1. A patient arrives at the emergency department
Glucagon prolongs the effect of insulin, allowing
complaining of mid-sternal chest pain. Which of the
following nursing action should take priority?
1. A complete history with emphasis on preceding
events.
2. An electrocardiogram.
3. Careful assessment of vital signs.
4. Chest exam with auscultation.
2. A patient has been hospitalized with pneumonia and
is about to be discharged. A nurse provides discharge
instructions to a patient and his family. Which
misunderstanding by the family indicates the need for
more detailed information?
A. The patient may resume normal home activities as
tolerated but should avoid physical exertion and get
adequate rest.
B. The patient should resume a normal diet with
emphasis on nutritious, healthy foods.
C. The patient may discontinue the prescribed course of
oral antibiotics once the symptoms have completely
resolved.
D. The patient should continue use of the incentive
spirometer to keep airways open and free of secretions.
3. A nurse is caring for an elderly Vietnamese patient in
the terminal stages of lung cancer. Many family
members are in the room around the clock performing
unusual rituals and bringing ethnic foods. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Restrict visiting hours and ask the family to limit
visitors to two at a time.
B. Notify visitors with a sign on the door that the patient
is limited to clear fluids only with no solid food allowed.
C. If possible, keep the other bed in the room
unassigned to provide privacy and comfort to the
family.
D. Contact the physician to report the unusual rituals
and activities.
4. The charge nurse on the cardiac unit is planning
assignments for the day. Which of the following is the
most appropriate assignment for the float nurse that
has been reassigned from labor and delivery?
A. A one-week postoperative coronary bypass patient,
who is being evaluated for placement of a pacemaker
prior to discharge.
B. A suspected myocardial infarction patient on
telemetry, just admitted from the Emergency
Department and scheduled for an angiogram.
C. A patient with unstable angina being closely
monitored for pain and medication titration.
D. A post-operative valve replacement patient who was
recently admitted to the unit because all surgical beds
were filled.
5. A newly diagnosed 8-year-old child with type I
diabetes mellitus and his mother are receiving diabetes
education prior to discharge. The physician has
prescribed Glucagon for emergency use. The mother
asks the purpose of this medication. Which of the
following statements by the nurse is correct?
A. Glucagon enhances the effect of insulin in case the
blood sugar remains high one hour after injection.
B. Glucagon treats hypoglycemia resulting from insulin
overdose.
C. Glucagon treats lipoatrophy from insulin injections.
D.
fewer injections.
6. A patient on the cardiac telemetry unit unexpectedly
goes into ventricular fibrillation. The advanced cardiac
life support team prepares to defibrillate. Which of the
following choices indicates the correct placement of
the conductive gel pads?
A. The left clavicle and right lower sternum.
B. Right of midline below the bottom rib and the left
shoulder.
C. The upper and lower halves of the sternum.
D. The right side of the sternum just below the clavicle
and left of the precordium.
8. A patient arrives in the emergency department and
reports splashing concentrated household cleaner in
his eye. Which of the following nursing actions is a
priority?
A. Irrigate the eye repeatedly with normal saline
solution.
B. Place fluorescein drops in the eye.
C. Patch the eye.
D. Test visual acuity.
9. A nurse is caring for a patient who has had hip
replacement. The nurse should be most concerned
about which of the following findings?
A. Complaints of pain during repositioning.
B. Scant bloody discharge on the surgical dressing.
C. Complaints of pain following physical therapy.
D. Temperature of 101.8 F (38.7 C).
10. A child is admitted to the hospital with an
uncontrolled seizure disorder. The admitting physician
writes orders for actions to be taken in the event of a
seizure. Which of the following actions would NOT be
included?
A. Notify the physician.
B. Restrain the patient's limbs.
C. Position the patient on his/her side with the head
flexed forward.
D. Administer rectal diazepam.
11. Emergency department triage is an important
nursing function. A nurse working the evening shift is
presented with four patients at the same time. Which
of the following patients should be assigned the
highest priority?
A. A patient with low-grade fever, headache, and
myalgias for the past 72 hours.
B. A patient who is unable to bear weight on the left
foot, with swelling and bruising following a running
accident.
C. A patient with abdominal and chest pain following a
large, spicy meal.
D. A child with a one-inch bleeding laceration on the
chin but otherwise well after falling while jumping on his
bed.
12. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a calcium
level of 6.0 mg/dL. Which of the following symptoms
would you NOT expect to see in this patient?
A. Numbness in hands and feet.
B. Muscle cramping.
C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
D. Positive Chvostek's sign.
12. Answer: C
Normal serum calcium is 8.5 - 10 mg/dL. The patient is
hypocalcemic. Increased gastric motility, resulting in
hyperactive (not hypoactive) bowel sounds, abdominal
cramping and diarrhea is an indication of hypocalcemia.
Numbness in hands and feet and muscle cramps are also
signs of hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign refers to
the sustained twitching of facial muscles following
tapping in the area of the cheekbone and is a hallmark
of hypocalcemia.
13. A nurse cares for a patient who has a nasogastric
tube attached to low suction because of a suspected
bowel obstruction. Which of the following arterial
blood gas results might be expected in this patient?
A. pH 7.52, PCO2 54 mm Hg.
B. pH 7.42, PCO2 40 mm Hg.
C. pH 7.25, PCO2 25 mm Hg.
D. pH 7.38, PCO2 36 mm Hg.
13. Answer: A
A patient on nasogastric suction is at risk of metabolic
alkalosis as a result of loss of hydrochloric acid in gastric
fluid. Of the answers given, only answer A (pH 7.52,
PCO2 54 mm Hg) represents alkalosis. Answer B is a
normal blood gas. Answer C represents respiratory
acidosis. Answer D is borderline normal with slightly low
PCO2.
14. A patient is admitted to the hospital for routine
elective surgery. Included in the list of current
medications is Coumadin (warfarin) at a high dose.
Concerned about the possible effects of the drug,
particularly in a patient scheduled for surgery, the
nurse anticipates which of the following actions?
A. Draw a blood sample for prothrombin (PT) and
international normalized ratio (INR) level.
B. Administer vitamin K.
C. Draw a blood sample for type and crossmatch and
request blood from the blood bank.
D. Cancel the surgery after the patient reports stopping
the Coumadin one week previously.
14. Answer: A
The effect of Coumadin is to inhibit clotting. The next
step is to check the PT and INR to determine the
patient's anticoagulation status and risk of bleeding.
Vitamin K is an antidote to Coumadin and may be used
in a patient who is at imminent risk of dangerous
bleeding. Preparation for transfusion, as described in
option C, is only indicated in the case of significant
blood loss. If lab results indicate an anticoagulation level
that would place the patient at risk of excessive
bleeding, the surgeon may choose to delay surgery and
discontinue the medication.
15. The follow lab results are received for a patient.
Which of the following results are abnormal? Note:
More than one answer may be correct.
A. Hemoglobin 10.4 g/dL.
B. Total cholesterol 340 mg/dL.
C. Total serum protein 7.0 g/dL.
D. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C 5.4%.
15. Answer: A and B
Normal hemoglobin in adults is 12 - 16 g/dL. Total
cholesterol levels of 200 mg/dL or below are considered
normal. Total serum protein of 7.0-g/dL and
glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 5.4% are both normal
levels.
16. A nurse is performing routine assessment of an IV
site in a patient receiving both IV fluids and
medications through the line. Which of the following
would indicate the need for discontinuation of the IV
line as the next nursing action?
A. The patient complains of pain on movement.
B. The area proximal to the insertion site is reddened,
warm, and painful.
C. The IV solution is infusing too slowly, particularly
when the limb is elevated.
D. A hematoma is visible in the area of the IV insertion
site.
16. Answer: B
An IV site that is red, warm, painful and swollen
indicates that phlebitis has developed and the line
should be discontinued and restarted at another site.
Pain on movement should be managed by maneuvers
such as splinting the limb with an IV board or gently
shifting the position of the catheter before making a
decision to remove the line. An IV line that is running
slowly may simply need flushing or repositioning. A
hematoma at the site is likely a result of minor bleeding
at the time of insertion and does not require
discontinuation of the line.
17. A hospitalized patient has received transfusions of
2 units of blood over the past few hours. A nurse
enters the room to find the patient sitting up in bed,
dyspneic and uncomfortable. On assessment, crackles
are heard in the bases of both lungs, probably
indicating that the patient is experiencing a
complication of transfusion. Which of the following
complications is most likely the cause of the patient's
symptoms?
A. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction.
B. Allergic transfusion reaction.
C. Acute hemolytic reaction.
D. Fluid overload.
17. Answer: D
Fluid overload occurs when then the fluid volume
infused over a short period is too great for the vascular
system, causing fluid leak into the lungs. Symptoms
include dyspnea, rapid respirations, and discomfort as in
the patient described. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
results in fever. Symptoms of allergic transfusion
reaction would include flushing, itching, and a
generalized rash. Acute hemolytic reaction may occur
when a patient receives blood that is incompatible with
his blood type. It is the most serious adverse transfusion
reaction and can cause shock and death.
18. A patient in labor and delivery has just received an
amniotomy. Which of the following is correct? Note:
More than one answer may be correct.
A. Frequent checks for cervical dilation will be needed
after the procedure.
B. Contractions may rapidly become stronger and closer
together after the procedure.
C. The FHR (fetal heart rate) will be followed closely
after the procedure due to the possibility of cord
compression.
D. The procedure is usually painless and is followed by a
gush of amniotic fluid.
18. Answer: B, C, and D
Uterine contractions typically become stronger and
occur more closely together following amniotomy. The
FHR is assessed immediately after the procedure and
followed closely to detect changes that may indicate
cord compression. The procedure itself is painless and
results in the quick expulsion of amniotic fluid.
Following amniotomy, cervical checks are minimized
because of the risk of infection
19. A nurse is counseling the mother of a newborn
infant with hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following
instructions by the nurse is NOT correct?
A. Continue to breastfeed frequently, at least every 2-4
hours.
B. Follow up with the infant's physician within 72 hours
of discharge for a recheck of the serum bilirubin and
exam.
C. Watch for signs of dehydration, including decreased
urinary output and changes in skin turgor.
D. Keep the baby quiet and swaddled, and place the
bassinet in a dimly lit area.
19. Answer: D
An infant discharged home with hyperbilirubinemia
(newborn jaundice) should be placed in a sunny rather
than dimly lit area with skin exposed to help process the
bilirubin. Frequent feedings will help to metabolize the
bilirubin. A recheck of the serum bilirubin and a physical
exam within 72 hours will confirm that the level is falling
and the infant is thriving and is well hydrated. Signs of
dehydration, including decreased urine output and skin
changes, indicate inadequate fluid intake and will
worsen the hyperbilirubinemia.
20. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to the
parents of a healthy newborn. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse provide regarding car
safety and the trip home from the hospital?
A. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat,
properly secured in the back seat in a rear-facing
position.
B. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat,
properly secured in the front passenger seat.
C. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat
facing forward or rearward in the back seat.
D. For the trip home from the hospital, the parent may
sit in the back seat and hold the newborn.
20. Answer: A
All infants under 1 year of age weighing less than 20 lbs.
should be placed in a rear-facing infant car seat secured
properly in the back seat. Infant car seats should never
be placed in the front passenger seat. Infants should
always be placed in an approved car seat during travel,
even on that first ride home from the hospital.
21. The nurse explains to a client who has just received
the diagnosis of Noninsulin-Dependent Diabetes
Mellitus (NIDDM) that sulfonylureas, one group of oral
hypoglycemic agents, act by
a. Stimulating the pancreas to produce or release
insulin
b. Making the insulin that is produced more available for
use
c. Lowering the blood sugar by facilitating the uptake
and utilization of glucose
d. Altering both fat and protein metabolism
Rationale: Sulfonylurea drugs, Orinase for example,
lowers the blood sugar by stimulating the beta cells of
the pancreas to synthesize and release insulin.
22. Myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis are the
major complications of myasthenia gravis. Which of
the following is essential nursing knowledge when
caring for a client in crisis?
a. Weakness and paralysis of the muscles for
swallowing and breathing occur in either crisis
b. Cholinergic drugs should be administered to prevent
further complications associated with the crisis
c. The clinical condition of the client usually improves
after several days of treatment
d. Loss of body function creates high levels of anxiety
and fear
Rationale: The client cannot handle his own secretions,
and respiratory arrest may be imminent. Atropine may
be administered to prevent crisis. Anticholinergic drugs
are administered to increase the levels of acetylcholine
at the myoneural junction. Cholinergic drugs mimic the
actions of the parasympathetic nervous system and
would not be used.
23. A 54-year-old client was put in Quinidine (a drug
that decreases myocardial excitability) to prevent atrial
fibrillation. He also has kidney disease. The nurse is
aware that this drug, when given to a client with
kidney disease, may
a. Cause cardiac arrest
b. Cause hypotension
c. Produce mild bradycardia
d. Be very toxic even in small doses
Rationale: Kidney disease interferes with metabolism
and excretion of Quinidine, resulting in higher drug
concentrations in the body. Quinidine can depress
myocardial excitability enough to cause cardiac arrest.
24. A client is about to be discharged on the drug
bishydroxycoumarin (Dicumarol). Of the principles
below, which one is the most important to teach the
client before discharge?
a. He should be sure to take the medication before
meals
b. He should shave with an electric razor
c. If he misses a dose, he should double the dose at the
next scheduled time
d. It is the responsibility of the physician to do the
teaching for this medication
Rationale: Dicumarol is an anticoagulant drug and one
of the dangers involved is bleeding. Using a safety razor
can lead to bleeding through cuts. The drug should be
given at the same time daily but not related to meals.
Due to danger of bleeding, missed doses should not be
made up.
25. A cyanotic client with an unknown diagnosis is
admitted to the emergency room. In relation to
oxygen, the first nursing action would be to
a. Wait until the client's lab work is done
b. Not administer oxygen unless ordered by the
physician
c. Administer oxygen at 2 liters flow per minute
d. Administer oxygen at 10 liters flow per minute and
check the client's nail beds
Rationale: Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute and
no more, for if the client is emphysemic and receives
too high a level of oxygen, he will develop CO2 narcosis
and the respiratory system will cease to function

26. A client with a diagnosis of gout will be taking
colchicine and allopurinol bid to prevent recurrence.
The most common early sign of colchicine toxicity that
the nurse will assess for is
a. Blurred vision
b. Anorexia
c. Diarrhea
d. Fever
Rationale: Diarrhea is by far the most common early sign
of colchicine toxicity. When
given in the acute phase of gout, the dose of colchicine
is usually 0.6 mg (PO) q hr
(not to exceed 10 tablets) until pain is relieved or
gastrointestinal symptoms ensue.
27. The nurse would expect to find an improvement in
which of the blood values as a result of dialysis
treatment?
a. High serum creatinine levels
b. Low hemoglobin
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypokalemia
Rationale: High creatinine levels will be decreased.
Anemia is a result of decreased production of
erythropoietin by the kidney and is not affected by
hemodialysis. Hyperkalemia and high base bicarbonate
levels are present in renal failure clients.
28. A 24-year-old client is admitted to the hospital
following an automobile accident. She was brought in
unconscious with the following vital signs: BP 130/76, P
100, R 16, T 98F. The nurse observes bleeding from the
client's nose. Which of the following interventions will
assist in determining the presence of cerebrospinal
fluid?
a. Obtain a culture of the specimen using sterile swabs
and send to the laboratory
b. Allow the drainage to drip on a sterile gauze and
observe for a halo or ring around the blood
c. Suction the nose gently with a bulb syringe and send
specimen to the laboratory
d. Insert sterile packing into the nares and remove in 24
hours
Rationale: The halo or "bull's eye" sign seen when
drainage from the nose or ear of a head-injured client is
collected on a sterile gauze is indicative of CSF in the
drainage. The collection of a culture specimen using any
type of swab or suction would be contraindicated
because brain tissue may be inadvertently removed at
the same time or other tissue damage may result.
29. A nursing assessment for initial signs of
hypoglycemia will include
a. Pallor, blurred vision, weakness, behavioral changes
b. Frequent urination, flushed face, pleural friction rub
c. Abdominal pain, diminished deep tendon reflexes,
double vision
d. Weakness, lassitude, irregular pulse, dilated pupils
Rationale: Weakness, fainting, blurred vision, pallor and
perspiration are all common symptoms when there is
too much insulin or too little food - hypoglycemia. The
signs and symptoms in answers (b) and (c) are indicative
of hyperglycemia.
30. Of the following blood gas values, the one the
nurse would expect to see in the client with acute renal
failure is
a. pH 7.49, HCO3 24, PCO2 46
b. pH 7.49, HCO3 14, PCO2 30
c. pH 7.26, HCO3 24, PCO2 46
d. pH 7.26, HCO3 14, PCO2 30
Rationale: The client with acute renal failure would be
expected to have metabolic acidosis (low HCO3)
resulting in acid blood pH (acidemia) and respiratory
alkalosis (lowered PCO2) as a compensating mechanism.
Normal values are pH 7.35 to 7.45; HCO3 23 to 27 mEg;
and PCO2 35 to 45 mmHg.
31. A client in acute renal failure receives an IV infusion
of 10% dextrose in water with 20 units of regular
insulin. The nurse understands that the rationale for
this therapy is to
a. Correct the hyperglycemia that occurs with acute
renal failure
b. Facilitate the intracellular movement of potassium
c. Provide calories to prevent tissue catabolism and
azotemia
d. Force potassium into the cells to prevent arrhythmias
Rationale: Dextrose with insulin helps move potassium
into cells and is immediate management therapy for
hyperkalemia due to acute renal failure. An exchange
resin may also be employed.
This type of infusion is often administered before
cardiac surgery to stabilize irritable cells and prevent
arrhythmias; in this case KC1 is also added to the
infusion.
32. The nurse is triaging four clients injured in a train
derailment. Which client should receive priority
treatment?
A. A 42-year-old with dyspnea and chest
asymmetry
B. A 17-year-old with a fractured arm
C. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations
D. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
33. Direct pressure to a deep laceration on the client’s
lower leg has failed to stop the bleeding. The nurse’s
next action should be to:
A. Place a tourniquet proximal to the laceration.
B. Elevate the leg above the level of the heart.
C. Cover the laceration and apply an ice compress.
D. Apply pressure to the femoral artery.
34. A pediatric client is admitted after ingesting a bottle
of vitamins with iron. Emergency care would include
treatment with:
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium disodium acetate
D. British antilewisite
35. The emergency room staff is practicing for its annual
disaster drill. According to disaster triage, which of the
following four clients would be cared for last?
 A. A client with a pneumothorax
B. A client with 70% TBSA full thickness burns
C. A client with fractures of the tibia and fibula
D. A client with smoke inhalation injuries
36. An unresponsive client is admitted to the emergency
room with a history of diabetes mellitus. The client’s
skin is cold and clammy, and the blood pressure reading
is 82/56. The first step in emergency treatment of the
client’s symptoms would be:
A. Checking the client’s blood sugar
B. Administering intravenous dextrose
C. Intubation and ventilator support
D. Administering regular insulin
37. A client with a history of severe depression has been
brought to the emergency room with an overdose of
barbiturates. The nurse should pay careful attention to
the client’s:
A. Urinary output
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Verbal responsiveness
38. You are working in the triage area of an ED, and four
patients approach the triage desk at the same time. List
the order in which you will assess these patients.
a. An ambulatory, dazed 25-year-old male with a
bandaged head wound
b. An irritable infant with a fever, petechiae, and
nuchal rigidity
c. A 35-year-old jogger with a twisted ankle, having
pedal pulse and no deformity
d. A 50-year-old female with moderate abdominal pain
and occasional vomiting
39. In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient,
which of the following is considered one of the priority
elements of the primary survey?
a. Complete set of vital signs
b. Palpation and auscultation of the abdomen
c. Brief neurologic assessment
d. Initiation of pulse oximetry
40. A 56-year-old patient presents in triage with left-
sided chest pain, diaphoresis, and dizziness. This patient
should be prioritized into which category?
a. High urgent
b. Urgent
c. Non-urgent
d. Emergent
41. The physician has ordered cooling measures for a
child with fever who is likely to be discharged when the
temperature comes down. Which of the following would
be appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant?
a. Assist the child to remove outer clothing.
b. Advise the parent to use acetaminophen instead of
aspirin.
c. Explain the need for cool fluids.
d. Prepare and administer a tepid bath.
42. It is the summer season, and patients with signs and
symptoms of heat-related illness present in the ED.
Which patient needs attention first?
a. An elderly person complains of dizziness and syncope
after standing in the sun for several hours to view a
parade
b. A marathon runner complains of severe leg cramps
and nausea. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, pallor, and
weakness are observed.
c. A previously healthy homemaker reports broken air
conditioner for days. Tachypnea, hypotension, fatigue,
and profuse diaphoresis are observed.
d. A homeless person, poor historian, presents with
altered mental status, poor muscle coordination, and
hot, dry, ashen skin. Duration of exposure is unknown.
43. You respond to a call for help from the ED waiting
room. There is an elderly patient lying on the floor. List
the order for the actions that you must perform.
a. Check breathing and pulse
b. Establish unresponsiveness.
c. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
d. Call for help and activate the code team. e. Instruct a
nursing assistant to get the crash cart.
B, D, A, C
44.. The emergency medical service (EMS) has
transported a patient with severe chest pain. As the
patient is being transferred to the emergency stretcher,
you note unresponsiveness, cessation of breathing, and
no palpable pulse. Which task is appropriate to delegate
to the nursing assistant?
a. Chest compressions
b. Bag-valve mask ventilation
c. Assisting with oral intubation
d. Placing the defibrillator pads
45. An anxious 24-year-old college student complains of
tingling sensations, palpitations, and chest tightness.
Deep, rapid breathing and carpal spasms are noted.
What priority nursing action should you take?
a. Notify the physician immediately.
b. Administer supplemental oxygen.
c. Have the student breathe into a paper bag.
d. Obtain an order for an anxiolytic medication.
46. An experienced traveling nurse has been assigned to
work in the ED; however, this is the nurse’s first week
on the job. Which area of the ED is the most appropriate
assignment for the nurse?
a. Trauma team
b. Triage
c. Ambulatory or fats track clinic
d. Pediatric medicine team
47. Following emergency endotracheal intubation, you
must verify tube placement and secure the tube. List in
order the steps that are required to perform
this function?
a. Obtain an order for a chest x-ray to document tube
placement.
b. Secure the tube in place.
c. Auscultate the chest during assisted ventilation.
d. Confirm that the breath sounds are equal and
bilateral.
C, D, A, B
48 You are assigned to telephone triage. A patient who
was stung by a common honey bee calls for advice,
reports pain and localized swelling, but denies
any respiratory distress or other systemic signs of
anaphylaxis. What is the action that you should direct
the caller to perform?
a. Call 911.
b. Remove the stinger by scraping.
c. Apply a cool compress.
d. Take an oral antihistamine.
49. In relation to submersion injuries, which task is most
appropriate to delegate to an LPN/LVN?
a. Talk to a community group about water safety issues.
b. Stabilize the cervical spine for an unconscious
drowning victim.
c. Remove wet clothing and cover the victim with a
warm blanket.
d. Monitor an asymptomatic near-drowning victim.
50 .These patients present to the ED complaining of
acute abdominal pain. Prioritize them in order of
severity.
a. A 35-year-old male complaining of severe,
intermittent cramps with three episodes of watery
diarrhea, 2 hours after eating
b. A 11-year-old boy with a low-grade fever, left lower
quadrant tenderness, nausea, and anorexia for the past
2 days
c. A 40-year-old female with moderate left upper
quadrant pain, vomiting small amounts of yellow bile,
and worsening symptoms over the past week
d. A 56-year-old male with a pulsating abdominal mass
and sudden onset of pressure-like pain in the abdomen
and flank within the past hour
51. In a multiple-trauma victim, which assessment
finding signals the most serious and life-threatening
condition?
a. A deviated trachea
b. Gross deformity in a lower extremity
c. Decreased bowel sounds
d. Hematuria
52. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to
the emergency department with severe internal
bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and
unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which
intravenous (IV) solution will most likely be prescribed
to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate
blood loss volume, and increase blood pressure?
a. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringers
b. 0.33% sodium chloride (1/3 normal saline)
c. 0.225% sodium chloride (¼ normal saline)
d. 0.45% sodium chloride (V2 normal saline)
53. Olga is receiving DW 1 liter regulated at 30
drops/min to be consumed in 8 hrs. It was started at 8
am. At 10am her relative informed you that the bottle is
empty. Which of the following will you do first?
a. Refer to nurse manager
b. Assess Olga and check level of fluid left in the bottle
c. Discontinue IV and assess Olga
d. Replace the IV fluid with prescribed follow-up
54. Domingo, 80 years old diabetic and hypertensive is
admitted in the private ward for degenerative
neurological changes. His physician was considering
dementia. Side rails were placed to ensure that he will
not fall from bed. At 2:00 am, the call light at his room
was on. You came in and saw Domingo slumped on the
floor moaning. His daughter told you that he got out of
bed to go to the toilet. He climbed over the side rail but
his foot got caught in the beddings. He has an open
wound on his forehead. Which among the following will
you do FIRST?
a. Transfer him to bed
b. Ensure airway, breathing circulation
c. Apply restraints
d. Call his physician
55. Aimee has chest pains and decides to take
nitroglycerine en route to the hospital. Based on the
ECG obtained on admission at the ER and clinical
findings, the physician gave a diagnosis of myocardial
infarction (IM) and prescribed IV morphine to relieve
continuing pain. A primary goal of nursing care for
Aimee is to recognize life-threatening complications of
MI. As Aimee’s nurse, you have to anticipate
occurrence of complications. Take note that the major
cause of death after an MI is:
a. Cardiac arrhythmias
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Heart failure
d. Pulmonary embolism
56. Hermie with a left-sided heart failure complains of
increasing shortness of breath and is agitated and
coughing up of pink-tinged foamy sputum. You should
recognize this as signs and symptoms of:
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Acute pulmonary edema
c. Right-sided heart failure
d. Pneumonia