Questions # 1

1) Frank Lloyd Wright proposed an alternative (1932) to the congestion in huge

metropolis by way of urban decentralization wherein each American family would be
granted at least one acre of federal land in a self-contained agro-industrial
settlement.
A. Eco-city
B. Broadacre city
C. Exurbia
D. Micropolis
E. Suburbia
2) Urban planning is "concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the
right time" for the right people.
A. John Ratcliffe
B. Lewis Keeble
C. Brian Mcloughlin
D. George Chadwick
E. Alan Wilson
3) The concepts of "input-throughput--output-feedback" comes from what school of
planning?
A. Communicative Planning
B. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
C. Incremental Planning
D. Systems Theory of Planning
4) In general, this refers to the characteristic of a process or state that can be
maintained at a certain level indefinitely; in particular, it refers to the potential
longevity of ecological systems to support humankind and other species.
A. Resilience
B. Endurance
C. Sustainability
D. Perpetuity
E. Durability
5) In the "Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats" tool as popularized by
exponents of Strategic Planning, the elements, aspects or characteristics that need
to be reinforced, are enumerated under which quadrant?
A. 'S'
B. 'W'
C. 'O'
D. 'T'
6) Which basic principle of 'Sustainable Development' means responsibility and
accountability to future populations?
A. Common Heritage of Humankind
B. Inter-generational Equity
C. Caring Capacity
D. Parity 0f Compeers

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7) If 'pre-industrial society' was mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and
relatively parochial, 'industrial society' in contrast
A. Minimizes farming to channel capital into factories
B. Prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
C. Aims for mass production thru mechanization & automation
D. Relies on the output of white-collar professionals
8) In a November 2008 ruling of the Supreme Court upholding RA 9009's
amendment of Sec. 450 of RA 7160 LGC, the statutory requirements for an LGU's
elevation to cityhood are
A. Contiguous territory of at least 100 km2 except for island/group of islands
B. Minimum annual income of P100 million based on 1991 constant prices
C. Population of at least 150,000
D. All of the choices
9) Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered
by Paul Davidoff (1965)?
A. Single women with children were assisted to find employment.
B. Social planning was moved from 'backroom negotiations' into the open public
forum.
C. Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
D. Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national
policy
E. Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
10) Which is not a key feature of 'professional' planning process?
A. Proactive
B. Problem-solving
C. Algorithmic
D. Futuristic
E. People-driven
11) Under the Systems Theory of Planning by George Chadwick and Alan Wilson, under
which stage do policy-makers or decision-makers make a firm resolve to pursue a
specific course of action?
A. System Description
B. System Modeling
C. System Projection
D. System Synthesis
E. System Control
12) Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the citystate, the 'marketplace' was the site
where ancient Greeks came together not only for trading and buying of foodstuffs
but also for political, social, and other secular activities
A. 'parthenon'
B. 'gymnasium'
C. 'erechtheum'
D. 'agora'
E. 'sumposion'

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13) "First we shape our buildings; thereafter, our buildings shape us." This quotation is
attributed to
A. Winston Churchill
B. George Washington
C. Theodore Roosevelt
D. Napoleon Bonaparte
14) Due to greater 'division of labor', there is more heterogeneity of population and
classes of workers beginning with
A. Primitive subsistence society
B. Pre-industrial society
C. Industrial society
D. Post-industrial society
15) He proposed the 'neighborhood unit' (1929) as a self-contained 'garden suburb'
bounded by major streets, with shops at intersections and a school in the middle; its
size would be defined by school's catchment area with a radius of quarter-mile or
402 meters. This incorporated Garden City ideas and attempted at some kind of
social engineering.
A. Clarence Perry
B. Clarence Stein
C. Clarence Thomas
D. Clarence McKay
16) According to Dr. Garrett Hardin, in an open access regime without defined property
rights, individuals enjoy free unlimited access to natural resources and right to use
without exclusion; each individual is motivated to maximize his or her own benefit
from exploiting the resource. When no individual has adequate incentive to
conserve the public resource, the resource will likely become overused and
overexploited.
A. The Stewardship of Nature
B. Communitarian Paradox
C. Fencesitter's Dilemma
D. Tragedy of the Commons
17) The Garden City Movement shaped the British policy of "urban containment", with
following features, except one:
A. Greenbelts, green girdles, and clear edges for all cities
B. Mass transit to link 'mother city' with 'garden cities'
C. Homestead of about one acre per family
D. Preservation of more farmland & open space
18) This type of planning has also been called 'synoptic,' 'static', 'normative,' and
'Utopian', because it assumes a prior that professional planners have the
intelligence, noble intentions. and expertise to synthesize extensive data, analyze a
relatively predictable world, and decide rightly on crucial questions of broader
public interest.
A. Equity or activist or advocacy planning
B. Strategic Planning
C. Traditional planning or command planning or imperative planning

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 D. Rational-Comprehensive Planning
19) He wrote the famous book "Garden Cities of Tomorrow" (1902) and became a most
influential thinker with his effort to combine the best features of 'country' as shown in
his diagrams of three (3) magnets.
A. Sir Frederic Osborn
B. Sir Ebenezer Howard
C. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
D. Sir Raymond Unwin
20) According to Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin, Jr. in the first comprehensive textbook on
urban planning ever written ( 1965 ), the explicit goals of urban planning are the
following, except one:
A. Health & safety
B. Convenience & amenity
C. Tolerance & plurality
D. Efficiency & economy
21) "Make no little plans. They have no magic and probably themselves will not be
realized. Make big plans; aim high in hope and work, remembering that a noble,
logical diagram once recorded will never die ... "
A. Leon Battista Alberti
B. Daniel H. Burnham
C. Baron Georges Eugenes Hausmann
D. Pierre Charles L'Enfant
22) A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the
classic "Eight policies, Rungs in the Ladder Citizen Participation" which
describes the varying degrees of people's involvement in policies, plans,
and programs.
A. Ralph Nader
B. Susan S. Fainstein
C. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr
D. Sherry Arnstein
23) Under RA7160 Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to approve a
Highly Urbanized City?
A. At least 200,000
B. At least 500,000
C. At least 1 million
D. At least 10 million
24) Which is a major contribution of classical Greek civilization 700-404 BCE to town
planning?
A. Polytheism or pantheon of Greek gods which sanctified all elements of Nature
as being animated by divine spirit
B. The delineation between religious space & secular civic space as separate but
complementary spheres in society
C. The concept of 'polis' or (Latin) 'civitas' which means that only residents of cities
can truly be called 'civilized'.

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 D. The practice of direct democracy and the notion of citizenship which included
women, the poor, slaves, and aliens.
25) 'Allocative' or 'regulatory' or 'policy planning' in the tradition of Herbert Gans and T. J.
Kent is concerned with solving chronic problems of society by allocating resources
efficiently and enacting laws, rules and standards. It is therefore closest to which
planning approach?
A. Rational-comprehensive
B. Traditional or command planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Communicative planning
26) The New Towns Movement of 1920s might have contributed to scattered and
uncontrolled development in continental America but the main reason for its
suburban sprawl after World War II was__?
A. Rapid fall of real estate prices in the countryside due to financial meltdown
from sub-prime lending
B. Increased value of rural land due to Hoover's Interstate Highway Act of 1956
which funded federal highways and freeways across many states
C. The widespread use of commuter trains and monorail
D. The popularity of automobile as means of transportation
27) Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969) which 'steps' would
require the planner to perform 'facilitation' role rather than 'advice,' 'direction,' or
'manipulation'?
A. Counseling; therapy
B. Consultation; placation
C. Informing
D. Partnership; delegated power; citizen control
28) A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:
A. A cluster of skyscrapers
B. A charter or legal proclamation
C. A rectilinear or orthogonal street design
D. A seaport or an airport
29) This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic
factors, live together in important locations -- a process that is always accompanied
by economic agglomeration, spatial alteration, and socio-cultural change.
A. Industrialization
B. Urbanization
C. Social Transformation
D. Modernization
30) Which principle of Strategic Planning rallies the organization and unifies its
members around a common purpose?
A. Solve major issues at a macro level
B. Avoid excessive inward and short-term thinking
C. Be visionary to convey a desired end-state but be flexible enough to allow and
to accommodate changes
D. Engage stakeholders to pull together behind a single gameplan for execution

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 E. Establish priorities on what will be accomplished in the future
F. Communicate to everyone what is most important
31) The main contribution of Norbert Weiner's 'Cybernetics' to the Systems Theory of
planning is the principle that planning should be -
A. Cyclical, iterative, and self-correcting
B. Free-wheeling and open-ended
C. Wide-ranging and exhaustive
D. Rigorous, exact, and mathematical
32) Don Arturo Soria y Mata, a Spanish engineer, suggested that the logic of utility
connections (electricity, sewer, concept of telephone lines, gas and water pipes) be
the basis of city layout; thus he considered the impact of technology in his concept
of an elongated urban form running from Cadiz, Spain up to St. Petersburg, Russia
A. Ciudad Conectada
B. Ciudad Alongada
C. Ciudad Lineal
D. Ciudad Larga
33) In Clarence Stein's Six (6) Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns
traffic congestion caused by roadside parking?
A. Plan simply, but comprehensively
B. Provide ample site in the right places for community use
C. Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful
transportation of people and goods
D. Cars should be stored in homes
E. Bring private land and public land into relationship
F. Arrange for the occupancy of houses
34) The major objective of Le Corbusier's (Charles-Edouard Jeanneret) cubist "Radiant
City' design ( 1923) meant for 3 million people consisting of 'uniform 60-storey
tower-blocks set in a huge park' was to:
A. Use high-rise structures to improve safety of people and security of vital
institutions
B. Increase city density by building high on a small part of land
C. Increase the public's enjoyment of environmental amenities and viewscapes
from varying heights
D. Capture the retail market which justifies why prices are necessarily high in
central locations or CBDs
35) Tony Garnier (1917) conceptualized a lush green city of about 35,000 inhabitants
where 'man would rule by himself.' thus there would be no police, no churches, no
rigid forms of social control in this Utopian place complete with landscaped homes,
factories, trade schools, transport and leisure facilities.
A. Esplanade
B. Axle lndustrielle
C. Post-Industrial Motor City
D. Linear IndustriaI City
36) As defined by PD 1517 and by National Statistics Office, 'urban' area has the
following characteristics except one:

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 A. It exports substantial quantities of processed products
B. Core district's density is at least 500 per square kilometer
C. Overall density of at least 1000 persons per square kilometer in its entirety
D. Exhibits a street pattern
37) The most recent re-definition of 'urban' by NSCB (2003) does not include one of the
following.
A. If a barangay has more fishery output and shellcraft activities compared to farms,
then it is considered urban
B. If a barangay has population size of 5,000 or more, then it is considered urban;
C. If a barangay has at least one establishment with 100 employees or more, then it
is considered urban
D. If a barangay has 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees,
and 5 or more facilities within the two-kilometer radius from the barangay hall,
then it is considered urban
38) They were considered the earliest regional planners in history (27 BCE -410 AD)
because they planned their cities and settlements with transport network, civil
works, utilities, and military defense, foremost in their minds?
A. Macedonian Greeks under Alexander The Great
B. Romans under the dictatorial Emperors
C. Persians under Cyrus the Great
D. Egyptians under Ramses, Thutrnoses, and Nefertiti
39) Presidential Decree 1308 Sec. 2a defines it as referring to 'all activities concerned
with the management and development of land, as well as the preservation,
conservation and management of the human environment
A. Urban Planning
B. Human Ecology
C. Environmental Management
D. Environmental Planning
40) The expansion of human populations away from central urban areas into low-
density, monofunctional and usually car-dependent communities, in a process
called suburbanization. In addition to describing a particular form of urbanization,
the term also relates to the social and environmental consequences associated
with this development.
A. Decentralization
B. Dispersion
C. Exurbanization
D. Urban Sprawl
41) Related to Thomas Malthus' concept of 'k' as the population size constrained by
whatever resource is in shortest supply, this principle refers to "the maximum
population of a given species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat
without causing negative impacts that permanently impair the productivity of that
same habitat."
A. Limits to growth
B. Tipping point
C. Range and threshold
D. Carrying capacity

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42) Considered as the "Father of City Planning in America," he prepared plans for the
City of Manila and the City of Baguio from 1903 to 1911 with the assistance of
Pierce Andersson.
A. John Hay
B. William Howard Taft
C. Robert Kennon
D. Daniel Hudson Burnham
E. Francis B. Harrison
43) The Garden City Movement in the United Kingdom directly addressed large-scale
problems caused by the __?
A. The Scientific Revolution
B. British-American War of Independence
C. Industrial Revolution
D. World War II and the Holocaust
44) The following are the stated goals of 'urban development policy' (NUDHF) in the
Philippines, except one:
A. To achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence
B. To slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and
population management
C. To optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing
and urban development
D. To undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development
which will make available housing and services at affordable cost
45) The US Supreme Court's decision in 1926 to uphold the power of an LGU to regulate
land use through ordinance in the landmark case of "Village of Euclid vs. Ambler
Realty Company” is reckoned as the watershed moment for
A. City Beautiful Movement
B. City Functional Movement
C. City Efficient Movement
D. Regional City Movement
46) Recognized as 'father of landscape architecture,' he also began the 'Parks and
Conservation Movement' in the United States which advanced the idea that city
parks and greenways can structure urban space, stimulate mixed uses, dampen
class conflict, heighten family and religious values, and serve as aid to social
reform.
A. Frederic Law Olmstead, Sr.
B. John Muir
C. Gifford Pinchot
D. George Perkins Marsh
47) This was an American movement in the 1890s that stressed the design of
settlements according to the principles of "grandeur, exuberance, monumentality,
drama and tension, cohesiveness, and symmetry" as demonstrated in the planning of
Washington DC, Paris, Chicago, San Francisco, among others:
A. City Beautiful Movement
B. City Functional Movement

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 C. City Efficient Movement
D. New Towns Movement
48) In Michael P. Todaro's Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central
pull factor or main attraction of Third World cities to rural migrants even when
these cities are unprepared to accept migration, is
A. "Bright lights effect" or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment
B. Possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of
central city address
C. Abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to
insurgency wars in the countryside
D. Substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the
same level of skill, task, or occupation
49) Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wright's 'Broadacre City'
(1932)?
A. Each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land
B. Food garden or small farm would be right next to the house
C. Manufacture & commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
D. Work within walking distance from the home
E. Railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
F. Densification would preserve much open space
50) For his grid-iron design of ancient Greek settlements such as Priene, Piraeus and
Rhodes, he is acknowledged as the Father of Town Planning in Western Civilization
A. Vitruvius of Rome
B. Ptolemy
C. Hippodamus of Miletus
D. Appolodorus of Damascus

Questions # 2
1) In 2012, how many administrative regions does the Philippines have?
A. 13
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
2) What Christallerian principles formed the basis why a state university, a consumer
mall, a huge sports stadium, or a tertiary-level hospital cannot be established in
each and every Philippine municipality?
A. Spatial equity and bio-geographic equity
B. Specialization and concentration
C. Market range and threshold population
D. Profitability and pecuniary interest
3) A Scottish biologist who authored the masterpiece entitled "Cities in Evolution"
(1915) and who coined the terms 'folk-work-place,' 'city-region' and 'conurbation' is
acknowledged as the 'father of regional planning'.
A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
B. Sir Patrick Geddes

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 C. Lewis Mumford
D. Barry Parker
4) This School of Thought maintains that cities are 'theaters of capital accumulation'
largely a consequence of class-based struggle among groups for strategic
dominance and control surplus. Such conflict is usually won by the rich and
powerful through agents of capital such as multi-national corporations which use
the city to amass wealth by raising property values through commercialization,
gentrification, manipulation, and land speculation.
A. Capital Theoretic Model
B. Political Economy
C. Natural Capitalism
D. David Harvey's Circuit of Capital
5) 'Ekistics' or the 'science of human settlements' by Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)
was built upon the concept of "basic needs," which were later categorized by Johann
Galtung into "material survival & security needs," "social or enabling needs," and non-
material "human needs". Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by Abraham
Maslow?
A. Food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment,
peace and order,
B. Self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and
transportation
C. Physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-
actualization/self-realization
D. Freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
6) He led the crafting of the regional 'Greater London Plan of 1944', he designed some
of 30 post-war New Towns approved by the British Parliament, including Doncaster
area and East Kent, in which he used open space as structuring element.
A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
B. Sir Patrick Geddes
C. Lewis Mumford
D. Charles Abrams
7) Under the plaza complex pattern described in 'Leyes de las lndias' (1573), what
would be located next to each other around a Greco-Roman quadrangle of a Spanish
colonial settlement?
A. Garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade
B. Governor's mansion, bishop's palace, general's manor, hacendero's villa, military
garrison
C. Church, town hall, school, public market
D. Houses of peninsulares, insulares, creoles, mestizos, principales and ilustrados
8) The following are the basic elements of 'human settlements' according to Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the built environment or physical
capital?
A. Anthropos
B. Nature
C. Shells and networks
D. Society

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 E. Social structure
9) Based on his landmark book, "Design with Nature," 'map overlay' to identify
'ecological constraints' was a tool devised in 1967 by the first modem environmental
planner.
A. Ian L. McHarg
B. Konstantinos Doxiadis
C. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr
D. Erma Bernbeck
10) This was the Spanish spatial strategy of forming dense settlements from scattered
dwellings for purposes of greater, military defense and political control - literally
bringing together dispersed population within hearing distance of church bells --
which policy was applied on most Spanish colonies from 16th to18th centuries.
A. El Alcance del Campanario
B. Presidio y Fortaleza
C. Reduccion
D. Evangelizacion
11) In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to
make a 'service' viable.
A. Resident population
B. Captive market
C. Threshold population
D. Population explosion
12) This School of Thought describes a borderless global economy characterized by free
trade and free movement of capital wherein nation-states would have 'lean and
mean' governments which pursue policies of liberation, deregulation, privatization,
de-bureaucratization, 'unbundling', 'de-coupling', and similar structural adjustments.
A. World Systems Theory
B. State Corporatism
C. Neo-Liberalism
D. Liberal Democracy
13) An approach in urban planning that puts premium on people and nature by building
upon the historic city or traditional neighborhood in such a way that workplaces,
shops, and homes would be within walking distance of each other.
A. Nee-Populism
B. Eco-Village
C. New Urbanism
D. Dynapolis
E. Transit-Oriented Development
14) She was called a 'superwoman' who single handedly sparked environmental
activism in the 1960s-70s with her research ('Silent Spring) on biomagnification of
pesticides and chemicals in the human food chain; her advocacies bore fruit in the
creation of US Environmental Protection Agency and Environmental Impact
Assessment system in the 1970s.
A. Gro Harlem Brundtland
B. Catherine Bauer Wurster

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 C. Rachel Louise Carson
D. Marthc1 C. Nussbaum
15) Because Pre-Spanish aboriginal communities in the Philippines were relatively small
and based on kinship relations, the most common practice of land tenure in pre-
colonial society, wherein one would merely enjoy the 'fruits' of land, was called
A. Primitive communism
B. Islamic feudalism
C. Usufruct
D. Tenancy
E. Swidden slash-and-burn
16) What is the smallest unit in the 'human settlements planning' or Ekistics by Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?
A. House
B. Anthropos
C. Organism
D. Neighborhood
E. Hamlet
17) This 1997 document is the Philippines' official response to 1992 'UNCED Earth
Summit' and contains a policy framework that redefines development as the 'drawing
out of full human potential' according to the 'appropriate productivity' of nature,
rather than optimal or maximum exploitation of natural resources to achieve GDP
growth.
A. Philippine Strategy for Sustainable Development
B. Philippine Philippine Strategy Covenant for on Total Sustainable Human
Development Development
C. Strategic national Action program
D. Philippine Agenda 21
18) The original concept of 'megalopolis' as an extended or super-sized urban area is
attributed to
A. Jean Gettman
B. Konstantinos Doxiadis
C. Dennis Rondinelli
D. Andreas Faludi
19) In 2011, which Philippine city had the biggest population, net income and IRA?
A. City of Manila
B. Makati City
C. Quezon City
D. Cebu City
20) If 'World Heritage Day' is marked each year on April 18, 'World Biodiversity Day' is
observed on May 22, 'World Ocean Day' on June 8, 'World Indigenous Peoples Day'
on August 9, 'World Animal Day' on October 4, and 'World Food Day' on October 16,
when is 'World Water Day' celebrated?
A. January 13
B. March 22
C. June 24

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 D. October 31
21) In "Death and Life of Great American Cities" (1961) and "Economy of Cities" (1969),
this planner maintains that 'diversity' promotes innovation among proximate firms
and spurs the growth of cities, thus s/he advocated for heterogeneity, variety, and
mixture in the geographic clustering of firms as well as in the composition of city
districts and neighborhoods.
A. Herbert Gans
B. James Howard Kunstler
C. Joel Garreau
D. Jane Jacobs
22) This School of Thought holds that the settlements form in a balanced manner; they
tend to be spread evenly and symmetrically in isotropic space, displaying both
hierarchy and equilibrium arising from the interdependence between big and small
settlements and from the complementation between their respective scope of
functions
A. Galaxy of Settlements Theory
B. Central Place Theory
C. Geographic Determinism
D. Dependency Theory
23) Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of radial or axial growth
along lines of least resistance?
A. Multiple Nuclei
B. Concentric Zone
C. Sector Model
D. Polycentric Model
24) "When all land is identical and there is perfect competition among profit-maximizing
firms, land is sold to the highest willing bidder. As a firm moves closer to the center
of a place, transport costs fall which increases the amount a firm is willing to pay for
land. Thus, land at the center always has the highest value.
A. Johann Henreich von Thunen, Walter Christaller, and George Kingsley Zipf
B. William Alonso, Richard E. Muth and Edwin S. Mills
C. Alfred Weber, August Losch, and Walter lsard
D. Roderick D. McKenzie, Amos H. Hawley, Robert Park
25) The design of this city by Lucio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer (1957) features large open
areas relating to one other to demonstrate 'freedom' and an overall city layout
resembling a 'dove in flight'.
A. Brasilia
B. Sydney
C. Chandigarh
D. Canberra
E. Islamabad
26) All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the
Philippines, except one.
A. Location of health centers
B. Location of trial courts

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 C. Location of beach resorts
D. Location of police stations
27) In 1964, Republic Act 4341 established this center to create a pool of professional
planners in the Philippines.
A. Local Government Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Institute of Planning
D. UPLB Institute of Environmental Science and Management
28) 'Urban development' tends to occur along major transportation routes because
A. Power/water connections and other utilities are naturally linear
B. Business cannot take place without roads and vehicles
C. Migration usually occurs lineally from point A to point B such as in exodus,
processions, or diasporas
D. People tend to locate where exchange, interchange, and access to other land
uses are at maximum
29) Presidential Decree No. 01 Integrated Reorganization Plan on September 24, 1972
increased the number of Philippine regions to 11, regionalized key ministries and line
departments, and created a major planning agency of government which is known
today as
A. Philippine Economic Zone Authority
B. National Land Use Committee
C. Congressional Planning and Budget Office
D. National Economic and Development Authority
30) 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' are what you commonly see in what Peirce F.
Lewis calls
A. Circumferential City
B. Multi-cellular city
C. Stellar City
D. Galactic City
31) It in Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end
subdivisions?
A. Section 'A'
B. Section 'B1'
C. Section 'C'
D. Section 'D'
32) This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the
outworn or decaying sections of any town by extending fund assistance to LGUs to
undertake improvements in streetscapes, parks, green ways, housing, community
centers, etc. based on anticipation that future tax revenues from real estate will pay
for present costs.
A. Land re-adjustment
B. Urban restructuring
C. Infill and densification
D. Urban renewal

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33) In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example
of first-order services while grocery store, gas station, furniture shop, and post office
are examples of
A. Secondary services
B. Tertiary services
C. Quaternary services
D. Quinary services
34) As chief planner of New York City, he collaborated with Thomas Adams in crafting
the "Regional Plan of New York and its Environs 1922-1931;" he also conceived,
and executed public works costing $27 billion between 1924 and 1968 and was
responsible for virtually every parkway, expressway, and public housing project in
New York metropolitan area.
A. William Levitt
B. Fiorello La Guardia
C. Robert Murray Haig
D. Robert Moses
E. Warren Buffett
35) Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, which of the following is not among the types of cities in
the Philippines.
A. Highly Urbanized Cities
B. Independent Cities
C. Megacities
D. Component Cities
36) Johann Heinreich von Thunen's theory of agricultural rent is symbolized as "LR=Y(P-
C)-YtD' where "Y" is yield or total harvest, "P" is price of crop, "C" is production cost
of crop, "t" is transport cost and "D" is distance to market. If yield of palay is 3,500
kgs, NFA buying price is P17.00 per kilo, distance is 5 km., given farmer's gross
production cost of 45 cents per square meter per day for unit production cost of
P12.00 per kilo, would palay cultivation be profitable at this specific farm location if
transport cost is P1.00 per kilo of palay?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on the weather
D. It depends on quality of road & capacity of vehicle
37) In the model of mono-centric cities, it is assumed that manufacturers locate close to
transport arteries, blue-collar workers locate close to their jobs, while traders and
retailers pay higher for choice locations in city center to have command of the
market. This pattern of land use is explained better by which theory of spatial
planning?
A. Urban Bid-Rent by Alonso, Muth, and Mills
B. Cumulative Causation by Gunnar Myrdal
C. Urban Land Nexus Theory by David Harvey
D. City as Growth Machine by John Logan & Harvey Molotch
38) According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'invasion' refers to how pioneers
and opportunists push the 'land frontier' farther out; when immigrants settle in
waves, they define new land uses for themselves in a process called

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 A. 'evolution'
B. 'co-location'
C. 'succession'
D. 'acclimatization'
E. 'cohabitation'
39) If 'Earth Hour' is observed on the last Saturday of March, 'Earth Day USA' is
celebrated annually on April 22, 'World Town Planning Day' falls on November 8,
'World Environment Day' is marked on the 5th day of the month of
A. May
B. June
C. September
D. October
40) Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under Ekistics school of Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?
A. Ecumenopolis
B. Megalopolis
C. Metropolis
D. Agropolis
E. Eperopolis
41) In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of the
innermost circle in the diagram is
A. Farming of the most expensive crops
B. Terminal for commuters, central rail station
C. Central park
D. Shopping & retail services
42) It in 'Ernest Burgess' concentric Model (1925), factories and work-shops would
most likely locate in
A. The innermost circle,
B. The outermost circle
C. The second circle from the center
D. The third circle from the center
43) The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
A. Cities have varied natural resources that stimulate progress in different locations
B. Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
C. Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or 'circuits of capital'
D. Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones
of cities
44) In the model of Homer Hoyt, the sections of urban land with the highest values are
those:
A. Downtown sections facing seas, lakes & near waterfronts
B. On top of hills and elevated areas called 'uptowns'
C. Immediately around public offices I institutional sector
D. Along major roadways

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45) In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory, the catchment area of a central place
takes the shape of a hexagon rather than a perfect circle. If a particular service or
function such as elementary school enrolment is represented by the formula,
"C=2.6r2d," what would be the catchment area of elementary school if its radius is
0.50 km. and diameter is one km.?
A. 0.65 sq.km
B. 0.75 sq.km
C. 0.85 sq.km
D. 0.95 sq.km
Feedback
C = (2.6) (0.50)squared (1)
= 0.65 sq.km.
46) Through Presidential Letter of Instruction 367 in 1950 combining National Urban
Planning Commission, Real Property Board, and Capital City Planning Commission,
the government created this first physical planning body.
A. National Planning Commission
B. National Disaster Coordinating Council
C. National Environmental Protection Agency
D. Human Settlements Regulatory Commission
47) All of the following schemes are associated with 'New Urbanism' except:
A. Mixed Use Zoning
B. Neo-Traditional Design
C. Exclusionary Zoning
D. Pedestrianization
48) Which theorist of urban land use states categorically that land use follows transport
in the same manner that both population and business follow roads?
A. Ernest Burgess
B. Homer Hoyt
C. Chauncey Harris & Edward Ullman
D. Peirce Lewis
49) The 'hierarchy of settlements' in Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory is
characterized by
A. Equally-sized large cities in every region
B. Only one large city, many small settlements
C. Only medium-sized and small settlements
D. A few large cities, some medium cities, many small settlements
50) A chart-like tool to measure 'centrality' of a place particularly its range of economic
and social functions, is called
A. Matrix
B. lsotims
C. Lsodapanes
D. Scalogram

Questions # 3

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1) Although theoretically flawed, "Super-Region" as conceived by the administration of
Pres. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo sought to build upon perceived comparative
advantage of a cluster of territories such as agri-processing, tourism, commodity
logistics chain, or cyber-services. Which 'super-region' ought to focus on 'agri-
business'?
A. Northern Luzon Quadrangle
B. Metro Luzon Urban Beltway
C. CALABARZON Industrial Heartland
D. Central Philippines (Visayas, Palawan and parts of Mindanao)
E. Subic - Clark Freeport complex
F. Bangsa Moro Juridical Authority
2) Presidential Decree 2146 defines 'amenity areas' as those with high aesthetic
values such as the following, except one.
A. Outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
B. Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
C. Heritage sites and historic places
D. Municipal plazas and public parks
3) An industrial estate that is established to develop new industries is called
"developmental" while an industrial estate meant to advance, improve or increase
the level of industrial activjty particularly in poor regions is called
A. "specialized"
B. "ancillary"
C. "promotional"
D. "survival"
E. "subsistential"
4) The following central variables except one were used by Alfred Weber, August
Losch, Walter lsard, Melvin Greenhut and others, in so-called classical theories of
industrial location.
A. The costs of distributing and marketing finished goods to the end-user
B. Wages of labor
C. The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory
D. Perks and privileges for managers
5) Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain
'concentrated decentralization'?
A. Regional industrial centers
B. Special economic zones
C. Growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
D. Agora and agurbia
6) Of the so-called 'super-regions,' which one is being promoted as having the
comparative advantage in 'tourism'?
A. North Luzon
B. Central Philippines
C. Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
D. Davao Silicon Gulf

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7) According to Francois Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a
propulsive or expanding firm/industry, or cluster of such firms/industries, which
induces development of other firms/industries that are technically or functionally
related to it, and stimulates prosperity of the locality or region through the flow of
goods and services.
A. Market town
B. Entrepot
C. Axis Mundi
D. Growth Pole
E. Ecozone
8) 'Industrial dispersal' began with Memorandum Circular dated Dec 16, 1973 which
banned establishment of additional medium and heavy industries in the national
capital within a 50 kilometer radius from
A. Rizal Monument, Luneta
B. Malacariang Palace
C. Bonifacio Monument
D. Quezon Memorial Circle
9) Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code of 1998, if the total width of water body between two
seaside municipalities is less than 30 km, each one's municipal waters is determined
by using
A. Comparative sizes of fishing population
B. A median line on common water body
C. Preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
D. Ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline
10) Philippines is one of 18 mega-diverse countries which together contain two-thirds of
the world's biodiversity. Philippines has over 30% of Southeast Asia's coral reef
cover, a square kilometer of which can produce between 30 to 40 metric tons of
seafood annually. Which area is considered among the most serious hotspots in
rapid coral reef destruction?
A. Sulu
B. Boracay
C. Palawan
D. Mindoro
11) 'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing,
grocery, catering, recreation, etc. while 'services that cut across varied types of firms
such as security, banking, insurance, courier services, etc. are called
A. Logistical
B. Financial
C. Diagonal
D. Interlocal
E. Messengerial
F. Transborder
12) When a firm locates close to sources of natural resources such as Pittsburg or Ruhr
valley, it is called "materials-oriented;" when a firm locates close to where there are
large populations such as Shanghai or Tokyo, it is called --

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 A. Customer-friendly
B. Client-centered
C. Demographicaily-responsive
D. Market-oriented
13) "Development process should be redefined in such a way that urban development
promotes rural development while rural development supports urban development."
(John Friedman)
A. Agropolis / agropolitan approach
B. Rurban interlink
C. Agro-based countryside development
D. Michael Lipton model
14) Which characteristic of megalopolis describes its tendency to develop a multi-nuclei
or multi-nodal spatial pattern?
A. Is an expansive urban region with over 10 million population (Giles Clarke)
B. Tends to be dependent on food, water, and energy supplies of its neighboring
regions
C. Has complex form as 'mother city' breeds smaller offspring-cities in sprawling
manner
D. Requires broad type of regional governance beyond the capacity and resources
of a single LGU authority
15) Under the 'super-region' concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon, as part
of the Mega Manila 'Extended Urban Region', would focus on
A. Hacienda farming
B. Meat processing
C. Commodity logistics chain
D. Cyber services
E. Tourism
16) The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine
waters, except one.
A. Use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets
B. use of dynamites and other explosives
C. Use of fine mesh nets
D. Muro-ami
E. Use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
F. Use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawls
17) Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of
number of species. Under RA 9147 "Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection
Act", a species or sub-species that faces high risk of extinction in the immediate
future is called
A. Acutely Threatened Species
B. Critically Endangered Species
C. Species Vulnerable to Extinction
D. Rapidly Vanishing Species
18) Which is not a method to delineate a region?
A. Force field analysis

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 B. Gravitational analysis
C. Factor analysis
D. Flow analysis
E. Ethno-linguistic and socio-cultural profiling
F. Weighted index number method
19) According to 1997 study on 775 coral formations by Dr. Edgardo Gomez, Dr. Helen
Yap of UP Marine Science Institute, 30% of total Philippine coral reef cover is dead,
39% dying, 25% in fair condition, how much remains in excellent condition?
A. approximately 5%
B. Approx. 8%
C. Approx. 26%
D. Approx. 31 %
20) Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone under PEZA?
A. Free trade zone
B. Financial banking center
C. Export processing zone
D. Industrial park or industrial estate
21) In 1970, the Presidential Advisory Council on Public Works and Community
Development and the UP Institute of Environmental Planning together drafted the
first-ever national physical framework plan that attempted to address spatial inequity
or imbalance among regions using the concept of
A. Integrated area development
B. Growth pole/growth center
C. Selective territorial closure
D. New society
22) Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines as declared by
UNESCO?
A. Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao
B. Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
C. Magellan's Cross in Cebu
D. Rice Terraces of the Philippines
E. Puerto Princesa Underground River
F. Historic Town of Vigan
23) Which thrust of regional planning addresses core-periphery, center-hinterland
economic exchange & spatial integration?
A. Enforce urban growth control such as greenbelts or analogous schemes to
protect the natural environment
B. Cultivate a role for each component-settlement such as administrative center,
manufacturing hub, tourism, zone, etc
C. Develop transport corridors in 'hub and spokes design' with major infrastructure
reaching out to population centers
D. Resist development in flood plains or on earthquake fault zones by utilizing these
areas as parks. farms, buffers, etc
24) This refers to the totality of cultural properties preserved and developed through
time and passed on for posterity.

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 A. National patrimony
B. Customs & traditions
C. Patriotic legacy
D. Cultural heritage
E. Bequeaths & bequests
25) Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and
treasures should be utilized by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while
adopting more modern uses in their interiors.
A. Total Makeover
B. Reconfigurative Renovation
C. Converted Property
D. Adaptive Re-use
26) This sub-national development approach of government from the mid-1970s to
mid-1990s refers to the necessary combination of agricultural, industrial, and
institutional activities in mutually reinforcing manner - fostering the growth of viable
market towns or mid-size cities that offer broad services and amenities meant to
achieve both stability of population movement and agro-industrial growth closely
tied to, and integrated with, efficient agricultural production.
A. Autonomous Autarchic Development
B. Integrated Area Development
C. Endogenous Self-Reliant Development
D. Selective Territorial Closure
27) The declared strategy of the national government since the 1980s to promote greater
complementarity between agriculture and industry sectors and between urban and
rural places is called
A. Import Substitution Industrialization
B. Export Oriented Industrialization (EOI)
C. Countrywide Urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)
D. Balanced Agro-Industrial Development Strategy (BAIDS)
28) Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch
company decides to stay put in Switzerland because of its secure market niche and
proven track record in producing Rolex timepieces. What theory of firm location is
likely at work here?
A. Comparative Advantage
B. Profit Maximizing Approach
C. Satisficing Theory
D. Behavioral Theory
29) Klaasen enumerates the criteria for creating planning regions as follows. Which
criterion pertains to the role of a leading center or a complex of exporting firms or
lead industries?
A. Must be large enough to take investment decisions of an economic size
B. Must be able to supply its own industries with necessary labor
C. Should have a homogenous economic structure
D. Must contain at least one growth point
E. Must have a common approach to and awareness of its own problems

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30) According to RA 7916 Sec 4, this refers to a tract of land of at least 50 contiguous
hectares which is subdivided and developed according to a comprehensive plan
under a unified continuous management and with provisions for basic
infrastructure and utilities, with or without pre-built standard factory buildings
(SFBs)
A. Industrial corridor
B. Regional manufacturing hub
C. Export processing zone
D. Industrial estate
31) RA 8550 Fisheries Code defines it is a band of dry land and adjacent ocean space in
which terrestrial processes and uses, as well as oceanic processes and uses directly
affect each other; its geographic extent has a landmark limit of one (1) kilometer
from the shoreline at high tide to a seaward limit of 200 meters isobath.
A. Seashore land
B. Foreshore land
C. Coastal Zone
D. Aqua Marine Zone
32) According to Walter lsard, firms or industries that are indifferent to the physical
attributes of geographic location to carry out profitable business are called:
A. Vagabond
B. Wanderlust
C. Itinerant
D. Footloose
33) In John Friedman's (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic
condition, which refers to 'fagging regions'?
A. Core regions
B. Upward transitional areas
C. Resource frontier areas
D. Downward transitional areas
E. Special problem areas
F. Latifundio-minifundio
34) A region that is defined by common physical features such as resource base, lake,
coast, ecosystem is called 'natural or ecological region'; while that which is defined
by extent of economic connectedness or market exchange is called a "functional
region"; that which is created by law regardless of natural or economic commonality
is called
A. Homogenous region
B. Formal region
C. Historic region
D. Virtual region
35) The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972
was
A. Bataan EPZ
B. Mactan EPZ
C. Baguio EPZ

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 D. Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ
E. Phividec Misamis Oriental
36) An American car company breaks up its production process because of high wage
cost of unionized Iabor in Detroit and moves its manufacturing plants to China
where labor costs are low and sources of refined metals are close by. What theory
of firm location likely underpins this decision?
A. Market-Oriented Approach by August Losch
B. Least Cost Approach by Alfred Weber
C. Profit-Maximizing Approach by Walter lsard
D. Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Mergers)
37) According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to
"historical sites or structures hallowed and revered for their history or association as
declared by the National Historical Institute"
A. Epochal Landmark
B. National Treasure
C. National Cultural Property
D. Historic Shrine
E. Sacred Place
38) A Swedish computer company relocates to Silicon Valley, California, where despite
high wage costs, IT companies boast of highest IQ points per square-meter of
floorspace, and have vibrant linkages with topnotch universities to create state-of-
the-art technologies. What theory of firm location is operational here?
A. Theory of Human Capital
B. Profit Maximizing Approach
C. Satisficing Theory
D. Behavioral Theory
39) This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow
of tide, technically, to a string of land margining a body of water, between the low-
water line usually at the seaward margin of a low tide terrace and the upper limit of
wave wash at high tide usually marked by a beach scarp or berm.
A. Seaside
B. Seaboard
C. Foreshore
D. Seagrass bed
E. Beachfront
40) RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12, Art XII of Philippine Constitution, "The State shall
promote the preferential use of Filipino labor, domestic materials and locally
produced goods and adopt measures that help make them competitive." What
technical planning concept pertains most aptly to this?
A. Inflow - outflow - backflow
B. Trickle up and trickle down
C. Economic nationalism or Filipinism
D. Forward linkages and backward linkages in production
41) Because land use changes affect a species' ability to migrate, __ are necessary to
give species a route to reach their new habitats.

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 A. Science Reserves & Ranches
B. Zoos & Botanical Gardens
C. Lifelines
D. Wildlife Corridors
42) As conceptualized in 1989, the private-led "Agro-Industrial Development Area
(AIDA)" scheme analogous to Japan's "One Town One Product" model would cluster
several villages to carry out the following components except:
A. Family farm school or folk school
B. Small-scale agro-processing industries
C. Rural development center
D. Roll-on-roll-off (RORO) port
43) According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the 'development of external
economies for an industry's products" while 'backward linkage' refers to
A. Connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside
B. Development of auxiliary industries to supply input
C. Attraction of capital and enterprises to exploit expanding demands
D. Expansion of service industries and others serving the local market
44) The phenomenon of 'urban primacy' mostly in Third World countries wherein a
single metropolis corners a disproportionate share of a country's population,
resources, and investments by reason of historical or political precedence, or as a
result of foreign colonial influence, is also called "Manila imperialism" in the
Philippines.
A. It is desirable because of the efficient use of space and economies of scale.
B. It proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from
congestion and overconcentration
C. It demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western
imperialist powers.
D. It shows polarization within a country and siphoning off of economic assets and
human talent from hinterland
45) The 'center-down' paradigm of neo-classical economics of the 1960s assumed that
benefits from the national-level or macroeconomic growth trend to component
regions and lower-level communities.
A. Cascade
B. Sprinkle around in spurts
C. Pour down
D. Trickle down
46) Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to
the meaning of 'inclusive growth'?
A. Compromise
B. Transactional
C. Equality
D. Beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
E. Only for the Yellow Army

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47) This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms,
settlements, industries, transport hubs, infrastructure, wilderness, etc. across a
significantly large area broader than a single city or town.
A. Watershed Planning
B. Area Development Planning
C. Regional Planning
D. Physical Planning
48) Under RA 8550, what is the extent of municipal waters of a seaside town as
measured from its shoreline?
A. 7 km
B. 10 km
C. 15 km
D. 20 km
49) The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March 3,
1973 has been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants, of which the
Philippines has over 800, by
A. Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
B. Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
C. Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
D. Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
E. Specifying prices for certain plant and animal products
50) "High-growth regions with expanding economic activity will attract net migration
from other parts of the country, thus favoring them further. Capital investments
tend to have a similar effect: increased demand in expanding centers spur
additional investments, which in turn will increase incomes and demand or cause a
further round of investments."
A. Cumulative Causation
B. Positive Reinforcement
C. Economic Modernization
D. Circuits of Capital

Questions # 4
1) Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for agricultural
use?
A. Climate and rainfall
B. Soil quality
C. Geologic fault lines
D. Slope
2) Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously
for at least 5 years prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest
for subsistence, are considered "tenured migrant communities" and are engaged by
government to undertake reforestation and upland management under this
specific program.
A. Agro-Forestry
B. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
C. Integrated Social Forestry

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 D. Industrial Forestry
3) This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate
image of the Earth by removing tilt of planet, relief displacements, and topographic
distortions which occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
A. Photogrammetry
B. Orthophotography
C. Remote sensing
D. Geomatics
E. Geodetics
Feedback
An orthophoto, orthophotograph or orthoimage is an aerial photograph geometrically
corrected ("orthorectified") such that the scale is uniform: the photo has the same lack of
distortion as a map.(Source: Wikipedia)
4) Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?
A. Political - administrative boundaries
B. NPAAAD map
C. Slope map
D. Forest cover map
5) This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is dominated
by broad-leaf trees which form thick canopy thus allowing little sunlight on the forest
floor, and includes much-prized hardwood species such as red lauan, white lauan,
red narra, tanguile, tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong, kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
A. Dipterocarp Forest
B. Deciduous Forest
C. Coniferous or 'Pine' Forest
D. Tropical Scrub Forest
E. Mossy Forest
F. Sub-marginal Forest
G. Mangrove Forest
H. Ever-green Forest
6) An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning
but before the detailed layout of location, and aims to characterize and design a
parcel of land or specific section of town so that it can function effectively in
relation to the complexity and scale of proposed development and the range of land
uses around it.
A. Estate Planning
B. Wards and Precincts Planning
C. Parcellary Planning
D. Site Planning
E. Project Planning
7) All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve.
A. Permanent Forest
B. Critical River Watershed
C. Mangrove Forest
D. Military and Civil Reservations

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8) An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more
A. Base maps
B. Thematic maps
C. Aspect maps
D. Choropleth maps
9) This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
A. Technocracy
B. Shepherding
C. Protectionism
D. Championing
E. Stewardship
10) These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can sustain
the productivity levels of crops in a given climatic region without adversely affecting
the immediate or adjoining environment.
A. Agro-industrial estate
B. Prime agricultural land
C. Alluvial fans
D. Icefields or mud paddies
11) It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that are
used to organize, store, process, analyze and display multiple layers of spatially-
referenced information about geographically located features.
A. Geodesy and Geodetics
B. Global Positioning System
C. Electronic Cadastral System
D. Geographic Information System
12) Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial
analysis was done manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the same
scale, principally to determine
A. Geohazards and physical constraints
B. Areas that are ideal for urban development
C. Critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
D. All of the choices
13) This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to
present and potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, and direct their use
and development.
A. Wards & Precincts Planning
B. Subdivision Plats
C. Land Allocation and Apportionment
D. Zoning
14) This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution
to the amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for adventure
recreation or passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves as protection
buffer around sensitive areas and hazardous installations.
A. Wilderness
B. Tourism & Recreation Zone

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 C. Rangeland
D. Open Space
15) In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing
point and line data by means of x,y,z geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of
line segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space.
A. Vector
B. Raster
C. Curvature
D. Field
E. Node
16) In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature by
conserving natural resources.
A. Interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for
wildlife
B. Delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland
C. Encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the
municipality
D. Create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of
the city/town
17) Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening
Program as DA-DAR-DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings should
each government employee plant each year, a requirement that also applies to
students identified by DEPED and CHED?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
E. 35
18) This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including
statements about community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of
resource uses. These are illustrated by maps,diagrams,charts,tables that show a
coherent spatial framework for environment protection, economic production,
settlements, and infrastructure.
A. Charrette
B. Chatroulette
C. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
D. Strategic Plan
E. Framework Plan
19) This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep
gradients at 50% or more, which perform vital ecological functions and must
therefore be kept perpetually in natural state and free from human intrusion.
A. Everlasting Forest
B. Permanent Forest
C. Virginal Forest
D. Primeval Forest

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20) Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable areas,
biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and endangered species- all set aside by
reason of their unique physical and biological significance, to be managed to
enhance biological diversity, and to be secured from destructive human
exploitation.
A. National Heritage Parks and Reservations
B. Resource Reserve
C. Ecological Zones
D. Protected Areas
21) Under RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a
chainsaw in a legal manner.
A. Has a subsisting timber license agreement, production sharing agreement, or a
private land timber permit
B. Is duly elected official of upland barangay
C. Is an orchard and fruit tree farmer
D. Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold
E. Is an industrial tree farmer
22) By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values,
'Planning Balance Sheet' is an 'extended' 'multiple-criteria' form of
A. Cost-revenue analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Cost-effectiveness analysis
D. Cost-estimate analysis
23) Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring "moratorium on the
cutting and harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the total
log ban until the year 2016?
A. Concessions signed by DENR secretary
B. Conversion of mangrove forests
C. Selective or rotational harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
D. Small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging,' and kaingin
24) According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data
and information on natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as
evaluated using various risk assessment and forecasting methodologies, and
evaluates environment quality and carrying capacity of an area in such a way that
enables planners and government decision-makers to anticipate the type of
development control necessary in the planning area.
A. Natural Resources Inventory
B. Environmental Accounting
C. Biogeographic Compendium
D. Eco-Profile
25) This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or city,
in particular the shape and form of the city blocks, the uses of public space, the
articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and visitors
alike can make high-quality connections between people, places and buildings.
A. Architectural Master Plan
B. Cityscape and Streetscape

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 C. Urban Design
D. Form and Style
E. Visual Panorama
26) Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?
A. Agro-industrial estate
B. Cropland
C. Orchard
D. Fishpond
E. Fishpen
27) Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?
A. Absorbs air pollution
B. Gives off oxygen
C. Cools the air as water transpires
D. Provides habitat to wild beasts
E. Provides shade with 1ess electricity required
F. Muffles noise and creates an island of peace
28) In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'social
sector'?
A. Education
B. Tourism
C. Health
D. Police Protective Services
E. Sports and Recreation
29) 'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate
A. Soil classes
B. Layers of vegetative cover
C. Demarcation lines
D. Elevation intervals
30) It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively
planned as a unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design
are rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation of
standards or their replacement with negotiated agreement between the developer
and the LGU.
A. Enterprise Zone
B. Sites and Services model
C. Zonal Improvement Program
D. Planned Unit Development
31) Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources and
their habitats" is numbered as
A. RA 9147
B. RA 9714
C. RA 4791
D. RA147􀀟
Feedback

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 RA 9147 is "Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act" (2001)
32) In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and
clay-silt fraction that would ensure good plant growth are
A. <50 cm and <80%
B. >100 cm and >80%
C. 50-100 cm and 40-80%
D. 10-50 cm and 10-40%
33) Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?
A. Residential
B. Institutional
C. Industrial
D. Mineral
34) What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?
A. Checklist of criteria
B. Linear programming
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Computer simulation
35) These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface
of the Earth; the First gives the location of a place above or below the equator,
expressed by angular measurements ranging from 0° at the equator to 90° at the
poles, while the Second gives the location of a place east or west of an upright line
called the prime meridian, and is measured in angles ranging from 0° at the prime
meridian to 180° at the International Date Line.
A. Landmass and ocean
B. Cartesian x,y, points
C. North pole & south pole
D. Latitude and longitude
36) A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream.
What characteristic of a drainage basin causes it to have an 'efficient' response to
rainfall?
A. Sloping topography in bowl-like formation
B. Permeable soils
C. Plasticity of clay bottom
D. Filtration by its wetlands
37) According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic
maps on top of each other to determine areas of convergence of certain features of
land contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular purpose, and conversely,
to eliminate or screen out areas that are not suitable for that purpose.
A. Thematic superimposition
B. Cartographic merging
C. Sieve analysis
D. Spatial modeling
38) In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the
'economic sector'?
A. Housing

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 B. Mining
C. ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
D. Mariculture
E. Small Scale Industries
39) This type of land regulation says that man-made structures should be of such
height,bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a
landmark (e.g. Rizal Monument ), natural landscape, or character of place
A. Design Aesthetics
B. Architectural Masterplan
C. Cultural Mapping
D. Form-Zoning
40) An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can be
separated or severed from ownership of land in a particular zoning district, then
sold or passed on to another property owner, and exercised in connection with the
development of land in some other part of the jurisdiction.
A. Market-based instrument
B. Commutation of Rights
C. Property Conversion
D. Transfer of Oeve!opment Rights
41) Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original state?
A. Forest land
B. Memorial park
C. Infrastructure land
D. Commercial
42) What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise') of 8
meters and is 160 meters long?
A. 8%
B. 7%
C. 6%
D. 5%
E. 4%
Feedback
slope= rise/run x 100
43) PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from the
banks of creeks, canals, and esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution 3 s.
1996, has expanded the easement for Metro Manila areas adjoining water bodies as
measured from the banks of Pasig River, tributary streams and the shoreline, to be at
least
A. 10 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 5 meters
44) A 'watershed' is principally a source of
A. Timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper
B. Charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants

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 C. Food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
D. Water for humans, animals, plants, and other species
45) PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40
meters from the hightide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of
mangroves or swamps along the coast with width of at least
A. 20 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 35 meters
E. 40 meters
46) In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
A. Even and smooth
B. Flat to gently sloping
C. Level to nearly level
D. Gently to moderately undulating
47) The recommended map scale for provinces is 1:50,000 while that for town/city CLUP
should be at least
A. 1 :200,000
B. 1:100,000
C. 1:25,000
D. 1:10,000
48) Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has the
least nutrient-holding capacity?
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Silt
D. Loam
E. Humus
49) This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and
proceeds by systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource use, choosing
that use which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and
programs, directed to the best use of land in view of accepted objectives, and of
environmental and societal opportunities and constraints.
A. Framework Planning
B. Strategic Planning
C. Land Use Planning
D. Development Planning
50) Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs comprising
lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a
claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/lPs, by themselves or through
their ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously up to the present."
A. Tribal land
B. Cultural heritage
C. Autonomous region
D. Ethnic realm

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 E. Ancestral domain

Questions # 5
1) This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads
and highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of
schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order to improve the
environment in built-up areas.
A. Reforestation
B. Miniature Forestry
C. Urban Forestry
D. Silvicuture
E. Agro-forestry
2) An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls,
sports stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers, is zoned as
A. C-1
B. C-2
C. C-3
D. Tourism zone
E. Financial District
Feedback
Reference: PD 1096 National Building Code
C-3 (Commercial Three or Metropolitan Commercial Zone) – means an area hosting a
metropolitan level of commercial use/ occupancy, characterized mainly as situated in a
medium-rise to high-rise building/ structure for high to very high intensity commercial/
trade, service and business activities e.g. large to very large shopping malls, very large
office or mixed use/ occupancy buildings and the like.
3) This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that
emanate from a center like rays of a star
A. Radial/axial/sectoral
B. Central & nodal
C. Multi-centric & poly-nodal
D. Concentric
E. Bi-polar & tri-polar
4) Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport
congestion?
A. Grid-iron or rectilinear
B. Circumferential & radial
C. Uni-linear or strip development
D. Irregular free pattern
5) Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and zoning
ordinance are obtained from
A. Office of the Mayor/ Local Chief Executive
B. Planning Commission or Planning & Dev't Office
C. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
D. Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian

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6) Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in the
Philippines?
A. Presence of natural resources
B. Physical boundary
C. Availability of labor
D. Existing infrastructure and utilities
E. Logistics or efficient movement of goods and products
7) UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land
(residential, commercial, industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farmland need to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban land is needed for a town of
22,000?
A. 62.7 hectares
B. 125.4 hectares
C. 220 hectares
D. 11.4 hectares
Feedback
Soln:
5.7 has.(urban land only) x 22=125.4 hectares
8) All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used in
land use allocation?
A. Land Use Accounting
B. Scenario Analysis
C. Life Cycle Analysis
D. Spatial Modeling
9) Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy
industrial use?
A. Load-bearing capacity
B. Location
C. Slope
D. Soil characteristics
10) 'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic
sprawl' by means of
A. Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
B. Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
C. Residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
D. Interconnected modes of transport
E. Compact development through infill in􀀟
F. All of the choices
11) Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a landmark
while Divisoria would be termed as
A. Flea Market
B. Icon
C. District
D. Nodule
E. Transshipment

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12) This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related
guidelines and standards to guide the formulation of long-term framework plans
and particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances.
A. Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan
B. Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan
C. National Framework for Physical Planning
D. Regional Physical Framework Plan
13) A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the
'right of reverter' is called
A. Restrictive covenants
B. Telluric
C. Deed of sale
D. Monolithic
14) HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for
an independent chartered city of 200,000 people?
A. 200 hectares
B. 400 hectares
C. 500 hectares
D. 2,500 hectares
Feedback
Soln:
2.5 has every 1000 people
2.5 x 200= 500 hectares
15) In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted
from total, except one.
A. Environmentally critical areas
B. Grasslands and idle lands
C. High-risk geohazard zones
D. Military and civil reservations
16) A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively
developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and
business, inorder to ease pressure on· traditional center, and is an example of
A. Simple Dispersion
B. Concentrated Dispersion
C. Simple Concentration
D. Compact Development
17) Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the creative
physical arrangement of space- using activities used to influence the shape,
direction, and intensity of the built environment so as to preserve and conserve the
unbuilt environment.

A. City Image
B. City Metaphor
C. Spatial Modeling

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 D. Urban Form
E. Urban Template
18) When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which
consideration is first and foremost from the perspective of the approving authority?
A. Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition
B. Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
C. Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
D. Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus
shuttles, executives' luxury cars
E. Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government
Unit
F. Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
19) 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural
resource-based environmental problems to urban-based man-made environmental
problems. Which of the following NFPP measures pertains to development control
and urban growth management (UGBs)?
A. Delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion
B. Identify and manage environmentally critical areas
C. Match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service
capacities of infrastructure
D. Encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use,
pedestrianization and cultural/ historical preservation in large urban centers
20) An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per hectare or
below. with majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or more, is
zoned as·
A. R-1
B. R-2
C. R-3
D. R-4
E. Mixed Use Zone
21) In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase overall land
supply for planning, except one.
A. Reclamation of coastal area
B. Infill and densification
C. Urban renewal and redevelopment
D. NPAAAD
22) Which the following indicates good site planning?
A. Best orientation to sun, sea and wind
B. Congruence and compability with its surrounding
C. Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
D. Maximized space
E. Efficient circulation
F. All of the choices
23) What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?
A. Black

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 B. Gray
C. Violet
D. Yellow
Feedback
I1-Z, I2-Z, I3-Z
Violet (150,0,200)
Reference: HLURB CLUP Vol.3 Annex 1
24) Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati
and Ortigas Center?
A. Landmark
B. Cosmopolitan
C. District
D. Downtown
E. Estate
25) Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive
Development Plan?
A. Urban morphology and physiognomy
B. Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall
vision, goals, objectives
C. Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
D. Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring
system
26) In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030,
"Settlements","Production","Protection," and "Infrastructure" are discussed as
A. Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit
B. Land Use Zones that exclude one another
C. Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at
the local level
D. Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
27) What are the elements of 'urban form'?
A. Infill, densification, property conversion, retro-fitting
B. Vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear
C. Beauty, amenity, safety, convenience, functionality
D. Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
28) What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDIP
are budgeted and re:eased yearly?
A. Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)
B. Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
C. Annual Investment Plan
D. PBBS
E. Memorandum of Undertaking
F. Program of Work and Expenditure Plan
29) The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site
is known as:
A. Gross Leasable Area

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 B. Buildable Site Formula
C. Floor Area Ratio
D. Location Quotient
30) What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?
A. Brown
B. Beige
C. Blue
D. Maroon
Feedback
General I-Z, Special I-Z
Blue (0,0,255)
Reference: HLURB CLUP Vol.3 Annex 1
31) A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants property
owner relief from certain provisions of ordinance because the application of the same
would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
A. Exceptionality
B. Certificate of Non-Conformance
C. Quasi-judicial relief
D. Variance
32) What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to
implement their local plans?
A. Clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits
B. Condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover
of property
C. Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment,
incentives to private investment
D. Levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs
33) Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
A. Identify stakeholders and analyze the situation
B. Develop a detailed organizational management profile
C. Formulate goals and translate them into strategies
D. Anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
E. Identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
F. Involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
34) If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32
signatures needed to thoroughly develop a parcel of non-agricultural land, whose
signature is needed for the issuance of a development permit?
A. Planning Consultant
B. Real Estate Broker
C. Natural Scientist
D. Head Local Planner
E. Legislator-Sponsor
35) What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-LPG
gas depository?
A. Transport terminals

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 B. Commercial
C. BPO call centers
D. Open space
E. Hospitals
36) Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?
A. Cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
B. Usable open space
C. Complementarity of building types
D. Preservation of significant natural land features
37) A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000 sq.m.
What is the FAR?
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 4:1
D. 5:1
E. 6:1
Feedback
Soln:
6 storeys x 1000 sq.m.=6000 sq.m./2000 sq.m.= 3
38) Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal
issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other
uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
A. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered
cities
B. 20% of total arable land in any LGU
C. 10% of total cultivable land in any city
D. 25% of total alienable and disposable land
39) An example of positive easement is one that
A. Preserves a certain habitat
B. Protects a certain stream
C. Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
D. Stipulates not to drain a wetland
40) Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled
as 'very high density'?
A. 2 and above
B. 3 and above
C. 4 and above
D. 5 and above
41) According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where
residents and visitors can use a 'cognitive image' or 'mental map' of the city as they
navigate through the territory in the process of 'wayfinding·. He identified the
elements of legibility of place as:
A. Circumferentials, arterials, radials, crossroads
B. Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, junctions
C. Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, anci promenades

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 D. Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
42) This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of land to
deviate from the district or zone regulations for reasons not found in the officially-
approved CLUP.
A. Flexible zoning
B. Mixed use zoning
C. Euclidean zoning
D. Spot zoning
E. Optional zoning
43) Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential
condominiums, offices, gyms, shops and boutiques should be properly located in -
A. General residential zone R-1
B. Commercial zone C-3
C. Tourism recreational zone
D. Special economic zone
44) The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU,
except one.
A. Indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water
Management
B. Part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National
Development Plan
C. Among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial
dispersal & decentralization of development
D. already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916
45) What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at
least 5 m on both sides from the line?
A. Aqueduct or tunnel
B. Floodway
C. Venice-like canals
D. Open space or farm
E. Wildlife refuge
46) Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property be
from the banks of rivers, streams and waterways in a rural farming area?
A. 5 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 100 meters
Feedback
PD 1067 Chapter 4 Article 51 (Water Code of the Philippines)
The banks of rivers and streams and the shores of the seas and lakes throughout their
entire length and within a zone of three (3) meters in urban areas, twenty (20) meters in
agricultural areas and forty (40) meters in forest areas, along their margins are subject to
the easement of public use in the interest of recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing and
salvage. No person shall be allowed to stay in this zone longer than what is necessary for
recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing or salvage or to build structures of any kind.

Page 42 of 130
47) UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to
educational space (public and private) per thousand population. How much
combined area of schools is the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?
A. 40 hectares
B. 24 hectares
C. 10 hectares
D. 240 hectares
Feedback
Soln:
0.6 has. every 1000 people
0.6 has. x 40= 24 hectares
48) What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Purple
D. Fuchsia
Feedback
T-Z
Orange (255,153,0)
Reference: HLURB CLUP Vol.3 Annex 1
49) Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than
10 heads of swine should be properly located in
A. General residential zone (R-1)
B. Slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone
C. Agro-industrial zone
D. Rangeland and pastureland
50) One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical
Planning 2001-2030' is the utilization of the country's land and water resources in
a manner that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos of the
present and future generations through local production and/or importation.
A. "Green Revolution"
B. "Agricultural Development"
C. "Food Security"
D. "Self-Sufficiency in Grains"

Questions # 6
1) Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land in
component cities and to first to third class municipalities shall be limited to:
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 5%
2) Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthus'
theory that states
A. Population grows geometrically while food supply grows arithmetically

Page 43 of 130
 B. Population grows arithmetically while food supply grows geometrically
C. Population and food grows geometrically
D. Population and food grows arithmetically
3) Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering
A. The cost of marketing and advertising
B. Labor wages
C. The cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the
market
D. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers
4) A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:
A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
B. Zoning Ordinance
C. Cadastral Survey
D. Tax Declaration
5) This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and other
built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas and
whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural activities:
A. Central business district
B. Urban area
C. City center
D. Suburban area
6) Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial
Development (NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper planning of
sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the identification of
24 suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets without creating
irreversible environmental and human health problems.
A. The watershed areas
B. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
C. Integrated Area Development
D. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone
7) Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component cities and
municipalities can only take effect approval and authentication by the:
A. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
B. HLURB
C. Local Zoning Review Committee
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA)
8) The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
9) This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustrations
and diagrams which describes what the community wants to become and how it

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 wants to develop. It is essentially composed of community goals, objectives, policies,
programs and physical development plan which
translates the various sectoral plan:
A. Land Use Plan
B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan
10) The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss treatise
is entitled:
A. Culture and Cities
B. Cities and Culture
C. The Cities of Culture
D. The Culture of the Cities
11) A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the approved
zone of the area for certain reason is called:
A. Spot zoning
B. Flexible zoning
C. Euclidean zoning
D. Large lot zoning
12) What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none
13) Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
A. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and
natural resources therein
B. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by
communities for 5 years before the designation of the same as protected areas
in accordance with the NIPAS Act.
C. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the
environment adapt to modern technology at their pace
D. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult
access.
14) What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none
15) What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?
A. Sieve Mapping
B. Area Ecological Profiling

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 C. Land Use Accounting
D. Critical and urgent
E. None of the choices
F. All of the choices except none
16) Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legal
issuances, e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ
areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to:
A. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities
B. 10% of total arable lands in any town
C. 5% of total arable land in any city
D. All of the above
17) What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of component cities and
municipalities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none
18) What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none
19) The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be followed is
called.
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
20) What technique is useful for determining strategies?
A. Situational analysis
B. SWOT analysis
C. Land use survey
D. Critical and urgent
E. None of the choices
F. All of the choices except none
21) What is zoning?
A. It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional land uses of
land may be allowed or regulated on accordance with the development plan.
B. It is a tool to implement the development plan
C. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition
D. None of the choices
22) The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:

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 A. RA 10587
B. PD 1517
C. PD 957
D. None of the above
23) This law provides for the establishment and management of National Integrated
Protection Areas System:
A. RA 8371
B. RA 7586
C. RA 7279
D. None of the above
24) Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured from
the:
A. Zoning Administrator/Officer
B. Municipal Mayor
C. Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
25) The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development
plains initiated by their development councils and approved by their Sanggunian is:
A. PD 399
B. Executive Order No.72
C. RA 7160
D. PD 1517
26) Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental protection?
A. Constitution
B. PD 1151
C. All of the choices except none
D. None of the Choices
27) The advocates of the systems view planning do not include one of the following:
A. G. Wilson
B. George Chadwick
C. J.B. McLoughlin
D. Stuart Chapin
E. Andreas Faludi
28) What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)
A. Environmentally critical projects
B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
C. Gold courses, major roads and bridges, infrastructure
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of he choices
29) As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, the required
easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas and lakes is:
A. 3 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters

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 D. 100 meters
30) What is the highest planning body at the regional level?
A. NEDA
B. The Regional Development Council
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none
31) What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?
A. Environmentally critical projects
B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
C. All of the choices except none
D. None of the choices
32) The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical
and within the scope of the EIS system:
A. PD 1586
B. Proclamation No. 2146
C. PD 1152
D. DAO 96-37
33) Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting public
hearings for the purpose, shall be limited to:
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
34) A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:
A. Technical feasibility
B. Socio-economical and financial possibility
C. Political viability
D. Administrative operability
E. All of the choices
35) In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base Multiplier expressed in
terms of employment indicates:
A. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created
in an industry
B. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created
in the entire country
C. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs
created in the entire region
D. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of
jobs created in an industry.
36) What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB

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 D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none
37) Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the
National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative, public
order and safety operations
A. Internal Revenue Allotments
B. Budgetary Allocation
C. Local Development Allotment
D. LGU Budgetary Allotment
38) A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a Zoning
ordinance where, because of the specific use would result In a particular hardship
to the owner.
A. Variance
B. Certificate of Non- Conformance
C. Exception
D. Development
39) What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparing their own
comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
A. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans
B. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans
C. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of the choices
40) What are the legal basis for the state's regulation of land use?
A. Police power
B. Laws against nuisance and pollution
C. The policy that property has social function
D. The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person
41) The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning
groups for the purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is
called:
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scooping
42) RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997 strives to
provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development of a highly
modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines. Under AFMA, one of
the following has been d-prioritized
A. Identification and establishment of model farm
B. On-farm production enhancement technologies
C. Small-scale irrigation systems
D. Research, development and training facilities
43) The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of educational
institutions offering courses in environment planning is the responsibility of the :

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 A. Commission on Higher Education
B. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
C. Board of Environmental Planning
D. School of Urban and Regional Planning
44) What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land Use
Regulatory Board?
A. EO 949
B. EO 90
C. PD 933
D. PD 957
45) The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands of the public domain in four
categories. Name the one that is not among four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
46) What are the tools for plan implementation?
A. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain
B. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
C. Zoning ordinance, local investment
D. Urban land reform
47) A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association may engage on
the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines, provided that:
A. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be
registered environmental planners
B. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered
environmental planners
C. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and
75% of the capitalization is owned by them
D. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by
registered environmental planners
48) Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be
A. Close to large market
B. Close to a major transportation hub
C. Avail of urban services and facilities
D. All of the choices
49) Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic option
A. Sustainability
B. Feasibility
C. Desirability
D. Critical and urgent
E. None of the choices
F. All of the choices except none

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50) A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certain
provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical
surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with
height, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in particular hardship upon
the owner is called:
A. Certified of Non-Conformance
B. Exception
C. Variance
D. None of the choieces

Questions # 11
1) Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA
of a major Sanitary Landfill for any city or urban LGU?
A. Around 20 kilometers from the city
B. Has an in-take capacity of 6 years only
C. About 100 meters from a river used for water supply
D. About 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
2) A part of BOT, it is a contractual arrangement whereby the supplier of equipment
and machinery for a given infrastructure facility, if the interest of the Government so
requires, operates the facility providing in the process technology transfer and
training to Filipino nationals .
A. Purchase and activate
B. Supply and operate
C. Canvass, Procure and Install
D. PBAC - prequalify, bid-out and award
3) It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of
implementing a project or undertaking and then designing appropriate preventive,
protective, mitigating, and enhancement measures.
A. Environmental Risk Assessment
B. Environmental Impact Assessment
C. Environmental Accounting and Audit
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment
4) A Highly-Urbanized City (HUG) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its
CLUP-ZO for an approved budget of contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies
participated in open bidding. In the BAC evaluation of technical proposals, Company
A got 89 points, Company B earned 64 points, Company C, 78 points, and Company
D, 42 points as the last company missed out on the required GIS-RS component.
After technical examination, the sealed financial proposals were opened and the bid
amounts were revealed as follows: Company A = 6.3 million; Company B = 6.2
million; Company C = 5.9 million; and Company D = 4.5 million. Overall, which
company offered the "most
responsive bid" or "lowest calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice
of Award of Contract from the head of agency.
A. Company A
B. Company B
C. Company C

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 D. Company D
Feedback
RA9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002 Art.10 Sec. 34.
Interpretation: 6 Million Contract
Company A =89 pts (Highest Rated Bid=OK)/6.8M (Bid exceed=DQ); Company B= 64
pts/6.2M (Bid exceed=DQ); Company C= 78pts(Rate OK)/5.9M (Bid OK); Company D= 42
pts (requirement not met=DQ)/ 4.2 M (Lowest Calculated Bid=OK)
Therefore, Project to be awarded to Company C for not having DQs.
5) Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?
A. Falsely injures the practice of other environmental planners
B. Provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
C. Affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise
D. Enters competitions where s/he has direct involvement in program formulation
E. All of the above
6) What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking
Certificate of Non-Coverage?
A. Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed,
Loans to be contracted, Expected ROI
B. Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives,
Manpower Requirements, Cost, Duration & Schedule
C. Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management.
and Marketing
D. Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements,
Participating Entitites
7) In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions
and no suppliers have qualified to participate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the
local chief executive with the approval of the Sanggunian may undertake
procurement of supplies and services without public bidding through:
A. Selective bidding or limited source bidding
B. Negotiated procurement
C. Single source procurement or direct contracting
D. Competitive bidding
8) Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question, which of the following
should not chair the Bids and Awards Committee?
A. Chief of Administrative Division
B. Audio-Visual Technician
C. Head of Engineering Section
D. Planning Officer V
9) A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of
chemical nutrients in a waterbody would be an example of
A. Osmosis
B. Hypoalimentation
C. Eutrophication
D. Fertilization
E. Denitrofication

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10) The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except
one:
A. Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal
B. Ring Dike - Circumferential around Laguna de Bay
C. Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City
D. Perimeter work on centuries-old Plaza Miranda
11) Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978,
"Regulating the Practice of Environmental Planning in the Philippines"?

A. Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto

Ave., Manila
B. Engaging in the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without
having been registered
C. Assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the
impression that he is an environmental planner without holding a valid certificate
of registration
D. Environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
12) A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of
construction of a given infrastructure or development facility and after its
completion turns it over to the government agency or local government unit
concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total
investments expended on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon.
A. Build and transfer
B. Build, own and operate
C. Build, transfer and operate
D. Develop, operate and transfer
Feedback
Reference: RA7188 (BOT Law) Sec.2c
13) According .to RA 9003, which three 'environmentally sensitive resources' should a
Sanitary Landfill be most concerned about?
A. Bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats
B. Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area
C. Flora, fauna, and biota
D. Landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
14) According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines,
Sec.11, the "primary obligation of the Environmental Planner is to"
A. Contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and
improving knowledge.
B. Strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
C. Develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and
other professionals
D. Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
E. Maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble
undertaking.
15) Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?

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 A. Voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your
consulting services
B. Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed
when previously employed in the private sector
C. Accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors' and sponsors'
area of a planners' convention
D. Reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work
experience in a job originally occupied by you.
16) Which project in a declared tribal land does not require a full-blown Environmental
Impact Assessment?
A. Mining
B. Dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power
C. Sericulture & vermi-composting
D. National highway
17) If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of 'thermal
pollution', the immediate result will most likely be
A. An increase in the sewage content of the lake
B. A decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake
C. An increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake
D. A decrease in the amount of phospates in the lake
18) Which of the following is most useful in an EIA study?
A. Performance standards
B. 'LOS' or 'accommodation' standards
C. Design standards
D. Convenience standards
19) The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of
potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to toxic and hazardous
materials, compounds, and substances is called
A. Chemical Containment and Control
B. Toxic Prevention Protocol
C. Environmental Risk Assessment
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment
20) Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact
Statement?
A. Tree planting on urban parks by 6,000 students
B. High-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area
for golf course
C. Rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares
D. Hydroponic and aeroponic farming inside greenhouse tents and cages
21) What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract?
A. Surety
B. Assurance
C. Performance
D. Warranty
E. Reparation

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22) You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Which of the
following does NOT constitute a conflict of interest?
A. Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm
B. Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning
Appeals and Adjustment
C. Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit
stand in Farmers' Market
D. Processing a rezoning application of your own property
23) As in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or
negotiated contract at the national level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the
approving government body is
A. Cabinet of the President
B. Council of State
C. Investment Coordination Committee
D. NEDA Board
24) Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination
(IEE) by DEN R's regional field units?
A. 30 sq.m. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national
park
B. 5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba
swamps, Pampanga
C. Six-classroom extension of an existing public elementary school
D. Beach house measuring 400 sq.m near world-famous Pagudpud, Ilocos Norte
25) Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at
the village level?
A. Sangguniang Barangay
B. Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook
C. Federation of Village Neighborhood and Homeowners Associations
D. Barangay Development Council
Feedback
Reference: RA 7160 Sec. 107b
Barangay Development Council is composed of members of Sangguniang Barangay,
Representative of Congressman, Representative or NGOs operating in the Barangay not
less than 1/4 of the members of the Council.
26) Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most
preferred manner of government procurement of goods and services?
A. Selective bidding or limited source bidding
B. Negotiated procurement
C. Single source procurement or direct contracting
D. Competitive bidding
27) Which would not be a priority for EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-
cement production complex?
A. Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats,
heritage sites, and endangered species
B. Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial
wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes

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 C. Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities
D. Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training
28) Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental remediation'?
A. A species of trout becomes extinct in a eutrophic lake.
B. The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.
C. The height of a factory smokestack is increased.
D. PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated
with PCBs.
E. A parcel of forest land is declared a state park.
29) The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one.
A. Manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles
B. Assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices,
appliances, and appurtenances
C. Manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac,
coating materials
D. Manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts,
shoes, and sandals
E. Publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, flyers, receipts, greeting
cards, social communications
30) This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also
serves as drop-off center for sorted wastes, composting center, and processing
center to consolidate segregated recyclables for remanufacturing.
A. Barangay Waste Recycling Center
B. Community Junk Shop
C. Waste Exchange Facility
D. Materials Recovery Facility
31) According to RA 9003, segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-
biodegradable should be done
A. At the factory level
B. At source
C. At the end of production/consumption
D. At the option of family concerned
32) Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planner's
responsibility to his/her private client?
A. Do not plagiarize.
B. Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
C. Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
D. Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly
kept restricted by concerned party
E. When in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals
with participants.
33) According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the 'additives' to
gasoline that are harmful to both people and nature?
A. Methyl tertiary butyl ether
B. Isooctane and heptane

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 C. Molybdenum oxide
D. tetraethyl
34) As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level
with value between PhP 200M- 300M has to be approved by what government
body?
A. Local Development Council
B. Regional Development Council
C. Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster
D. Investment Coordination Committee
35) All of these projects, except one, need not submit Project Description, or
Environmental Impact Statement but need only to comply with registration and
documentary requirements of city, town or barangay.
A. Municipal waterworks system
B. Sari-sari or neighborhood variety store
C. Backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
D. Private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees
36) In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting company, the following
ethical principles apply except one.
A. A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with
his/her profession.
B. A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely
on the planner's professional fitness
C. A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.
D. A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of
present actions.
37) Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all
major projects are subject to IEE
A. Tubattaha Reef
B. Chocolate Hills
C. Mount Banahaw
D. Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms
38) Which category of industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and non-hazardous'?
A. Transient and fleeting
B. Light
C. Cyber-spatial
D. Medium
E. Heavy
39) The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a
guarantee of good faith on his/her part to execute the contracted work in
accordance with the terms of the approved contract.
A. Insurance
B. Collateral
C. Performance Bond
D. Retention or Retained Earnings
E. Surety Bond

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 F. Completion Guarantee
40) Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered
environmental planners should have
A. At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by
registered environmental planners
B. At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by
registered environmental planners
C. The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization
D. 60%-40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.
Feedback
Reference: PD1308 Sec.20a
41) You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded
spouse runs the recreational Country Club and applies for a permit to construct an
Olympic size swimming pool that would utilize water from a public spring. What is the
most rational action for you to do?
A. Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application
B. Ask for job transfer or reassignment
C. Just keep quiet about it.
D. File for divorce.
42) A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a
paid consultant in a matter not pertaining to your employer's jurisdiction. You would
work only on your off-days and holidays. You should
A. Report the housing developer for unethical behavior
B. Make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor
C. Decline the offer
D. Keep quiet about it
43) In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for
supplies and services is exceptionally urgent or absolutely indispensable and in order
to prevent imminent danger to, or loss of, life or property, LGUs may make emergency
purchases or place repair orders, without open public bidding, provided
A. Public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be
endangered if contracts are rescinded, abandoned, terminated, or not taken
over,
B. It is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by
at least three pre-selected suppliers kept in the database of the government
agency as having reliable, positive track record
C. Amount is within the range of 50,000-250,000 or even higher according to
ceilings previously approved by the Government Procurement Policy Board
D. Goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government
agency under LOI 755 and E0359
E. All of the choices
44) What are the basic elements of an EIA study?
A. Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect, Financial Aspect, Economic
Aspect, and Institutional Aspect
B. Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis
of Data, Conclusions, Recommendations

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 C. Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact,
Spatial Extant. Duration, and Complexity
D. Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions,
Post Implementation
45) These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to
submit a simple Project Description.
A. An urban grocery store of around 2,500 sq.m. total area
B. Cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic lntramuros,
Manila
C. Palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers' cooperative
D. Home-based aquaculture using drums, metal tanks, and concrete ponds
Feedback
as per PD2146, B. Environmental Critical Areas, No. 2 & 4.
Keyword = "Historic"
46) Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec 5i, government may hire
Consulting Services for the following functions, broadly matching the competencies
of Registered EnPs. For which function are Environmental Planners generally least
prepared?
A. Advisory and review services
B. Pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies
C. Design
D. Construction supervision
E. Management-related service􀀟 and technical services
47) Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks,
policies, and regulatory regimes more substantively than project impacts and activity
outcomes?
A. Environmental Risk Assessment
B. Environmental Impact Assessment
C. Environmental Accounting and Audit
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment
48) RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous
and and toxic fumes, but with a few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation
and incineration of pathological, biological, contagious wastes?
A. Bureau of Fire Protection
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Philippine Hospitals Association
D. Department of Health
49) This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private
sector in infrastructure development and management through joint venture
schemes such as BOT, BTO, BLT, BOO, and the like.
A. GO-NGO Cooptation
B. Rapprochement
C. Detente
D. Public-Private Partnership
E. State & Non-State Collaboration

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50) Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and
Awards Committee with five to seven members has to be headed by
A. Chief of procuring entity
B. Resident Ombudsman
C. Resident auditor detailed by COA
D. At least third ranking permanent official

Questions # 12
1) According to theorists of 'Social Development' and 'Sustainable Development,' what is
the relationship between the concepts of 'Growth' and 'Development'?
A. These two realities are essentially similar, hence, interchangeable in use
B. Growth refers to the entire macro-economy while development refers to people
and society
C. Growth is a pre-condition to development but not enough in itself; it is necessary
but not sufficient condition
D. Growth is merely quantitative while development is thoroughly qualitative
E. Growth is indicated by income and infrastructure, while development is indicated
by tranquility, peace and order
2) During the period 1565-1896, the urban control points designated by the Spanish
colonial government were the
A. alcaldias y pueblos
B. barrios y sitios
C. Haciendas y villas
D. cabeceras y poblaciones
3) The major objective of 'New Urbanism' movement identified with Jane Jacobs, Leon
Krier, Andres Duany, Elizabeth Plater-Zyberk, et al. is to
A. Rebuild the architectural fayade of old cities using post-modern methods and
technologies
B. Revitalize urban communities by creating centers' and by reviving traditional civic
values
C. Design gated subdivisions as urban collage and multi-ethnic tapestry
D. Integrate development of both urban and rural areas in order to save as much
farmland as possible
4) Which of the following valid critiques of Le Corbusier's (Charles Edouard Jeanneret)
modernist city design pertains to the so-called 'spatial paradox'?
A. Architectural determinism or the belief that physical design and visual
aesthetics are sufficient to address the basic problems of population.
B. Devoid of thorough studies on demographic, social, economic, and transport
aspects
C. Goal to decongest the city by increasing congestion at its core.
D. Rejection of historic precedents as inspiration for overall design
E. Lack of humanscale as uniform tall structures tend to be disorienting while
extremely-vast open spaces look inhospitable to humans
5) According to Dr. Ernesto Pernia (1983), the major blunder in Philippine economic
policy and industrialization strategy occurred in the latter period of American colonial
rule when

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 A. Free trade agreements with USA narrowed Philippine agricultural output to cash
crops for export such as sugar, tobacco, hemp, coconut, palm, rice, and timber.
B. Progress of Philippine agricultural regions was directly tied to fluctuations of
American market during Great Depression, instead of Filipino production being
responsive to domestic demand by inter1inking Philippine regions with one
another
C. Post-war' import substitution' policy beginning in 1947 focused on capital-
intensive urban consumer goods rather than on resource-based agro-
industrialization in provincial centers utilizing agricultural surplus
D. All of the choices
6) The following are the central questions of planning and management. Which
question seeks to determine efficacy or success of a chosen option or course of
action?
A. "where are we now?"
B. "where are we going?"
C. "where do we want to be?"
D. "how do we get there?"
E. ''what resources de we need to get there?"
F. "how do we know if it is working?"
7) Among the City Beautiful Movement planners, he was the earliest to articulate the
principles of urban design in "City Planning According to Artistic Principles" (1889)
A. Camilo Sitte
B. Lldefons Cerda
C. Lucio Costa
D. Oscar Niemeyer
E. William Burtey Griffin
8) At the start of 19th century industrialization in England before the emergence of
full-fledged professional planners, who were the earliest urban planning
practitioners who addressed city-wide problems including 'germ versus filth'
dilemma?
A. Microbiologists, biochemists, pharmacists
B. Shelter specialists, housing developers, contractors
C. Industrial engineers, machine engineers, civil engineers
D. Doctors, epidemiologists, sanitarians, public health
personnel
9) Public Lands Act of 1903 granted homesteads to 14 million Filipino families covering
5.3 million hectares, principally in
A. Negros Island
B. Palawan
C. Mindanao
D. Samar Island
10) In contrast to the environmentalism which highlights 'community' and
'communitarian' solutions, this type of environmentalism centers on respect for all
lifeforms in an atomistic or species-centered manner, such that humans would be
on equal moral footing with sentient animals like pets and non-sentient organisms
like plants, insects, etc.

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 A. Eco-centrism
B. Bio-centrism
C. Anthropo-centrism
D. Geo-centrism
11) Which of the following features does not describe the New Town concept of Clarence
Stein as showcased at Radbum, New Jersey; Columbia, Maryland; Greenbelt,
Maryland; Greenhills, Ohio; Greendale, Wisconsin; and Greenbrook NJ?
A. Huge manufacturing firm at the center
B. separation between pedestrian traffic and motor traffic
C. green spaces which are interconnected
D. Series of superblocks
E. Prior land assembly
F. Neighborhood clusters
12) A direct result of leapfrog' or 'checkerboard' development, this phenomenon
irreversibly converts rural space into urban space even before the populations
meant to use it could be present
A. Anticipatory Development
B. Premature Urbanization
C. Commercialization
D. Upscale Zoning
13) 2,500 'Cathedral Towns' during the Middle Ages 800-1440 AD showcased the
ascendancy of the Church in all affairs whether religious or secular, and these
medieval cities displayed the following physical characteristics except one:
A. Narrow, twisty, irregular street radiating from the main center (radiocentric)
B. Congestion was common; infrastructure for garbage and sewage was absent;
sanitation was poor;
C. Vulnerable to epidemics such as bubonic plague. cholera, typhoid fever, scarlet
fever, etc.
D. Loss of privacy due to overcrowding resulted in loose sexual morals of the
population
14) This refers to the unprecedented phenomenon occurring in megacities wherein the
rate of increase of local population overwhelms the natural 'carrying capacity' of
cities as ecosystems and outpaces the 'caring capacity' of city institutions in terms
of resources and personnel to address complex problems.
A. Metropolitanization
B. Conurbation
C. Hyper-Urbanization
D. False or Pseudo-Urbanization
15) Outside the walls of Medieval towns and cities, land was used collectively and
defined as follows: 'common of pasture,' 'common of turbary,' 'common of piscary,'
'common of estovers,' and 'common of soil.' Which one refers to everyone's right to
take fish, game, or fowl from communal land?
A. Common of pasture
B. Common of piscary
C. Common of soil

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 D. Common of turbary
16) Strategic Planning as described by Henry Mintzberg is called 'Innovative Planning'
for following reasons except one
A. because, as in strategies and tactics, a plan has to be calculating and even
Machiavellian
B. Because it seeks to introduce a novel goal, product, process, or pattern
C. Because it centers on organizational 'fitness' to create or shape change
D. Because it mobilizes the whole organization to move towards a new direction
17) Before the rise of 'scientific socialism' based on concept of class-struggle, 'normative
or Utopian socialism' based on Christian values was showcased by this philanthropist
in New Lanark, Scotland (1799) where excellent working conditions, decent housing,
and cheap services for the working class increased productivity and profit. Its founder
was later
acknowledged as the father of the cooperative movement.
A. Robert Owen
B. John Cadbury
C. James Buckingham
D. Sir Christopher Wren
18) In 1907, what university offered the first academic degree course in city planning
under its landscape architecture department, which program later spun of to
become the first ever school of planning in 1929.
A. Oxford University
B. Harvard University
C. Cambridge University
D. University of Heidelberg
19) Presidential Decree 824 on February 27, 1975 created the Metro Manila
Commission as the first ever structure of metropolitan governance in the Philippines
following the organizational model called
A. Annexation and Amalgamation (one-tier government)
B. Jurisdictional Fragmentation (Council of Local Governments)
C. Voluntary clustering and lnter-LGU cooperation
D. Functional Consolidation (two-tier metropolitan government)
20) The Torrens Title System which entrenched the concept of absolute private
ownership of land in the Philippines is a 7 legacy from what colonial period of
Philippine history?
A. Spanish
B. American
C. Japanese
D. British
21) According to Max Weber in The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism (1904),
what was the key factor in transition for mercantile economies controlled by
European monarchies to profit-driven individual enterprise or laissez faire?
A. endemic corruption in highly structured Catholic society made people less
imaginative and less entrepreneurial
B. Early Protestants generally emphasized hardwork, simplicity, thrift, discipline,
savings, & re-investment of savings

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 C. Royal treasuries went bankrupt due to Catholics' culture of excess, lavish
celebrations, overindulgence, etc.
D. Protestants work without the baggage of Seven Capital Sins such as greed,
avarice, envy, lust, gluttony, etc.
22) In what sense does 'professional planning' differ from 'generic,' 'common-sensical,'
or 'everyday' planning?
A. There is no difference because planning is 'ubiquitous' and can be done by
anyone, anytime, anywhere.
B. Professional planning has scope and goals that transcend one person ·or group
while generic planning is essentially action-planning on familiar problems with
much latitude for personal flexibility.
C. Professional planning examines only the "natural. environment" while Business
Planning considers both "policy environment" and "market environment."
D. Object of Professional Planning is "society and nature" while beneficiary of
everyday planning is 'oneself.'
23) Republic Act 2264 empowered LGUs to form local planning boards to craft their
development plans under the close guidance of national government agencies.
A. Local Governance and Planning Act of 1945
B. Local Autonomy Act of 1949
C. Decentralization and Devolution Act
D. Transparency and Accountability Standards Act
24) The following planners were most concerned about "human scale and the social
usage of urban space"
A. David Harvey, Manuel Castells, Ray Pahl
B. Jane Jacobs, Kevin Lynch, William H. Whyte
C. Robert Moses, William Levitt, Richard King Mellon
D. T J Kent, Edwin c. Banfield, Albert Z. Guttenberg
25) They are inveterate optimists who believe that "necessity is the mother of invention"
and hence they assert that all environmental problems can be solved by ever-
advancing science and technology, and limitless human knowledge.
A. Cornucopians
B. Soroptimists
C. Utopians
D. Dystopians
26) In causal order, which should come first in this series or chain of intertwined, multi-
dimensional problems?
A. Climate Change
B. Unmanaged Population Growth
C. Poverty
D. Land Use Changes
E. Pollution and Environmental Degradation
F. Carbon Footprint
27) Settlements in high-risk zones; buildings on natural wetlands; rivers and waterways
used as sewers; recurrent shortages of food, water and power; segments of idle

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 prime land pockmark the city center; lack of distinctive city image and coherent
urban form, all taken together, are manifestations of -
A. Population Explosion
B. Disaster Management
C. Splattered Development
D. Unmanaged Urbanization
28) Considered as the father of wildlife ecology, he advocated in 1948 a "personal land
ethic" for humans to become 'stewards of the land' and member-citizens of land-
community rather than its conquerors or dominators.
A. Karol Wojtyla or 'John Paul II'
B. Ralph Waldo Emerson
C. Henry Wright
D. Aldo Leopold
29) According to David Harvey and Ray Pahl, planning is less a means for urban renewal,
but more of "an agent of change and development in its own right, linked to
alternative theories of the city that seek to address poverty and inequality. Planners
should be regarded as creators of urban space, not merely value-neutral arbiters of
development proposals.
A. Critical/radical planning
B. Communicative planning
C. Liberal planning
D. Activist planning
30) "Sierra Club" is to John Muir, "Audubon Society" to John James Audubon, "Living
Earth" to Eugene Pleasants Odum, "Spaceship Earth" to Kenneth Boulding, and
"Gaia-Mother Earth" is to.
A. James Lovelock
B. Henry David Thoreau
C. Delfin Ganapin
D. Ame Naess
31) According to David Satterthwaite, 95% of deaths and serious injuries from major
disasters in the period 1950-2007 occurred in low-income to middle-income
countries, and 90% of these deaths happened to the poorest people. Which
conclusion is supported by this information?
A. Poverty which means low income and low education, is the major cause of
disaster
B. Countries in typhoon belts and Ring-of-Fire region of the world tend to be poor
because of frequent disasters
C. Poverty and its physical dimensions, i.e. location of homes and livelihoods,
increases people's vulnerability to disaster
D. The poorer a country, the higher the illiteracy rate, hence the less informed and
less prepared people tend to be.
32) 'Social Engineering' refers to
A. Designing and building social facilities and infrastructure for the public
B. Manipulating age, sex, ethnicity, and other demographic factors of social
groups
C. Implementing service-oriented social programs to marginalized social sectors

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 D. Changing values, mindsets, habits, and behaviors of people towards desired
societal goals
33) Except for one city below, 'Mercantile Cities' during the Renaissance period served as
trading ports for overseas commerce and played key role in the accumulation of gold
and silver by European monarchies and principalities.
A. Venice, Italy
B. Amsterdam, The Netherlands
C. Dortmund, Germany
D. Lisbon, Portugal
34) What theory of urbanization by RL Carneiro (1970) best explains 'Fortress Cities'
during the Dark Ages 476-800AD?
A. Urbanization was hastened by cultural exchange resu!ting from overland trade
caravans
B. People settled together around strategic places which could benefit from
maritime trade.
C. Strongman rule was necessitated in order to distribute water for irrigation
D. After the collapse of army-based imperial government, people had to
congregate in cities for better protection from plunderers and marauders.
35) Dr. Edward L Glaeser of Harvard University (1995, 2003) correlates 'urban
development with 'democratization' in the following observations. Which statement
pertains the most to so-called 'annihilation of space' in urban areas?
A. Information travels at high-speed in cities; transactions between producers and
consumers are faster; cities
practically eliminate the transport cost of moving ideas, goods, and people
B. Cities facilitate human contact and social connection; the demand for cities is
fueled by the demand for interaction
C. Because people in cities have high level of awareness, it is much harder for
rulers to be despotic or tyrannical
D. Ineffective governments find it much harder to ignore mass poverty & other
social problems in cities than in the countryside
E. Revolutions, labor uprisings, and riots are usually born and bred in cities
36) These are areas of less than 500 people per km2 whose inhabitants are primarily
engaged in agriculture or in extraction of raw materials, with dwellings which are
spaced widely apart and often with little or no services or utilities
A. Tribe
B. Purok
C. Provincial
D. Rural
E. Hamlet
37) Which principle of 'Sustainable Development' most directly supports the saying "Think
Global, Act Local."
A. Principle of Subsidiarity
B. Polluter Pays Principle
C. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
D. Duty to Care and Not Cause Environmental Hann

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38) A town is a tool for free man to overcome chaos and lack of order. A city is the grip
of man upon nature. Geometry is the means whereby we perceive the external
world and express the world within us. Geometry is the foundation. Machinery is the
result of geometry. The age in which we live is therefore essentially a geometric
one. Town Planning demands uniformity in detail and a sense of movement in
general layout ."
A. Gordon Cullen
B. Le Corbusier
C. Aldo Rossi
D. Thomas Sharp
E. Roy Worskett
39) The critique of 'New Urbanism' against so-called 'Gentrification' or upscaling of inner-
city neighborhoods was
A. The latter is more interested in new businesses than in community rebuilding;
hence soul-less and centerness
B. The latter leads to the exclusion of low-income groups
C. the latter does not create mixed communities of varied socio-economic &
demographic groups
D. All of the choices
40) According to Karl Wittfogel's 'Hydraulic Civilization' model of Urbanization (1957),
what would explain the emergence in Antiquity (40 00-200 BCE) of the earliest
cities also known as 'necropolis' and temple-towns?
A. Irrigation for farms revolutionized both economic production and social
organization as it resulted in food surplus. which necessitated large storage
warehouses in preparation for war or drought
B. Strongman rule was hastened by the need to distribute water for irrigation and
to ration food.
C. With abundant food, classes of non-farming workers emerged which eventually
led to "division of labor" and
"occupational specialization.·
D. City-building centered on immortalizing kings and heroes in godlike worship
through grandiose monuments, tombs, funeraries, pyramids, mausoleums,
shrines, altars, temples, ziggurats, obelisks, etc.
E. All of the above
41) These thinkers started the 'school of transactive planning' which later advocated the
radical /critical notion that planning should smash myths and mobilize people to
change structures of domination and subjugation in society.
A. Francis Stuart Chapin, George Chadwick, Rexford Tugwell
B. Norman Krumholtz, John Friedman
C. Paul Plumberg, Carole Paterman, Paul Bernstein
D. Charfes Lindbloom, Robert Dahl, Mel Webber
42) The milestone that marked the start of the Industrial Age in 1769 and changed the
primary mode of economic production was
A. Discovery of crude oil, coal, and gas fuels
B. Invention of steam engine as source of power
C. Invention of printing press to propagate scientific knowledge

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 D. Invention of trains, trams, and rail for faster movement of goods
43) Which school of thought maintains that planners should abandon their presumed
neutral stance and instead adopt the side of 'the poor and the disadvantaged' to
demand for corrective or remedial measures from the State and from the Market
through 'pressure from below' by way of conflict confrontation, creative mass actions
and backroom
negotiations?
A. Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning
B. Communicative Planning
C. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
D. Disjointed lncrementalism
44) Dr. William Rees coined this concept in 1992 to approximate the amount of
productive space, measured in terms of global hectare (gha) per capita, needed to
sustain a population which consumes food, water, energy, building materials, etc.
end requires the sink functions of Nature for human waste and pollution.
A. Land-population ratio
B. Consumer price index
C. index of environmental impact
D. Ecological footprint
45) He formulated the Basic Laws of Ecology in layman's vernacular (National
Geographic, 1970) as follows: "Nature knows best." "There is no such thing as a free
lunch." "Everything is connected to everything else." 'We can never do merely one
thing." "Everything goes somewhere." ''There's no 'away' to throw to."
A. John Holdren
B. Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr.
C. Dr. Barry Commoner
D. Dr. Eugene Pleasants Odum
46) The planner who said that survey is a requisite for planning in the famous
framework Survey-Analysis Plan was
A. Demogriphus
B. Herodotus
C. Geddes
D. Pericles
47) During the Spanish colonial period, there were four major forms of land tenure or
land holding. Which one refers to the right of a 'servant' of Spanish Crown to collect
tribute from residents of a territory without any ownership claim over that territory?
A. 'friar lands'
B. 'encomiendas'
C. 'haciendas'
D. 'townships'
48) The first grid-iron orthogonal street pattern in continental America was designed in
1682 by
A. William Penn for Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
B. Pierre Charles L'Enfant for Washington DC
C. Peter Minuit for Manhattan Island, New York

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 D. John Winthrop for Trimountaine, Boston Common
49) In 1954, Reorganization Plan 53-A of the Government Survey and Reorganization
Commission delineated regions
A. Nine -representing 9 rays of the sun in Philippine flag or 9 historic territories
which fought Spain
B. Eight -representing major ethno-linguistic groups
C. Four -representing major island-groupings plus Muslim territories
D. Six -representing possible component units of a federal system
50) Dr. Gideon Sjoberg (1933) claims that cultural exchange from overland trade and
commerce in pre-industrial ear fostered the formation of cities, as literate
individuals, craftsmen, and tool-makers came together to debate and test each
other's ideas. Competition among non-farming specialists gave birth to the
'scientific method' as well as to technological advances m plant cultivation and
animal breeding.
A. Acculturation and lnculturation
B. Socio-Cultural Theory of Urbanization
C. Diffusion of Technology Information
D. The Scientific Revolution

Questions # 13
1) Which statement about 'Land Capability' and 'Land Suitability' is true, based on
definition from US Department of Agriculture and United Nations Food and
Agriculture Organization?
A. 'Land Capability' refers to the 'carrying capacity' of land while 'Land Suitability'
refers to appropriateness of land for human use and habitation.
B. 'Land Capability' refers to appropriateness of land for engineering and physical
intervention while 'Land Suitability' refers to appropriateness for natural
production.
C. 'Land Capability' refers to the broadest uses of land for urban development while
'Land Suitability' refers to its fitness for rural development.
D. 'Land Capability' is the broad inherent capacity of land to perform at a given level
for general use, while 'Land Suitability' is the adaptability of a given land for a
specific kind of land use, usually farm crops.
2) If a firm subscribes to the Institutional Theory of firm location as shaped by neo-
liberal economics, the firm will logically consider which of the following factors the
least.
A. Costs of doing business (tax and non-tax costs including graft and corruption)
B. Stability of government and predictability of its policies (fair play, level-playing
field)
C. Peace and order and the physical safety of employees
D. Leisure opportunities such as golf courses and exclusive resorts for the
managerial elite and their families
3) In the SEPP, 'geology' covers subsurface conditions, seismic fault lines, bedrock, and
minerals while 'patterns of precipitation, temperature, humidity, and wind' are
discussed under
A. Atmospheric and Astro-physical Sciences

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 B. Hydrology
C. Climate
D. Agro-ecology
4) Which concern of regional planning pertains to institutional capacitation of focal
governments, and the appropriate distribution of authority among them?
A. spatial integration between urban and rural settlements
B. Complementation among agriculture, industry, other sectors
C. Balanced distribution of population
D. Federalism and decentralization of development
E. Equitable distribution of resources among places
F. Reduction of economic disparities among regions
5) According to M. White (1987), the more economically complex a city, the more varied
would be the number of high growth points, the more socially complex it becomes,
and the stronger is its tendency towards differentiation such as in the case of
residents segregating themselves into enclaves according to economic level, social
status, or ethnicity.
A. Bipolar Model
B. Palimpsest or Mosaic Model
C. Multiple Nuclei
D. Urban Land Nexus Theory
6) According to Ernesto Serote, the FAO formula for urban land allocation at 5.7
hectares per thousand population does not seem to be realistic in highly-urbanized
LGUs because of rapid pace of change, hence, to estimate urban land demand, this
method entails time-series comparison of aerial photographs supplemented by on-
foot survey of urban land.
A. Urban Density Method
B. Urban Occupancy Method
C. City Land Census
D. Floor Area Ratio
7) Not all megacities become 'world cities'. According to David Simon in World City
Hypothesis (1996), the following criteria determines how a city reaches Tier 1 status.
Which criterion is pursued as cities 'de-industrialize' by banishing dirty smokestack
industries from their territories in the contest to achieve "greater global
competitiveness"?
A. Existence of a sophisticated financial and service complex serving a global
clientele
B. Level of international networks of capital information and communication flows
C. large number of headquarters of international institutions
D. Quality of life conducive to attracting investors and retaining skilled international
migrants
8) In 1987, United States Supreme Court in the case· of Nollan versus California
Coastal Commission ruled against- California which required Nollan to dedicate a
public sidewalk easement across their beachfront property as a building permit
condition, thus the Court formulated a principle for governments regulatory action
that "land use restrictions must be tied directly to a specific public purpose."
A. Rough Proportionality

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 B. Calibrated Enforcement
C. Calculated Authority
D. Rational Nexus
9) The first State-wide land use plan in 1973 which defined Urban Growth Boundaries
(UGBs) that separated urban and rural areas in order to limit growth within serviced
areas and to preserve rural farmland for a timeframe of 20 years, took place in the
State of
A. Oregon
B. New York
C. California
D. Florida
10) 'Land Use' and 'Land Classification' are
A. The same
B. Mutually exclusive
C. 'Land Classification' is proper term for legal and bureaucratic transactions while
'Land Use' is used for basic environmental analysis.
D. 'Land Classification' is a scientific conceptual scheme while 'Land Use' refers
to actual utilization or consumption of land.
11) Under RA 917 4 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, jurisdiction over all
declared aquatic critical habitats, all aquatic resources, including but not limited to
all fishes, aquatic plants, invertebrates and all marine mammals, except dugong,
including protected coral reefs, fish sanctuaries, and marine reserves, belongs to
A. Philippine Coast Guard and Patrol Bantay Dagat
B. DENR Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
C. Department of Agriculture
D. Department of Science and Technology
12) The following are characteristics of a central business district. Which one increases
the LGU responsibility to safeguard the wellbeing of people, often beyond the
capacities of a single local authority?
A. Large concentration of office and retail activities;
B. Significantly large number of tertiary and service jobs generated
C. High price of land forces property-owners to build high
D. Large regular inflow and outflow of motorists; daytime population higher than
nighttime population
13) To conserve farm soils by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are
useful except one:
A. Use of coco-coir geotextile on erodible soils
B. Use of rows, furrows, ridges and ditches
C. Use of terraces and contours on sloping land
D. Use of soil compactors
E. Mulching and recycling of organic matter
F. Cover crops and shelterbelts against wind erosion
14) This refers to any large-scale master-planned development which includes housing,
work places, and related facilities within a self-contained setup, based on the
assumption that it can be built from zero, more or less.

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 A. Freiburg or Freetown
B. Borough
C. New Town
D. County Estate
E. Eco-Industrial Park
15) Which of those listed below is not a 'decision' map?
A. Physical constraints map
B. Geohazard map
C. Land suitability map
D. Natural drainage map (rivers and streams)
16) Central Place Theory was found faulty in assuming uniform topography, fiat
featureless terrain, ease of travel in all directions and ubiquity or all around
presence of economic resources, but its major strength lies in characterizing the
locational advantages of one place in relation to another, a geographic concept
called -
A. Surrounding
B. Standing
C. Situation
D. State
17) According to Raleigh Barlowe (1958), this refers to the most profitable use of land
when it yields optimum returns gen limited inputs; such returns can either be
monetary or non-monetary, tangible or intangible, based on the criteria and interest
of the person who makes such decisions.
A. Maximum Sustainable Rent
B. Maximum Sustainable Yield
C. Profit Maximization
D. Highest and Best Use
18) Which of the following maps display the 'critical facilities' of a city/town?
A. Map showing military camps, police stations, checkpoints, jails, prisons and
Stockades
B. Map showing sewer lines, canals, tunnels, and underground bunkers
C. Map showing roads, hospitals, food .warehouses, 4tility trunks for power,
water, and communication
D. Map showing possible evacuation places in schools, churches, gymnasium, and
covered courts
19) By plotting on a graph the economic benefits from agglomeration against the costs of
congestion and overconcentration, Leo Klaasen concluded that 'Optimum City Size' of
a viable city should be between
A. 20,000-190,000
B. 200,000 -600,000
C. 700,000-One million
D. One million -Two million
20) Presidential Decree 1559 defines this natural region used in ecosystem-based
planning as a relatively large area starting at the roof of mountain rivers and
encompassing tributaries, streams, and the land surface whose rainwater runoff

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 drams into a common, downstream point such as a lake, estuary, or coastal water
body.
A. Drainage Basin
B. Rainforest
C. Flood plain
D. Watershed
21) The twin strategy of 'concentrated decentralization' and 'industrial dispersal' to
correct urban primacy and inter-regional divergence in the Philippines was begun
under the administration of President
A. Carlos P. Garcia
B. Ferdinand E. Marcos
C. Corazon C. Aquino
D. Fidel V. Ramos
E. Gloria M. Arroyo
22) If Lands with slope between 18%-30% constitute 45% of total land area, those with
slope above 30% constitute 8%, what percent of Philippine gross land area is
generally described as 'alienable and disposable'?
A. Roughly 47%
B. roughly 53%
C. Roughly 43%
D. Roughly 57% %
23) According to economists Theodore Schultz, Jacob Mincer, and Gary S. Becker, this
collective term for people's embodied assets such as knowledge, skills, good health,
attitudes, and entrepreneurial qualities, determines how a local community or region
absorbs new technologies, expands productive capacity and generates own progress.
A. Seven Domains of Intelligence
B. Intellectual Quotient
C. Managerial Aptitude
D. Human Capital
24) In an output map of the computer-based system referred to in immediately-
preceding section, 'roads,' 'irrigation canals' and 'sewers' are represented in the
form called
A. Digital
B. Vector
C. Raster
D. Megapixel
E. Cellular automata
25) In preparing a site plan for hectare mixed use project in an urban area, which of
following maps is least useful at the needed scale of 1 : 1,000?
A. NAMRIA base map
B. LRA parcel map
C. Utilities map from LGU Engineer
D. Phivolcs geologic map
26) Cognitive processes which include perception, intuition, values and attitudes,
underlie locational behavior and these account for imperfect decisions, meaning

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 that industrial locators do not necessarily aim for the best possible setup to
maximize profit but can be content with 'sub-optimal', 'good-enough' but 'adequate'
decisions.
A. Cogitative Theory of Location
B. Behavioral Theory of Location
C. Urban Land Nexus Theory
D. Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Corporate Mergers)
27) According to Wilbur Richard Thompson (1965), once a city reaches a resident
population of 250.000, it attains L1 permanence. Certain city sections may suffer
decay and decline, but the city as a whole will survive because of sheer size and
strength of tertiary economy, inherent capacity to diversify, and its political weight vis-
a-vis other settlements.
A. Urban land Nexus
B. Urban Ratchet Theory
C. Urban Spiral Economy
D. Urban Force Momentum
28) George Zipfs Rank-Size Rule, "Pn=P1/N*** was derived from Christallers Central
Place Theory, and asserts that the population of city "n" is equal to the population of
the largest city "1" divided by the rank of "n" in the hierarchy of aces. If the largest
city in immediately preceding question had 2.6 million people in 2007 official
census, using Zipfs rule what should have been the population of Davao City if it
was ranked Number?
A. 520,000
B. 1,520,000
C. 1,300,000
D. 650,000
29) Under RA7916 Sec. 10, what is the minimum investment of a foreigner who can be
granted permanent resident status within a Philippine ecozone, together with spouse
and children below 21 years of age, who shall all have freedom of ingress and egress
to and from the Ecozone without any need of special authorization from the
Bureau of immigration?
A. US$ 150,000
B. US$ 300,000
C. US$ 1,000,000
D. US$ 2,000,000
30) Does the formula of George Zipf in the immediately preceding question match the
reality on the ground based on 2007 Official Census of the National Statistics
Office?
A. Yes
B. Partially
C. No
D. Depends on whether old Davao City or Metro Davao is being analyzed
31) Neo-classical Urban Bid-Rent theory provides the formula for Location Rent at center
of city as equal= to 'Rent Gradient'
times 'Radius' where 'Rent Gradient' is equal to 'transport cost per capita per year'
multiplied by 'density per sq.km'. If Pateros has a radius distance of 10.266 km from

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 the center of Metro Manila, with average density of= 29,495.24 persons per km.In
2009 and P15,330 transport cost per capita per year, what should be the location
rent per square meter in Pateros as periphery-town of Metro Manila? (clue: convert
sq.km to sq.m.)
A. 4,641 per m2
B. around 46,41 0 per m2
C. Around 464,100 per m2
D. Around 464.10 per m2
32) In 1978, American Institute of Planners (established 1917) and American Society of
Planning Officials (established 1934) combined to become the present-day
A. American Institute of Environmental Planning
B. Royal Institute of Town and County Planning
C. Planning Society of All-America
D. American Planning Association
33) The weakness of applying Central Place Theory in a simplistic way on the Philippines
is that
A. Unlike other countries, Philippines does not have compact land mass with
homogenous features
B. Archipelagic nature creates natural discontinuities that render movement &
economic exchange difficult
C. Spatial integration between urban and rural areas is impeded by poor transport
that inflates prices
D. All of the above
34) The taking of fishery species by passive or active gear for trade, business, or profit
beyond the level of subsistence fishing or sports fishing, utilizing marine vessels of
3.1 gross tons (GT) or more, is called
A. Municipal Fishing
B. Profitable Fishing
C. Entrepreneurial Fishing
D. Commercial Fishing
35) Anything that is available to rivals elsewhere is essentially nullified as a source of
competitive advantage, for a firms competitive edge lies in something very local -
innovation in strategy, innovation in know-how, in relationships, in motivation.
A. Dr. Michael Porter
B. Jacob A. Riis
C. Sir Peter Hall
D. Dr. Mark Gottdeiner
E. Hernando de Soto
36) In contrast to the long-term skeletal/circulatory framework, this is the overall
medium-term action plan utilized by every local administration to develop socio-
economic development projects and implement sectoral, cross-sectoral, and multi-
sectoral programs to be translated into public investment measures and incentives
to private investment.
A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
B. Blueprint
C. Comprehensive Development Plan

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 D. Master Plan
37) "Land use has to be planned for the community as a whole because the conservation
of soil, water, and other natural resources is often beyond the means of individual
land user"
A. True
B. False
C. True only for closed societies and socialist economies but not for free market
societies
D. Partially false because free market forces' always know better how to apportion
land
38) Based on 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, this is an area of
up to 200 nautical miles from a States Shore in which a State is given the sovereign
right to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage all natural resources as well as the
right to determine the total allowable catch (TAC) of living resources.
A. Territorial Sea
B. Sealanes and Maritime Fairways
C. Continental Shelf
D. Exclusive Economic Zone
39) Advancements in transportation and communication technologies have affected
many cities in such a way that information based production can be done by anyone,
anywhere at any time regardless of distance from city center. Which of the following
is the likely spatial form arising from these economic trends?
A. Cyber-city sends all dirty smokestack industries to remote regions.
B. CBD becomes an elongated corridor or spine following the lines of
telecommunications & electronic services
C. Suburban subdivisions form a belt-like edge or natural perimeter around the
mother city
D. Edge cities, office parks, and techno-poles develop in various parts of a complex
mother city
40) In Peirce Lewis' revision of the Ernest Burgess' monocentric model of urban land
use, which of the following describes the spatial decline of concentric cities least
effective.
A. The elite and their businesses leave the inner core due to pollution and
congestion.
B. Hollowing-out of the core results in the "donut shape"
C. Surrounded by the poor in the historic center, government increasingly
becomes captive to pressure groups
D. Land values rapidly fall in inner-city areas experiencing urban blight and urban
decay.
41) To conserve freshwater by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are
useful except one:
A. Sub-terranean drilling to interconnect deep-wells
B. Partially grassed waterways
C. mini-dams and dikes to slow down stream flow to the sea
D. Small water impounding projects (SWP)
E. Rainwater harvesting thru man-made ponds, small farm reservoirs (SFRs)

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42) Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy
industrial use?
A. Load-bearing capacity
B. Location
C. slope
D. Soil characteristics
43) In Urban land use models of the Chicago school of human ecology, the affluent and
middle classes are inclined to E- away from downtown and inner-city in favor of
suburban locations and this process results in a paradox or "spatial mismatch" as
regards labor.
A. Sophisticated upperclasses locate in city-edges with semi-rural conditions where
no employment is available
B. Lower-classes who cannot create employment by themselves are left to occupy
high-priced land in the inner core of cities.
C. Blue-collar workers are forced to accept low-skill jobs as maids, yayas, gardeners
in affluent suburban subdivisions
D. Non-tax paying people in the informal sector are closer to the seat of government
than the landed gentry
44) Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch
company decides to stay put in Switzerland because of its secure market niche and
proven track record in producing Rolex timepieces. What theory of firm location is
likely at work here?
A. Comparative Advantage
B. Profit Maximizing Approach
C. Satisficing Theory
D. Behavioral Theory
45) Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial
analysis was done manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the same scale,
principally to determine
A. Geohazards and physical constraints
B. areas that are ideal for urban development
C. Critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
D. All of the choices
46) Which planning concept, first upheld by the US Supreme Court in the 1976 case
o('Penn Central Transportation Co. versus City of New York incorporates a market
mechanism to mitigate whatever financial burden local law might have imposed on
property?
A. Planned Unit Development
B. Conservation Easements
C. Transfer of Development Rights
D. Eminent Domain
47) Social status declines with increasing distance from the center of the city" is a
proposition about poor Third World countries that contradicts the original land use
models from the Chicago school of human ecology,
A. Donut model
B. Core-Periphery Dependency Model

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 C. Polycentric model
D. Inverse Concentric
48) Earliest regional planning models in USA in 1933 revolved around Tennessee
Valley, Dallas Plain, Columbia River Basin, Colorado River, St Lawrence Seaway,
Delaware River, Chesapeake Bay watershed, which are essentially
A. Cultural or ethno-linguistic regions
B. Deltaic riverine regions
C. Natural regions
D. Crossborder regions
49) This school of thought claims that cities or human settlements can be studied as
though they are biological organisms subject to laws of evolution, natural selection,
competition, adaptation, survival of the fittest, decline, and death.
A. Dialectical Historical Materialism
B. AnarchoSyndicalism by Saul David Afinsky
C. Frankfurt School of Social Critical Theory
D. Chicago school of human ecology
50) In all but one of following cases, the US Supreme Court declared "takings" by
government as illegal, as it upheld the Constitutional precept that "private property
shall not be taken for public use without just compensation"
A. Where a regulation is merely intended to prevent a nuisance and remove
discomfort caused to the public
B. Where a regulation forced a landowner to allow someone else to enter onto the
property,
C. Where a regulation imposes burdens or costs on a landowner that do not bear
a reasonable relationship to the impacts of the project on the community;
D. Where government can equally accomplish a valid public purpose through less
intrusive regulation or through a requirement of dedicating property
E. Where a landowner has been denied all economically viable use of the land

Questions # 14
1) According to National Water Resources Board 2009, total dependable freshwater
supply in the Philippines at 80% safe yield is approximately 145990 MCM (million
cubic meters) per year. What would be per capita water availability per year when the
total population reaches 100 million?
A. 14.59 m3 per capita
B. 145.9 m3 per capita
C. 1,459.9 m3 per capita
D. 14,599 m3 per capita
2) Under RA 7586 NIPAS Act of 1991, which type of protected area aims to assure the
natural conditions necessary to protect species, groups of species, biotic
communities or physical features of the environment where these may require
specific human manipulation for their perpetuation.
A. Haven and Refuge of Endangered Biota
B. Protected Landscape and Seascape
C. Genepool and Germplasm Reserve
D. Wildlife Sanctuary

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3) These areas are so called because they pose serious dangers to human settlements
due to their high susceptibility to, among others, landslides, subsidence, sinkholes,
erosion once their topsoil is exposed.
A. 'geohazards'
B. 'brownfields'
C. 'environmentally critical'
D. 'naturally forbidden'
4) All of the following Land Use measures address Climate Change. Which one directly
pertains to the carbon sequestration function performed by trees and plants?
A. Design settlements and communities in. a manner that reduces ·use of vehicles
B. Enforce energy-efficiency laws to cover buildings, homes, and industrial design
of appliances and appurtenances identify
C. Conducive locations and facilitate projects that generate renewable natural
energy
D. Maintain buffer zones and protect undisturbed lands with thick vegetative
cover
5) Sea-level rise, coastal surges, coral reef damage, biodiversity decline, altered
landscapes, increased frequency and severity) of storms, floods, fires, and droughts;
heat-related diseases, increased acidity, salinization of fresh water, failed harvests
and economic losses, are among the known disasters that arise from -
A. Tectonic and geologic movements partly caused by the push and pull of
interplanetary or astrophysic forces
B. Natural variability of atmospheric, hydrospheric, and biogeochemical cycles
which all have wayward patterns
C. Long-term disturbance of atmospheric and meteorological conditions caused by
anthropogenic sources
D. Natural heating of the Earth as it is pulled closer to the Sun at .the rate of 3
inches per completed orbit
6) Which of the following does not enhance 'connectivity' to create sociable, livable,
walkable, health-oriented communities?
A. Cul-de-sacs, cuvilinear streets, steel gates on roadblock comers; family pets
wander & provide biodiversity excitement
B. School, church, community assembly center, plaza, and sports facilities are
located relatively close to each other.
C. 300-m average distance of homes to variety of transport choices like buses, FX
vans, and shuttles to railway stations
D. Bicycle lanes are delineated; strolling and biking promoted, 'no-car policy'
declared on selected streets during holidays.
7) "Urban design uses the climate, natural landscape as well as built assets to create
distinctive places that contribute to locaI identity, structure and meaning. Urban
design strengthens the city's character by reflecting its cultural layers and by enable
residents and visitors alike to read the city' by way of its history, customs, icons, and
visual elements."
A. "Cosmopolitanism"
B. "Semiotics"
C. "Sense of Place"

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 D. "Symbology"
8) Which solution to reduce disaster vulnerability needs the longest-term and most
comprehensive perspective?
A. Environmental safeguards and natural protection
B. Regulation of private and public infrastructure to ensure social protection
C. Safer location for settlements
D. Safer building construction
9) RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a chainsaw in
a legal manner.
A. Has a subsisting timber license. agreement, production sharing agreement, or a
private land timber permit
B. Is duly elected official of upland barangay
C. Is an Orchard and fruit tree farmer
D. Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold E) is
an industrial tree farmer
10) Designed by Peter Calthorpe (1993), this is a compact, mixed-use urban area
around a transport node, intermodal or rail station with commercial shops, offices,
and homes within a pedestrian-oriented radius of 800 meters maximum. at
density< 15-40 dwelling units per acre, all intended to maximize citizen access to
public transport and encourage mass ridership.
A. lntermodal Exchange Design
B. Park & Ride
C. Transit-Oriented Development
D. Bus Rapid Transit
11) This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the
transportation system and centers on determining traffic flow pattern for a known set
of inter-zonal movements so that the relationship between journey time and flow on
every link in the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link.
A. All-or-nothing AON assignment
B. Capacity restraint
C. Diversion curves
D. Shortest route method
12) According to MPWH Highway Planning Manual 1982, each 3.5 meter one-
directional lane in an expressway has an estimated capacity of Passenger Car Units
(PCU) per hour or roughly one vehicle every 2 seconds.
A. 1,000
B. 1,750
C. 2,000
D. 2,400
13) A Protected Area Management Plan guides a declared natural biotic area under RA
7586. Under which sections of 5 ecological zoning might Indigenous Peoples,
tenured migrants and/or other residents be allowed to collect and utilize natural
resources using traditional methods that are not in conflict with biodiversity
conservation
A. Strict protection zone & habitat management zone
B. Sustainable Use Zone & Multiple Use Zone

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 C. Cultural zone & restoration zone
D. Special Use Zone and Buffer Zone
14) Which essential elements of LogFrame or "Z.O.P.P" are used for plan monitoring
and evaluation?
A. Targets and quotas
B. Indicators and means of verification
C. Milestones and signposts
D. Gauges and benchmarks
15) To better conserve energy in a community, planners may recommend each of the
following except
A. Promote use of mass transit
B. Design mixed uses for projects
C. Encourage landscaping / ornamentation over planting of hardwood tree species
D. Use of solar energy for passive lighting, passive heating, power for ventilation
16) City design of Paul Downton where the balance of nature is central concern,
operated by closed-loop systems that recycle energy, materials and resources, while
minimizing waste through enviro-preneurship. Its economy is based on knowledge
and innovation such as hydrogen-powered mass transport, sky-gardens, parks on
building rooftops, building-integrated solar systems using photovoltaic skins, and
aeroponic and hydroponic urban farming on terraces, walls, facades, and atria.
A. Evergreen city
B. Sustainopolis
C. Ecopolis
D. Greenopolis
E. Verde ville
17) Which map is least relevant in preparing a Forest Management Plan that covers
multiple LGUs at scale of 1 :5,000?
A. Map of tribal or ancestral land
B. Elevation map
C. Density map
D. NIPAS map
18) Performance zoning according to noise levels (e.g. 55 decibels for Land Category B,
US Federal Highway Administration) would benefit churches, schools, libraries, and
residences while performance zoning according to air·quality standards (i.e
emissions) would most affect which fixed locations?
A. Vulcanizing and auto repair shops
B. large manufacturing establishments
C. Seaports and wharves
D. Rotunda and street intersections
19) One of the following strategies to solve traffic congestion belongs more properly to
specialist engineers rather than to generalist planners?
A. Travel Demand Management
B. Transport System Management
C. Transport Infrastructure Improvement
D. Land Use Controls

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20) 'Infrastructure Planning' covers both replacement infrastructure "and new
infrastructure for emerging areas." The following are important considerations in
infrastructure planning, but which is first and foremost of all considerations?
A. Capacity of infrastructure
B. Public safety and structural integrity
C. Level of service (LOS) and quality of service
D. Age of infrastructure
21) The following core elements of Transport Policy can be examined more closely to
address Climate Change, except one.
A. Motor fuels and energy sources
B. Role of mass transit versus private cars
C. Industrial design and ergonomics of automobile's accessory features
D. Relationship between land use and roads in creating chokepoints
22) The hierarchic logic in LogFrame or "Z.O.P.P." starts with broad goals which are
subsequently broken down into purposes, objectives, outputs, and activities.
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Lateral
D. Diagonal
23) According RA 10121 of 2010, this is a management process that analyzes specific
potential events of emerging situations that might-threaten Society or the
environment by establishing arrangements in advance to enable timely, effective,
and appropriate responses to such events and situations.
A. Risk Averse Planning
B. Crisis Management
C. Contingency Planning
D. Search, Rescue, Retrieval & Relief
24) In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning shapes the pace and
direction of city/town growth.
A. Expand physically municipal jail and stockade to address increased incidence
in criminality
B. Propose roll-on roll-off port to hasten trade with coastal neighbors
C. Identify which sections of territory are appropriate for low-rise, medium-rise,
and high-rise structures.
D. Define specific types of commerce that can be allowed in predominantly
residential neighborhoods.
25) This observed phenomenon refers to increase in global average annual mean
temperature of the Earth's near- surface air and oceans, of about ±0.92°C in the last
100 years, due to altered composition of the atmosphere, B which has been
attributed to sharp increase in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions contributed by
humans.
A. Air Pollution
B. Ozone Depletion
C. Greenhouse Effect
D. Global Warming

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26) Which goal of Smart Growth USA" addresses social participation?
A. Direct growth toward existing population centers, thru public spending on
infrastructure and utilities
B. Foster distinctive, attractive communities with a strong sense of place by
creating walkable neighborhoods and providinga variety of transportation
choices
C. Make development decisions predictable, fair, and cost effective, and
encourage stakeholder collaboration in development decisions
D. Create a range of housing choices and opportunities by allowing mixture of land
uses
E. Preserve and protect open space, farmland, natural beauty, and
environmentally sensitive areas
27) Integrated into risk-sensitive land use planning process," which component of Risk
Assessment" examines and audits an institutions capabilities and resources to deal
with natural hazards?
A. Hazard identification and evaluation (e.g. analysis of frequency,
severity/magnitude, return period or probability of a hazard of given severity)
B. Vulnerability analysis (e.g. probable loss of life, injury, building damage, economic
impacts)
C. Potential damage assessment (e.g. monetary estimation of probable loses)
D. Contingency measures, emergency response. quick reaction mechanisms
28) Based on FAO framework, which component of Watershed Management needs to
engage timber companies, upland concessions, and sawmills to the highest extent
possible?
A. Irrigation, water harvesting, control of land and water pollution
B. Gully control, rehabilitation of landslips and landslides, control of road erosion
C. Pastureland protection and improvement
D. Forest protection and improvement, streambank protection, and sustainable
mining
29) This refers to rights. of landowners along a water body to use the water for their
economic needs provided they return to the same body the water in similar quality.
A. Riparian Rights
B. Hydrologic Rights
C. Rights of First Use
D. Riverine Rights
30) Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously
for at least 5 years prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for
subsistence, are considered "tenured migrant communities" and are engaged by
government to undertake reforestation and upland management under this specific
program.
A. Agro-Forestry
B. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
C. Integrated Social Forestry
D. Industrial Forestry

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31) All of the following Land Use measures address transport bottlenecks and
congestion, but which one increases pedestrian traffic and requires intensified
police/security presence?
A. Establish Floor-Area Ratio and population density ceilings for buildings in the
Central Business District
B. Relocate intercity bus terminals and freight terminals from the center of town
C. Enforce walking and biking in specific downtown sections that have vibrant
bazaars, tiangges, and streetside sales
D. Prohibit on-street or parallel roadside parking along busy arterial roads
32) Planning for flood control such as construction of major dams, levees, and
embankments occurs at What level?
A. Zoning District
B. Town
C. Regional or Sub-regional
D. National
33) The do nothing scenario or absence of a spatial strategy allows a settlement to grow
on its own like a dendrite or living organism without man-made controls, and is called
A. Leapfrogging
B. Organic development
C. Crawling development
D. Checkerboard spreadsheet
E. Anything goes
34) "Land Evaluation" and "Landscape Analysis" are
A. The same and actually overlap
B. Both obsolete and no longer used
C. Used by different sets of specialists for the same land use process
D. Essentially at odds because one is scientific while the other is not
35) According to scientific studies, the human body begins to be least productive at
ambient temperature of 37°C and above, while human productivity and mental
capacity, in general, are known to be optimal at ___ ambient temperature.
A. 16°C
B. 21°C
C. 26°C
D. 32°C
36) In transport planning, the manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and
direction of travel, of all conveyances passing each station during specified periods,
supplemented by automatic traffic recorder counts extending over longer periods is
called
A. Travel cost method
B. Roadside survey
C. Windshield survey
D. Network inventory
37) This is a Section of forestland with an area of at least 100-meter radius around rivers
and springs which serve to capture freshwater sources being tapped for domestic
water supply and irrigation.

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 A. Hydrologic Capture Zone
B. Eco-Park
C. Water Catchment Reserve
D. Escarpment
38) Due to local ingress and egress movements, the following are 'chokepoints' along a
transport artery, except one.
A. Market
B. Cockpit or stadium
C. Mall complex
D. Unloading zone
E. Major religious shrine
39) DENR-FMB 2003, of total Philippine forestland of 15.85 million hectares, 1.5 million
hectares are denuded and 5. 7 million hectares are badly denuded. Under the 12-
point agenda of Forest Management Bureau which of the latter should have the
highest priority in restoration and reforestation by engaging private sector investors.
A. Cultivated Areas and Upland Settlements
B. Shrub lands and marginal grasslands
C. Wooded Grasslands
D. Swamps and Marshes
40) As a result of the Ondoy-Peping disaster in September-October 2009, what type of
planning can possibly interlink the "Marikina Watershed," the "Marikina Floodplain,"
and "Laguna de Bay" with their separate governing authorities, to Jointly undertake
proactive mitigation and prevention measures?
A. Ecosystem-Based Planning
B. Integrated Area Development
C. Reconstruction Planning by Special National Public Reconstruction Commission
D. Regional Planning by DENR's River Basin Control Office
Feedback
with relevance to E.O. 510
41) Under RA 9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, killing of
endangered wildlife is unlawful except in 5 cases. Which of the following might
warrant an act of killing by Palawan tribal leaders after they've gathered proof that
they had lost three children to river crocodiles which had escaped from a science-
oriented crocodile farm?
A. "when killing is done as part of the religious rituals of established indigenous
cultural communities"
B. "when the wildlife is afflicted with an incurable communicable disease"
C. "when it is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the wildlife"
D. ''when it is done to prevent imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being"
E. ''when the wildlife is killed or destroyed after it has been used in authorized
research or experiments"
42) This document contains an LGUs proposed schedule of infrastructure projects listed
in order of construction priority usually for a timeframe of 6 years together with cost
estimates, anticipated means of financing, and commitment of public funds for the
purchase, construction, or replacement of physical assets of the community.
A. DOTC Plan

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 B. Annual Investment Plan
C. Civil Works Program
D. Capital Investment Program
43) Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of
number of species. Under RA 9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation 8 Protection Act,
a species or sub-species that faces high risk of extinction in the immediate future is
called
A. Acutely Threatened Species
B. Critically Endangered Species
C. Species Vulnerable to Extinction
D. Rapidly Disappearing Species
44) All but one of the following are valid grounds to seek special case treatment or
relaxation of zoning provision in relation to a development project.
A. The unusual shape of the site precludes designing a structure that would meet
yard requirements.
B. The existing structure has been declared historically significant by the city and
must be saved at any cost
C. Proposed deviation constitutes only a minor encroachment and will not alter
the character of the neighborhood.
D. Both area of the site and proposed development are consistent with that of
other lots in the immediate vicinity.
45) In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning addresses global
warming and climate change.
A. Provide for locations of windmill farms as possible joint ventures with private
sector
B. Reward real estate projects that keep more than 40% of their total area as
wooded open space
C. Encourage intercropping of fruit trees and bio-fuel plants in lands designated for
agro-forestry
D. Transfer manufacturing firms to remote locations at least 10 kms away where
their fumes cannot reach homes
46) Which of the following steps in the establishment of NIPAS area addresses
overlapping LGU jurisdictions?
A. Compilation of technical maps & description of protected areas
B. Census and registration of protected area occupants
C. Public notification of coverage of protected areas A
D. Boundary demarcation and monumenting
47) A physical location where industry and/or commercial development is deliberately
directed; done either to reduce I growth pressures elsewhere in the city or to
redistribute growth within a city.
A. Growth Node
B. Growth Hub
C. Growth Nub
D. Growth Mole
E. Growth Lump

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48) What is the best use of a 'Gantt' chart?
A. Allocates time among various tasks
B. Shows how different tasks are related
C. Illustrates how one task must be completed before beginning another
D. Utilizes a table with alternatives in rows and impact factors in columns
49) In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning mitigates natural hazards
and reduces disaster risk.
A. Expand open space in flood-holding areas, evacuation routes, lifelines, and areas
of unstable soil
B. Compel all real estate brokers and dealers to provide hazard disclosure to
property buyers in geohazard zones
C. Require 10-meter-deep foundations for bulky structures in places prone to
recurrent liquefaction
D. Redirect public funds for capital investment projects from tsunami-prone areas to
locations of higher elevation
50) Based on planning framework of Prof. Ernesto Serote, which of the following best
describes infrastructure land use?
A. Construction for movement & flow of goods/people
B. Connective, circulatory, and communicative space
C. Network of man-made structures & edifices for people's comfort
D. Amalgam of steel, rock, concrete and glass to shape civilization

Questions # 15
1) In welfare-oriented societies, this is a shelter program designed to help homeless
individuals and families progress toward self-sufficiency in an environment of security
and support, serving as a middle point between emergency shelter and permanent
housing for a time frame-of six months to two years.
A. Mass Housing
B. Transitional Housing
C. Public Row Housing
D. Cooperative Housing
2) Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is,
where is' approach and hence not conducive to 'land assembly' for an integrated
holistic settlement?
A. Off-site resettlement
B. In-city relocation
C. On-site slum upgrading
D. Land readjustment
E. Medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
F. Collaborative models such as Gawad Kalinga and 'Habitat for Humanity'
3) According to BP 220, if the minimum distance between 2 two-storey houses is 4
meters, and the minimum horizontal clearance between their respective roof eaves
or overhang is 1.50 m, what would be the horizontal length of each building's
overhang from exterior wall up to the edge of roof
A. 0.25m

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 B. 0.50m
C. 1.00m
D. 1.75m
4) In a PERT-CPM, this is a starting node to two or more activities
A. Concurrent node
B. Merge node
C. Simultaneous nodes
D. Burst node
5) Ratio and Proportion. In 2008, the Philippines had 68 million cellphone units, of
which 63 million were used. If 35% of population in urban areas have buying power
to own and use a cellphone while only 15% of population in rural areas can do the
same. what would be the approximate number of cellphone users in a rural barangay
with 4000 people.
A. 80
B. 400
C. 600
D. 1,200
6) Program Review and Evaluation Technique-Critical Path Method(PERTCPM) is a
project management technique designed to
A. Logically connect program and project
B. Mitigate effects of failed program
C. Seek efficiency of time & resources in execution & implementation
D. Identify evacuation routes and remedy errors in disaster risk estimation
7) This refers to any novel or improved product, process, gadget, or idea that adds utility
to a previous or existing good or service in the market beyond the usual expectations
of consumers and often in response to a felt demand in society.
A. Ingenuity
B. Invention
C. Innovation
D. Improvisation
E. High tech gadgetry
8) In RA 9397's amendment to expand socialized housing options of national local
government under RA7279 UDHA, which common model/program is being
remedied for its uneven effectiveness in addressing homelessness.
A. Transfer of homelot ownership in fee simple
B. Public rental housing
C. Usufruct or lease with option to purchase
D. Timeshare arrangements and communal shelter
9) This theory propounded by James s. Coleman (1988), Robert Putnam (1993), Diane
Camey (1998) and adopted by UNOP (1997), looks at collective non-market assets of
people such as trust, solidarity, norms of reciprocity, common purpose, equality and
other resources that are inherent in social relations and embedded in social
networks.
A. Theory of Social Change
B. Social Mobilization

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 C. Theory of Social Learning
D. Theory of Social Capital
10) As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975, What should be acquired individually by
all food Workers, processors, preparers, vendors, servers in all food establishments,
whether formal or informal businesses?
A. Lung -ray & HIV-AIDS test from public hospital
B. Health Clearance from local health Office
C. Food testing report from Bureau of Food and Drugs lab
D. face mask and hairnet from Department of Health
11) The second law of thermodynamics states that no man-made or natural process
operates with 100% efficiency and therefore, waste is inherent in all nature, and
waste will always be generated.
A. Thermal Wasting
B. Atrophy
C. Entropy
D. Dissipation
12) This is a provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation
by periodic charges against the capital account.
A. Downpayment
B. Reservation
C. Amortization
D. Equity
E. Surcharge
F. Pay-off
13) It is the international collective term for inclusive, non-State actors whose aims are
neither to generate profits nor to seek governing power but to unite people around
the broadest public interest based ethnical, cultural, religious, scientific, professional,
or philanthropic considerations.
A. Cause-Oriented Groups
B. Charities
C. Social Movements
D. Civil Society
14) Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 20, reclassification of agricultural
land in component cities and first to third class municipalities is limited to _ of farm
land.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
15) Under International Standards Organization ISO 14001 (1996) for business
organizations, the principle that no money should be lent or extended to any firm that
has not proven itself to be environmentally responsible, is contained in which goal of
a company's ISO 14001 Environmental Management System?
A. To reduce overall costs
B. To attract more ethical investment

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 C. To gain or retain market share via a green corporate image
D. To reduce prosecution risks and insurance risks
16) Which of the following -all true -about people's participation in planning,
implementation and management holds the same meaning as the statement
"people are the principal actors, the subject rather than the object, of
development."
A. Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have
long-term benefits as people
provide data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns to policy-
makers and implementors.
B. People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.
C. Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds
community leadership so that they gain control over their own fate and learn to
make critical decisions for their common future.
D. Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive refonns
envisioned by changes in policy.
17) Which one do you like?
A. Option 1
B. Option 2
C. Option 3
D. Option 4
18) 'Ekistics' or the science of human settlements by Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis was
built upon the Concept of "basic needs," which were later categorized by Johann
Galtung into material survival & Security needs," "social or enabling needs," and
non-material human needs. Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by
Abraham Maslow?
A. Food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment,
peace and Order,
B. Self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and
transportation
C. Physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-
actualization/self-realization
D. Freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
19) World Bank describes this process as the expansion of assets and capabilities of
poor people, as well as the expansion of their freedom of choice and action, to
participate in, negotiate with, influence, control, aria hold accountable institutions
that affect their lives
A. Self-Reliance
B. Needs Achievement
C. Entitlement
D. Empowerment
20) This family of cross-disciplinary, cross-sectoral approaches in research engages
communities to share their - indigenous knowledge, analyze their local -conditions,
in order to plan and to act on their own problems, through dialogic and participatory
processes such as cross-walking, transect, semi-structured interviews, community
mapping, preference ranking, seasonal and historical diagrams, and other tools of
rapid rural appraisal (RRA).

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 A. Interactive Andragogy
B. Participatory Action Research
C. Virtual Learning Network
D. Social Anthropology
21) What does ex post facto evaluation seek to do?
A. Describe conditions under which an undertaking is effective
B. Identify any unanticipated effects of an undertaking
C. Determine whether stated goals have been achieved
D. All of the choices
22) 'Baby Boomers' refers to those born in the period 1946-1964. Generation X refers
to those born in the years 1965-1976, and Generation "Y" or "Echo Boomers" refers
to those born in the years
A. 1980-2000
B. 2001-2010
C. 1977-2000
D. 1975-2015
23) The French urban theorist who first said that each individual, regardless of personal,
occupational, or economic ability of achievement, has a to live in the city in a rights-
based approach to urban development ('Right to the City,' 1968)
A. Henri Lefebvre
B. Manuel Castells
C. Jean Jacques Costeau
D. Andre Gunder Frank
24) Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal
issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other
uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
A. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized
B. 20% of total arable land in any LGU
C. 10 %of total cultivable land in any city and independent chartered cities
D. 25% of total alienable and disposable land
25) Related to time value of money (v) this refers to the rate used to adjust the future
streams of costs and benefits U into their present value, taking into account time
preference, opportunity cost of capital, externalities from currency and exchange,
risk, and uncertainty.
A. Inflation rate
B. Discount rate
C. Investment rate
D. Depreciation rate
26) What does an impact evaluation measure that is not dearly described in terminal
evaluational projects end?
A. Key outputs or outcomes of a project
B. Indicators, benchmarks, and milestones
C. Immediate results of an undertaking -
D. Long-term consequences on people, society, and nature

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27) An enumerative method of study which covers all the units of a population is called
A. Holism
B. Gestalt
C. Sociology
D. Census
28) The declared population policy of the Philippine government 2001-2010 aimed to
A. Uplift reproductive health of women as basis of population management
B. Support couples in making decisions on the timing, spacing, and the number of
children they want in accordance with their cultural and religious beliefs
C. Encourage use of contraception among married couples
D. Enforce one-child rule for all couples
29) Also called 'subscription money,' this is a deposit given to the seller to show that the
potential buyer has serious intentions about the transaction.
A. Mobilization fund
B. Subornment
C. Marked money
D. Earnest money
E. Grease money
30) Of the following forms of evidence that Indigenous Peoples can use to claim
aboriginal land, which category of evidence needs substantial assistance from a
planner with extensive background in anthropology?
A. Tax declarations and proof of payment of taxes; survey plans and/or sketch
maps;
B. Old improvements such as planted trees, stone walls, rice fields, water
systems, orchards, farms, monuments, houses and other old structures, or
pictures thereof;
C. Historical accounts, Spanish Documents, ancient documents;
D. Genealogical surveys; written and oral testimonies of living witnesses made
under oath; written records of customs and traditions
E. Burial grounds or pictures thereof religious sites and for artifacts in the area
31) Also called 'cradle to grave' approach, this refers to the entire process of investigating
and valuing the environmental impacts of a given product or service, in particular,
raw materials production, manufacture, distribution, use and disposal as well as
intervening transportation steps necessitated or caused by the product's existence, in
order to identify the options least burdensome to the natural environment.
A. Carbon Footprinting
B. Zero Waste Management
C. Industrial Design
D. Product Life Cycle Assessment
32) The following reasons underlie locational motivation of urban poor to live in slum
Colonies and shantytowns. Which reason is socio-cultural in nature and serves to
compensate for the lack of livelihood and employment opportunities in cities?
A. Proximity to low-skill jobs and sources of income in the urban services Sector,
both formal and informal
B. Zero to low land rents and occupancy fees in marginal lands, residual public
lands, easements, and danger 􀀟ones

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 C. Kinship-based, ethnic-related personal networks serving as safety nets that
provide social solidarity and reciprocity
D. Alternative modes of access to squatter areas by water through rivers, canals,
and coasts
E. Ease of disposal of solid wastes and liquid wastes into esteros, creeks, and
ditches.
F. Coddling by traditional patronage politicians because of voting power of large
concentrations of urban poor
33) The main difference between the economic method of projecting population growth
and the "mathematical methods" (arithmetic, geometric formulae, etc.) is that
A. The former takes into account movement of people while the latter only
considers reproduction and deaths.
B. The former forecasts varying rates of growth of local economic output and
creates alternative scenarios.
C. The latter does not consider force majeure or recurrent natural disasters.
D. The latter is based upon the assumption of do nothing while the former ignores
historic patterns.
34) In the 21st century, many economically-poor but naturally-endowed countries have
focused on the "Pleasure Economy" or the "Experience Economy" through such
flagship programs as ecotourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism, adventure &
sports tourism, arts, 'high-touch' activities, high fashion design or haute couture,
etc. which are together called
A. Tertiary services sector
B. Quaternary services sector
C. Quinary services sector
D. Recreational and visitorial services sector
35) The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels, signaling the
tendency of total population to decline after replacement-level fertility (1.1 % to 1.5%)
has been attained, is called
A. Population Reversal
B. Demographic Transition
C. Population Shift
D. Demographic Deceleration
36) Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and
treasures should be utilized by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible
while adopting more modem uses in their interiors.
A. Total Makeover
B. Reconfigurative Renovation
C. Converted Property
D. Adaptive Reuse
37) The process of facilitating and arranging activities and action-plans of different
interest-groups or sectors for the purpose of harmonizing, synchronizing, and
consolidating inputs and outputs is called
A. Input-Output process
B. Mainstreaming
C. Coordination

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 D. Faci-pulation
38) 17% of surveyed women wanted 2. 7 average births in contrast to aggregate fertility
rate of 3.5 births per woman; 50% of women don't want any more children; % of
women wanted to space births but could not do so, and nearly 50% of women
between ages 15 and 24 have had premarital sex and have experienced unwanted
pregnancies. Which rational conclusion is supported by above data from ESCAP
study1998?
A. Filipinos' fondness for babies is waning.
B. Government and social institutions like family, church, and school need to be
stricter about people's sexual behavior
C. The women in the survey do not accurately represent the overall picture of
Filipino womenfolk
D. There is apparently an unmet need for contraception and family planning
among Filipino women
E. Filipino women are more burdened compared to men when it comes to birth
control
39) Between census years 1990 and 2007, the lowest population growth rates per
annum in Metro Manila occurred in .San Juan, -0.03%; City of Manila, 0.09%; Pasay,
0.22%; Makati, 0.3%; Mandaluyong, 0.53% (versus highest rate at 2.12% in Taguig
City). Which of the following statements, all valid, most considers sustainable
capacity and livability?
A. These NCR areas have higher daytime population than nighttime population.
B. These NCR areas are likely approaching their viable population limits.
C. These NCR areas tend to physically decay with population density beyond a
tolerable range.
D. New or young families in these NCR areas are likely to settle somewhere else.
40) The process of obtaining from people technical advice or opinion which may or may
not be followed is called
A. Consultation
B. Cooptation
C. Cooperation
D. Collaboration
41) This refers to a set of accounts, usually in monetary figures, widely used in the
analysis of inter-industry relationships and the extent of importing/exporting among
industries within an economy whether focal, regional, or national.
A. Value added chain
B. Input/output model
C. Discounted cash flow tables
D. Inter-area analysis
42) This is an intuitive method of demand analysis, needs assessment, or forecasting
which gathers the independent views and judgments of recognized experts in panel
discussion; or pols and consolidates their expert opinions thru a survey.
A. Crystal Ball
B. Knowledge Management
C. Delphi Technique
D. Oracle Method

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 E. Authoritative Approach
43) In a non-parametric test of correlation to determine if amount of fertilizer has
anything to do with quantity of farm yield, the following crops were computed to have
their respective difference of ranks square(d2): rice 1; com = 0; wheat = 0; beans =
0; mongo = 1. Given 'Spearman rho' formula "r=6Ed2/ n(n2-1)" what would be the 'r'
value?
A. 1.1
B. 1.2
C. 0.9
D. 0.2
44) Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that 'developers of proposed
subdivision projects shall be required to develop an area for socialized housing
equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost,
at the option of developer, within the same city or municipality, whenever feasible,
so that both government and market can jointly provide for the needs of lower
socio-economic classes
A. Public Private Resources Exchange
B. Cooperative Housing Development
C. Balanced Housing Development
D. Corporate Social Responsibility
45) RA 87 49 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous
and toxic fumes, but with a few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and
incineration of pathological, biological, and contagious wastes?
A. Bureau of Fire Protection
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Philippine Hospitals Association
D. Department of Health
46) Of the five correct criteria for conversion of farmland into non-agricultural uses,
which criterion is within the control of the investor or project proponent, in terms of
production activity, design, selection and mobilization of men, money,materials, and
machines.?
A. The reclassification of land use must be consistent with the natural expansion
of the municipality or city, as contained in their approved land use plan
B. The area to be reclassified in use is not the only remaining food production
area of the community;
C. Areas with lower crop productivity will be accorded priority for land use
conversion;
D. The proposed project is supportive of agro-industrial development, and will
generate alternative livelihood opportunities for the affected community.
47) Conventional 'Euclidean' or exclusionary zoning is faulted for the following valid
reasons. Which reason comes from the feminist perspective of Jane Jacobs, et al?
A. Rigid segregation of land uses unnecessarily lengthens travel distance to meet
other needs and discourages walking. social interaction, and neighborly behavior
favorable to local community-building

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 B. Self-contained, balanced, sociable communities deter crime, reduce anomie,
lessen psychological distress caused by movement to/from work or school,
increase quality family time, and prevent other social problems.
C. Exclusionary -.land use encourages satellite bedroom communities where work
and other needs are not available
D. Increased Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMl) correlates with traffic jams, accidents,
labor productivity losses, greater greenhouse gas emissions that aggravate air
pollution, and huge external economic costs borne by society in general
E. Mothers with infants and young children are zoned of production as jobs in the
CBD or in factory district are too far from home to enable women to successfully
carry out both domestic duties and formal employment
48) Which part of the feasibility study aims to determine a projects desirability in terms
of its net contribution to the overall welfare of the locality, region, or country as a
whole?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Discriminant analysis
C. Stakeholder or distributive analysis
D. Economic analysis
49) A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the
classic "Eight Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation" which describes the
varying degrees of people's involvement in policies, plans, and programs.
A. Ralph Nader
B. Susan S. Fainstein
C. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr
D. Sherry Amstein
50) Of the following central features of Free Market as described by classical
economics, which one has not been proved to be universally true in open capitalist
societies?
A. Law of Supply and Demand
B. Profit Motive
C. Broad Range of Consumer Choices Through Diversified Production
D. Perfect Competition

Questions # 20
1) Which is not a benefit from having large green space in cities?
A. Absorbs air pollution
B. Gives off oxygen
C. Cools the air as Water transpires
D. Provides habitat to wild beasts
E. Provides shade withless electricity required
F. Muffles noise and creates anisland of peace
2) An example of positive easement is one that
A. Preserves a certain habitat
B. Protects a certain stream
C. Allows the right to harvest a natural crop

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 D. Stipulates not to drain a wetland
3) This refers to phenomenon in an area of high building density where heat buildup is
intense and characterized by mean temperature increase of Celsius due to solar
reflectance on impervious surfaces, concentration of air pollutants, dust dome, and
smog, all affecting local air circulation and micro-climatic conditions.
A. Kelvin Aberration
B. Pollution Plumes
C. Thennal Dorne
D. Infernal City
E. Urban Heat Island
4) Which agency is tasked with the registration of subdivision and condominium
dealers, brokers, salesmen, associations?
A. National Housing Authority
B. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
C. Securities and Exchange Commission
D. Presidential Commission on the Urban Poor
E. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
F. Professional Regulation Commission
5) In a computer graphics/mapping system, the point at which a line changes direction
or terminates
A. Vertex (8) vortex
B. Centrifuge
C. Intercept
D. intersect
6) Presidential Decree 2146 defines amenity areas' as those With high aesthetic
values such as the following, except one.
A. Outstanding landscapes, Seascapes, and ViewScapes
B. Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
C. Heritage sites and historic places
D. (D) municipal plazas and public parks
7) A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream.
What characteristic of a drainage basin causes it to have an efficient response to
rainfall'?
A. Sloping topography in bowl-like formation
B. Permeable soils
C. Plasticity of clay bottom
D. Filtration by its wetlands
8) Which of the following population characteristics are important in determining
'housing need'?
A. Socio-economic characteristics
B. Overcrowding
C. Formation of new households/families
D. In-migration, out-migration
E. AIl of the choices

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9) Which is not a key element of hazard mitigation planning?
A. Land-use plans
B. Development control or management
C. Land titles
D. Hazard assessment
10) This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads
and highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of
Schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order to improve the
environment in built-up areas.
A. Reforestation
B. Miniature Forestry
C. Urban Forestry
D. Silvicuture
E. Agro-Forestry
11) 'it is the merchants ethos, with our consent that sustains the slumlord and the land
rapist, the polluters of rivers and atmosphere. In the name of profit, they preempt the
seashore and sterilize the landscape, fell the great forests, fill protective marshes,
build cynically in the flood plain. It is the claim of convenience - or its illusion - that
drives the expressway through neighborhoods, homes, and priceless parks, a
taximeter of indifferent greed'
A. Jane Jacobs
B. Ian McHarg
C. Konstantinos Doxiadis
D. Rachel Carson
E. Ame Naess
12) What type of distance in space is that which is psychological and is indicated by a
hidden band that contains two or more individuals in a group?
A. Critical distance
B. Hypnotic distance
C. Flight distance
D. Personal distance
E. Social distance
13) An eco-centric urban design would focus on
A. 'oikos' or the dynamics of the home as a collection of kindred individuals
B. Human thrill and excitement derived from living with biodiverse species and wild
beasts
C. Rhythm and balance of the ecosystem; human communion with Nature in a
spiritual as well as ethical sennse
D. Man's self-satisfaction as the apex of Creation and master-subduer of the Earth
as stated in the Holy Scnptures
14) In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing
point and line data by means of geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of line
segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space
A. Vector
B. Polygon

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 C. Curvature
D. Field
E. Node
15) A 'single detached dwelling unit' is defined as a house that is
A. Good for one household
B. Intended for ownership
C. Completely surrounded by a yard
D. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
16) Which design can be credited for 'Community Connectivity' under LEED of the US
Green Building Council?
A. Greenfield site located within short walking distance to many common
amenities
B. Public rental housing connected by on-ramps to a large freeway intersection
C. Seven-storey commercial building linked to a food processing plant at a center
a 10 hectare complex
D. Socialized housing site beside academic buildings of a state university
E. Suburban brownfield within 500 meters from light rail public transportation
17) The natural movement downslope of soil, regolith or rocks under the influence of
gravity without seismic motion or heavy rainfallis collectively called
A. Avalanche
B. Mass wasting
C. Crustal abrasion
D. Erosion by wind
E. Shear stress
18) At the headwaters of a stream where the local gradient/energy is highest, the
process of 'erosion' dominates while at the stream's base level where a delta forms,
the process that dominates is called

A. Percolation
B. Evapo-transpiration
C. Sedimentation
D. Nundation
E. Infiltration
19) In the perception of space, which sense affects placement of rooms which could limit
unpleasant odors?
A. Auditory
B. Olfactory
C. Visual
D. Thermal
E. Tactile
F. Kinesthetic
20) Tremors or vibrations of the Earth due to shock waves ge11erated by the rupturing
of deep ayer rocks are known as
A. Raptures

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 B. Fault scarp
C. Earthquakes
D. Continental drift
E. Plate tectonics
21) 'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic
sprawl' by means of
A. Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
B. Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
C. Residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
D. Interconnected modes of transport
E. Compact development through infilling
F. All of the choices
22) A tool used to create elite landscapes that convey socio-economic identity,
characterized by imitation of rustic estates or feudal-age manors, detailed
ornamental iconography,and other manifestations of conspicuous consumption
A. Milionaires 'row
B. Red light boulevard
C. Gentrification yacht and polo club
D. Large lot zoning
23) Under the National Building Code,residence is not just the home structure proper but
can include accessory structures such as private garage, servants quarter,
storehouse, home office,sari sari, and -
A. Carinderia
B. Farm and poultry
C. Day care center
D. guardhouse
E. Warehouse
24) Which sensual type enables one to identify materials at a distance?
A. Auditory
B. Olfactory
C. Visual
D. Themal
E. tactile
F. Kinesthetic
25) What are the elements of urban form?
A. Infill, densification, property conversion, retrofitting
B. Vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear
C. Beauty, amenity, safety, convenience. functionality
D. Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
26) All of the following, except one, interfere in the harnessing of Solar energy and
natural Wind by means of photovoltaic cells, windmills and turbines?
A. Oversized roadside tarpaulin signs
B. Height restrictions in zoning
C. Large smokestack cylinders and industrial chimneys

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 D. Trees in urban parks and on street medians
27) Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport
congestion?
A. Gridiron or rectilinear
B. Circumferential & radial
C. Un-linear/strip development
D. Irregular free pattern
28) Which the following indicates good site planning?
A. Best Orientation to Sun, Sea and Wind
B. Congruence and compatibility with its surrounding
C. Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
D. Maximized space
E. Efficient circulation
F. All of the choices
29) Under Leadership in Ehergy and Environmental Design (LEED) of the US Green
Building Council,which refers to 'xeriscapir
A. Planting trees that can provide food for building occupants such as mango,
avocado, apple, and orange trees.
B. Landscape design_ that requires little or no irrigation or maintenance
C. Using artificial turf in place of real glass on parts of a building
D. Advanced drip irrigation system that responds to water demand by sensing soil
moisture content
E. Landscape design that directs the flow of rainwater on-site to the area that
requires the most irrigation.
30) The 'clutter -Of cities' consists of disorderly, crisscrossing electricity/telephone utility
cables, superfluous signages, political oversized billboards advertizing messages of
sensualism, materialism, and conspicuous consumption all -of which hinder ones
appreciation of outstanding built structures and cityscapes.
A. Visual blight
B. Litter and nuisance
C. Aesthetic decay
D. Street anarchy
E. Communicative pollution
31) Which one is not an innovative element of Planned Unit Development?
A. Culde sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
B. Usable open space
C. Complementarity of building types
D. Preservation of significant natural land features
32) This refers to the goal or principle of Urban Design that a place needs to foster a
'sense of security and pleasantness' emanating from
A. Legibility
B. Imageability
C. SIR - smooth interpersonal relations
D. Conviviality

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 E. Peace and tranquility
33) 6. 'intensity' varies from place to place according to its distance from the epicenter of
a tremor, while _ approximates the total physical energy released at the epicenter
during a seismic movement.
A. "scale"
B. "heft''
C. "grade'
D. "magnitude"
E. "enormity"
34) What does 'lag time' refer to in the context of flooding?
A. The time required to clean up an area following a flood
B. The time it takes for emergency officials to provide relief to residents of a flood-
stricken area
C. The time it takes for streamflow to travel from the drainage divide to the mouth
of the stream
D. The time between rainfall and peak streamflow
35) What relevant maps would have to be combined in order to construct a composite
hydrometeorologic risk map?
A. Historic paths of Philippines' 21 cyclones average per year over a ten-year period
B. Precipitation, cloudiness, mean temperature, wind patterns of southwest &
northeast monsoons, high tide and low tide
C. Location of population, type of climate, average rainfall slope, elevation, rivers
and waterways, 50 yr or 100-yr flood level
D. Coastal surges, saltwater intrusion, groundwater overdraft, land subsidence, loss
of soil strength, liquefaction hazard
36) An aerial photograph taken from a helicopter at a height of 80 meters would
produce a map scale of 1:60 with a margin of error of 15 millimeters. If taken from
an airplane at an altitude of 1O,OOOm, what would be the resulting map scale?
A. 1 : 1,000
B. 1 : 2,000
C. 1 : 5,000
D. 1 : 25,000
37) Because of the permanent danger zone, no settlement, barangay, sitio, or purok
ought to be established at the foot of an active Volcano within a radius of
A. 4 kms
B. 5 kms
C. 6 kms
D. 7 kms
E. 8 kms
38) The following are all environmentally critical areas under Presidential Decree 2146.
If a common hazard such as geologic fault line runs through all of them, which of
these areas would have the greatest risk?
A. (A) areas with critical slopes
B. Natural parks, Watershed reserves, Wildlife preserves, and Sanctuaries.
C. Areas traditionally occupied by ICCs/lPS

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 D. Habitat of any endangered or threatened species or indigenous Philippine
Wildlife (flora and fauna)
39) In the Philippines, low density housing development means dwelling units per
hectare.
A. 35 and below
B. 36 to 150
C. 151 to 210
D. 211and above
40) What effect does urbanization have on rainfall-runoff relationships?
A. Impermeable surfaces tend to inhibit infiltration and thus increase peak flood
discharges
B. Storm sewers tend to route runoff to streams more quickly and thus reduce
the lag times
C. Urbanization tends to decrease the recurrence interval of any given flood
D. Urbanization tends to increase the frequency of any given flood
E. All of the choices
41) This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce a;; accurate
image of the Earth by removing ti!t of p!anet, relief displacements, and topographic
distortions which occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
A. Photogrammetry
B. Orthophotography
C. Remote sensing
D. Geomatics
E. Geodetics
42) A "tripolar" or "bipolar" form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively
developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and
business, in order to ease pressure on traditional center, and is an example of
A. Simple Dispersion
B. Concentrated Dispersion
C. Simple Concentration
D. Compact Development
43) This nonrenewable resource is the most pollutive source of energy that releases toxic
elements such as lead and arsenic
A. Krypton
B. Coal
C. Hydropower
D. Titanium
E. Natural gas
F. Ethanol
44) The body under the immediate control and supervision of the President of the
Philippines, charged with the main function of coordinating the activities of the
government housing agencies to ensure the accomplishment of the National
Shelter Program.
A. NEDA
B. HUDCC

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 C. NHA
D. HLURB
45) In eco-engineering or convergence analysis as popularized by Dr. Meliton Juanico,
what kind of map is derived by superimposing 'land suitability' and 'physical
constraints' on 'existing land use'?
A. Proposed land use
B. Agro-ecological zones
C. Heritage & tourism overlay zones
D. Disaster-resilient communities
46) What is the mechanism that causes land subsidence?
A. A reductionin subsurface.fluid pressures within sedimentarylayers
B. An increase in weight at the land surface
C. A heavy rainfall for a prolonged time period
D. The dissolution of soluble bedrock such as limestone exposed at the land
surface
47) Which natural source of energy can be tapped by barangays and cooperatives for the
electrification of all rural villages
A. Tidal power and Ocean current
B. Coal and natural gas
C. Solar energy
D. Geothennal
E. Methane and biogas from sanitary landfills, septic tanks, sewage treatment
F. Biomass
48) In air-conditioning systems, the term 'free cooling' is used to describe the use of the
cooling capacity of ambient air to directly cool the space, thereby:
A. Reducing the peak cooling load
B. Reducing the running hours of the chiller
C. Increasing ventilation rates
D. Increasing the size of chiller required
49) 'Hazard' differs from 'risk' in that
A. 'Hazard' can be avoided while 'risk' always result in disaster
B. 'Hazard' can be remedied or mitigated while risk is imminent and inevitable.
C. 'Hazard' is merely geologic while risk is essentially economic.
D. 'Hazard' refers to likely occurrence of natural events while 'risk' involves clear and
present threat to human life, propety, and.community welfare.'
50) These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the
surface of the Earth; the First gives the location of a place above or below the
equator, expressed by angular measurements ranging from at the equator o.90°at
the poles, while the Second gives the location of a place east or west of an upright
line called the prime meridian, and is measured in angles ranging from at the prime
meridian to 180° at the International Date Line.
A. Landmass and ocean
B. Cartesian x,y points
C. North pole and south pole
D. Latitude and longitude

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Questions # 21
1) 'Traffic calming' is a
A. Course of Tai Chi and 'Qi Gong' exercises to de-stress drivers
B. Package of grade-separation measures to physically segregate vehicles and
pedestrians
C. Package of measures to increase capacity of local roads so that traffic can
move more quickly
D. Package of traffic engineering measures to reduce speed on local roads and
divert through-traffic elsewhere
E. Police enforcement campaign to reduce vehicle noise and emissions
2) All of the following are exempted from regulation of PD 1096 National Building
Code of 1977, except
A. Traditional indigenous family dwellings
B. Socialized and low-cost housing under Batas Pambansa 220
C. Garden pools, grottos, aquariums not exceeding 500 mm in depth
D. Piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sq.m.
E. Sheds, outhouses, greenhouses ,gazebos,
aviaries, not exceeding 6 sq.m. in total area
3) Which of the following is not a measure of travel demand management (TOM)?
A. Controls on public transport
B. Controls on land use development
C. Controls on vehicle ownership
D. Controls on vehicle use
E. Controls on parking
4) This error in logic means that conclusions drawn from analysis of a group are applied
to the groups members without regard for individual variation or unknown factors that
can come from human attitude and idiosyncratic behavior.
A. Sweeping generalization
B. Argumentum ad hominem
C. Ecological fallacy
D. Equivocation
E. Begging the question
F. Fallacy of affirming the disjunct or the consequent
5) The following represent how government subsidizes automobile use over mass
transit, except one.
A. Large annual funding for highway maintenance
B. Government research on development of fuels
C. Investment incentives for tollway and expressway Corporations
D. Market rate and cost-recovery level for light rail fares
E. All of the above
6) This type of town regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height,
bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a
landmark (e.g. Eiffel Tower), natural landscape, or character of place
A. Design aesthetics

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 B. Architectural masterplan
C. Cultural mapping
D. Form-zoning
E. All of the choices
7) What planning measures contribute to the evolution and development of a
sustainable transportation system?
A. Reduce need to travel
B. Change people's travel behavior
C. Integrate different modes of transport
D. Give people more choices and more accessibility
E. Provide transport with new sources of energy
F. All of the above
G. None of the choices
8) The "SMART test" by George Doran means that both task objectives and 'process
objectives have to be specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and
A. Tenable
B. truthful
C. Time-bounded
D. Testable
E. Treatable
9) Under PD 1096, what is referred to as written authorization by the building official
allowing a constructed structure to be used by the owner
A. Building permit
B. Inspectorate clearance
C. Certificate of completion
D. Certificate of occupancy
E. All of the above
10) Which of following substances has lowest potential to contribute to air pollution &
atmospheric/meteorologic anomalies?
A. Nitrous Oxide - N20
B. Nitrogen Dioxide - NOx
C. Chlorofluorocarbons - CFCs
D. Hydrogen-containing CFCs (HCFCs)
E. Methane
F. Ozone
11) The negative criteria for the approval of variance is that
A. Such relief may be granted without substantial detriment to the public good
B. Such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and
purpose of the land use plan
C. Such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and
purpose of the zoning ordinance
D. All of the above.
E. None of the choices
12) Which of the following is not a research method?

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 A. Questionnaire
B. Interview
C. Appraisal
D. Case study
E. Survey
13) In the structure of informant interviews, the acronym "STAR" method stands for
A. Select, Talk, Articulate ,Relate
B. Solve, Test, Analyze, Repeat
C. Situation, Task, Action. Result
D. Salaries, Travels, Add-ons, Refunds
E. Simple, True, Action, Reflection
14) Climate change will affect the distribution of species because
A. Hot places will become hotter and cold places will become even colder
B. It will change the location of habitats that provide requirements for growth, survival,
or reproduction
C. Carbon production and carbon footprint of different species are unequal and
unevenly distributed worldwide
D. Many areas submerged in water will become dry, thus forming new land bridges
like in the last glacial age
E. All of the choices
F. None of the choices
15) Framework for Action 2005-2015 (HFA) to make the world safer
and to substantially reduce disaster losses. Which of 5 priority
areas below pertains to each community's coping mechanisms
and modifications in its way of life?
A. Ensure that disaster risk reduction becomes a national and
local priority with strong institutional basis for
implementation
B. Identify, assess, and monitor disaster risks and enhance
early warning systems.
C. Use knowledge, innovation and education to build a culture
of safety and resilience at all levels.
D. Reduce the underlying risk factors
E. Strengthen disaster preparedness for effective response at
all levels
16) This refers to amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of water
one degree Celsius, its approximate equivalent in Syteme
Internationale metric measurements is 1055 joules .
A. Calorie
B. Kelvin
C. BTU-British Thermal Unit
D. Kilojoule
E. Psi- pounds per square inch
17) In contrast to pedal-driven 'trisikad', what is environmentalists' basis of
opposition to two-stroke motor-driven tricycles?

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 A. Greater incidence of road accidents
B. Increase in air pollution
C. Limited Service capacity and range of movement
D. Slower speed increases congestion along national highways
E. All of the above
18) An individual, group, organization, sector or Community who has a direct or indirect
interest in a policy, program, or project, who affects or is affected by - positively or
negatively - the implementation and outcome of it, is called
A. Recipient/beneficiary
B. Proponent/exponent
C. Advocate
D. stakeholder
E. Shareholder
19) The use of a variety of methods, sources. or field team members, at least
three in kind or category, to cross check and validate information in order to
limit possible biases in a research study is called
A. Corroboration
B. Confirmatory test
C. triangulation
D. Reconnaissance
E. Cross-disciplinary control 3
20) What is a 'theory' in urban and regional planning as a field of social Science?
A. An educated guess being tested by numerous experiments
B. Outcome or proof to establish causal connection among key actors
and factors
C. A set of principles derived from envisioned future state of society
D. A set of interrelated propositions or hypotheses that has
been supported by several studies in the past
E. All of the choices
21) A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the
application of the right of reverter is called
A. Restrictive covenants
B. Telluric
C. Deed of sale
D. Monolithic
E. None of the above
22) How many acres are there in one hectare?
A. 2.47
B. 0.96
C. 3.28
D. 10
E. 100
23) What is the smallest time frame using the cohort survival method of population
analysis?

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 A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
E. 6 years
24) How many square meters are there in one acre?
A. 328
B. 1, 250
C. 4,047
D. 8,700
E. 43560
25) Exemptions, special permissions and relief from provisions of land use plan and
zoning ordinance are obtained from?
A. Office of the Mayor/Local Chief Executive
B. Planning Commission or Planning & Development Office
C. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
D. Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
E. Regional Development Office
F. Provincial Development Office
26) In 'Quality of Life Assessment,' which category of indicators of human ability and well-
being would have a clear spatial dimension?
A. "to be"
B. "not to be"
C. "to dream"
D. "to become"
E. "to do"
27) This method uses words rather than numbers to describe and measure key actors
and critical factors. Words are then arranged on a descriptive scale and given
approximate numeric values for analytic purposes, but such scale can not
accurately reflect magnitude or intensity of variables and dimensions.
A. Multi-variate Analysis
B. Qualitative Analysis
C. Muddling Through
D. Phenomenology
28) What is conventional Euclidean zoning most concerned about?
A. Unhampered flow of ideas, people, goods and services
B. Efficiency of land occupancy and non-wastage of space
C. Compatibility and non-compatibility of land uses
D. Liberalization and free play of market forces
E. All of the choices
29) Two test tubes were filled with a solution of bromthymol blue. A technician exhaled
through a straw into each tube, and the bromthymol blue turned yellow. An aquatic
green plant was placed into each tube, and the tubes were corked. One tube was
placed in the dark, and one was placed in direct sunlight. The yellow solution in the

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 tube in sunlight turned blue, while the one in the dark remained yellow. Which
statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in sunlight turned to a
blue color?
A. Oxygen was used for photosynthesis.
B. Oxygen was removed by respiration.
C. Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis.
D. Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration
E. None of the above
30) A "problem tree" is a
A. A kind of tree that grows in the wrong place
B. A method of environmental impact assessment
C. A tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems
D. Used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems
31) What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring
from a septic tank?
A. 15 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 35 meters
D. 45 meters
E. 55 meters
32) In the physical design of roads, which of the following increases the possibility of
accidents and mishaps?
A. Prescribed dimensions according to hierarchy of roads
B. Conforms to natural topography
C. Conforms to BP 344 Accessibility Law
D. Blind comers
E. Moderate slope/grade
F. Adequate sight distance
33) The strength of survey questionnaire as research instrument lies in
A. Ability to provide baseline data
B. Ability to measure or quantify
C. Ability to reveal potential relations between different sets of data
D. Ability to draw out the most sincere responses from informants
E. All of the choices
34) An environmental chemist in a laboratory reports a new discovery based on
experimental results. If the experimental results are to be valid, environmental
chemists in other laboratories should be able to
A. Repeat the experiment with a different variable and obtain the same results
B. perform the same experiment and obtain different results
C. Repeat the same experiment and obtain the same results
D. Perform the same experiment under different experimental conditions and
obtain the same results
E. All of the above
F. None of the choices

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35) The following are the basic elements of human settlements according to Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the built environment or physical
capital?
A. Anthropos
B. Nature
C. Shells and networks
D. Society
E. Social structure
36) Under PD 957, which one of the following is not necessary in determining the
suitability of the site for economic or socialized housing?
A. Physical suitability
B. Availability of basic needs
C. On the perimeter of an ecozone
D. Presence of geohazard
E. Conformity to the national development plan
F. Links to the transportation network
37) The setback of a septic tank from a residential wall should be at least 1.5 meters or
5 feet while the setback of a disposal field or leach field is 25 meters or 8 feet. What
should be the minimum distance between your septic tank and leach field from your
neighbors exterior wall?
A. 2 meters
B. 3 meters
C. 4 meters
D. 5 meters
E. 6 meters
38) According to scientific studies at UPLB, one degree Celsius (1°C) increase in
temperature and humidity reduces total rice yield by at least 8% and corn yield by at
least 5%. In livestock, the loss is as much as 33% of new offsprings due to
A. Congenital defects and deformations due to mutation
B. Reduced appetite, feed intake, and body energy reserve
C. Excessive burning of calories and loss of weight
D. Loss of mating opportunities for breeders
E. All of the above
39) When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which
consideration is first and foremost from the perspective of the approving authority?
A. Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition
B. Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
C. Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
D. Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus
shuttles, executives luxury cars
E. Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the
Local Government Unit
F. Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
40) Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of climate change?
A. Loss of fertile delta regions for agriculture

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 B. Change in global patterns of precipitation
C. Decreased rate of photosynthesis in vegetation
D. Increased frequency of hurricanes
E. Extinction of some species that have narrow temperature requirements
F. None of the choices
41) Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is
labeled as "very high density?"
A. 2 and above
B. 3 and above
C. 4 and above
D. 5 and above
E. 6 and above
42) The test of compelling governmental interest as defined by the US Supreme Court,
A. Means that conditions compel government to act the way that it does
B. Requires that governmental action be written in forceful language to compel
citizens to obey
C. Requires that legislation generally be the least restrictive means of
accomplishing the objective
D. Applies only if the challenged legislation has an impact on a fundamental
religious tenet or suspect classification
E. All of the above
43) The test of 'rational basis,' as defined by the US Supreme Court,
A. Requires that all government actions be the least restrictive means of
accomplishing the goal
B. Justifies a governmental action if there is a reasonable connection between
the action and its goal
C. Tests the relationship between a variance and its hardship
D. Only applies to zoning actions
E. All of the above
44) Which of the following greenhouse gases has the greatest heat-trapping ability per
molecule and was consequently phased out by the Montreal Protocol in 1989?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Chlorofluorocarbon
D. Methane
E. Nitrous oxide
45) A country currently has a population of 100 million and an annual growth rate of
35 percent. If the growth rate remains constant, what will be the population of
this country in 40 years?
A. 150 million
B. 200 million
C. 300 million
D. 400 million
E. 600 million

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46) A prediction is a conditional statement about the future based on mathematical
computation or statistical model that uses available data to extrapolate past and
present trends into the future, while _______is a judgmental statement of what an
analyst believes to be the most likely logical future according to his/her subjective
evaluation.
A. Premonition
B. Forecast
C. Foresight
D. Vibration
E. Prophecy
47) A mixed use building has 6 storeys of 1.00 sq. meter each on a lot area of 2,000
sq. meter. What is the FAR?
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 4:1
D. 5:1
E. 6:1
48) An investigation was designed to determine the effect of ultraviolet light on mold
spore growth. Two groups of mold spores were grown under identical conditions,
except one group was exposed only to ultraviolet light, while the other group was
grown in total darkness. In this investigation, the group of mold spores grown in total
darkness is known as the
A. Experimental group
B. Pilot group
C. Control group
D. Manipulated group
E. Focus group
49) Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of the sidewalk to that of the right
of way?
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/6
D. 1/2
E. 1//7
50) How many hectares are there in one square kilometer
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1,000
D. 10,000
E. 100,000

Questions # 24
1) Below are some of the documented deficiencies of governments socialized
housing with rowhouse design. Which deficiency is considered the principal cause
of the failure of off-city relocation in the Philippines?

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 A. 24 sq.m. is inappropriate for large urban families which are typically extended
B. Each dwelling unit has no space for waste sorting, composting, gardening,
and domestic crop production
C. Each dwelling has no provision for natural cooling and energy conservation by
means of protective trees
D. Most housing projects have no provisions for near-site workplaces or
employment centers
2) Under RA 7160 LGC, who among the following incumbents' may be allowed to
practice his/her primary profession while in public office?
A. Local Chief Executive
B. Congressman Representative
C. Vice-Governor
D. Municipal Accountant
3) Due to greater division of labor, there is more heterogeneity of population and
classes of workers beginning with
A. Primitive subsistence society
B. Pre-industrial society
C. Industrial society
D. Post-industrial society
4) Under the super-region concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of
the Mega Manila Extended Urban Region, would focus on
A. Hacienda farming
B. Meat processing
C. Commodity logistics chain
D. Cyber services
E. Tourism
5) In classic urban morphology, since cemeteries' perform solemn private functions'
that require neither exchange nor access to commerce, they ought to be located in
A. Prime agricultural land
B. Caves and rocky hills
C. Fringe belts
D. Desert
E. Marginal land
6) Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to
approve a Highly Urbanized City?
A. At least 200,000
B. At least 500,000
C. At least 1 million
D. At least 10 million
7) Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969), which steps' would
require the planner to perform 'facilitation' role rather than,"advice," "direction," or
"manipulation"?
A. Counseling; therapy
B. Consultation; placation
C. Informing

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 D. Partnership; delegated power; citizen control
8) What would be the most suitable use of geologic fault line with buffer strip of at least
5 m on both sides from the line?
A. Aqueduct or tunnel
B. Floodway
C. Venice-like canals
D. Open space farm
E. Wildlife refuge

9) PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40
meters from the high tide mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of
mangroves or swamps along the coast with width of at least
A. 20 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 35 meters
E. 40 meters
10) The 'bundle of rights' over private alienable-&-disposable property include all of the
following rights except
A. Utilize, cultivate, develop
B. Enjoy benefits and earn from
C. Access, prevent access & control
D. Non-use, abuse, and misuse
E. Mortgage, sell, or dispose
F. Transfer and pass on
11) Which of the following is not considered idle land under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 2377
A. Agriculture land of at least one-hectare with 50% of whole area bare and
uncultivated
B. Urban land of at least 1,000 sq.m. with 50% of whole area unutilized and
unimproved upon
C. Grazing land with thick grasses used for pasture of 100 heads of cattle
D. Stud farm on public land with no ongoing· breeding or training activities
12) A duly-registered cooperative acquires a river-dredging machinery and waste-water
treatment equipment. Should such acquisitions be subject to real property taxation
under RA 7160 LGC Section 234?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on the Local Chief Executive
D. Subject to the discretion of Assessor
13) In Walter Christaller's central place theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example
of 'first-order services' while grocery store, gas station, furniture, and post office are
examples of
A. Secondary services
B. Tertiary services
C. Quaternary services

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 D. Quinary services
14) Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to
approve a Highly Urbanized City?
A. At least 200,000
B. At least 500,000
C. At least 1 million
D. At least 10 million
15) In the biggest and most crowded city during Antiquity, poor residents of Rome (44
BCE) lived on units in multi-storey residential buildings which they rented but could
not own; these were called
A. 'abode'
B. 'domus'
C. 'appartement'
D. 'tenema'
16) In classic urban morphology, since cemeteries' perform solemn private functions'
that require neither exchange nor access to commerce, they ought to be located in
A. Prime agricultural land
B. Caves and rocky hills
C. Fringe belts
D. Desert
E. Marginal land
17) Under the current setup, what government agency has the final authority on
conversion of agricultural land?
A. DAR
B. Department of Agriculture
C. Land Registration Authority
D. Land Management Bureau
E. HLURB
F. HUDCC
18) "Old dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
A. 60 and above
B. 65 and above
C. 70 and above
D. 80 and above
19) Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969), which steps' would
require the planner to perform 'facilitation' role rather than,"advice," "direction," or
"manipulation"?
A. Counseling; therapy
B. Consultation; placation
C. Informing
D. Partnership; delegated power; citizen control
20) UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to education
(public and private) per thousand population. How much combined area of schools
is the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?

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 A. 40 hectares
B. 24 hectares
C. 10 hectares
D. 240 hectares
21) If "pre-industrial society" is mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and
relatively parochial, "industrial society" in contrast
A. Minimizes farming to channel capital into factories
B. Prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
C. Aims for mass production through mechanization & automation
D. Relies on the output of white-collar professionals
22) Due to greater division of labor, there is more heterogeneity of population and
classes of workers beginning with
A. Primitive subsistence society
B. Pre-industrial society
C. Industrial society
D. Post-industrial society
23) 'Working-age population" including those actively seeking and not seeking work,
covers those with ages between
A. 10-65
B. 15-64
C. 18-65
D. 21-60
24) In terms of land use compatibility, what specific use would be least suitable next to
a military police firing range?
A. Funeraria
B. Memorial park
C. Residential
D. Open space
E. Forest
25) ''Young dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
A. 0-4
B. 0-6
C. 0-10
D. 0-14
26) What is the smallest unit in the human settlements planning" by Dr. Konstantinos
Doxiadis (1951)?
A. House
B. Anthropos
C. Organism
D. Neighborhood
E. Hamlet
27) Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wrights 'Broadacre City' (1932)?
A. Each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land
B. Food garden or small farm would be right next to the house

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 C. Manufacture commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
D. Work within walking distance from the home
E. Railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
F. Densification would preserve much open space
28) Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under ekistics school of Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?
A. Ecumenopolis
B. Megalopolis
C. Metropolis
D. Agropolis
E. Eperopolis
29) All of the following are true about urban planning except
A. Changing a city's physical form does not automatically reshape social life
B. Planning always takes place within a framework of economic and political
realities
C. Planners should be allowed to control all technical aspects of how cities are built
D. The goals of the planning experiments of the last century have not been met
E. Cities should be designed in a way that fosters economic, social, cultural and
environmental integration.
30) In his ''Theory of Good City Form,' he argued that norms such as vitality, sense, fit,
access, control, efficiency, and justice - ought to characterize the performance of
cities as settlements.
A. Kevin Lynch
B. Edward Tollman
C. John Trawls
D. Camillo Sitte
31) Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec 3, this refers to housing programs and projects
undertaken by the government or the private sector for the underprivileged and
homeless citizens which include sites and services development, long-term financing,
liberalized terms on interest payments, and other related benefits.
A. Economic housing
B. Socialized housing
C. Low-cost housing
D. Open-market housing
32) Below are some of the documented deficiencies of governments socialized housing
with rowhouse design. Which deficiency is considered the principal cause of the
failure of off-city relocation in the Philippines?
A. 24 sq.m. is inappropriate for large urban families which are typically extended
B. Each dwelling unit has no space for waste sorting, composting, gardening, and
domestic crop production
C. Each dwelling has no provision for natural cooling and energy conservation by
means of protective trees
D. Most housing projects have no provisions for near-site workplaces or
employment centers
33) Which is not an instrument to prove private rights over land?

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 A. Certificate of Title
B. CLOA
C. Free Patent
D. DTI-IPR Patent
E. Tax Declaration
F. CADT
34) In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to
make a service viable.
A. Resident population
B. Captive market
C. Threshold population
D. Population explosion
35) Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 98, who among the following members of the Local School
Board, other than the Governor or Mayor, has an elective office?
A. Division Superintendent or District Supervisor
B. LGU Treasurer
C. Chairperson of sanggunians committee on education
D. Representatives of federations of teachers, SK youth, PTAs, non-academics
36) UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban-land
(residential, commercial, industrial, etc.) and 6 hectares of farm need to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban land is needed for a town of
22,000?
A. 62.7 hectares
B. 125.4 hectares
C. 220 hectares
D. 1.14 hectares
37) "Decide, announce, defend" summarizes "top-down" planning and management; its
opposite in 'bottom up' planning and management that involves multiple
stakeholders would be described as -
A. Delegate, deload, discharge
B. Discuss, decide, deliver
C. Debate, distill, deliberate
D. Dispute, discourse, direct
38) Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as
fathered by Paul Davidoff (1965)
A. Single women with children were assisted to find employment
B. Social planning was moved from backroom negotiations into the open public
forum
C. Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
D. Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national
policy
E. Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the
poor.

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39) HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for an
independent chartered city of 200,000 people?
A. 200 hectares
B. 400 hectares
C. 500 hectares
D. 2,500 hectares
40) Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring moratorium on the
cutting and harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the total
log ban until the year 2016?
A. Concessions signed by DENR secretary
B. Conversion of mangrove forests
C. Alternate harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
D. Small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging',and kaingin
41) According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'Invasion' refers to how pioneers
and opportunists push the 'land frontier' farther out; when immigrants settle in
waves, they define new land uses for themselves in a process called
A. Evolution
B. Co-location
C. Succession
D. Acclimatization
E. Cohabitation
42) This refers to a period in US planning history (1890s) when cities were conceived as
total systems designed with broad circulation arteries, network of parks, cluster of
focal buildings, and blocks of civic centers in aesthetic harmony.
A. New Towns Movement
B. City Efficient Movement
C. City Beautiful Movement
D. City Functional Movement
43) 'Performance Zoning' can be described as a tool that
A. Allows property owners with limited development rights to buy additional rights
from another property
B. Cities can use these to encourage development that exceeds the minimum
standards
C. Regulates the character and quality of the use instead of simply regulating the
mere use itself
D. Establishes objective thresholds and maximum limits of the effects or
characteristics of land use
44) What would be the most suitable use of geologic fault line with buffer strip of at
least 5 m on both sides from the line?
A. Aqueduct or tunnel
B. Floodway
C. Venice-like canals
D. Open space farm
E. Wildlife refuge

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45) Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the city-state, the 'marketplace' was the site
where ancient Greeks came together not only for trading and buying of foodstuffs but
also for political, social, and other secular activities
A. 'Parthenon'
B. 'gymnasium'
C. 'erechtheum'
D. 'agora'
E. 'sumposion'
46) Of the so-called "super-regions," which one is being promoted as having the
comparative advantage in tourism?
A. North Luzon
B. Central Philippines
C. Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
D. Davao Silicon Gulf
47) Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, one of the following is not among the types of cities in
the Philippines.
A. Highly Urbanized Cities
B. Independent Cities
C. Sister Cities
D. Component Cities
48) In Clarence Steins Six Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns
traffic caused by roadside parking
A. Plan simply, but comprehensively
B. Provide ample sites in the right places for community use
C. Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful
transportation of people and goods
D. Cars must be stored inside homes
E. Bring private land and public land into relationship
F. Arrange for the occupancy of houses
49) Under the super-region concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of
the Mega Manila Extended Urban Region, would focus on
A. Hacienda farming
B. Meat processing
C. Commodity logistics chain
D. Cyber services
E. Tourism
50) Which of the following is not a part of the General Welfare Clause of RA 7160 LGC
Section 167
A. Hospitality and festivity
B. Economic prosperity
C. Balanced ecology & social justice
D. Health and safety
E. Preservation & enrichment of culture
F. Appropriate self-reliant science & technology

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Questions # 25
1) The highest and best use of a 30 sq.km freshwater lake based on computation of
both monetary and non-monetary values, is best illustrated in the following
combination:
A. Five-star resort hotel that caters to foreign tourists, with boating, wakeboarding,
jetski and other sports facilities;
B. Five-star resort hotel plus high-end Retirement Haven that contributes substantial
revenues to the LGU;
C. Manufacturing park with 20 locators and ready facilities for industrial cooling and
dumping of factory wastewater;
D. Ecotourism plus fisheries, ferry transport, sports, wellness centers, flood-holding
area, aquatic parks and sanctuaries
2) An LGU regulation prohibiting a landowner from using his/her residential lot as a
firing range is considered an exercise of the power of the State called
A. Escheat
B. Eminent domain
C. Taxation
D. Police power
E. Moral suasion
F. Sovereignty
3) According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total
cumulative housing need would reach 6,732,464 by year 2016, but governments
capacity to directly provide houses only averages 120,000 units per annum. What
would be a more rational strategy for housing development?
A. Leave to private households the matter of housing development according to the
free play of market forces;
B. Allow big foreign companies with enormous capital to undertake mass shelter
projects;
C. Rationalize taxation of land so that developers can bring down overall cost of
house and lot packages;
D. LGUs should improve CLUP-Zoning so that price of land would be kept low
E. Stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in
multi-partite housing production.
4) In the equation, Disaster = (Hazard)x (Exposure/Preparedness) x
(Vulnerability/Coping Capacity), Disaster can be reduced by
A. Decreasing vulnerability by eliminating hazard
B. Training people to cope and cope unceasingly
C. Preparing people to anticipate and to equip themselves constantly
D. Changing the equation of exposure by creating a risk-free world
5) Which of the following is not a function of the Housing and Urban Development
Coordinating Council?
A. Custodian and keeper of all resources of government related to housing and
urban development;
B. Determine participation and coordinate activities of key housing agencies in
national housing program;

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 C. Monitor, review and evaluate the effective exercise by government housing
agencies of their assigned functions;
D. Assist in the maximum participation of the private sector in all aspects of housing
and urban development;
E. Recommend new legislation and amendments to existing laws as may be
necessary for the attainment of governments objective in housing;
6) Under RA 7942 Philippine Mining Act of 1995, a mining enterprise with
capitalization of more than 10 million and an operating area of over 20 hectares,
can be considered
A. Medium-scale
B. Global-scale
C. Large-scale
D. Cottage-scale
7) In Ernest Burgess' concentric model (1925), factories and workshops
would most likely locate in
A. The innermost circle
B. The outermost circle
C. The second circle from the center
D. The third circle from the center
8) Which of the following is not a function of the National Economic and Development
Authority?
A. Proper allocation of expenditures for each development activity between
current operating expenditures and capital outlays;
B. Evaluation of the fiscal, monetary and balance of payments implications of
major national projects,
C. Privatization and public accountability of corporations and assets owned,
controlled or acquired by the government
D. Advice the President on matters concerning social development, education,
manpower, health and nutrition, population and family planning, housing,
human settlements, and the delivery of other social services;
E. Recommend appropriate policies, programs and projects consistent with
national development objectives
9) 986. An area in most cities ·where regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls,
sports stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers are located, is zoned as
A. C-1
B. C-2
C. C-3
D. Tourism zone
E. Financial District
10) Since the permitted width of four-wheel vehicle is 2.5 meters and the minimum
clearance between two parallel vehicles is 0.50 meters, what should be the ideal
width of a two-lane farm-to-market road also called barangay road?
A. 3 meters
B. 6 meters
C. 9 meters
D. 12 meters

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11) Which factor increases a population's 'vulnerability' to disaster?
A. Young-age and old-age dependency
B. Lack of resources to change physical location
C. Crowding & congestion
D. Lack of information
E. Illness and disability
F. All of the choices
12) "Identity, structure, and meaning - Cities that have buildings and natural features
with strong identities, street patterns that are easy to comprehend, and other form
elements that have functional and symbolic meanings are likely to be more
imageable than cities lacking such attributes."
A. Kevin Lynch
B. Edward Tollman
C. John Trawls
D. Camilo Sitte
13) An area within a city or town where the average density is 20 dwelling units per
hectare or below, with majority of lot sizes are between 300-800 square meters or
more, is zoned as
A. R-1
B. R-2
C. R-3
D. R-4
E. Mixed Use Zone
14) According to R. Hurd, since land value depends on economic rent, and rent on
location, and location on convenience, and convenience on nearness, we may
eliminate the intermediate steps and say that land value depends on nearness."
A. Social connection
B. Proximity and access
C. Ease of movement
D. Free play of market forces
15) Why do land values at the center of an overpopulated city fall drastically?
A. Pollution, land degradation, disease
B. Urban blight, decay, and criminality
C. Congestion, overcrowding, traffic
D. Deteriorating quality of life
E. All of the choices
16) Which of the following will not reduce vulnerability to hazards
A. Maintaining 'healthy' natural systems
B. Restricting development in hazardous areas
C. Stockpiling emergency goods and disaster relief
D. Requiring safer building standards
17) Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs comprising
lands, inland waters coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim
of ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/lPs, by themselves or through their
ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously up to the present"

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 A. Tribal land
B. Cultural heritage
C. Autonomous region
D. Ethnic realm
E. Ancestral domain
18) Under RA 7076 People's Small-scale Mining Act of 1991, the following are
characteristics of small-scale mining except
A. Capitalization of not more than 10 million
B. Use of explosives for excavating and tunneling
C. Not more than 20 hectares in total size
D. Gross production not more than 50,000
E. Artisanal and labor-intensive
19) In the conventional land economics by Raleigh Barlowe (1958), what are the three
determinants of land value?
A. Farm harvest, wild growth, usufruct
B. Scarcity, utility, desirability
C. Sale, lease, rent
D. Location, permanence, transferability
20) What does the Gini coefficient measure?
A. Savings rate
B. Real estate tax
C. Income inequality
D. Poverty
E. Return on investment
21) Which law exempts, in Section 20, cremation, siga, bonfires, traditional cultural
practices, etcetera from the total ban on incineration?
A. RA 8749
B. RA 9003
C. RA 6969
D. RA 9275
22) Which is not one of Natures ecosystemic services and functions as adopted by the
United Nations?
A. Climate regulation
B. Food and fiber
C. Nutrient cycling
D. Soil formation
E. Physical aberrations and anomalies
F. Biological treatment of water and storm runoff
23) In "Ecological Economics" by Daly and Costanza, non-use of ENR has economic value
because it can result in greater "environmental protection and security"
A. Existence value
B. Insurance value
C. Bequest value
D. Vicarious value

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 E. All cf the above
24) 'Linear regression' is a statistical method used to:
A. Establish that as supplies increase, prices decrease
B. Calculate the probability of a sample value being within 1.96 standard-
deviations of the mean
C. Determine the influence of one or more independent variables on a dependent
variable
D. Estimate the degree to which research findings may be generalized
25) Which of the following is least effective for controlling soil erosion caused by wind
and water?
A. planting windbreaks
B. Planting cover crops
C. Removing crop stubble from surface
D. Using conservation tillage
26) "Environmental Economics" by Randall and Howe calculates the value in use of
natural resources by creating them as
A. Stock resources, flow resources, reproducing resources
B. Renewable, replenishable, replicable
C. Extant, extinct, exhaustible
D. Inputs, throughputs, outputs
27) According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the additives to
gasoline that are harmful to both people and nature?
A. Methyl tertiary butyl ether
B. Isooctane and heptane
C. Molybdenum oxide
D. Tetraethyl
28) Under RA 7076 People's Smallscale Mining Act of 1991, who are the preferred
holders of small-scale mining permits?
A. Guilds
B. Cooperatives
C. Sanggunian
D. NGOs
E. Micro-scale and cottage enterprises
29) A water system composed of a source, reservoir, distribution system, and communal
faucets. Usually, one faucet serves 4 to 6 households, generally suitable for rural and
urban-fringe areas where houses are clustered densely to justify a simple piped-
system.
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV
30) In planning public facilities and utilities, 'population density' should be rationally
matched with
A. Materials & machines
B. Nuts and bolts

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 C. Service capacity infrastructure
D. Investments of government
31) The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
A. Cities have varied natural resources that stimulate progress in different locations
B. Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
C. Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or circuits of capital
D. Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones
of cities
32) Which of the following data-sets is least needed in Economic Area Analysis?
A. Population forecasts
B. Employment trends
C. Income levels
D. Cohort survival
E. Poverty incidence of households
F. Retail sales of registered enterprises
33) In statistics, this is a value in a set of sample observations which occurs most often
or with the greatest frequency
A. Recurrence
B. Returns
C. Mode
D. Average
E. Sum
F. Minuend
34) The following factors combine to cause flashfloods and large-scale flooding, except
A. Amount of rainfall
B. Winds and gusts
C. Loss of tree cover causing erosion & siltation
D. waterways clogged with household wastes
E. Impervious concrete surfaces
F. Natural topography
35) In water supply planning, what classification of water should a residential consumer
get from a faucet?
A. Class AA
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E
36) Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines·as declared by
UNESCO?
A. Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao
B. Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
C. Magellan's Cross in Cebu·
D. Rice Terraces of the Philippines
E. Puerto Princesa Underground River

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 F. Historic Town of Vigan
37) 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' commonly results from what Pierce F. Lewis calls
A. Circumferential City
B. Multi-cellular City
C. Stellar City
D. Galactic City
38) In classical theories of industrial location by Weber, Losch, and lsard, what are the
three factors that firms are most concerned about?
A. Minerals, electricity, water
B. Costs of money, taxes, stock exchange growth
C. Location of raw materials, location of market, transport
D. Product image, promotion & advertising, public relations
39) Under PD198 dated May 25, 1973, if a 'water district' can be created for at least one
municipality or cluster of municipalities, what would be the minimum population to
be serviced within a water district?
A. 15,000
B. 25,000
C. 35,000
D. 45,000
E. 55,000
40) According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to
"historical sites or structures hallowed and revered for their history or association as
declared by the National Historical Institute"
A. Epochal Landmark
B. National Treasure
C. National Cultural Property
D. Historic Shrine
E. Sacred Place
41) 'Republic Act that provides for conservation and protection of wildlife resources and
their habitats is numbered as
A. RA 9147
B. RA 9714
C. RA 4791
D. RA 1479
Feedback
R.A. 9147 "Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act."
42) Under Executive Orders 127, 127-A and 292, which of the following is not a
function of the Department of Finance?
A. Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal policies of
government;
B. Supervision of the revenue operations of all local government units;
C. Conceptualization of major government investments on infrastructure and
utilities;
D. Review, approval and management of all public sector debt, domestic or
foreign;

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 E. Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal and tax policies;
43) In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of the
innermost circle in the diagram is
A. Farming of the most expensive crops
B. Terminal for commuters, central rail station
C. Central park
D. Shopping & retail services
44) The shifts in perspective from victim as receiver to victim as actor, 'from doleout of
goods to capacity building and institution-building,' 'from individual aid to restoration
of the social system,' 'from outside response to community initiatives' -all form part of
the paradigm of
A. Quick emergency response
B. Disaster risk reduction
C. Disaster recovery management
D. Search, rescue & rehab
45) Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and
Ortigas Center?
A. Landmark
B. Cosmopolitan
C. District
D. Downtown
E. Estate
46) The logical equation to describe "Risk" would be
A. Risk = Susceptibility x Vulnerability divided by Adaptive/Coping capacity
B. Risk = Exposure x Duration x Extent x Frequency
C. Risk = Hazard x Population Density + Income
D. Risk = Exposure x Probability x Coincidence
47) The most profitable utilization of property based on what is physically possible,
ecologically sound, legally permissible, and financially viable, thus resulting in the
optimal value of the property, is called
A. Maximum Sustainable Yield
B. Feasibility
C. Highest & Best Use
D. Cost-efficiency
48) "Conservation" from the perspective of environmental economics' would include all
but one of the following
A. Society's savings from strict preserves
B. Elimination of social and economic waste
C. Orderly and efficient resource use
D. Maximization of social net returns over time
49) In Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end
subdivisions?

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 A. Section 'A'
B. Section 'B1'
C. Section 'C'
D. Section 'D'
50) According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total
cumulative housing need According to the Medium Term Philippine Development
Plan 2011-2016, among nine countries in East Asia being compared, the
Philippines has the highest officially-reported poverty incidence at 26.6%,
the highest Gini coefficient at 0.448, the lowest rate increase in real per capita
income at 2.3% per annum, and among the highest unemployment rates per
annum. These figures indicate that
A. Philippine growth is not broadbased and could not create vast employment
opportunities for the majority;
B. Macroeconomic growth has not been adequately translated into human
development and social
progress.
C. Public investment favors few competitive sectors in central and urban places to
the neglect of the marginal and disadvantaged sectors;
D. Economic growth in real terms' is often too small to be offset by high population
growth.
E. Bad governance means there are chronic leakages of government resources &
low accountability and transparency in the development management.
F. All of the choices

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