Nsejs 2018 Exam Solutions Paper Code - JS511 PDF

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Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN )

NSEJS-2018 (IJSO STAGE-I)
Date of Examination : 18th November, 2018
PAPER CODE - JS511
SOLUTIONS
1. A tiny ball of mass m is initially at rest at height H above a cake of uniform thickness h. At some
moment the particle falls freely, touches the cake surface and then penetrates in it at such a constant
rate that its speed becomes zero on just reaching the ground (bottom of the cake). Speed of the ball at
the instant it touches the cake surface and its retardation inside the cake are respectively
æH ö æH ö
(a) 2gh and g ç - 1 ÷ (b) 2g(H - h) and g ç - 1 ÷
èh ø èh ø
æh ö æh ö
2g(H - h) and g ç - 1 ÷
EN (c)
Ans. (b)
Sol.
H–h
h
B
2gh and g ç - 1 ÷
A
èH
ball
ø
H
(d)
èH ø
C
For A to B
LL
U = 0 m/s
a = g m/s2
S=H–h
V = VB
By third equation v2 = u2 + 2as
2 2
vB = (0) + 2 × g × (H – h)
vB = 2g(H - h)
For B to C
A
u = vB = 2g(H - h)
S=h
v = vC = 0 m/s
a = –a (retardation)
By third equation
v2 = u2 – 2as
02 = u2 – 2as
v 2B 2g(H - h)
a = u / 2S =
2 =
2´ h 2h
æH ö
= g ç - 1÷
èh ø
PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 1
Ph: 0744-5162600 | Email: prenurture@allen.ac.in
2. Two sound waves in air have wavelengths differing by 2 m at a certain temperature T. Their notes
have musical interval 1.4. Period of the lower pitch note is 20 ms. Then, speed of sound in air at this
temperature (T) is
(a) 350 m/s (b) 342 m/s (c) 333 m/s (d) 330 m/s
Ans. (a)
Sol. Given that
TL = 20 ms
1 1
fL = T = 20 ´ 10-3 Hz ... (1)
L
Given that
fH
fL = 1.4
fH = 1.4 × fL ... (2)

ENNow,
lL – lH = 2
V V
- =2
fL fH
é1 1ù
V êf - f ú = 2
ë L Hû
LL
é1 1 ù
V ê f - 1.4f ú = 2
ë L L û
Vé 1 ù
1- =2
fL ë 1.4 úû
ê
V é 0.4 ù
=2
fL êë 1.4 úû
A
V 14
fL = 2 ×
4
1
V = 7fL = 7 × = 3.5 × 100 = 350 m/s
20 ´ 10 -3
2 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

3. Two plane mirrors M1 & M2 have their reflecting faces inclined at q. Mirror M1 receives a ray AB,
reflects in at B and sends it as BC. It is now reflected by mirror M2 along CD, as shown in the figure.
Total angular deviation d suffered by the incident ray AB is
M1
D
A
B
d1
q d2 M2
O
C
EN(a) d = 90° + 2q
Ans. (d)
Sol. d = d1 + d2
= 2a + 2b
(b) d = 180° + 2q
a
B
a
a
M1
(c) d = 270° – 2q (d) d = 360° – 2q
= 2(a + b)
= 2(180 – q) q b b M2
LL
d = 360 – 2q C b
4. In the adjacent figure, line AB is parallel to screen S. A linear obstacle PQ between the two is also parallel
to both. AB, PQ and Screen S are coplanar. A point source is carried from A to B, along the line AB.
What will happen to the size of the shadow of PQ (cast due to the point source) on the screen S?
A
P
A
Q
B
(a) It will first increase and then decrease

(b) It will first decrease and the increase.
(c) It will be of the same size for any position of the point source on the line AB.
(d) Umbra will increase and penumbra will decrease till central position.
Ans. (c)

Sol. DCPT ~ DCMR
A M
MR CR
= P
PT CT
C a R
b T
CR D
MR = × PT = PT
CT d d Q
Similarly B N
D
D
RN = QT
d
length of shadow
D D
MR + RN = PT + QT
d d
D D
= (PT + QT) = PQ = constant
d d
T M
A
EN If point sources is at point A
x D
=
PT d
D
PT
Q
P
R
x
x= d
y
d B
D y–x
D
y= QT
d
LL
length of shadow is
D N
RN = y – x = (QT - PT)
d
D
= PQ = constant
d
5. Two particles P 1 and P 2 move towards origin O, along X and Y-axes at constant speed u1 and u2
respectively as shown in the figure. At t = 0, the particles P1 and P2 are at distances a and b respectively
A
from O. Then the instantaneous distance s between the two particles is given by the relation.
O
P1
u1
u2
P2
(a) s = [a2 + b2 + (u12 + u22)t2 – 2t(au1 + bu2)]1/2 (b) s = [a2 + b2 + (u12 + u22)t2 – 2t(bu1 + au2)]1/2
(c) s = [a2 + b2 + (u12 + u22)t2 + 2t(au1 + bu2)]1/2 (d) s = [a2 – b2 + (u12 + u22)t2 – 2t(au1 + bu2)]1/2
Ans. (a)

a
Sol. a – u1t
u1 O
P1
P'1
u1t b – u2t
b
P'2
u2t
P2
after t sec the distance
P '1 P '2 = (OP '1 ) 2 + (OP '2 )2 = (a - u1t) 2 + (b - u 2 t) 2
= a 2 + b2 + t 2 (u12 + u 22 ) - 2t(au 1 + bu 2 )
6. An electric generator consume some oil fuel and generates output of 25 kW. Calorific value (amount
of heat released per unit mass) of the oil fuel is 17200 kcal/kg and efficiency (output to input ratio) of
the generator is 0.25. Then, mass of the fuel consumed per hour and electric energy generated per ton
EN of fuel burnt are respectively

(a) 0.5 kg, 20000 kWh
(c) 5 kg, 5000 kWh
Ans. (c)
Sol. (a) h = 0.25
P0 = 25 kW
(b) 0.5 kg, 5000 kWh
(d) 5 kg, 20000 kWh
P0 25
So Pi = = = 100kW
h 0.25
LL
So Ei = Pi × t = 100 kW × 1hr
= 100 kWh = 100 × 3.6 × 106 J
J
Calorific value of fuel is = 17200 × 103 × 4.2
kg
So amount of fuel required in 1 hr.
Ei 100 ´ 3.6 ´ 10 6
m= =
A
Calorific value 17200 ´ 10 3 ´ 4.2

= 4.983 kg
; 5 kg
(b) Energy contained per ton of fuel
= 17200 × 103 × 4.2 × 1000 J
E0 = h × Ei = 0.25 × 17200 × 103 × 4.2 × 1000
= 1.806 × 1010 J
1.806 ´ 1010
= kWh
3.6 ´ 106
= 5016.66 kWh
; 5000 kWh

7. Image is obtained on a screen by keeping an object at 25 cm and at 40 cm in front of a concave mirror.
Image in the former case is four times bigger than in the latter. Focal length of the mirror must be
____.
(a) 12 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 36 cm
Ans. (b)
f
Sol. m =
f -U
f f
m1 = =
f - ( -25) f + 25
f
m2 =
f + 40
but m1 = 4 × m2
f f
= 4´
f + 25 f + 40
f + 40f = 4f2 + 100f
2
8.
EN 3f2 = –60 f
3f = –60
f = –20 c.m.
A glass cube of refractive index 1.5 and edge 1 cm has a tiny black spot at its center. A circular dark
sheet is to be kept symmetrically on the top surface so that the central spot is not visible form the top.
1 1 1
Minimum radius of the circular sheet should be (Given : = 0.707, = 0.577, = 0.447)
2 3 3
(a) 0.994 cm (b) 0.447 cm (c) 0.553 cm (d) 0.577 cm

Ans. (b)
LL
n a AB
Sol. By snell's law sin ic = =
n g OB
A r B
n a AB 1 r iC
0.5cm
Þ = Þ = iC
n g OB æ3ö r + (0.5)2
2
ç ÷
è2ø 1 cm
O
2 r
A
Þ =
3 r + (0.5) 2
2
4 r2
Þ =
9 r 2 + (0.5)2
Þ 4r2 + 4 × (0.5)2 = 9r2
4r2 + 4 × 0.25 = 9r2
5r2 = 1
1
r= = 0.447 cm
5

9. A metal rod of length L at Temperature I, when heated to temperature T', expands to new length L'.
These quantities are related as L' = L(1 + a[T' – T] where a is a constant for that material and called as
coefficient of linear expansion. Correct SI unit of a is
(a) m-K–1 (b) m-K (c) K–1 (d) a is a pure number
Ans. (c)
Sol. L1 = L [1 + a DT]
1
By principle of homogeneity [a] =
[ DT]
unit of a is k–1
10. A paramedical staff nurse improvises a second's pendulum (time period 2s) by fixing one end of a
string of length L to a ceiling and the other end to heavy object of negligible size. Withing 60 oscillations
of this pendulum, she finds that the pulse of a wounded soldier beats 110 times. A symptom of
bradycardia is pulse < 60 per minute and that of tachycardia is > 100 per minute. Then the length of
the string is nearly _______ and soldier has symptoms of ______.
(a) 1 m, bradycardia (b) 4 m, bradycardia (c) 1 m, tachycardia (d) 4 m, tachycardia
EN
Ans. (a)
Sol. T = 2p
l
l
g
=2
Þ p2 × g = 1 Þ l = 2 ;
g 10
p 10
; 1m
If time period of pulse beat is T1 then.

60 × 2 = 110 × T1
120 12
LL
T1 = =
110 11
1 11
So Frequency of pulsebeat f1= = Hz
T1 12
11
So number of beats in 1 minute = ´ 60 = 55 beats/min.
12
So soldier has symptoms of bardycardia
11. Each resistance in the adjacent circuit is R W. In order to have an integral value for equivalent resistance
A
between A and B, the minimum value of R must be :
A B
(a) 4 W (b) 8 W (c) 16 W (d) 29 W

Ans. (b)
R R/2 R
R R
R R/2 R
R R
Sol. A B
R R/2 R
R
R/2 R
R R
R 5R/4 R
R R
A B
R 5R/4 R
R 13R/8 R
A B
29R/8
A B
EN RAB =
R=8W
29R
8
In order to have an integral value for RAB.
th
æ3ö
12. A block of wood floats on water with ç ÷ of its volume above water. It is now made to float on a salt
è8ø
solution of relative density 1.12. The fraction of its volume that remains above the salt solution now,
is nearly _______.
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.44 (c) 0.67 (d) 0.56
LL
Ans. (b)
Sol. While floating on water
æ5 ö
FB1 = rw ´ v w ´ g = rw ´ ç v s ÷ ´ g ....(1)
è8 ø
while floating on salt water
FB2 = rsw ´ v sw ´ g = (1.12 × rw) × vsw × g ....(2)
A
But FB1 = FB2
5
rw × × vs × g = 1.12 × rw × vsw × g
8
5
Þ vsw = × vs
8 ´ 1.12
vsw
Þ v = 0.558
s
So fraction of volume above the salt water = 1 – 0.558 = 0.44

13. Suppose our scientific community had chosen force, speed and time as the fundamental mechanical
quantities instead of length, mass and time respectively and they chose the respective units of magnitudes
1
10 N, 100 m/s and s. Then the unit of mass in their system is equivalent to _______ in our system.
100
(a) 10 kg (b) 10–3 kg (c) 10 kg (d) 10–1 kg
Ans. (b)
Sol. [M] µ [F]a [V]b [T]c
[M] µ [MLT–2]a [LT–1]b [T]c
[M] µ [M]a [L]a + b [T]–2a – b + c
By comparison
a=1; a+b=0; –2a – b + c = 0
b = –a c = 2a + b
b = –1 =2–1=1
Substituting the values of a, b and c
F´t 10 ´ 1
So m = = = 10–3 kg
14.
EN v 100 ´ 100
Two equally charged identical pith balls are suspended by identical massless strings as shown in the
adjacent figure. If this set up in on Mercury (g = 3.7 m/s2), Earth (g = 9.8 m/s2) and Jupiter (g = 24.5 m/s2),
then angle 2q will be _______.
q q
1.0 m 1.0 m
LL
+ +
Q Q
(a) maximum on Mercury

(b) maximum on Earth, as it has atmosphere
(c) maximum on Jupiter
A
(d) the same on any planet as Coulomb force is independent of gravity

Ans. (a)
Sol.
q q
1.0 m 1.0 m
Tcosq Tcosq
Fe Fe
Tsinq Tsinq
mg mg

By F.B.D.
T cosq = mg ....(1)
T sinq = Fe .....(2)
Fe
tanq =
mg
1
tanq µ
g
So value of q will be maximum on mercury.
15. Three objects of the same material coloured white, blue and black can withstand temperature up to
2000°C. All these are heated to 1500°C and viewed in dark. Which option is correct?
(a) White object will appear brightest
(b) Blue object will appear brightest
(c) Black object will appear brightest
(d) Being at the same temperature, all look equally bright
Ans. (c)
Sol. Black will appear brightest at high temperature. Because in thermal equilibrium black body emits
more energy than any other body.
16.EN
Ans.
A car running with a velocity of 30 m/s reaches midway between two vertical parallel walls separated
by 360 m, when the driver sounds the horn for a moment. Speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. After
blowing horn, the first three echoes will be heard by the driver respectively at ________.
(a) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s
(b)
(b) 1.0 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s (c) 1.0 s, 2.0 s, 3.0 s (d) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.6 s
Sol. For first echo
v = 30 m/s
LL
180 m
30t + 330t = 360

360 × t = 360
t = 1 sec
For second echo

A
v = 30 m/s
30 m
vs
210
330t – 30 × t = 2 × 210
300t = 420
t = 1.4 sec.
So total time = 1 + 1.4 = 2.4 sec.

For third echo
v = 30 m/s
72 m
vs
108
30t + 330 t = 2 × 108
360 t = 216
216
t= = 0.6 sec.
360
So total time = 2.4 + 0.6 = 3.0 sec.
17. Choose correct option from the following statements from electrostatics :
(I) If two copper spheres of same radii, one hollow and the other solid are charged to the same
EN electrical potential, the solid sphere will have more charge.

(II) A charged body can attract another uncharged body.
(III) Electrical lines of force originating from like charges will exert a lateral force on each other, while
those originating from opposite charges can intersect each other.
(a) Only (I) is correct.
(c) Only (I) and (II) are correct.
(b) Only (II) is correct.
(d) All (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Only (II) is correct
LL
Charge resides only on the outer surface of the conductor. Since radius is same and charge will be
same to have the same potential.
Electrical line of force cannot intersect.
18. Refer the adjacent circuit. The voltmeter reads 117 V and ammeter reads 0.13 A. If the resistance of
voltmeter and ammeter are 9 kW and 0.015 W respectively, the value of R is _____.
A
A
(a) 500 W (b) 1 kW (c) 1.5 kW (d) 2 kW

Ans. (b)
9000 W
Sol. V
A
A R B
Þ VAB = i × Req
é R ´ 9000 ù
117 = 0.13 × ê ú
ë R + 9000 û
R = 1000 W

19. A bar magnet is allowed to fall freely from the same height towards a current carrying loop along its
axis, as shown in the four situations I to IV. Arrows show direction of conventional current. Choose
the situations in which the potential energy of the magnet coil interaction is maximum _____.
I N II S III N IV S
S N S N
(a) I, III (b) I, IV (c) II, IV (d) II, III

Ans. (b)
Sol. In (I) & (IV) magnet has to come against the magnetic force (repulsive force). So P.E. will be maximum.
20. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. Consider the following statements:
(I) Water will overflow if the beaker is cooled for some time.
EN (II) Water will overflow if the beaker is heated for some time.
Select correct option regarding (I) and (II).
(a) Only (I) is correct
(c) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(b) Only (II) is correct
(d) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
Ans. (c)
Sol. At 4ºC on cooling or heating water expands so
Both I and II are correct.
LL
21. P3– has a larger radius than atom of P because
(a) There is greater coulombic attraction between the nucleus and electrons in the p3– ion.
(b) The core electrons in p3– exert a weaker shielding force than those of a neutral atom.
(c) The nuclear charge is weaker in p3– than it is in P.
(d) The electrons in p3– have a greater coulombic repulsion than those in P atom.
Ans. (d)
A
Sol. The electrons in P3– have a greater coulombic repulsion than those in P atom
22. A substance is dissolved in water, forming a 0.5 molar solution. If 4.0 L of solution contains 240 g of
the substance, what is the molecular mass of the substance?
(a) 60 g/mole (b) l20 g/mole (c) 240g/mole (d) 480 g/mole
Ans. (b)
Sol. 120 g / mole
240 1
0.5 = ´ Þ MM = 120 g
MM 4

23. A car battery was kept for charging and after getting fully charged density of the battery acid (H2SO4)
was measured and found to be 1.28 g cm–3. If initial molarity of battery acid was 4.2 M then mass
percentage will be around.
(a) 28% (b) 30% (c) 32% (d) 34%
Ans. (c)
%mass ´ 1.28 ´ 10
Sol. 4.2 =
98
Þ % mass = 32.15%
24. Element "X" with atomic mass 10 was allowed to react completely with element "Y" of atomic mass
20 to form a compound. When this compound was analysed it was found that it contains 60% of X
and 40% of Y by weight. The simplest formula of this compound will be
(a) X3 Y (b) x2Y3 (c) Y3 x (d) x6Y4
Ans. (a)
Sol. X 3 Y
X Y
EN6
3
60%
10
X3 Y
(a) 14.7
2
1
40%
20
25. 4.095 X 1024 nitrogen atoms are filled in an enclosed gas cylinder of capacity two litre. The number of
moles of nitrogen gas in the cylinder is ____.
(b) 6.8 (c) 3.4 (d) 2.9
Ans. (c)
Sol. 4.095 × 1024 N-atoms = 2.0475 × 1024 N2-molecules
LL
2.0475 ´ 1024
= 3.39
6.023 ´ 1023
26. When surface tension experiment with capillary tube is performed, water rises up to 0.1 m. If the
experiment is carried out in space, water will rise in capillary tube _____.
(a) up to height of 0.1 m (b) up to height of 0.2 m
(c) up to height of 0.98 m (d) along its full length
Ans. (d)
Sol. along its full length due to absence of gravity and under effect of adhesive forces whole surface will
be covered.
A
27. Deepa was studying properties of gases. She took a flask and filled it with sulphur dioxide gas, and
weighed it at temperature T and pressure P. The weight of the flask containing the gas was found to be
W1 . She then flushed the flask, cleaned and filled it with methane at the same temperature and pressure.
The weight of the flask containing oxygen was found to be W2. She repeated the process with oxygen
under the same conditions and found the weight to be W3 : The ratio of the weights W1 : W2 : W3 is
(a) 2 : 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 (c) 4 : l : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4
Ans. (c)
Sol. Underline oxygen in above question was consider as methane, taking this correction answer as follows...
4:1:2
SO2 CH 4 : O2
W1 = n × 64 : W2 = n × 16 W3 = n × 32 (Avogadro Law)
4 : 1 : 2

28. Four gas jars filled with sulphur dioxide gas were inverted into troughs of water by four students P, Q,
R, S. The following observations and inference were reported by them.
P : Water did not enter the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is soluble in water.
Q : Water rushed into the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is soluble in water.
R : Water did not enter in the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is insoluble in water.
S : A small amount of water entered the gas jar slowly and sulphur dioxide is sparingly soluble in
water.
Then the correct set of observations and inference is reported by,
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) s
Ans. (d)
Sol. S : As the SO2 gas dissolves in water, will enter into the flask because SO2 is less soluble.
29. A solution of pure aluminium sulphate containing 0.170 g of aluminium ions is treated with excess of
barium hydroxide solution. Total weight of the precipitate will be:
(a) 0.5 g (b) 2.7 g (c) 1.7 g (d) 0.54 g
EN
Ans. (b)
Sol. Al2 (SO4 )3 + 3Ba(OH)2 ®
342 g
1.0766 g
formed by
Excess
3BaSO4 (ppt) + 2Al(OH)3 (ppt)
3 × 233
2.20 g 0.49 g
2.6910 g
0.17 g Al3+
30. A region of one square meter area was given to each Suhas, Bobby, Sandy and Kimi in a garden. The
daffodil plants grow best in the soil having a pH range of 6.0 to 6.5. If the soil has a pH 4.5, to grow
LL
daffodils, Suhas added common salt, Bobby added sodium phosphate, Sandy added aluminium
sulphate and Kimi added ammonium chloride in their allotted area. Who was successful in growing
daffodil?
(a) Suhas (b) Bobby (c) Sandy (d) Kimi
Ans. (b)
Sol. Salt of strong base and weak acid will undergo anionic hydrolysis result the increase in soil pH
PO4 + H2O HPO4 + OH–
3– 2–
A
31. Electrons in the last shell of X, Y, W and Z are 2, 6, 4 and 1 respectively. Which of the following
statement is correct?
(a) melting point of compound formed by X and Y is more than that of by W and Z.
(b) compound formed by X and Y is more volatile than that of by W and Z.
(c) melting point of compound formed by X and Z is more than that of by W and Y.
(d) Incomplete information so inference cannot be drawn.
Ans. (a)
Sol. Melting point of compound formed by X and Y is ionic in nature whereas W and Z will be co-valent
in nature, hence earlier exhibit higher m.p.

32. W g of pure coal was combusted in pure dry oxygen. The carbon dioxide gas obtained was absorbed
in 0.1 M KOH solution. The complete absorption of CO2 required 5 cm3 of 0.1 M KOH. The amount
of coal combusted is
(a) 3 mg (b) 6 mg (c) 11 mg (d) 12 mg
Ans. (a)
Sol. Number of milimoles of KOH = 2 × Number of milimoles of CO2
Þ 5 × 0.1 = 2 × Number of milimoles CO2
5 ´ 0.1
\ moles of CO2 = = 2.5 × 10–4
1000 ´ 2
\ moles of Coal = 2.5 × 10–4
\ mass of Coal = 2.5 × 10–4 × 12 g
= 0.003 g
= 3 mg
33. Sulphur di-oxide gas and ammonia gas were mixed in different proportions. The pair of gases containing
same number of molecules at NTP is __________.
EN (a) 1120 cm3 of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia

(c) 1680 cm3 of SO2 + 1.7 g of ammonia
Ans. (a)
Sol. Moles of SO2 =

1120
22400
= 0.05 moles
molecules of SO2 = 0.05 NA

(b) 0.25 g mole of SO2 + 2240 cm3 of ammonia
(d) 0.25 g mole of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia
0.85
moles of NH3 = = 0.05 moles
17
LL
molecules of NH3 = 0.05 NA
34. A strip of iron with mass 15.5 g is placed in a solution containing 21.0 g copper sulphate. After some
time the reaction stops. Iron strip was found to have mass 8.5 g. The mass of copper formed was
found to be 8.60 g. Find the mass of ferrous sulphate formed in this reaction.
(a) 19.40 g (b) 18.40 g (c) 17.40 g (d) 16.40 g
Ans. (a)
Sol. Fe + CuSO4 ® FeSO4 + Cu
t = 0 15.5 g 21.0 g (LR) 0 0
A
t = t 8.5 g 0 36.5 – 8.6 8.6 g

– 8.5
= 19.4 g
Law of mass conservation.
35. Sonu has N/2 HCl solution and Monu has N/10 HCl solution. They are asked to prepare 2 litres of
N/5 HCl solution. What volume of two solutions be mixed?
(a) (0.5 + 1.5) litre (b) (1.0 + 1.0) litre (c) (0.3 + 1.7) litre (d) (0.2 + 1.8) titre
Ans. (a)
Sol. (0.5 + 1.5) litre
æN ö éN ù N
ç 2 ´ x ÷ + ê10 ´ (2 - x) ú = 5 ´ 2
è ø ë û
x = 0.5 litre

36. A solution (P) was prepared by dissolving 6.3 g of oxalic acid in 100 ml water. 25 ml of this solution
was taken and was further diluted to 250 ml to prepare solution (Q). What weight of NaOH in ppm will
be required to neutralize 10 ml of solution (Q)?
(a) 10 ppm (b) 20 ppm (c) 40 ppm (d) 80 ppm
Ans. (c)
Sol. oxalic acid
6.3
g / ml oxalic acid initial solution
100
6.3
Þ ´ 25 g oxalic acid taken
100
6.3 25
Þ ´ g / ml oxalic acid solution taken
100 250
6.3 25
´ ´ 10 g oxalic acid taken for reaction
100 250
Þ COOH . 2H2O + 2NaOH ® COONa + 4H2O
| |
COOH COONa
37.
EN Q 126 g oxalic acid reacts = 2 × 40 g NaOH
\ 6.3 25
´
100 250
´ 10 g oxalic reacts =
2 ´ 40 6.3 25
´ ´
126 100 250
´ 10 g = 40 mg
Which of the following can improve the quality of petrol?

(a) n heptane (b) benzene (c) n hexadecane (d) iso-octane
Ans. (d)
Sol. Iso-octane
38. 2KBrO3 + 12H+ + l0e– ® Br2 + 6H2O + 2K+
From above reaction the equivalent weight of KBrO3 can be calculated as (M is molecular weight of
KBrO3 )
LL
(a) M/5 (b) M/10 (c) M/12 (d) M/2
Ans. (a)
Sol. 2KBrO3 ® Br 2
+5 O
nƒ = 5
M
Equivalent Weight =
5
39. Shaila took about l0 cm3 of a diluted Potassium hydrogen carbonate solution in a test tube. To this
A
solution she added few drops of universal indicator. The colour of the solution turned:
(a) orange (b) geen (c) blue (d) yellow
Ans. (c)
Sol. Blue
K+HCO3 + H2O K+ + H2CO3 + OH–1
–1
40. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Chalcocite – Copper (b) Magnetite – Iron
(c) Calamine – Aluminium (d) Galena – Lead
Ans. (c)
Sol. Calamine : ZnCO3

41. Let AB be a diameter of circle C1 of radius 30 cm and with center O. Two circes C2 and C3 of raddi 15
cm and 10 cm touch C1 internally at A and B respectively. A fourth circle C4 touches C1,C2 and C3 .
What is the largest possible radius of C4?
(a) 12 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm
Ans. (c)
Sol. There are two cases,
Case 1 :
C1
C2 C3
O2 10 O1 O3
A 10 B
10 15 15
–r
10 15
30
r
r r
O4 C
EN We have O1O4 = 30 – r
Now, consider triangle O2O3O4
O2 O1 DO1O2 O 4
We have O O = DO O O
1 3 1 3 3
4
10+r
O4
30-r
15+r
20 30 ´ 10 ´ r1 (20 - r)
using heron's formula = O2
20 O1 15
O3
15 30 ´ 15 ´ r1 (15 - r)
LL
4 2(20 - r)
Þ =
3 3(15 - r)
16 40 - 2r
Þ =
9 45 - 3r
Þ 720 – 48 r = 360 – 18r
Þ 30 r = 360
Þ r = 12
A
C1
B C3
10 C4
10 C2
Case 2 : 10
15
15 A
Diameter of C4 is 10 + 15 + 15 = 40
Þ R = 20 cm
Therefore, maximum radius is 20 cm.

42. A 5 × 5 × 5 cube is built using unit cubes. How many different cuboids (that differ in at least one unit
cube) can be formed using the same number of unit cubes?
(a) 1000 (b) 1728 (c) 2730 (d) 3375
Ans. (d)
Sol. In order to make cuboid we need two lines out of 6 lines from each dimensions
6
Hence, C2 ´ 6 C 2 ´ 6 C 2 = 3375
43. What is the largest value of the positive integer k such that k divides n2(n2 – 1) (n2 – n – 2) for every
natural number n?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48
Ans. (d)
Sol. n2(n2 – 1)(n2 – n – 2)
n2(n + 1)(n – 1)(n + 1)(n – 2)
= (n – 2)(n – 1)(n)2(n + 1)
= (n – 2)(n4–1)(n)(n +3
1) (n)(n+1)
1444 24444 1424 3
44.
EN 4 consective termsarealwaysdivsible by
8as wellas3, hence by 24
So, overall number is divisible by 24 × 2 = 48

twoconsective terms
alwaysdivisible by 2
A person kept rolling a regular (six faced) die until one of the numbers appeared third time on the top.
This happened in 12th throw and the sum of all the numbers in 12 throws was 46. Which number
appeared least number of times?
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) l
Ans. (c), (d)
Sol. 3x1 + 2(x2 + x3 + x4 + x5) + x6 = 46
For x6 least ® x6 = 1 (say)
LL
3x1 + 2(x2 + x3 + x4 + x5) = 45
Now, x1 should be odd and largest x1 = 5
2(x2 + x3 + x4 + x5) = 30
x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 15
Now remaining number 2, 3, 4, 6, 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 = 15, also
For x6 least ® x6 = 2 (say)
3x1 + 2(x2 + x3 + x4 + x5) = 44
A
Now, x1 should be even and largest x1 = 6

2(x2 + x3 + x4 + x5) = 26
x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 13
Now remaining number 1, 3, 4, 5, 1 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 13
So, both 1 as well as 2 is satisfying the given condition.
45. In a square ABCD, a point P is inside the square such that ABP is an equilateral triangle. The segment
AP cuts the diagonal BD in E. Suppose AE = 2. The area of ABCD
(a) 4 + 2 3 (b) 5 + 2 3 (c) 4 + 4 3 (d) 5 + 4 3

Ans. (a)

D C
Sol.
P
60°
E 105°
2 75°
15
°
60° 45°
A a B
using sine rule in DAEB
a 2
=
sin 75° sin 45°
2 ´ sin 75° 3 +1
a= = 2´ ´ 2 = 3 + 1 = side of square
sin 45° 2 2
a= 3 +1
ENArea = a2 = ( 3 + 1)2 = 4 + 2 3
46. Let n be a positive integer not divisible by 6. Suppose n has 6 positive divisors. The number of
positive divisors of 9n is
(a) 54
Ans. (c), (d)
(b) 36 (c) 18 (d) 12
Sol. Let n be of the form ab2 or a5, Then number of factor of 9n i.e, 9ab2 or 9a5
For 9ab2 ,
If a = 3, b ¹ 0 (mod 2) Þ 33b2, number of factors = (3 + 1)(2 + 1) = 4 × 3 = 12
If b = 3, a ¹ 0 (mod 2) Þ 34a, number of factors = (4 + 1)(1 + 1) = 5 × 2 = 10
For 9a5 ,
LL
If a = 3 Þ 9·35 = 37, number of factors = (7 + 1) = 8
If a = 3, a ¹ 0 (mod 3) Þ 32a5, number of factors = (2 + 1)(5 + 1) = 3 × 6 = 18
a+x - a-x 2ab

47. The value of when x = is
a+x + a-x 2
b2 + 1
(a) a (b) b (c) x (d) 0
Ans. (b)
a+x - a-x ( a + x - a - x )2 1
Sol. = ´ (Rationalising)
A
a+x + a -x ( a + x + a - x) ( a + x - a - x)
(a + x) + (a - x) - 2 a 2 - x 2 (2a - 2 a 2 - x2 ) a - a 2 - x 2
= = =
(a + x) - (a - x) 2x x
2ab
Now, put x = 2
b +1
4a 2 b2
a - a2 -
(b2 + 1)2
Þ
2ab
b2 + 1
a(b2 + 1) - a 2 (b 2 + 1)2 - 4a 2 b 2
=
2ab

(b2 + 1) - (b2 - 1)2 b2 + 1 ± (b 2 - 1)
= =
2b 2b
1
= b or
b
2a
Note : In paper code JS511 & JS513, there are printing mistakes. 'x' is given as x = 2
.
b +1
For JS511 & JS513, it should be given as Bonus.
2ab
This solution is made considering x = , given in JS512 & JS514
b2 + 1
48. Two regular polygons of different number of sides are taken. In one of them, its sides are coloured red
and diagonals are coloured green; in the other, sides are coloured green and diagonals are coloured
red. Suppose there are 103 red lines and 80 green lines. The total number of sides the two polygons
together have is:
(a) 23 (b) 28 (c) 33 (d) 38
Ans. (b)
Sol. Let the two polygon have number of sides n1n2 respectively, then number of diagonals in two polygon are
EN n1 (n1 - 3)
2
n (n - 3)
and 2 2
2
respectively
so, by given condition in problem we have

n 2 (n 2 - 3)
n1 + = 103
2
Þ 2n1 + n22 – 3n2 = 206 ......(1)
n1 (n1 - 3)
n2 + = 80
2
LL
Þ 2n2 + n12 – 3n1 = 160 ...... (2)
equation (1) – (2)
Þ 2(n1 – n2) + (n22 – n21) – 3(n2 – n1) = 46
Þ (n2 – n1)(n1 + n2 – 5) = 46 = 2 × 23 = 23 × 2
Now, we have two cases
n2 – n1 = 2
n1 + n2 – 5 = 23
Þ n1 + n2 = 28 Þ possible case
A
or n2 – n1 = 23
n1 + n2 – 5 = 2
n1 + n2 = 7 Þ not possible
\ Total number of sides of two polygon together = 28
49. A box contains some red and some yellow balls. If one red ball is removed, one seventh of the
remaining balls would be red; if one yellow ball is removed, one-sixth of the remaining balls would be
red. If n denotes the total number of balls in the box, then the sum of the digits of n is
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
Ans. (b)

Sol. Let R and Y be the number of Red and Yellow balls respectively is the box.
Then, according to the question,
Y + R -1
=R–1
7
Þ Y + R – 1 = 7R – 7
Þ 6R – Y = 6 .....(1)
R + Y -1
Also, =R
6
Þ R + Y – 1 = 6R
Þ Y – 5R = 1 .....(2)
6R – 1 – 5R = 6
ÞR=7
\ Y = 36
Hence, number of balls = 7 + 36 = 43
so sum of digits of n = 7
50.
EN Let ABCD be a rectangle. Let X and Y be points respectively on AB and CD such that AX : XB = 1 : 2 =
CY : YD. Join AY and CX ; let BY intersect CX in K ; let DX intersect AY in L. If m/n denotes the ratio
of the area of XKYL to that of ABCD, then m + n equals
(a) 9
Ans. (b)
[XLYK] m
=
(b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 15
Sol.
[ABCD] n
A a X 2a B
DALX ~ DYLD
LL
DY h 2 h 2 h1
= Þ 2 =
AX h1 h1 1 h2
\ h2 = 2b L
h1 = b K
Area of rectangle ABCD = 9ab

ArDADY = 3ab h2
h1
3ab D 2a y a C
A
ArDBYC =
2
ab
ArDAXL =
2
ArDBXK = 2ab
3ab ab
\ XLYK Area = 9ab –(3ab + + + 2ab) = 2ab
b
2 2
= 2ls
[XLYK] 2ab 2
\ = =
[ABCD] 9ab 9
m 2
\ =
n 9
m + n = 11

51. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. The bisector of ÐBAC meets the circumcircle of ABC in D. Suppose
DB + DC = 4. The diameter of the circumcircle of ABC is
(a) 4 (b) 3 3 (c) 2 3 (d) 2
Ans. (a)
Sol. Given, DB + DC = 4 A
Since, AD is angle bisector
Þ BD = DC = 2 30°
we have ÐDBE = ÐDAC = 30°
\ ÐABD = 60° + 30° = 90°
BD 60°
Now, In DABD, sin30° = E
AD B 30° C
1 2 60°
Þ =
2 AD
Þ AD = 4 cm D
\ diameter = 4
52. Let Tk denpte the k-th term of an arithmetic progression. Suppose there are positive integers m ¹ n
such that Tm = 1/n and Tn = 1/m. Then Tmn equals
EN (a)
Ans. (c)
1
mn
(b)
1 1
+
m n
(c) 1
Sol. Let the first term of AP be a and the common difference be d.

1
(d) 0
Then, Tm = a + (m – 1)d = ....(1)

n
1
Tn = a + (n – 1) d = ....(2)
m
equation (1) – (2)
LL
1 1
(m – n)d = -
n m
(m - n)
(m – n)d = ....(3)
mn
1
Put d = in equation (1)
mn
(m - 1) 1
A
a+ =
mn n
1 (m - 1) m - m +1 1
a= - = = .....(4)
n mn mn mn
Now, Tmn = a + (mn – 1)d
1 (mn - 1) 1
= + (Q a = d = )
mn mn mn
1 + mn - 1
=
mn
Tmn = 1

53. In a triangle ABC, let AD be the median from A; let E be a point on AD such that AE : ED = 1 : 2 ; and
let BE extended meets AC in F. The ratio of AF/FC is
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/5 (c) l/4 (d) 1/3
Ans. (c)
Sol. By menelaus theorem we have
A
BC DE AF
× × =1
BD EA FC 1 F
( BEF transverse) E E
2 2 AE 2
´ ´ =1
1 1 FC 2x 2x
B D C
AF 1
Þ =
FC 4
Aliter :
EN ar
D(AFE) AF
Also, ar
=
D(EFC) FC
D(AFB) AF
=
D(BFC) CB
By ratio theroem
DAFB - DAFE AF
=
=
DABE + DAEF
DBED + DDEC + DECF
DBFC – DEFC FC
DAEB AF x 1
= = =
LL
DBEC FC 4x 4
54. If sinq and cosq are roots of the equation px2 + qx + r = 0, then:
(a) p2 – q2 + 2pr = 0 (b) (p – r)2 + q2 – r2
(c) p2 + q2 – 2pr = 0 (d) (p – r)2 = q2 + r2
Ans. (a)
Sol. px2 + qx + r = 0
q
sinq + cosq = -
p
A
r
sinq × cosq =
p
(sinq + cosq)2 = sin2q + cos2q + 2sinqcosq
2
æ qö r
ç- ÷ = 1+ 2
è pø p
q 2 2r
Þ - =1
p2 p
Þ q2 – 2rp = p2
Þ p2 – q2 + 2pr = 0

55. For a regular k-sided polygon, let a(k) denotes its interior angle. Suppose n > 4 is such that a(n – 2),
a(n), a(n + 3) forms an arithmetic progression. The sum of digits of n is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans. (b)
Sol. For any n-sided regular polygon,
(n - 2) ´ 180°
Interior angle a(n) =
n
Now, a(n – 2), a(n), a(n + 3) are in A.P
(n - 4) ´ 180° (n - 2) ´ 180° (n + 1) ´ 180°

Þ , , are in AP
n-2 n n +3
2(n - 2) n - 4 n + 1
Þ = +
n n -2 n +3
2n - 4 n 2 - n - 12 + n 2 - n - 2
Þ =
n n2 + n - 6
EN Þ (2n – 4)(n2 + n – 6) = n(2n2 – 2n – 14)
Þ 2n3 – 2n2 – 16n + 24 = 2n3 – 2n2 – 14n
Þ 2n = 24
Þ n = 12
Q sum of the digits of n = 3
56. The sum of 5 numbers in geometric progression is 24. The sum of their reciprocals is 6. The product
of the terms of the geometric progression is
(a) 36 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) 18
Ans. (b)
LL
a a
Sol. Let the terms of GP be , , a, ar, ar2
r2 r
Where a is the first term and r is the common ratio
a a
ATQ, + + a + ar + ar2 = 24
r2 r
æ1 1 ö
a ç 2 + + 1 + r + r 2 ÷ = 24
A
è r r ø
1 1 24
2
+ + 1 + r + r2 = .....(1)
r r a
r2 r 1 1 1
Also, + + + + 2 =6
a a a ar ar
1æ 2 1 1 ö
= ç r + r +1+ + 2 ÷=6
aè r r ø

1 24
= ´ =6 (from (1))
a a
24
=6
a2
24
a2 =
6
a2 = 4
a = ±2
a a
Product of terms : ´ × a × ar × ar
r2 r
= a5
= (±2)5
= ±32
57.
EN only 32 is given in options
Digits a and be are such that the product 4a1´ 25b is divisible by (in base 10). The number of ordered
pairs (a, b) is
(a) 15
Ans. (Bonus)
Sol. Number is : 4a1 ´ 25b
(b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4
36 = 22 × 32
Hence we have to check for divisibility by 4 and 9.
LL
Product of two numbers, A × B is divisible by 4 and 9, if
Case 1 : A is devisible by 36 and B can be any number,
Case 2 : B is divisible by 36 and A can be any number,
Case 3 : A is divisible by 4 and B is divisible by 9,
Case 6 : A is divisible by 18 and A is divisible by 2,
A

Case 9 : A is divisible by 6 and B is also divisible by 6.
Case 1, Case 3, Case 5, Case 6, Case 8, Case 9 are neglected because 4a1 is odd and hence cannot
be divisible by any even number.
Case 2 : 25b , 5b must be divisible by 4, so be can be 2 or 6 only.
2 + 5 + b = 7 + b must be divisible by 9.
for b = 2, 7 + 2 = 9 is divisible by 9.
for b = 6, 7 + 6 = 13 not divisible by 9.
So b = 2, a can be any digit from {0, 1 ......9}
So (a, b) = (0, 2), (1, 2), (2, 2) ....... (9, 2) Þ total 10 pairs.

Case 4 : 4a1 : 4 + a + 1 = 5 + a must be divisible by 9.
so a can be 4 only.
25b : 5b must be divisible by 4.

So b can be 2 or 6 only.
So (a, b) can be (4, 2) and (4, 6)
But (4, 2) is already counted in case (2)
So (4, 6) ....... 1 Pair
Case 7 : 4a1 : 4 + a + 1 = 5 + a must be divisible by 3, So a can be 1, 4, 7.
25b : 5b must be divisible by 4 so b can be 2 or 6, also 2 + 5 + b = 7 + b must be divisible by 3, b can

be 2, 5, 8. Hence be can be 2 only.
So (a, b) can be (1, 2), (4, 2), (7, 2) But all of the these have correctly been considered.
Overall total 10 + 1 = 11 Pairs will be there.
58. The integer closest to 111...1 - 222...2 , where there are 2018 ones and 1009 twos, is
EN (a)
Ans. (a)
101009 - 1
3
(b)
101009 - 1
9
Sol. Using gemetric progression for sum of 'n' term

(c)
102018 - 1
3
(d)
102018 - 1
9
102018 - 1
111 ...... 1 + 2018 time =
9
æ 101000 - 1 ö
222 ..... 2 + 1009 have = 2 ´ ç ÷
LL
è 9 ø
Now,
= 111......1 - 222...2
102018 - 1 2 1009
= - (10 - 1)
9 9
1
A
= 102018 - 2x101009 + 1
3
1 1
= (101009 - 1)2 = (101009 - 1)
3 3
59. In a triangle ABC, a point D on AB is such that AD : AB = 1 : 4 and DE is parallel to BC with E on AC.
Let M and N be the mid points of DE and BC respectively. What is the ratio of the area of the quadrilateral
BNMD to that of triangle ABC?
(a) 1/4 (b)9/32 (c) 7/32 (d) 15/32
Ans. (d)

Qud.[BNMD]
Sol. =?
D[ABC] A
Now, since DADE ~ DABC(DE || BC)
D xM x E
[ADE] AD2
\ =
[ABC] AB2
h
2
æ AD ö
=ç ÷ y y
è AB ø B C
N
2
æ1ö
=ç ÷
è4ø
1
=
16
EN Also,
[ADE]
=
16[ADE] = [ADE] + [DBEC]

15[ADE] = [DBEC]
\
[DBEC] 15
=
1
[ADE] + [DBEC] 16
....(1)
ADE 1
[ABC]
LL
and [ADE] = .....(2)
16
Also, let h be the height of trapezium BCED and let DM = ME = x and BN = NC = y
1
\ ar of trapezium [DMNB] = (x + y)h
2
1
and ar of trapezium [CNME] = (x + y)h
2
A
1
\ [DMNB] = [CNME] = [BCED]
2
or [DBEC] = 2[BNMD]
Put in (1), we get
2[BNMD] 15
=
[ABC] 1
16
32[BNMD] 15 [BNMD] 15
= Þ\ =
[ABC] 1 [ABC] 32

é 10 2 ù é102 ù é102 ù é 10 2 ù
60. The number of distinct integers in the collection ê ,
ú ê ,
ú ê ú ,..... ê ú , where [x] denotes the
ë 1 û ë 2 û ë 3 û ë 20 û
largest not exceeding x, is
(a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 15
Ans. (d)
é 102 ù é102 ù é102 ù

Sol. ê ú, ê ú , ..... ê ú
ë 1 û ë 2 û ë 20 û
é 102 ù é 102 ù
ê ú = 100 ê ú= 9
ë 1 û ë 11 û
é 102 ù é 102 ù
ê ú = 50 ê ú= 8
ë 2 û ë 12 û
EN é 102 ù
ê
ë 3 û
ú = 33
é 102 ù
ê ú = 25
é 102 ù
ê
ë 13 û
ú= 7
é 102 ù
ê ú= 7
ë 4 û ë 14 û
é 102 ù é 102 ù
ê ú = 20 ê ú =6
ë 5 û ë 15 û
LL
é 102 ù é 10 2 ù
ê ú = 16 ê ú= 6
ë 6 û ë 16 û
é 102 ù é 10 2 ù
ê ú = 14 ê ú= 5
ë 7 û ë 17 û
é 102 ù é 10 2 ù
A
ê ú = 12 ê ú= 5
ë 8 û ë 18 û
é 102 ù é 10 2 ù
ê ú = 11 ê ú= 5
ë 9 û ë 19 û
é 102 ù é 10 2 ù
ê ú = 10 ê ú= 5
ë 10 û ë 20 û
\ distinct integers = 15

61. True coelom is not present in animals of:
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida
(c) Echinodermata (d) Arthropoda
Ans. (a)
Sol. Platyhelminthes is an example of acoelomate animals.
62. The intracellular organelle that is responsible for formation of acrosomal vesicle is:
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Mitochondrion (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Sol. Golgi apparatus
Acrosomal vesicle form during spermiogenesis by golgibody.
63. The genetically modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:
(a) Enhancing shelf life (b) Insect-resistance
EN (c) Drought-resistance
Ans. (b)
(d) Enhancing mineral content
Sol. The main goal behind genetically modified brinjal is to make it insect resistance.
64. A scientist observed few cells under a microscope with following characters:
i. Cells divided by binary fission or fragmentation, or budding
ii. Cells moved with the help of flagella
iii. Ether lipids were observed in cell membranes
iv. Peptidoglycans were noted in the cell walls
LL
Which of the following category do the cells belong to?
(a) Archaea (b) Plant cells
(c) Unicellular eukaryotes (d) Cyanobacteria
Ans. (a)
Sol. Petidoglycan cell wall present in monera means cyanobacteria, archaea etc. But if we compare
cyanobacteria and archaea flagella absent in cyanobacteria and present in Archaea. According to
question scientist observed cell moved with the help of flagella and flagella absent in cyanobacteria so
A
answer will be (a).

65. Character(s) of acquired immunity is (are):
(a) Differentiation between self and non-self (c) Retains memory
(b) Specificity of antigen (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Sol. The immunity acquired by an organism after birth is known as acquired immunity. Which has following
characteristics
(a) It can differentiate between self and non-self antigen.
(b) It is specific for specific antigen.
(c) It retains the memory of first encounter with antigen

66. Instead of using chemical fertilizers in a paddy field, a farmer thought of employing nitrogen fixation
technique. Amongst the following which would be beneficial for his cause?
(a) Glycine max - Rhizobium (b) Cycas-Nostoc
(c) Casuarina - Frankia (d) Azolla-Anabaena
Ans. (d)
Sol. Azolla (Fern) and Anabaena (B.G.A.) both show symbiotic relationship and perform N2 fixation. This
type of relationship is beneficial for paddy field. It increases efficiency of nitrogen use and reduce the
water pollution. So Azolla and Anabaena symbiotic relation replace the uses of chemical fertilizers.
So among all the four option the pair of Azolla - Anabaena is suitable to grow in paddy field as Azolla
is a water fern and paddy grows in fields filled with water.
67. An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative on outside and inside of
the axon membrane are reversed because:
(a) all potassium ions leave the axon
(b) more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
(c) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
(d) all sodium ions enter the axon
68.
EN
Ans. (c)
Sol. The action potential in nerve fibre is produced due to more permeability of voltage gated sodium
channels which causes large influx of Na+ which reverses the polarity of axon membrane.
A geneticist was studying the pathway of synthesis of an amino acid 'X' in an organism. The presence
(either synthesized de novo or externally added) of 'X' is a must for the survival of that organism. She
isolated several mutants that require 'X' to grow. She tested whether each mutant would grow when
different additives, P, Q, R, S and T were used.'+' indicates growth and '-' indicates the inability to
grow in the mutants tested. Find out the correct sequence of additives in the biosynthetic pathway of
'X'.
LL
Organisms Additives
P Q R S T
Wild-type + + + + +
Mutant 1 – – – – +
Mutant 2 – + + + +
Mutant 3 – – + – +
Mutant 4 – + + +
(a) P ® Q ® R ® S ® T (b) P ® R ® S ® Q ® T
A
(c) T ® P ® Q ® S ® R (d) P ® S ® Q ® R ® T
Ans. (d)
Sol. '×' is an aminoacid which is required for the growth of organism / Survival.
'+' indicates growth
'–' indicates inability to grow
(So number of '+' increase/number of mutant increase that increase the survival of additives.)
P ® S ® Q ® R ® T
(+) (+, +) (+, +, +) (+, +, +, +) (+, +, +, +, +)

69. In a case of mammalian coat color, the principal gene identified is 'C which codes for a tyrosinase
enzyme. In case of rabbits four different phenotypes are observed Full Color > Chinchilla > Himalayan > Albino
(in order of the expression of gene 'C and its alleles). In a progeny obtained after crossing two rabbits,
the percentages of Chinchilla, Himalayan and Albino rabbits were 50, 25 and 25 respectively. What
must have been the genotypes of the parent rabbits?
(a) CchCchX Cchc (b) CchCh X Cchc (c)Cchc X Ch c (d) ChCh X CchCch
Ans. (c)
Sol. Cch ¾® Chinchilla
Cch ¾® Himalayan cc ¾® Albino
Cchc X Chc
CchCh Cchc Chc cc

Chinchilla Chinchilla Himalaya Albino
50 25 25
70. It was observed in a group of tadpoles of a mutant frog reared in a laboratory that their development
EN was arrested at a particular stage. The exact tissue that was affected by the mutation is unknown. The
development was then resumed and accelerated by injecting the tadpoles with the extracts prepared
from various tissues of the wild type frogs. The observations of the experiment are given below.
Experiment No.
1
2
3
Anterior lobe of pituitary
Posterior lobe of pituitary
Thyroid gland
Tissue Extract Observations
Development resumed
Development did not resume
Development resumed
4 Anterior lobe of pituitary + Thyroid gland Development resumed
5 Anterior + posterior lobe of pituitary Development resumed
6 Posterior lobe of pituitary + Thyroid gland Development did not resume
LL
From the above observations, find out the tissue that is affected by the mutation.
(a) Anterior lobe of pituitary (b) Posterior lobe of pituitary
(c) Thyroid gland (d) Both pituitary and thyroid gland
Ans. (a)
Sol. Anteror pituitary gtand has tropic action which stimualate thyroid gland in turns it screte thyroxine,
which stimnlate metamorphosis, mutated Anterior lobe of pituitary would not produc TSH so
development is arrested.
71. Identify the odd ones from each group (A and B) based on same criterion.
A
Group A Group B
Salmon Alpine salamander
Bullfrog Spiny anteater
Platypus Common toad
Bull shark Crocodile
(a) Platypus, Alpine Salamander (b) Bull shark, Alpine salamander
(c) Bullfrog, Crocodile (d) Platypus, Common toad
Ans. (b)
Sol. The criteria that is used to distinguish members of group A as well members of groups B is ovo-
viviparity.
In group a bull shark is ovo-viviparous while other three members are oviparous.
In group B alpine salamander is ovo-viviparous while other three members are oviparous.
72. A patient was administered a chemical agent called Guanfacine hydrochloride after the patient showed
the symptoms like shortness of breath and headache. Guanfacine hydrochloride is a known stimulant
of central a2-adrenergic receptors of the medulla regulating the sympathetic nervous system. The
patient in this case must be suffering from______.
(a) Hypertension (b) Hyperstimulation
(c) Hyperpolarization (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Sol. Drug guanfacine hydrochloride is used to treat the cases of hypertension and this drug binds to the
a2 -adrenergic receptors present in medulla oblongata.
73. A bacterial dsDNA molecule, 2988 bp in length, was found to have the following composition:
The respective values of X and Y are:
T C A G
Strand I 348 X 1400
Strand II 650 Y
(a) 1400 and 590 (b) 590 and 1400 (c) 590 and 590 (d) None of the above
EN
Ans. (c)
Sol. According to chargraff's rule
A+T
C+G
=1
(Strand I) T = (Strand II) A = 348

(Strand II) T = (Strand I) A = 650
(Strand I) G = (Strand II) C = 1400
\ Value of Y = total nmber of base in strand II – Total number of T, C, A in strand II
LL
= 2988 – (348 + 650 + 140)
= 590
Value of X = Total nimber of base in strand I – Total number of T, A, G, in strand I
= 2988 – (348 + 650 + 1400)
= 590
74. What would be the length of a polypeptide translated from mRNA which is encoded by 2988 bp of a
bacterial gene?
A
(a) 989 (b)992 (c)995 (d)998

Ans. (c)
Sol. Number of bases in m-RNA = 2988
2988
Number of codon in m-RNA =
3
(as codon is made up of 3 bases) Þ 996 codons

Out of 996 codon, one codon is stop codon that does not code for any amino acid.
So the length of polypeptide translated will be 995 amino acid.

75. A student recorded the data for five types of cells as given below:
Character P P Q R S T
Cell wall + + – – +
Centrioles – – – + _
Chloroplast – + – – _
Mitochondrion – + + + +
Nucleus – + - + +
Plasma membrane + + - + +
RNA/DNA + + + + +
Vacuoles + + - + +
The five cell types P, Q, R, S and T are:

(a) P - Bacterium, Q - Plant, R- Virus, S - Animal, T - Fungus
(b) P - Bacterium, Q - Plant, R- Virus, S - Fungus, T - Animal
EN (c) P - Fungus, Q - Plant, R- Bacterium, S - Animal, T - Virus

(d) P - Plant, Q - Bacterium, R- Virus, S - Animal, T - Fungus
Ans. (a)
Sol. According to question cell wall present in bacteria, plant and fungus but Nucleus and membrane
bound cell organelles present in both plant and fungus and absent in Bacteria (underdeveloped nucleus)
so accurate order will be
P-Bacterium, Q-Plant, R-Virus, S-Animal, T-Fungus
76. An environment conservation group performed a survey of some diverse locations in the country and
represented it as under:
LL
A
Which amongst these sites should be included as a biodiversity hotspot?

(a) Site A (b)Sitc B (c)Site C (d)Site D
Ans. (a)
Sol. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on myers 2000 edition of the hosrpot-map a region must contain
atleast 1500 species of vasular plants as endonics.

77. A bacterium has a generation time of 50 minutes. A culture containing 108 cells per mL is incubated
for 300 minutes. What will be the number of cells after 300 minutes?
(1) 64 × 103 cells (b) 6.4 × 108 cells (c) 64 × 109 cells (d) 6.4 × 109 cells
Ans. (d)
Sol. Generation time = 50 minutes
Initial = 108 cells /ml
Cell count
Incubation time = 300 minutes
[F = I × 2n] (F = final number of bacteria)
(I = Initial number of bacterial = 108)
n = number of generation
300
n= n= =6
50
78.
EN F = 108 × 26 = 108 × 64 = 6.4 × 109
The blood grouping system is an example of 'multiple allelism. In order to find out the gene products
of various gene variants, different enzymes (codes used for the purpose of experimentation are X and
Y) from four blood samples were assayed. The enzymes were quantified and the information obtained
from these experiments is given in percentages in the following table. indicates presence of an enzyme
and indicates the absence of that enzyme from the blood sample. The standard codes for dominant
and recessive alleles are considered. Identify the blood groups of subjects and choose the correct
option of their genotypes from given options. (In table: + means present, – means absent)
LL
Subjects Ramesh Ali Sophia Balwinder
Enzymes P/A % P/A % P/A % P/A %
X + 50 + 50 + 100 – –
Y – – + 50 – – + 100
(a) IAi, ii, IBi, IAIB (b) IAi, IAIB, IAIA, IBIB
A
(c) IBi, IAIB, ii, IBi (d) IBi, ii, IAIB, IAi
Ans. (b)
Sol. Let X enzyme is coded by IA
Let Y enzyme is coded by IB
In case of Ramesh 50% X is formed which shows that alleles are in heterozygous condition = IAi
In case of Ali 50% X and 50% y is formed which shows the presence of both dominant allels IAIB. In
case of Sofia 100% of × indicate the genotype IAIA
In case of Balwinder 100% of Y indicates the genotyfie IBIB.

79. In an experiment, a scientist discovered a darkly stained chromatin body on the periphery of nucleus
of epithelial cells obtained from an eight year old boy. This is indicative of a particular syndrome.
Find out the best possible chromosome combination of their parents from the options given below;
which have the highest probability of producing the child under investigation. 'A' indicates autosome.
'X' and 'Y' represent the sex chromosomes.
(a) 22AA+XY, 22AA+XXX (c) 22AA+XY, 22AA+XX
(b) 22AA+XXY, 22AA+XXX (d) 22AA+XXY, 22AA+XX
Ans. (a)
Sol. In the given options, option (b) and (d) indicates having kleinfelter's syndrome so the male will be
infertile. Option (c) shows normal genotype so the option A has highest probabilty of producing the
child under investigation.
80.
EN A millionaire Mr. Jim, died recently. Two women, Mary and Lou, claiming to have a child by Jim
approached the police demanding a share in his wealth. Fortunately Jim's semen sample was
cryopreserved. The scientists used DNA fingerprinting technique to study the three highly variable
chromosome regions. The results obtained are shown in the adjoining figure:
Jim Mary
Marry's Lou's
child Lou child
LL
A
After studying the DNA profile, which of the alleged heirs are children of Jim?
(a) Mary's child (b) both are children of Jim
(c) Lou's child (d) none are children of Jim
Ans. (b)
Sol. From the given DNA profile it can be observed that the some DNA bands of Jim are matching with
some DNA bands of Mary's Lou's child so we can conclude that both the child's belong to Jim.


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Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN )

fH = 1.4 × fL ... (2)

2 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

(a) It will first increase and then decrease

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 3

4 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

after t sec the distance

P '1 P '2 = (OP '1 ) 2 + (OP '2 )2 = (a - u1t) 2 + (b - u 2 t) 2

EN of fuel burnt are respectively

Calorific value 17200 ´ 10 3 ´ 4.2

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 5

(a) 0.994 cm (b) 0.447 cm (c) 0.553 cm (d) 0.577 cm

6 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

If time period of pulse beat is T1 then.

between A and B, the minimum value of R must be :

(a) 4 W (b) 8 W (c) 16 W (d) 29 W

But FB1 = FB2

So fraction of volume above the salt water = 1 – 0.558 = 0.44

8 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

(a) maximum on Mercury

(d) the same on any planet as Coulomb force is independent of gravity

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 9

Sol. For first echo

30t + 330t = 360

For second echo

10 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

EN electrical potential, the solid sphere will have more charge.

(a) 500 W (b) 1 kW (c) 1.5 kW (d) 2 kW

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 11

(a) I, III (b) I, IV (c) II, IV (d) II, III

12 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 13

14 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

EN (a) 1120 cm3 of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia

Sol. Moles of SO2 =

molecules of SO2 = 0.05 NA

t = t 8.5 g 0 36.5 – 8.6 8.6 g

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 15

Which of the following can improve the quality of petrol?

40. Which of the following is incorrect?

16 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 17

So, overall number is divisible by 24 × 2 = 48

Now, x1 should be even and largest x1 = 6

(a) 4 + 2 3 (b) 5 + 2 3 (c) 4 + 4 3 (d) 5 + 4 3

18 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

a+x - a-x 2ab

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 19

so, by given condition in problem we have

20 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

Area of rectangle ABCD = 9ab

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 21

Sol. Let the first term of AP be a and the common difference be d.

Then, Tm = a + (m – 1)d = ....(1)

22 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 23

(n - 4) ´ 180° (n - 2) ´ 180° (n + 1) ´ 180°

24 PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005

Case 8 : A is divisible by 12 and B is divisible by 3,

PNCF Head Office: "SAMANVAYA" C-210/2 Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005 25

25b : 5b must be divisible by 4.

Case 7 : 4a1 : 4 + a + 1 = 5 + a must be divisible by 3, So a can be 1, 4, 7.