ECT02 Q.

7) Which of the following is commonly used as a visual

indicator?

Q.1) What do the symbols on an electrical circuit schematic

A. LED (Your Answer)
diagram represent?
B. FET
C. Zener diode
A. Electrical components (Your Answer)
D. Bipolar transistor
B. Logic states
Incorrect
C. Digital codes
D. Traffic nodes Q.8) Which of the following is used together with an inductor to
make a tuned circuit?

Q.2) Which of the following is accurately represented in

A. Resistor
electrical circuit schematic diagrams?
B. Zener diode (Your Answer)
C. Potentiometer
A. Wire lengths
D. Capacitor (Correct Answer)
B. Physical appearance of components
Correct
C. The way components are interconnected (Correct
Answer)
Q.9) What is the name of a device that combines several
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
semiconductors and other components into one package?

A. Transducer
Q.3) Which of the following devices or circuits changes an
alternating current into a varying direct current signal? B. Multi-pole relay
C. Integrated circuit (Your Answer)
A. Transformer (Your Answer) D. Transformer
Incorrect
B. Rectifier (Correct Answer)
C. Amplifier
Q.10) What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
D. Reflector
Correct
A. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit
Q.4) What best describes a relay? B. To interrupt power in case of overload (Correct
Answer)
C. To limit current to prevent shocks
A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet (Your Answer)
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
B. A current controlled amplifier
Correct
C. An optical sensor
D. A pass transistor
Q.11) Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of
Correct a 5-ampere fuse?

Q.5) Which of the following can be used to display signal

A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is
strength on a numeric scale?
rated for higher current
B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
A. Potentiometer
C. Excessive current could cause a fire (Your Answer)
B. Transistor
D. All of these choices are correct
C. Meter (Your Answer) Incorrect
D. Relay
Correct Q.12) What is the function of a product detector?

Q.6) What component is commonly used to change 120V AC

A. Detect phase modulated signals
house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses?
B. Demodulate FM signals (Your Answer)
C. Detect CW and SSB signals (Correct Answer)
A. Variable capacitor
D. Combine speech and RF signals
B. Transformer (Your Answer)
Correct
C. Transistor
D. Diode
Q.13) What is the function of a mixer in a superheterodyne
Correct receiver?
 A. Change the batteries in your radio to a different type
A. To reject signals outside of the desired passband B. Turn on the CTCSS tone
B. To combine signals from several stations together C. Ask the other operator to adjust his squelch control
C. To shift the incoming signal to an intermediate (Your Answer)
frequency (Your Answer) D. Try moving a few feet, as random reflections may be
D. To connect the receiver with an auxiliary device, such causing multi-path distortion (Correct Answer)
as a TNC Correct
Incorrect
Q.20) Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside
Q.14) What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz buildings than VHF signals?
SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal?
A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance
A. High-pass filter (Your Answer) B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily
B. Low-pass filter penetrate the structure of buildings (Your Answer)
C. Transverter (Correct Answer) C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF inside
buildings
D. Phase converter
D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF antennas
Correct
Incorrect
Q.15) Which of the following circuits combines a speech signal
and an RF carrier? Q.21) What term is commonly used to describe the rapid
fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations
that are moving while transmitting?
A. Beat frequency oscillator
B. Discriminator
A. Flip-flopping (Your Answer)
C. Modulator (Your Answer)
B. Picket fencing (Correct Answer)
D. Noise blanker
C. Frequency shifting
Incorrect
D. Pulsing
Correct
Q.16) Which of the following circuits demodulates FM signals?

Q.22) What is the cause of irregular fading of signals from

A. Limiter distant stations during times of generally good reception?
B. Discriminator (Correct Answer)
C. Product detector (Your Answer) A. Absorption of signals by the “D” layer of the ionosphere
D. Phase inverter B. Absorption of signals by the “E” layer of the ionosphere
Correct C. Random combining of signals arriving via different path
lengths (Your Answer)
Q.17) Which term describes the ability of a receiver to D. Intermodulation distortion in the local receiver
discriminate between multiple signals?
Incorrect

A. Tuning rate Q.23) What may occur if VHF or UHF data signals propagate over
B. Sensitivity multiple paths?
C. Selectivity (Your Answer)
D. Noise floor A. Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal
Incorrect to the number of separate paths observed (Your
Answer)
Q.18) Where is an RF preamplifier installed? B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal
to the number of separate paths observed
A. Between the antenna and receiver (Correct Answer) C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are
transmitting using FM
B. At the output of the transmitter’s power amplifier
D. Error rates are likely to increase (Correct Answer)
C. Between a transmitter and antenna tuner (Your
Answer) Correct
D. At the receiver’s audio output
Q.24) Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of
Incorrect
radio signals around the world?

Q.19) What should you do if another operator reports that your

station's 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, A. The stratosphere
but now they are weak or distorted? B. The troposphere
C. The ionosphere (Your Answer)
 D. The magnetosphere Incorrect
Correct
Q.30) What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon
Q.25) Why are “direct” (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately
heard from stations outside your local coverage area? 300 miles on a regular basis?

A. They are too weak to go very far A. Tropospheric scatter (Correct Answer)
B. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 B. D layer refraction
miles C. F2 layer refraction
C. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere D. Faraday rotation (Your Answer)
(Your Answer) Incorrect
D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and fade out
Correct Q.31) What band is best suited to communicating via meteor
scatter?
Q.26) Which of the following might be happening when VHF
signals are being received from long distances? A. 10 meters
B. 6 meters (Correct Answer)
A. Signals are being reflected from outer space C. 2 meters (Your Answer)
B. Signals are arriving by sub-surface ducting D. 70 cm
C. Signals are being reflected by lightning storms in your Incorrect
area
D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer Q.32) What causes “tropospheric ducting”?
(Your Answer)
Correct A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
B. Sunspots and solar flares (Your Answer)
Q.27) What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral
C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
reflection?
D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere (Correct
Answer)
A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are
Correct
common
B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and
Q.33) What is the radio horizon?
often sound distorted (Your Answer)
C. These types of signals occur only during winter
nighttime hours A. The distance over which two stations can communicate
by direct path (Your Answer)
D. These types of signals are generally strongest when
your antenna is aimed west B. The distance from the ground to a horizontally
Correct mounted antenna
C. The farthest point you can see when standing at the
Q.28) Which of the following propagation types is most base of your antenna tower
commonly associated with occasional strong over-the- D. The shortest distance between two points on the
horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands? Earth’s surface
Incorrect
A. Backscatter
Q.34) Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel
B. Sporadic E (Your Answer)
somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance
C. D layer absorption between two stations?
D. Gray-line propagation
Incorrect A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of
light
Q.29) What is meant by the term “knife-edge” propagation? B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles
C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to
A. Signals are reflected back toward the originating light (Correct Answer)
station at acute angles D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles (Your
B. Signals are sliced into several discrete beams and Answer)
arrive via different paths (Your Answer) Incorrect
C. Signals are partially refracted around solid objects
exhibiting sharp edges (Correct Answer) Q.35) What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a
D. Signals are propagated close to the band edge VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same
exhibiting a sharp cutoff polarization?
 A. The modulation sidebands might become inverted Q.41) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in
(Your Answer) decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200
B. Signals could be significantly weaker (Correct Answer) watts?
C. Signals have an echo effect on voices
D. Nothing significant will happen A. 10 dB (Your Answer)
Correct B. 12 dB
C. 18 dB
Q.36) What type of wave carries radio signals between D. 28 dB
transmitting and receiving stations? Correct

A. Electromagnetic (Your Answer) Q.42) What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that
B. Electrostatic travel through space?
C. Surface acoustic
D. Magnetostrictive A. Gravity waves
Incorrect B. Sound waves
C. Radio waves (Your Answer)
Q.37) Which of the following is a common effect of “skip” D. Pressure waves
reflections between the Earth and the ionosphere? Correct

A. The sidebands become reversed at each reflection Q.43) Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas?
B. The polarization of the original signal is randomized
(Correct Answer) A. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the Earth
C. The apparent frequency of the received signal is shifted B. The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth (Your
by a random amount Answer)
D. Signals at frequencies above 30 MHz become stronger C. The phase is inverted
with each reflection (Your Answer) D. The phase is reversed
Correct Correct

Q.38) What are the two components of a radio wave? Q.44) What is meant by the gain of an antenna?

A. AC and DC A. The additional power that is added to the transmitter

B. Voltage and current
C. Electric and magnetic fields (Your Answer)
D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation
Correct
Q.39) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in
decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10
watts?
power
B. The additional power that is lost in the antenna when
transmitting on a higher frequency
C. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction
when compared to a reference antenna (Your Answer)
D. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit
compared to a reference antenna
Correct

A. 2 dB Q.45) Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable?

B. 3 dB (Your Answer)
C. 5 dB A. Carry dc power from a vehicle battery to a mobile radio
D. 10 dB B. Carry RF signals between a radio and antenna (Your
Correct Answer)
Q.40) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in C. Secure masts, tubing, and other cylindrical objects on
decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 towers
watts? D. Connect data signals from a TNC to a computer
Correct
A. -1 dB
B. -3 dB Q.46) What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?
C. -6 dB (Your Answer)
D. -9 dB A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a
transmission line (Your Answer)
Explanation
dB = 10 log (Po/Pi) = 10 log(3/12) = -6 dB B. The ratio of high to low impedance in a feedline
Correct C. The transmitter efficiency ratio
 D. An indication of the quality of your station’s ground D. 12 ohms
connection Incorrect
Incorrect
Q.53) Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other
Q.47) What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect feedline for amateur radio antenna systems?
impedance match between the antenna and the feedline?
A. It is easy to use and requires few special installation
A. 2 to 1 (Your Answer) considerations (Correct Answer)
B. 1 to 3 B. It has less loss than any other type of feedline
C. 1 to 1 (Correct Answer) C. It can handle more power than any other type of
D. 10 to 1 feedline (Your Answer)
Correct D. It is less expensive than any other types of feedline
Incorrect
Q.48) What is the approximate SWR value above which the
protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin Q.54) What generally happens as the frequency of a signal
to reduce transmitter power? passing through coaxial cable is increased?

A. 2 to 1 (Your Answer) A. The apparent SWR increases

B. 1 to 2 B. The reflected power increases (Your Answer)
C. 6 to 1 C. The characteristic impedance increases
D. 10 to 1 D. The loss increases (Correct Answer)
Correct Correct

Q.49) What does an SWR reading of 4:1 mean? Q.55) What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings?

A. An antenna loss of 4 dB A. The transmitter is being modulated

B. A good impedance match B. A loose connection in an antenna or a feedline (Your
C. An antenna gain of 4 Answer)
D. An impedance mismatch (Your Answer) C. The transmitter is being over-modulated
Correct D. Interference from other stations is distorting your
signal
Q.50) What happens to power lost in a feedline? Correct

Q.56) Which of the following types of feedline has the lowest

A. It increases the SWR
loss at VHF and UHF?
B. It comes back into your transmitter and could cause
damage
A. 50-ohm flexible coax
C. It is converted into heat (Your Answer)
B. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
D. It can cause distortion of your signal
C. Air-insulated hard line (Your Answer)
Correct
D. 75-ohm flexible coax
Q.51) Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna Incorrect
system that uses coaxial cable feedline?
Q.57) What antenna polarization is normally used for long-
distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF
A. To reduce television interference
and UHF bands?
B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce
losses (Your Answer)
A. Right-hand circular
C. To prolong antenna life
B. Left-hand circular
D. All of these choices are correct
Correct C. Horizontal (Correct Answer)
D. Vertical (Your Answer)
Q.52) What is the impedance of the most commonly used Correct
coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations?
Q.58) When using a directional antenna, how might your station
be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or
A. 8 ohms
obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
B. 50 ohms (Your Answer)
C. 600 ohms
A. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
 B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater Q.64) Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and
(Your Answer) electronic use?
C. Try the long path
D. Increase the antenna SWR A. Acid-core solder
Correct B. Silver solder
C. Rosin-core solder (Your Answer)
Q.59) Which of the following instruments can be used to D. Aluminum solder
determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired
Correct
operating frequency?

Q.65) What is the characteristic appearance of a “cold” solder

A. A VTVM joint?
B. An antenna analyzer (Your Answer)
C. A “Q” meter A. Dark black spots
D. A frequency counter B. A bright or shiny surface
Incorrect
C. A grainy or dull surface (Your Answer)
D. A greenish tint
Q.60) What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use
Correct
to determine if a feedline and antenna are properly
matched?
Q.66) What is a beam antenna?

A. Voltmeter
A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
B. Ohmmeter (Your Answer)
B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam
C. Iambic pentameter
C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
D. Directional wattmeter (Correct Answer)
(Your Answer)
Correct
D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals
Correct
Q.61) Which of the following is the most common cause for
failure of coaxial cables?
Q.67) Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted
so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface?
A. Moisture contamination (Your Answer)
B. Gamma rays
A. A ground wave antenna
C. The velocity factor exceeds 1.0
B. A horizontally polarized antenna (Your Answer)
D. Overloading
C. A rhombic antenna
Incorrect
D. A vertically polarized antenna
Incorrect
Q.62) Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant
to ultraviolet light?
Q.68) What is a disadvantage of the “rubber duck” antenna
supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?
A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket
A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-
C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing sized antenna (Correct Answer)
interference (Your Answer)
B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal
D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water
C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will unravel very quickly
to enter the cable (Correct Answer)
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
Correct
Correct
Q.63) What is a disadvantage of “air core” coaxial cable when
compared to foam or solid dielectric types? Q.69) How would you change a dipole antenna to make it
resonant on a higher frequency?

A. It has more loss per foot

A. Lengthen it
B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires
C. It requires special techniques to prevent water
absorption (Your Answer) C. Shorten it (Your Answer)
D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures D. Add capacity hats to the ends of the radiating wires
Correct Correct

Q.70) What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?
 A. Non-resonant antennas Q.76) Which of the following connectors is most suitable for
B. Loop antennas frequencies above 400 MHz?
C. Directional antennas (Your Answer)
D. Isotropic antennas A. A UHF (PL-259/SO-239) connector
Incorrect B. A Type N connector (Your Answer)
C. An RS-213 connector
Q.71) What is a good reason not to use a “rubber duck” antenna D. A DB-23 connector
inside your car? Incorrect

A. Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is Q.77) Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax
outside of the vehicle (Correct Answer) connectors?
B. It might cause your radio to overheat
C. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal A. They are good for UHF frequencies
strength B. They are water tight
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer) C. They are commonly used at HF frequencies (Correct
Incorrect Answer)
Q.72) What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter- D. They are a bayonet type connector (Your Answer)
wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz? Incorrect

A. 19 (Correct Answer) Q.78) Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be
B. 50 sealed against water intrusion?
C. 112
D. 12 (Your Answer) A. To prevent an increase in feedline loss (Correct Answer)
Explanation B. To prevent interference to telephones
[(300/146)/4](0.95)(3.28)(12) = 19.20 C. To keep the jacket from becoming loose
Correct D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
Q.73) What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6 meter Incorrect
1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna?
Q.79) What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-
A. 6 58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?
B. 50
C. 112 (Your Answer) A. There is no significant difference between the two
types
D. 236
B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given frequency
Explanation
(6/2)(0.95)(3.28)(12) = 112.18 C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency (Correct
Answer)
Correct
D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels (Your
Answer)
Q.74) In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-
wave dipole antenna in free space? Incorrect

Q.80) Which of the following describes the muting of receiver

A. Equally in all directions
audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an
B. Off the ends of the antenna RF signal?
C. Broadside to the antenna (Your Answer)
D. In the direction of the feedline A. Tone squelch (Your Answer)
Correct B. Carrier squelch (Correct Answer)
C. CTCSS
Q.75) What does an antenna tuner do?
D. Modulated carrier
Correct
A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the
transceiver’s output impedance (Your Answer)
Q.81) Which of the following is true concerning the microphone
B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations connectors on amateur transceivers?
C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and
receive
A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector
D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the type
frequency band being used
Correct
 B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for Q.87) Which of the following controls could be used if the voice
powering the microphone (Your Answer) pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low?
C. All transceivers using the same connector type are
wired identically A. The AGC or limiter
D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be B. The bandwidth selection (Your Answer)
connected
C. The tone squelch
Correct
D. The receiver RIT or clarifier (Correct Answer)
Incorrect
Q.82) What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the
microphone gain set too high?
Q.88) What is the advantage of having multiple receive
bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
A. The output power might be too high
B. The output signal might become distorted (Your
A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
Answer)
B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a
C. The frequency might vary
bandwidth matching the mode (Correct Answer)
D. The SWR might increase
C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored
Incorrect in memory (Your Answer)
D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and
Q.83) Which of the following can be used to enter the operating transmit frequencies
frequency on a modern transceiver?
Incorrect

A. The keypad or VFO knob (Correct Answer) Q.89) What is the color code for a 220 Ω 5% resistor?
B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
C. The Automatic Frequency Control A. Red, Red, Brown, Gold (Correct Answer)
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer) B. Orange, Orange, Black, Gold
Incorrect
C. Red, Red, Black, Gold
D. Red, Red, Brown, Silver (Your Answer)
Q.84) What is the purpose of the squelch control on a
Correct
transceiver?

Q.90) A voltage will influence current only if the circuit is

A. To set the highest level of volume desired
B. To set the transmitter power level
A. Closed (Your Answer)
C. To adjust the automatic gain control (Your Answer)
B. High resistance
D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being
C. Insulated
received (Correct Answer)
D. Open
Incorrect
Correct
Q.85) What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite
frequency on your transceiver? Q.91) Which resistive component is designed to be temperature
sensitive?

A. Enable the CTCSS tones

A. Thermistor (Your Answer)
B. Store the frequency in a memory channel (Correct
Answer) B. Rheostat
C. Disable the CTCSS tones C. Potentiometer
D. Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency D. Photoconductive cell
(Your Answer) Correct
Incorrect Q.92) The negative and positive charge symbols are assigned (in
that order) to the
Q.86) Which of the following would reduce ignition interference
to a receiver? A. Electron and proton (Your Answer)
B. Proton and electron
A. Change frequency slightly C. Atom and nucleus
B. Decrease the squelch setting (Your Answer) D. Electron and element
C. Turn on the noise blanker (Correct Answer) Explanation
D. Use the RIT control electron (negative) ; proton (positive)
Incorrect Correct
Q.93) If the current in a circuit equals 0 A, it is likely that the B. Resistance
C. Current (Your Answer)
A. Circuit is open (Your Answer) D. Power
B. Circuit has a short Correct
C. Resistance is too low
Q.100) Current is considered as the movement of
D. Voltage is too high
Incorrect
Q.94) If 40 C of charge flow past a point in 20 s, what is the A. Electrons (Your Answer)
current? B. Protons
C. Charge
A. 2 A (Correct Answer) D. Nuclei
B. 0.5 A Correct
C. 20 A (Your Answer)
D. 40 A Q.101) An ammeter is used to measure
Explanation
Charge (c) =current (A) x Time (s) ; 40/20 = 2 A. Current (Your Answer)
Correct B. Voltage
C. Resistance
Q.95) The removal of a non-neutral subatomic particle converts D. Power
the atom into a Correct

A. Charged ion (Your Answer) Q.102) What is a characteristic of a secondary cell?

B. Nucleus
C. Heavier element A. Rechargeability (Your Answer)
D. Compound B. Not rechargeable
Correct C. A dry cell
D. Non-liquid
Q.96) In which states may matter may be found? Correct

A. Solid, gas, or liquid (Your Answer) Q.103) If a fluid system is compared to an electrical system, the
B. Solid, liquid, or mineral fluid pump will correspond to a
C. Mineral, gas, or liquid
D. Plastic, solid, or gas A. Battery (Your Answer)
Correct B. Conductor
C. Lamp
Q.97) How many valence shell electrons are there in D. Insulator
semiconductor atoms? Correct

A. 4 (Your Answer) Q.104) An element is a substance that is

B. 8
C. 2 A. Found only in its pure form (Your Answer)
D. 16 B. Electrically charged
Correct C. Used only in electronics
D. Varied throughout the entire piece
Q.98) Which unit of charge contains 6.25 m 1018 electrons? Correct

A. A coulomb (Your Answer) Q.105) A short circuit will have

B. An ampere
C. A volt A. A large current flow (Your Answer)
D. A joule B. No current flow
Incorrect C. Some current flow
D. A small current flow
Q.99) The term used to designate electrical pressure is Correct

A. Voltage (Correct Answer) Q.106) The basic difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker
is
 Q.111) A damaged resistor
A. A circuit breaker is reusable (Your Answer)
B. A circuit breaker is more reliable A. All of the choices (Your Answer)
C. A fuse is reusable B. May have an increased resistance value
D. A fuse is slower C. May appear burned
Correct D. May be checked with an ohmmeter
Correct
Q.107) Which of the following statements is true?
Q.112) Ohm's law describes the mathematical relationship
A. Like charges repel and unlike charges attract. (Your between
Answer)
B. Unlike charges repel and like charges attract. A. Resistance, voltage, and current (Your Answer)
C. Unlike charges attract and like charges attract. B. Ohms, kilohms, and megohms
D. Like charges repel and unlike charges repel. C. Resistor size and resistor value
Correct D. Resistance, voltage, power
Incorrect
Q.108) "Half-splitting" is
Q.113) The rate at which work is performed is called
A. A means of isolating a problem in a circuit (Your
Answer) A. Power (Correct Answer)
B. A means for reducing a high ac voltage to a low dc B. Energy (Your Answer)
voltage
C. Current
C. A means of limiting current in a circuit
D. Voltage
D. A means for nuclear fuel cells to produce electricity
Incorrect
Correct
Q.114) Power supplies are regulated to prevent the output
Q.109) If the voltage across a fixed value of resistance is voltage from changing due to changes in the
increased five times, what does the current do?

A. Both line voltage and supply load (Correct Answer)

A. It increases by a factor of five. (Your Answer)
B. Frequency
B. It decreases by a factor of five.
C. Supply load (Your Answer)
C. It stays the same.
D. Line voltage
D. It decreases by half
Correct
Correct
Q.110) What is the power in the given circuit? Q.115) Ohm's law is a relationship between

A. Voltage, current, and resistance (Your Answer)

B. Voltage, current, and time
C. Power, current, and resistance
D. Resistance, time, and current
Correct

Q.116) Which of the following frequencies is equal to 28,400

kHz?

A. 28.400 MHz (Your Answer)

B. 2.800 MHz
C. 284.00 MHz
A. 35 W (Your Answer)
D. 28.400 kHz
B. 175 W
Correct
C. 245 W
D. 3.6 W Q.117) If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz,
Explanation what frequency is that in GHz?
P = IV ; P = 5 x 7 = 35 W
Correct A. 2.425 GHz (Your Answer)
B. 24.25 GHz
 C. 0.002425 GHZ
D. 2425 GHz
Correct
Q.118) What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from
a power supply?
A. Regulator (Your Answer)
B. Oscillator
C. Filter
D. Phase inverter
Correct
Q.119) What is a simple resonant or tuned circuit?
A. An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or
parallel to form a filter (Your Answer)
B. A type of voltage regulator
C. A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio
D. A circuit designed to provide high fidelity audio
Correct
Q.120) Which of the following is a common reason to use
shielded wire?
A. To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from
the wire (Your Answer)
B. To decrease the resistance of DC power connections
C. To increase the current carrying capability of the wire
D. To couple the wire to other signals
Incorrect
Q.121) Which of the following is a likely cause of irregular fading
of signals received by ionospheric reflection?
A. Random combining of signals arriving via different
paths (Correct Answer)
B. Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation (Your Answer)
C. Interference from thunderstorms
D. Intermodulation distortion
Incorrect
Q.122) Which of the following results from the fact that skip
signals refracted from the ionosphere are elliptically
polarized?
A. Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas
may be used for transmission or reception (Correct
Answer)
B. Digital modes are unusable
C. FM voice is unusable
D. Both the transmitting and receiving antennas must be
of the same polarization (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.123) What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple
paths?
A. Error rates are likely to increase (Correct Answer)
B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor
equal to the number of separate paths observed
C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are
transmitting using FM
D. Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal
to the number of separate paths observed (Your
Answer)
Incorrect
Q.124) What property of a radio wave is used to describe its
polarization?
A. The orientation of the electric field (Correct Answer)
B. The orientation of the magnetic field
C. The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the
energy in the electric field (Your Answer)
D. The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength
Correct
Q.125) Why are direct (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely
heard from stations outside your local coverage area?
A. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the
ionosphere (Your Answer)
B. They are too weak to go very far
C. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than
50 miles
D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and fade out
Correct
Q.126) Which of the following effects might cause radio signals
to be heard despite obstructions between the
transmitting and receiving stations?
A. Knife-edge diffraction (Your Answer)
B. Faraday rotation
C. Quantum tunneling
D. Doppler shift
Incorrect
Q.127) What is generally the best time for long-distance 10
meter band propagation via the F layer?
A. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of
high sunspot activity (Correct Answer)
B. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of
high sunspot activity
C. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of
low sunspot activity
D. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of
low sunspot activity (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.128) Which of the following bands may provide long distance
communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
 A. Six or ten meters (Correct Answer)
B. 23 centimeters
C. 70 centimeters or 1.25 meters
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.129) What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal of a
desired frequency?
A. Oscillator (Correct Answer)
B. Reactance modulator
C. Product detector (Your Answer)
D. Low-pass filter
Incorrect
Q.130) What is meant by term “PTT”?
A. The push to talk function which switches between
receive and transmit (Correct Answer)
B. Precise tone transmissions used to limit repeater
access to only certain signals
C. A primary transformer tuner use to match antennas
D. Pre-transmission tuning to reduce transmitter
harmonic emission (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.131) Which of the following describes combining speech with
an RF carrier signal?
A. Modulation (Your Answer)
B. Impedance matching
C. Oscillation
D. Low-pass filtering
Incorrect
Q.132) Which of the following devices is most useful for VHF
weak-signal communication?
A. A multi-mode VHF transceiver (Correct Answer)
B. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
C. An omni-directional antenna (Your Answer)
D. A mobile VHF FM transceiver
Incorrect
Q.133) What device increases the low-power output from a
handheld transceiver?
A. An RF power amplifier (Correct Answer)
B. A voltage divider
C. An impedance network
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.134) What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or
mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
A. Talk farther away from the microphone (Your Answer)
B. Change to a higher power level
C. Let the transceiver cool off
D. Talk louder into the microphone
Correct
Q.135) What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive
an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?
A. The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside
the AM or FM band (Your Answer)
B. The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up
too high
C. The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded
D. The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low
Correct
Q.136) Which of the following may be a cause of radio
frequency interference?
A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
B. Fundamental overload
C. Harmonics
D. Spurious emissions
Incorrect
Q.137) Which of the following is a way to reduce or eliminate
interference by an amateur transmitter to a nearby
telephone?
A. Put a RF filter on the telephone (Correct Answer)
B. Reduce the microphone gain
C. Reduce the SWR on the transmitter transmission line
(Your Answer)
D. Put a filter on the amateur transmitter
Incorrect
Q.138) Which of the following may be useful in correcting a
radio frequency interference problem?
A. All of these choices are correct (Correct Answer)
B. Low-pass and high-pass filters
C. Band-reject and band-pass filters (Your Answer)
D. Snap-on ferrite chokes
Correct
Q.139) What might be the problem if you receive a report that
your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or
unintelligible?
A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
B. You could be in a bad location
C. Your batteries may be running low
D. Your transmitter may be slightly off frequency
Correct
Q.140) What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or
transceiver?
 Q.146) Alex is required to provide information on how many
A. Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible people are using the network at any one time. Which
transmissions (Your Answer) network will enable him to do so?
B. Frequent blowing of power supply fuses
C. The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency A. Server-based (Your Answer)
D. Excessive SWR at the antenna connection B. Token-Ring
Correct C. Ethernet
D. Star
Q.141) What might be the first step to resolve cable TV Correct
interference from your ham radio transmission?
Q.147) Now-a-days computers all over the world can talk to
A. Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly each other. Which is one of the special accessories
(Your Answer) essential for this purpose?
B. Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input
C. Add a high pass filter to the TV antenna input A. Modem (Your Answer)
D. Add a low pass filter to the TV antenna input B. Keyboard
Incorrect C. Scanner
D. Fax
Q.142) What is the primary purpose of a dummy load? Correct

A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests Q.148) To make possible the efficient on-line servicing of many
(Correct Answer) teleprocessing system users on large computer systems,
B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter designers are developing
C. To improve the radiation from your antenna
D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver A. All of these (Your Answer)
(Your Answer) B. Communication systems
Correct C. Multiprogramming systems
D. Virtual storage systems
Q.143) What instrument other than an SWR meter could you Incorrect
use to determine if a feed line and antenna are properly
matched? Q.149) Which of the following best describes the scopes on each
DHCP server, in the absence of configuration problems
A. Directional wattmeter (Your Answer) with DHCP addresses, if you use multiple DHCP servers in
B. Voltmeter your environment?
C. Ohmmeter
D. Iambic pentameter A. For different subnets (Correct Answer)
Correct B. Unique to that subnet only (Your Answer)
C. For no more than two subnets
Q.144) What does a dummy load consist of? D. For no subnets
Correct
A. A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink (Your Answer)
B. A 50 ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission Q.150) The main difference between TCP and UDP is
line
C. A low voltage power supply and a DC relay A. UDP is a datagram where as TCP is a connection
D. A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch oriented service (Your Answer)
Correct B. TCP is an Internet protocol where as UDP is an ATM
protocol
Q.145) In a synchronous modem, the receive equalizer is known C. UDP is connection oriented where as TCP is datagram
as service
D. All of these
A. Adaptive equalizer (Your Answer) Correct
B. Impairment equalizer
Q.151) What operates in the Data Link and the Network layer?
C. Statistical equalizer
D. Compromise equalizer
A. Brouter (Your Answer)
Correct
B. NIC
C. Bridge
 D. Router C. CSMA
Incorrect D. MAC
Correct
Q.152) What is the name of the computer based EMMS that
provides a common forum where users can check in at Q.158) A distributed data processing configuration in which all
their convenience, post messages, actively exchange activities must pass through a centrally located computer
ideas and participate in ongoing discussions? is called a

A. Bulletin board system (BBS) (Correct Answer) A. Spider network (Your Answer)
B. E-mail B. Ring network
C. Teleconferencing (Your Answer) C. Hierarchical network
D. Videoconferencing D. Data control network
Correct Correct

Q.153) Devices on one network can communicate with devices Q.159) The size or magnitude of a voltage or current waveform
on another network via a is

A. Gateway (Your Answer) A. Amplitude (Your Answer)

B. Printer server B. Aloha
C. Utility server C. Angle Modulation
D. File server D. Attenuation
Incorrect Incorrect

Q.154) After coding a document into a digital signal, it can be Q.160) Which of the following network access standard is used
sent by telephone, telex or satellite to the receiver where for connecting stations to a circuit-switched network?
the signal is decoded and an exact copy of the original
document is made.
A. X.21 (Correct Answer)
B. X.3
A. Facsimile (Correct Answer)
C. X.25 (Your Answer)
B. Electronic mail (Your Answer)
D. X.75
C. Word processor
Correct
D. Telex
Correct
Q.161) Which of the following is not a transmission medium?

Q.155) Which file transfer protocol uses UDP?

A. Modem (Your Answer)
B. Telephone lines
A. TFTP (Your Answer)
C. Coaxial cable
B. FTP
D. Microwave systems
C. TELNET
Incorrect
D. NFS
Incorrect
Q.162) A batch processing terminal would not include a

Q.156) A network designer wants to connect 5 routers as point-

to-point simplex line. Then the total number of lines A. CPU (Correct Answer)
required would be B. Card reader
C. Card punch
A. 10 (Correct Answer) D. Line printer (Your Answer)
B. 5 Incorrect
C. 20
D. 32 (Your Answer) Q.163) Packet Switch Stream (PSS) was introduced in
Incorrect
A. The UK in 1980 (Correct Answer)
Q.157) Which of the following medium access control technique B. The US in 1961 (&) the UK in 1981
is used for bus/tree? C. The US in 1961 (Your Answer)
D. None of these
A. Token bus (Correct Answer) Correct
B. Token ring (Your Answer)
Q.164) The physical layer of a network Q.170) The area of coverage of a satellite radio beam is known
as
A. Defines the electrical characteristics of signals passed
between the computer and communication devices A. Footprint (Your Answer)
(Your Answer) B. Circular polarization
B. Controls error detection and correction C. Beam width
C. Constructs packets of data and sends them across the D. Identity
network
Correct
D. All of these
Incorrect Q.171) Which of the following data transmission media has the
largest terrestrial range without the use of repeaters or
Q.165) Which of the following allows devices on one network to other devices?
communicate with devices on another network?
A. Satellite (Your Answer)
A. Gateway (Correct Answer) B. Laser
B. Multiplexer C. Microwave
C. T-switch (Your Answer) D. Hardwiring
D. Modern Correct
Correct
Q.172) What is the minimum number of wires needed to send
Q.166) An error detecting code is which code is the remainder data over a serial communication link layer?
resulting from dividing the bits to be checked by a
predetermined binary number, is known as
A. 2 (Your Answer)
B. 1
A. Cyclic redundancy check (Your Answer)
C. 4
B. Checksum
D. 6
C. Error detecting code
Incorrect
D. Error rate
Correct Q.173) The _____ layer is the layer closest to the transmission
medium.
Q.167) Bulletin board system
A. Physical (Correct Answer)
A. Is a public access message system (Your Answer) B. Data link
B. Is a modem capable of accepting commands C. Network
C. Converts analog signals to digital signals D. Transport (Your Answer)
D. Converts digital signals to analog signals Incorrect
Incorrect
Q.174) What is the name of the device that connects two
Q.168) In OSI model, which of the following layer provides error- computers by means of a telephone line?
free delivery of data?
A. Modem (Correct Answer)
A. Transport (Correct Answer) B. Tape
B. Data link C. Bus
C. Session (Your Answer) D. Cable (Your Answer)
D. Network Correct
Correct
Q.175) What is the main difference between DDCMP and SDLG?
Q.169) Error detection at the data link level is achieved by?
A. DDCMP does not need special hardware to final the
A. Cyclic Redundancy codes (Your Answer) beginning of a message. (Your Answer)
B. Bit stuffing B. DDCMP has a message header
C. Hamming codes C. SDLC has a IP address
D. Equalization D. SDLC does not use CRC
Correct Correct
Q.176) In a _____ topology, if there are n devices in a network, Incorrect
each device has n - 1 ports for cables.
Q.182) The network layer, in reference to the OSI model,
provide
A. Mesh (Your Answer)
B. Star
A. The virtual circuit interface to packet-switched service
C. Bus
(Correct Answer)
D. Ring
B. The interface between the X.25 network and packet
Incorrect mode device
C. Data link procedures that provide for the exchange of
Q.177) Ethernet networks can be cabled in a number of data via frames that can be sent and received
topologies, depending on what works best in each
D. All of these (Your Answer)
environment. As more nodes are added, the efficiency of
Ethernet decreases. Select the best answer as to why Correct
Ethernet becomes less efficient as size increases.
Q.183) In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
A. Network collisions occur (Correct Answer)
B. Repeaters cannot increase the signal strength A. Network layer (Your Answer)
sufficiently B. Data link layer
C. Cable terminators do not reflect the signal properly C. Transport layer
D. Cable terminators do not absorb the signal properly D. Session layer
(Your Answer) Correct
Incorrect
Q.184) Which of the following communications lines is best
Q.178) Typewriter terminals can print computer-generated data suited to interactive processing applications?
at a rate of
A. Full-duplex lines (Your Answer)
A. 120 characters per second (Correct Answer) B. Narrowband channels
B. 120 characters per minute (Your Answer) C. Simplex lines
C. 10 characters per second D. Mixed band channels
D. 1200 characters per minute Correct
Correct
Q.185) What is the first octet range for a class B IP address?
Q.179) To avoid transmission errors, a check figure is calculated
by the
A. 128 - 191 (Your Answer)
B. 192 - 223
A. Transmitting computer and receiving computer (Your
C. 1 - 127
Answer)
D. 128 - 255
B. Transmitting computer
Correct
C. Receiving computer
Q.186) The 32-bit internet address 10000000 00001010
D. Start and stop bit 00000010 00011110 will be written in dotted decimal
Incorrect notation as

Q.180) What is the first octet range for a class A IP address?

A. 128.10.2.30 (Your Answer)
B. 210.20.2.64
A. 1 - 126 (Correct Answer)
C. 164.100.9.61
B. 192 - 255
D. 148.20.2.30
C. 192 - 223
Explanation
D. 1 - 127 (Your Answer) binary to decimal: 10000000=128; 00001010=10;
Incorrect 00000010=2; 00011110=30
Incorrect
Q.181) Which of the following is not a standard synchronous
communication protocol? Q.187) Which of the following items is not used in Local Area
Networks (LANs)?
A. PAS (Correct Answer)
B. SLIP A. Modem (Correct Answer)
C. SMTP (Your Answer) B. Computer
D. SDLC C. Printer (Your Answer)
 D. Cable Q.193) End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host in
Incorrect
A. Transport layer (Correct Answer)
Q.188) Error detection at a data link level is achieved by
B. Data link layer
C. Session layer (Your Answer)
A. Cyclic redundancy codes (Correct Answer)
D. Network layer
B. Bit stuffing Correct
C. Hamming codes (Your Answer)
D. Equalization Q.194) A form of modulation In which the amplitude of a carrier
Correct wave is varied in accordance with some characteristic of
the modulating signal, is known as
Q.189) RS-232-G
A. Amplitude modulation (Your Answer)
A. Is an interface standard between Data terminal B. Modem
Equipment and Data Circuit Terminating Equipment C. Angle modulation
(Your Answer) D. Aloha
B. Is an interface between two data circuit terminating Incorrect
equipment as examplified by a local and remote
modem
Q.195) CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is
C. Specifies only the mechanical characteristics of an
interface by providing a 25-pin connector
A. A method access control technique for multiple-access
D. Requires only 7 pin out of 25 in order to transmit
transmission media. (Correct Answer)
digital data over public telephone lines
Correct B. A method of determining which device has access to
the transmission medium at any time (Your Answer)
Q.190) A subdivision of main storage created by operational C. A very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued
software is referred to as a by ISO.
D. Network access standard for connecting stations to a
circuit-switched network
A. Partition (Your Answer)
Correct
B. Divided core
C. Time-shared program Q.196) Which of the following summation operation is
D. Compartment performed on the bits to check an error-detecting code?
Incorrect
A. Checksum (Your Answer)
Q.191) RS-449/442-A/423-A is B. Attenuation
C. Coder-decoder
A. A set of physical layer standards developed by EIA and D. Codec
intended to replace RS-232-C. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect
B. A check bit appended to an array of binary digits to
make the sum of the all the binary digits
Q.197) The standard suit of protocols used by the Internet,
C. A code in which each expression conforms to specific intranets, extranets, and some other networks.
rules of construction, so that if certain errors occur in
an expression the resulting expression will not
conform to the rules of construction and thus the A. TCP/IP (Correct Answer)
presence of the errors is detected B. Protocol
D. The ratio of the number of data units in error to the C. Open Systems
total number of data units (Your Answer) D. Internetwork processor (Your Answer)
Incorrect Incorrect

Q.192) Which of the following digits are known as the area code Q.198) Networks that follow the 802.5 standard appear to be in
of the Network User Address (NUA)? a star topology but are actually operating in what type of
topology?
A. 5-7 (Correct Answer)
B. 1-4 A. Ring (Correct Answer)
C. 8-12 (Your Answer) B. Modified ring
D. 13-14 C. Modified star (Your Answer)
Incorrect D. Linear bus
Correct
Q.199) A communications device that combines transmissions Q.205) When a group of computers is connected together in a
from several 1/ O devices into one line is a small area without the help of telephone lines, it is called

A. Multiplexer (Your Answer) A. Local area network(LAN) (Your Answer)

B. Full-duplex line B. Wide area network (WAN)
C. Modifier C. Remote communication network (RCN)
D. Concentrator D. Value added network (VAN)
Correct Incorrect

Q.200) The main difference between synchronous and Q.206) The 802.5 standard implements a way for preventing
asynchronous transmission is collisions on the network. How are collisions prevented
when using this standard?
A. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous
transmission (Your Answer) A. Token passing (Correct Answer)
B. The clocking is mixed with the data in asynchronous B. Collision detection (Your Answer)
transmission C. Time sharing
C. The pulse height is different. D. CSMA/CD
D. The bandwidth required is different Correct
Correct
Q.207) A communication network which is used by large
Q.201) ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is organizations over regional, national or global area is
called
A. A TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high
level IP Address to a low-level physical hardware A. WAN (Your Answer)
address (Your Answer) B. MAN
B. A TCP/IP high level protocol for transferring files from C. LAN
one machine to another
D. Intranet
C. A protocol used to monitor computers Correct
D. A protocol that handles error and control messages
Incorrect Q.208) Information systems with common hardware, software,
and network standards that provide easy access for end
Q.202) Which of the following uses network address translation? users and their networked computer systems.

A. Network adapter drivers (Correct Answer) A. Open Systems (Your Answer)

B. Routers (Your Answer) B. Internetwork processor
C. Hubs C. Protocol
D. Windows 95 D. TCP/IP
Correct Incorrect

Q.203) The X.25 standard specifies a Q.209) Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for file
transfer with minimal capability and minimal overhead?
A. DTE/DCE interface (Your Answer)
B. Data bit rate
A. TFTP (Correct Answer)
C. Technique for dial access
B. TELNET
D. Technique for start-stop data
Incorrect C. FTP (Your Answer)
D. RARP
Q.204) The most important part of a multiple DHCP B.
configurations is to make sure you don't have which of Incorrect
the following in the different scopes?
Q.210) Terminals are required for
A. Duplicate addresses (Correct Answer)
B. Duplicate pools (Your Answer) A. Realtime, timesharing, and message switching
(Correct Answer)
C. Duplicate subnets
B. Realtime, distributed processing, and manager inquiry
D. Duplicate default gateways
C. Realtime, timesharing, and distributed processing
Correct
 D. Realtime, batch processing, and timesharing (Your C. Full-duplex lines (Your Answer)
Answer) D. Biflex-line
Correct Incorrect

Q.211) Sending a file from your personal computer's primary Q.217) What OSI layer handles logical address to logical name
memory or disk to another computer is called resolution?

A. Uploading (Your Answer) A. Transport (Correct Answer)

B. Downloading B. Physical
C. Logging on C. Presentation
D. Hang on D. Data Link (Your Answer)
Correct Incorrect

Q.212) Business meeting and conferences can be held by linking Q.218) The MAC (Media Access Control) address of the network
distantly located people through a computer network. card is used in both Ethernet and Token-Ring networks
Not only the participants exchange information but are and is essential for communication. What does MAC
able to see each other. What is it called? provide?

A. Teleconferencing (Your Answer) A. A physical address that is assigned by the

B. Teletalking manufacturer (Correct Answer)
C. Telemailing B. The logical domain address for the workstation
D. Telemeeting C. A physical address that is randomly assigned each
Correct time the computer is started (Your Answer)
D. A logical address that identifies the workstation
Q.213) If the ASCII character H is sent and the character I is Correct
received, what type of error is this?
Q.219) Which of the following is an example of a client-server
A. Single-bit (Your Answer) model?
B. Multiple-bit
C. Recoverable A. All of the choices (Your Answer)
D. Burst B. TELNET
Correct C. FTP
D. DNS
Q.214) A 4 KHz noise less channel with one sample ever 125 per Incorrect
sec is used to transmit digital signals. If Delta modulation
is selected, then how many bits per second are actually Q.220) In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is
sent?

A. The quotient at the sender (Correct Answer)

A. 8 kbps (Your Answer)
B. Nonzero
B. 128 kbps
C. Zero (Your Answer)
C. 64 kbps.
D. Equal to the remainder at the sender
D. 32 kbps
Correct
Incorrect
Q.221) A T-switch is used to
Q.215) UDP is

A. Rearrange the connections between computing

A. Connectionless and unreliable (Correct Answer)
B. Connection orientated and reliable
C. Connection oriented and unreliable (Your Answer)
D. Not a part of the TCP/IP suite
Incorrect
equipment (Your Answer)
B. Control how messages are passed between computers
C. Echo every character that is received
D. Transmit characters one at a time
Correct

Q.216) The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing
system may be best suited to
A. Half-duplex lines (Correct Answer)
B. Simplex lines
Q.222) A global network of millions of business, government,
educational, and research networks; computer systems;
database; and end users.
A. The Internet (Your Answer)
 B. Internet technologies Incorrect
C. Internet revolution
D. Internet works Q.229) An international standard, multilevel set of protocols to
promote compatibility among telecommunications
Incorrect
networks.

Q.223) The CCITT Recommendation X.25 specifies three layers of

communications A. OSI (Correct Answer)
B. Network operating system
A. Physical datalink and network (Correct Answer) C. Virtual Private Network (Your Answer)
B. Datalink, network and transport (Your Answer) D. Network Server
Incorrect
C. Application, presentation and session
D. Session, transport and network
Q.230) Many large organizations with their offices in different
Correct
countries of the world connect their computers through
telecommunication satellites and telephone lines. Such a
Q.224) Which of the following technique is used for allocating communication network is called
capacity on a satellite channel using fixed-assignment
FDM?
A. WAN (Correct Answer)
B. ECONET
A. Frequency-division multiple access (Your Answer)
C. EITHERNET
B. Amplitude modulation
D. LAN (Your Answer)
C. Frequency modulation
Correct
D. Frequency-shift keying
Correct
Q.231) A network which is used for sharing data, software and
hardware among several users owning microcomputers
Q.225) The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbol is called is called

A. Entropy (Your Answer) A. LAN (Your Answer)

B. Loss B. VAN
C. Quantum C. MAN
D. Bandwidth D. WAN
Correct Correct

Q.226) Which of the following allows a simple email service and Q.232) In geosynchronous orbit, satellite
is responsible for moving messages from one mail server
to another?
A. Remains in a fixed position so that as earth rotates, it
can fully cover the earth (Your Answer)
A. SMTP (Your Answer)
B. Remains in a fixed position related to points on earth
B. FTP
C. Moves faster than the earth's rotation so that it can
C. DHCP cover larger portion of earth.
D. IMAP D. Moves simultaneously
Correct Incorrect

Q.227) What does 192 translate to in binary?
A. 11000000 (Your Answer)
B. 00111110
C. 00001111
D. 00000011
Correct
Q.228) An information utility can offer a user
A. All of the choices (Your Answer)
B. Complete airline schedules for all domestic flights
C. News stories from wire services
D. Instant bonds and stock quotations
Q.233) A proposed network infrastructure of interconnected
local, regional, and global networks that would support
universal interactive multimedia communications.
A. Information super highway (Correct Answer)
B. Business applications of telecommunications (Your
Answer)
C. Client/Server networks
D. Internetworked enterprise
Incorrect
Q.234) What does 240 translate to in binary?
A. 11110000 (Correct Answer)
 B. 00011110 Q.240) You have purchased a MAU (Multistation Access Unit)
C. 11100000 (Your Answer) from your computer supplier and now must decide what
D. 00001111 type of network card you should install in the
workstations. Which of the following would be the most
Correct
appropriate?

Q.235) Most networks are connected to other local area or wide

area networks. A. Token-Ring (Your Answer)
B. Fast SCSI Wide
A. Internet works (Your Answer) C. ArcServe
B. The Internet D. Ethernet
C. Internet revolution Incorrect
D. Internet technologies
Q.241) An ROP would be attached to a
Correct

Q.236) A 6-MHz channel is used by a digital signaling system A. Simplex channel (Correct Answer)
utilizing 4-level signals. What is the maximum possible B. Duplex channel
transmission rate? C. Half duplex channel
D. Full duplex channel (Your Answer)
A. 12 Mbaud/sec (Your Answer) Correct
B. 24 Mbaud/sec
C. 6 Mband/sec Q.242) Who originally designed TCP/IP?
D. 1.5 Mbaud/sec
Incorrect A. The Department of Defense (Your Answer)
B. Novell
Q.237) Error detecting code is C. IBM
D. Xerox
A. a code in which each expression conforms to specify Correct
rules of construction, so that if certain errors occur in
an expression, the resulting expression will not Q.243) The systematic access of small computers in a distributed
conform to the rules of construction and thus the data processing system is referred to as
presence of the error is detected (Correct Answer)
B. An error-detecting code based on a summation
A. Polling (Your Answer)
operation performed on the bits to be checked
B. Conversational mode
C. A check bit appended to an array of binary digits to
make the sum of all the binary digits C. Multiplexing
D. The ratio of the data units in error to the total number D. Dialed service
of data units (Your Answer) Correct
Correct
Q.244) The process of converting analog signals into digital
Q.238) A modulator converts a _____ signal to a(n) _____ signal. signals so they can be processed by a receiving computer
is referred to as

A. Digital; analog (Your Answer)

A. Demodulation (Your Answer)
B. Analog; digital
B. Synchronizing
C. PSK; FSK
C. Modulation
D. FSK; PSK
D. Synchronizing
Correct
Incorrect
Q.239) The birthplace of the World Wide Web is considered to
be Q.245) An example of digital, rather than analog,
communication is

A. CERN (Your Answer)

A. DDS (Correct Answer)
B. The Department of Defense
B. WATS
C. ARPA
C. DDT
D. Netscape
Correct D. DDD (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.246) How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard? D. Coaxial cable (Your Answer)
Incorrect
A. Three (Your Answer)
Q.252) In cyclic redundancy checking what is the CRC?
B. Seven
C. Two
A. The remainder (Correct Answer)
D. Six
B. The dividend (Your Answer)
Incorrect
C. The quotient
Q.247) What is the port number for HTTP? D. The divisor
Incorrect
A. 80 (Correct Answer)
Q.253) What is the maximum number of entries in the HOSTS
B. 23 (Your Answer)
file?
C. 86
D. 99
A. Unlimited (Correct Answer)
Correct
B. 500
Q.248) The most flexibility in how devices are wired together is C. 255 (Your Answer)
provided by D. 8
Correct
A. Bus networks (Your Answer)
Q.254) The communication mode that supports data in both
B. Ring networks
directions at the same time is
C. Star networks
D. T-switched networks
A. Full-duplex (Your Answer)
Correct
B. Multiplex
C. Half-duplex
Q.249) When you connect to an online information service, you
are asked to provide some kind of identification such as D. Simplex
your name, an account number and a password. What is Incorrect
the name given to this brief dialogue between you and
the information system? Q.255) Which of the following program is used to copy files to or
from another UNIX timesharing system over a single link?
A. Log-on procedure (Your Answer)
B. Identification procedure A. UUCP (Correct Answer)
C. Safeguard procedure B. UART (Your Answer)
D. Security procedure C. TFTP
Incorrect D. VMTP
Incorrect
Q.250) Bus is
Q.256) One important characteristic of the hub architecture of
A. One or more conductors that some as a common ARC-net is
connection for a related group of devices (Correct
Answer) A. Directionalized transmission (Correct Answer)
B. A continuous frequency capable of being modulated B. Access control and addressing (Your Answer)
or impressed with a second signal
C. Multiple virtual networks
C. the condition when two or more stations attempt to
D. Alternative routing
use the same channel at the same time
Correct
D. A collection of interconnected functional units that
provides a data communications service among
stations attached to the network (Your Answer) Q.257) The basic Ethernet design does not provide
Incorrect
A. Automatic retransmission of a message (Your Answer)
Q.251) Which of the following medium is used for broadband B. Multiple virtual networks
local networks? C. Addressing
D. Access control
A. CATV (Correct Answer) Incorrect
B. UTP
C. Optic fiber
Q.258) You are in the process of analyzing a problem that
requires you to collect and store TCP/IP Packets. Which A. Medium Frequency : 300 kHz to 3 MHz (Your Answer)
of the following utilities is best suited for this purpose? B. High Frequency : 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. Very High Frequency : 30 MHz to 300 MHz
A. Network Monitor (Correct Answer) D. Very Low Frequency : 3 kHz to 30 kHz
B. NETSTAT Incorrect
C. Performance Monitor
D. NBTSTAT (Your Answer) Q.265) Baseband is
Incorrect
A. Transmission of signals without modulation (Correct
Q.259) A software that allows a personal computer to pretend it Answer)
as a terminal is B. A signal all of whose energy is contained within a
finite frequency range
A. Auto-dialing (Correct Answer) C. The simultaneous transmission of data to a number of
B. Bulletin board stations
C. Modem D. All of the choices (Your Answer)
D. Terminal emulation (Your Answer) Incorrect
Incorrect
Q.266) X.21 is
Q.260) What is the name of the network topology in which there
are bi-directional links between each possible node? A. Network access standard for connecting stations to a
circuit-switched network (Correct Answer)
A. Mesh (Correct Answer) B. A very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued
B. Tree by ISO
C. Star C. A method access control technique for multiple-access
transmission media (Your Answer)
D. Ring (Your Answer)
D. A method of determining which device has access to
Incorrect
the transmission medium at any time
Correct
Q.261) What is the main purpose of a data link content monitor?

Q.267) What is the minimum number of wires required for

A. To detect problems in protocols (Correct Answer) sending data over a serial communications links?
B. To determine the type of transmission used in a data
link (Your Answer)
A. 2 (Your Answer)
C. To determine the type of switching used in a data link
B. 1
D. To determine the flow of data
C. 3
Correct
D. 4
Correct
Q.262) Synchronous protocols

Q.268) In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _____ the

A. Allow faster transmission than asynchronous CRC.
protocols do (Your Answer)
B. Transmit characters one at a time
A. One bit more than (Your Answer)
C. Are generally used by personal computers
B. Two bits more
D. Are more reliable
C. One bit less than
Correct
D. The same size as
Incorrect
Q.263) Videotex is a combination of

Q.269) Which command-line tool is included with every

A. All of the choices (Your Answer) Microsoft TCP/IP client?
B. Television
C. Communication A. PING (Correct Answer)
D. Computer technology B. WINIPCFG
Correct C. WINS (Your Answer)
D. DHCP
Q.264) Which of the following frequency ranges is used for AM
Correct
radio transmission?
Q.270) If odd parity is used for ASCII error detection, the number C. Series 1000
of 0s per eight-bit symbol is _____. D. All of the choices (Your Answer)
Correct
A. Odd (Your Answer)
B. Even Q.277) How much transmitter power should be used on the
C. Indeterminate uplink frequency of an amateur satellite or space
station?
D. 42
Incorrect
A. The minimum amount of power needed to complete
the contact (Your Answer)
Q.271) An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of
data to be transmitted is known as B. No more than half the rating of your linear amplifier
C. Never more than 1 watt
A. Frame check sequence (Correct Answer) D. The maximum power of your transmitter
Correct
B. Error detecting code (Your Answer)
C. Checksum
Q.278) Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking
D. Flow control programs?
Correct

A. All of these answers are correct (Your Answer)

Q.272) Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is
B. The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission,
including effects of Doppler shift
A. 5 (Your Answer)
C. The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start,
B. 1 maximum altitude, and end of a pass
C. 8 D. Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite
D. 9 track over the earth
Correct Incorrect

Q.273) Working of the WAN generally involves Q.279) What is a satellite beacon?

A. All of the choices (Your Answer) A. A transmission from a space station that contains
B. Satellites information about a satellite (Correct Answer)
C. Microwaves B. A reflective surface on the satellite (Your Answer)
D. Telephone lines C. An indicator light that that shows where to point your
Incorrect antenna
D. The primary transmit antenna on the satellite
Q.274) What does the acronym ISDN stand for? Incorrect

Q.280) Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking

A. Integrated Services Digital Network (Correct Answer)
program?
B. Intelligent Standard Digital Network
C. Intelligent Services Digital Network
A. The Keplerian elements (Correct Answer)
D. Integrated Services Data Network (Your Answer)
B. The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
Correct
C. All of these answers are correct (Your Answer)
D. The weight of the satellite
Q.275) Which of the following services dynamically resolves
NetBIOS-to-IP resolution? Correct

Q.281) With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler

A. WINS (Your Answer)
shift?
B. LMHOSTS
C. DHCP
A. An observed change in signal frequency caused by
D. DNS relative motion between the satellite and the earth
Incorrect station (Your Answer)
B. A special digital communications mode for some
Q.276) An example of a medium-speed, switched satellites
communications service is
C. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one
band and transmits on another
A. DDD (Correct Answer) D. A change in the satellite orbit
B. Dataphone 50 Correct

Q.282) What is meant by the statement that a satellite is
operating in mode U/V?
A. The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band and the
downlink is in the 2 meter band (Your Answer)
B. The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies
C. The satellite frequencies are usually variable
D. The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the
downlink is in the 10 meter band
Correct
Q.283) What causes spin fading when referring to satellite
signals?
A. Rotation of the satellite and its antennas (Your
Answer)
B. Doppler shift of the received signal
C. Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band
D. Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the
sun
Correct
Q.284) What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur
satellite?
A. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit (Your Answer)
B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection Orbit
maneuver
C. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics
D. The satellite battery is in Low Energy Operation mode
Correct
Q.285) What is a commonly used method of sending signals to
and from a digital satellite?
A. FM Packet (Your Answer)
B. WSJT
C. PSK31
D. USB AFSK
Correct
Q.286) Which of the following methods is used to locate sources
of noise interference or jamming?
A. Radio direction finding (Your Answer)
B. Phase locking
C. Doppler radar
D. Echolocation
Incorrect
Q.287) Which of these items would be useful for a hidden
transmitter hunt?
A. A directional antenna (Correct Answer)
B. A calibrated noise bridge
C. All of these choices are correct
D. Calibrated SWR meter (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.288) What popular operating activity involves contacting as
many stations as possible during a specified period of
time?
A. Contesting (Your Answer)
B. Net operations
C. Public service events
D. Simulated emergency exercises
Correct
Q.289) Which of the following is good procedure when
contacting another station in a radio contest?
A. Send only the minimum information needed for
proper identification and the contest exchange (Your
Answer)
B. All of these choices are correct
C. Work the station twice to be sure that you are in his
log
D. Be sure to sign only the last two letters of your call if
there is a pileup calling the station
Correct
Q.290) What is a grid locator?
A. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic
location (Your Answer)
B. A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth
and elevation
C. An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier
D. An instrument for radio direction finding
Incorrect
Q.291) How is access to an IRLP node accomplished?
A. By using DTMF signals (Correct Answer)
B. By entering the proper Internet password
C. By using CTCSS tone codes
D. By obtaining a password which is sent via voice to the
node (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.292) What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting
telecommand signals to radio controlled models?
A. 1 watt (Correct Answer)
B. 25 watts (Your Answer)
C. 1500 watts
D. 500 milliwatts
Correct
Q.293) How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a
portable transceiver?
 A. Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID (Your B. A method of compressing digital television signals
Answer) C. A method of reducing noise interference to FM signals
B. Access the repeater autopatch (Your Answer)
C. Choose the correct DSC tone D. A high-rate data transmission mode
D. Choose a specific CTCSS tone Correct
Correct
Q.300) Which of the following may be included in packet
Q.294) Which of the following is an example of a digital transmissions?
communications method?
A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer) B. Automatic repeat request in case of error
B. MFSK C. A header which contains the call sign of the station to
C. PSK31 which the information is being sent
D. Packet D. A check sum which permits error detection
Correct Incorrect

Q.295) What does the term “APRS” mean? Q.301) What code is used when sending CW in the amateur
bands?

A. Automatic Packet Reporting System (Your Answer)

A. International Morse (Correct Answer)
B. Associated Public Radio Station
B. Gray
C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up
C. Hamming (Your Answer)
D. Advanced Polar Radio System
Correct D. Baudot
Correct
Q.296) What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC?
Q.302) Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the
amateur bands?
A. An analog fast scan color TV signal (Your Answer)
B. A frame compression scheme for TV signals
A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
C. A special mode for earth satellite uplink
B. Computer Keyboard
D. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
C. Electronic Keyer
Incorrect
D. Straight Key
Incorrect
Q.297) Which of the following is an application of APRS
(Automatic Packet Reporting System)?
Q.303) What is an ARQ transmission system?

A. Providing real time tactical digital communications in

conjunction with a map showing the locations of A. A digital scheme whereby the receiving station
stations (Correct Answer) detects errors and sends a request to the sending
station to retransmit the information (Correct Answer)
B. Showing automatically the number of packets
transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval B. A method of compressing the data in a message so
more information can be sent in a shorter time
C. Providing voice over Internet connection between
repeaters C. A system used to encrypt command signals to an
amateur radio satellite
D. Providing information on the number of stations
signed into a repeater (Your Answer) D. A special transmission format limited to video signals
Correct (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.298) What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
Q.304) What is a reason to use a properly mounted 5/8
wavelength antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?
A. Phase Shift Keying (Your Answer)
B. Packet Short Keying
A. It offers a lower angle of radiation and more gain than
C. Phased Slide Keying a 1/4 wavelength antenna and usually provides
D. Pulse Shift Keying improved coverage (Correct Answer)
Incorrect B. It features a very high angle of radiation and is better
for communicating via a repeater (Your Answer)
Q.299) What is PSK31? C. The 5/8 wavelength antenna completely eliminates
distortion caused by reflected signals
A. A low-rate data transmission mode (Correct Answer)
 D. The 5/8 wavelength antenna offers a 10-times power
gain over a 1/4 wavelength design
Correct
Q.305) Why are VHF or UHF mobile antennas often mounted in
the center of the vehicle roof?
A. A roof mounted antenna normally provides the most
uniform radiation pattern (Your Answer)
B. Roof mounted antennas are always the easiest to
install
C. Only roof mounting can guarantee a vertically
polarized signal
D. Roof mounts have the lowest possible SWR of any
mounting configuration
Incorrect
Q.306) Which of the following terms describes a type of loading
when referring to an antenna?
A. Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the
antenna to make it electrically longer (Correct
Answer)
B. Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the
antenna to make it resonant (Your Answer)
C. Installing a spring at the base of the antenna to absorb
the effects of collisions with other objects
D. Making the antenna heavier so it will resist wind
effects when in motion
Incorrect
Q.307) Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt
storage battery?
A. Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an
explosion (Correct Answer)
B. Touching both terminals with the hands can cause
electrical shock
C. RF emissions from the battery
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.308) How does current flowing through the body cause a
health hazard?
A. All of these choices are correct (Correct Answer)
B. It causes involuntary muscle contractions
C. It disrupts the electrical functions of cells
D. By heat ing tissue (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.309) What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire
electrical AC plug?
A. Safety ground (Correct Answer)
B. Neutral (Your Answer)
C. The white wire
D. Hot
Correct
Q.310) What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
B. To limit current to prevent shocks
C. To interrupt power in case of overload
D. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a
circuit
Correct
Q.311) Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place
of a 5-ampere fuse?
A. Excessive current could cause a fire (Your Answer)
B. All of these choices are correct
C. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
D. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is
rated for higher current
Correct
Q.312) What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at
your station?
A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
B. Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter
C. Connect all AC powered station equipment to a
common safety ground
D. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered
equipment
Incorrect
Q.313) Which of these precautions should be taken when
installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial
cable feed line?
A. Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which
is in turn connected to an external ground (Correct
Answer)
B. Keep the ground wires from each protector separate
and connected to station ground (Your Answer)
C. Include a series switch in the ground line of each
protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently
damaging the protector
D. Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so
that it can be switched out of the circuit when running
high power
Incorrect
Q.314) What safety equipment should always be included in
home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC
power circuits?
A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC hot
conductor (Correct Answer)
B. A capacitor across the AC power source (Your Answer)
C. An inductor in series with the AC power source
D. An AC voltmeter across the incoming power source
Incorrect
Q.315) What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-
volt storage battery?
A. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented
(Correct Answer)
B. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
C. Shock hazard due to high voltage
D. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the
atmosphere
Incorrect
Q.316) What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is
charged or discharged too quickly?
A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas
or explode (Correct Answer)
B. The voltage can become reversed
C. The memory effect will reduce the capacity of the
battery
D. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.317) What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when
it is turned off and disconnected?
A. You might receive an electric shock from the charged
stored in large capacitors (Your Answer)
B. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
C. Circulating currents inside the transformer might
cause damage
D. Static electricity could damage the grounding system
Correct
Q.318) When should members of a tower work team wear a
hard hat and safety glasses?
A. At all times when any work is being done on the tower
(Your Answer)
B. Only when the tower exceeds 30 feet in height
C. At all times except when belted firmly to the tower
D. At all times except when climbing the tower
Incorrect
Q.319) What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an
antenna tower?
A. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses (Correct
Answer)
B. All of the these choices are correct (Your Answer)
C. Remove all tower grounding connections
D. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap
Correct
Q.320) Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower
without a helper or observer?
A. Never (Your Answer)
B. When the work being done is not more than 20 feet
above the ground
C. When no mechanical work is being performed
D. When no electrical work is being performed
Incorrect
Q.321) Which of the following is an important safety precaution
to observe when putting up an antenna tower?
A. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical
wires (Correct Answer)
B. All of these choices are correct
C. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning
strikes (Your Answer)
D. Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all
times
Incorrect
Q.322) What is the purpose of a gin pole?
A. To lift tower sections or antennas (Correct Answer)
B. To provide a temporary ground
C. To be used in place of a safety harness
D. To temporarily replace guy wires (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.323) What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to
allow when installing an antenna?
A. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it
can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires (Your
Answer)
B. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
C. The height of the power line above ground
D. Half the width of your property
Correct
Q.324) Which of the following is an important safety rule to
remember when using a crank-up tower?
A. This type of tower must never be climbed unless it is
in the fully retracted position (Your Answer)
B. All of these choices are correct
C. This type of tower must never be grounded
D. This type of tower must never be painted
Incorrect
Q.325) What is considered to be a proper grounding method for
a tower?
A. Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower
leg, bonded to the tower and each other (Correct
Answer)
B. A connection between the tower base and a cold
water pipe
C. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower
and ground
 D. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground
no more than 12 inches from the base (Your Answer) A. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
Incorrect B. Radiation pattern of the antenna
C. Distance from the antenna to a person
Q.326) Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility
D. Frequency and power level of the RF field
pole?
Correct

A. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires

Q.332) Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
(Correct Answer)
B. All of these choices are correct
A. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some
C. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly
frequencies than at others (Your Answer)
fee
B. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
D. The antenna will not work properly because of
induced voltages (Your Answer) C. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the
human body
Incorrect
D. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than
higher frequency fields
Q.327) Which of the following is true concerning grounding
conductors used for lightning protection? Correct

Q.333) What could happen if a person accidentally touched your

A. Sharp bends must be avoided (Correct Answer)
antenna while you were transmitting?
B. Common grounds must be avoided
C. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-
A. They might receive a painful RF burn (Your Answer)
angle bends (Your Answer)
B. They might develop radiation poisoning
D. Only non-insulated wire must be used
C. All of these choices are correct
Incorrect
D. Touching the antenna could cause television
interference
Q.328) Which of the following is good practice when installing
ground wires on a tower for lightning protection? Incorrect

Q.334) Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine

A. Ensure that connections are short and direct (Correct
safe RF radiation exposure levels?
Answer)
B. All of these choices are correct (Your Answer)
A. It affects the average exposure of people to radiation
C. Make sure that all bends in the ground wires are
(Correct Answer)
clean, right angle bends
B. It affects the peak exposure of people to radiation
D. Put a loop in the ground connection to prevent water
(Your Answer)
damage to the ground system
C. It takes into account the antenna feed line loss
Correct
D. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final
amplifier
Q.329) What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals?
Correct

A. Non-ionizing radiation (Your Answer)

Q.335) What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging
B. Alpha radiation time for RF exposure?
C. Ionizing radiation
D. Gamma radiation A. The percentage of time that a transmitter is
Incorrect transmitting (Your Answer)
B. The percentage of time that a transmitter is not
Q.330) Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value transmitting
for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit? C. The difference between the PEP and average power
output of a transmitter
A. 50 MHz (Correct Answer) D. The difference between the lowest power output and
B. 3.5 MHz (Your Answer) the highest power output of a transmitter
C. 440 MHz Incorrect
D. 1296 MHz
Q.336) How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation
Correct
(radioactivity)?

Q.331) What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an

amateur station antenna? A. RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause
genetic damage (Correct Answer)
 B. RF radiation can only be detected with an RF
dosimeter
C. RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet
D. RF radiation is perfectly safe (Your Answer)
Incorrect

Q.337) If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how

much power density is permitted if the signal is present
for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being
present for the entire 6 minutes?

A. 2 times as much (Correct Answer)

B. There is no adjustment allowed for shorter exposure
times
C. 1/2 as much
D. 3 times as much (Your Answer)