1.0025 MHz
36. What controls the contrast of a television B. 10.525 MHz
cathode ray picture? C. 0.5 MHz
A. AFC D. 10 MHz
B. video stage gain 44. This is referred to a product of simultaneous
C. Audio gain control frequency and amplitude modulation or a carrier
frequency variation which produces unwanted B. Double sideband full carrier
distortion. C. Independent sideband
A. Absorption modulation D. Double sideband
B. Simultaneous modulation 52. Assume a frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to
C. Dynamic instability 405.0875 MHz and 25 kHz channeling plan,
D. Series modulation determine the center frequency of the second
45. Main basic components of a data communication channel from the lower limit.
are composed of the following. A. 405.030 MHz
A. Computer, modern and router B. 405.025 MHz
B. Computer, bridge and gateway C. 405.050 MHz
C. Transmitter, channel and receiver D. 405.075 MHz
D. Transmitter, computer and modem 53. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching
46. The international radio consultative committee is and local distribution facilities of local exchange and
referred to in international radio communication as inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers,
______. offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily
A. IRCC provided by such carriers.
B. ITU A. International carrier
C. IRR B. Value-added service provided
D. CCIR C. Inter-exchange carrier
47. Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local D. Local exchange carrier
exchange terminal through a combination of two 54. Which of the following refers to full duplex
frequencies 350 Hz, and 440 Hz. transmission?
A. Busy tone A. One at a time transmission
B. Call waiting tone B. Two transmission medium
C. Dial tone C. Intermittent transmission
D. Standard tone D. Two way simultaneous transmission
48. One of the advantages of fiber optic which is 55. What is the first symbol of a radio signal
referred to the volume of capacity of signals it can transmission having an amplitude modulated signal
carry. carrier, double side band?
A. Security A. C
B. Weight B. B
C. Bandwidth C. H
D. Physical size D. A
49. Assume a frequency range of 401.000 MHz to 56. Best choice of transmission line component to
401.050 MHz, if you apply 25 kHz channeling plan, couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line
determine the center frequency of the first channel A. Shorting
from the lower limit. B. Balun
A. 401.010 MHz C. Slotted line
B. 401.0125 MHz D. Directional coupler
C. 401.025 MHz 57. Which of the following refers to the video signal
D. 401.00625 MHz amplitude that determines the quality of the
50. The stability of transmitted signal from a simple picture?
Hartley oscillator single transmitter which is coupled A. Chrominance
to and antenna wire affected by ______. B. Luminance
A. Chirping of oscillator C. Brightness
B. Closer coupling between the oscillator and D. Contrast
the antenna. 58. ________ is the method of encoding audio
C. Location of antenna signals used in US standard 1544 kbit/s 24 channel
D. Material of antenna PCM systems.
51. Refers to the first symbol in an emission A. Shannon’s law
designation with an amplitude modulated main B. A-law
carrier represented by letter H. C. Newton’s law
A. Single sideband suppressed carrier D. Mu-law
59. In radio regulation, the first symbol in the C. Active satellite
designation of radio emission is ______. D. Geosynchronous satellite
A. Bandwidth 67. Electromagnetic waves of frequencies arbitrarily
B. Nature of signal(s) modulation the main lower than 3,000 GHz, propagated in space without
carrier artificial guide.
C. Type of modulation of the main carrier A. Space waves
D. Type of information to be transmitted B. Terrestrial waves
60. Who is the principal administrator of republic act C. Mobile
7925? D. Hertzian waves
A. BOC 68. Frequencies above ______ kHz, are referred to
B. DOTC as the radio frequencies.
C. Congress A. 20
D. NTC B. 2
61. What is the term for the ration of the radiation C. 10
resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of D. 200
the system? 69. Who is responsible in the correctness and
A. Effective radiated power accuracy of transmitted information content over a
B. Beamwidth data communication?
C. Radiation conversion loss A. The channel
D. Antenna efficiency B. The transmitter and receiver
62. Where does the AM broadcast band located in C. The modem
the spectrum band? D. The bridge
A. HF band 70. What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
B. VHF band A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to
C. LF band the audio modulating frequency
D. MF band B. The ratio of the highest audio modulating
63. What determines the velocity factor in frequency to the average audio modulating
transmission line? frequency
A. The center conductor resistivity C. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency
B. Dielectrics in the line deviation to the highest audio modulation
C. The termination impedance frequency
D. The line length D. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency
64. Refers to an address that identifies a server on to the center carrier frequency
the network and a particular document on the 71. A quarter wavelength devices made of crystalline
server calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber
A. Hypertext communication.
B. HTML A. Isolator
C. Wide area network B. Retarder
D. Uniform resource locator C. Polarizer
65. Type of emission produced by one of the early D. Filters
radio transmitter in trains of damped RF ac waves 72. Known as the maritime communications law
where its oscillator is coupled to a long wire which was enacted December 5, 1927
antenna, normally used in radio telegraph and A. R.A. No. 109
having sidebands on its carrier. B. R.A. No. 3396
A. Digital emission C. R.A. No. 7925
B. Key emission D. R.A. No. 3846
C. Cycle emission 73. How do you transmit through multiplexing, a
D. Spark emission thousand of voice channel information over a single
66. Is a kind of satellite which has a period of fiber optic using one wavelength?
revolution equivalent to the period of rotation of the A. Polar division
earth about its axis. B. Time division
A. Passive satellite C. Fiber division
B. Synchronous satellite D. Frequency division
74. In regulation of public telecommunications
carrier such as in the evaluation of new entrant, the
following consideration shall be given emphasis to
_______.
A. Legal, technical and citizenship
B. Technical, citizenship and kind of service
C. Citizenship, capacity and financial
D. Technical, legal and financial
75. One of the following is a high powered RF ac
basic transmitter that has two or more stages, the
oscillator stage which determines the frequency
operation and RF amplifier stage or stages that
develop the high power output. The purpose of
which is to develop a good frequency stability.
A. Goldsmith
B. MOPA
C. Alexanderson
D. Hartley
76. What is the meaning of the term velocity factor
of a transmission line?
A. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
B. The velocity of the wave on the transmission
line multiplied by the velocity of light in vacuum
C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of
the line to the terminating impedance
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission
line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
77. Which of the following determines the
characteristics of a transmission line?
A. Inductance
B. Capacitance
C. Physical dimension
D. Length
78. One of the following is among the types of fiber
optics used in electronics communication.
A. Step-index multimode
B. Graded-index multimode
C. Semi-graded multimode
D. Single mode
79. Which of the following refers to the smallest
beam of a satellite antenna’s radiation pattern
A. Global beam
B. Spot beam
C. Zone beam
D. Hemispheric beam
80. One of the FM signal generator control which
varies the phase of the modulating voltage applied
to the oscillator of the sweep generator
A. Band control
B. Phase control
C. Marker amplitude control
D. Sweep output control
81. What consists the front-end circuit of a VHF TV
superheterodyne receiver?
A. Mixer, RF amplifier and AFC?
B. RF amplifier, Band pass filter and mixer
C. Local oscillator, mixer and RF amplifier
D. Local oscillator, AGC and antenna
82. One of the following prevents a transmitter from
emitting a signal that interferes with other stations
on frequency during the test.
A. Use of low height antenna
B. Use of grounded antenna
C. Use of dummy antenna
D. Use of shielded antenna radiator
83. A transmission line consisting of two conductors
that have equal resistance per unit length.
A. Unbalanced line
B. Open-wire line
C. Balanced line
D. Coaxial line
84. How do you eliminate radio frequency variation
of an oscillator transmitter caused by its supply
voltage?
A. Use new power supply
B. Lossen power supply shielding
C. Use of regulated power supply
D. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
85. Which of the following is not common
transmission line impedance?
A. 50 ohms
B. 120 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 650 ohms
86. How do you reduce the loss that is produced
when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic?
A. By painting the surface
B. By inclining the surface
C. By cooling
D. By application of antireflection coating
87. Best reason for pressurizing waveguides with dry
air
A. To maintain propagation
B. To maintain temperature of the waveguide
C. To reduce the possibility of internal arcing
D. To increase the speed of propagation
88. What is the device used in fiber optic
communication which consist of a receiver
transmitter use to clean up and amplify digital data
moving in one direction and another in the opposite
direction?
A. Optic compressors
B. Optic retarders
C. Optic isolator
D. Optic regenerators
89. Which of the following refers to the first active B. More bandwidth than analog
satellite? C. Less bandwidth than analog
A. Telstar I D. Bigger cable diameter
B. Echo I 98. Assuming a UHF frequency range of 405.0125
C. Intelsat I MHz to 405.0875 MHz at 25 kHz channeling plan,
D. Sputnik I how many channels can you produce?
90. In modulation technique, which of the following A. 2.5 ch.
is referred to audible pitch? B. 2 ch.
A. Width C. 4 ch.
B. Frequency D. 3 ch.
C. Harmonic 99. One of the following is a possible cause for a
D. Amplitude slow drift of frequency in a self-exited transmitter
91. What do you call the phenomenon in digital oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency
circuits that describe the duration of time a digital stability.
signal passes a circuit? A. Loose shielding
A. Transmission time B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
B. Elapsed time C. Poor soldered connections
C. Propagation delay D. Faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or resistors
D. Travel delay 100. A modulation which does not follow the sine
92. What is the major cause of atmospheric or static wave pattern, it produces undesirable harmonics
noise? such as spurious emission
A. Sunspots A. 0% modulated
B. Airplanes B. Over-modulated
C. Meteor showers C. Unmodulated
D. Thunderstorm D. 100% modulated
93. Which of the following is not referred to as data
terminal equipment? Communications Engineering MCQ 7
A. Telephone set
B. Printers 1. How far away is the radio horizon of an antenna
C. Modem 100 ft high?
D. Computer A. 14.14 mi
94. _______ is referred as the difference between B. 40km
available power and power budget? C. 14.14 km
A. Fade margin D. 40 mi
B. Power margin 2. What is the maximum line-of-sight distance
C. Nominal gain between a paging antenna 250 ft high and a pager
D. Power dissipation receiver 3.5 ft of the ground?
95. The conversion of digital signal into analog for A. 25 km
purposes of transmitting into the telephone line is B. 25 mi
done through ______. C. 70.73 km
A. ISDN D. 70.73 mi
B. Radio 3. What is the path attenuation between transmitter
C. RS232C and receiver at a frequency of 1.2 Ghz and a distance
D. Modem of 11,000 mi?
96. Refers to the duration occupancy period of call A. 119 dB
during its use. B. 115 dB
A. Occupancy period C. 179 dB
B. Traffic time D. 174 dB
C. Use time 4. What is the uplink receiver frequency if the
D. Holding time downlink transmitter is on channel 4 (3.84 Ghz)?
97. In data communication the transmission of A. 6.065 GHz
binary signals will require _______. B. 6.84 GHz
A. Same bandwidth as analog C. 6.65 GHz
 D. 6.05 GHz A. Ku
5. What is the maximum theoretical data rate of the B. C band
above problem if one transponder is used for binary C. J
transmission? D. P
A. 36 Mbps 14. What satellite subsystem monitors onboard
B. 72 Mbps conditions such as temperature and battery voltage
C.18 Mbps and transmits this data back to a ground station for
D. 144 Mbps analysis?
6. What is the guardband between transponder A. Communications subsystem
channels in the commercial C-band for satellite B. AKM
communications? C. TTC
A. 6 MHz D. Transponder
B. 36 MHz 15. Which of the following satellite subsystem
C. 4 MHz provides stabilization in orbit and senses changes in
D. 2 MHz orientation?
7. What is the typical satellite transponder A. Attitude control subsystem
bandwidth? B. TTC
A. 24 MHz C. AKM
B. 500 MHz D. Transponder
C. 36 MHz 16. What is the typical center frequency spacing
D. 48 MHz between adjacent channels (transponders) in
8. What is the bandwidth available in the satellites?
commercial C-band? A. 36 MHz
A. 1000 MHz B. 40 MHz
B. 36 MHz C. 500 MHz
C. 250 MHz D. 4 MHz
D. 500 MHz 17. Which of the following are uplinks in the Ku
9. Which of the following is the uplink frequency in band?
C-band? A. 14 to 14.5 GHz
A. 5.925 GHz B. 11.7 to 12.2 GHz
B. 4.2 GHz C. 14 to 15.5 GHz
C. 7.425 GHz D. 11 to 11.5 GHz
D. 3.7 GHz 18. What is considered as the most advanced
10. How many transponder channels are realized in satellite system developed for cellular telephones?
the commercial C-band without frequency re-use? A. Iridium
A. 24 B. Globalstar
B. 12 C. ANIK
C. 36 D. Molniya
D. 48 19. What is the orbit of Motorola’s Iridium satellite
11. Which band of frequencies used by military for system?
its satellites and radar? A. Polar
A. C band B. Equatorial
B. X band C. Inclined elliptical
C. L band D. Inclined equatorial
D. P band 20. What band of frequencies do these satellites
12. For navigation as well as marine and aeronautical operate?
communications and radar, ____ band is used. A. L band
A. L B. Ka band
B. K C. C band
C. S D. Ku band
D. J 21. Iridium satellites can provide data
13. What is the current frequency band given most communications of up ____ bps data rate.
attenuation for satellite communications? A. 1200
 B. 4800 C. 305 Ω
C. 2400 D. 301 Ω
D. 3840 31. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial
22. What satellite system is also known as Navstar? line with the following data: inner diameter = 0.2 in.,
A. GPS center conductor diameter = 0.06 in., insulation =
B. Iridium Teflon.
C. Globalstar A. 200 Ω
D. Intelsat B. 75 Ω
23. What is the orbit height of a GPS satellite? C. 50 Ω
A. 10,898 nmi D. 150 Ω
B. 10,898 mi 32. A pair of current-carrying conductors is not
C. 10,898 km considered a transmission line unless it is at least
D. 10, 898 m ___ λ long at the signal frequency.
24. What is the orbital period of each satellite in the A. 0.1
GPS constellation? B. 0.3
A. 6 h C. 0.2
B. 12 h D. 0.4
C. 5 h 33. If the operating frequency is 450 MHz what
D. 15 h length of a pair of conductors is considered to be a
25. What term is normally associated with specifying transmission line?
the location of a celestial body in space? A. 2.19 ft
A. Constellation B. 2.19 m
B. Galaxy C. 0.219 ft
C. Satellite D. 0.219 m
D. Ephemeris 34. What is the physical length of the above
26. What is the angle of inclination of GPS system? transmission line at 3/8λ long?
A. 55˚ A.0.82 m
B. 65˚ B. 0.82 ft
C. 105˚ C. 0.82 in
D. 45˚ D. 0.82 cm
27. What material is most often used for the outer 35. Which of the following coaxial cable connectors
covering of coaxial cables? is called the UHF connector?
A. PVC A. PL-259
B. Teflon B. BNC
C. PE C. N-type connector
D. Polystyrene D. F connector
28. What is the dielectric constant of polyethylene 36. What connector is popular in attaching test
(PE) insulator? instruments like oscilloscopes, frequency counters,
A. 2.5 spectrum analyzers, etc?
B. 3.3 A. UHF connector
C. 2.27 B. PL-259
D. 2.1 C. BNC
29. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is also widely D. SMA
used insulator and is known as. 37. Which coaxial cable connector is least expensive
A. polystyrene and is widely used for TV sets,VCRs and cable TV?
B. teflon A. N-type connector
C. ceramic B. F-type connector
D. bakelite C. BNC
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a two- D. PL-259
wire line with the following data: diameter = 38. Which coaxial connector is a more complex and
0.023in., spacing =0.5 in., insulation = PE.? expensive but do a better job in maintaining the
A. 300 Ω electrical characteristics of the cable through the
B. 250 Ω interconnections?
 A. N-type connector 47. Assume a frequency of 4 MHz, determine the
B. F-type connector phase shift offered by the line in the above problem.
C.BNC A. 108.5˚
D. PL-259 B. 106.5˚
39. The velocity factor in transmission lines vary C. 115.5˚
from ___ to ___. D. 166.5˚
A. 0.6 to 0.8 48. Find the load impedance that must be used to
B. 0.3 to 0.5 terminate RG-62A/U to avoid reflections?
C.0.5 to 0.9 A. 93 Ω
D. 0.8 to 0.9 B. 75 Ω
40. What is the typical velocity factor of coaxial C. 50 Ω
cables? D. 300 Ω
A. 0.6 to 0.8 49. Find the equivalent inductance per foot of the
B. 0.3 to 0.5 above cable?
C. 0.5 to 0.9 A. 13.5 nF/ft
D. 0.4 to 0.6 B. 13.5 pF/ft
41. What is the typical velocity factor of open-wire C. 116.8 nH/ft
line? D. 116.8 pF/ft
A. 0.9 50. An RG-11/U foam coaxial cable has a maximum
B. 0.8 voltage standing wave of 52 V and a minimum
C. 0.5 voltage of 17 V. Find the value of the resistive load.
D. 0.7 A. 24.59Ω
42. What line has a typical velocity factor of about B. Either A or C
0.8? C. 228.75Ω
A. Shielded pair D. Neither A nor C
B. Flexible coaxial 51. Sound provides all sorts of information. What
C. Twin-lead information is related to mental processes of
D. Open-wire line knowledge, reasoning, memory, judgement and
43. What is the velocity factor of coaxial cable with a perception?
characteristic impedance of 50 Ω and capacitance of A. Cognitive
30 pF/ft and inductance of 75 nH/ft? B. Affective
A. 0.58 C. Digital
B. 0.68 D. Analog
C. 0.98 52. What sound characteristic relates to a sonic time
D. 0.81 pattern?
44. What is transit time (time delay) of a 50-ft length A. Tempo
transmission line of the above problem? B. Attack
A. 50 ns C. Rhythm
B. 100 ns D. Timbre
C. 75 ns 53. What is considered the most obvious conveyor of
D. 65 ns information?
45. What do you call a transmission line used A. Sound
specifically for the purpose of achieving delay? B. Speech
A. Delay line C. Music
B. Flat line D. Noise
C. Resonant line 54. Attack is a sound characteristic that refers to the
D. Non-resonant line way a sound begins. Which of the following is NOT
46. What is the time delay introduced by a 75-ft an attack of sound?
coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3? A. Hard
A. 1.54 ns B. Soft
B. 11.5 ns C. Crisp
C. 115.6 ns D. Simple
D. 1156 ns
55. At what loudness level do pitch (in mels) and C. Reflection
frequency (in Hz) are numerically equal? D. Masking
A. 0 dB 65. What is the amount of sound reduction provided
B. 20 dB by a barrier – wall, floor, or ceiling called?
C. 60 dB A. Sound Attenuation
D. 40 dB B. Transmission loss
56. The basic voice band has how many octaves? C. Sound absorption
A. 10 D. Barrier loss
B. 4 66. What is the frequency of a 2-cm sound wave in
C. 5 sea water at 25˚C?
D. 3 A. 76 kHz
57. The ratio of frequencies is termed. B. 76 Hz
A. interval C. 76 MHz
B. octave D. 76 mHz
C. harmonics 67. A choir consisting of 36 individuals all of whom
D. factor can sing with the same intensity. A soloist sings a
58. What is the tonal ratio of an octave? certain passage and then is joined by the remainder
A. 1 to 2 of the choir members for a repeat of the passage.
B. 1 to 3 What is the difference in the sound intensity level in
C. 2 to 1 the two cases?
D. 3 to 1 A. 3 dB
59. If the loudness level is 100 phons, what is this in B. 6 dB
sone unit? C. 36 dB
A. 100 D. 15.6 dB
B. 90 68. For the safety and comfort of factory workers,
C. 106 the sound-intensity level in a certain factory must
D. 96 remain below 85 dB. What is the maximum sound
60. What octave bands are there in the midrange? intensity allowed in this factory?
A. 1st and 2nd A. 3.2 x 10-4 W/m2
B. 5th, 6th and 7th B. 3.2 x 10-6 W/m2
C. 3rd and 4th C. 3.2 x 10-10 W/m2
D. 8th and 9th D. 3.2 x 10-3 W/m2
61. How much louder is 80 phons over 60 phons? 69. What sound intensity corresponds to a sound-
A. 1000 times intensity level of 50 dB?
B. 4 times louder A. 1 x 10-6W/m2
C. 100 times B. 1 x 10-7W/m2
D. Twice as loud C. 1 x 10-8W/m2
62. What increase in sound level is commonly D.1 x 10-5W/m2
perceived by most people? 70. The sound intensity received from the nearby jet
A. 6 to 10 dB plane is 12.6 µW/m2 and that from another jet plane
B. 1 to 3 dB some distance away is 0.45 µW/m2. Find the relative
C. 3 to 6 dB loudness of the two.
D. 10 to 20dB A. 14.0 dB
63. What is typical loudness level of an acoustic B. 14.5 dB
guitar 1 foot away? C. 12.5 dB
A. 60 dB D. 14.5 dB
B. 100 dB 71. The noise from an airplane engine 100 ft from an
C. 80 dB observer is found to have an intensity of 45dB. What
D. 40 dB will be the intensity when the plane flies overhead at
64. What do you call the perceptible sound an altitude of 1 mi?
repetition? A. 10.5 dB
A. Reverberation B. 34.5 dB
B. Echo C. 35 dB
 D. 20.5 dB D. 1500
72. What is the apparent loudness of 80 dB? 81. How many FM stations would be accommodated
A. Moderate I an ordinary TV channel?
B. Very loud A. 33
C. Loud B. 30
D. Deafening C. 40
73. What loudness level in which permanent damage D. 25
to hearing is possible? 82. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter
A. 120 dB wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.695
B. 140 dB at 45 MHz?
C. 130 dB A. 17.82
D. 150 dB B. 19.26
74. What is sound pressure level if the RMS sound C. 16.28
pressure is 100 μbars? D. 16.97
A. 114 dB 83. Determine the terrain sensitivity loss for a 4-GHz
B. 11.4 dB carrier that is propagating over a very dry,
C. 94 dB mountainous area.
D. 57 dB A. -1.25 dB
75. What is the velocity of sound in wood (m/s)? B. -3.05 dB
A. 330 C. -2.01 dB
B. 3600 D. -5.01 dB
C. 3300 84. A satellite transmitter operates at 4GHz with an
D. 5800 antenna gain of 4dBi. The receiver 40000 km away
76. What is the optimum reverberation time at 500 has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. If the transmitter has
to 1000 Hz of an auditorium? a power of 8 W, find (ignoring feedline losses and
A. 0.9 to 1.1 s mismatch) the EIRP in dBW.
B. 1.4 to 1.6 s A. 50
C. 1.5 to 1.6 s B. 69
D. 1.6 to 1.8 s C. 49
77. For a cinema, the optimum volume per person D. 30
required is 85. A radio signal moves from air to glass. The angle
A. 3.1 of incidence is 20°. Calculate the angle of refraction.
B. 2.8 The relative permittivity of the glass is 7.8.
C. 7.1 A. 7.8°
D. 4.2 B. 5.04°
78. Which of the following is NOT an acoustical C. 6.04°
defect to be avoided in acoustical designs? D. 7.04°
A. Reverberation 86. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an
B. Flutter echo angle of incidence of 75° is 17 MHz. What is the
C. Distortion critical frequency?
D. Sound concentration A. 4.4 MHz
79. What absorber in which efficient absorption is B. 3.5 MHz
only possible over a very narrow band approaching C. 6.5 MHz
1.0 (total absorption)? D. 1.5 MHz
A. Porous material 87. A properly matched transmission line has a loss
B. Helmholtz resonator of 1.5 dB/100m. if 10 W is supplied to one end of the
C. Panel Absorber line, how many watts reach the load, 27 m away?
D. Membrane absorber A. 10 W
80. How many voice signals (4 kHz max.) would fit B. 7.2 W
into a 5 MHz spectrum? C. 9.9 W
A. 1250 D. 9.1 W
B. 500 88. The electromagnetic radiation theory was
C. 1000 profounded by
 A. Sir Edward Appleton B. 43.46
B. Guglielmo Marconi C. 11.07
C. Heinrich Hertz D. 46.27
D. James C. Maxwell 97. The range of speech power is ____.
89. What is caused by the transverse nature of A. 1 – 10 watts
electromagnetic waves? B. 100 – 1000 milliwatts
A. Polarization C. 10 – 100 milliwatts
B. Interference D. 10 – 1000 microwatts
C. Beamwidth 98. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter
D. Gain wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.68 to
90. Which propagation method is known as special 30 MHz?
case of skywave? A. 19.26
A. Space wave B. 5.6
B. Troposcatter C. 17.82
C. Ground wave D. 16.97
D. Direct wave 99. What is actual length in feet of a one-half
91. What is the orbit inclination of geostationary wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.59 at
satellites? 26 MHz?
A. 0° A. 11.16
B. 10° B. 40.29
C. 20° C. 42.46
D. 30° D. 46.28
92. A transmission line of unknown impedance is 100. The agreed standard for measuring loudness is
terminated with two different resistances, and an the loudness sensation produced by a 1000 Hz sine
SWR is measured each time. With a 75 Ω wave _____ dB above the listener’s threshold of
termination, the SWR measures 1.5. With a 300 Ω hearing.
termination, it measures 2.67. What is the A. 80
impedance of the line? B. 50
A. 100 Ω C. 30
B. 212 Ω D. 40
C. 300 Ω
D. 112 Ω Communications Engineering MCQ 8
93. What is the high frequency sound that cannot be
heard by the human ear? 1. What is the refractive index of an ionospheric
A. Ultrasonic layer with 100 x 105 free electrons per m3?
B. Transonic Assume frequency to be at 20 MHz.
C. Subsonic A. 0.99
D. Supersonic B. 0.15
94. What frequency is 10 octaves above 30 Hz? C. 0.78
A. 30.72 kHz D. 0.85
B. 30 kHz 2. “Each point on a spherical wavefront may be
C. 300 Hz considered a source of secondary spherical
D. 307.2 kHz wavefronts”. This is known as the
95. A radio signal travels ____ yards per A. Snell’s law
microseconds. B. D’Alembert’s principle
A. 273 C. Appleton’s theory
B. 328 D. Huygen’s principle
C. 618 3. What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
D. 123.6 A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency
96. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half to the center carrier frequency.
wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.63 at B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency
28 MHz? deviation to the highest audio modulating
A. 44.28 frequency.
 C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to
the audio modulating frequency.
D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating
frequency to the average audio modulating
frequency.
4. What is the major cause of selective fading?
A. Small changes in the beam heading at the
receiving station.
B. Large changes in the height of the
ionosphere, as experience at the receiving
station.
C. Time differences between the receiving and
transmitting stations.
D. Phase differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, as
experienced at the receiving station.
5. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon
distance to exceed the geometric horizon?
A. E-layer skip.
B. D-layer skip.
C. Auroral skip.
D. Radio waves may be bent.
6. What propagation condition is usually indicated
when a VHF signal is received from a station over
500 miles away?
A. D-layer absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce
7. What is meant by the term modulation index?
A. The processor index.
B. The ratio between the deviation of a
frequency modulated signal and the
modulating frequency.
C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio.
D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency
deviation to the highest audio modulating
frequency.
8. The bending of radio waves passing over the top
of a mountain range that disperses a weak portion of
the signal behind the mountain is
A. eddy-current phase effect
B. knife-edge diffraction
C. shadowing
D. mirror refraction effect
9. What is the wavelength of a signal at 500 MHz?
A. 0.062 cm
B. 6 meters
C. 60 cm
D. 60 meters
10. What is included in the total resistance of an
antenna system?
A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission
resistance
C. Transmission line resistance plus radiation
resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
11. What are electromagnetic waves?
A. Alternating currents in the core of an
electromagnet
B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at
right angles to each other
C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a
magnetic field at right angles to each other
D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at
right angles to each other
12. The band of frequencies least susceptible to
atmospheric noise and interference is:
A. 30 – 300 kHz
B. 300 – 3000 kHz
C. 3 – 30 MHz
D. 300 – 3000 MHz
13. What is the relationship in degrees of the
electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of an
antenna?
A. 0 degree
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 180 degrees
14. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon
distance of a transmitting antenna with a height of
100 meters is approximately:
A. 10 km
B. 40 km
C. 100 km
D. 400 km
15. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic
waves as horizontally polarized?
A. The electric field is parallel to the earth.
B. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth.
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
horizontal
D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
vertical
16. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic
waves as having circular polarization?
A. The electric field is bent into a circular shape.
B. The electric field rotates
C. The electromagnetic wave continues to circle
the earth
D. The electromagnetic wave has been
generated by a quad antenna
17. If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters high and
a separate receiving antenna is 64 meters high, what
is the maximum space wave communication B. 50 watts
distance possible between them? C. 25 watts
A. 18 km D. 6 watts
B. 72 km 25. What determines the velocity factor in a
C. 164 km transmission line?
D. 656 km A. The termination impedance
18. A receiver is located 64 km from a space wave B. The line length
transmitting antenna that is 100 meters high. Find C. Dielectrics in the line
the required height of the receiving antenna. D. The center conductor resistivity
A. 36 meters high 26. What term is used to describe a spread spectrum
B. 64 meters high communications system in which a very fast binary
C. 100 meters high bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
D. 182.25 meters high A. Frequency hopping
19. Which of the following is not one of the natural B. Direct sequence
ways a radio wave may travel from transmitter to C. Binary phase-shift keying
receiver? D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
A. Ground wave 27. Which of the following frequency bands is best
B. Microwave suited for ground wave propagation?
C. Sky wave A. 30 to 300 kHz
D. Space wave B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
20. Which of the following terrain types permits a C. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
ground wave to travel the farthest? D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
A. Salt water 28. Which of the following frequency bands is best
B. Fresh water suited for sky wave propagation?
C. Sandy A. 30 to 300 kHz
D. Rocky B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
21. What is the input terminal impedance at the C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
center if a folded dipole antenna? D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
A. 300 ohms 29. What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 MHz
B. 72 ohms quarter wavelength antenna?
C. 50 ohms A. 14.28 MHz
D. 450 ohms B. 107 MHz
22. What is the term used to describe a spread C. 149 MHz
spectrum communications system where the center D. 700 MHz
frequency if a conventional carrier is altered many 30. Which if the following layers of the ionosphere
time per second in accordance with a pseudo- has no effect on sky wave propagation during the
random list of channels? hours of darkness?
A. Frequency hopping A. D
B. Direct sequence B. E
C. Time-domain frequency modulation C. F1
D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum D. F2
23. What is the velocity factor for non-foam 31. Skip distance can be maximized by using the
dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such as ____ radiation angle possible and the ____
RG 8, 11, 58 and 59? frequency that will be refracted at that angle.
A. 2.70 A. lowest, lowest
B. 0.66 B. lowest, highest
C. 0.30 C. highest, lowest
D. 0.10 D. highest, highest
24. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 32. What is the meaning of the term “velocity
100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the factor” of a transmission line?
antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of
fed by a 100 watt transmitter? the line to the terminating impedance
A. 70 watts B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable.
 C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz
line multiplied by the velocity of light in a B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
vacuum. C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
line divided by the velocity of light in a 40. What type of transmission is radiated from an
vacuum. aircraft’s radio altimeter antenna?
33. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity A. An amplitude modulated continuous wave
at which a signal travels through a line to the speed B. A pulse position modulated UHF signal
of light in a vacuum? C. A differential phase shift keyed UHF signal
A. Velocity factor D. A frequency modulated continuous wave
B. Characteristic impedance 41. The polarization of a radio wave:
C. Surge impedance A. Is perpendicular to the electrostatic field of
D. Standing wave ratio the antenna
34. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable B. Is the same direction as the electrostatic
transmission line shorter than its electrical length? field of the antenna.
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial C. Is the same direction as the magnetic field of
cable the antenna.
B. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial D. Is perpendicular to both the electrostatic and
cable magnetic fields of the antenna.
C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel 42. A coaxial cable has 7dB of reflected power when
feed line the input is 5 watts. What is the output of the
D. The characteristic impedance is higher in the transmission line?
parallel feed line A. 5 watts
35. What would be the physical length of a typical B. 2.5 watts
coaxial transmission line that is electrically one- C. 1.25 watts
quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? D. 1 watt
A. 20 meters 43. When is it useful to refer to an isotropic
B. 3.51 meters radiator?
C. 2.33 meters A. When comparing the gains of directional
D. 0.25 meter antennas
36. To obtain the most reliable sky wave propagation B. When testing a transmission line for standing
the ____ should be used. wave ratio
A. Lowest useable frequency (LUF). C. When (in the northern hemisphere) directing
B. Maximum useable frequency (MUF). the transmission in a southerly direction
C. Optimum useable frequency (OUF). D. When using a dummy load to tune a
D. Critical frequency transmitter
37. What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone 44. Most AM broadcasts employ ___ polarization
signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or while most FM broadcasts employ ___ polarization
minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation of the radio wave.
rate of 3kHz? A. vertical, vertical
A. 60 B. vertical, horizontal
B. 0.16 C. horizontal, vertical
C. 0.6 D. horizontal, horizontal
D. 1.66 45. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type
38. Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky wave antenna change when the operating frequency is
propagation for which of the following frequency doubled?
bands? A. Gain does not change
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz C. Gain increases 6 dB
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz D. Gain increases 3 dB
D. 300 MHz to 3 GHz 46. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very
39. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s radio High Frequency (VHF) communications?
altimeter?
 A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz (worldwide up B. Apparent height
to 151.975 MHz) C. Actual height
B. 108.000 MHz to 117.95 MHz D. Effective height
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz 54. During the night when the F2 layer combines with
D. 2.0000 MHz to 29.999 MHz F1 layer it falls to what approximate height?
47. What is a selective fading effect? A. 250 km
A. A fading effect caused by small changes in B. 350 km
beam heading at the receiving station. C. 300 km
B. A fading effect caused by phase differences D. 400 km
between radio wave components of the same 55. Which of the following is considered the most
transmission, as experienced at the receiving frequently used transmission line?
station. A. Two-wire open line
C. A fading effect caused by large changes in the B. Twin lead
height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the C. Rigid coaxial line
receiving station D. Flexible coaxial line
D. A fading effect caused by time differences 56. The antenna effective height is ____ to ____ of
between the receiving and transmitting stations. the actual height.
48. If the velocity of propagation in a certain A. ½ to 2/3
medium is 200x106 m/s, what is its refractive index? B. ½ to ¾
A. 1.3 C. ¼ to 2/3
B. 1.5 D. ¼ to ¾
C. 1.27 57. What is the propagation velocity of a signal in a
D. 0.67 transmission line whose inductance and capacitance
49. What is the resultant field strength at the are 5μH/m and 20μF/m respectively?
receiving antenna in space wave propagation under A. 100 x 103 m/s
case 2? B. 100 m/s
A. 0 C. 10 x 103 m/s
B. ξd D. 100 x 106 m/s
C. 2ξd 58. What is the phase coefficient in radians per unit
D. 3ξd length of a transmission line at the frequency of 10
50. The decimetric wave is using what method of MHz if the velocity of propagation is 2.5 x 108 m/s?
propagation? A. 0.25
A. Ground wave B. 2.5
B. Space wave C. 0.35
C. Sky wave D. 3.5
D. Tropospheric wave 59. Determine the conductance of a two-wire open
51. What is the typical frequency used for line with the following parameters: D = 4 in., d = 0.1
communicating to submerged submarines? in. and ρ = 2.6x108 Ω-m.
A. 100 Hz A. 2.76 x 10-9 S/m
B. 500 Hz B. 2.76 x 10-6 S/m
C. 4 kHz C. 2.76 x 10-12 S/m
D. 200 Hz D. 2.76 x 10-3 S/m
52. Which frequency bands can be refracted during 60. What is the input impedance of a transmission
the day by the D layer? line if its characteristic impedance is 300 Ω and the
A. VLF load is 600 Ω? Assume a quarter wavelength section
B. MF only.
C. LF A. 150 kΩ
D. Both VLF and LF B. 150 mΩ
53. What height of an ionized layer is determined C. 150 Ω
from the time interval between the transmitted D. 2 Ω
signal and the ionospheric echo at vertical 61. Determine the standing wave ratio of a 300-Ω
incidence? line whose load is 400+j150 Ω.
A. Virtual height A. 3.55
 B. 1.67 69. A 1 Mhz carrier is amplitude modulated by a
C. 5.53 pure 200-Hz audio test tone. Which of the following
D. 3.35 combinations of frequencies represent the total
62. What is the optimum volume per person of content of the AM signal?
rooms for speech? A. 1 MHz and 200 Hz
A. 2.8 B. 1 MHz and 1000.2 kHz
B. 3.1 C. 999.8 kHz, 1000 kHz, and 1000.2 kHz
C. 4.2 D. 999.8 kHz and 1000.2 kHz
D. 5.1 70. What establishes the receiver bandwidth?
63. What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna A. RF amplifier
as the gain is increased? B. Mixer
A. The beamwidth increases geometrically as C. Local oscillator
the gain is increased. D. IF amplifier
B. The beamwidth increases arithmetically as 71. What noise type is observable between 8 MHz to
the gain is increased. somewhat above 1.43 GHz or up to 1.5 GHz?
C. The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by A. Solar noise
the gain of the antenna. B. Space noise
D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain is C. Galactic noise
increased. D. Cosmic noise
64. A superhet receiver has an IF of 455 kHz and is 72. Flicker noise is a poorly understood form of noise
experiencing image-channel interference on a which may be completely ignored about above ____.
frequency of 1570 kHz. The receiver is tuned to A.100 Hz
A. 1115 kHz B. 200 Hz
B. 660 kHz C. 400 Hz
C. 2025 kHz D. 500 Hz
D. 910 kHz 73. What is the typical gain of a rhombic antenna?
65. What is the end impedance of a half-wave A. Between 15 to 60
dipole? B. Between 20 to 90
A. 73 Ω C. Between 50 to 75
B. 72 Ω D. Between 10 to 25
C. 250 Ω 74. What illumination factor is normally considered
D. 2500 Ω in computing parabolic antenna gain in microwave
66. What volume of the chamber is required to communications?
measure absorption coefficient at 100 Hz? A. 0.54
A. 125 m3 B. 0.65
B. 50 m3 C. 0.75
C. 150 m3 D. 0.85
D. 352 m3 75. How many voice band channels are there in a
67. What is the optimum reverberation time at 500 superjumbo group?
Hz for a cinema? A. 600
A. 0.8 – 1.2 sec. B. 900
B. 0.9 – 1.3 sec. C. 10,800
C. 0.6 – 0.8 sec. D. 3,600
D. 0.45 – 0.55 sec. 76. In acoustics, what is the reference pressure in
68. An FM receiver whose intermediate frequency is lb/ft2 unit?
10.7 MHz, is experiencing image channel A. 2x10-5
interference from a station transmitting on 121.1 B. 0.0002
MHz. If the local oscillator is tracking above, the C. 2.089
receiver is tuned to D. 2.980
A. 131.8 MHz 77. Which of the following characterizes a properly
B. 110.4 MHz terminated transmission line?
C. 142.5 MHz A. The line loss is minimum.
D. 99.7 MHz B. The standing wave ratio is minimum.
 C. The input impedance is twice the load C. Goniometer
impedance. D. Ergometer
D. The standing wave ratio is one. 85. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting
78. What is the meaning of forward power? system using satellites and advanced terrestrial
A. The power traveling from the transmitter to communications systems.
the antenna. A. GPS
B. The power radiated from the top of an B. Iridium system
antenna system. C. INMARSAT
C. The power produced during the positive half D. GMDSS
of an RF cycle. 86. What antenna can be used to minimize the effect
D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier. of Faraday rotation of polarization?
79. What organization has published safety A. Dipole
guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near B. Parabolic
the human body? C. Helical
A. The American National Standards Institute D. Rhombic
(ANSI). 87. The presence of standing waves on a
B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). transmission line is the result of
C. The Federal Communications Commission A. a high level of attenuation on the line.
(FCC). B. terminating the line by a resistive load equal
D. The Institute Of Electrical and Electronics in value to the surge impedance
Engineers (IEEE). C. reducing the input power to below its critical
80. When no signal is being received, the level.
loudspeaker is not entirely silent as a result of the D. an impedance mismatch between the load
presence of and the line.
A. parasitic oscillations in some of the receiver 88. What device measures rf power by measuring
stages. the heat the rf power generates?
B. negative feedback in each stage. A. Calorimeter
C. spurious frequencies as a result of improper B. Goniometer
neutralization. C. Spectrum meter
D. internal receiver noise. D. Oscilloscope
81. When measuring a transmitter’s frequency 89. What is considered the most efficient mode in
against a suitable standard, the frequency to be terms of energy transfer in waveguides?
measured is taken from the A. Dominant mode
A. oscillator stage B. Normal mode
B. intermediate amplifier C. Conventional mode
C. buffer stage D. Vertical mode
D. final RF stage 90. In acoustics, _____ is the apparent change in
82. When the is the ionosphere most ionized? frequency or pitch when a sound source moves
A. Dusk either toward or away from a listener.
B. Midnight A. flanking
C. Dawn B. reverberation
D. Midday C. Doppler effect
83. Cellular radios use FM with a maximum deviation D. echo
of 91. Which of the following wavelengths where
A. ± 30 KHz absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes peak
B. ± 75 KHz due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor
C. ± 25 KHz molecule?
D. ± 12 KHz A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
84. What device measures the angle between two B. 1.5 mm and 5mm
radio frequencies and also the direction of C. 1.35 dm and 1.7cm
propagation of a wave? D. 1.5 cm and 5 mm
A. Densimeter 92. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to
B. Absorption wavemeter electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
 A. 1.35 mm and 1.7 μm A. 5150 m/s
B. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm B. 5150 ft/s
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm C. 4990 m/s
D. 5 mm and 2.5 mm D. 4990 ft/s
93. The approximate single-hop nighttime range of
F2 layer is ____. Communications Engineering MCQ 9
A. 3000 km
B. 3840 km 1. What significant element of sound refers to its
C. 4130 km characteristic tonal quality?
D. 2350 km A. Pitch
94. What ionospheric layer has a daytime B. Tempo
approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz? C. Rhythm
A. F2 layer D. Timbre
B. F1 layer 2. What is the velocity of sound in wood?
C. E layer A. 5800 m/s
D. D layer B. 5000 m/s
95. In cellular system, _____ defines the geographic C. 3300 m/s
distance that is required between cells using D. 3700 m/s
identical frequencies in order to avoid interference 3. What is the typical loudness level of a watch
between the radio transmissions at these cells. ticking?
A. frequency-reuse ratio A. 0 phon
B. distance-to-reuse ratio (D/R) B. 40 phons
C. reuse format plan ratio C. 20 phons
D. reuse factor D. 60 phons
96. What do you call the ability of a mobile phone to 4. The typical length of the rhombic antenna is ____.
change from one channel (frequency) to another? A. 2λ to 8λ
A. Frequency agility B. 10λ to 20λ
B. Frequency handoff C. 1λ to 3λ
C. Frequency handover D. 5λ to 10λ
D. Frequency switch 5. What is the carrier frequency of supergroup 10?
97. What mathematical plane figure is ideal in A. 2724 kHz
cellular system design and engineering it graphically B. 2356 kHz
and functionally depicts overlapping radio coverage C. 2108 kHz
between and among adjacent cell base stations? D. 3100 kHz
A. Hexagon 6. In SPADE system, how many PCM-encoded voice
B. Octagon band channels are there?
C. Pentagon A. 800
D. Nonagon B. 600
98. In cellular system, the average lead time to C. 300
install a new base station is approximately ____ D. 240
months to a year. 7. The product of the radiated RF power of a
A. 4 transmitter and the gain of the antenna system in a
B. 5 given direction relative to an isotropic radiator is
C. 6 called ____.
D. 10 A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
99. What is considered the threshold of audibility at B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
3000 Hz? C. Radiated Power
A. 10-12 W/m2 D. Transmit Power
B. 10-16 W/m2 8. The product of antenna input power and the
C. 10-12 W/cm2 antenna power gain expressed in kW is called __.
D. 10-15 W/cm2 A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
100. At one atmospheric pressure, what is the B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
approximate speed of sound in steel? C. Radiated Power
 D. Transmit Power A. Prefabricated tiles
9. What satellite system parameter represents the B. Plasters and spray on materials
quality of a satellite or an earth station receiver? C. Acoustic blankets
A. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise Temperature Ratio D. Membrane absorber
(G/Te) 18. What historical satellite broadcasted live the
B. Energy of Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio (Eb/No) 1964 Olympic games from Tokyo, Japan for the first
C. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio (C/No) time?
D. Bit energy A. Syncom I
10. What noise is observable at frequencies in the B. Syncom III
range from about 8 MHz to somewhat 1.5 GHz? C. Syncom II
A. Industrial noise D. Syncom IV
B. Atmospheric noise 19. In transmission line, which of the following is the
C. Space noise first step in the procedure of using stub matching?
D. Shot noise A. Calculate stub susceptance.
11. A special horn antenna consisting of a parabolic B. Calculate load admittance
cylinder joined to a pyramidal horn. C. Connect stub to load
A. Hoghorn D. Transform conductance to resistance
B. Cass-horn 20. What type of balun (balanced-to-unbalanced) is
C. Pyramidal horn used in high frequency applications?
D. Conical horn A. Transformer type balun
12. How many telegraph channels are there in the B. A specially configured coaxial transmission
basic voice band channels? line
A. 24 C. A specially configured parallel-wire line
B. 96 D. A λ/2 transformer balun
C. 48 21. ____ is defined as any radiation of energy by
D. 672 means of electromagnetic wave.
13. Which of the following is oldest multiplexing A. Emission
scheme? B. Radiation
A. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) C. Radio
B. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) D. Broadcasting
C. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM) 22. In what year did Hertz discover radio waves?
D. Space Division Multiplexing (SDM) A. 1844
14. What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice band B. 1873
channels into a single 6.312 Mbps data signal? C. 1887
A. T1 carrier system D. 1895
B. T2 carrier system 23. Which of the following phenomena is possible is
C. T1C carrier system free space medium?
D. T3 carrier system A. Reflection of radio wave
15. What is the metric subdivision of VHF band? B. Diffraction of radio wave
A. Metric C. Refraction of radio wave
B. Millimetric D. Attenuation of radio wave
C. Decimetric 24. What is the reactance property at the input of a
D. Centimetric shorted quarter wavelength line?
16. In satellite communications, what means of A. A parallel LC circuit
attitude control is using the angular momentum of B. A pure inductive reactance
the spinning body to provide the roll and yaw C. A series LC circuit
stabilization? D. A pure capacitive reactance
A. Spin stabilization 25. An early satellite owned by US Department of
B. Radial stabilization Defense that lasted only for 17 days
C. Three-axis stabilization A. Courier
D. Station keeping B. Echo
17. Which of the following is NOT a porous C. Score
absorber? D. Westar 1
26. Which of the following is the consolidation of H. sound absorption at lower frequencies using this
No. 5224 and S. No. 2683? absorber?
A. RA 9292 A. Increase the thickness
B. RA 5734 B. Decrease the thickness
C. RA 7925 C. Mount with and airspace behind
D. RA 6849 D. Both A and C above
27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2 members 35. Which of the following describes a TDM frame?
of the board of Electronics Engineering? A. A 250-μs frame
A. The Senate President B. A 125-μs frame
B. The President C. A 500-μs frame
C. The Supreme Court D. A 60-μs frame
D. The Commission on Appointment 36. ____ system transmits frequency-division-
28. How many nominees per position of the multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial cable
Electronics Engineering Board are nominated by for distances up to 4000 miles.
IECEP to PRC? A. T carrier
A. 3 B. X carrier
B. 5 C. L carrier
C. 4 D. F carrier
D. 6 37. What is the spectrum range of U600
29. According to RA 9292, how many days after the mastergroup?
board exam the results will be released? A. 60 – 108 kHz
A. Within 5 days B. 564 – 3084 kHz
B. Within 15 days C. 312 – 552 kHz
C. Within 20 days D. 60 -2788 kHz
D. Within 3 days 38. Which frequency reuse method is less effective
30. How many removal examination (s) will be given because of Faraday’s effect?
to an examinee who obtains a passing rating in the A. Dual polarization
majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the B. Reducing antenna beamwidth
other subject (s) below seventy percent (70%) but C. Zonal rotation
not lower than sixty percent (60%)? D. Spin stabilization
A. 1 39. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N
B. 3 ratio of 44 dB, are connected in tandem. What is the
C. 2 overall S/N ratio?
D. Unlimited A. 44 dB
31. Which of the following determines the acoustic B. 39.2 dB
behavior of gases? C. 41 dB
A. Density D. 43.52 dB
B. Pressure 40. What is the noise factor if the equivalent noise
C. Temperature temperature is 25 K?
D. All of the choices A. 1.09
32. In what medium sound travels the faster? B. 0.09
A. Vacuum C. 0.36 dBm
B. Solid D. 0.36
C. Liquid 41. A ground station is operating to a geostationary
D. Gas satellite at a 5° angle of elevation. Calculate the
33. For a loudness level between 110 and 120 dB, round-trip time between ground station and
the maximum daily exposure limit is ____ minute (s). satellite.
A. 1 A. 275 s
B. 60 B. 275 ms
C. 20 C. 137.5 s
D. 45 D. 137.5 ms
34. A porous material is far more efficient at high 42. Calculate the reverberation time of a living room
than low frequency absorption. How to improve 8 ft high, 13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The total
absorption of the building structure inside the room B. 4.7
is 180.7 sabines with four persons present in the C. 0.47
room. D. 470
A. 0.5 ms 50. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many octaves
B. 0.05 s above 1000 Hz?
C. 0.5 s A. 1.6 octaves
D. 5 ms B. 2.1 octaves
43. What is the number of levels required in a PCM C. 1 octave
system with S/N ratio of 40 dB? D. 3 octaves
A. 64 51. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56
B. 128 phons. What is the increase in loudness sensation?
C. 256 A. 3 times
D. 512 B. 4.5 times
44. A radio communications link is to be established C. 2 times
via the ionosphere. The maximum virtual height of D. 4 times
the layer is 100 km at the midpoint of the path and 52. In the North American TDM system, what is the
the critical frequency is 2 MHz. The distance transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier system?
between stations is 600 km. determine the optimum A. 44.736
working frequency? B. 6.312
A. 6.32 MHz C. 3.152
B. 2.1 MHz D. 274.176
C. 5.4 MHz 53. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single satellite
D. 1.8 MHz transponder considering an S/N of 30 dB?
45. Part of a microwave link can be approximated by A. 35.8
free space conditions. The antenna gain are each 40 B. 3.58
dB, the frequency is 10 GHz, and the path length is C. 358
80 km. Calculate the receive power for a transmitted D. 3580
power of 10 W? 54. What condition occur when the refractive index
A. 0.871 μW of the air decreases with height much more rapidly
B. 871 μW the normal?
C. 0.871 mW A. Refraction
D. 871 nW B. Superrefraction
46. What is the approximate critical frequency of the C. Subrefraction
E layer? D. Diffraction
A. 4 MHz 55. What do you call the increase of temperature
B. 5 MHz with height?
C. 6 MHz A. Temperature inversion
D. 3 MHz B. Normal inversion
47. What is the approximate single-hop nighttime C. Ducting
range of F2 layer? D. Superrefraction
A. 3840 km 56. ____ is a term given to the region where
B. 3000 km superrefraction occurs.
C. 4130 km A. Strata
D. 2350 km B. Duct
48. What ionospheric layer has a daytime C. Isothermal region
approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz? D. Tropospheric region
A. F2 layer 57. Which of the following wavelengths where
B. F1 layer absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes peak
C. E layer due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor
D. D layer molecule?
49. Determine the additional absorption (sabines) A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
contributed by 10 persons in a room. B. 1.5 mm and 5 mm
A. 47 C. 1.35 dm and 1.7 cm
 D. 1.5 cm and 5mm D. F2
58. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to 66. What phenomenon causes the radio-path
electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths? horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm A. Diffraction
B. 5 mm and 2.5 mm B. Ducting
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm C. Reflection
D. 1.35 mm and 1.7 μm D. Refraction
59. What instrument normally measures the virtual 67. How to maximize the skip distance?
height of ionosphere? A. Using the smallest possible radiation angle
A. Ionosonde and highest possible frequency
B. Altimeter B. Using the smallest possible radiation angle
C. Field meter and lowest possible frequency
D. Radar C. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and
60. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam is highest possible frequency
20°. Calculate the transmission-path distance for an D. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and
ionospheric transmission that utilizes a layer of lowest possible frequency
virtual height 200 km. Use flat-earth approximation. 68. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon
A. 966 km distance of a receiving antenna with a height of 64
B. 2100 km meters is approximately
C. 1100 km A. 8 km
D. 405 km B. 32 km
61. If temperature change is 19°C, what amount of C. 64 km
change to sound velocity is possible? D. 256 km
A. 11.53 ft/s 69. What bandwidth is needed to support a capacity
B. 11.53 m/s of 128 kbps when the signal power to noise power
C. 19.304 ft/s ratio in decibels is 100?
D. 19.304 m/s A. 19224 Hz
62. In the above problem, what is the new velocity of B. 3853 Hz
sound assuming dry air medium? C. 19244 Hz
A. 343 ft/s D. 3583 Hz
B. 3430 m/s 70. Which of the following systems uses frequency
C. 343 m/s band 870-885 MHz as a transmit band of its base
D. 342 m/s station?
63. In acoustics, if the volume of the room is 200 A. TACS
m3 then at what frequency the coefficient of B. NTT
absorption is measured? C. NMT
A. 120 kHz D. AMPS
B. 120 Hz 71. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength is
C. 100 Hz received by an antenna coil having a 50-Ω resistance
D. 150 Hz and a 0.01 H inductance. What is the capacitance of
64. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM the tuner shunting the antenna coil at this point?
system with 10 kHz of modulating frequency and a A. 0.704 fF
150 kHz of frequency deviation? B. 0.704 μF
A. 300 kHz C. 0.704 nF
B. 320 kHz D. 0.704 mF
C. 150 kHz 72. Which of the following is the basic component of
D. 200 kHz a communications satellite receiver?
65. Which of the following layers of the ionosphere A. On-board computer
has no effect on sky wave propagation during B. Reflector
daytime? C. Telemetry
A. D D. Transponder
B. E
C. F1
73. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters D. 255
broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the absorption 82. The speed of the satellite increases as its height
effect of the materials used in metric sabines. in orbit gets
A. 35.3 A. lower
B. 10.96 B. higher
C. 379.8 C. closer to the moon
D. 109.6 D. closer to the sun
74. What is the highest frequency that can be sent 83. What is the effective radiated power of a
straight upward and be returned to earth? repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output \, 4
A. MUF dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss,
B. Gyro frequency and 6 dB antenna gain?
C. Skip frequency A. 158 W
D. Critical frequency B. 39.7 W
75. What is the most important specification of C. 251 W
loudspeakers and microphones? D. 69.9 W
A. Frequency response 84. A cellular standard known as the cdmaOne.
B. Power density A. IS-95
C. Field Strength B. IS-136
D. Gain C. IS-54
76. Atmospheric attenuation is an attenuation which D. IS-100
is due to 85. What is the effective radiated power of a
A. mist and fog repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5
B. gasses in the atmosphere dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss,
C. water vapor and oxygen and 7 dB antenna gain?
D. rain A. 300 W
77. Satellite orbits around the earth are ____ orbits. B. 315 W
A. circular C. 31.5 W
B. either elliptical or circular D. 69.9 W
C. elliptical 86. Which Ethernet system is restricted only to 100
D. circular only m?
78. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite A. 10 Base T
communications avoid interference? B. 20 Base 2
A. Use of different polarity antennas C. 10 Base 5
B. Use of different types of antennas D. 10 Base 1
C. Employment of highly directional spot-beam 87. What is the effective radiated power of a
antennas repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4
D. Use of low gain antennas dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss,
79. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio and 10 dB antenna gain?
beam is called ____. A. 600 W
A. SSP B. 75 W
B. Region C. 18.75 W
C. footprint D. 150 W
D. primary area 88. Which of the following regulates the ownership
80. The American concert pitch A is equivalent to and operation of radio and television stations in the
which if the following frequencies? country?
A. 440 Hz A. PD 576-A
B. 435 Hz B. PD 756
C. 260 Hz C. PD 657
D. 255 Hz D. PD 677
81. The international pitch A is equivalent to ___ Hz. 89. What is the effective radiated power of a
A. 435 repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5
B. 440 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss,
C. 260 and 6 dB antenna gain?
 A. 37.6 W 97. According to KBP revised radio code which
B. 237 W airtime below is classified class D for AM stations?
C. 150 W A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
D. 23.7 W B. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM
90. In GSM cellular system, the speech coding rate is C. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight
____. D. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM
A. 13 kbps 98. Encryption of data is important to ensure its
B. 8 kbps privacy. It is most commonly achieved by using a
C. 15 kbps ____.
D. 20 kbps A. public-key encryption
91. What is the effective radiated power of a B. private-key encryption
repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 C. password-key encryption
dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, D. character set encryption
and 10 dB antenna gain? 99. The speech coding rate in D-AMPS is ____.
A. 800 W A. 8 kbps
B. 126 W B. 13 kbps
C. 12.5 W C. 15 kbps
D. 1260 W D. 20 kbps
92. Which NTC memorandum circular governs the 100. Which of the following principal musical
rules and regulations about the manufacture, intervals is considered dissonant?
acquisition, sale and service of radio communication A. 7:8
equipment? B. 1:2
A. MC No. 2-05-88 C. 5:8
B. MC No. 2-04-88 D. 3:5
C. MC No. 2-07-88
D. MC No. 2-09-88 Communications Engineering MCQ 10
93. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5 1. ________ is a standard whereby mobile phones
dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, can gain access to specially tailored Internet
and 6 dB antenna gain? websites.
A. 601 W A. Bluetooth
B. 240 W B. GPRS
C. 60 W C. WAP
D. 379 W D. EDGE
94. What do you call a short bit sequence sent 2. What noise is a transient short-duration
typically 128 bits in digital signatures? disturbance distributed essentially uniformly over
A. Hash the useful passband of a transmission system?
B. Public key A. Flicker noise
C. Private key B. Transit-time noise
D. Password C. Shot noise
95. What medium is used by IBM token ring network D. Impulse noise
that operates at either 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps? 3. What is the insertion loss of connector type
A. Twisted pair splices for a single mode optical fiber?
B. Coaxial cable A. 0.51 dB
C. Fiber-optic B. 0.49 dB
D. Parallel-wire line C. 0.31 dB
96. What is known as the final stage in the evolution D. 0.38 db
of the GSM standard? 4. In the European standard, the aurial transmitter
A. WAP maximum radiated power is ______ of peak visual
B. GPRS transmitter power.
C. EDGE A. 10%
D. Bluetooth B. 30%
C. 20%
 D. 40% B. Two transmitters operating at same
5. What is the common up-converter and down- frequencies
converter IF for microwave communications? C. Two or more antennas operating on the
A. 60 MHz same frequency
B. 80 MHz D. Two antennas from two different
C. 120 MHz transmitters
D. 70 MHz 13. What part or section of a TV receiver that
6. What is the data link protocol that is used in separates the sound and video signals?
asynchronous transmission for transferring files from A. IF stage
one computer to another? B. Video amplifier
A. A modem C. Video detector
B. X modem D. Burst separator
C. B modem 14. What is the channel number of an FM station
D. C modem with a carrier frequency of 99.5 MHz?
7. What distortion is not caused by transmission line A. 256
characteristics? B. 258
A. Phase distortion C. 257
B. Pulse shape distortion D. 259
C. Spacing bias distortion 15. In a triple conversion superheterodyne receiver,
D. Amplitude distortion diode mixer stages are operated
8. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater A. In the linear region
with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feline B. In the nonlinear region
loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB C. As class A amplifiers
antenna gain? D. As class B amplifiers
A. 317 W 16. In ISDN, what is the basic access B channel data
B. 2000 W rate?
C. 126 W A. 32 kbps
D. 260 W B. 64 kbps
9. Which of the following is standardized as part of C. 144 kbps
GSM phase 2+ that can offer theoretical data speeds D. 16 kbps
of up to 115 kbit/s? 17. What is the channel spacing for MF-HF voice
A. EDGE frequencies?
B. GPRS A. 2.8 kHz
C. WAP B. 500 Hz
D. Bluetooth C. 3.5 kHz
10. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is mounted D. 3 kHz
on a flatbed tractor-trailer used for emergency 18. What is the quantization signal-to-noise ratio if
purposes. an 8-bit PCM code is used?
A. COW A. 40 dB
B. BULL B. 50 dB
C. CALF C. 60 dB
D. PONY D. 65 dB
11. Which of the following best describes a dip- 19. What is the emission designation of a single
meter? sideband reduced carrier signal?
A. An SWR meter A. H3E
B. A counter B. J3E
C. A variable LC oscillator with metered C. R3E
feedback current D. B8E
D. A field strength meter 20. What is the most commonly used intermediate
12. Which is space diversity system? frequency of radar receivers?
A. Two or more antennas operating on two A. 40 MHz
different frequencies? B. 60 MHz
C. 70 MHz
 D. 30 MHz B. The speed of the winds in the upper
21. The input signal of a travelling wave tube is atmosphere
introduced at C. The type of weather just below the
A. Cathode ionosphere
B. Anode D. The amount of radiation received from the
C. Cathode end of the helix sun
D. Collector end of the helix 30. What limits the sensitivity of a receiver?
22. What determines the ability of radar to A. The power supply of the receiver
determine the bearing to a target? B. The power output of a transmitter
A. Speed of light C. The noise floor of the receiver
B. Speed of target D. The distance between the transmitter and
C. Antenna directivity receiver
D. Frequency of signal 31. What is the standard test tone used for audio
23. What is the minimum number of bits required in measurements?
a PCM code for a range of 10,000? A. 100 Hz
A. 12 B. 500 Hz
B. 9 C. 1000 Hz
C. 14 D. 2000 Hz
D. 10 32. What causes image interference?
24. The antenna current is doubled when the A. Low gain
modulation index is doubled in ______ AM system. B. High IF
A. A5C C. Poor front-end selectivity
B. A3J D. Low signal-to-noise ratio
C. A3 33. What frequency band is referred to as the metric
D. A3H waves?
25. Which of the following is not a bounded A. VHF
medium? B. UHF
A. Coaxial line C. HF
B. Two-wire line D. SHF
C. Waveguide 34. A waveguide passive component that brings a
D. Free space smooth change in the direction of axis maintained
26. What is affected by the distance between the perpendicular to the plane of polarization?
listener and the source of the sound because the A. L bend
intensity varies inversely with the square of the B. H bend
distance? C. T bend
A. Volume D. X bend
B. Pitch 35. How far is the visual carrier from the lowest
C. Loudness frequency in the spectrum of a monochrome TV
D. Frequency broadcast channel following the NTSC standard?
27. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and an A. 1.5 MHz
ordinary CD, DVD is ______ time bigger than CD. B. 1.25 MHz
A. 10 C. 4.5 MHz
B. 20 D. 0.25 MHz
C. 15 36. What aircraft deviation is measured by an ILS
D. 25 localizer?
28. Locking on to a defined target is known as A. Altitude
A. Homing B. Ground speed
B. Referencing C. Vertical
C. Searching D. Horizontal
D. Defining 37. Skip zone is otherwise known as
29. What causes the maximum usable frequency to A. Empty zone
vary? B. Shadow zone
A. The temperature of the ionosphere C. Null zone
 D. Zone of silence B. 680.62 W
38. In the American standard, the aural transmitter C. 1425 W
maximum radiated power is _____ of peak visual D. 712.5 W
transmitter power. 45. Which is not an ITU sector?
A. 10 % A. ITU-W
B. 30 % B. ITU-R
C. 20 % C. ITU-T
D. 40 % D. ITU-D
39. What character signifies the start of the test for 46. What is the process of cancelling the effect on
Bisync? internal device capacitance in radio transmitters?
A. STX A. Degaussing
B. SOH B. Neutralization
C. BCC C. Ionization
D. ETX D. Stabilization
40. A low frequency audible periodic variation in 47. Which of the following is the basic synthesizer
pitch of sound output in high fidelity sound circuit?
reproduction system? A. Frequency divider
A. Flutter B. Frequency multiplier
B. Wow C. PLL
C. String vibration D. Mixer
D. Radio sound 48. Which one is not an important characteristic of
41. When can a corporation or association the physical layer?
incorporated under the Philippine laws and with A. Electrical
foreign investors be granted radio station license? B. Logical
A. When 60% of the capital is owned by Filipino C. Mechanical
citizens D. All of the choices
B. When 50% of the capital is owned by Filipino 49. What is the typical separation between the two
citizens conductors in a parallel wire line?
C. When the chairman of the board is a Filipino A. 0.001 to 0.01 m
D. When the president of the B. 200 to 500 mm
corporation/association is a Filipino C. 0.635 to 15.24 cm
42. ______ is a term in the test language for noise D. 2.5 to 5 in.
testing in telephone circuits that means a one- 50. In t-carrier system, t3 has a bit rate of
syllable word consisting of a consonant, a vowel, and A. 560.160 Mbps
another consonant. B. 44.376 Mbps
A. Logatom C. 44.736 Mbps
B. Nosfer D. 560.106 Mbps
C. Ore 51. In radio signal emission designation, the fifth
D. Belcore symbol means
43. Why are frequency modulation transmitters A. Details of signals
more efficient? B. Type of information transmitted
A. Because their power is increased by class C C. Nature of multiplexing
amplifiers D. Nature of signal modulating the main carrier
B. Because their power is increased by class A 52. What is the channel spacing for SITOR
amplifiers frequencies?
C. Because their power is increased by class B A. 500 Hz
amplifiers B. 170 Hz
D. Because their power is increased by class AB C. 300 Hz
amplifiers D. 3 kHz
44. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated to a 53. Which of the following is the new name of
depth of 85%. Calculate the total power of the CCITT?
modulated wave? A. ITU-T
A. 1361.25 W B. ITU-R
 C. ITU-S 62. And ITU-T specification code that deals with the
D. ITU-D telephone circuits.
54. Which of the following frequencies is normally A. X series
used for distress and safety communications? B. T series
A. 4209.5 kHz C. V series
B. 490 kHz D. I series
C. 518 kHz 63. What digital carrier transmits a digital signal at
D. 2174.5 kHz 274.176 Mbps?
55. What is the difference between available power A. T1
and power budget? B. T3
A. Power margin C. T2
B. Extra power D. T4
C. Fade margin 64. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for
D. System gain satisfactory television reception?
56. A matched termination in which the A. 10 dB
electromagnetic energy is absorbed by water. B. 30 dB
A. Maximum power transfer C. 40 dB
B. Load D. 20 dB
C. Load water 65. How many telephone channels are there in AT 2
D. Basin line?
57. What do you call the electrical conduction in a A. 50
photosensitive material which is not exposed to B. 90
radiation? C. 83
A. Dark conductance D. 96
B. Pure conductance 66. What optical source radiates light uniformly in all
C. Black out directions?
D. Super conductance A. Isotropic source
58. How many sidebands are present in the J3E B. Lambertian source
mode? C. Voltage source
A. Two sidebands and a carrier D. Ideal source
B. One upper sideband 67. What is the spectrum of stereophonic FM signal?
C. One lower sideband A. 19 to 38 kHz
D. Two carriers and one sideband B. 30 to 53 kHz
59. A component that samples the microwave signal C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
travelling in one direction down to the transmission D. 88 to 108 MHz
line 68. What is the required quality factor for an SSB
A. Isolator filter with the following data: center frequency = 1
B. Combiner MHz, the desired attenuation level of the unwanted
C. Directional coupler sideband = 80 dB and the separation between
D. Attenuator sidebands = 200 Hz?
60. What does OMB stand for? A. 1,250
A. Optical media board B. 12,500
B. Organization of medical biologist C. 125,000
C. Optical medium board D. 25,000
D. Optimum main board 69. What do you call the reflection of a part of
61. A test method of comparing two audio systems incident light at the interface of two media that have
by switching inputs so that the same recording is different refractive indices?
heard in rapid succession over one given system and A. Snell’s reflection
then the other. B. Fresnel reflection
A. B test C. Lambertian reflection
B. A test D. Huygen’s reflection
C. AB test 70. Which conference in the ITU-structure does the
D. C test telecommunication standardization bureau report?
 A. World telecommunication standardization A. Microstrip line
conference B. Strip line
B. ITU-development sector C. Quad
C. Radio regulation board D. Coaxial cable
D. The secretary general 79. What mixer type has the lowest spurious signals?
71. What region around a broadcasting transmitter A. Double-balanced
in which satisfactory reception of broadcasting signal B. Single-balanced
is not obtained? C. Super-heterodyner
A. Fringe area D. Heterodyner
B. Primary are 80. What are the electromagnetic radiations of
C. Secondary area wavelengths less than 300 angstroms?
D. Tertiary area A. X-rays
72. What do you call the random noise seen on radar B. Ultraviolet rays
display screen? C. Infrared
A. Impulse noise D. Microwaves
B. Atmospheric noise 81. What is known as the alignment of the three
C. Grass color guns to a common point?
D. Johnson noise A. Confetti
73. Which of the following antennas receives signals B. Divergence
equally well from all directions in a horizontal plane? C. Convergence
A. Hertz antenna D. Synchronization
B. Vertical Marconi antenna 82. What is the department order that governs
C. Yagi antenna commercial radio operator?
D. Helical antenna A. Department Order No. 5
74. Where is the brightness control located in a TV? B. Department Order No. 23
A. The audio section C. Department Order No. 88
B. The video section D. Department Order No. 44
C. The grid-cathode circuit 83. The computer which initiates information
D. The front panel transfer
75. What is the term used in telephony and A. Master
telegraphy for irregular disturbing radiation due to B. Station
various causes and in a particular produced by arc C. Slave
transmitters causing a rushing sound in receiving D. Mainframe
telephones? 84. Which of the following antennas require good
A. Fax tone grounding?
B. Mush A. Yagi antenna
C. Hiss B. Hertz antenna
D. Crosstalk C. Marconi antenna
76. What device in a waveguide system used for D. Isotropic antenna
stopping or diverting electromagnetic wave as 85. Which circuit detects frequency modulated
desired? signal?
A. Mechanical switch A. Modulator
B. Electric switch B. Discriminator
C. Push-button switch C. Demodulator
D. Waveguide switch D. Modem
77. What is the maximum power that can be 86. What synchronization is provided so that the
obtained from a microwave tube at 10 GHz? start and end of message is identified?
A. 500 W A. Carrier
B. 10 W B. Character
C. 50 W C. Bit
D. 20 W D. Clock
78. What do you call a cable consisting of twisted
pairs of conductors, each separately insulated?
87. A form of regenerative repeater for transmitting C. 32,000 µT
signals over a long cable received through a relay in D. 62,000 µT
a clearer form. 96. What do you call a satellite weighing less than 1
A. Active generator kg?
B. Active repeater A. Nanosat
C. Interpolator B. Picosat
D. Audio generator C. Femtosat
88. What is the minimum propagation delay of a D. Microsat
geostationary satellite? 97. The first creature in space was carried by which
A. 278 ms of the following spacecrafts in November 3, 1957?
B. 239 ms A. Sputnik 1
C. 300 ms B. Sputnik 3
D. 600 ms C. Sputnik 2
89. In measuring crosstalk using dBx unit the D. Explorer 1
reference power is 98. The wireless evolution is achieved through the
A. 1 mW GSM family of wireless technology platforms which
B. 1 W include but except one of the following. Which one
C. 1 pW is NOT a member of the GSM family?
D. 6 mW A. GSM
90. A spot on the sun’s visible surface where the B. EDGE
magnetic flux lines converge? C. GPRS
A. Sunspot D. CDMA
B. Filament 99. Which of the following is an enhancement of
C. Solar spot GSM including the GPRS?
D. Prominence A. 1G
91. ______ is a slow moving large mass of plasma on B. 2.5G
the sun’s surface. C. 2G
A. Filament D. 3G
B. Solar flare 100. A low power, short range wireless technology
C. Prominence designed to provide a replacement for serial cables is
D. Proton flare called ______.
92. ______ is slow moving “cord-like” mass of A. WAP
plasma across the sun’s surface. B. GPRS
A. Filament C. Bluetooth
B. Solar flare D. EDGE
C. Prominence
D. Solar spot
93. At what particular wavelength is solar flux
measured?
A. 10.7 mm band
B. 10.7 m band
C. 10.7 cm band
D. 10.7 nm band
94. What is the approximate intensity of the
magnetic field at the earth’s surface?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 µT
D. 62,000 µT
95. What is the intensity of the magnetic field at the
earth’s north pole?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT