BITSAT : SOLVED PAPER 2018

(memory based)
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 81 to 95
(B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 96 to 105
Part IV : Mathematics Q. No. 106 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper-3 Hours

PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each
corner of the square. The relation between Q and q for which
the potential at the centre of the square is zero is : (a) 30 cm left (b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right (d) 18 cm to the left
1 1
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = – (c) Q = q (d) Q = 5. In Young’s double slit experiment, l = 500nm, d = 1mm,
q q D = 1m. Minimum distance from the central maximum for
2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i flowing in the which intensity is half of the maximum intensity is
same direction are at a distance 2d apart. The magnetic field (a) 2.5 × 10–4 m (b) 1.25 × 10–4 m
B at a point lying on the perpendicular line joining the wires (c) 0.625 × 10 m–4 (d) 0.3125 × 10–4 m
and at a distance x from the midpoint is – 6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier, where
m0id input resistance is 3 W and load resistance 24 W,
m 0ix
b = 0.6 ?
(a)
(
p d 2 + x2 ) (b)
(
p d 2 - x2 ) (a) 8 . 4 (b) 4 . 8 (c) 2 . 4 (d) 480
m0ix m0id 7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon
(c) (d)
(d 2
+ x2 ) (d 2
+ x2 ) is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and the diameter of the
moon is one-fourth that of earth. The ratio of escape
3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual meanings. velocities on earth and moon will be
The cell has emf E. X is initially joined to Y for a long time. 6 3
(a) (b) 24 (c) 3 (d)
Then, X is joined to Z. The maximum charge on C at any later 2 2
time will be 8. Given P = 2î – 3ˆj + 4 k̂ and Q = ˆj - 2 k̂ . The magnitude of
L
E ER their resultant is
(a) (b) R (a)
R LC 2 LC + – Y 3 (b) 2 3 (c) 3 3 (d) 4 3
9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with
E LC E LC X amplitude a and frequency n. The average kinetic energy during
(c) (d) C Z
2R R its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is
4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having p 2 ma 2 n2
(a) 2p 2 ma 2 n2 (b)
spherical end of radius of curvature 30 cm. The image would
1 2 2
be formed at (c) ma n (d) 4p 2 ma 2 n2
4
Name : Naseem Ahmed SME Proof Reader Print 1st
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10. The dipole moment of the given charge distribution is 21. A juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air throwing the
Y
4Rq 4Rq balls after intervals. When one ball leaves his hand (speed
(a) - î (b) î
–q – – + + + q = 20 ms–1) the position of other balls (height in m) will be
p p –
2Rq 2Rq –
– + (Take g = 10 ms–2)
+
(c) - î (d) î –
– + (a) 10, 20, 10 (b) 15, 20, 15
p p R X
(c) 5, 15, 20 (d) 5, 10, 20
11. At a place, if the earth¢s horizontal and vertical compo-
22. If a stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown out a window of a
nents of magnetic fields are equal, then the angle of dip
train moving at a constant speed of 100 km/h then
will be
magnitude of the net force acting on the stone is
(a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 0°
(a) 0.5 N (b) zero (c) 50 N (d) 5 N
12. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not 23. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V
allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse
(a) 60 (b) 32 (c) 4 (d) 64 experienced by the body is
13. The binding energy per nucleon of 10X is 9 MeV and that of (a) MV (b) 1.5 MV (c) 2 MV (d) zero
11X is 7.5 MeV where X represents an element. The minimum 24. A hoop rolls down an inclined plane. The fraction of its total
energy required to remove a neutron from 11X is kinetic energy that is associated with rotational motion is
(a) 7.5 MeV (b) 2.5 MeV (c) 8 MeV (d) 0.5 MeV (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 3
14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due to gravity 25. Infinite number of masses, each 1 kg are placed along the
and P the atmospheric pressure be the fundamental x-axis at x = ± 1m, ± 2m, ± 4m, ± 8m, ± 16m ..... the magnitude
quantities in MKS system, then the dimensions of length of the resultant gravitational potential in terms of
will be same as that of gravitational constant G at the orgin (x = 0) is
C C2 (a) G/2 (b) G (c) 2G (d) 4G
C
(a) (b) (c) PCg (d) 26. Water of volume 2 litre in a container is heated with a coil of
g P g 1 kW at 27°C. The lid of the container is open and energy
15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown through dissipates at rate of 160 J/s. In how much time temperature
the horizontal tube in the direction as shown then rise in will rise from 27°C to 77°C? [Given specific heat of water is
4.2 kJ/kg]
capillary tube will be
(a) 8 min 20 s (b) 6 min2 s
(a) = H H
(c) 7 min (d) 14 min
(b) > H
27. In the following P-V diagram
(c) < H
(d) zero of an ideal gas, two adiabates
16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h finds the rain cut two isotherms at T1 =
300K and T2 = 200K. The
falling vertically. He increases his speed to 12 km/h and
value of VA = 2 unit, VB = 8
finds that the drops makes 30° with the vertical. The speed
unit, VC = 16 unit. Find the
of rain with respect to the road is value of VD.
(a) 4 7 km/h (b) 9 7 km/h (a) 4 unit (b) < 4 unit
(c) 12 7 km/h (d) 15 7 km/h (c) > 5 unit (d) 5 unit
17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a 28. The mass of H2 molecule is 3.32 × 10–24 g. If 1023 hydrogen
monkey on a tree. At the instant the bullet leaves the molecules per second strike 2 cm 2 of wall at an angle of 45o
barrel of the gun, the monkey drops. Pick the correct with the normal, while moving with a speed of 10 5 cm/s, the
statement regarding the situation. pressure exterted on the wall is nearly.
(a) The bullet will never hit the monkey (a) 1350 N/m2 (b) 2350 N/m2
(b) The bullet will always hit the monkey (c) 3320 N/m 2 (d) 1660 N/m2
(c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
29. The wavelength of two waves are 50 and 51 cm respectively.
(d) Can’t be predicted
18. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v collides with a If the temperature of the room is 20°C then what will be the
mass m2 at rest, then they get embedded. Just after collision, number of beats produced per second by these waves, when
velocity of the system the speed of sound at 0°C is 332 m/s?
(a) increases (b) decreases (a) 24 (b) 14
(c) remains constant (d) becomes zero (c) 10 (d) None of these
30. The figure shows the interference pattern obtained in a
C
19. The ratio of the specific heats of a gas is p = g1.66 , then double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 600nm. 1,
Cv 2, 3, 4 and 5 are marked on five fringes.
the gas may be The third order bright fringe is
(a) CO2 (b) He (c) H2 (d) NO2 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
20. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in same phase.
After 50 oscillations of one, they get out of phase by p, that 31. Electric potential at any point is V = –5x + 3y + 15z , then
is half oscillation. The percentage difference of frequencies the magnitude of the electric field is
of the two oscillators is nearest to
(a) 2% (b) 1% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.25% (a) 3 2 (b) 4 2 (c) 5 2 (d) 7
 3
32. Seven resistances, each of value 20 W, are connected to a 38. A resistor and an inductor are connected to an ac supply of
2 V battery as shown in the figure. The ammeter reading will 120 V and 50 Hz. The current in the circuit is 3 A. If the
be power consumed in the circuit is 108 W, then the resistance
in the circuit is
(a) 1/10 A (b) 3/10 A (a) 12 W (b) 40 W
2V

A (c) ( 52 ´ 25)W (d) 360 W

(c) 4/10 A (d) 7/10 A.
39. In an electron gun, the potential difference between the
33. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (c) with temperature filament and plate is 3000 V. What will be the velocity of
for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by electron emitting from the gun?
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 3.18 × 107 m/s
7
(c) 3.52 × 10 m/s (d) 3.26 × 107 m/s
40. A radioactive substance with decay constant of 0.5s–1 is
(a) O T (b) being produced at a constant rate of 50 nuclei per second.
O T
If there are no nuclei present initially, the time (in second)
after which 25 nuclei will be present is
(a) 1 (b) ln 2 (c) ln (4/3) (d) 2 ln (4/3)
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
(c) (d) 41. The 25 mL of a 0.15 M solution of lead nitrate, Pb(NO3)2
reacts with all of the aluminium sulphate, Al2(SO4)3, present
in 20 mL of a solution. What is the molar concentration of
T O T the Al2(SO4)3?
O
34. A copper rod of length l rotates about its end with 3Pb ( NO 3 ) 2 ( aq ) + Al2 ( SO 4 )3 ( aq ) ¾¾
® 3PbSO 4 ( s )
angular velocity w in uniform magnetic field B. The emf
+ 2Al ( NO 3 )3 ( aq )
developed between the ends of the rod if the field is
normal to the plane of rotation is (a) 6.25 × 10–2 M (b) 2.421 × 10–2 M
1 1 (c) 0.1875 M (d) None of these
(a) Bwl2 (b) Bwl2 (c) 2 Bwl2 (d) Bwl2 42. 100 mL O2 and H2 kept at same temperature and pressure.
2 4
35. A 10V battery with internal resistance 1W and a 15V battery What is true about their number of molecules
with internal resistance 0.6 W are connected in parallel to a (a) NO2 > NH2 (b) NO2 < NH2
voltmeter (see figure). The reading in the voltmeter will be (c) NO2 = NH2 (d) NO2 + NH2 = 1 mole
43. If the Planck’s constant h = 6.6×10–34 Js, the de Broglie
close to :
10V wavelength of a particle having momentum of 3.3 × 10–24
(a) 12.5 V kg ms –1 will be
1W
(b) 24.5 V (a) 0.002 Å (b) 0.5 Å (c) 2 Å (d) 500 Å
15V
(c) 13.1 V 44. Amongst the elements with following electronic
0.6W configurations, which one of them may have the highest
(d) 11.9 V ionization energy?
V (a) [Ne] 3s23p2 (b) [Ar] 3d104s24p3
2
(c) [Ne] 3s 3p 1 (d) [Ne] 3s23p3
36. 10 forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency in
such a way that any two nearest tuning forks produce 4 45. Which of the following is the correct and increasing order
beats/sec. The highest frequency is twice of the lowest. of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(a) IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2
Possible highest and the lowest frequencies (in Hz) are
(b) IF7 < XeF2 < ClF2 < IF5
(a) 80 and 40 (b) 100 and 50
(c) IF7 < ClF3 < XeF2 < IF5
(c) 44 and 22 (d) 72 and 36
(d) IF7 < XeF2 < IF5 < ClF3
37. A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field with a
46. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following
certain velocity. The power delivered to the particle by the statement about the magnetic character and bond order is
magnetic field depends on
correct regarding O +2
(a) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity of the particle.
(b) angular speed w and radius r of the circular path. (a) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O2
(b) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O2
(c) angular speed w and acceleration of the particle.
(c) Diamagnetic and Bond order < O2
(d) None of these
(d) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O2
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47. It V is the volume of one molecule of gas under given 55. An element X occurs in short period having configuration
conditions, the van der Waal’s constant b is ns2 np1. The formula and nature of its oxide is
4V N0 (a) XO3, basic (b) XO3, acidic
(a) 4 V (b) (c) (d) 4VN0
N0 4V (c) X2O3, amphoteric (d) X2O3, basic
48. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values 56. Which of the following is strongest nucleophile
of DH and DS are 40.63 kJmol–1 and 108.8 JK–1 mol–1,
respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change (a) Br– (b) : OH– (c) : CN - (d) C2 H 5O :
(DG) for this transformation will be zero, is: 57. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(a) 293.4 K (b) 273.4 K (c) 393.4 K (d) 373.4 K.
49. For the reaction taking place at certain temperature
ˆˆ† 2NH 3 ( g ) + CO 2 ( g ) ,
NH 2 COONH 4 ( s ) ‡ˆˆ HO
if equilibrium pressure is 3X bar then DrG° would be (a) 3, 3-dimethyl - 1- cyclohexanol
(a) – RT ln 9 – 3RT ln X (b) RT ln 4 – 3RT ln X (b) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-hydroxy cyclohexane
(c) – 3RT ln X (d) None of these (c) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane
50. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in (d) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol
the order : 58. Which of the following will have a meso-isomer also?
(a) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(a) 2, 3- Dichloropentane
(b) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane
(c) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(d) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl (c) 2-Chlorobutane
51. When N2O5 is heated at certain temperature, it dissociates (d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
59. In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product D.
ˆˆ† N 2 O3 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) ; Kc = 2.5. At the
as N 2 O5 ( g ) ‡ˆˆ
same time N2O3 also decomposes as : CH2CH 3 KMnO Br2 C 2H 5OH
¾¾¾® 4
B ¾¾® C ¾¾¾®H+
D
ˆˆ† N 2 O ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) . If initially 4.0 moles of
N 2 O3 ( g ) ‡ˆˆ KOH FeCl3

N2O5 are taken in 1.0 litre flask and allowed to dissociate.

Concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 2.5 M. Equilibrium CH2 – CH – COOC 2H5
concentration of N2O5 is : (a)
Br
(a) 1.0 M (b) 1.5 M
(c) 2.166 M (d) 1.846 M Br
52. Consider the reactions
(A) H2O2 + 2HI ® I2 + 2H2O
(B) HOCl + H2O2 ® H3O+ + Cl– + O2 (b)
Which of the following statements is correct about H2O2 Br
with reference to these reactions? Hydrogen peroxide is CH2 COOC2H5
______ .
(a) an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B) COOH
(b) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent in (B)
(c) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent in (B) (c)
(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)
OCH2CH3
53. Following are colours shown by some alkaline earth
metals in flame test. Which of the following are not
COOC2H5
correctly matched?
Metal Colour
(i) Calcium Apple green (d)
(ii) Strontium Crimson Br
(iii) Barium Brick red 60. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) only (a) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of the
(c) (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iii) sun.
54. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. (b) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical
Which of the following similarity is incorrect ? reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes.
(a) Be forms beryllates and Al forms aluminates (c) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.
(b) Be(OH)2 like Al(OH)3 is basic.
(d) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause the
(c) Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO3.
depletion of ozone layer.
(d) Be2C like Al4C3 yields methane on hydrolysis.
 5
61. Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If atomic mass 69. Which of the following feature of catalysts is described in
of the element is 120 and its density is 6.25 g/cm3, the crystal reactions given below?
lattice is : (use NA = 6 × 1023) Cu / ZnO-Cr O
(i) CO ( g ) + 2H2 ( g ) ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ( )
2 3 ® CH OH g
3
(a) primitive (b) body centered
CO ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) ¾¾® HCHO ( g )
Cu
(c) face centered (d) end centered (ii)
62. Chloroform, CHCl3, boils at 61.7 °C. If the Kb for chloroform
(iii) CO ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) ¾¾
Ni
® CH4 ( g ) + H2O ( g )
is 3.63°C/molal, what is the boiling point of a solution of
15.0 kg of CHCl3 and 0.616 kg of acenaphthalene, C12H10? (a) Activity (b) Selectivity
(a) 61.9 (b) 62.0 (c) 52.2 (d) 62.67 (c) Catalytic promoter (d) Catalytic poison
63. pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence, its 70. Which of the following is not a member of chalcogens?
osmotic pressure at a given temperature TK is (a) O (b) S (c) Se (d) Po
(a) 0.1 RT (b) 0.11 RT (c) 1.1 RT (d) 0.01 RT 71. Pick out the wrong statement.
64. On passing a current of 1.0 ampere for 16 min and 5 sec through (a) Nitrogen has the ability to form pp-pp bonds with itself.
one litre solution of CuCl2, all copper of the solution was (b) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental state.
deposited at cathode. The strength of CuCl2 solution was (c) Catenation tendency is higher in nitrogen when
(Molar mass of Cu= 63.5; Faraday constant = 96,500 Cmol–1) compared with other elements of the same group.
(a) 0.01 N (b) 0.01 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.2 N (d) Nitrogen has higher first ionisation enthalpy when
65. A 100.0 mL dillute solution of Ag+ is electrolysed for compared with other elements of the same group.
15.0 minutes with a current of 1.25 mA and the silver is 72. Which of the following element do not form complex with
removed completely. What was the initial [Ag+]? EDTA?
(a) 2.32 × 10–1 (b) 2.32 × 10–4 (a) Ca (b) Mg (c) Be (d) Sr
(c) 2.32 × 10–3 (d) 1.16 × 10–4 73. Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit
66. The accompanying figure depicts a change in concentra- the lowest value of paramagnetic behaviour ?
tion of species A and B for the reaction A ® B, as a (a) [Co(CN) 6 ]3 - (b) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3 -
function of time. The point of inter section of the two
curves represents (c) [Mn (CN) 6 ]3 - (d) [Cr (CN) 6 ]3 -
(At. Nos : Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
[B]
74. When an aqueous solution of copper (II) sulphate is
saturated with ammonia, the blue compound crystallises
on evaporation. The formula of this blue compound is:
conc.

[A] (a) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4. H2O (square planar)

Times (b) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (Tetrahedral)
(c) [Cu(NH3)6]SO4 (Octahedral)
(a) t 1/2 (b) t 3/4 (d) [Cu(SO4) (NH3)5] (Octahedral)
(c) t 2/3 OH
(d) Data insufficient to predict
67. The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 10– 3 at 25°C and NaOH
[X]
CH2 = CHCH2Cl
[Y] . Here [Y] is a
75.
2.1 × 10– 2 at 60°C. The activation energy is
2.1 ´ 10 – 2 (a) single compound
35
(a) R log e (b) mixture of two compounds
333 1.5 ´ 10 – 2 (c) mixture of three compounds
298 ´ 333 21 (d) no reaction is possible
(b) R log e
35 1.5 76. Following compounds are given:
298 ´ 333 (1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3COCH3
(c) R log e 2.1
35 (3) CH 3 - CHOH (4) CH3OH
298 ´ 333 2.1
(d) R log e CH 3
35 1.5
68. Freundlich equation for adsorption of gases (in amount of x g) Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with
on a solid (in amount of m g) at constant temperature can be iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform?
expressed as (a) (1) and (2) (b) (1), (3) and (4)
(c) only (2) (d) (1), (2) and (3)
x 1 x 1
(a) log = log p + log K (b) log = log K + log p 77. Arrange the following alcohols in increasing order of their
m n m n reactivity towards the reaction with HCl.
x x 1 (CH3)2CH-OH (1), (CH3)3C-OH (2), (C6H5)3C-OH (3)
(c) µ pn (d) = log p + log K (a) 1 < 2 < 3 (b) 2 < 1 < 3
m m n
(c) 3 < 1 < 2 (d) 2 < 3 < 1
 6
78. Thirty percent of the bases in a sample of DNA extracted comprehensive measurement of PM2.5 is not yet being done and
from eukaryotic cells is adenine. What percentage of the linkages between pollution, disease and deaths need further
cytosine is present in this DNA? study. What is not in doubt is that residents in many urban areas
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40% are forced to breathe unhealthy levels of particulates, and the
79. The blue colour of snail is due to presence of smallest of these - PM10 and less - can penetrate and get lodged
(a) Albumin (b) Haemocyanin deep in the lungs. The WHO Global Burden of Disease study has
(c) Globulins (d) Fibrinogen been working to estimate pollution-linked health impacts, such as
80. Which of the following is a diamine? stroke and ischaemic heart disease, acute lower respiratory
(a) Dopamine (b) Histamine infection and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Data on
(c) Meprobamate (d) Chlorphenamine fine particulates in India show that in several locations the
pollutants come from burning of biomass, such as coal, fuel wood,
PART - III (A) : ENGLISH PROFICIENCY farm litter and cow dung cakes. In highly built-up areas,
81. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the construction debris, road dust and vehicular exhaust add to the
word 'Optimistic'. problem. The Prime Minister launched an Air Quality Index last
(a) Favourable (b) Gloomy year aimed at improving pollution control. The new data, which
(c) Hopeful (d) Rude the WHO says provide the best evidence available on the terrible
82. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the toll taken by particulates, should lead to intensified action. A
word 'Drowsy'. neglected aspect of urban air pollution control is the virtual
(a) Sleepy (b) Nodding discarding of the Construction and Demolition Waste Management
(c) Yawning (d) Wakeful Rules, notified to sustainably manage debris that is dumped in
Direction (83 -85): Which of the following phrases (I), (II), and the cities, creating severe particulate pollution.
(III) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed The Environment Ministry has highlighted the role that
in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose debris can play as a resource. Municipal and government contracts
the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the are, under the rules, required to utilise up to 20 per cent materials
correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct made from construction and demolition waste, and local authorities
sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (d) i.e., "No must place containers to hold debris. This must be implemented
correction required" as the answer. without delay. Providing cleaner fuels and scientifically designed
83. He is really feeling under the weather today; he has a terrible cookstoves to those who have no option but to burn biomass,
cold. would have a big impact on reducing particulate matter in the
(I) feeling like the weather northern and eastern States, which are the worst-hit during winter,
(II) feeling over the weather when biomass is also used for heating. Greening the cities could
(III) feeling in the weather be made a mission, involving civil society, with a focus on
(a) Only (I) is correct (b) Only (III) is correct landscaping open spaces and paving all public areas to reduce
(c) Only (II) is correct (d) No correction required dust. These measures can result in lower PM10 and PM2.5 levels.
84. By working part-time and looking after his old mother, he Comprehensive measurement of these particulates is currently
managed to get the best for both worlds. absent in many cities, a lacuna that needs to be addressed.
(I) the best at both worlds 86. According to the WHO Global Burden of Disease study
(II) the best of both worlds which of the following is/are pollution linked health impacts?
(III) the best on both worlds (I) Infection of the lower respiratory system
(a) Only (I) is correct (b) Only (II) is correct (II) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(c) Only (III) is correct (d) No correction required (III) Stroke and ischaemic heart disease
85. Hey, Nanny, speak about the devil and you are here. (a) Only (I) (b) Only (III)
(I) speak at the devil (c) Both (I) and (II) (d) All of the above
(II) speak on the devil 87. The conclusion regarding the deaths attributed to particulate
(III) speak of the devil matter 2.5 micrometers is considered to be caveated because
(a) Only (I) is correct (b) Only (II) is correct (a) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 has been done
(c) Only (III) is correct (d) No correction required comprehensively
Direction (86 - 90): Read the following passage carefully and (b) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 is not radical
answer the questions given below it. (c) Relation between pollution, disease and death is
complete
The likelihood of at least 600,000 deaths being caused (d) None of these
annually in India by fine particulate matter pollution in the air is 88. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the
cause for worry, even if the data released by the World Health passage?
Organisation are only a modelled estimate. The conclusion that (a) Eastern and Southern states are worst hit in winter by
so many deaths could be attributed to particulate matter 2.5 burning of biomass.
micrometres or less in size is, of course, caveated, since (b) The smallest particulate matter PM2.5 penetrates and
gets lodged in lungs.
 7
(c) Data on fine particulates in India show that in several (D) The big problem plaguing clinical research is an over-
locations the pollutants come from the smoke emitted representation of low-income groups among trial
by vehicles. subjects.
(d) None is true (E) While CROs have argued that more rules will stifle the
89. As per the given passage, which of the following is/are the industry, the truth is that ethical science is often better
measures for lowering particulate matter in the atmosphere? science.
(I) Making cleaner fuels available (F) Sometimes CROs recruit them selectively, exploiting
(II) Landscaping open areas financial need and medical ignorance; at other times
(III) Providing cooking stoves designed scientifically people over-volunteer for the money.
(a) Only (I) (b) Both (I) and (II) (a) ABDFE (b) BDEAF
(c) All of the above (d) None of these (c) DFAEB (d) BEDFA
90. If sentence (B) "The Finance Ministry's warning to potential Direction (92-93): Read the sentence to find out whether there is
investors in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will
a time when a new, seemingly attractive investment area has be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
opened up that few have enough information about." is the If there is no error, the answer is (d). (Ignore errors of punctuation,
first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after if any.)
rearrangement? 92. Despite being (a)/ a good teacher, (b)/ he has no influence
(A) One of the main reasons for this volatility is speculation on his pupil. (c)/ No error (d)
and the entry into the market of a large number of people 93. Yesterday, when we were returning from the party, (a)/ our
lured by the prospect of quick and easy profits. car met with an accident, (b)/ but we were fortunate to reach
(B) The Finance Ministry's warning to potential investors our home safely. (c)/ No error (d)
in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at a 94. A group of sheep is known as :
time when a new, seemingly attractive investment area (a) bunch (b) herd
has opened up that few have enough information about. (c) band (d) fleet
(C) A number of investors, daunted by the high price of 95. A group of trees is known as:
bitcoin, have put their money into less well-established (a) grove (b) parliament
and often spurious cryptocurrencies, only to lose it all. (c) heap (d) hedge
(D) Investment in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies
increased tremendously in India over the past year, PART - III (B) : LOGICAL REASONING
but most new users know close to nothing of the 96. In a code language, if REGAINS is coded as QDFZHMR,
technology, or how to verify the genuineness of a then the word PERIODS will be coded as -
particular cryptocurrency. (a) ODQNHCR (b) ODDQHCR
(E) The price of bitcoin, the most popular of all
cryptocurrencies, not only shot up by well over 1000% (c) ODQHNCR (d) ODQHNRC
over the course of the last year but also fluctuated 97. If 5 # 6 = 121 and 10 # 8 = 324, then find the value of 23 # 14
wildly. =?
(F) The government's caution comes on top of three
warnings issued by the Reserve Bank of India since (a) 1369 (b) 1349 (c) 1331 (d) 725
2013. 98. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be
(a) CDEFA (b) EAFDC made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?
(c) DCAEF (d) ECDAF
91. If sentence (C) "Clinical trials involving human subjects
have long been a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical
research organisations (CROs) in India." is the first
sentence, what is the order of other sentences after #
rearrangement?
@
(A) Such over-volunteering occurs more frequently in
bioequivalence studies, which test the metabolism of
generics in healthy subjects.
(B) Landmark amendments to the Drugs and Cosmetics @
Act in 2013 led to better protection of vulnerable groups
such as illiterate people, but more regulation is needed
(a) (b)
#
to ensure truly ethical research.
(C) Clinical trials involving human subjects have long been
a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical research
#@
(c) (d)
organisations (CROs) in India.
 8
99. Which one of the following diagram represents the correct
relationship among
Professor, Male and Female. (a) (b)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(c) (d)

PART - IV : MATHEMATICS
100. Select the related letter/word/ number from the given
alternatives. 106. The domain of the function f ( x ) = x 2 - [ x ] 2 , where [x]
Distance : Odometer :: ? : Barometer denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is
(a) (0, ¥) (b) (-¥ , 0)
(a) Humidity (b) Pressure
(c) (-¥, ¥) (d) None of these
(c) Thickness (d) Wind
107. If msin q = n sin(q + 2a) then tan(q + a ) is
101. Find the odd word/letters/ number pair/number from the
given alternatives. m+n m+n
(a) tan a (b) tan q
m-n m-n
(a) 24 -1614 (b) 270 - 569
m+n m+n
(c) 120 - 4325 (d) 162 - 6930 (c) cot a (d) cot q
m-n m-n
102. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that 108. Number of solutions of equation sin 9q = sin q in the
will complete the series.
interval [0, 2p] is
L_N O_ _MLLM_ OO_ML (a) 16 (b) 17
(a) MNNNO (b) MONNO (c) 18 (d) 15
(c) MONON (d) MONNN 109. A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park ABC. If the
angle of elevation of the top of the pole from each corner of
103. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that the park is same, then the foot of the pole is at the
will complete the series. (a) centroid (b) circumcentre
22, 26, 53, 69, 194, ? (c) incentre (d) orthocentre
110. Let A, B, and C are the angles of a plain triangle and
(a) 230 (b) 260 (c) 250 (d) 245
A 1 B 2 C
104. Select the missing number from the given responses. tan = , tan = . Then tan is equal to
2 3 2 3 2
(a) 7/9 (b) 2/9
2 3 9 (c) 1/3 (d) 2/3
111. If the amplitude of z – 2 – 3i is p/4, then the locus of
1 41 5 4 159 6 4 ? 8
z = x + iy is
3 2 3 (a) x + y -1 = 0 (b) x - y -1 = 0

(a) 888 (b) 788 (c) 848 (d) 842 (c) x + y +1 = 0 (d) x - y +1 = 0

105. Identify the figure that will complete the pattern. 112. The roots of the equation x 4 - 2 x 3 + x = 380 are :

1± 5 - 3 -1± 5 - 3
(a) 5, - 4, (b) - 5, 4,
? 2 2

-1± 5 - 3 1± 5 - 3
(c) 5, 4, (d) - 5, - 4,
2 2
 9
113. Roots of the equation x 2 + bx - c = 0(b, c > 0) are 1 + 2 + 3 +¼ n
123. The value of lim is equal to :
(a) Both positive (b) Both negative n®¥ n 2 + 100
(c) Of opposite sign (d) None of these
114. In how many ways can 12 gentlemen sit around a round 1
(a) ¥ (b)
table so that three specified gentlemen are always together? 2
(a) 9! (b) 10! (c) 3! 10! (d) 3! 9! (c) 2 (d) 0
115. The number of ways in which first, second and third prizes
can be given to 5 competitors is x , sin x
124. lim is equal to
(a) 10 (b) 60 (c) 15 (d) 125 x ®0 x ∗ sin 2 x
(a) 1 (b) 0
7
æ 1ö (c) ¥ (d) None of these
116. The coefficient of x3 in the expansion of ç x - ÷ is :
è xø 125. The probability of getting 10 in a single throw of three fair
(a) 14 (b) 21 dice is :

(c) 28 (d) 35 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 8 9 5
log x (log x) 2
e2 e2
117. If x > 0, the 1 + + + ........= 126. Number of solutions of the equation
1! 2!
(b) x 2 p
(a) x tan -1 (1 + x ) + tan -1 (1 - x ) = are
2
(c) 2x (d) x
118. If a, b, c are in G.P., then (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0
(a) a2, b2, c2 are in G.P.
é1 2 2 ù
1ê
(b) a 2 (b + c), c 2 (a + b), b2 (a + c) are in G.P.. 127. If A = ê 2 1 -2úú is an orthogonal matrix, then
3
êë a 2 b úû
a b c
(c) , , are in G.P..
b+c c + a a +b (a) a = – 2, b = – 1 (b) a = 2, b = 1
(d) None of these (c) a = 2, b = – 1 (d) a = – 2, b = 1
119. The locus of the point of intersection of the lines
128. The points represented by the complex numbers
æ1- t2 ö 2at
x = aç ÷ 5
ç 1 + t 2 ÷ and y = 1 + t 2 represent (t being a 1 + i, – 2 + 3i, i on the argand plane are
è ø 3
parameter) (a) vertices of an equilateral triangle
(a) circle (b) parabola (b) vertices of an isosceles triangle
(c) ellipse (d) hyperbola
(c) collinear
120. The equation of the circle which passes through the point
(4, 5) and has its centre at (2, 2) is (d) None of these
(a) (x – 2) + (y – 2) = 13 (b) (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 13
2
(c) (x) + (y) = 132 (d) (x – 4)2 + (y – 5)2 = 13 é3 - 2 4 ù
129. If matrix A = êê1 2 - 1úú and A -1 = adj (A) , then k is
1
x2 y2 k
121. Eccentricity of ellipse 2 + = 1 if it passes through point êë0 1 1 úû
a b2
(9, 5) and (12, 4) is (a) 7 (b) – 7 (c) 15 (d) – 11
(a) 3/ 4 (b) 4/5 130. If x, y, z are complex numbers, and
(c) 5/6 (d) 6/7 0 -y -z
122. Consider the equation of a parabola y2 + 4ax = 0, where D= y 0 - x then D is
a > 0 which of the following is/are correct? z x 0
(a) Tangent at the vertex is x = 0
(b) Directrix of the parabola is x = 0 (a) purely real (b) purely imaginary
(c) Vertex of the parabola is not at the origin
(c) complex (d) 0
(d) Focus of the parabola is at (a, 0)
 10
131. If f ( x ) = sin x , when x is rational ü a a 2a
ý
= cos x , when x is irrational þ 139. If ò f (2a - x)dx = m and ò f (x)dx = n, then ò f (x)dx is
Then the function is 0 0 0
(a) discontinuous at x = np + p/4 equal to
(b) continuous at x = np + p/4
(c) discontinuous at all x (a) 2m + n (b) m + 2n (c) m – n (d) m + n
(d) none of these 140. An integrating factor of the differential equation
dy
ì 3p sin x + 2 y cos x = 1 is
ï1, when 0 < x £ 4
dx
2
132. If f (x) = íï 2 3p (a) sin 2 x (b)
2sin x, when <x<p sin x
î 9 4 1
(c) log |sin x| (d)
(a) f (x) is continuous at x = 0 sin 2 x
(b) f (x) is continuous at x = p 141. The expression satisfying the differential equation

(c) f (x) is continuous at x =

3p (
x 2 -1
dy
dx
)
+ 2 xy = 1 is
4
3p (a) x 2 y - xy 2 = c (b) ( y 2 - 1) x = y + c
(d) f (x) is discontinuous at x =
4
133. The value of c in (0, 2) satisfying the mean value theorem for (c) ( x 2 - 1) y = x + c (d) none of these
thefunction f(x) = x(x – 1)2, x Î [0, 2] is equal to uur uu
r
142. Let a = iˆ - kˆ , b = x iˆ + ˆj + (1 – x) k̂ and
3 4 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) uur uur uur uur
4 3 3 3 c = y iˆ + x ĵ + (1 + x – y) k̂ . Then [a , b , c ] depends on
x x +1 d2y (a) only y (b) only x
134. If y = + , then at x = 1 is equal to
x +1 x dx 2 (c) both x and y (d) neither x nor y
7 7 1 -7 143. If iˆ + ˆj, ˆj + kˆ, iˆ + kˆ are the position vectors of the vertices
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 8 4 8 of a triangle ABC taken in order, then ÐA is equal to
æ d 2 y ö æ d 2x ö p p p p
(a) (b) (c) (d)
135. Let y = e2x. Then ç 2 ÷ ç 2 ÷ is 2 5 6 3
è dx ø è dy ø
144. The projection of line joining (3, 4, 5) and (4, 6, 3) on the line
(a) 1 (b) e–2x (c) 2e–2x (d) –2e–2x joining (–1, 2, 4) and (1, 0, 5) is
136. A ball is dropped from a platform 19.6m high. Its position
function is – 4 2 8 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) x = – 4.9t2 + 19.6 (0 £ t £ 1) 3 3 3 3
(b) x = – 4.9t2 + 19.6 (0 £ t £ 2) 145. Which of the following statements is correct?
(c) x = – 9.8t2 + 19.6 (0 £ t £ 2)
(a) Every L.P.P. admits an optimal solution.
(d) x = – 4.9t2 – 19.6 (0 £ t £ 2)
(b) A L.P.P. admits a unique optimal solution.
b
xdx (c) If a L.P.P. admits two optimal solutions, it has an infinite
137. The value of the integral ò x + a+b-x
is:
number of optimal solutions.
a
1 (d) The set of all feasible solutions of a L.P.P. is not a
(a) p (b) (b - a) convex set.
2
(c) p / 2 (d) b – a 146. If the constraints in a linear programming problem are
changed then
2
e x (2x + x 3 ) (a) The problem is to be re-evaluated.
138. ò (3 + x 2 ) 2
dx is equal to :
(b) Solution is not defined.
(c) The objective function has to be modified.
2 2
ex 1 ex (d) The change in constraints is ignored.
(a) +k (b) +k
(3 + x 2 ) 2 (3 + x 2 ) 2
147. In a binomial distribution, the mean is 4 and variance is 3.
x2 x2
Then its mode is :
1 e 1 e
(c) +k (d) +k (a) 5 (b) 6
4 (3 + x 2 ) 2 2 (3 + x 2 )
(c) 4 (d) None of these
 11
149. The Boolean expression
1+ a 1+ a + a2
148. The sum 1 + + + .... ¥ is equal to ~ (pÚ q) Ú (~ p Ù q) is equivalent to :
2! 3!
(a) p (b) q (c) ~q (d) ~p
ea - e 150. If in a frequency distribution, the mean and median are 21
(a) ea (b)
a -1 and 22 respectively, then its mode is approximately
(c) (a – 1)ea (d) (a + 1) ea (a) 25.5 (b) 24.0
(c) 22.0 (d) 20.5
 12

SOLUTIONS

PART - I : PHYSICS 9. (b) The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is

given by
1. (a) Let the side length of square be 'a' then potential at
1
centre O is –Q –q K = ma2 w2 sin2wt
2
k ( -Q) k (- q) k (2q ) k (2Q) 1
V= + + + =0 O Now, average K.E. = < K > = < mw2 a2 sin2 wt >
æ a ö a a a 2
çè ÷
2ø 2 2 2
2Q 2q 1
= mw2a2 <sin2 wt >
2
= – Q – q + 2q + 2Q =0 ÞQ + q = 0 (Given)
Q=–q 1 æ 1ö æ 2 1ö
= mw2a2 çè ÷ø çè Q < sin q > = ÷ø
2. (b) The magnetic field due to two wires at P 2 2 2
d
m0 i m 0i 1 1
B1 = ; B2 = M
x
P = mw 2 a 2 = ma2 (2pn)2 (Q w = 2pn)
2p(d + x) 2p(d - x ) i i 4 4
Both the magnetic fields act in opposite 2 2 2
or, < K > = p ma n
direction. 10. (b)
m0 i é 1 1 ù BV
\ B = B2 - B1 = - 11. (c) tan q = =1
2p ë d - x d + x úû
ê BH
m 0i é d + x - d + x ù m0 ix \ q = 45°
= = . (a) The maximum number of electrons in an orbit is 2n2. n > 4 is
ê ú
2 p ë d 2 - x 2 û p( d 2 - x 2 ) 12.
not allowed.
E 1 LE 2 Therefore the number of maximum electron that can be
3. (d) Current in inductor = \ its energy = in first four orbits are
R 2 R2
Same energy is later stored in capacitor 2 (1)2 + 2 (2)2 + 2 (3)2 + 2 (4) 2
= 2 + 8 + 18 + 32 = 60
Q 2 1 LE 2 E
= Þ Q = LC Therefore, possible element are 60.
2C 2 R 2 R
13. (b)
m 1 m -1 C 2 L2T -2
4. (a) Using, -
v u
=
R 14. (d) = = [ L]
g LT -2
1.5 1 1.5 - 1 15. (b) Due to increase in velocity, pressure will be low above
or - =
v -15 +30 the surface of water.
\ v = – 30 cm 16. (a)
5. (c) A
OC x
RL 24 17. (b) t = =
6. (b) Voltage gain, A v = b R = 0.6 ´ 3 = 4.8 u cos q u cos q
i AC = x tan q
u sin q

7. (b) ve = 2 ge Re ; vm = 2 gm Rm BC = distance travelled by bullet u B

in time t, vertically.
ve ge Re ge Re y
= = = 24 1
vm g m Rm ge / 6 Re / 4 y = u sin q t – gt2
2 q
ur uur 1 2
O u cos q C
8. (b) | P + Q | = | 2iˆ - 3jˆ + 4kˆ + ˆj - 2kˆ | = | 2iˆ - 2ˆj + 2kˆ | AB = x tan q – (u sin qt – gt )
2
= 22 + 22 + 22 = 2 3 x 1
= x tan q – (usinq × – gt2)
u cosq 2
 13
Þ distance trevelled by monkey v 2 319.23
n1 = = = 640 Hz.
1 1 l1 0.50
= x tan q – x tan q + gt2 = gt2
2 2 v 319.23
. (\ bullet will always hit the monkey) n2 = 2 = = 625.94 = 626 Hz.
l 2 51 ´ 10-2
18. (b)
19. (b) Let ‘n’ be the degree of freedom No. of beats = n 2 - n1 = 14 Hz
30. (a)
æn ö
g= =
+1 R
C p çè 2 ÷ø æ 2ö 5 æ 2ö
= ç 1 + ÷ = 1.66 = 3 = ç 1 + 3 ÷
31. (d) Ex = –
rv – r
=
rx rx
(
–5x + 5y + 15z = 5 )
Cv æ nö è nø è ø
çè ÷ø R rv
2 Ey = = –3, E z = – 15
ry
Þ n = 3 Þ gas must be monoatomic.
20. (b) Phase change p in 50 oscillations. Now, E = E xy + E zy + E zz = 7
Phase change 2p in 100 oscillations. 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b)
So frequency different ~ 1 in 100. 35. (c) As the two cells oppose each other hence, the
21. (b) Time taken by same ball to return to the hands of juggler effective emf in closed circuit is 15 – 10 = 5 V and net
2u 2 ´ 20 resistance is 1 + 0.6 = 1.6 W (because in the closed
= = = 4 s. So he is throwing the balls after circuit the internal resistance of two cells are in series.
g 10
effective emf 5
each 1 s. Let at some instant he is throwing ball number Current in the circuit, I = = A
total resistance 1.6
4. Before 1 s of it he throws ball. So height of ball 3 :
The potential difference across voltmeter will be
1 same as the terminal voltage of either cell.
h3 = 20 × 1 – 10(1)2 = 15 m
2 Since the current is drawn from the cell of 15 V
Before 2s, he throws ball 2. So height of ball 2 :
5
1 \ V1 = E1 – Ir1 = 15 – ´ 0.6 = 13.1 V
h2 = 20 × 2 – 10(2)2 = 20 m 1.6
2
Before 3 s, he throws ball 1. So height of ball 1 : 36. (d) 1 2 3 10
1
h1 = 20 × 3 – 10(3)2 = 15 m
2
22. (a) After the stone is thrown out of the moving train, the
only force acting on it is the force of gravity i.e. its
weight. 4 4
\ F = mg = 0.05 × 10 = 0.5 N. nFirst nLast

23. (c) Impulse experienced by the body Using nLast = nFirst + (N – 1)x
= MV – (–MV) = 2MV. where N = Number of tuning forks in series
24. (a) x = beat frequency between two successive forks
25. (c) x = 0 1 Þ 2n = n + (10 – 1) × 4 Þ n = 36 Hz
2 4 8
GM æ1 1 1 1 ö work done
V=– = – G ç + + + + ......¥÷ 37. (d) Power =
r è1 2 4 8 ø time
As no work is done by magnetic force on the charged
æ 1 ö
= – Gç = – 2G particle because magnetic force is perpendicular to
è 1 - 1/ 2 ÷ø
velocity, hence power delivered is zero.
26. (a) Heat gained by the water = (Heat supplied by the coil)
38. (a) In an ac circuit, a pure indcutor does not consume any
– (Heat dissipated to environment)
power. Therefore, power is consumed by the resistor
Þ mc Dq = PCoil t – PLoss t only.
Þ 2 × 4.2 × 103 × (77 – 27) = 1000 t – 160 t
\ P = I v2 R
4.2 ´ 105
Þ t= = 500 s = 8 min 20 s or 108 = (3)2 R or R = 12 W
840
27. (a) 39. (d) V = 3000 volt.
28. (b) 1 2eV
mv2 = eV Þ v =
29. (b) l1 = 50 cm. l 2 = 51 cm. 2 m
v1 T2 273 + 20 2 ´1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 3000
vµ T Þ = = Þ v2 = 319.23. v=
v2 T1 273 \
9.1 ´ 10 -31
= 32.6 × 106 = 3.26 × 107 m/s.
 14
N
dN
t Hence O2 as well as O +2 both are paramagnetic, and
dN N
40. (d) = 50 - ò 50 - 2 N = ò dt
dt 0.5 0 0 bond order of O +2 is greater than that of O2.
N = (100 (1 – e–t/2)) = 25 47. (d) van der Waals’s constant b = 4 times the actual
t = 2 ln (4/3) volume of 1 mole molecules = 4 VN0
PART - II : CHEMISTRY 48. (d)
1atm
ˆˆˆˆ†
H 2 O(l) ‡ˆˆˆ ˆ H2O(g)
41. (a) Molar mass of Pb(NO3)2 = 25 × 0.15
= 3.75 m. moles D H = 40630 J mol –1
D S = 108.8 JK–1 mol –1
1
Molar mass of Al2 ( SO4 )3 = ´ 3.75 = M ´ 20 DG = DH - T DS When DG = 0,
3
DH - T DS = 0
M = 0.0625 = 6.25 × 10–2 M
42. (c) This is Avogadro’s hypothesis. DH 40630 J mol-1
According to this, equal volume of all gases contain T = DS = 108.8 J mol-1 = 373.4 K
equal no. of molecules under similar condition of 49. (d) DG° = – RT ln KP; KP = (2X)2 X = 4X3
temperature and pressure. DG° = – RT ln (4X3)
DG° = – RT ln 4 – 3RT ln X
h 6.6 ´ 10-34
43. (c) l= = = 2 ´ 10-10 m = 2Å 50. (b)
p 3.3 ´ 10-24
(i) HCl ¾¾ ® H + + Cl -
44. (d) The smaller the atomic size, larger is the value of 0.1 M 0.1 M
ionisation potential. Further the atoms having half filled \ [H+] = 0.1 M
or fully filled orbitals are comparatively more stable, pH = – log [H+] = – log 0.1 = 1
hence more energy is required to remove the electron (ii) NaCl is a salt of strong acid and strong base so it is not
from such atoms. hydrolysed and hence its pH is 7.
45. (a) The number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom
(iii) NH4Cl + H2O ‡ˆˆˆˆ† NH OH + HCl
in various given species are 4
\ The solution is acidic and its pH is less than that of
Species Number of lone pairs on
0.1 M HCl.
central atom
(iv) NaCN + H2O ‡ˆˆ ˆˆ† NaOH + HCN
IF7 nil
IF5 1 \ The solution is basic and its pH is more than that of
0.1 M HCl.
ClF3 2
\ Correct order for increase in pH is
XeF2 3
HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN.
Thus the correct increasing order is
IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2 51. (d) N 2 O5 ˆˆ† N 2O3
‡ˆˆ + O2
0 1 2 3 4– x x–y x+y
2 * 2 2 * 2
46. (b) O2 : s1s , s 1s , s 2s , s 2 s , s 2 p z2 , ˆˆ† N 2O + O 2
N 2 O3 ‡ˆˆ
ìïp 2 p 2x ìïp* 2 p1x x–y y y+x
í 2
, í * 1 Q [ O2 ] = x + y = 2.5
îïp 2 p y îïp 2 p y for N2O5, Kc = [N2O5] [O2] / [N2O5]

Bond order =
10 - 6
=2 ( x + y )( x - y )
and 2.5 =
2 4-x
(two unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbital) \ x = 2.166
ìïp 2 p x2 , ìï p* 2 p1x [ N 2O5 ] = 4 – x = 1.846
O +2 : s1s 2 , s*1s 2 , s 2s 2 , s* 2s 2 , s 2 p 2z , í
2 í * 0 52. (b)
îïp 2 p y , îï p 2 p y
53. (a) Calcium gives brick red colour and barium gives
10 - 5 apple green colour in flame test.
Bond order = = 2. 5 54. (b) The Be(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 are amphoteric in nature.
2
55. (c) ns2 np1 is the electronic configuration of III A period.
(One unpaired electron in antibonding molecular orbital)
X2O3(Al2O3) is an amphoteric oxide.
 15
56. (c) The strength of nucleophile depends upon the nature 63. (b) pH = 2
of alkyl group R on which nucleophile has to attack [H+] = 0.01 M = Cx = 0.1x
and also on the nature of solvent. The order of strength x = 0.1
of nucleophiles follows the order : i = 1 + x = 1.1
CN– > I– > C6H5O– > OH– > Br– > Cl–
n
π=i RT = iMRT = 1.1 ´ 0.1RT = 0.11RT
V

1 3 W q
57. (a) 2 64. (a) By Faraday's Ist Law, =
E 96500
HO
(where q = it = charge of ion)
IUPAC name – 3, 3-Dimethyl -1-cyclohexanol we know that no of equivalent
58. (b) The compound has two similar assymmetric W it 1´ 965 1
C-atoms. It has plane of symmetry and exists in meso = = = =
E 96500 96500 100
form.
(where i = 1 A, t = 16×60+5 = 965 sec.)
Since, we know that

plane of symmetry 1
no. of equivalent 100
Normality = =
Volume (in litre) 1

Meso - 2, 3 dichlorobutane = 0.01 N

65. (d) No. of moles of
CH2 – CH3 COOH
15 ´ 60 ´1.25 ´10 -3 1
Ag + = ´
( KMnO4 ) 96, 500 1
¾¾¾¾¾ ®
59. (d) KOH = 0.0116 × 10–3

(B) -5
\ éë Ag+ ùû = 1.16 ´ 10 = 1.16 ´ 10 -4
COOH COOC2H5 100
1000
Br2 C2 H5OH
¾¾¾¾®
+
66. (a) The intersection point indicates the half life of the
FeCl3 H
Br Br reactant A when it is converted to B.
(C) (D) 67. (b) T1 = 273 + 25 = 298 K
T2 = 273 + 60 = 333 K
60. (c) The ozone layer, existing between 20 to 35 km above
the earth’s surface, shield the earth from the harmful k2 Ea æ T2 – T1 ö
U. V. radiations from the sun. log = ç ÷
k1 2.3R è T1T2 ø
Depletion of ozone is caused by oxides of nitrogen
N 2 O + hn ¾ ¾® NO + N
k2 E a æ T2 – T1 ö
reactive nitric oxide or loge = ç ÷
k1 R è T1T2 ø
NO + O 3 ¾
¾® NO 2 + O2
O 3 + hn ¾
¾® O 2 + O 2.1 ´ 10 – 2 Ea æ 35 ö
loge = çè 333 ´ 298 ÷ø
NO 2 + O ¾
¾® NO + O 2 1.5 ´ 10 – 3 R

2 O 3 + hn ¾
¾® 3 O 2 (Net reaction) 298 ´ 333 21
\ Ea = × R × loge
The presence of oxides of nitrogen increase the 35 1.5
decomposition of O3. 68. (b) According to Freundlich equation,
x x
ZM Z ´ 120 µ p1/ n or = Kp1/ n
61. (b) d = Þ 6.25 = m m
( )
3 3
NA a 6 ´1023 ´ 4 ´10-8 x x 1
or log = log Kp1/ n or log = log K + log p
m m n
0.616 /154
62. (d) DTb =Kb.m Þ 3.63 ´ ´1000; 69. (b) Given reactions shows that the selectivity of different
15
catalysts for some reactants is different.
Tb = 61.7 + 0.968 70. (d) chalcogens are defined as ore-forming elements.
= 62.67° C
 16
71. (c) Catenation tendency is higher in phosphorus when
O O
compared with other elements of same group.
72. (c) Be is the only group 2 element that does not form a
stable complex with [EDTA]4–. Mg2+ and Ca2+ have the H2N O O NH2
greatest tendency to form complexes with [EDTA]4–.

73. (a) Co3+ :

[Co(CN)6]3– :
CN– is a strong field ligand and it causes pairing of Cl
electrons; as a result number of unpaired electrons in N
Co3+ becomes zero and hence it has lowest value of
paramagnetic behaviour. Chlorphenamine - N
74. (a)
–
OH O O O
:– PART - III (A) : ENGLISH PROFICIENCY
75. (c)
81. (c) Optimistic means hopeful and confident about the
.–.
future.
CH 2 = CHCH2Cl 82. (d) Drowsy means sleepy and lethargic. Therefore, option
(d) is the correct antonym of it. Rest of the options are
OCH2CH = CH2 OH OH its synonyms.
CH2CH = CH2 83. (d) The phrase used in the sentence is grammatically
+ + correct hence, it doesn't require any correction. The
meaning of the phrase' under the weather' is to feel ill.
CH2CH = CH2 84. (b) The correct phrase to be used is 'get the best of both
worlds' which means a win-win situation.
76. (d) Among the given compounds only CH3OH does not 85. (c) The correct phrase to be used is 'speak of the devil'.
give iodoform reaction. This phrase is said when a person appears just after
77. (a) Alkylhalide formation in the reaction of alcohol with being mentioned.
HCl undergoes SN1 reaction in which formation of 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (d)
the carbocation as intermediate occurs. Stability of 90. (b) The first sentence talks about the fact that only few
carbocation is greatest for (C6H5)3C+ due to resonance investors have idea about bitcoins and other
effect, and stability of tertiary carbocation is greater cryptocurr encies (which seems an attractive
than the secondary carbocation hence the option (a) investment area), so, the finance ministry has warned
shows the correct order. the potential investors about it. Sentence E will follow
78. (b) If 30 percent of DNA is adenine, then by Chargaff’s the first sentence because it says that 'bitcoin not only
rule 30 percent will be thymine. The remaining 40 shot up well over by 1000%......' which justifies
percent of the DNA is cytosine and guanine. Since the 'attractive investment area' and forms a link. Now, we
ratio of cytosine to guanine must be equal, then each are left with only option (b) and (d) to choose from.
accounts for 20 percent of the bases. When we consider the sentence F, we can see that this
79. (b) Most snail blood is blueish in color. This is because line seems to be a part somewhere in the middle of the
their blood cells use haemocyanin, which gets its blue paragraph, also, the first line starts with a warning,
color from the copper that is part of its structure. therefore, it must justify the consequences of the
80. (c) diamines are those compounds which contain two investment in bitcoins and other cryptocurrencies
amino groups. which is justified by sentence C. Hence, option (b) is
HO NH2 the correct choice.
91. (d) After reading all the sentences carefully, we see that
Dopamine -
HO
sentence A and F should go one after another as both
talk about 'over-volunteer'. Moreover, sentence A will
N NH2 follow sentence F because of the presence of the word
'such' which signifies that the subject of the sentence
Histamine - has already been discussed in the previous sentence.
N
H Histamine (HA) So, we have option (c), (d) and (e) to choose from.
Meprobamate - Considering sentence D which talks about 'a big
problem', we find that it can't be the second sentence
 17
as no problem of any sort has been dealt in the first
108. (b) sin 9q = sin q Þ 9q = np + (-1) n q
sentence, so, option (c) and (e) gets eliminated. Hence,
by elimination method, we can conclude that option mp
If n = 2m then 9q = 2 mp + q Þ q =
(d) is the correct choice. 4
92. (c) Replace the preposition 'on' with 'over' to make the p
sentence grammatically correct. If n = 2m + 1 then 9q = (2m + 1)p - q Þ q = (2m +1)
10
93. (d) Replace the adverb 'safely' with the adjective 'safe' to The values belonging to [0, 2p] are
make the sentence. Grammatically correct.
94. (b) 95. (a) p p 3p p 7p 3p 9 p
q = 0, , , , , , , ,
10 4 10 2 10 4 10
PART - III (B) : LOGICAL REASONING
11p 5p 13p 3p 17p 7p 19p
96. (c) According to question, p, , , , , , , , 2p
10 4 10 2 10 4 10
REGAINS QDFZHMR
109. (a) The foot of the pole is at A
the centroid. Because
centroid is the point of
–1 intersection of medians F G E
AD, BE and CF, which are
the lines joining a vertex
Similarly, PERIODS ODQHNCR with the mid point of
opposite side. B
D C

110. (a) A + B + C = p \ tan æç A+B ö÷ = tan æç p – C ö÷

–1 è 2 ø è 2 2ø
97. (a) According to question, A B 1 2
(5 + 6)2 = 121 tan + tan +
C 9 C
(10 + 8)2 = 324 Þ 2 2 = cot Þ 3 3 = = cot
A B 2 1 2 7 2
(23 + 14)2 = 1369 1 – tan . tan 1– .
2 2 3 3
98. (b) 99. (a)
100. (b) Distance is measured by odometer. Similarly, Pressure C 7
\ tan = .
is measured by Barometer. 2 9
101. (d) According to question, 111. (d) z - 2 - 3i = x + iy - 2 - 3i = ( x - 2) + i ( y - 3)
24 = 1 × 6 ×1 × 4
æ y - 3ö p y -3 p
270 = 5 × 6 × 9 tan -1 ç = Þ = tan = 1
120 = 4 × 3 × 2 × 5 è x - 2 ÷ø 4 x-2 4
162 ¹ 6 × 9 × 3 × 0 = 0
102. (d) According to question, Þ x - y +1 = 0
L M N O /O N M L/ L M N O/ O N M L 112. (a) Given equation is x4 – 2x3 + x – 380 = 0
103. (a) The pattern is : Þ ( x 2 - x - 20)( x 2 - x + 19) = 0
22 26 53 69 194 230 Þ ( x - 5)( x + 4)( x 2 - x + 19) = 0
Hence, the required roots of the equation are
1± 5 - 3
+22 +33 +42 +53 +62 5, - 4, .
2
104. (a) The pattern is : 113. (c) Since b, c > 0
(1 × 2 × 3 × 5) + (1 + 2 + 3 + 5) = 41 Therefore a + b = -b < 0 and ab = -c < 0
(3 × 4 × 2 × 6) + (3 + 4 + 2 + 6) = 159
Since product of the roots is –ve therefore roots must
(9 × 8 × 3 × 4) + (9 + 8 + 3 + 4) = 888
be of opposite sign.
105. (c) 114. (d) It is obvious by fundamental property of circular
PART - IV : MATHEMATICS permutations.
115. (b) First prize can be given in 5 ways. Then second prize
106. (d) f(x) is defined if x 2 - [x 2 ] ³ 0 Þ x 2 ³ [ x ]2 , which is can be given in 4 ways and the third prize in 3 ways
(Since a competitior cannot get two prizes)
true for all positive real x and all negative integers x.
and hence the no. of ways. = 5 × 4 ×3 = 60 ways
m sin(q + 2a ) m + 1 sin(q + 2a) + sin q 7
107. (a) = Þ = æ 1ö
n sin q m - 1 sin(q + 2a) - sin q 116. (b) Given, ç x - ÷ and the (r + 1)th term in the expansion
è xø
m + n 2sin(q + a )cos a of (x + a)n is T(r + 1) = nCr(x)n – r ar
\ = = tan(q + a) cot a
m - n 2cos(q + a)sin a
 18
\ (r + 1)th term in expansion of sin x
1-
7 r x - sin x x
æ 1ö 7 7-r æ 1 ö 124. (b) lim = lim
ç x - ÷ = Cr ( x ) ç- ÷ x ®0 x + sin 2 x x ®0 sin 2 x
è xø è xø 1+
= 7Cr(x)7 – 2r (– 1)r x
Since x3 occurs in Tr + 1
\ 7 – 2r = 3 Þ r = 2 sin x
1-
7´6 x 1 -1
thus the coefficient of x3 = 7C2 ( – 1)2 = = 21. = lim = =0
2 ´1 x ®0 æ sin x ö 1 + 1´ 0
1+ ç ÷ sin x
log
e2
x
+
(log x )2
e 2
+ .......
è x ø
117. (d) 1 + 125. (b) Exhaustive no. of cases = 63
1! 2! 10 can appear on three dice either as distinct number as
1 following (1, 3, 6) ; (1, 4, 5); (2, 3, 5) and each can occur in 3!
log 2 x log e x
= e e = e2 = e log e x
= x ways. Or 10 can appear on three dice as repeated digits as
118. (a) Q a, b, c are in G.P. 3!
following (2, 2, 6), (2, 4, 4), (3, 3, 4) and each can occur in
2!
b c b2 c 2
\ = =r Þ = = r 2 Þ a 2 , b 2 , c 2 are in G.P.. ways.
a b a 2 b2
119. (a) To eliminate the parameter t, square and add the 3!
equations, we have \ No. of favourable cases = 3 ´ 3! + 3 ´ 2! = 27
-1 -1 p
æ1- t2 ö 2 2
2 126. (c) tan (1 + x ) + tan (1 - x ) =
x 2 + y2 = a 2 ç ÷ + 4a t -1 p -1
2
ç 1+ t 2 ÷ (1 + t 2 ) 2 Þ tan (1 + x ) = - tan (1 - x)
è ø 2
a2 a 2 (1 + t 2 ) 2 Þ tan -1 (1 + x ) = cot -1 (1 - x)
= [(1 - t 2 ) 2 + 4t 2 ] = = a2
2 2 2 2
(1 + t ) (1 + t ) -1 -1 æ 1 ö 1
Þ tan (1 + x) = tan ç ÷ Þ 1+ x =
Which is the equation of a circle. è 1- x ø 1- x
120. (b) As the circle is passing through the point Þ 1 - x 2
= 1 Þ x = 0
(4, 5) and its centre is (2, 2) so its radius is
127. (a) As A is an orthogonal matrix, AAT = I
2 2
(4 - 2) + (5 - 2) = 13.
\ The required equation is : é 1 2 2 ù é1 2 a ù é1 0 0 ù
1ê 1
(x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 13 Þ ê 2 1 -2 úú × êê 2 1 2 úú = êê0 1 0 úú
3 3
81 25 êë a 2 b úû êë 2 -2 b úû êë0 0 1 úû
121. (d) We have 2 + 2 = 1 ........... (1)
a b
é 1 2 2 ù é 1 2 a ù é1 0 0 ù
144 16 1ê
+ =1 ........... (2) Þ 2 1 -2úú êê 2 1 2úú = êê0 1 0 úú
a2 b2 9ê
êë a 2 b úû êë 2 -2 b úû êë0 0 1 úû
63 9 b2 1
From eq. (2) – eq. (1) : 2
- 2
=0Þ 2
=
a b a 7 é 9 0 a + 4 + 2b ù é9 0 0ù
ê ú ê0 9 0ú
1 6 Þ ê 0 9 2a + 2 - 2b ú = ê ú
e = 1- =
7 7 ê a + 4 + 2b 2a + 2 - 2b a 2 + 4 + b 2 ú êë0 0 9 úû
ë û
122. (a) Equation of parabola is y2 = – 4ax. Its focus is at
(– a, 0). Þ a + 4 + 2b = 0, 2a + 2 – 2b = 0 and a2 + 4 + b2 =
9
1 + 2 + 3 + ...n n ( n + 1) Þ a + 2b + 4 = 0, a – b + 1 = 0 and a2 + b2 = 5
123. (b) Consider lim = lim
2 n ®¥ 2( n 2 + 100) Þ a = – 2, b = – 1
n®¥ n + 100
(By using sum of n natural number 1+ 2 + 3 + .... + n
5
n (n + 1) 128. (c) Let z1 = 1 + i, z2 = – 2 + 3i and z3 = 0 + i
= ) 3
2
x1 y1 1 1 1 1
æ 1ö
n2 ç1 + ÷ Then x2 y2 1 = -2 3 1
è nø = 1
Take n2 common from Nr and Dr. = lim x3 y3 1 0 5/3 1
n ®¥ æ 100 ö 2
2n 2 ç 1 + 2 ÷
è n ø æ 5ö æ -10 ö 4 10 4 + 6 - 10
= 1ç 3 - ÷ + 1(2) + 1ç ÷ = + 2- = =0
è 3ø è 3 ø 3 3 3
 19
é3 -2 4 ù dx 1 1 d2x 1 1 -4 x
129. (c) If A = ê1 2 -1ú = 2x = \ 2 =- 2 =- e
êë0 1 1 úû dy 2e 2y dy 2y 2
1 -2 x ö
and A -1 = adj(A) ...(i) d2 y d2x 2 x æ -e -2 x
k \ . = 4 e ç 2 x ÷ = -2e
dx 2 dy 2 è 2e ø
adj(A)
Also, we know A -1 = ...(ii)
|A| d2 x
\ By comparing (i) and (ii) | A | = k 136. (b) We have, a = = -9.8
dt 2
3 -2 4 The initial conditions are x (0) = 19.6 and v (0) = 0
Þ | A |= 1 2 -1
0 1 1 dx
So, v = = -9.8t + v(0) = -9.8t
= 3 (2 + 1) + 2 (1 + 0) + 4 (1 – 0) = 9 + 2 + 4 = 15 dt
130. (b) We have \ x = – 4.9t2 + x (0) = – 4.9t2 + 19.6
Now, the domain of the function is restricted since the
0 - y -z 0 y z
ball hits the ground after a certain time. To find this
D = y 0 -x = -y 0 x
-z -x 0 time we set x = 0 and solve for t.
z x 0
[Interchanging rows and columns] 0 = – 4.9t2 + 19.6 Þ t = 2
0 - y -z b x dx
= ( -1)3 y 0 - x = –D 137. (b) Given, I = òa x + a+b-x
.... (i)
z x 0
b b
[Taking –1 common from each row] Note : òa f (x)dx = òa f (a + b - x)dx
\ D + D = 0 Þ 2 Re( D ) = 0 \ D is purely imaginary.
131. (b) The function can be continuous only at those points a+b-x
b
p \ I= òa
a+b-x + x
dx ....(ii)
for which sin x = cos x Þ x = np +
4 Add (i) and (ii),
æ 3p ö
132. (c) Here f ç ÷ = 1 and lim f ( x) = 1 b x dx b a + b - x dx
è 4 ø x ® 3p / 4 - 2I = òa x+ a+b-x
+ò
a a+b-x + x
2 æ 3p ö p
lim f ( x) = lim 2sin ç + h÷ = 2sin = 1 b x + a + b - x dx
x ®3p / 4 + h®0 9è 4 ø 6 =ò
b
= ò 1.dx = [x]ba
a a +b+x + x a
3p
Hence f (x) is continuous at x = . 2I = b – a
4
133. (b) f(x) = x (x – 1)2 ; x Î [0, 2] b-a
\ I=
f (b) - f (a) 2
f ¢(c) = ; f(2) = 2, f(1) = 0
b-a
138. (d) Put x 2 = t Þ 2 x dx = dt
f ¢(x) = 3x – 4x + 1 Þ f ¢(c) = 3c2 – 4c + 1
2

f (2) - f (0) 2-0 4 2

e x (2 + x 2 )xdx 1 t (2 + t)
Thus, 3c 2 – 4c + 1 = = =1 Þ c =
2-0 2 - 0 3 I= ò (3 + x ) 2 2
=
2òe
(3 + t ) 2
dt
134. (a) Given expression can be written as
1 1 dy 1 1 1 e t (3 + t - 1) 1 té 1 1 ù
+1 + Þ - 2
y = 1–
x +1 x dx
=
(1 + x ) 2
x =
2 ò(3 + t ) 2
dt =
2
e ê - ò ú dt
ëê 3 + t (3 + t ) ûú
2

d2y -2 2
2 = – 2 (1 + x)–3 + 2x–3 = 3
+ 1 t 1 é d æ 1 ö -1 ù
dx (1 + x ) x3 = e . + k êQ ç ÷ = ú
2 3+ t êë d t è 3 + t ø (3 + t ) 2 úû
d2y -2 2 -2 7
Now, = + = +2 = 2
dx 2
(1 + 1) 3
(1) 3 8 4 1 ex
x =1 = +k
2 3+ x 2
dy d2y 139. (d) Put x = 2a – t
135. (d) y = e2x \ = 2 e 2 x and = 4e2 x so that dx = – dt
dx dx 2 when x = a, t = a and when x = 2a, t = 0
 20
2 a a 2 -2 1 2 -2 1
ò0 f (x) dx = ò f (x)dx + ò f (2a - t) dt = n + m \ Dc's of line PQ = , = , ,
,
2 + (-2) + 1 3 3 3 3 3
0 0 2 2
dy
140. (a) Given differential equation is sin x + 2 y cos x = 1
dx
dy cos x 1 \ Projection of line segment AB on the line PQ is
Þ + 2y =
dx sin x sin x 2 æ -2 ö æ 1ö 4
(1) + ç ÷ (2) + ç ÷ ( -2) =
dy 3 è 3ø è 3ø 3
Þ + ( 2 cot x ) y = cosec x
dx 145. (c) 146. (a)
147. (c) In Binomial distribution, Mean = np, Variance = npq
I.F = e ò
2cot x dx
and the mode is r if for x = r, the probability function
2log(sin x )
=e = sin 2 x p(x) is maximum.
141. (c) Rewrite the given differential equation as follows : Given np = 4 and npq = 3
dy 2x 1
+ 2 y= 2 , which is a linear form 3 3 1
dx x - 1 x -1 \ q= and p = 1 – q = 1 – =
The integrating factor I.F. 4 4 4
2x
ò 2 dx 2 4 4
= e -1
x = e ln ( x -1) = x 2 - 1 Also, n = = = 16
p 1/ 4
Thus multiplying the given equation by ( x 2 - 1), we
1 17 1
2 dy d
[ y( x 2 - 1)] = 1 Now, (n + 1) p = (16 + 1)
= = 4+
get ( x - 1) + 2 xy = 1 Þ 4 4 4
dx dx Þ The distribution will have unique mode (unimodal)
On integrating we get y( x 2 - 1) = x + c & the mode = 4
r r 148. (b) The given series is
142. (d) a = iˆ - kˆ, b = xiˆ + ˆj + (1 - x)kˆ and
r 1+ a 1+ a + a 2 1+ a + a 2 + a3
c = yiˆ + xjˆ + (1 + x - y )kˆ 1+ + + + ....
2! 3! 4!
1 0 -1
r rr rr r
[a b c ] = a.b ´ c = x 1 1- x 1 + a + a 2 + a 3 + .... to n terms
Here, Tn =
y x 1+ x - y n!

= 1 é1 + x - y - x + x 2 ù - é x 2 - y ù 1(1 - a n ) 1 æç 1 - a n ö
ë û ë û = = ÷
(1 - a )(n !) 1 - a çè n ! ÷
ø
= 1 - y + x 2 - x2 + y
=1 \ T1 + T2 + T3 + .....to ¥
rrr
Hence éë a b c ùû is independent of x and y both.
1 é1 - a 1 - a 2 1 - a 3 ù
= ê + + + .... to ¥ú
143. (d) C i+k 1 - a êë 1! 2! 3! úû

1 éæ 1 1 1 ö æ a a2 a3 öù
A B = êçç + + + ....to ¥ ÷÷ - çç + + + .... to ¥ ÷ú
÷ú
1 - a ëêè 1! 2 ! 3! ø è 1! 2 ! 3! øû
i+j j+k
® ® 1 e - ea e a - e
Now, AC = kˆ - ˆj and AB = kˆ - iˆ = [(e - 1) - ( e a - 1)] = =
®
1- a 1- a a -1
®
Let q be the angle between AC and AB. 149. (d) : (pÚ q) Ú (: p Ù q)
1- 0 - 0 + 0 1 p
cos q = = Þ q = 60° = ( : p Ù : q) Ú (: p Ù q)
2 2 2 3
144. (a) Let A = (3, 4, 5), P = (–1, 2, 4) Þ : pÙ (: q Ú q)
B = (4, 6, 3) and Q = (1, 0, 5) Þ : pÙ t º : p
\ Dr's of line AB are (4 – 3), (6 – 4), (3 – 5) = 1, 2, –2 150. (b) We know that,
and Dr's of line PQ are (1 + 1), (0 – 2), (5 – 4) = 2, –2, 1 Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean = 3(22) –2(21)
= 66 – 42 = 24