Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

TEST - 3 (Code-C)
Test Date : 02/12/2018

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (3) 39. (4) 75. (2) 111. (1) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (1) 80. (3) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (4)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (2) 120. (2) 156. (1)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (1)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (1)
16. (2) 52. (1) 88. (4) 124. (4) 160. (4)
17. (1) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (2)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (3)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (4) 163. (1)
20. (1) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (4) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (4) 169. (1)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (3) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (4) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (1)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (1) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (2)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (4) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) From F.B.D. of blocks.
Hint: Change in momentum normal to wall. T = m a ...(iii)
T1
Sol.: Mg – 2T = Ma1 ...(iv)
m M a1
v cos30° a
Mg – 2ma = M 
2
Mg
v sin 30° M 
30° Mg = a   M 
2  T T
30°
m  3M 
Mg = a  
v cos30°  2 
T1
2g
v sin 30° a
3
Px = – mv cos30° – mv cos 30°
4. Answer (2)
3
= –2 mv cos30° = – 2mv Hint: Fnet = ma
2
Sol.: Let upward force be F.
|Px| = mv 3 F – mg = ma ...(i)
|Py | = 0
F
 Px 
2
  P4   ( mv 3 )
2 2 a
P = m

OP  3 mv
mg
2. Answer (2)
 F = m (g + a) = 2(10 + 4)= 28 N = 2.8 kgf.
 dPcm
Hint: Fext  5. Answer (2)
dt
 Hint: Tmax = m(g + amax)
 dPcm
Sol.: Fext  Sol.: Tmax = 70 × 9.8 N
dt
  Now, Tmax = 50(g + amax)
Fext  0 70 × 9.8 = 50 × 9.8 + 50amax

or Pcm = constant
 20  9.8
 amax =  3.92 ms– 2
MVcm = constant 50
 6. Answer (2)
Vcm = constant
Hint: Use friction and pseudo force.
3. Answer (3)
Sol.: N = ma ...(i)
Hint: Use, constraint relation to find relation in
acceleration of blocks. fs 
N
Sol.: From constraint relation.
a
a = 2a1 ...(i) N ma
T m
Now from F.B.D. of pulley
T1 = 2T ...(ii)
mg W

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Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
fs max =  N 
 | F |  36  64  100  10 2 N.
fs max =  ma ...(ii)

for vertical equilibrium W  fs max | a |  5 ms–2
mg  ma. m=?

g | F | 10 2
a m  
 |a| 5

7. Answer (1)
m  2 2 kg
Hint: v opt  Rg tan 
12. Answer (3)
4 Hint:
Sol.: vopt = Rg tan   120  10 
3 P =  F  dt  Area under F -t curve.
vopt = 40  10  4 = 40 m/s Sol.:
8. Answer (1) p = Area under force - time curve
Hint: mg sin   F  fm p = 20 + 5 – 5 – 5 – 2.5

p  12.5 kN  s
1.7
Sol.: fm  mg cos   0.2  100   17 N . 13. Answer (2)
2
  
Driving force along plane is  m1v1  m2v 2  m3v 3
Hint: v cm 
FDrive = 50 – 10 = 40 N, downward m1  m2  m3
So, Friction will act upward. 
Sol.: v cm  0
Now by Newton’s 2nd Law.
  
40 – 17 = 10a m1v1  m2v 2  m3v 3
0
m1  m2  m3
a  2.3 m/s2 downward to plane.
  
m1v1  m2v 2  m3v 3  0
9. Answer (3)

 mg 3v 3  –4iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ
Hint: Fmin 
1  2   –4iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ 
v 3    m/s
 3 
 mg
Sol.: Fmin 
1  2 14. Answer (1)
Hint: Use the concept of variable acceleration to find
12  10 3 the final velocity.
Fmin  
3
2 4 Sol.:
1   
4
Fmin = 72 N 1
10. Answer (4)
0.5
Hint: fm = s N
Sol.: Limiting frictional force on block depends on
nature of surfaces in contact and normal reaction. 1 2 t (s)
For time (t = 0 to t = 1 s), retardation
11. Answer (3)
a = g = 10 ms–2
Hint: F = ma
 Speed at t = 1 s
Sol.: F  (6iˆ  8 jˆ – 10kˆ ) N v1 = 20 – 10 × 1 = 10 m/s

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
For 1  t  2 s 17. Answer (1)
1  0.5 Hint: For conical pendulum.
av =  0.75
2 T cos  = mg
Speed at t = 2 s Sol.: l = 1.3 m
v2 = 10 – 0.75 × 1 = 2.5 m/s r = 0.5 m
15. Answer (1)
Hint: Fnet = ma
Sol.: 

0m


1.3
N1 N2
T

l=
T T
kg 4k
5 g
T cos
30 fr 20 50 cm
37° 40 20 3 m = 200 g
30°
T sin
fr = N2 = .1 × 20 × 1.7 = 3.4 N mg
Now, Fnet = ma.
0.5 5
30 – T = 5a Now sin = 
1.3 13
T – 20 – 3.4 = 4a
6.6 = 9a 12
Hence, cos  = .
13
6.6 2.2 11
a=  = ms –2 Now, T cos  = mg
9 3 15
16. Answer (2) mg 0.2  10 2 13
T=   13   N
Hint: Use Lami’s theorem for equilibrium. cos  12
  12 6
 13 
 = 180 – (30 + )  
Sol.: From F.B.D of block
13
T = 40 g ...(i) T  N
6
T1 T2 18. Answer (2)

 30° Hint:
A Calculate frictional force and apply Newton’s 2nd Law.
Sol.:
T
N1
From F.B.D. of pulley. T
m1 fr1
T = 2T  = 80 g ...(ii) a 5
From F.B.D. of point A  0.7
N2 T sin 
g cos
T1 T T2 m 1 g
  T T m2 m1
sin(120) sin  sin(90  ) fr2
T 
sin
g 5 s
80 g sin(120) m 2
0.2 o
T1 =
sin(180 – (30  )) gc
37° m2
40 3g
T1 = N1 = m1 g cos
sin(  30) 40 g
T1 = minimum  sin( + 30) 3 4
fr1 = 1m1 g cos  =  4  10   24 N
 max  1 4 5
1 4
 = 90 – 30 = 60°   60 fr2   2m2 g cos37   2  10   4 N
4 5

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Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

Now, m2 g sin  + m1 g sin  – fr1 – fr1 = (m1 + m2)a 22. Answer (2)
 
12 + 24 – 24 – 4 = 6a Hint: W = F  d for constant force.
  
a=
8 4
 m/s2 Sol.: d  r2 – r2  (5iˆ – 3 ˆj ) m
6 3 
Now, 12 – T – fr1 = 2 a. F  (10iˆ – 2 jˆ) N
 
4 8 W  F  d  (10iˆ – 2 jˆ)  (5iˆ – 3 jˆ)  50  6
12 – 4 – T = 2   T  8 –
3 3
W  56 J
16
T N
3 23. Answer (1)
19. Answer (2) Hint: Work – Energy theorem
Hint: Sol.:
dU
For equilibrium, 0 8 m/s
dr K = 100 N/m
Sol.:
2 kg
dU Smooth
For equilibrium, 0  = 0.7
dr x 1m
a 2b
U= –
r3 r2
1 1
mv 2  kx 2   mg  1 ...(i)
dU 3a 2b 2 2
– 4  3 0
dr r r
1 1
 2  64   100  x 2  0.7  2  10  1
 3a  1 2 2
 – r  2b  r 3  0
  64 – 14 = 50x 2
3a 50 = 50x 2
r0 –  2b  0
r x  1m
3a 24. Answer (2)
r
2b Hint:
20. Answer (1)
Work – Energy theorem
Sol.: Linear momentum is always conserved
because Fext. = 0. Sol.:
Total energy also remains always conserved in all m
cases. But kinetic energy will not be conserved
10 m

during collision.
21. Answer (2)
m
Hint: W = Pt when P is constant
Sol.: P = constant m = 4 kg
W = 500 J
v2 2Pt
P t = m  v  h = 10 m
2 m
Now, W = mgh + Wwork done against friction.
2  20  t 500 = 400 + Wwork done against friction.
v 2 t
10 Wwork done against friction = 500 – 400
P 20 10
F   Wwork done against friction  100 J
v 2 t t

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
25. Answer (3)
5k 4/5
  v2 = y
Hint: F  S  0 2
 v  y 2/5
Sol.: F = sin(at )iˆ  cos(at ) ˆj
  –
1

 P = F  v  P  y 5  v 2/5
 at   at 
S = sin   iˆ  cos   ˆj
3 3 1
  P  y5
If F and S are perpendicular then
  28. Answer (2)
F S  0
Hint: Momentum conservation.
 at   at  Sol.:
 sin(at )sin    cos(at )  cos    0
3 3 v

 at  4 m/s
cos  at –   0 m 4 m/s 
 3 m + 2m

at 2m
at – = /2
3
Since Fext = 0
2at  Hence, by conservation of linear momentum.

3 2 
 m(4iˆ)  2m(4 jˆ)  3m  v
3
t 4 8 
4a v   iˆ  jˆ  m/s
3 3 
26. Answer (3)
Hint: Area under the F– x curve. 29. Answer (4)
Sol.: W = area under F – x curve. Hint: Conservation of momentum and projectile
motion.
1
W = (200  100)  (100  2) – 100 Sol.:
2
v
300
=  200 – 100
2 400 m/s
W = 250 J 3.95 kg 
0.05 kg 4 kg
W  250 J
27. Answer (1) 4V = 400 × .05 + 3.95 × 0
  V = 5 m/s.
Hint: P  F  v
–
1 As horizontal range, R  v 2h
Sol.: F  y 5
g
1
–
ay 5 2  20
5  10 m
10
1
dv –
v  k y 5
dy
–
1 30. Answer (2)
vdv = k y 5
 dy Hint: Work energy theorem.
v 2
y 4/5 Sol.: By work energy theorem
k
2 4 1
mv 2  mgh  Loss of mechanical energy
5 2

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Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
At t = 2 s, v = 4 ms–1
1
 2  202  20  10  17  Loss of mechanical
2 energy 1 1
w m(v f2 – v i2 )   2  (16 – 0)  16 J
2 2
400 – 340 = Loss of mechanical energy
34. Answer (1)
Loss of mechanical energy  60 J Hint: Elastic head-on collision between two equal
masses.
31. Answer (3)
Sol.: If m1 = m2 = m3 = m4 and v4 = u.
1 2
Hint: P.E. energy of spring is = kx Then, for 4th and 3rd ball collision.
2
v3 = u, v4 = 0
1
k and kP  k1  k 2 for 3rd and 2nd ball collision.
L
Sol.: v3 = 0 and v2 = u
for 2 and 1st ball collision.
nd
1
Given k  (1)2  U ...(i) v2 = 0 and v1 = u
2
Hence 1st ball will move with speed u and other will
k = 2k remain at rest.
kP = 2k + 2k = 4k 35. Answer (2)
1 Hint: hn  e 2 n h0
Now, U =  (4k )  (4)  U  16
2 Sol.: We know that
U   16U hn = e 2n  h0
h10 = e 2 ×10  h0
32. Answer (1)
 
AB h10  e 20 h0
Hint: cos  
AB 36. Answer (2)
Sol.: Displacement vector Hint: Conservation of linear momentum
 Px = 0 and Py = 0.
S  (3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ ) m
 Sol.:
Force F  (5iˆ  4 jˆ – 3kˆ ) N
 u
|S | 5 2 m Rest 3
 u
m1 m2  m1 m2
|F |5 2 N 
  v
F  S  15  16 – 15  16 J
Hence, Px = 0  m1u – m2 v cos  = 0
  m1u = m2v cos ...(i)
F S 16 16 8
cos        u
| F || S | 5 2 5 2 25  2 25 Py = 0,  0 = m1 – m2  v sin 
3

 8  m1u
  cos–1    m2 v sin  ...(ii)
 25  3
33. Answer (1) Dividing equation (i) by (ii)
Hint: W = KE
1
F tan  =
Sol.: m = 2 kg, F = 4t, a   2t 3
m
v 2 2
 1
  tan–1  
 adt   adt   2t dt  t
2

0 0 0
3

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
37. Answer (2) 41. Answer (3)
Hint: P  2mK Actual power delivered
Hint: Efficiency =
Sol.: Ki = K Rated power
Kf = K0 + 8K0 = 9K0 Sol.:
Pi  2mK 0 mgh 373  10  16 4
PDelivered =   4  373 W
Pf  2mK f  2m  9K 0  3P0 t 40
PDelivered = 2hp.
P 3P – P0
 100  0  100  200% 80
P P0 PDelivered =  Pengine
38. Answer (2) 100
Hint: VLowest Point = 2 gR for a tube. 10 20
Prated =  2hp   2.5hp
Sol.: For a tube 8 8
ulowers point = 4gR PRated  2.5 hp
Hence by M.E. conservation.
42. Answer (4)
1
 m  (4gR )  mgh m1x1 – m2 x2 m y – m2 y 2
2 Hint: xcm = and y cm  1 1
m1 – m2 m1 – m2
2R = h
Sol.:
 h  2R y
39. Answer (4)

mv 2
Hint: mg cos – N =
R y 3R/5
Sol.: x
R (0, 0)
mv 2 v gR
R mv 2
N R
N W1 = 90 N
mg


 W = 65 N
cos

W2 = W1 – W = 25 N
mg

m1gy1 – m2 gy 2 W 1y1 – W2 y 2
Now, UTop = gR Now, ycm = 
(m1 – m2 ) g W1 – W2
Hence at top
mv 2  3R 
mg = N + 90(0) – 25   
R =  5   – 15R  –3R
65 65 13
m  gR
mg = N  N 0
R 3R
ycm = –
N  0 at Top i.e.   0 13
40. Answer (1)
–3R 
Hence,  xcm, y cm    0,
Hint: Stopping distance × retarding force
 13 
= Loss of kinetic energy. 43. Answer (1)
Sol.: As  is same, Hint: Concept of motion of C.O.M.
Given, K = ( mg)x1 = (2mg)x2 Sol.: In explosion centre of mass will move in original
Then,  x1 = 2x2 path.

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Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Hence displacement = R 45. Answer (4)
 
u 2 sin 2 102  m1a1  m2a2
R =   sin(2  30) Hint: acm 
g 10 m1  m2
Sol.:
3
= 10sin60  10  a1
2

R = 5 3m 4 kg

Hence Displacement = 5 3 m
44. Answer (1) 4 kg a2
Hint: In this case
 
 m r  m2 r2  mg g
rcm  1 1 | a |= 
m1  m2 2m 2
Sol.:
10
i.e. a  5 m/s2
r1  iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ , m1 = 2 kg 2

r2  3iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ , m2 = 5 kg Now, a1  aiˆ  5iˆ

 2(iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ )  5(3iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ ) a2 = – ajˆ  – 5 ˆj
Hence rcm =
7
17i  14 j – 3kˆ
ˆ ˆ  4(5)iˆ  4(–5 ˆj ) 5iˆ – 5 ˆj
= acm  
7 44 2

  17 3  m
rcm   iˆ  2 jˆ – kˆ  m acm  (2  5iˆ – 2  5 ˆj ) 2
 7 7  s

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) 48. Answer (3)
PM Hint: Higher the polarity of the molecule, higher is
Hint: d = the attractive force.
RT
4  32 Sol.: NH 3 is polar molecule hence it will be
Sol.: d = = 3.9 g/L associated by attractive force and will be liquefied
0.082  400
easily.
47. Answer (3)
49. Answer (1)
1
Hint: r  and
M 8RT
Hint: Average speed (u) =
Volume of gas effused (V) M
Rate of effusion (r) = Time taken (t) uHe MSO2 64
Sol.: u = =  4 :1
1 V1 /t1 M2 SO2 MHe 4
Sol.: r  , so =
M V2 /t 2 M1 50. Answer (3)
Since V1 = V2, so 1
Hint: CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)  283.5 kJ / mol
t2 M2 2
= 55g 5
t1 M1 Sol.: Mole of CO2 formed = = mole
44 g / mole 4
2t1 M2
=  M2 = 64 g/mol 5
t1 16 Heat released = × (283.5) = 354.4 kJ
4

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
51. Answer (3) 57. Answer (3)
Hint: For a reaction to be spontaneous Hint: K.E. per atom
G = H – TS = – ve  Energy absorbed Bond energy 
 – 
Sol.: For G to be – ve, TS > H per molecule per molecule 

 H 7100  2
T   284 K = 11 °C  Sol.:
 S 25 
52. Answer (1) 180.6  103 J
Bond energy/Molecule = = 3  10 –19 J
Hint: Process is adiabatic so q = 0. 6.02  10 23
Sol.:
3.5  10 –19 – 3  10 –19
w = –1.5(4.2 – 1.2) L-atm = – 4.5 L-atm K.E. per atom = J
2
= – 4.5 × 101.3 J = – 455.85 J
= 2.5 × 10 –20 J
U = q + w
58. Answer (2)
∵ q = 0, so U = w = –455.85 J
Hint:
53. Answer (4)
8RT
q Average speed 
Hint: S = M
T
Sol.: T = 127 + 273 = 400 K 2RT
Most probable speed 
M
4800 Jmol–1
S = = 12 JK–1 mol –1
400 K 3RT
rms speed 
54. Answer (4) M

3RT Sol.:
Hint: urms =
M 8RT 2RT 3RT
Average : mps : rms  : :
speed speed M M M
1
Sol.: urms 
M 8
= : 2: 3
Lower is the molar mass, higher is the root mean 
square speed. 59. Answer (2)
55. Answer (3) Hint: H = B.E(reactant) – B.E(product)
Hint: (V – nb), Volume available for the movement of 1 1
gas molecules. Sol.: H2  I2  HI
2 2
Sol.: ‘nb’ is the volume occupied by n mole of the
gas molecules. 1 1
H = B.E.(H2 )  B.E.(I2 ) – B.E.(HI)
56. Answer (2) 2 2

1
3
Hint: Avg. Kinetic energy (E) = n  RT or BE(HI) =
2
 
B.E.(H2 )  B.E.(I2 ) – H
2
1
Sol.: EN2 =
14 3
 R  300 =  435  150  – 26.5 = 266 kJ/mole
28 2 2
60. Answer (2)
24 3
E O2 =  R  500 Hint: q and w are path functions.
32 2
Sol.: U + PV = H (State function)
EN2 14 32 300 2 S(Entropy) (State function)
=   =
E O2 28 24 500 5 H – TS = G(State function)

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Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
61. Answer (1) 66. Answer (2)
Hint: H = U + ng RT Hint: PV = nRT
Sol.: For the reaction
T
H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g) or V 
p
ng = 2 – 2 = 0
 H = U Sol.:
62. Answer (1) T1 = 273 + 17 = 290 K
Hint: U = q + w; T2 = 273 + 27 = 300 K
Sol.: w = –PV = 0 290
V1 
 q + w = U  q = U = 750 J 1.8
63. Answer (2)
300
V2 
V 1
Hint: S = nRln 2
V1
V2 300  1.8
Sol.: or = = 1.86
V1 290
V2 40
S = 5 × 2 × 2.303 log = 5 × 2 × 2.303 log 67. Answer (4)
V1 5
PC VC
= 5 × 2 × 2.303 log 8 = 5 × 2 × 2.303 × 3 log 2 Hint: ZC =
RTC
= 5 × 2 × 2.303 × 3 × 0.301 = 20.8 cal K–1
64. Answer (4) a 8a
Sol.: PC = , VC = 3b, TC 
Hint:  rH   f Hproduct –  f Hreactant 27b2 27Rb

Sol.: C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) a  3b  27Rb 3

 ZC = 
 rH   f Hproduct –  f Hreactant 27b2  R  8a 8
68. Answer (1)
rH = {3  (– 394)  4(–286) – (–104)}
rH = {–1182 – 1144 + 104} = –2222 kJ/mole P
Hint: Rate of effusion (r) 
M
66
Mole of C3H8 = = 1.5
44 1.5 4.5
Sol.: rO2  and rHe 
rH for 1.5 mole = –2222 × 1.5 = –3333 kJ 32 4
65. Answer (2)
rO2 1.5 2
=  = 1: 6 2
pCO2 nCO2 rHe 32 4.5
Hint: for a gaseous mixture, 
pN2 nN2 69. Answer (4)
Hint: Naturally occurring most stable form of an
220
Sol.: Mole of CO2 = =5 element has zero standard enthalpy of formation.
44
Sol.: In standard state chlorine exist as Cl2(g)
280 70. Answer (3)
Mole of N2 = = 10
28 Hint: dw = – PdV
Sol.: dw = – PdV
pCO2 nCO2
Now,  dw = – d(PV) (∵ Pressure is constant)
pN2 nN2
dw = –d(nRT) (For ideal gas)
pCO2 5 w = –nRT

1.5 10 w = –1 × R × 1 = – R
 pCO2 = 0.75 atm Hence, work done by the gas is ‘R’

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
71. Answer (4) 78. Answer (2)
Hint: G = Hvap – TSvap Hint: For spontaneous reaction,
At equilibrium, G = 0 G = H – TS < 0
Sol.: G = H – TS Sol.: at all temperature G < 0,
At equilibrium, G = 0, so H = TS if H < 0 and S > 0
H 60240 79. Answer (3)
T   400 K
S 150.6 Hint: For 1 mole of gas, van der waals equation is
72. Answer (3)
 a   a 
Hint: Entropy decreases when disorder decreases.  P  V 2  (V – b)  RT and at high pressure  2 0
Sol.: During condensation of vapour, vapour is   V 
converted into liquid/solid. More disordered vapour is
 a 
converted into more ordered liquid/solid. Sol.:  P  2  (V – b)  RT
 V 
73. Answer (3)
Hint: Surface tension is force acting per unit length.  a 
Sol.: Unit of surface tension is N m–1.
for  2 0
V 
74. Answer (1) P(V – b) = RT
Hint: Heat of neutralization for strong acid and strong
base is 13.7 kcal/eq. PV Pb
– 1
Sol.: meq of H2SO4 = 200 × 0.2 = 40 RT RT
meq of NaOH = 200 × 0.15 = 30 PV  Pb 
 Z  1 
Heat evolve = 13.7 × 30 × 10–3 × 103 cal RT  RT 
= 411 cal
80. Answer (3)
75. Answer (2)
Hint: Higher the molecular attraction, higher is the 2RT
Hint: umps  and for ideal gas PV = nRT
boiling point. M
Sol.: HF molecules are associated with
PM RT P
intermolecular hydrogen bonding hence its boiling Sol.: d   
point is highest. RT M d
76. Answer (4)
2RT 2P
Hint: Boyle’s law, PV = constant umps = 
M d
Sol.:
1
umps 
d
PV
81. Answer (4)
Hint: At any temperature, different particles in the
gas have different speeds.
V Sol.: Due to different speeds, the gas particles have
77. Answer (4) different kinetic energy at same temperature.
Hint: PV = nRT 82. Answer (2)
Sol.: PHe V = nHeRT Hint: H = U + ng RT
4 Sol.:
2.5  V   0.082  375
4 H – U = ngRT = (6 – 9) × 8.314 × 300 J
V = 12.3 L = –7.48 kJ

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Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
83. Answer (4) 86. Answer (3)
Hint: H = U + (PV) Hint: w = – Pex V
Sol.: Sol.:
H = U + (P2V2 – P1V1) w = – Pex V = –1.0 atm (150 × 15) cm3
P1 = 3 atm, V1 = 4 L = –1.0 atm × 2250 cm3
P2 = 5 atm, V2 = 6 L = –1.0 × 2.25 L-atm
H = 45 + (6 × 5 – 3 × 4) = 63 L-atm = –2.25 L-atm
84. Answer (2) 87. Answer (2)
Hint: Standard enthalpy of formation is defined for
Hint: Q = mLfus + msT
formation of one mole of a product from its
constituent elements in their most stable states of Sol.:
aggregation. Q = 75 × 1000 × 80 + 75 × 1000 × 1 × 10 cal
Sol.: For reaction H2(g) + Br2(l)  2HBr(g), enthalpy = 6750000 cal
change is not standard enthalpy of formation. Here
= 6.75 × 103 kcal
two moles instead of one mole of the product is
formed. 88. Answer (4)
85. Answer (2) Hint: Intensive property does not depend on the
quantity of matter.
Vf
Hint: wrev = –2.303 nRTlog  Force 
Vi Sol.: Pressure =   is an intensive property.
 Area 
H = nCpT 89. Answer (2)
–
Sol.: Hint: Hydration energy of F is high.
wrev = –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 log4 Sol.: During neutralization of HF with NaOH, extra
energy is released due to extensive hydration of
wrev = –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 × 2 log2 –
F .
= –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 × 2 × 0.301
90. Answer (3)
= –17289.87 J = –17.3 kJ Hint: CCl4 is a non-polar molecule.
H = nCpT Sol.: In non-polar molecules (CCl4), only London
H = 0 ∵ T = 0 Forces are present.

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1)
Hint: This plant is used as fodder.
Sol.: Sesbania is used as fodder and it belongs to
family Fabaceae.
92. Answer (4)
Hint: This condition is seen in potato family.
Sol.: In the floral formula of family Solanaceae,
C(5)A5 represents epipetalous condition.
93. Answer (4)
Hint: Lateral meristem is responsible for secondary
growth.
Sol.: Lateral meristem includes intrafascicular
cambium (primary), interfascicular cambium and cork
cambium (secondary).
94. Answer (3)
Hint: Mesophyll tissue is not differentiated into
palisade and spongy parenchyma in monocot leaves.
Sol.: Monocot leaves are isobilateral. These have
stomata on both surfaces and below the stoma of
abaxial epidermis sub-stomatal cavities are present.
95. Answer (2)
Hint: In racemose inflorescence, younger flowers are
present towards the apex whereas in cymose
inflorescence, younger flowers are present towards
base.
Sol.:
Cymose inflorescence – Basipetal succession of
flowers

13/19
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
Racemose inflorescence – Acropetal succession of Sol.: Tetradynamous condition is a feature of family
flowers Brassicaceae. In pea, stamens exhibit diadelphous
Radial symmetry – Actinomorphic flower condition.
Symmetry by one – Zygomorphic flower 104. Answer (2)
plane only Hint: In litchi, seed is covered by an outgrowth of
96. Answer (3) funicle.
Hint: Rhizome is a modified underground stem which Sol.: This white, translucent, fleshy edible covering
grows horizontal to the soil surface. of seed is called aril.
Sol.: Potato is a tuber i.e. modified underground 105. Answer (1)
stem branch which get swollen on account of
accumulation of food. Hint: A sterile stamen is called staminode.
97. Answer (1) Sol.:
Hint: Pulvinate leaf is found in some leguminous - Obliquely placed ovary and swollen placenta are
plants. the features of family Solanaceae.
Sol.: Leaf having swollen base is called pulvinate - Versatile fixation of anthers is feature of family
leaf. Poaceae
98. Answer (3) - Female flowers are known as pistillate flowers.
Hint: This aestivation is found in corolla of family 106. Answer (3)
Fabaceae.
Hint: This is a monocot family.
Sol.: In family Fabaceae corolla is papilionaceous,
in which smallest anterior petals are referred as keel. Sol.: In family Liliaceae, gynoecium is tricarpellary,
99. Answer (3) syncarpous, superior, trilocular and with axile
placentation. It is commonly called lily family.
Hint: These roots are adventitious roots.
107. Answer (2)
Sol.: Stilt roots arise from the lower nodes of stem
to support the main axis. Hint: Collenchyma is an elastic, living mechanical
100. Answer (4) tissue.
Hint: The endodermal cells of dicot stem store some Sol.: Collenchyma cells have thickening of cellulose,
carbohydrate grains. hemicellulose and pectin at their corners.
Sol.: These cells store starch grains and hence 108. Answer (1)
endodermis is known as starch sheath. Hint: In exarch type of primary xylem, protoxylem
101. Answer (2) lies towards the periphery and metaxylem lies
Hint: Hypodermis is absent in roots. towards the centre.
Sol.: Sol.: Exarch arrangement of primary xylem is a
- All tissues outside the vascular cambium feature of roots.
constitute bark 109. Answer (3)
- In leaves, ground tissue is not well differentiated
Hint: Companion cell controls the function of sieve
& is known as mesophyll
tube.
- Casparian strips are formed by deposition of a
Sol.: Companion cells retain nucleus throughout
waxy material suberin on the radial and
their life and control functions of anucleated sieve
tangential walls of endodermal cells.
tubes.
102. Answer (3)
110. Answer (2)
Hint: Coconut is a drupe type of fruit.
Sol.: Drupe type of fruits are mostly one seeded, Hint: Coleoptile and coleorhiza are sheaths that
develop from monocarpellary superior ovary and have enclose plumule and radicle respectively.
hard, stony endocarp. Sol.: Proteinaceous layer of endosperm that
103. Answer (4) separates embryo is called aleurone layer.
Hint: In tetradynamous condition there are 111. Answer (1)
4 larger in inner ring Sol.: Rice, coconut and wheat are endospermic
6 stamens 2 smaller in outer ring seeds but seeds of orchids are non-endospermic.

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Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
112. Answer (2) Sol.: As a result of secondary growth amount of
Hint: In Fabaceae, stamens show diadelphous heart wood increases and amount of sap wood
condition. almost remains constant.
Sol.: Floral formula of family Fabaceae is 122. Answer (2)
Hint: Lenticels occur in most woody trees and
% K(5)C1 + 2 + (2)A(9) + 1G1 permit the exchange of gasses and water.
113. Answer (4) Sol.:
Hint: Guard cells are generally bean-shaped except - Annual rings are distinct in plants growing in
grasses. temperate regions because climatic conditions
Sol.: In grasses, the guard cells are dumb-bell are not uniform over there.
shaped. - Stelar secondary growth is performed by vascular
114. Answer (3) cambium as a result central cylinder of wood is
Hint: Root hairs are epidermal appendages. formed which remains surrounded by secondary
phloem.
Sol.: Root hairs are unicellular elongations of the
epidermal cells i.e. they are exogenous in origin. - Pericycle cells opposite to protoxylem, become
meristematic and give rise to vascular cambium
115. Answer (2) in dicot roots.
Hint: Relative positions of primary xylem 123. Answer (3)
(Protoxylem & metaxylem) decides the endarch or
exarch conditions. Hint: Heartwood is called duramen and sapwood is
called alburnum.
Sol.: In endarch arrangement, protoxylem occurs
towards centre and metaxylem towards periphery. Sol.: Heartwood is hard, durable and resistant to
attack of microorganisms.
116. Answer (2)
124. Answer (4)
Hint: In hypogynous flower, ovary is superior.
Hint: Axillary buds modify into tendrils in cucurbits.
Sol.:
Sol.: In cucurbits, stem modifies to provide support
Gn – Superior ovary to the plant.
Gn – Inferior ovary (Epigynous flower) 125. Answer (2)
Hint: Tap roots directly arise from radicle.
117. Answer (4)
Sol.: Adventitious roots arise from plant parts other
Hint: Replum is thin membranous structure, which is
than radicle.
formed in siliqua type of fruit.
126. Answer (3)
Sol.: Replum is a pseudoseptum and it is a feature
of family Brassicaceae. Hint: Flower is a modified shoot which may have
floral appendages in multiple of three, four or five.
118. Answer (2)
Sol.: Trimerous flowers are found in Liliaceae family
Sol.: Some pepo fruits are bitter in taste due to
in which floral appendages are in multiples of three.
tetracyclic triterpenes.
127. Answer (4)
119. Answer (3)
Hint: In hypogynous flower, ovary is superior.
Hint: In cymose inflorescence, the main axis
terminates into a flower. Sol.: In soyabean (Fabaceae), brinjal, chilli
(Solanaceae) and tulip (Liliaceae) ovary is superior.
Sol.: I n Tr i t i c u m ( W h e a t ) i n f l o r e s c e n c e i s
spikelet type (racemose). 128. Answer (3)
120. Answer (2) Hint: Pericycle is absent in monocot stem.
Hint: Cassia flower can be divided into two equal Sol.: Pericycle may be single layered or
halves only by one plane. multilayered.
Sol.: It is known as bilateral symmetry (Zygomorphic 129. Answer (4)
flower) Hint: Lateral roots develope from pericycle.
121. Answer (4) Sol.: Lateral roots are present in both dicot &
Hint: With the passage of time, rings of the sap monocot roots.
wood are changed into heart wood.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
130. Answer (3)
Hint: In monocot stem, vascular bundles are
scattered in whole ground tissue.
Sol.: In monocot stem, endodermis is absent but it
is well developed in roots.
131. Answer (1)
Hint: In caryopsis fruits, pericarp is completely fused
with seed coat.
Sol.: Caryopsis fruits are found in members of
Poaceae like wheat (Triticum aestivum), maize, rice
etc.
132. Answer (3)
Hint: In some seeds nucellus is not fully consumed
during development of embryo.
Sol.: Such persistent nucellus is called perisperm
and such seeds are known as perispermic seeds.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: In a compound leaf, incision reaches upto
midrib.
Sol.: Lamina is broken into leaflets and midrib forms
a common axis called rachis, but bud is present in
the axil of petiole of compound leaves.
134. Answer (4)
Hint: In dicot stem, cork cambium develops from cell
of cortex region.
Sol.: Cork cambium is also called phellogen,its
origin is outside of the stele i.e. extrastelar.
In dicot root, it develops from pericycle cells.
135. Answer (4)
Hint: Lateral meristem is responsible for secondary
growth.
Sol.: In monocots, secondary growth is absent.
Thus lateral meristem is also absent.
136. Answer (3)
Hint : Factors which are used up during coagulation
of blood.
Sol. : Plasma lacks formed elements and plasma
without clotting factors is known as serum.
137. Answer (3)
Hint : Vertebrates possess ventral heart.
Sol. : Blood groups are determined by presence of
surface antigen on RBCs. Conversion of fibrinogen
into fibrin is done by thrombin.
Chordates like urochordates have an open
circulatory system.
16/19
Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
138. Answer (1)
Hint : Removal of this compound requires large
amount of water.
Sol. : Ammonia is the most toxic nitrogenous waste
and uric acid is the least toxic nitrogenous waste
which is excreted in form of pellets.
139. Answer (2)
Hint : Antibodies protect us from pathogens.
Sol. : Antibodies are immunoglobulins which are
produced by B-lymphocytes (plasma cells) and
protect body from pathogens. Albumin is mainly
concerned with maintaining osmotic balance of
blood. Heparin is an anticoagulant while fibrinogen is
one of the clotting factors.
140. Answer (4)
Hint : Obligatory reabsorption of water occurs in this
part of nephron.
Sol. : Obligatory reabsorption of water around
60-70% occurs in PCT and some occurs in loop of
Henle. Facultative reabsorption of about
10 - 15% of water occurs in DCT and CD under the
influence of ADH.
141. Answer (3)
Hint : Chordae tendinae are attached to papillary
muscles in ventricular wall & with flaps of AV valves.
Sol. : Chordae tendinae are attached to AV valves on
one end and papillary muscles on other end. These
cord like structures prevent the collapse of AV valves
during powerful ventricular contraction. They are not
attached to semilunar valves.
142. Answer (4)
Hint : Haemoglobin helps in transport of gases.
Sol. : Haemoglobin is an iron containing pigment
present inside RBCs. Basophils secrete histamine,
serotonin and heparin. Neutrophils have multilobed
nucleus.
143. Answer (1)
Hint : Cortex present between medullary pyramids
was named after Joseph Bertin.
Sol. : At a number of places renal cortex invaginates
within medulla and divides medulla into a number of
pyramidal structures known as medullary pyramids.
Invaginations of cortex into medulla are known as
columns of Bertini.
144. Answer (4)
Hint : Human heart is myogenic.
Sol. : SA node (pacemaker) is a modified cardiac
muscular tissue capable of generating impulses.
RBCs lack mitochondria to perform aerobic
breakdown of glucose. Single circulation of blood
occurs in heart of fishes.
Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
145. Answer (3)
Hint : Antibodies bind to antigen present on RBCs
surface.
Sol. : Person having O-blood group lacks antigens
A & B on the RBC surface but have anti-A and anti-
B antibodies in their plasma.
146 Answer (2)
Hint : Osmolarity depends upon number of solute
particles/volume.
Sol. : Because PCT is permeable for both water and
electrolytes as well as other substances so
osmolarity in PCT remains unchanged and filtrate
remains isotonic in comparison to blood plasma.
147. Answer (2)
Hint : Various plasma proteins promote blood
coagulation.
Sol. : Heparin is an anticoagulant produced by
basophils and mast cells while thrombin, Ca2+ and
thrombokinase are involved in blood clotting.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : Left ventricle pumps blood into aorta from
where it is carried to different parts of the body.
Sol. : Different nodal tissues of heart are capable of
generating actions potential at different rates.
Lymphocytes are found in lymph. Volume of blood
pumped by each ventricle in one cardiac cycle is
stroke volume.
149. Answer (3)
Hint : It is a tuft of blood capillaries present in
Bowman’s capsule.
Sol. : Renal tubule involves components of tubular
parts of nephrons such as Bowman’s capsule, PCT,
DCT and loop of Henle.
150. Answer (4)
Hint : Rh–ve individuals will generate antibodies
against Rh+ve antigen in their plasma.
Sol. : Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs due to Rh
incompatibility between Rh –ve mother and Rh +ve
foetus. Antibodies against Rh antigen cross the
placenta and start destroying foetal RBCs. In order
to prevent this, anti-Rh antibodies are given to
mother.
151. Answer (3)
Hint : Maximum reabsorption of water & solutes
occurs in PCT.
Sol. : Reabsorption of maximum solutes including
glucose occurs in PCT. Reabsorption of water
occurs in PCT, descending limb of loop of Henle,
DCT and collecting duct.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
152. Answer (1)
Hint : Members of superclass Pisces have venous
heart.
Sol. : Only deoxygenated blood is pumped by fish’s
heart; which means blood is circulated only once
through their heart i.e. single circulation. Most
reptiles show incomplete double circulation.
153. Answer (3)
Hint : Net filtration pressure (NFP)/Glomerular
filtration pressure (GFP) is the pressure being
exerted by glomerular blood for ultrafiltration.
Sol. : NFP  GHP  (BCOP  CHP)
Glomerular Blood Capsular
Hydrostatic Colloidal Hydrostatic
Pressure Osmotic Pressure
Pressure
154. Answer (4)
Hint : Oxygen requirement of body increases during
strenuous exercise.
Sol. : During strenuous exercise, under sympathetic
stimulation heart rate increases due to increase in
number of action potentials generated by
pacemaker. Also, there is an increase in force of
contraction of ventricles leading to an increase in
stroke volume. However, the sequence of various
events occurring in a cardiac cycle i.e. atrial systole,
ventricular systole and joint diastole remain same.
155. Answer (3)
Hint : T-wave represents repolarisation of ventricles.
Sol. : T-wave represents end of ventricular systole
which is followed by joint-diastole. Electrocardiogram
represents electrical activity of heart and it is
recorded by electrocardiograph machine.
156. Answer (1)
Hint : Systemic circulation begins with left ventricle
and ends in right atrium.
Sol. : Aorta carries oxygenated blood from left
ventricle towards body tissues while vena cava
returns deoxygenated blood to right atrium.
157. Answer (1)
Hint : Damage to kidney causes edema.
Sol. : Damage to kidney disrupts its functions
leading to accumulation of urea in blood which is
known as uremia. Formation of large volume of urine
is known as polyuria. Cystinuria refers to increased
presence of cysteine in urine while in hematuria,
blood is found in urine.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
158. Answer (3)
Hint : Sudden damage to heart muscles causes
myocardial infarction
Sol. : Heart attack is also known as myocardial
infarction. Damage to nodal tissue causes stoppage
of heart-beat which is cardiac arrest.
159. Answer (1)
Hint : Sympathetic nervous system regulates
various activities of body in emergency situation.
Sol. : Parasympathetic stimulation decreases heart
rate, stroke volume and cardiac output. P-wave in
ECG represents atrial depolarisation.
160. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals which live in water deficient conditions
are uricotelic.
Sol. : Uric acid is excreted by using minimum
amount of water e.g., Reptiles, Birds, Insects, Land
snails etc.
161. Answer (2)
Hint : These blood vessels carry deoxygenated
blood.
Sol. : Blood must pass through pulmonary
circulation in order to flow from right atrium to left
atrium.
162. Answer (3)
Hint : Micturition reflex is initiated by stretching of
wall of urinary bladder.
Sol. : Stretch receptors in the wall of urinary bladder
send signals to CNS, which passes on motor
messages to initiate the contraction of smooth
muscles of bladder and simultaneous relaxation of
urethral sphincter causing the release of urine.
163. Answer (1)
Hint : This is associated with skeletal structures of
body.
Sol.: Liver and spleen are involved in erythropoiesis
in embryonic life.
164. Answer (2)
Hint : Sympathetic neuronal endings release
adrenaline.
Sol. : Adrenaline causes an increase in heart rate
resulting in decrease in the duration of individual
cardiac cycle. However, adrenaline causes an
increase in cardiac output and stroke volume.
165. Answer (3)
Hint : Heart beats about 72 times in a minute.
Sol. : In an cardiac cycle, both systemic and
pulmonary circulation take place. So about 72
cardiac cycles take place in a minute, hence about
72 times double circulations are normally completed
in one minute.
18/19
Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
166. Answer (2)
Hint : Counter current mechanism helps in producing
concentrated urine.
Sol. : If there is no loop of Henle, there will be no
counter current mechanism and medullary
concentration gradient will not be maintained. As a
result dilute urine will be formed.
167. Answer (3)
Hint : First heart sound is ‘Lubb’ and second heart
sound is ‘dub’.
Sol. : First heart sound is produced by closure of
A-V valves at the beginning of ventricular systole,
while second heart second ‘dub’ is produced by
closure of semilunar valves at the beginning of
ventricular diastole.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : In normal ECG, T-waves are positive wave
produced during ventricular repolarisation.
Sol. : End of T-wave represents end of ventricular
systole and initiation of joint diastole or diastasis.
169. Answer (1)
Hint : Urea cycle occurs is liver.
Sol. : Formation of urea occurs in liver and hepatic
vein carrying blood from liver has maximum quantity
of urea while renal vein carrying blood from kidney
after filtration has least amount of urea.
170. Answer (4)
Hint : Malpighian body of Juxtamedullary nephrons
are located close to medulla of kidney.
Sol. : Cortical nephrons are more abundant as
compared to juxtamedullary nephrons.
Juxtamedullary nephrons have longer loop of Henle
and well developed vasa recta as compared to
cortical nephron. Peritubular capillaries are present
around tubules of nephrons in both Cortical and
Juxtamedullary nephron.
171. Answer (3)
Hint : Bundle of His is a part of nodal tissue of heart.
Sol. : Nodal tissue of heart are modified muscle
fibres which exhibit autoexcitability. Nodal tissue
include SA node, AV node, Bundle of His and
Purkinje fibres.
172. Answer (4)
Hint : Lymph flows through separate lymphatic
capillaries and lymphatic vessels.
Sol. : Lymphatic vessels have valves to prevent
backflow of lymph. Left and right subclavian veins
drain lymph into superior vena cava. Thoracic duct
collects lymph from most of part of gastrointestinal
tract.
Test - 3 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
173. Answer (3) 178. Answer (3)
Hint : Portal system involving kidneys.
Sol. : Hepatic & hypophyseal portal system are well
developed in humans.
174. Answer (2)
Hint : Renin is a part of RAAS pathway.
Sol. : In response to fall in blood pressure/GFR/
glomerular blood flow, renin is released by JGA to
initiate RAAS pathway which will eventually restore
the normal level. 179. Answer (2)
175. Answer (1)
Hint : Involuntary muscles are present in tunica
media.
Sol. : Smooth muscles are present in tunica media
in both type of blood vessels.
176. Answer (4) 180. Answer (4)
Hint : Both atria contract simultaneously during atrial
systole.
Sol. : All four chambers of heart do not contract
simultaneously. Increase in ventricular pressure
causes closure of AV valves. Major filling i.e., (2/3rd)
of ventricles occurs during joint diastole.
177. Answer (3)
Hint : Blood group mismatch leads to clumping of
RBC.
–
Sol. : O blood group is universal donor as it lacks
A, B and D antigens on the surface of RBC, but it
has both anti-A, anti-B and anti-D antibodies in
plasma. That’s why a person having O blood group
can accept blood from another person having O blood
group only.
‰ ‰ ‰
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Hint : Pacemaker maintains rhythmic contractility of
heart.
Sol. : Artificial pacemaker is required when there is
a damage to nodal tissue of heart like in case of
heart attack. This device sends out small electrical
current to stimulate heart to contract thus
maintaining rhythm of cardiac activity.
Hint : SA node generates cardiac impulses.
Sol. : From SA node impulse travels to AV node.
From AV node, Bundle of His carries impulse to
bundle branches and Purkinje fibres spread impulse
to entire ventricular musculature.
Hint : JGA secretes renin in response to fall in GFR.
Sol. : Angiotensinogen is produced by liver and
released into blood stream.
Renin
Angiotensinogen Angiotensin-I
ACE (Angiotensin
converting enzyme)
Angiotensin-II
Vasoconstriction Increase in heart rate Adrenal cortex
Aldosterone
(Mineralocorticoid)
Increase in blood pressure
ACE is produced by lung capillaries.
19/19
Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

TEST - 3 (Code-D)
Test Date : 02/12/2018

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (3) 73. (2) 109. (4) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (1) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146. (4)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (2) 147. (1)
4. (4) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (3) 79. (3) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (3)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (3) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (1)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (1)
21. (3) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (4) 133. (4) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (3) 134. (4) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (2) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (4) 141. (1) 177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (2) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (1)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 3. Answer (1)
  Hint: Concept of motion of C.O.M.
 m1a1  m2a2
Hint: acm  Sol.: In explosion centre of mass will move in original
m1  m2
path.
Sol.: Hence displacement = R
a1
u 2 sin 2 102
R =   sin(2  30)
4 kg g 10

3
= 10sin60  10 
4 kg a2 2
In this case R = 5 3m
 mg g
| a |=  Hence Displacement = 5 3 m
2m 2
4. Answer (4)
10
i.e. a  5 m/s2 m1x1 – m2 x2 m y – m2 y 2
2 Hint: xcm = and y cm  1 1
m1 – m2 m1 – m2

Now, a1  aiˆ  5iˆ
Sol.:
 y
a2 = – ajˆ  – 5 ˆj

 4(5)iˆ  4(–5 jˆ) 5iˆ – 5 jˆ

acm  
44 2
y 3R/5
x
m
acm  (2  5iˆ – 2  5 ˆj ) R (0, 0)
s2

2. Answer (1)
Hint: W1 = 90 N
  W = 65 N
 m r  m2 r2
rcm  1 1
m1  m2 W2 = W1 – W = 25 N
Sol.: m1gy1 – m2 gy 2 W 1y1 – W2 y 2
Now, ycm = 
r1  iˆ  2 jˆ  kˆ , m1 = 2 kg (m1 – m2 ) g W1 – W2

r2  3iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ , m2 = 5 kg  3R 
90(0) – 25   
 5   – 15R  –3R
 2(iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ )  5(3iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ ) =
65 65 13
Hence rcm =
7
17iˆ  14 ˆj – 3kˆ 3R
= ycm = –
7 13

  17 3  –3R 
rcm   iˆ  2 jˆ – kˆ  m Hence,  xcm, y cm    0,
 7 7   13 

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Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
5. Answer (3)
1
 m  (4gR )  mgh
Actual power delivered 2
Hint: Efficiency =
Rated power  2R = h
Sol.:
 h  2R
mgh 373  10  16 4
PDelivered =   4  373 W 9. Answer (2)
t 40
PDelivered = 2hp. Hint: P  2mK
Sol.: Ki = K
80
PDelivered =  Pengine Kf = K0 + 8K0 = 9K0
100
Pi  2mK 0
10 20
Prated =  2hp   2.5hp
8 8 Pf  2mK f  2m  9K 0  3P0

PRated  2.5 hp P 3P – P0
 100  0  100  200%
P P0
6. Answer (1)
10. Answer (2)
Hint: Stopping distance × retarding force
Hint: Conservation of linear momentum
= Loss of kinetic energy.
Px = 0 and Py = 0.
Sol.: As  is same,
Sol.:
Given, K = ( mg)x1 = (2mg)x2
Then,  x1 = 2x2
u
7. Answer (4) Rest 3
u
mv 2 m1 m2  m1 m2
Hint: mg cos – N = 
R
v
Sol.:
Px = 0  m1u – m2 v cos  = 0
mv 2 v gR m1u = m2v cos ...(i)
R mv 2
N R u
N Py = 0,  0 = m1 – m2  v sin 
mg 3



cos

m1u
 m2 v sin 
mg

...(ii)
3
Now, UTop = gR Dividing equation (i) by (ii)
Hence at top 1
2
tan  =
mv 3
mg = N +
R
m  gR  1
mg = N  N 0   tan–1  
R 3
11. Answer (2)
N  0 at Top i.e.   0
8. Answer (2) Hint: hn  e 2 n h0

Hint: VLowest Point = 2 gR for a tube. Sol.: We know that

Sol.: For a tube hn = e 2n  h0
h10 = e 2 ×10  h0
ulowers point = 4gR
Hence by M.E. conservation. h10  e 20 h0

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
12. Answer (1) Sol.:
Hint: Elastic head-on collision between two equal
1
masses. Given k  (1)2  U ...(i)
2
Sol.: If m1 = m2 = m3 = m4 and v4 = u.
k = 2k
Then, for 4th and 3rd ball collision.
kP = 2k + 2k = 4k
v3 = u, v4 = 0
for 3 and 2nd ball collision.
rd 1
Now, U =  (4k )  (4)  U  16
v3 = 0 and v2 = u 2
for 2 and 1st ball collision.
nd
U   16U
v2 = 0 and v1 = u
16. Answer (2)
Hence 1st ball will move with speed u and other will
remain at rest. Hint: Work energy theorem.
13. Answer (1) Sol.: By work energy theorem
Hint: W = KE 1
mv 2  mgh  Loss of mechanical energy
2
F
Sol.: m = 2 kg, F = 4t, a   2t 1
m  2  202  20  10  17  Loss of mechanical
v 2 2 2 energy
 adt   adt   2t dt  t
2

0 0 0 400 – 340 = Loss of mechanical energy

At t = 2 s, v = 4 ms–1
Loss of mechanical energy  60 J
1 1
w m(v f2 – v i2 )   2  (16 – 0)  16 J 17. Answer (4)
2 2
14. Answer (1) Hint: Conservation of momentum and projectile
motion.
 
AB Sol.:
Hint: cos  
AB v
Sol.: Displacement vector 400 m/s
 3.95 kg 
S  (3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ ) m
 0.05 kg 4 kg
Force F  (5iˆ  4 jˆ – 3kˆ ) N 4V = 400 × .05 + 3.95 × 0
 V = 5 m/s.
|S | 5 2 m

|F |5 2 N As horizontal range, R  v 2h
g
 
F  S  15  16 – 15  16 J
2  20
Hence, 5  10 m
10
 
F S 16 16 8
cos       
| F || S | 5 2 5 2 25  2 25 18. Answer (2)
Hint: Momentum conservation.
 8 
  cos–1   Sol.:
 25  v
15. Answer (3)
1 2 4 m/s
Hint: P.E. energy of spring is = kx m 4 m/s  m + 2m
2
1 2m
k and kP  k1  k 2
L

4/19
Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Since Fext = 0
 at   at 
Hence, by conservation of linear momentum.  sin(at )sin    cos(at )  cos    0
 3 3
 m(4iˆ)  2m(4 jˆ)  3m  v
 at 
cos  at –   0
4 8   3
v   iˆ  jˆ  m/s
3 3  at
at – = /2
3
19. Answer (1)
  2at 
Hint: P  F  v 
3 2
1
–
Sol.: F  y 5 3
t
4a
1
–
ay 5
22. Answer (2)
1 Hint:
dv –
v  k y 5 Work – Energy theorem
dy
1
– Sol.:
vdv = k y 5
 dy
m
v2 y 4/5
k

10 m
2 4
5
m
5k 4/5
v2 = y m = 4 kg
2
v  y 2/5 W = 500 J
  –
1
h = 10 m
P = F  v  P  y 5  v 2/5
Now, W = mgh + Wwork done against friction.
1 500 = 400 + Wwork done against friction.
Py 5
Wwork done against friction = 500 – 400
20. Answer (3)
Wwork done against friction  100 J
Hint: Area under the F– x curve.
Sol.: W = area under F – x curve. 23. Answer (1)
1 Hint: Work – Energy theorem
W = (200  100)  (100  2) – 100
2 8 m/s
Sol.: K = 100 N/m
300
=  200 – 100
2 2 kg
W = 250 J Smooth  = 0.7
W  250 J x 1m
21. Answer (3)
  1 1
Hint: F  S  0 mv 2  kx 2   mg  1 ...(i)
 2 2
Sol.: F = sin(at )iˆ  cos(at ) ˆj
1 1
  2  64   100  x 2  0.7  2  10  1
 at   at  2 2
S = sin   iˆ  cos   ˆj
3 3 64 – 14 = 50x 2
 
If F and S are perpendicular then 50 = 50x 2
 
F S  0 x  1m

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
24. Answer (2) 28. Answer (2)
  Hint:
Hint: W = F  d for constant force.
   Calculate frictional force and apply Newton’s 2nd Law.
Sol.: d  r2 – r2  (5iˆ – 3 ˆj ) m Sol.:
 N1
F  (10iˆ – 2 jˆ) N
  m1 fr1
W  F  d  (10iˆ – 2 jˆ)  (5iˆ – 3 jˆ)  50  6 a 5
 0.7
N2 T sin 
W  56 J g cos
m 1 g
m2 fr2 m1
25. Answer (2) 
sin
Hint: W = Pt when P is constant g 5 s
m 2
0.2 o
Sol.: P = constant gc
37° m2
v2 2Pt
P t = m  v  N1 = m1 g cos
2 m
3 4
fr1 = 1m1 g cos  =  4  10   24 N
2  20  t 4 5
v 2 t
10 1 4
fr2   2m2 g cos37   2  10   4 N
P 20 10 4 5
F  
v 2 t t Now, m2 g sin  + m1 g sin  – fr1 – fr1 = (m1 + m2)a
26. Answer (1)
12 + 24 – 24 – 4 = 6a
Sol.: Linear momentum is always conserved
because Fext. = 0. 8 4
a=  m/s2
Total energy also remains always conserved in all 6 3
cases. But kinetic energy will not be conserved Now, 12 – T – fr1 = 2 a.
during collision.
27. Answer (2) 4 8
12 – 4 – T = 2  T  8 –
Hint: 3 3

dU 16
For equilibrium, 0 T N
dr 3
Sol.: 29. Answer (1)
Hint: For conical pendulum.
dU
For equilibrium, 0 T cos  = mg
dr
Sol.: l = 1.3 m
a 2b
U= 3 – 2 r = 0.5 m
r r

dU 3a 2b
– 4  3 0
dr r r 
0m


1.3

 3a  1
 – r  2b  r 3  0
l=

  T

3a T cos
r0 –  2b  0
r 50 cm
m = 200 g
T sin
3a
r
2b mg

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Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
30 – T = 5a
0.5 5
Now sin =  T – 20 – 3.4 = 4a
1.3 13
6.6 = 9a
12
Hence, cos  = . 6.6 2.2 11
13 a=  = ms –2
9 3 15
Now, T cos  = mg
32. Answer (1)
mg 0.2  10 2 13 Hint: Use the concept of variable acceleration to find
T=   13   N
cos   12  12 6 the final velocity.
 13 
  Sol.:

13
T  N
6
1
30. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Lami’s theorem for equilibrium. 0.5
 = 180 – (30 + )
Sol.: From F.B.D of block 1 2 t (s)
T = 40 g ...(i) For time (t = 0 to t = 1 s), retardation
a = g = 10 ms–2
T1 T2
 Speed at t = 1 s
 30°
v1 = 20 – 10 × 1 = 10 m/s
A
For 1  t  2 s
T
1  0.5
av =  0.75
From F.B.D. of pulley. T 2
T = 2T  = 80 g ...(ii) Speed at t = 2 s
From F.B.D. of point A v2 = 10 – 0.75 × 1 = 2.5 m/s
33. Answer (2)
T1 T T2
  T T   
sin(120) sin  sin(90  )  m v  m2v 2  m3v 3
T Hint: v cm  1 1
m1  m2  m3
80 g sin(120)
T1 = 
sin(180 – (30  )) Sol.: v cm  0
40 3g   
T1 = m1v1  m2v 2  m3v 3
sin(  30) 0
40 g m1  m2  m3
T1 = minimum  sin( + 30)   
m1v1  m2v 2  m3v 3  0
 max  1 
3v 3  –4iˆ  2 jˆ – kˆ
 = 90 – 30 = 60°   60
  –4iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ 
v 3    m/s
31. Answer (1)
 3 
Hint: Fnet = ma 34. Answer (3)
Sol.: N1 N2 Hint:
T
T
5
kg 4k
g
P =  F  dt  Area under F -t curve.
Sol.:
30 fr 20
37° 40 20 3 p = Area under force - time curve
30°
fr = N2 = .1 × 20 × 1.7 = 3.4 N p = 20 + 5 – 5 – 5 – 2.5
Now, Fnet = ma. p  12.5 kN  s

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
35. Answer (3) 40. Answer (2)
Hint: F = ma Hint: Use friction and pseudo force.

Sol.: F  (6iˆ  8 jˆ – 10kˆ ) N Sol.: N = ma ...(i)

 | F |  36  64  100  10 2 N. fs 

| a |  5 ms–2
m=? N ma

| F | 10 2
m  
|a| 5 W

fs max =  N
m  2 2 kg
fs max =  ma ...(ii)
36. Answer (4)
for vertical equilibrium W  fs max
Hint: fm = s N
Sol.: Limiting frictional force on block depends on mg  ma.
nature of surfaces in contact and normal reaction.
g
37. Answer (3) a

 mg
Hint: Fmin  41. Answer (2)
1  2
Hint: Tmax = m(g + amax)
 mg Sol.: Tmax = 70 × 9.8 N
Sol.: Fmin 
1  2
Now, Tmax = 50(g + amax)
70 × 9.8 = 50 × 9.8 + 50amax
12  10 3
Fmin  
2 4 20  9.8
3  amax =  3.92 ms– 2
1   50
4
42. Answer (2)
Fmin = 72 N
Hint: Fnet = ma
38. Answer (1)
Sol.: Let upward force be F.
Hint: mg sin   F  fm
F – mg = ma ...(i)
1.7
Sol.: fm  mg cos   0.2  100   17 N . F
2
a
Driving force along plane is m
FDrive = 50 – 10 = 40 N, downward
So, Friction will act upward. mg
Now by Newton’s 2nd Law.
40 – 17 = 10a F = m (g + a) = 2(10 + 4)= 28 N = 2.8 kgf.

a  2.3 m/s2 downward to plane. 43. Answer (3)

Hint: Use, constraint relation to find relation in
39. Answer (1)
acceleration of blocks. N
Hint: v opt  Rg tan 
Sol.: From constraint relation. a
4 a = 2a1 ...(i) T m
Sol.: vopt = Rg tan   120  10 
3 Now from F.B.D. of pulley
vopt = 40  10  4 = 40 m/s T1 = 2T ...(ii) mg

8/19
Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
From F.B.D. of blocks. 45. Answer (3)
T = m a ...(iii) Hint: Change in momentum normal to wall.
T1
Mg – 2T = Ma1 ...(iv)
Sol.:
M a1
a m
Mg – 2ma = M  v cos30°
2
Mg
M 
Mg = a   M  v sin 30°
2  T T 30°
 3M  30°
Mg = a   m
 2 
v cos30°
T1
2g
a
3
v sin 30°
44. Answer (2) Px = – mv cos30° – mv cos 30°

 dPcm
Hint: Fext  3
dt = –2 mv cos30° = – 2mv
 2
 dPcm
Sol.: Fext 
dt |Px| = mv 3
 
Fext  0
 |Py | = 0
or Pcm = constant

 Px    P4   ( mv 3 )2
2 2
MVcm = constant P =

Vcm = constant OP  3 mv

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 49. Answer (2)

Hint: CCl4 is a non-polar molecule. Hint: Q = mLfus + msT

Sol.: In non-polar molecules (CCl4), only London Sol.:

Forces are present. Q = 75 × 1000 × 80 + 75 × 1000 × 1 × 10 cal
47. Answer (2) = 6750000 cal
–
Hint: Hydration energy of F is high. = 6.75 × 103 kcal
Sol.: During neutralization of HF with NaOH, extra 50. Answer (3)
energy is released due to extensive hydration of
– Hint: w = – Pex V
F .
Sol.:
48. Answer (4)
w = – Pex V = –1.0 atm (150 × 15) cm3
Hint: Intensive property does not depend on the
quantity of matter. = –1.0 atm × 2250 cm3

= –1.0 × 2.25 L-atm

 Force 
Sol.: Pressure =   is an intensive property.
 Area  = –2.25 L-atm

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)

51. Answer (2) 57. Answer (3)

Vf Hint: For 1 mole of gas, van der waals equation is

Hint: wrev = –2.303 nRTlog
Vi
 a   a 
H = nCpT  P  V 2  (V – b)  RT and at high pressure  2   0
  V 
Sol.:
wrev = –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 log4  a 
Sol.:  P  2  (V – b)  RT
wrev = –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 × 2 log2  V 
= –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 × 2 × 0.301
 a 
= –17289.87 J = –17.3 kJ for  2 0
V 
H = nCpT
H = 0 ∵ T = 0 P(V – b) = RT
52. Answer (2) PV Pb
Hint: Standard enthalpy of formation is defined for – 1
RT RT
formation of one mole of a product from its
constituent elements in their most stable states of PV  Pb 
 Z  1 
RT 
aggregation.
RT 
Sol.: For reaction H2(g) + Br2(l)  2HBr(g), enthalpy
change is not standard enthalpy of formation. Here 58. Answer (2)
two moles instead of one mole of the product is Hint: For spontaneous reaction,
formed.
53. Answer (4) G = H – TS < 0
Hint: H = U + (PV) Sol.: at all temperature G < 0,
Sol.: if H < 0 and S > 0
H = U + (P2V2 – P1V1) 59. Answer (4)
P1 = 3 atm, V1 = 4 L
Hint: PV = nRT
P2 = 5 atm, V2 = 6 L
Sol.: PHe V = nHeRT
H = 45 + (6 × 5 – 3 × 4) = 63 L-atm
54. Answer (2) 4
2.5  V   0.082  375
Hint: H = U + ng RT 4
Sol.: V = 12.3 L
H – U = ngRT = (6 – 9) × 8.314 × 300 J
60. Answer (4)
= –7.48 kJ
55. Answer (4) Hint: Boyle’s law, PV = constant
Hint: At any temperature, different particles in the Sol.:
gas have different speeds.
Sol.: Due to different speeds, the gas particles have
different kinetic energy at same temperature. PV
56. Answer (3)
2RT
Hint: umps  and for ideal gas PV = nRT
M
V
PM RT P
Sol.: d    61. Answer (2)
RT M d
Hint: Higher the molecular attraction, higher is the
2RT 2P boiling point.
umps = 
M d Sol.: HF molecules are associated with
1 intermolecular hydrogen bonding hence its boiling
umps 
d point is highest.

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Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
62. Answer (1) 69. Answer (4)
Hint: Heat of neutralization for strong acid and strong PC VC
base is 13.7 kcal/eq. Hint: ZC =
RTC
Sol.: meq of H2SO4 = 200 × 0.2 = 40
meq of NaOH = 200 × 0.15 = 30 a 8a
Sol.: PC = 2
, VC = 3b, TC 
Heat evolve = 13.7 × 30 × 10–3 × 103 cal 27b 27Rb
= 411 cal a  3b  27Rb 3
 ZC = 
63. Answer (3) 27b2  R  8a 8
Hint: Surface tension is force acting per unit length. 70. Answer (2)
Sol.: Unit of surface tension is N m–1. Hint: PV = nRT
64. Answer (3)
T
Hint: Entropy decreases when disorder decreases. or V 
p
Sol.: During condensation of vapour, vapour is
Sol.:
converted into liquid/solid. More disordered vapour is
converted into more ordered liquid/solid. T1 = 273 + 17 = 290 K
T2 = 273 + 27 = 300 K
65. Answer (4)
Hint: G = Hvap – TSvap 290
V1 
At equilibrium, G = 0 1.8
Sol.: G = H – TS 300
V2 
At equilibrium, G = 0, so H = TS 1
H 60240 V2 300  1.8
T   400 K or = = 1.86
S 150.6 V1 290
66. Answer (3)
71. Answer (2)
Hint: dw = – PdV
Sol.: dw = – PdV pCO2 nCO2
Hint: for a gaseous mixture, 
pN2 nN2
dw = – d(PV) (∵ Pressure is constant)
dw = –d(nRT) (For ideal gas)
220
w = –nRT Sol.: Mole of CO2 = =5
44
w = –1 × R × 1 = – R
280
Hence, work done by the gas is ‘R’ Mole of N2 = = 10
28
67. Answer (4)
pCO2 nCO2
Hint: Naturally occurring most stable form of an Now, 
element has zero standard enthalpy of formation. pN2 nN2
Sol.: In standard state chlorine exist as Cl2(g) pCO2 5
68. Answer (1) 
1.5 10
P  pCO2 = 0.75 atm
Hint: Rate of effusion (r) 
M 72. Answer (4)
Hint:  rH   f Hproduct –  f Hreactant
1.5 4.5
Sol.: rO2  and rHe  Sol.: C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
32 4
 rH   f Hproduct –  f Hreactant
rO2 1.5 2
=  = 1: 6 2
rHe 32 4.5 rH = {3  (– 394)  4(–286) – (–104)}

11/19
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
rH = {–1182 – 1144 + 104} = –2222 kJ/mole 3RT
rms speed 
66 M
Mole of C3H8 = = 1.5
44 Sol.:
rH for 1.5 mole = –2222 × 1.5 = –3333 kJ
8RT 2RT 3RT
73. Answer (2) Average : mps : rms  : :
speed speed M M M
V2
Hint: S = nRln
V1 8
= : 2: 3
Sol.: 
79. Answer (3)
V2 40
S = 5 × 2 × 2.303 log = 5 × 2 × 2.303 log Hint: K.E. per atom
V1 5
= 5 × 2 × 2.303 log 8 = 5 × 2 × 2.303 × 3 log 2  Energy absorbed Bond energy 
 – 
= 5 × 2 × 2.303 × 3 × 0.301 = 20.8 cal K–1  per molecule per molecule 

74. Answer (1) 2
Hint: U = q + w; Sol.:
Sol.: w = –PV = 0 180.6  103 J
Bond energy/Molecule = = 3  10 –19 J
 q + w = U  q = U = 750 J 6.02  1023
75. Answer (1)
Hint: H = U + ng RT 3.5  10 –19 – 3  10 –19
K.E. per atom = J
Sol.: For the reaction 2
H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g) = 2.5 × 10 –20 J
ng = 2 – 2 = 0 80. Answer (2)
 H = U
76. Answer (2) 3
Hint: Avg. Kinetic energy (E) = n  RT
Hint: q and w are path functions. 2
Sol.: U + PV = H (State function) 14 3
Sol.: EN2 =  R  300
S(Entropy) (State function) 28 2
H – TS = G(State function)
24 3
77. Answer (2) E O2 =  R  500
32 2
Hint: H = B.E(reactant) – B.E(product)

1 1 EN2 14 32 300 2
Sol.: H2  I2  HI =   =
2 2 EO2 28 24 500 5
81. Answer (3)
1 1
H = B.E.(H2 )  B.E.(I2 ) – B.E.(HI) Hint: (V – nb), Volume available for the movement of
2 2
gas molecules.
1
or BE(HI) =
2
 
B.E.(H2 )  B.E.(I2 ) – H
Sol.: ‘nb’ is the volume occupied by n mole of the
gas molecules.
82. Answer (4)
1
=  435  150  – 26.5 = 266 kJ/mole
2 3RT
Hint: urms =
78. Answer (2) M

8RT 1
Hint: Average speed  Sol.: urms 
M M
2RT Lower is the molar mass, higher is the root mean
Most probable speed 
M square speed.

12/19
Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
83. Answer (4) 87. Answer (1)

q 8RT
Hint: S = Hint: Average speed (u) =
M
T
Sol.: T = 127 + 273 = 400 K uHe MSO2 64
Sol.: u = =  4 :1
SO2 M He 4
4800 Jmol–1
S = = 12 JK–1 mol –1 88. Answer (3)
400 K Hint: Higher the polarity of the molecule, higher is
84. Answer (1) the attractive force.
Sol.: NH 3 is polar molecule hence it will be
Hint: Process is adiabatic so q = 0.
associated by attractive force and will be liquefied
Sol.: easily.
w = –1.5(4.2 – 1.2) L-atm = – 4.5 L-atm 89. Answer (3)
= – 4.5 × 101.3 J = – 455.85 J 1
Hint: r  and
U = q + w M
∵ q = 0, so U = w = –455.85 J Volume of gas effused (V)
Rate of effusion (r) = Time taken (t)
85. Answer (3)
Hint: For a reaction to be spontaneous 1 V1 /t1 M2
Sol.: r  , so =
G = H – TS = – ve M V2 /t 2 M1
Sol.: For G to be – ve, TS > H Since V1 = V2, so

 H 7100  t2 M2
T   284 K = 11 °C  =
 S 25  t1 M1
86. Answer (3) 2t1 M2
=  M2 = 64 g/mol
1 t1 16
Hint: CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)  283.5 kJ / mol
2 90. Answer (2)
55g 5 PM
Sol.: Mole of CO2 formed = = mole Hint: d =
44 g / mole 4 RT
5 4  32
Heat released = × (283.5) = 354.4 kJ Sol.: d = = 3.9 g/L
4 0.082  400

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4)
Hint: Lateral meristem is responsible for secondary
growth.
Sol.: In monocots, secondary growth is absent.
Thus lateral meristem is also absent.
92. Answer (4)
Hint: In dicot stem, cork cambium develops from cell
of cortex region.
Sol.: Cork cambium is also called phellogen,its
origin is outside of the stele i.e. extrastelar.
In dicot root, it develops from pericycle cells.
93. Answer (4)
Hint: In a compound leaf, incision reaches upto
midrib.
Sol.: Lamina is broken into leaflets and midrib forms
a common axis called rachis, but bud is present in
the axil of petiole of compound leaves.
94. Answer (3)
Hint: In some seeds nucellus is not fully consumed
during development of embryo.
Sol.: Such persistent nucellus is called perisperm
and such seeds are known as perispermic seeds.
95. Answer (1)
Hint: In caryopsis fruits, pericarp is completely fused
with seed coat.
Sol.: Caryopsis fruits are found in members of
Poaceae like wheat (Triticum aestivum), maize, rice
etc.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
96. Answer (3)
Hint: In monocot stem, vascular bundles are
scattered in whole ground tissue.
Sol.: In monocot stem, endodermis is absent but it
is well developed in roots.
97. Answer (4)
Hint: Lateral roots develope from pericycle.
Sol.: Lateral roots are present in both dicot &
monocot roots.
98. Answer (3)
Hint: Pericycle is absent in monocot stem.
Sol.: Pericycle may be single layered or
multilayered.
99. Answer (4)
Hint: In hypogynous flower, ovary is superior.
Sol.: In soyabean (Fabaceae), brinjal, chilli
(Solanaceae) and tulip (Liliaceae) ovary is superior.
100. Answer (3)
Hint: Flower is a modified shoot which may have
floral appendages in multiple of three, four or five.
Sol.: Trimerous flowers are found in Liliaceae family
in which floral appendages are in multiples of three.
101. Answer (2)
Hint: Tap roots directly arise from radicle.
Sol.: Adventitious roots arise from plant parts other
than radicle.
102. Answer (4)
Hint: Axillary buds modify into tendrils in cucurbits.
Sol.: In cucurbits, stem modifies to provide support
to the plant.
103. Answer (3)
Hint: Heartwood is called duramen and sapwood is
called alburnum.
Sol.: Heartwood is hard, durable and resistant to
attack of microorganisms.
104. Answer (2)
Hint: Lenticels occur in most woody trees and
permit the exchange of gasses and water.
Sol.:
- Annual rings are distinct in plants growing in
temperate regions because climatic conditions
are not uniform over there.
- Stelar secondary growth is performed by vascular
cambium as a result central cylinder of wood is
formed which remains surrounded by secondary
phloem.
14/19
Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
- Pericycle cells opposite to protoxylem, become
meristematic and give rise to vascular cambium
in dicot roots.
105. Answer (4)
Hint: With the passage of time, rings of the sap
wood are changed into heart wood.
Sol.: As a result of secondary growth amount of
heart wood increases and amount of sap wood
almost remains constant.
106. Answer (2)
Hint: Cassia flower can be divided into two equal
halves only by one plane.
Sol.: It is known as bilateral symmetry (Zygomorphic
flower)
107. Answer (3)
Hint: In cymose inflorescence, the main axis
terminates into a flower.
Sol.: I n Tr i t i c u m ( W h e a t ) i n f l o r e s c e n c e i s
spikelet type (racemose).
108. Answer (2)
Sol.: Some pepo fruits are bitter in taste due to
tetracyclic triterpenes.
109. Answer (4)
Hint: Replum is thin membranous structure, which is
formed in siliqua type of fruit.
Sol.: Replum is a pseudoseptum and it is a feature
of family Brassicaceae.
110. Answer (2)
Hint: In hypogynous flower, ovary is superior.
Sol.:
Gn – Superior ovary
Gn – Inferior ovary (Epigynous flower)
111. Answer (2)
Hint: Relative positions of primary xylem
(Protoxylem & metaxylem) decides the endarch or
exarch conditions.
Sol.: In endarch arrangement, protoxylem occurs
towards centre and metaxylem towards periphery.
112. Answer (3)
Hint: Root hairs are epidermal appendages.
Sol.: Root hairs are unicellular elongations of the
epidermal cells i.e. they are exogenous in origin.
113. Answer (4)
Hint: Guard cells are generally bean-shaped except
grasses.
Sol.: In grasses, the guard cells are dumb-bell
shaped.
Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
114. Answer (2)
Hint: In Fabaceae, stamens show diadelphous
condition.
Sol.: Floral formula of family Fabaceae is
% K(5)C1 + 2 + (2)A(9) + 1G1
115. Answer (1)
Sol.: Rice, coconut and wheat are endospermic
seeds but seeds of orchids are non-endospermic.
116. Answer (2)
Hint: Coleoptile and coleorhiza are sheaths that
enclose plumule and radicle respectively.
Sol.: Proteinaceous layer of endosperm that
separates embryo is called aleurone layer.
117. Answer (3)
Hint: Companion cell controls the function of sieve
tube.
Sol.: Companion cells retain nucleus throughout
their life and control functions of anucleated sieve
tubes.
118. Answer (1)
Hint: In exarch type of primary xylem, protoxylem
lies towards the periphery and metaxylem lies
towards the centre.
Sol.: Exarch arrangement of primary xylem is a
feature of roots.
119. Answer (2)
Hint: Collenchyma is an elastic, living mechanical
tissue.
Sol.: Collenchyma cells have thickening of cellulose,
hemicellulose and pectin at their corners.
120. Answer (3)
Hint: This is a monocot family.
Sol.: In family Liliaceae, gynoecium is tricarpellary,
syncarpous, superior, trilocular and with axile
placentation. It is commonly called lily family.
121. Answer (1)
Hint: A sterile stamen is called staminode.
Sol.:
- Obliquely placed ovary and swollen placenta are
the features of family Solanaceae.
- Versatile fixation of anthers is feature of family
Poaceae
- Female flowers are known as pistillate flowers.
122. Answer (2)
Hint: In litchi, seed is covered by an outgrowth of
funicle.
Sol.: This white, translucent, fleshy edible covering
of seed is called aril.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
123. Answer (4)
Hint: In tetradynamous condition there are
4 larger in inner ring
6 stamens 2 smaller in outer ring
Sol.: Tetradynamous condition is a feature of family
Brassicaceae. In pea, stamens exhibit diadelphous
condition.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: Coconut is a drupe type of fruit.
Sol.: Drupe type of fruits are mostly one seeded,
develop from monocarpellary superior ovary and have
hard, stony endocarp.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: Hypodermis is absent in roots.
Sol.:
- All tissues outside the vascular cambium
constitute bark
- In leaves, ground tissue is not well differentiated
& is known as mesophyll
- Casparian strips are formed by deposition of a
waxy material suberin on the radial and
tangential walls of endodermal cells.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: The endodermal cells of dicot stem store some
carbohydrate grains.
Sol.: These cells store starch grains and hence
endodermis is known as starch sheath.
127. Answer (3)
Hint: These roots are adventitious roots.
Sol.: Stilt roots arise from the lower nodes of stem
to support the main axis.
128. Answer (3)
Hint: This aestivation is found in corolla of family
Fabaceae.
Sol.: In family Fabaceae corolla is papilionaceous,
in which smallest anterior petals are referred as keel.
129. Answer (1)
Hint: Pulvinate leaf is found in some leguminous
plants.
Sol.: Leaf having swollen base is called pulvinate
leaf.
130. Answer (3)
Hint: Rhizome is a modified underground stem which
grows horizontal to the soil surface.
Sol.: Potato is a tuber i.e. modified underground
stem branch which get swollen on account of
accumulation of food.
15/19
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)

131. Answer (2) 137. Answer (2)

Hint: In racemose inflorescence, younger flowers are Hint : SA node generates cardiac impulses.
present towards the apex whereas in cymose
Sol. : From SA node impulse travels to AV node.
inflorescence, younger flowers are present towards
base. From AV node, Bundle of His carries impulse to
bundle branches and Purkinje fibres spread impulse
Sol.:
to entire ventricular musculature.
Cymose inflorescence – Basipetal succession of
flowers 138. Answer (3)
Racemose inflorescence – Acropetal succession of Hint : Pacemaker maintains rhythmic contractility of
flowers heart.
Radial symmetry – Actinomorphic flower
Sol. : Artificial pacemaker is required when there is
Symmetry by one – Zygomorphic flower a damage to nodal tissue of heart like in case of
plane only heart attack. This device sends out small electrical
132. Answer (3) current to stimulate heart to contract thus
Hint: Mesophyll tissue is not differentiated into maintaining rhythm of cardiac activity.
palisade and spongy parenchyma in monocot leaves. 139. Answer (3)
Sol.: Monocot leaves are isobilateral. These have Hint : Blood group mismatch leads to clumping of
stomata on both surfaces and below the stoma of RBC.
abaxial epidermis sub-stomatal cavities are present. –
Sol. : O blood group is universal donor as it lacks
133. Answer (4) A, B and D antigens on the surface of RBC, but it
Hint: Lateral meristem is responsible for secondary has both anti-A, anti-B and anti-D antibodies in
growth. plasma. That’s why a person having O blood group
Sol.: Lateral meristem includes intrafascicular can accept blood from another person having O blood
cambium (primary), interfascicular cambium and cork group only.
cambium (secondary). 140. Answer (4)
134. Answer (4)
Hint : Both atria contract simultaneously during atrial
Hint: This condition is seen in potato family. systole.
Sol.: In the floral formula of family Solanaceae, Sol. : All four chambers of heart do not contract
C(5)A5 represents epipetalous condition. simultaneously. Increase in ventricular pressure
causes closure of AV valves. Major filling i.e., (2/3rd)
135. Answer (1) of ventricles occurs during joint diastole.
Hint: This plant is used as fodder.
141. Answer (1)
Sol.: Sesbania is used as fodder and it belongs to
family Fabaceae. Hint : Involuntary muscles are present in tunica
media.
136. Answer (4)
Sol. : Smooth muscles are present in tunica media
Hint : JGA secretes renin in response to fall in GFR. in both type of blood vessels.
Sol. : Angiotensinogen is produced by liver and 142. Answer (2)
released into blood stream.
Renin
Hint : Renin is a part of RAAS pathway.
Angiotensinogen Angiotensin-I
ACE (Angiotensin
Sol. : In response to fall in blood pressure/GFR/
converting enzyme) glomerular blood flow, renin is released by JGA to
Angiotensin-II
initiate RAAS pathway which will eventually restore
the normal level.
Vasoconstriction Increase in heart rate Adrenal cortex 143. Answer (3)
Aldosterone Hint : Portal system involving kidneys.
(Mineralocorticoid)
Increase in blood pressure Sol. : Hepatic & hypophyseal portal system are well
ACE is produced by lung capillaries. developed in humans.

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Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
144. Answer (4)
Hint : Lymph flows through separate lymphatic
capillaries and lymphatic vessels.
Sol. : Lymphatic vessels have valves to prevent
backflow of lymph. Left and right subclavian veins
drain lymph into superior vena cava. Thoracic duct
collects lymph from most of part of gastrointestinal
tract.
145. Answer (3)
Hint : Bundle of His is a part of nodal tissue of heart.
Sol. : Nodal tissue of heart are modified muscle
fibres which exhibit autoexcitability. Nodal tissue
include SA node, AV node, Bundle of His and
Purkinje fibres.
146. Answer (4)
Hint : Malpighian body of Juxtamedullary nephrons
are located close to medulla of kidney.
Sol. : Cortical nephrons are more abundant as
compared to juxtamedullary nephrons.
Juxtamedullary nephrons have longer loop of Henle
and well developed vasa recta as compared to
cortical nephron. Peritubular capillaries are present
around tubules of nephrons in both Cortical and
Juxtamedullary nephron.
147. Answer (1)
Hint : Urea cycle occurs is liver.
Sol. : Formation of urea occurs in liver and hepatic
vein carrying blood from liver has maximum quantity
of urea while renal vein carrying blood from kidney
after filtration has least amount of urea.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : In normal ECG, T-waves are positive wave
produced during ventricular repolarisation.
Sol. : End of T-wave represents end of ventricular
systole and initiation of joint diastole or diastasis.
149. Answer (3)
Hint : First heart sound is ‘Lubb’ and second heart
sound is ‘dub’.
Sol. : First heart sound is produced by closure of
A-V valves at the beginning of ventricular systole,
while second heart second ‘dub’ is produced by
closure of semilunar valves at the beginning of
ventricular diastole.
150. Answer (2)
Hint : Counter current mechanism helps in producing
concentrated urine.
Sol. : If there is no loop of Henle, there will be no
counter current mechanism and medullary
concentration gradient will not be maintained. As a
result dilute urine will be formed.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
151. Answer (3)
Hint : Heart beats about 72 times in a minute.
Sol. : In an cardiac cycle, both systemic and
pulmonary circulation take place. So about 72
cardiac cycles take place in a minute, hence about
72 times double circulations are normally completed
in one minute.
152. Answer (2)
Hint : Sympathetic neuronal endings release
adrenaline.
Sol. : Adrenaline causes an increase in heart rate
resulting in decrease in the duration of individual
cardiac cycle. However, adrenaline causes an
increase in cardiac output and stroke volume.
153. Answer (1)
Hint : This is associated with skeletal structures of
body.
Sol.: Liver and spleen are involved in erythropoiesis
in embryonic life.
154. Answer (3)
Hint : Micturition reflex is initiated by stretching of
wall of urinary bladder.
Sol. : Stretch receptors in the wall of urinary bladder
send signals to CNS, which passes on motor
messages to initiate the contraction of smooth
muscles of bladder and simultaneous relaxation of
urethral sphincter causing the release of urine.
155. Answer (2)
Hint : These blood vessels carry deoxygenated
blood.
Sol. : Blood must pass through pulmonary
circulation in order to flow from right atrium to left
atrium.
156. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals which live in water deficient conditions
are uricotelic.
Sol. : Uric acid is excreted by using minimum
amount of water e.g., Reptiles, Birds, Insects, Land
snails etc.
157. Answer (1)
Hint : Sympathetic nervous system regulates
various activities of body in emergency situation.
Sol. : Parasympathetic stimulation decreases heart
rate, stroke volume and cardiac output. P-wave in
ECG represents atrial depolarisation.
158. Answer (3)
Hint : Sudden damage to heart muscles causes
myocardial infarction
Sol. : Heart attack is also known as myocardial
infarction. Damage to nodal tissue causes stoppage
of heart-beat which is cardiac arrest.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
159. Answer (1)
Hint : Damage to kidney causes edema.
Sol. : Damage to kidney disrupts its functions
leading to accumulation of urea in blood which is
known as uremia. Formation of large volume of urine
is known as polyuria. Cystinuria refers to increased
presence of cysteine in urine while in hematuria,
blood is found in urine.
160. Answer (1)
Hint : Systemic circulation begins with left ventricle
and ends in right atrium.
Sol. : Aorta carries oxygenated blood from left
ventricle towards body tissues while vena cava
returns deoxygenated blood to right atrium.
161. Answer (3)
Hint : T-wave represents repolarisation of ventricles.
Sol. : T-wave represents end of ventricular systole
which is followed by joint-diastole. Electrocardiogram
represents electrical activity of heart and it is
recorded by electrocardiograph machine.
162. Answer (4)
Hint : Oxygen requirement of body increases during
strenuous exercise.
Sol. : During strenuous exercise, under sympathetic
stimulation heart rate increases due to increase in
number of action potentials generated by
pacemaker. Also, there is an increase in force of
contraction of ventricles leading to an increase in
stroke volume. However, the sequence of various
events occurring in a cardiac cycle i.e. atrial systole,
ventricular systole and joint diastole remain same.
163. Answer (3)
Hint : Net filtration pressure (NFP)/Glomerular
filtration pressure (GFP) is the pressure being
exerted by glomerular blood for ultrafiltration.
Sol. : NFP  GHP  (BCOP  CHP)
Glomerular Blood Capsular
Hydrostatic Colloidal Hydrostatic
Pressure Osmotic Pressure
Pressure
164. Answer (1)
Hint : Members of superclass Pisces have venous
heart.
Sol. : Only deoxygenated blood is pumped by fish’s
heart; which means blood is circulated only once
through their heart i.e. single circulation. Most
reptiles show incomplete double circulation.
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Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
165. Answer (3)
Hint : Maximum reabsorption of water & solutes
occurs in PCT.
Sol. : Reabsorption of maximum solutes including
glucose occurs in PCT. Reabsorption of water
occurs in PCT, descending limb of loop of Henle,
DCT and collecting duct.
166. Answer (4)
Hint : Rh–ve individuals will generate antibodies
against Rh+ve antigen in their plasma.
Sol. : Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs due to Rh
incompatibility between Rh –ve mother and Rh +ve
foetus. Antibodies against Rh antigen cross the
placenta and start destroying foetal RBCs. In order
to prevent this, anti-Rh antibodies are given to
mother.
167. Answer (3)
Hint : It is a tuft of blood capillaries present in
Bowman’s capsule.
Sol. : Renal tubule involves components of tubular
parts of nephrons such as Bowman’s capsule, PCT,
DCT and loop of Henle.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : Left ventricle pumps blood into aorta from
where it is carried to different parts of the body.
Sol. : Different nodal tissues of heart are capable of
generating actions potential at different rates.
Lymphocytes are found in lymph. Volume of blood
pumped by each ventricle in one cardiac cycle is
stroke volume.
169. Answer (2)
Hint : Various plasma proteins promote blood
coagulation.
Sol. : Heparin is an anticoagulant produced by
basophils and mast cells while thrombin, Ca2+ and
thrombokinase are involved in blood clotting.
170 Answer (2)
Hint : Osmolarity depends upon number of solute
particles/volume.
Sol. : Because PCT is permeable for both water and
electrolytes as well as other substances so
osmolarity in PCT remains unchanged and filtrate
remains isotonic in comparison to blood plasma.
171. Answer (3)
Hint : Antibodies bind to antigen present on RBCs
surface.
Sol. : Person having O-blood group lacks antigens
A & B on the RBC surface but have anti-A and anti-
B antibodies in their plasma.
Test - 3 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
172. Answer (4)
Hint : Human heart is myogenic.
Sol. : SA node (pacemaker) is a modified cardiac
muscular tissue capable of generating impulses.
RBCs lack mitochondria to perform aerobic
breakdown of glucose. Single circulation of blood
occurs in heart of fishes.
173. Answer (1)
Hint : Cortex present between medullary pyramids
was named after Joseph Bertin.
Sol. : At a number of places renal cortex invaginates
within medulla and divides medulla into a number of
pyramidal structures known as medullary pyramids.
Invaginations of cortex into medulla are known as
columns of Bertini.
174. Answer (4)
Hint : Haemoglobin helps in transport of gases.
Sol. : Haemoglobin is an iron containing pigment
present inside RBCs. Basophils secrete histamine,
serotonin and heparin. Neutrophils have multilobed
nucleus.
175. Answer (3)
Hint : Chordae tendinae are attached to papillary
muscles in ventricular wall & with flaps of AV valves.
Sol. : Chordae tendinae are attached to AV valves on
one end and papillary muscles on other end. These
cord like structures prevent the collapse of AV valves
during powerful ventricular contraction. They are not
attached to semilunar valves.
176. Answer (4)
Hint : Obligatory reabsorption of water occurs in this
part of nephron.
‰ ‰ ‰
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Sol. : Obligatory reabsorption of water around
60-70% occurs in PCT and some occurs in loop of
Henle. Facultative reabsorption of about
10 - 15% of water occurs in DCT and CD under the
influence of ADH.
177. Answer (2)
Hint : Antibodies protect us from pathogens.
Sol. : Antibodies are immunoglobulins which are
produced by B-lymphocytes (plasma cells) and
protect body from pathogens. Albumin is mainly
concerned with maintaining osmotic balance of
blood. Heparin is an anticoagulant while fibrinogen is
one of the clotting factors.
178. Answer (1)
Hint : Removal of this compound requires large
amount of water.
Sol. : Ammonia is the most toxic nitrogenous waste
and uric acid is the least toxic nitrogenous waste
which is excreted in form of pellets.
179. Answer (3)
Hint : Vertebrates possess ventral heart.
Sol. : Blood groups are determined by presence of
surface antigen on RBCs. Conversion of fibrinogen
into fibrin is done by thrombin.
Chordates like urochordates have an open
circulatory system.
180. Answer (3)
Hint : Factors which are used up during coagulation
of blood.
Sol. : Plasma lacks formed elements and plasma
without clotting factors is known as serum.
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