Database Management System From Sanfoundry

Computer Network and Database Answer: d
Explanation: Data flows in single direction.

Management System:
5. The first Network
1. The IETF standards documents are called
a) CNNET
a) RFC
b) NSFNET
b) RCF
c) ASAPNET
c) ID
d) ARPANET
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: ARPANET – Advanced Research
Explanation: Request For Comments.
Projects Agency Networks was the first network
to be implemented which used the TCP/IP
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet protocol.
moves from the upper to the lower layers,
headers are
6. The _______ is the physical path over which
a) Added
a message travels
b) Removed
a) Path
c) Rearranged
b) Medium
d) Modified
c) Protocol
View Answer
d) Route
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to
7. Which organization has authority over
the packet from the previous layer.
interstate and international commerce in the
communications field?
3. The structure or format of data is called a) ITU-T
a) Syntax b) IEEE
b) Semantics c) FCC
c) Struct d) ISOC
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal
Explanation: The structure and format of data Communications Commission. FCC is
are defined using syntax. Semantics defines how responsible for regulating all interstate
a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what communications originating or terminating in
action is to be taken based on that interpretation. USA.
4. Communication between a computer and a 8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
keyboard involves ______________ a) PC
transmission b) Smartphones
a) Automatic c) Servers
b) Half-duplex d) Switch
c) Full-duplex View Answer
d) Simplex
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Network egde devices refer to host
1
systems, which can host applications like web 2. Two devices are in network if
browser. a) a process in one device is able to exchange
information with a process in another device
9. A set of rules that governs data b) a process is running on both devices
communication c) PIDs of the processes running of different
a) Protocols devices are same
b) Standards d) none of the mentioned
c) RFCs View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: A computer network, or data
Answer: a network, is a digital telecommunications
Explanation: In communications, a protocol network which allows nodes to share resources.
refers to a set of rules and regulations that allow In computer networks, computing devices
a network of nodes to transmit and receive exchange data with each other using connections
information. between nodes.
10. Three or more devices share a link in 3. Which one of the following computer network
________ connection is built on the top of another network?
a) Unipoint a) prior network
b) Multipoint b) chief network
c) Point to point c) prime network
d) None of the mentioned d) overlay network
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: A multipoint communication is Explanation: An overlay network is a computer
established when three or many network nodes network that is built on top of another network.
are connected to each other.
4. In computer network nodes are
1. When collection of various computers seems a) the computer that originates the data
a single coherent system to its client, then it is b) the computer that routes the data
called c) the computer that terminates the data
a) computer network d) all of the mentioned
b) distributed system View Answer
c) networking system
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: In a computer network, a node can
be anything that is capable of sending data or
Answer: b receiving data or even routing the data to the
Explanation: Computer networks is defined as a destination.
collection of interconnected computers which
uses a single technology for connection. 5. Communication channel is shared by all the
A distributed system is also the same as machines on the network in
computer network but the main difference is that a) broadcast network
the whole collection of computers appears to its b) unicast network
users as a single coherent system c) multicast network
Example :- World wide web d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
2
Answer: a 9. Network congestion occurs
Explanation: In a broadcast network, an a) in case of traffic overloading
information is sent to all station in a network b) when a system terminates
whereas in a multicast network the data or c) when connection between two nodes
information is sent to a group of stations in the terminates
network. In unicast network, information is sent d) none of the mentioned
to only one specific station. View Answer
6. Bluetooth is an example of Answer: a

a) personal area network Explanation: A network congestion occurs when
b) local area network traffic in the network is more than the network
c) virtual private network could handle.
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer 10. Which one of the following extends a private
network across public networks?
Answer: a a) local area network
Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) is b) virtual private network
the interconnection of information technology c) enterprise private network
devices within the range of an individual person, d) storage area network
typically within a range of 10 meters. View Answer
7. A __________ is a device that forwards Answer: b

packets between networks by processing the Explanation: A virtual private network extends a
routing information included in the packet. private network across a public network, and
a) bridge enables users to send and receive data across
b) firewall shared or public networks as if their computing
c) router devices were directly connected to the private
d) all of the mentioned network.
View Answer
1. Which of this is not a constituent of
Answer: c residential telephone line?
Explanation: A router[a] is a networking device a) A high-speed downstream channel
that forwards data packets between computer b) A medium-speed downstream channel
networks. Routers perform the traffic directing c) A low-speed downstream channel
functions on the Internet. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one
protocol per layer, is called Answer: c
a) protocol architecture Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way
b) protocol stack telephone channel.
c) protocol suite
d) none of the mentioned 2. In DSL telco provides these services
View Answer a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
Answer: b c) All of the mentioned
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group d) None of the mentioned
of protocols that are running concurrently that View Answer
are employed for the implementation of network
protocol suite.
3
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: The same company which provides Explanation: In cable access analog signal is
phone connection is also its ISP in DSL. converted to digital signal by CMTS.
3. The function of DSLAM is 7. Among the optical-distribution architectures

a) Convert analog signals into digital signals that are essentially switched ethernet is
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals a) AON
c) Amplify digital signals b) PON
d) None of the mentioned c) NON
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Answer:a
Central Office does this function. Explanation: Active optical networks are
essentially switched ethernets.
4. The following term is not associted with DSL
a) DSLAM 8. StarBand provides
b) CO a) FTTH internet access
c) Splitter b) Cable access
d) CMTS c) Telephone access
View Answer d) Satellite access
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cable modem termination system Answer: d
is used in cable internet access. Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite
broadband Internet service available in the U.S.
5. HFC contains from 2000–2015.
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable 9. Home Access is provided by
c) Both Fibre cable and Coaxial cable a) DSL
d) None of the mentioned b) FTTP
View Answer c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a
telecommunications industry term for a Answer: d
broadband network that combines optical fiber Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL,
and coaxial cable. FTTP, Cable.
6. Choose the statement which is not applicable 10. ONT is connected to splitter using
for cable internet access a) High speed fibre cable
a) It is a shared broadcast medium b) HFC
b) It includes HFCs c) Optical cable
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet d) None of the mentioned
port View Answer
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in
DSLAM Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network
Terminal. The ONT connects to the Termination
Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable.
4
advertisement 4. Application layer is implemented in
a) End system
11. These factors affect transmission rate in DSL b) NIC
a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line c) Ethernet
b) Degree of electrical interfernece d) None of the mentioned
c) Shadow fading View Answer
d) Both The gauge of the twisted-pair line and
Degree of electrical interfernece Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: None.
Answer: d 5. Transport layer is implemented in

Explanation: Because DSL is made of twisted a) End system
wire copper pair. b) NIC
c) Ethernet
View Answer
1. The number of layers in Internet protocol
stack Answer: a
a) 5 Explanation: None.
b) 7
c) 6 6. The functionalities of presentation layer
d) None of the mentioned includes
View Answer a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
Answer: a c) Data description
Explanation: None. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference
model Answer: d
b) 7
c) 6 7. Delimiting and synchronization of data
d) None of the mentioned exchange is provided by
View Answer a) Application layer
b) Session layer
Answer: b c) Transport layer
Explanation: None. d) Link layer
View Answer
3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when
compared with TCP IP model Answer: b
a) Application layer Explanation: None.
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer 8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device
d) Both Session and Presentation layer A to device B, the 5th layer to recieve data at B
View Answer is
a) Application layer
Answer: d b) Transport layer
Explanation: None. c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer
5
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open
System Interconnection. OSI model provides a
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from structured plan on how applications
device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive communicate over a network, which also helps
data at B is us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting.
b) Transport layer 2. The OSI model has _______ layers.
c) Link layer a) 4
d) Session layer b) 5
View Answer c) 6
d) 7
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7
from the lower to the upper layers, headers are layers namely Application, Presentation,
_______ Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and
a) Added Physical layer.
b) Removed
c) Rearranged 3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but
d) None of the mentioned OSI model have this layer.
View Answer a) session layer
b) transport layer
Answer: b c) application layer
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
advertisement View Answer
11. Identify the statement which cannot be Answer: a

associated with OSI model Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update two layers which are not present in TCP/IP
syatem components model. They are Presentation and Session layer.
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer
functionality 4. Which layer links the network support layers
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires and user support layers
information from another layer a) session layer
d) None of the mentioned b) data link layer
View Answer c) transport layer
d) network layer
Explanation: One layer may use the information
from another layer Ex: time stamp value. Answer: c
Explanation: Physical, data link and network
1. OSI stands for layers are network support layers and session,
a) open system interconnection presentation and application layers are user
b) operating system interface support layers.
c) optical service implementation
d) none of the mentioned 5. Which address is used in an internet
View Answer employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
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b) port address b) session layer
c) specific address c) presentation layer
d) all of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: All of the mentioned above Explanation: In networking, a user mainly
addresses are used in TCP/IP protocol. All the interacts with application layer to create and
addressing scheme, that is physical (MAC) and send information to other computer or network.
logical address, port address and specific address
are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI 10. Transmission data rate is decided by
model. a) network layer
b) physical layer
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI c) data link layer
model. d) transport layer
a) prior to View Answer
b) after
c) simultaneous to Answer: b
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device
View Answer which deals with network cables or the standards
in use like connectors, pins, electric current used
Answer: a etc. Basically the transmission speed is
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were determined by the cables and connectors used.
developed at multiple research centers between Hence it is physical layer that determines the
1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model transmission speed in network.
was developed in the year 1984.
1. The physical layer concerns with
7. Which layer is responsible for process to a) bit-by-bit delivery
process delivery? p) process to process delivery
a) network layer c) application to application delivery
b) transport layer d) none of the mentioned
c) session layer View Answer
d) data link layer
Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit
8. Which address identifies a process on a host? delivery in networking. The data unit in the
a) physical address physical layer is bits. Process to process delivery
b) logical address is dealy in the transport layer.
c) port address
d) specific address 2. Which transmission media has the highest
View Answer transmission speed in a network?
a) coaxial cable
Answer: c b) twisted pair cable
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify c) optical fiber
a specific process to which an Internet or other d) electrical cable
network message is to be forwarded when it View Answer
arrives at a server.
Answer: c
9. Which layer provides the services to user? Explanation: Fibre optics is considered to have
a) application layer the highest transmission speed among the all
7
mentioned above. The fibre optics transmission 6. In asynchronous serial communication the
runs at 1000Mb/s. It is called as 1000Base-Lx physical layer provides
whereas IEEE stndard for it is 802.3z. a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
media as analog signal by d) none of the mentioned
a) digital modulation View Answer
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation Answer: c
d) phase modulation Explanation: In asynchronous serial
View Answer communication, the communication is not
synchronized by clock signal. Instead of a start
Answer: a and stop signaling and flow control method is
Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low followed.
frequency baseband signal (digital bitstream) are
transmitted over a higher frequency. Whereas in 7. The physical layer is responsible for
digital modulation the only difference is that the a) line coding
base band signal is of discrete amplitude level. b) channel coding
c) modulation
4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces d) all of the mentioned
with the media access control sublayer is called View Answer
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer Answer: d
c) physical address sublayer Explanation: The physical layer is responsible
d) none of the mentioned for line coding, channel coding and modulation
View Answer that is needed for the transmission of the
information.
Answer: a
Explanation: The portion of physcial layer that 8. The physical layer translates logical
interfaces with the medium access control communication requests from the ______ into
sublayer is Physical Signaling Sublayer. The hardware specific operations.
main function of this layer is character encoding, a) data link layer
reception, decoding and performs optional b) network layer
isolation functions. c) trasnport layer
d) application layer
5. physical layer provides View Answer
a) mechanical specifications of electrical
connectors and cables Answer: a
b) electrical specification of transmission line Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or
signal level information from the data link layer and
c) specification for IR over optical fiber converts it into hardware specific operations so
d) all of the mentioned as to transfer the message through physical
View Answer cables.
Answer: d 9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals

Explanation: Anything dealing with a network by
cable or the standards in use – including pins, a) analog modulation
connectors and the electric current used is dealt b) digital modulation
in the physical layer (Layer 1). c) multiplexing
8
d) none of the mentioned 3. Which sublayer of the data link layer
View Answer performs data link functions that depend upon
the type of medium?
Answer: c a) logical link control sublayer
Explanation: In communication and computer b) media access control sublayer
networks, the main goal is to share a scarce c) network interface control sublayer
resource. This is done by multiplexing, where d) none of the mentioned
multiple analog or digital signals are combined View Answer
into one signal over a shared medium.
Answer: b
10. Wireless transmission can be done via Explanation: None.
a) radio waves
b) microwaves 4. Header of a frame generally contains
c) infrared a) synchronization bytes
d) all of the mentioned b) addresses
View Answer c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out
by radio waves, microwaves and IR waves. Answer: d
These waves range from 3 Khz to above 300 Explanation: None.
Ghz and are more suitable for wireless
transmission because they allow a wider band 5. Automatic repeat request error management
for modulating signals, so you can obtain higher mechanism is provided by
frequency transmission. a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
1. The data link layer takes the packets from c) network interface control sublayer
_________ and encapsulates them into frames d) none of the mentioned
for transmission. View Answer
a) network layer
b) physical layer Answer: a
c) transport layer Explanation: None.
d) application layer
View Answer 6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been
changed during the transmission, the error is
Answer: a called
Explanation: None. a) random error
b) burst error
2. Which one of the following task is not done c) inverted error
by data link layer? d) none of the mentioned
a) framing View Answer
b) error control
c) flow control Answer: b
d) channel coding Explanation: None.
View Answer
7. CRC stands for
Answer: d a) cyclic redundancy check
Explanation: None. b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
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d) cyclic repeat check from the application layer is sent to the transport
View Answer layer and is converted to segments. These
segments are then transferred to the network
Answer: a layer and these are called packets. These packets
Explanation: None. are then sent to data link layer where they are
encapsulated into frames. These frames are then
8. Which one of the following is a data link transferred to physical layer where the frames
protocol? are converted to bits.
a) ethernet
b) point to point protocol 2. Which one of the following is not a function
c) hdlc of network layer?
d) all of the mentioned a) routing
View Answer b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
Answer: d d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None. View Answer
9. Which one of the following is the multiple Answer: d

access protocol for channel access control? Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is
a) CSMA/CD the third layer and it provides data routing paths
b) CSMA/CA for network communications.
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) None of the mentioned 3. The 4 byte IP address consists of
View Answer a) network address
b) host address
Answer: c c) both network address & host address
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
10. The technique of temporarily delaying
outgoing outgoing acknowledgements so that Answer: c
they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits
frame is called long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed
a) piggybacking of a network and host portion and it depends on
b) cyclic redundancy check address class.
c) fletcher’s checksum
d) none of the mentioned 4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
View Answer a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
Answer: a c) only source address
Explanation: None. d) only destination address
View Answer
1. The network layer concerns with
a) bits Answer: b
b) frames Explanation: A short VC number also called as
c) packets VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of
d) none of the mentioned identifier which is used to distinguish between
View Answer several virtual circuits in a connection oriented
circuit switched network.
Answer: c
Explanation: In computer networks, the data
10
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm Answer: d
can be used for network layer design? Explanation: None.
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing 9. The network layer protocol of internet is
c) link state routing a) ethernet
d) all of the mentioned b) internet protocol
View Answer c) hypertext transfer protocol
Explanation: The routing algorithm is what
decides where a packet should go next. There Answer: b
are several routing techniques like shortest path Explanation: There are several protocols used in
algorithm, static and dynamic routing, Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP,
decentralized routing, distance vector routing, CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer
link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc. protocol is for application layer and ethernet
protocol is for data link layer.
6. Multidestination routing
a) is same as broadcast routing 10. ICMP is primarily used for
b) contains the list of all destinations a) error and diagnostic functions
c) data is not sent by packets b) addressing
d) none of the mentioned c) forwarding
View Answer d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet
7. A subset of a network that includes all the Control Message Protocol is used by networking
routers but contains no loops is called devices to send error messages and operational
a) spanning tree information indicating a host or router cannot be
b) spider structure reached.
c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned 1. Transport layer aggregates data from different
View Answer applications into a single stream before passing
it to
Answer: a a) network layer
Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a b) data link layer
network protocol that creates a loop free logical c) application layer
topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 d) physical layer
protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The View Answer
main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not
create loops when you have redundant paths in Answer: a
your network. Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model
flows in following manner Application ->
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network
used for congestion control? -> Data Link -> Physical.
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control 2. Which one of the following is a transport
c) load shedding layer protocol used in networking?
d) none of the mentioned a) TCP
View Answer b) UDP
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c) Both TCP and UDP d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport way communication link in the network. TCP
layer protocol in networking. TCP is an layer can identify the application that data is
abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol destined to be sent by using the port number that
and UDP is an abbreviation for User Datagram is bound to socket.
Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas
UDP is connectionless. 6. Socket-style API for windows is called
a) wsock
3. User datagram protocol is called b) winsock
connectionless because c) wins
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by d) none of the mentioned
transport layer View Answer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order Answer: b
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Winsock is a programming
View Answer interface which deals with input output requests
for internet applications in windows OS. It
Answer: a defines how windows network software should
Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and access network services.
it is used for those purposes where speed matters
most whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP 7. Which one of the following is a version of
is connectionless whereas TCP is connection UDP with congestion control?
oriented. a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
4. Transmission control protocol is c) structured stream transport
a) connection oriented protocol d) none of the mentioned
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a View Answer
connection
c) recievs data from application as a single Answer: a
stream Explanation: The datagram congestion control is
d) all of the mentioned a transport layer protocol which deals with
View Answer reliable connection setup, teardown, congestion
control, explicit congestion notification, feature
Answer: d negotiation.
Explanation: Major internet applications like
www, email, file transfer etc rely on tcp. TCP is 8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service
connection oriented and it is optimized for access point.
accurate delivery rather than timely delivery. a) port
It can incur long delays. b) pipe
c) node
5. An endpoint of an inter-process d) none of the mentioned
communication flow across a computer network View Answer
is called
a) socket Answer: a
b) pipe Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the
c) port computer, the network port identifies the
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application or service running on the computer. Answer: a
A port number is 16 bits. Explanation: None.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with 3. This topology requires multipoint connection
a) application to application communication a) Star
b) process to process communication b) Mesh
c) node to node communication c) Ring
d) none of the mentioned d) Bus
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in Explanation: None.
TCP/IP model and OSI reference model. It deals
with logical communication between process. It 4. Data communication system spanning states,
is responsible for delivering a message between countries, or the whole world is
network host. a) LAN
b) WAN
10. Which one of the following is a transport c) MAN
layer protocol? d) None of the mentioned
a) stream control transmission protocol View Answer
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol Answer: b
d) dynamic host configuration protocol Explanation: Wide area network(WAN) covers
View Answer the whole of the world network.
Answer: a 5. Data communication system within a building

Explanation: There are many protocols in or campus is
transport layer. The most prominent are TCP a) LAN
and UDP. Some of the other protocols are RDP, b) WAN
RUDP, SCTP, DCCP etc. c) MAN
1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is View Answer
a) Topology
b) Routing Answer: a
c) Networking Explanation: None.
View Answer 6. Expand WAN
a) World area network
Answer: a b) Wide area network
Explanation: None. c) Web area network
2. In this topology there is a central controller or View Answer
hub
a) Star Answer: b
b) Mesh Explanation: None.
c) Ring
d) Bus 7. In TDM, slots are further divided into
View Answer a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
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d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: FDM and WDM are used in analog
signals.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate
advertisement than TDM link has _______ slots
a) n
8. Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal b) n/2
to a different carrier frequency c) n*2
a) FDM d) 2n
b) TDM View Answer
c) Both FDM & TDM
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Each slot is dedicated to one of the
source.
Answer: a
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency 5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and
division multiplexing. each slot has 8 bits,the transmission rate of
circuit this TDM is
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two a) 32kbps
or more devices is called _________ b) 500bps
a) Fully duplexing c) 500kbps
b) Multiplexing d) None of the mentioned
c) Both Fully duplexing and Multiplexing View Answer
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate *
Answer: b number os bits in a slot.
Explanation: None.
6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are
2. Multiplexing is used in _______ called
a) Packet switching a) Death period
b) Circuit switching b) Poison period
c) Data switching c) Silent period
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits 7. Multiplexing can provide

digital signals ? a) Efficiency
a) FDM b) Privacy
b) TDM c) Anti jamming
c) WDM d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the a) Processing delay
multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of b) Queuing delay
the transmission rates of the signal sources. c) Transmission delay
a) Greater than d) All of the mentioned
b) Lesser than View Answer
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than Answer: a
Answer: a 4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L =

Explanation: None. number of bits in the packet a = average rate R =
transmission rate
9. In TDM, slots are further divided into a) La/R
a) Seconds b) LR/a
b) Frames c) R/La
c) Packets d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
5. In the transfer of file between server and
1. Which of the following delay is faced by the client, if the transmission rates along the path is
packet in travelling from one end system to 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The
another ? throughput is usually
a) Propagation delay a) 20Mbps
b) Queuing delay b) 10Mbps
c) Transmission delay c) 40Mbps
d) All of the mentioned d) 50Mbps
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: The throughput is generally the
transmission rate of bottleneck link.
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of
the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is(in 6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end =
milliseconds) N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested
a) 3.2 network. The number of routers between source
b) 32 and destination is
c) 0.32 a) N/2
d) None of the mentioned b) N
View Answer c) N-1
d) 2N
Explanation: Transmission rate = length /
transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2milli seconds. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. The time required to examine the packet’s
header and determine where to direct the packet 7. The total nodal delay is given by
is part of a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
15
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue d) D-net
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop View Answer
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 2. Which of the following is a form of DoS
attack ?
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being a) Vulnerability attack
transmitted and there was no earlier b) Bandwidth flooding
transmission, which of the following delays c) Connection flooding
could be zero d) All of the mentioned
a) Propogation delay View Answer
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay Answer: d
d) Processing delay Explanation: None.
View Answer
3. The DoS attack is which the attacker
Answer: b establishes a large number of half-open or fully
Explanation: None. open TCP connections at the target host
a) Vulnerability attack
9. Transmission delay does not depend on b) Bandwidth flooding
a) Packet length c) Connection flooding
b) Distance between the routers d) All of the mentioned
c) Transmission rate View Answer
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length 4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends
/ transmission rate deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Vulnerability attack
10. Propagation delay depends on b) Bandwidth flooding
a) Packet length c) Connection flooding
b) Transmission rate d) All of the mentioned
c) Distance between the routers View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it 5. Packet sniffers involve
takes a bit to propagate from one router to the a) Active receiver
next. b) Passive receiver
c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
1. The attackers a network of compromised d) None of the mentioned
devices known as View Answer
a) Internet
b) Botnet Answer: b
c) Telnet Explanation: They donot inject packets into the
channel.
16
6. Sniffers can be deployed in Answer: a
a) Wired environment Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is
b) WiFi commonly used in home access.
c) Ethernet LAN
d) All of the mentioned 3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric
View Answer copper conductors.
a) 1
Answer: d b) 2
Explanation: None. c) 3
d) 4
7. Firewalls are often configured to block View Answer
a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic Answer: b
c) Both of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer 4. Fiber optics posses following properties
a) Immune electromagnetic interference
Answer: a b) Very less signal attenuation
Explanation: None. c) Very hard to tap
advertisement d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being
transmitted and there was no earlier Answer: d
transmission, which of the following delays Explanation: None.
could be zero
a) Propogation delay 5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n,
b) Queuing delay generally the link speed equals(in Mbps),
c) Transmission delay a) n*39.8
d) Processing delay b) n*51.8
View Answer c) 2n*51.8
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
1. Which of this is not a guided media ? Explanation: None.
a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable 6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly
c) Wireless LAN classifed into _____ groups.
d) Copper wire a) 2
View Answer b) 3
c) 4
Answer: c d) 1
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media. View Answer
2. UTP is commonly used in Answer: b

a) DSL Explanation: The three types are those that
b) FTTP operate over very short distance, those that
c) HTTP operate in local areas, those that operate in the
d) None of the mentioned wide area.
View Answer
17
7. Radio channels are attractive medium because b) (N*L)/R
a) Can penetrate walls c) (2N*L)/R
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user d) L/R
c) Can carry signals for long distance View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 4. Method(s) to move data through a network of
advertisement links and switches
a) Packet switching
8. Geostationary satellites b) Circuit switching
a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth c) Line switching
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis d) Both Packet switching and Circuit switching
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 5. The resources needed for communication
36,000km above Earth’s surface. between end systems are reserved for the
duration of session between end systems in
1. A local telephone network is an example of a ________
_______ network a) Packet switching
a) Packet switched b) Circuit switching
b) Circuit switched c) Line switching
c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched d) Frequency switching
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
6. As the resouces are reserved between two
2. Most packet switches use this principle communicating end systems in circuit switching,
a) Stop and wait this is achieved
b) Store and forward a) authentication
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward b) guaranteed constant rate
d) None of the mentioned c) reliability
View Answer d) store and forward
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit Answer: b
the first bit to outbound link until it recieves the Explanation: None.
entire packet.
7. In _________ resources are allocated on
3. If there are N routers from source to demand.
destination, total end to end delay in sending a) packet switching
packet P(L->number of bits in the packet R-> b) circuit switching
transmission rate) c) line switching
a) N
18
d) frequency switching 4. Application developer has permission to
View Answer decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
Answer: a b) Maximum buffer size
Explanation: In packet switching there is no c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum
reservation. buffer size
advertisement d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
8. Which of the following is an application layer
service ? Answer: c
a) Network virtual terminal Explanation: None.
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service 5. Application layer offers _______ service
d) All of the mentioned a) End to end
View Answer b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
Answer: d d) None of the mentioned
1. This is not a application layer protocol Answer: a

a) HTTP Explanation: None.
b) SMTP
c) FTP 6. E-mail is
d) TCP a) Loss-tolerant application
View Answer b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol View Answer
2. The packet of information at the application Answer: c

layer is called Explanation: Because it can work with available
a) Packet throughput.
b) Message
c) Segment 7. Pick the odd one out
d) Frame a) File transfer
View Answer b) File download
c) E-mail
Answer: b d) Interactive games
3. This is one of the architecture paradigm Answer: d

a) Peer to peer Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant
b) Client-server other applications are not.
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server 8. Which of the following is an application layer
View Answer service ?
a) Network virtual terminal
Answer: d b) File transfer, access, and management
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol. c) Mail service
19
d) All of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: d 3. Application layer protocol defines

Explanation: None. a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
9. To deliver a message to the correct c) rules for when and how processes send and
application program running on a host, the respond to messages
_______ address must be consulted d) all of the mentioned
a) IP View Answer
b) MAC
c) Port Answer: d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
4. Which one of the following protocol
Answer: c delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
Explanation: None. a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
10. This is a time-sensitive service c) internet mail access protocol
a) File transfer d) hypertext transfer protocol
b) File download View Answer
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony Answer: a
Answer: d 5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant a) base 64 encoding
other applications are not. b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
1. The ____________ translates internet domain d) base 8 encoding
and host names to IP address. View Answer
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol Answer: a
c) network time protocol Explanation: None.
d) internet relay chat
View Answer 6. Which one of the following is an internet
standard protocol for managing devices on IP
Answer: a network?
Explanation: None. a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple newtwork management protocol
2. Which one of the following allows a user at c) internet message access protocol
one site to establish a connection to another site d) media gateway protocol
and then pass keystrokes from local host to View Answer
remote host?
a) HTTP Answer: b
b) FTP Explanation: None.
c) Telnet
d) None of the mentioned 7. Which one of the following is not an
View Answer application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
20
b) dynamic host configuration protocol d) None of the mentioned
c) resource reservation protocol View Answer
d) session initiation protocol
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 2. The default connection type used by HTTP is
_________
8. Which protocol is a signalling communication a) Persistent
protocol used for controlling multimedia b) Non-persistent
communication sessions? c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent
a) session initiation protocol depending on connection request
b) session modelling protocol d) None of the mentioned
c) session maintenance protocol View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 3. The time taken by a packet to travel from
client to server and then back to the client is
9. Which one of the following is not correct? called __________
a) application layer protocols are used by both a) STT
source and destination devices during a b) RTT
communication session c) PTT
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol d) None of the mentioned
c) TCP is an application layer protocol View Answer
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 4. The HTTP request message is sent in
_________ part of three-way handshake.
10. When displaying a web page, the application a) First
layer uses the b) Second
a) HTTP protocol c) Third
b) FTP protocol d) None of the mentioned
c) SMTP protocol View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 5. In the process of fetching a web page from a
server the HTTP request/response takes
1. The number of objects in a Web page which __________ RTTs.
consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is a) 2
________ b) 1
a) 4 c) 4
b) 1 d) 3
c) 5 View Answer
21
Answer: b 10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
Explanation: None. a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
6. The first line of HTTP request message is c) 301 Moved permanently
called _____________ d) 304 Not Found
a) Request line View Answer
b) Header line
c) Status line Answer: d
d) Entity line Explanation: 404 Not Found.
View Answer
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP
Answer: a connection between client and server in
Explanation: The line followed by request line a) persistent HTTP
are called header lines and status line is the b) nonpersistent HTTP
initial part of response message. c) both persistent HTTP and nonpersistent
HTTP
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are d) none of the mentioned
specified in ____________ of HTTP message View Answer
a) Request line
b) Header line Answer: a
c) Status line Explanation: None.
d) Entity body
View Answer 2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) application layer
Answer: a b) transport layer
Explanation: It is specified in the method field c) network layer
of request line in the HTTP request message. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
8. The __________ method when used in the
method field, leaves entity body empty. Answer: a
a) POST Explanation: None.
b) SEND
c) GET 3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
d) None of the mentioned a) uniform resource identifier
View Answer b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the Answer: a

requested object when ____________ method is Explanation: None.
used
a) GET 4. HTTP client requests by establishing a
b) POST __________ connection to a particular port on
c) HEAD the server.
d) PUT a) user datagram protocol
View Answer b) transmission control protocol
c) broader gateway protocol
22
Answer: b 9. The file transfer protocol is built on
Explanation: None. a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
5. In HTTP pipelining c) client server architecture
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single d) none of the mentioned
TCP connection without waiting for the View Answer
corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a Answer: c
single TCP connection Explanation: None.
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on
a single TCP connection 10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be
d) none of the mentioned done in
View Answer a) stream mode
b) block mode
Answer: a c) compressed mode
Explanation: None. d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
6. FTP server listens for connection on port
number Answer: d
b) 21
c) 22 1. Expansion of FTP is
d) 23 a) Fine Transfer Protocol
View Answer b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using Answer: b

____ as the transport protocol. Explanation: None.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol 2. FTP is built on _____ architecture
c) datagram congestion control protocol a) Client-server
d) stream control transmission protocol b) P2P
View Answer c) Both of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both Explanation: None.
the control and data connections.
a) active mode 3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP
b) passive mode connections to transfer a file
c) both active mode and passive mode a) 1
d) none of the mentioned b) 2
View Answer c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: None.
23
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Control connection and data Explanation: None.
connection.
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly
4. Identify the incorrect statement matched
a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) FTP sends its control information in-band c) 452 – Error writing file
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
connection View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has
separate control connection. 9. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is
left to TCP
5. If 5 files are transfered from server A to client a) Stream mode
B in the same session. The number of TCP b) Block mode
connection between A and B is c) Compressed mode
a) 5 d) None of the mentioned
b) 10 View Answer
c) 2
d) 6 Answer: a
Answer: d 10. The password is sent to the server using

Explanation: 1 control connection and other 5 ________ command
for five file transfers. a) PASSWD
b) PASS
6. FTP server c) PASSWORD
a) Mantains state d) None of the mentioned
b) Is stateless View Answer
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
Answer: a 1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail

Explanation: None. servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
7. The commands, from client to server, and b) SMTP client
replies, from server to client, are sent across the c) Peer
control connection in ________ bit ASCII d) None of the mentioned
format View Answer
a) 8
b) 7 Answer: b
c) 3 Explanation: None.
d) 5
View Answer 2. If you have to send multimedia data over
SMTP it has to be encoded into
a) Binary
24
b) Signal Answer: b
c) ASCII Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the
d) None of the mentioned mail to receiving mail server hence it is push
View Answer protocol.
Answer: c 7. Internet mail places each object in

Explanation: None. a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
3. Expansion of SMTP is c) Varies with number of objects
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol d) None of the mentioned
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol View Answer
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol Answer: b
Answer: a 8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is

Explanation: None. a) 25
b) 35
4. In SMTP, the command to write recievers c) 50
mail adress is written with this command d) 15
a) SEND TO View Answer
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO Answer: a
View Answer
9. A session may include
Answer: b a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
Explanation: None. b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be
by SMTP is determined
a) TCP View Answer
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP Answer: a
View Answer
10. Example of user agents for e-mail
Answer: a a) Microsoft Outlook
Explanation: None. b) Apple Mail
c) None of the above
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase d) All of the mentioned
of SMTP View Answer
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol Answer: a
c) It transfers files from one mail server to Explanation: None.
another mail server advertisement
View Answer 11. When the sender and the receiver of an email
are on different systems, we need only
_________
25
a) One MTA Answer:d
b) Two UAs Explanation:None.
c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs
d) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs 4. Which one of the following protocol is used
View Answer to receive mail messages?
a) smtp
Answer: d b) post office protocol
Explanation: None. c) internet message access protocol
12. User agent does not support this View Answer
a) Composing messages
b) Reading messages Answer:d
c) Replying messages Explanation:None.
View Answer 5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?
a) protocol for SMTP security
Answer: d b) an SMTP extension
Explanation: None. c) protocol for web pages
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes View Answer
_________ as the transport layer protocol for
electronic mail transfer. Answer:b
a) TCP Explanation:None.
b) UDP
c) DCCP 6. An email client needs to know the _________
d) SCTP of its initial SMTP server.
View Answer a) IP address
b) MAC address
Answer:a c) Url
Explanation:None. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known
as Answer:a
a) SMTPS Explanation:None.
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP 7. A SMTP session may include
d) None of the mentioned a) zero SMTP transaction
View Answer b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction
Answer:a d) all of the mentioned
Explanation:None. View Answer
3. SMTP uses the TCP port Answer:d

a) 22 Explanation:None.
b) 23
c) 24 8. SMTP defines
d) 25 a) message transport
View Answer b) message encryption
c) message content
26
d) none of the mentioned b) by contacting remote DNS server
View Answer c) it is not possible
Answer:a View Answer
Explanation:None.
Answer:b
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP Explanation: None.
server configured in such a way that anyone on
the internet can send e-mail through it? 4. DNS database contains
a) open mail relay a) name server records
b) wide mail reception b) hostname-to-address records
c) open mail reception c) hostname aliases
d) none of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation:None. Explanation: None.
10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to 5. If a server has no clue about where to find the
a) user’s terminal address for a hostname then
b) user’s mailbox a) server asks to the root server
c) both user’s terminal and mailbox b) server asks to its adjcent server
d) none of the mentioned c) request is not processed
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None. Answer:a
Explanation: None.
1. The entire hostname has a maximum of
a) 255 characters 6. Which one of the following allows client to
b) 127 characters update their DNS entry as their IP address
c) 63 characters change?
d) 31 characters a) dynamic DNS
View Answer b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
Answer:a d) none of the mentioned
2. A DNS client is called Answer:a

a) DNS updater Explanation: None.
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler 7. Wildcard domain names start with label
d) none of the mentioned a) @
View Answer b) *
c) &
Answer:b d) #
3. Servers handle requests for other domains Answer:b

a) directly Explanation: None.
27
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated c) both unix-like and windows systems
by domain name registers which are accredited d) none of the mentioned
by View Answer
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society Answer:c
c) internet research task force Explanation: None.
d) internet corporation for assigned names and
numbers 3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the
View Answer remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
Answer:d b) private-key cryptography
Explanation: None. c) any of public-key or private-key
9. The domain name system is maintained by View Answer
a) distributed database system
b) a single server Answer:a
c) a single computer Explanation: None.
View Answer 4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for
contacting SSH servers?
Answer:a a) port 21
Explanation: None. b) port 22
c) port 23
10. Which one of the following is not true? d) port 24
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a View Answer
single IP address
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP Answer:b
addresses Explanation: None.
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single
IP address 5. Which one of the following protocol can be
d) none of the mentioned used for login to a shell on a remote host except
View Answer SSH?
a) telnet
Answer:c b) rlogin
Explanation: None. c) both telnet and rlogin
1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used View Answer
for
a) secure data communication Answer:c
b) remote command-line login Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet
c) remote command execution and rlogin.
View Answer 6. Which one of the following is a file transfer
protocol using SSH?
Answer:d a) SCP
Explanation: None. b) SFTP
c) Rsync
2. SSH can be used in only d) All of the mentioned
a) unix-like operating systems View Answer
b) windows
28
Answer:d c) Url
View Answer
7. SSH-2 does not contain
a) transport layer Answer: a
b) user authentication layer Explanation: None.
c) physical layer
d) connection layer 2. DHCP is used for
View Answer a) IPv6
b) IPv4
Answer:c c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
View Answer
8. Which one of the following feature was
present in SSH protocol, version 1? Answer: c
a) password changing Explanation: None.
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c) support for public-key certificates 3. The DHCP server
d) none of the mentioned a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
View Answer b) maintains the information about client
configuration parameters
Answer:d c) grants a IP address when receives a request
Explanation: None. from a client
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ View Answer
over SSH.
a) RCP protocol Answer: d
b) DHCP protocol Explanation: None.
c) MGCP protocol
d) none of the mentioned 4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
View Answer a) for a limited period
b) for unlimited period
Answer:a c) not time dependent
View Answer
10. Which one of the following authentication
method is used by SSH? Answer: a
a) public-key Explanation: None.
b) host based
c) password 5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending
d) all of the mentioned data to the server.
View Answer a) 66
b) 67
Answer:d c) 68
Explanation: None. d) 69
View Answer
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol)
provides __________ to the client. Answer: b
a) IP address Explanation: None.
b) MAC address
29
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of d) None of the mentioned
the IP addresses. View Answer
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation Answer: c
c) static allocation Explanation: None.
View Answer 1. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the
a) Transport layer
Answer: d b) Network layer
Explanation: None. c) Application layer
d) Session layer
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet View Answer
communicate via
a) UDP broadcast Answer: b
b) UDP unicast Explanation: Network layer is used for
c) TCP broadcast transferring the data from transport layer to
d) TCP unicast another layers.
View Answer
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the
Answer: a a) Entire IP packet
Explanation: None. b) IP header
c) IP payload
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the d) None of the mentioned
IP conflict the client may use View Answer
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol Answer: a
c) address resolution protocol Explanation: It is nothing but adding control bits
d) none of the mentioned to the packets.
View Answer
3. Which component is included in IP security?
Answer: c a) Authentication Header (AH)
Explanation: None. b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
9. What is DHCP snooping? d) All of the mentioned
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an View Answer
existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests Answer: d
c) algorithm for DHCP Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE.
View Answer 4. WPA2 is used for security in
a) Ethernet
Answer: a b) Bluetooth
Explanation: None. c) Wi-Fi
10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN View Answer
switch, then clients having specific ______ can
access the network. Answer: c
a) MAC address Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi
b) IP address connection.
c) Both MAC address and IP address
30
5. An attempt to make a computer resource called
unavailable to its intended users is called a) DNS lookup
a) Denial-of-service attack b) DNS hijacking
b) Virus attack c) DNS spoofing
c) Worms attack d) None of the mentioned
d) Botnet process View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: DNS spoofing is the phenomenon
Explanation: Denial of service attack. for the above mentioned transaction.
6. Extensible authentication protocol is 1. A ___________ is an extension of an

authentication framework frequently used in enterprise’s private intranet across a public
a) Wired personal area network network such as the internet, creating a secure
b) Wireless networks private connection.
c) Wired local area network a) VNP
d) None of the mentioned b) VPN
View Answer c) VSN
d) VSPN
Answer:b View Answer
Explanation:Most data transfer is with wireless
networks. Answer: b
Explanation: VIRTUAL PRIVATE
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in NETWORK.
a) Browser security
b) Email security 2. When were VPNs introduced into the
c) FTP security commercial world?
d) None of the mentioned a) Early 80’s
View Answer b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
Answer: b d) Late 90’s
Explanation: PGP is at email security. View Answer
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Answer: d
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher Explanation: LATE 90’S.
called
a) International data encryption algorithm 3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation
b) Private data encryption algorithm of a VPN?
c) Internet data encryption algorithm a) PPTP
d) None of the mentioned b) IPsec
View Answer c) YMUM
d) L2TP
Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a block
cipher called international data encryption Answer: c
algorithm. Explanation: YNUM.
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses 4. Which of the following statements is NOT
incorrect information from a host that has no true concerning VPNs?
authority giving that information, then it is a) Financially rewarding compared to leased
31
lines d) L2TP
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate View Answer
data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over Answer: a
public networks Explanation: It is the security type of the IPsec.
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
View Answer 9. L2F was developed by which company?
a) Microsoft
Answer: d b) Cisco
Explanation: virtual packet network is not a c) Blizzard Entertainment
backbone of the internet. d) IETF
View Answer
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
a) Invisible from public networks Answer: b
b) Logically separated from other traffic Explanation: Cisco is the second best company
c) Accessible from unauthorized public to design and make the computer networks.
networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec 10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does
View Answer PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
Answer: c b) Layer 2
Explanation: Because it is secured with the IP c) Layer 3
address. d) Layer 4
View Answer
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________
a) Always more expensive than leased lines Answer: b
b) Always cheaper than leased lines Explanation: Presentation layer.
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines advertisement
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
View Answer 11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does
IPsec work at?
Answer: c a) Layer 1
Explanation: It is very cheap. b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted d) Layer 4
over a L2TP VPN? View Answer
a) IP
b) IPX Answer: c
c) Neither IP or IPX Explanation: Session layer.
d) Both IP or IPX
View Answer 1. Storage management comprises of
a) SAN Management
Answer: d b) Data protection
Explanation: Data roming layer. c) Disk operation
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is View Answer
defined in which of the following standards?
a) IPsec Answer: d
b) PPTP Explanation: SAN, Data protection and Disk
c) PPP
32
operation are the main things of storage Answer: a
management. Explanation: By using Zoning, Storage
administrators ensure secure access to storage
2. Identify the storage devices devices.
a) Switch
b) RAID Arrays 6. Effective Storage management includes
c) Tape drives a) Securities
d) All of the mentioned b) Backups
View Answer c) Reporting
Explanation: switch, RAID arrays and tape
drives are main storage devices. Answer: d
Explanation: In storage management all
3. Which protocols are used for Storage necessities like security, backups and reporting
management? facilities are included.
a) SNMP
b) LDAP 7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage
c) POP3 Capacity management
d) MIB a) Identifying storage systems are approaching
View Answer full capacity
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
Answer: a c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total
Explanation: Simple Network Management available
Protocol is for storage management. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
4. Identify the difficulties the SAN administrator
incur while dealing with diverse vendors Answer: d
a) Proprietary management interfaces Explanation: Identifying, Monitoring and
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the Tracking are main tasks involved in SCM.
data center
c) No single view 8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s)
d) All of the mentioned a) Standardization drives software
View Answer interoperability and interchange ability
b) Breaks the old-style dependence on
Answer: d proprietary methods, trade secrets, and single
Explanation: Proprietary management interfaces, providers
multiple applications management and no single c) Builds a strong foundation on which others
view are main difficulties. can quickly build and innovate
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure View Answer
access to storage devices:
a) By using Zoning Answer: d
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage Explanation: Driver software, old style
device dependence and strong foundation.
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) By keeping devices when used 9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force
View Answer is to
a) To promote interoperability among the
management solution providers
33
b Acts as an interface between the various Answer: a
budding technologies and provide solution to Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity increased
manage various environments on each domain in full duplex mode.
c) Only To promote interoperability among the
management solution providers 3. Configuration management can be divided
d) Both To promote interoperability among the into two subsystems those are
management solution providers and Acts as an a) Reconfiguration and documentation
interface between the various budding b) Management and configuration
technologies and provide solution to manage c) Documentation and dialing up
various environments d) Both Reconfiguration and documentation and
View Answer Management and configuration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Promote interoperability and Answer: a
interface between various buildings. Explanation: Reconfiguration and
documentation are two subsystems of
10. SMI-S Standard uses configuration management.
a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP 4. To use Simple Network Management System
c) CORBA (SNMP), we need
d) .NET a) Servers
View Answer b) IP
c) Protocols
Answer: b d) Rules
Explanation: CIM-XML/HTTP is a SMI-S View Answer
standard.
Answer: d
1. An application-level protocol in which a few Explanation: To use Simple Network
manager stations control a set of agents is called Management System (SNMP), we need rules.
a) HTML
b) TCP 5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and
c) SNMP SNMPv2 is the
d) SNMP/IP a) Management
View Answer b) Integration
c) Classification
Answer: c d) Enhanced security
Explanation: An application-level protocol in View Answer
which a few manager stations control a set of
agents is called SNMP. Answer: d
Explanation: Enhanced security is the main
2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of each difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2.
domain from
a) 10 to 20 mbps 6. In Network Management System, a term that
b) 20 to 30 mbps responsible for controlling access to network
c) 30 to 40 mbps based on predefined policy is called
d) 40 to 50 mbps a) Fault Management
View Answer b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
View Answer
34
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: A term that responsible for Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP.
controlling access to network based on
predefined policy is called security management. 1. The protocol used by Telnet application is
a) Telnet
7. BER stands for b) FTP
a) Basic Encoding Rules c) HTTP
b) Basic Encoding Resolver d) None of the mentioned
c) Basic Encoding Rotator View Answer
d) Basic Encoding Router
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic encoding rules. 2. In “character at a time” mode
a) Character processing is done on the local
8. Control of users’ access to network resources system under the control of the remote system
through charges are main responsibilities of b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the
a) Reactive Fault Management remote host for processing
b) Reconfigured Fault Management c) All text is echoed locally, only completed
c) Accounting Management lines are sent to the remote host
d) Security Management d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network Explanation: None.
resources through charges are main
responsibilities of accounting management. 3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a
remote computer
9. SNMP is a framework for managing devices a) Telnet
in an internet using the b) FTP
a) TCP/IP protocol c) HTTP
b) UDP d) None of the mentioned
c) SMTP View Answer
d) None
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a framework for 4. The correct syntax to be written in the web
managing devices in an internet using the browser to Telnet to www.sanfoundry.com is
TCP/IP protocol. a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
10. Structure of Management Information c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
(SMI), is guideline of d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
a) HTTP View Answer
b) SNMP
c) URL Answer: c
d) MIB Explanation: None.
View Answer
5. Telnet is a
a) Television on net
35
b) Network of Telephones Answer: c
c) Remote Login Explanation: None.
d) Teleshopping site
View Answer 2. Which one of the following is not true?
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal
Answer: c (NVT) standard
Explanation: None. b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
6. Which one of the following is not correct? d) none of the mentioned
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server View Answer
program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a Answer: d
remote computer Explanation: None.
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) none of the mentioned 3. All telnet operations are sent as
View Answer a) 4 bytes
b) 8 bytes
Answer: c c) 16 bytes
Explanation: None. d) 32 bytes
View Answer
7. Which operating mode of telnet is full
duplex? Answer: b
a) default mode Explanation: None.
b) server mode
c) line mode 4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for
d) none of the mentioned a) windows
View Answer b) linux
c) mac
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Answer: a
8. If we want that a character be interpreted by Explanation: None.
the client instead of server
a) escape character has to be used 5. The decimal code of interpret as command
b) control functions has to be disabled (IAC) character is
c) it is not possible a) 252
d) none of the mentioned b) 253
View Answer c) 254
d) 255
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a Explanation: None.
connection to
a) TCP port number 21 6. In character mode operation of telnet
b) TCP port number 22 implementation
c) TCP port number 23 a) each character typed is sent by the client to
d) TCP port number 24 the server
View Answer b) each character typed is discarded by the
36
server c) Lines of data
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word d) Packets
and then send to the server View Answer
Explanation: In TCP, data is sent and received in
Answer: a terms of Stream of bytes.
Explanation: None.
3. TCP process may not write and read data at
7. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the the same speed. So we need __________ for
screen but does not send it until a whole line is storage.
completed in a) Packets
a) default mode b) Buffers
c) character mode c) Segments
c) server mode d) Stacks
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: TCP needs buffers for storage to
Explanation: None. overcome this problem.
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4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a
8. Which one of the following is not correct? packet called
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server a) Packet
program b) Buffer
b) telnet lets user access an application on a c) Segment
remote computer d) Stack
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer View Answer
Explanation: Segment is a grouping of number
Answer: c of bytes together into a packet.
Explanation: None.
5. Communication offered by TCP is
1. Which of the following is true with respect to a) Full-duplex
TCP b) Half-duplex
a) Connection-oriented c) Semi-duplex
b) Process-to-process d) Byte by byte
c) Transport layer protocol View Answer
Explanation: Data flow in both the directions at
Answer: d the same time during TCP communication
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol, hence, Full-duplex.
process-to-process, and creates a virtual
connection between two TCP’s. 6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP,
___________ is used to check the safe and
2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as sound arrival of data.
a) Stream of bytes a) Packet
b) Sequence of characters b) Buffer
37
c) Segment 10. The value of acknowledgement field in a
d) Acknowledgment segment defines
View Answer a) Number of previous bytes to receive
b) Total number of bytes to receive
Answer: d c) Number of next bytes to receive
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
used to check the safe and sound arrival of data. View Answer
7. In segment header, sequence number and Answer: c

acknowledgement number field refers to Explanation: Acknowledgement field in a
a) Byte number segment defines the number of next bytes to
b) Buffer number receive.
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment 1. The receiver of the data controls the amount
View Answer of data that are to be sent by the sender is
referred as
Answer: a a) Flow control
Explanation: Sequence number and b) Error control
acknowledgement number field refers to byte c) Congestion control
number. d) Error detection
View Answer
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a
file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered Answer: a
10001. What is the sequence number of the Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the
segment if all data is sent in only one segment. receiver from being overwhelmed with data.
a) 10000
b) 10001 2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between
c) 12001 a) 16 and 32 bytes
d) 11001 b) 16 and 32 bits
View Answer c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
Explanation: The sequence number of each
segment is the number of first byte carried in Answer: c
that segment. Explanation: The header is 20 bytes if there are
no options and upto 60 bytes if it contains
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each options.
connection are numbered by TCP. These
numbers starts with a 3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by
a) Random number which mechanism?
b) Zero a) Flow control
c) One b) Three-Way Handshaking
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s c) Forwarding
View Answer d) Synchronisation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These numbers starts with a Answer: b
random number. Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to
connect between client and server.
38
4. The server program tells its TCP that it is d) Denial-of-service attack
ready to accept a connection. This process is View Answer
called
a) Active open Answer: a
b) Active close Explanation: This is the serious security problem
c) Passive close during the connection establishment.
d) Passive open
View Answer 8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of
security attack known as
Answer: d a) SYNC flooding attack
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three- b) Active attack
Way Handshaking process and is started by the c) Passive attack
server. d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer
5. The process of, A client that wishes to
connect to an open server tells its TCP that it Answer: d
needs to be connected to that particular server is Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system
a) Active open collapses and denies service to every request.
b) Active close
c) Passive close 9. Size of source and destination port address of
d) Passive open TCP header respectively are
View Answer a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
Answer: a c) 32-bits and 16-bits
Explanation: This is the second step in the d) 32-bits and 32-bits
Three-Way Handshaking process and is done by View Answer
the client once it finds the open server.
Answer: b
6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the Explanation: Size of source and destination ports
situation where both the TCP’s issue an active must be 32-bits.
open is
a) Mutual open 10. Connection establishment in TCP is done by
b) Mutual Close which mechanism?
c) Simultaneous open a) Flow control
d) Simultaneous close b) Three-Way Handshaking
View Answer c) Forwarding
d) Synchronisation
Explanation: Here, both TCP’s transmit a
SYNC+ACK segment to each other and one Answer: b
single connection is established between them. Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to
terminate the connection between client and
7. The situation when a malicious attacker sends server.
a large number of SYNC segments to a server,
pretending that each of them is coming from a 1. Which of the following is false with respect to
different client by faking the source IP address UDP
in the datagrams a) Connection-oriented
a) SYNC flooding attack b) Unreliable
b) Active attack c) Transport layer protocol
c) Passive attack
39
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Port number used by Network
Time Protocol with UDP is 123.
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, 6. what is the header size of UDP packet?
connectionless transport layer protocol. a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is c) 16 bytes
a) String of characters d) 124 bytes
b) String of integers View Answer
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet
header is 8 bytes.
Answer: a
Explanation: Chargen with port number 19 7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”,
returns string of characters. if the source host is ……
a) NTP
3. Beyond IP, TCP provides additional services b) Echo
such as c) Server
a) Routing and switching d) Client
b) Sending and receiving of packets View Answer
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: If the source host is the client, the
port number in most cases will be ephemeral
Answer: d port number.
Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol which
provides demultiplexing and error checking. 8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is
the length of
4. The main advantage of UDP is a) Only UDP header
a) More overload b) Only data
b) Reliable c) Only checksum
c) Less overload d) UDP header plus data
d) Fast View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, which contains the length of UDP header and
connectionless transport layer protocol and uses the data.
minimum overload.
9. Correct expression for UDP user datagram
5. Port number used by Network Time length is
Protocol(NTP) with UDP is a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
a) 161 b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s
b) 123 length
c) 162 c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) 124 d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s
View Answer length
View Answer
40
Answer: a authentication that can be used with IPsec, not
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an encryption protocol; therefore, answer B is
an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP incorrect.
datagram the defines the total length. There is
another field in the IP datagram that defines the 3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to
length of the header. So if we subtract the length secure communications between two LANs?
of a UDP datagram that is encapsulated in an IP a) AH tunnel mode
datagram, we get the length of UDP user b) ESP tunnel mode
datagram. c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
d) ESP transport mode
10. The field used to detect errors over the entire View Answer
user datagram is
a) UDP header Answer: c
b) Checksum Explanation: A tunnel mode IPsec should be
c) Source port used. Option c is for data transfer purpose,
d) Destination port option d is for integrity & confidentiality
View Answer purpose.
Answer: b 4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.

Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect a) AH
errors over the entire user datagram. b) ESP
c) PGP
1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to d) SSL
assure security and confidentiality of data within View Answer
the same LAN?
a) AH transport mode Answer: a
b) ESP transport mode Explanation: It provides integrity checking and
c) ESP tunnel mode anti-reply security.
d) AH tunnel mode
View Answer 5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and
________
Answer: b a) AH; SSL
Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used b) PGP; ESP
to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data c) AH; ESP
that is exchanged within the same LAN. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
2. Which two types of encryption protocols can
be used to secure the authentication of Answer: c
computers using IPsec? Explanation: Authentication header and
a) Kerberos V5 Encryption security payload.
b) SHA
c) MD5 6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI
d) Both SHA and MD5 model?
View Answer a) Network
b) Transport
Answer: d c) Application
Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. d) Physical
Kerberos V5 is an authentication protocol, not View Answer
an encryption protocol; therefore, answer A is
incorrect. Certificates are a type of
41
Answer: a d) ITU
Explanation: Network layer is mainly used for View Answer
security purpose, so IPsec in mainly operates in
network layer. Answer: a
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible
7. ESP provides for military encryption systems. The NSA
a) source authentication designs, evaluates, and implements encryption
b) data integrity systems for the military and government
c) privacy agencies with high security needs.
View Answer 1. Two broad categories of congestion control
are
Answer: d a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
Explanation: Encrypted security payload b) Open-control and Closed-control
provides source, data integrity and privacy. c) Active control and Passive control
8. In computer security… means that computer View Answer
system assets can be modified only by
authorized parities. Answer: a
a) Confidentiality Explanation: These are two types of congestion
b) Integrity control.
c) Availability
d) Authenticity 2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to
View Answer __________
a) Remove after congestion occurs
Answer: b b) Remove after sometime
Explanation: Integrity means that computer c) Prevent before congestion occurs
system assets can be modified only by d) Prevent before sending packets
authorized parities. View Answer
9. In computer security… means that the Answer: c

information in a computer system only be Explanation: Policies are applied to prevent
accessible for reading by authorized parities. congestion before it occurs.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity 3. Retransmission of packets must be done when
c) Availability a) Packet is lost
d) Authenticity b) Packet is corrupted
View Answer c) Packet is needed
Explanation: Confidentiality means that the
information in a computer system only be Answer: d
accessible for reading by authorized parities. Explanation: Retransmission should be done on
account of any of the above cases.
10. Which of the following organizations is
primarily concerned with military encryption 4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the
systems? packet times out, several packets have to be
a) NSA resent even some may have arrived safe.
b) NIST whereas in Selective Repeat window, tries to
c) IEEE send ___________
42
a) Packet that have not lost d) Virtual circuit networks
b) Packet that have lost or corrupted View Answer
c) Packet from starting
d) All the packets Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each
node knows the upstream node from which a
Answer: b flow data is coming.
Explanation: In selective repeat window, packet
that have lost or corrupted must be sent. 9. The packet sent by a node to the source to
inform it of congestion is called
5. Discarding policy is mainly done by a) Explicit
a) Sender b) Discard
b) Receiver c) Choke
c) Router d) Backpressure
d) Switch View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to
Explanation: This is done by the routers to the source to inform it of congestion.
prevent congestion.
10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the
6. Closed-Loop control mechanism try to congestion window increases __________ until
a) Remove after congestion occurs it reaches a threshold.
b) Remove after sometime a) Exponentially
c) Prevent before congestion occurs b) Additively
d) Prevent before sending packets c) Multiplicatively
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Policies are applied to remove Answer: a
congestion after it occurs. Explanation: In the slow-start algorithm, the size
of the congestion window increases
7. The technique in which a congested node exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
stops receiving data from the immediate advertisement
upstream node or nodes is called as
a) Admission policy 11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the
b) Backpressure size of the congestion window increases
c) Forward signalling ____________ until congestion is detected.
d) Backward signalling a) Exponentially
View Answer b) Additively
c) Multiplicatively
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: This is a node-to-node congestion View Answer
control that starts with a node and propagates in
opposite direction of data flow to the source. Answer: b
Explanation: In the congestion avoidance
8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to algorithm, the size of the congestion window
a) Congestion networks increases additively until congestion is detected.
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks
43
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic Answer: c
of Virtual Circuit Network? Explanation: Virtual circuit network does not
a) There are setup and teardown phases in contain termination phase.
addition to the data transfer phase
b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase 5. Steps required in setup process are
or on demand a) Setup request and acknowledgement
c) All packets follow the same path established b) Setup request and setup response
during the connection c) Setup request and setup termination
d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in d) Setup and termination steps
application layer View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Steps required in setup process are
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally Setup request and acknowledgement.
implemented in datalink layer.
6. During teardown phase, source after sending
2. The address that is unique in the scope of the all the frames to destination sends……..to notify
network or internationally if the network is part termination
of an international network is called as a) Teardown response
a) Global address b) Teardown request
b) Network address c) Termination request
c) Physical address d) Termination response
d) IP address View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Source after sending all the frames
Explanation: This address is used to create a to destination sends teardown request to which,
virtual circuit identifier. destination sends teardown response.
3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in 7. Delay if, resource allocated during setup
virtual circuit network is phase during data transfer is
a) Global address a) Constant
b) Virtual circuit identifier b) Increases for each packet
c) Network identifier c) Same for each packet
d) IP identifier d) Different for each packet
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier is used for Explanation: If resource allocated during setup
data transfer and has switch scope. phase, delay is same for each packet.
4. Which of the following is not a phase of 8. Delay if, resource allocated on demand during
virtual circuit network? data transfer is
a) Setup phase a) Constant
b) Datatransfer phase b) Increases for each packet
c) Termination phase c) Same for each packet
d) Teardown phase d) Different for each packet
44
Answer: d 3. ATM standard defines _______ layers.
Explanation: If resource allocated on demand, a) 2
delay is different for each packet. b) 3
c) 4
9. In virtual circuit network, delay times for d) 5
setup and teardown respectively are View Answer
a) 1 and 1
b) 1 and 2 Answer: b
c) 2 and 1 Explanation: Three layers are physical layer,
d) 2 and 2 ATM layer and application adoption layer.
View Answer
4. ATM can be used for
Answer: a a) local area network
Explanation: Delay time for setup and teardown b) wide area network
is one each. c) any of local or wide area network
10. In data transfer phase, the table contains how View Answer
many columns?
a) 1 Answer: c
b) 2 Explanation: None.
c) 3
d) 4 5. An ATM cell has the payload field of
View Answer a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
Answer: d c) 64 bytes
Explanation: Table has 4 columns. Port and VCI d) 128 bytes
for both incoming and outgoing data. View Answer
Answer: b
1. ATM and frame relay are Explanation: None.
a) virtual circuit networks
b) datagram networks 6. Frame relay has error detection at the
c) virtual private networks a) physical layer
d) none of the mentioned b) data link layer
View Answer c) network layer
d) transport layer
Explanation: ATM stands for asynchronous
transfer mode. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. ATM uses the
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing 7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing called
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing a) data link connection identifier
d) none of the mentioned b) frame relay identifier
View Answer c) cell relay identifier
Explanation: None.
45
Answer: a 2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called
Explanation: None. a) Voice Over For Relay
b) Voice Over Fine Relay
8. Frame relay has c) Voice On Frame Relay
a) only physical layer d) Voice Over Frame Relay
b) only data link layer View Answer
c) only network layer
d) both physical and data link layer Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: Frame Relay networks offer an
option calledVoice Over Frame Relay
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 3. There are ________ total features of Frame
Relay.
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is a) Five
used b) Seven
a) to increase the range of data link connection c) Nine
identifiers d) Ten
b) for error detection View Answer
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: There are total features of Frame
Relay are Nine.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error
control, they must be provided by the
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network? a) Lower Level Protocol
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames b) High Level Protocol
coming from other protocols c) Upper Level Protocol
b) FRAD is used for modulation and d) Downward Level Protocol
demodulation View Answer
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) None of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Frame Relay does not provide flow
or error control, they must be provided by
Answer: a theUpper Level Protocol.
Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay
assembler/disassembler. 5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers
such as
1. Frame Relay is very cheap than other a) ADMs
a) LANs b) UPSR
b) WANs c) BLSR
c) MANs d) SONET
d) Multipoint Networks View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: Frame Relay deploys physical
Explanation: Frame Relay is very cheap than layer carriers such asSONET.
other WANs.
6. Frame relay has error detection at the
a) physical layer
46
b) data link layer 10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
c) network layer a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames
d) transport layer coming from other protocols
View Answer b) FRAD is used for modulation and
demodulation
Answer: b c) FRAD is used for error detection
Explanation: In data link layer error control d) None of the mentioned
header is the main thing for any packet transfer, View Answer
so we use this layer frame relay has error
detection. Answer: a
Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is assembler/disassembler.
called
a) data link connection identifier 1. A piece of icon or image on a web page
b) frame relay identifier associated with another webpage is called
c) cell relay identifier a) url
d) none of the mentioned b) hyperlink
View Answer c) plugin
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier in frame
relay is calleddata link connection identifier. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Frame relay has only
a) physical layer 2. Dynamic web page
b) data link layer a) is same every time whenever it displays
c) both physical layer and data link layer b) generates on demand by a program or a
d) none of the mentioned request from browser
View Answer c) both is same every time whenever it displays
and generates on demand by a program or a
Answer: c request from browser
Explanation: Frame relay has only physical and d) none of the mentioned
data link layer for error detection in data link View Answer
layer and for conversion in physical layer.
Answer: b
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is Explanation: None.
used
a) to increase the range of data link connection 3. What is a web browser?
identifiers a) a program that can display a web page
b) for error detection b) a program used to view html documents
c) both to increase the range of data link c) it enables user to access the resources of
connection identifiers and for error detection internet
d) none of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: In frame relay networks, extended Explanation: None.
address is usedto increase the range of data link
connection identifiers. 4. Common gateway interface is used to
a) generate executable files from web content by
47
web server Answer: a
b) generate web pages Explanation: None.
c) stream videos
d) none of the mentioned 9. What is document object model (DOM)?
View Answer a) convention for representing and interacting
with objects in html documents
Answer: a b) application programming interface
Explanation: None. c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
5. URL stands for View Answer
a) unique reference label
b) uniform reference label Answer: a
c) uniform resource locator Explanation: None.
d) unique resource locator
View Answer 10. AJAX stands for
a) asynchronous javascript and xml
Answer: c b) advanced JSP and xml
Explanation: None. c) asynchronous JSP and xml
d) advanced javascript and xml
6. A web cookie is a small piece of data View Answer
a) sent from a website and stored in user’s web
browser while a user is browsing a website Answer: a
b) sent from user and stored in the server while a Explanation: None.
user is browsing a website
c) sent from root server to all servers 1. Which of the following is not applicable for
d) none of the mentioned IP?
View Answer a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
Answer: a c) Datagram format
Explanation: None. d) Packet handling conventions
View Answer
7. Which one of the following is not used to
generate dynamic web pages? Answer: a
a) PHP Explanation: Error reporting is handled by
b) ASP.NET ICMP.
c) JSP
d) None of the mentioned 2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram
View Answer is not related to fragmentation?
a) Flags
Answer: d b) Offset
Explanation: None. c) TOS
d) Identifier
8. An alternative of javascript on windows View Answer
platform is
a) VBScript Answer: c
b) ASP.NET Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the
c) JSP type of packets.
View Answer 3. The TTL field has value 10. How many
routers (max) can process this datagram?
48
a) 11 c) offer unreliable service
b) 5 d) none of the mentioned
c) 10 View Answer
d) 1
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.
Answer: c advertisement
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one
each time the datagram is processed by a router. 8. Fragmentation has following demerits
a) complicates routers
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the b) open to DOS attack
transport layer protocol used is _____________ c) overlapping of fragments.
a) TCP d) all of the mentioned
b) UDP View Answer
c) Either of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: Fragmentation makes the
implementation complex and also can create
Answer: b DOS attack.
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of
5. The data field can carry which of the the fragments?
following? a) offset
a) TCP segemnt b) flag
b) UDP segment c) ttl
c) ICMP messages d) identifer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Offset field specifies where the
Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport fragment fits in the original datagram.
layer segment, but it can also carry ICMP
messages. 1. Which of these is not applicable for IP
protocol?
6. What should be the flag value to indicate the a) Connectionless
last fragment? b) Offer reliable service
a) 0 c) Offer unreliable service
b) 1 d) None of the mentioned
c) TTl value View Answer
Explanation: IP offers unreliable service.
Answer: a
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last 2. Fragmentation has following demerits
fragment. a) Complicates routers
b) Open to DOS attack
7. Which of these is not applicable for IP c) Overlapping of fragments
protocol? d) All of the mentioned
a) is connectionless View Answer
b) offer reliable service
49
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the Explanation: First address in a block is used as
implementation complex and also can create network address that represents the organization.
DOS attack.
7. In classful addressing, a large part of available
3. Which field helps to check rearrangement of addresses are
the fragments? a) Organized
a) Offset b) Blocked
b) Flag c) Wasted
c) TTL d) Communicated
d) Identifier View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: In classful addressing, a large part
Explanation: offset field specifies where the of available addresses are wasted.
fragment fits in the original datagram. advertisement
4. In classless addressing, there are no classes 8. Network addresses are very important
but addresses are still granted in concepts of
a) IPs a) Routing
b) Blocks b) Mask
c) Codes c) IP Addressing
d) Sizes d) Classless Addressing
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: In classless addressing, there are no Explanation: Network addresses are very
classes but addresses are still granted in blocks. important concepts of IP addressing.
5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is 9. Which of this is not a class of IP address?

replaced with a) ClassE
a) Classless Addressing b) ClassC
b) Classful Addressing c) ClassD
c) Classful Advertising d) ClassF
d) Classless Advertising View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Class F is not a class of IP
Explanation: Classful addressing is replaced addressing.
with classless addressing.
1. The size of IP address in IPv6 is
6. First address in a block is used as network a) 4bytes
address that represents the b) 128bits
a) Class Network c) 8bytes
b) Entity d) 100bits
c) Organization View Answer
d) Codes
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
50
2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is a) Hop limit
___________ b) TTL
a) 10bytes c) Next header
b) 25bytes d) None of the mentioned
c) 30bytes View Answer
d) 40bytes
Explanation: The Hop limit value is
Answer: d decremented by one by a router when the
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header datagram is forwaded by the router. When the
length of 40bytes, which results is faster value becomes zero the datagram is discarded.
processing of the datagram.
7. Dual-stack approach refers to
3. In the IPv6 header,the traffic class field is a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
similar to which field in the IPv4 header? b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
a) Fragmentation field c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
b) Fast-switching d) None of the mentioned
c) ToS field View Answer
d) Option field
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach
Answer: c used to support IPv6 in already existing systems.
Explanation: This field enables to have different advertisement
types of IP datagram.
8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate
4. IPv6 doesnot use _________ type of address using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each
a) Broadcast other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best
b) Multicast solution here is
c) Anycast a) Use dual-stack approach
d) None of the mentioned b) Tunneling
View Answer c) No solution
d) Replace the system
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in
IPv6. Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tuunel.
5. These are the features present in IPv4 but not
in IPv6. 9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In
a) Fragmentation each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is
b) Header checksum represented by bits
c) Options a) 96 to 127
d) All of the mentioned b) 0 to 63
View Answer c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
Explanation: All the features are only present in
IPv4 and not IPv6. Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram
6. The _________ field determines the lifetime represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address.
of IPv6 datagram
51
1. Dual-stack approach refers to 5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6,
a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks address that is used by a host to test itself
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks without going into network is called
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support a) Unspecified address
d) None of the mentioned b) Loopback address
View Answer c) Compatible address
d) Mapped address
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach
used to support IPv6 in already existing systems. Answer: b
Explanation: In subcategories of reserved
2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate address in IPv6, address that is used by a host to
using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each test itself without going into network is called
other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best loop back address.
solution here is
a) Use dual-stack approach 6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6
b) Tunneling address define its category is called
c) No solution a) Prefix type
d) Replace the system b) Postfix type
View Answer c) Reserved type
d) Local type
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel.
Answer: a
3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In Explanation: Prefix means bits in the IP address
each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is are placed in leftmost position.
represented by bits
a) 96 to 127 7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses start with eight
b) 0 to 63 0s are called
c) 80 to 95 a) Unicast addresses
d) 64 to 79 b) Multicast addresses
View Answer c) Any cast addresses
d) Reserved addresses
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram
represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address. Answer: d
Explanation: In IPv6 address format the starting
4. A link local address of local addresses is used bits are specified with eight 0s called reserved
in an address.
a) Isolated router advertisement
b) Isolated mask
c) Isolated subnet 8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are
d) Isolated net true?
View Answer a) Leading zeros are required
b) Two colons (::) are used to represent
Answer: c successive hexadecimal fields of zeros
Explanation: Isolated subnet is very huge c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields
sharing network area in this link local address of d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6
local addresses is used. addresses of different types
View Answer
52
Answer: b b) Port number
Explanation: In order to shorten the written c) Host number
length of an IPv6 address, successive fields of d) Host address
zeros may be replaced by double colons. In View Answer
trying to shorten the address further, leading
zeros may also be removed. Just as with IPv4, a Answer: b
single device’s interface can have more than one Explanation: Multiple processes on destinations
address; with IPv6 there are more types of are identified by transport layer address also
addresses and the same rule applies. There can called as port number.
be link-local, global unicast, and multicast
addresses all assigned to the same interface. 4. Range of port numbers in Internet model is
a) 0 and 32,765(8-bit)
9. When IPV6 launched b) 0 and 32,765(16-bit)
a) June 2, 2012 c) 0 and 65,535(32-bit)
b) June 4, 2012 d) 0 and 65,535(16-bit)
c) June 5, 2012 View Answer
d) June 6, 2012
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers are 16-bit integers
Answer: d between 0 and 65,535.
Explanation: None
5. According to Internet Assigned Numbers
1. Which layer is responsible for process-to- Authority(IANA), which of the following range
process delivery? is not a part of port number?
a) Physical layer a) Well-known ports
b) Network layer b) Registered ports
c) Transport layer c) Dynamic ports
d) Application layer d) Static ports
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: Transport layer is responsible for Explanation: IANA divided port number range
process-to-process delivery. in to three i.e., Well-known, Registered and
Dynamic ports.
2. In process-to-process delivery, two processes
communicate in which of the following 6. The combination of an IP address and port
methods? number is called as?
a) Client/Server a) Socket address
b) Source/Destination b) Port address
c) Message Transfer c) MAC address
d) None of the mentioned d) Host address
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The most common method used for Explanation: Socket address is the combination
this communication is Client/Server. of an IP address and port number.
3. Multiple processes on destinations at transport 7. Which of the following is false with respect to
layer are identified by: Connectionless service of transport layer
a) Mac address protocol?
53
a) Packets are not numbered delivering messages to appropriate process
b) Packets are not delayed based on port number.
c) No acknowledgement
d) Packet may arrive out of sequence 1. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) has
View Answer designed to compensate
a) Error-reporting
Answer: b b) Error-correction
Explanation: Packets in this method may be c) Host and management queries
delayed or lost. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
8. Correct order in the process of Connection-
Oriented services is Answer: d
1. Data transfer Explanation: ICMP has been designed to address
2. Connection release these issues.
3. Connection establishment
a) 1-2-3 2. Header size of the ICMP message is
b) 3-2-1 a) 8-bytes
c) 2-1-3 b) 8-bits
d) 3-1-2 c) 16-bytes
View Answer d) 16-bits
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: First connection should be Answer: a
established followed by data transfer and Explanation: ICMP message has 8-bytes header
connection release. and variable size data section.
9. In transport layer, Multiplexing is done at 3. During error reporting, ICMP always reports
a) Channel error messages to
b) Receiver site a) Destination
c) Sender site b) Source
d) Packet c) Next router
View Answer d) Previous router
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Multiplexing is done before Answer: b
sending packets at sender site. Explanation: ICMP sends error message to the
source because the datagram knows information
10. The process of error checking and dropping about source and destination IP address.
of the header, delivering messages to appropriate
process based on port number is called as 4. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting
a) Delivery of packets messages
b) Error correction a) Destination unreachable
c) Multiplexing b) Source quench
d) Demultiplexing c) Router error
View Answer d) Time exceeded
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Demultiplexing is the process of Answer: c
error checking and dropping of the header, Explanation: Router error is not a type of error-
reporting messages in ICMP.
54
5. ICMP error message will not be generated for d) Decremented by 1
a datagram having a special address such as View Answer
a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2 Answer: d
c) 11.1 Explanation: This field will be decremented by 1
d) 127 at every router, and will be zero by the time it
View Answer reaches source.
Answer: a 9. Two machines can use the timestamp request

Explanation: No ICMP error message will be and timestamp replay messages to determine the
generated for a datagram having a special ___________ needed for an IP datagram to
address such as 127.0.0.0 or 0.0.0.0. travel between them.
a) Half-trip time
6. When a router cannot route a datagram or host b) Round-trip time
cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is c) Travel time for the next router
discarded and the router or the host sends a d) Time to reach the destination/source
____________ message back to the source host View Answer
that initiated the datagram.
a) Destination unreachable Answer: b
b) Source quench Explanation: Router sends destination
c) Router error unreachable message if the destination is not
d) Time exceeded found.
View Answer
10. During debugging, we can use the
Answer: a ____________ program to find if a host is alive
Explanation: Router sends destination and responding
unreachable message if the destination is not a) Traceroute
found. b) Shell
c) Ping
7. The source-quench message in ICMP was d) Java
designed to add a kind of ____________ to the View Answer
IP.
a) Error control Answer: c
b) Flow control Explanation: Ping program is used to find if a
c) Router control host is alive and responding.
d) None of the mentioned advertisement
View Answer
11. In windows, ____________ can be used to
Answer: b trace the route of the packet from the source to
Explanation: Firstly, it informs the source that the destination
the datagram has been discarded. secondly, it a) Traceroute
warns the source that there is congestion in the b) Tracert
network. c) Ping
d) Locater
8. In case of time exceeded error, when the View Answer
datagram visits a router, the value of time to live
field is Answer: b
a) Remains constant Explanation: Tracert is used in case of windows,
b) Decremented by 2 whereas Traceroute in UNIX.
c) Incremented by 1
55
12. In a simple echo-request message, the value determine which version to use when sending a
of the sum is 01010000 01011100. Then, value packet to a destination.
of checksum is
a) 10101111 10100011 4. The strategy used when two computers using
b) 01010000 01011100 IPv6 want to communicate with each other and
c) 10101111 01011100 the packet must pass through a region that uses
d) 01010000 10100011 IPv4 is
View Answer a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
Answer: a c) Conversion
Explanation: Checksum is the compliment of the d) Tunnelling
sum(exchange 0’s and 1’s). View Answer
1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to Answer: d

IPv6 is Explanation: Tunnelling is used when two
a) Huge number of systems on the internet computers using IPv6 want to communicate with
b) Very low number of system on the internet each other and the packet must pass through a
c) Providing standard address region that uses IPv4.
View Answer 5. The correct format of packet in tunnel that
uses IPv4 region is
Answer: a 1. IPv6 header
Explanation: Due to huge number of systems on 2. Payload
the internet, transition from IPv4 to IPv6 3. IPv4 header
happens. a) 3-1-2
b) 3-2-1
2. Which of the following is not a transition c) 1-2-3
strategies? d) 1-3-2
a) Dual stack View Answer
b) Tunnelling
c) Conversion Answer: a
d) Header translation Explanation: In tunnel with IPv4 region, IPv6
View Answer packet will be encapsulated with IPv4 header.
Answer: c 6. ___________ is necessary when the sender

Explanation: Dual stack, tunnelling and header wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not
translation are the only three transition understand IPv6.
strategies. a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
3. To determine which version to use when c) Conversion
sending a packet to a destination, the source host d) Tunnelling
queries which of the following? View Answer
a) Dual stack
b) Domain Name Server Answer: b
c) Header information Explanation: Header translation is used when the
d) All of the mentioned sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does
View Answer not understand IPv6.
Answer: b 7. Header translation uses ___________ to

Explanation: Source host queries DNS to translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
56
a) IP address 3. The TTL field has value 10. How many
b) Physical address routers (max) can process this datagram?
c) Mapped address a) 11
d) Any of the mentioned b) 5
View Answer c) 10
d) 1
Explanation: Mapped address is used to translate
an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address. Answer: c
advertisement Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one
each time the datagram is processed by a router.
8. Which of the following is not the step in
Header translation procedure? 4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the
a) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an transport layer protocol used is _________
IPv4 address by extracting the rightmost 32bits a) TCP
b) The value of the IPv6 priority field is b) UDP
discarded c) Either TCP and UDP
c) The type of service field in IPv4 is set to zero d) None of the mentioned
d) The IPv6 flow label is considered View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
Explanation: In header translation procedure,
IPv6 flow label is ignored. 5. Which field helps to check rearrangement of
the fragments?
1. Which of the following is not applicable for a) offset
IP? b) flag
a) Error reporting c) ttl
b) Handle addressing conventions d) identifier
c) Datagram format View Answer
d) Packet handling
Explanation: Offset field specifies where the
Answer: a fragment fits in the original datagram.
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by
ICMP. 6. The size of IP address in IPv6 is
a) 4bytes
2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram b) 128bits
is not related to fragmentation? c) 8bytes
a) Flags d) 100bits
b) Offset View Answer
c) TOS
d) Identifier Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
Answer: c 7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is

Explanation: TOS type of service identifies the ___________
type of packets. a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
57
d) 40bytes d) 172.255.255.255
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header Explanation: This address is used for broadcast
length of 40bytes, which results is faster the class B network purpose
processing of the datagram.
2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a
8. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your
similar to which field in the IPv4 header? class of address, subnet address, and broadcast
a) Fragmentation field address?
b) Fast switching a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast
c) TOS field address 172.16.13.127
d) Option field b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast
View Answer address 172.16.13.127
c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast
Answer: c address 172.16.13.255
Explanation: This field enables to have different d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast
types of IP datagram. address 172.16.255.255
View Answer
9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address
a) Broadcast Answer: b
b) Multicast Explanation: Class B is the address of IP code
c) Any cast 172.16.13.5
View Answer 3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class
C network ID, which subnet mask would you
Answer: a use?
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in a) 255.255.255.252
IPv6. b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
10. Which are the features present in IPv4 but d) 255.255.255.248
not in IPv6? View Answer
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum Answer: c
c) Options Explanation: If you have eight networks and
d) All of the mentioned each requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class
View Answer C mask of 255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240
in binary is 11110000, which means you have
Answer: d four subnet bits and four host bits. Using our
Explanation: All the features are only present in math, we’d get the following:
IPv4 and not IPv6. 24-2=14 subnets
24-2=14 hosts.
1. Which of the following is the broadcast
address for a Class B network ID using the 4. The combination of _________ and
default subnetmask? __________ is often termed the local address of
a) 172.16.10.255 the local portion of the IP address.
b) 255.255.255.255 a) Network number and host number
c) 172.16.255.255 b) Network number and subnet number
c) Subnet number and host number
58
d) Host number 8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
View Answer a) 1000 BASE-SX
b) 1000 BASE-LX
Answer: c c) 1000 BASE-CX
Explanation: Sub networking is implemented for d) all of the above
remote sensing in transparent way from that a View Answer
host contains the sub network which called local
operation. Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit
5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing
from the same subnet mask. various technologies for transmitting Ethernet
a) Static subnetting frames at a rate of a gigabit per second
b) Dynamic subnetting (1,000,000,000 bits per second), as defined by
c) Variable length subnetting the IEEE 802.3-2008 standard. It came into use
d) Both Dynamic subnetting and Variable length beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast
subnetting Ethernet in wired local networks, as a result of
View Answer being considerably faster.
Answer: a 9. _________ is a collective term for a number

Explanation: Static sub network. of Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the
nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the original
6. State whether true or false. Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
i) A connection oriented protocol can only use a) Ethernet
unicast addresses. b) Fast Ethernet
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6. c) Gigabit Ethernet
a) True, True d) All of the mentioned
b) True, False View Answer
c) False, True
d) False, False Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Fast Ethernet
Answer: a 10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic

Explanation: A connection oriented protocol can network with an active star for switching.
only use unicast addresses. a) S/NET
The any cast service is included in IPV6. b) SW/NET
c) NET/SW
7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic d) FS/NET
token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over View Answer
distances upto 1000 stations connected.
a) FDDI Answer: a
b) FDDT Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical
c) FDDR Local area network (LAN) and its optical
d) FOTR combiner and mixing rod splitter are presented.
View Answer The limited power budget and relatively large
tapping losses of light wave technology, which
Answer: a limit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN
Explanation: FIBER DISTRIBUTED DATA topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in
INTERFACE optical star topologies.
59
1.A network administrator is connecting hosts A Answer: c
and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0
as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is
between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be 255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a
done to provide connectivity between the hosts? block size of 2. The router’s interface is in the
2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255
because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host
range is 2.1 through 3.254. The router is using
the first valid host address in the range.
3. Which two statements describe the IP address

10.16.3.65/23?
1. A crossover cable should be used in place of 1. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0
the straight-through cable. 255.255.254.0.
2. A rollover cable should be used in place of the 2. The lowest host address in the subnet is
straight-through cable. 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
3. The subnet masks should be set to 3. The last valid host address in the subnet is
255.255.255.192. 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
4. A default gateway needs to be set on each 4. The broadcast address of the subnet is
host. 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
5. The subnet masks should be set to a) 1 and 3
255.255.255.0. b) 2 and 4
a) 1 only c) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2 only d) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3 and 4 only View Answer
d) 1 and 5 only
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used
Answer: d with a Class A address means that there are 15
Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the
connected, as shown in the graphic, then you third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the
need a crossover cable. A straight-through cable subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all
won’t work. Second, the hosts have different the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0
masks, which puts them in different subnets. The subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast
easy solution is just to set both masks to address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid
255.255.255.0 (/24). host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.
2. Your router has the following IP address on 4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses
Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet
following can be valid host IDs on the LAN that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
interface attached to the router? a) 14
1. 172.16.1.100 b) 15
2. 172.16.1.198 c) 16
3. 172.16.2.255 d) 30
4. 172.16.3.0 View Answer
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Answer: d
c) 3 and 4 only Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits
d) None of the mentioned on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each
View Answer with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used
60
with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at Used with a Class B network, the third and
all. The number of host bits would never change. fourth octets are used for subnetting with a total
of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit
5. You need to subnet a network that has 5 in the fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the
subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Wohich fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a
classful subnet mask would you use value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in
a) 255.255.255.192 the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of
b) 255.255.255.224 127 since 128 is the next subnet
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248 8. You have an interface on a router with the IP
View Answer address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the
router interface, how many hosts can have IP
Answer: b addresses on the LAN attached to the router
Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at interface?
least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 a) 6
provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts-this will not b) 8
work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 c) 30
subnets, each with 30 hosts. This is the best d) 32
answer. View Answer
6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets Answer: a

while maximizing the number of host addresses Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248),
available on each subnet. How many bits must regardless of the class of address, has only 3
you borrow from the host field to provide the host bits. Six hosts is the maximum number of
correct subnet mask? hosts on this LAN, including the router
a) 2 interface.
b) 3
c) 4 9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with
d) 5 an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?
View Answer a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0
Answer: d c) 172.16.64.0
Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and d) 172.16.0.0
provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We View Answer
need more subnets, so let’s add subnet bits. One
more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This Answer: c
provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which
bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer. means we have a block size of 8 in the third
octet, so we just count by 8 until we reach 66.
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next
an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64
the valid subnet address of this host? subnet is 71.255.
a) 172.16.112.0
b) 172.16.0.0 10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19
c) 172.16.96.0 provides how many subnets and hosts?
d) 172.16.255.0 a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
View Answer b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: a d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. View Answer
61
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is Explanation: The network address can be up to
255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that 16 hexadecimal digits in length. The node
is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, number is 12hexadecimal digits. The node
or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts. address is usually the MAC address. An
example IPXaddress is 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33.
1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for The network part is 4a1d. The node part
TCP/IP and DEC net? is0000.0c56.de33. The network number is
a) Ethernet 802.3 assigned by the system administrator of
b) Ethernet 802.2 theNovell network.
c) Ethernet II
d) Ethernet SNAP 4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–
View Answer network layer—of the OSI model?
a) IPX
Answer: c b) NCP
Explanation: Ethernet 802.3 is used with c) SPX
NetWare versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet d) NetBIOS
802.2 is used withNetWare 3.12 and later plus View Answer
OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and
DEC net,and Ethernet SNAP is used with Answer: a
TCP/IP and AppleTalk. Explanation: IPX (Internetwork Packet
Exchange) is a NetWare network layer 3
2. You are a system administrator on a NetWare protocol used fortransferring information on
network, you are runningNetWare 4.11 and you LANs.
cannot communicate with your router. What is
the likelyproblem? 5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state
a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation routing?
b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation a) NLSP
c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11 b) RIP
d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation c) SAP
View Answer d) NCP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The default encapsulation on Cisco Answer: a
routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare Explanation: NetWare Link Services Protocol
3.12and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP
3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3. (Service Advertisement Protocol) advertises
network services. NCP (NetWare Core
3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network Protocol)provides client-to-server connections
number and a node number. Which statement is and applications. RIP is a distance vector
not true? routingprotocol.
a) The network address is administratively
assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits 6. As a system administrator, you want to debug
long IGRP but are worried that the
b) The node address is always administratively “debug IP IGRP transaction” command will
assigned flood the console. What is the command
c) The node address is usually the MAC address that you should use?
d) If the MAC address is used as the node a) Debug IP IGRP event
address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP b) Debug IP IGRP-events
View Answer c) Debug IP IGRP summary
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d) Debug IP IGRP events b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation
View Answer Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network
Answer: d 6c
Explanation: The “debug IP IGRP events” is c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation
used to only display a summary of IGRP routing Novell-ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX
information. You can append an IP address onto encapsulation sap
either command to see only the IGRP d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation
updates from a neighbor. Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network
7. What does the following series of commands 6c
accomplish? RouterIGRP 71 network View Answer
10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 Answer: d
b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71 Explanation: The following commands setup the
c) It disables RIP sub interfaces to allow for two types of
d) It disables all routing protocols encapsulation:interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX
View Answer encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e
interface Ethernet0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX
Answer: a network 6c.
Explanation: It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and
172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous systems 10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2”
109 and71 with IGRP. IGRP does not disable command accomplish?
RIP, both can be used at the same time. a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths
are equal metric paths
8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
an administrator to change the c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
default settings. What are the default settings? d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths
a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN are unequal metric paths
interfaces, six ticks View Answer
b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN
interfaces, one tick Answer: a
c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN Explanation: It enables load sharing on 2 paths if
interfaces, five ticks the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN pathand the maximum is 512 paths.
interfaces, zero Ticks
View Answer 11. You want to enable both arpa and snap
encapsulation on one router interface.
Answer: a How do you do this?
Explanation: The default is–for LAN interfaces, a) The interface can handle multiple
one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks encapsulation types with no extra configuration
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each
9. As a system administrator, you need to set up encapsulation type
one Ethernet interface on the Cisco c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple
router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulation types
encapsulations. Which set of d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so
commands will accomplish this? you don’t have to configure anything
a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation View Answer
Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c
63
Answer: b d) Debug IP route
Explanation: To assign multiple network View Answer
numbers, you usually use sub interfaces. A
sample configuration follows: IPXEthernet 0.1 Answer: b
IPX encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e Explanation: The debug IP rip command is used
interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx to show the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing
network 6c Information Protocol (RIP) updates being sent
and received on the router.
12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS
SAPs to remote networks. 4. Two connected routers are configured with
a) False RIP routing. What will be the result when a
b) True router receives a routing update that contains a
View Answer higher-cost path to a network already in its
routing table?
Answer: a a) The updated information will be added to the
Explanation: GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get existing routing table Debug IP rip
Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local b) The update will be ignored and no further
network,that server will respond. If there isn’t, action will occur Debug IP route
the Cisco router has to be configured to forward c) The updated information will replace the
theGNS SAP. existing routing table entry
d) The existing routing table entry will be
1. Which protocol should you select if the deleted from the routing table and all routers
network diameter is more than 17 hops? will exchange routing updates to reach
a) RIPv1 convergence
b) RIPv2 View Answer
c) EIGRP
d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2 Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: When a routing update is received
by a router, the router first checks the
Answer: a administrative distance (AD) and always
Explanation: RIP v1 has network diameter is chooses the route with the lowest AD. However,
more than 17 hopes. if two routes are received and they both have the
same AD, then the router will choose the one
2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its route with the lowest metrics, or in RIP’s case,
routing table by default? hop count.
a) Every 30 seconds
b) Every 60 seconds 5. You type debug IP rip on your router console
c) Every 90 seconds and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to
d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically you with a metric of 16. What does this mean?
View Answer a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds
Answer: a Debug IP route
Explanation: Every 30 seconds RIPv1 router c) The route is inaccessible
broadcast its routing table by default. d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second
View Answer
3. Which command displays RIP routing
updates? Answer: c
a) Show IP route Explanation: You cannot have 16 hops on a RIP
b) Debug IP rip network by default. If you receive a route
c) Show protocols
64
advertised with a metric of 16, this means it is Answer: b
inaccessible. Explanation: Use of variable length subnet
masks is permittedis true regarding classless
6. Default administrative distance of Static routing protocol.
Route
a) 0 10. Where we should use default routing
b) 90 a) On stub networks- which have only one exit
c) 100 path out of the network
d) 1 b) Which have more than one exit path out of
View Answer the network
c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
Explanation: 1 is the default administrative View Answer
distance of Static Route.
Answer: a
7. Which protocol gives a full route table update Explanation: On stub networks- which have only
every 30 seconds? one exit path out of the networkuse default
a) IEGRP routing.
b) RIP
c) both IEGRP and RIP 1. Which statement is true regarding classless
d) none of the mentioned routing protocols?
View Answer a) The use of discontinuous networks is not
allowed
Answer: b b) The use of variable length subnet masks is
Explanation: RIP gives a full route table update permitted
every 30 seconds. c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
8. Default administrative distance of RIP View Answer
a) 0
b) 90 Answer: b
c) 120 Explanation: Classful routing means that all
d) 130 hosts in the internetwork use the same mask.
View Answer Classless routing means that you can use
Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) and
Answer: c can also support discontinuous networking.
Explanation: Default administrative distance of
RIP is 120. 2. What is route poisoning?
a) It sends back the protocol received from a
9. Which statement is true regarding classless router as a poison pill, which stops the regular
routing protocol? updates. The use of variable length subnet masks
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not is permitted
allowed b) It is information received from a router that
b) Use of variable length subnet masks is can’t be sent back to the originating
permitted router.RIPv2 supports classless routing
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol c) It prevents regular update messages from
d) IGRP supports classes routing within the reinstating a route that has just come up
same autonomous system d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a
View Answer downed link to infinity
View Answer
65
Answer: d 6. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route
Explanation: When a network goes down, the redistribution on two routers between the same
distance-vector routing protocol initiates route two routing domains?
poisoning by advertising the network with a a) Higher cost of two routers
metric of 16, or unreachable. b) Routing feedback
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility
3. Which of the following is true regarding d) Not possible to use two routers
RIPv2? View Answer
a) It has a lower administrative distance than
RIPv1 Answer: b
b) It converges faster than RIPv1 Explanation: Routing feedback is a reason for
c) It has the same timers as RIPv1 avoiding doing route redistribution on two
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1 routers between the same two routing domains.
View Answer
7. What does administrative distance rank?
Answer: c a) Metrics
Explanation: RIPv2 is pretty much just like b) Sources of routing information
RIPv1. It has the same administrative distance c) Router reliability
and timers and is configured just like RIPv1. d) Best paths
View Answer
4. Which of the situations might not require
require multiple routing protocols in a network? Answer: b
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to Explanation: Sources of routing information is
the network the administrative distance rank.
b) When you are migrating from one routing
protocol to another 8. Which protocol maintains neighbor
c) When you are using routers from multiple adjacencies?
vendors a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
d) When there are host-based routers from b) IGRP and EIGRP
multiple vendors c) RIPv2
View Answer d) EIGRP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One routing protocol to another, Answer: c
routers from multiple vendors,host-based routers Explanation: RIP V2 maintains neighbor
from multiple vendors. adjacencies.
5. Which two routing protocols can be 9. Which routing protocol implements the
redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router? diffusing update algorithm?
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP a) IS-IS
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2 b) IGRP
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP c) EIGRP
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP d) OSPF
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: IP EIGRP, RIPv2. These can be Explanation: EIGRProuting protocol implements
redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router. the diffusing update algorithm.
66
10. Which protocol should you select if the c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution
network diameter is more than 17 hops? ciphers
a) RIPv1 d) none of the mentioned
b) RIPv2 View Answer
c) EIGRP
d) All of the above Answer: a
Answer: b 5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?

Explanation: RIPv2protocol should you select if a) block cipher
the network diameter is more than 17 hops. b) stream cipher
c) bit cipher
1. In cryptography, what is cipher? d) none of the mentioned
a) algorithm for performing encryption and View Answer
decryption
b) encrypted message Answer: a
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and Explanation: None.
decryption and encrypted message
d) none of the mentioned 6. Cryptanalysis is used
View Answer a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic
scheme
Answer: a b) to increase the speed
Explanation: None. c) to encrypt the data
2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private View Answer
key is kept by
a) sender Answer: a
b) receiver Explanation: None.
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network 7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic
View Answer protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
Answer: b b) transport layer security (TSL)
Explanation: None. c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
d) resource reservation protocol
3. Which one of the following algorithm is not View Answer
used in asymmetric-key cryptography?
a) rsa algorithm Answer: b
b) diffie-hellman algorithm Explanation: None.
c) electronic code book algorithm
d) none of the mentioned 8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone
View Answer protocol is provided by
a) A5/2 cipher
Answer: c b) b5/4 cipher
Explanation: None. c) b5/6 cipher
d) b5/8 cipher
4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a View Answer
message is rearranged by
a) transpositional ciphers Answer: a
b) substitution ciphers Explanation: None
67
9. ElGamal encryption system is d) None of the mentioned
a) symmetric key encryption algorithm View Answer
b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm
c) not an encryption algorithm Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: HTTP resources are located by
View Answer uniform resource identifier.
Answer: b 4. HTTP client requests by establishing a

Explanation: None. __________ connection to a particular port on
the server.
10. Cryptographic hash function takes an a) User datagram protocol
arbitrary block of data and returns b) Transmission control protocol
a) fixed size bit string c) Broader gateway protocol
b) variable size bit string d) None of the mentioned
c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit View Answer
string
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation:HTTP client requests by
establishing TCP connection to a particular port
Answer: a on the server.
Explanation: None.
5. In HTTP pipelining
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP a) Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single
connection between client and server in TCP connection without waiting for the
a) Persistent HTTP corresponding responses
b) Ponpersistent HTTP b) Multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a
c) Both Persistent HTTP and Ponpersistent single TCP connection
HTTP c) Multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue
d) None of the mentioned on a single TCP connection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: hypertext transfer protocol is used Answer: a
for sending multiple objects over TCP Explanation: Multiple HTTP requests are sent
connection. on a single TCP connection without waiting for
the corresponding responses in HTTP
2. HTTP is ________ protocol. pipelining.
b) Transport layer 6. FTP server listens for connection on port
c) Network layer number
d) None of the mentioned a) 20
View Answer b) 21
c) 22
Answer: a d) 23
Explanation: HTTP works on application layer. View Answer
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by Answer: b

a) Uniform resource identifier Explanation: 21 is the port number of FTP.
b) Unique resource locator
c) Unique resource identifier
68
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using b) Public Socket accept ()
_________ as the transport protocol. c) Public synchronized void close ()
a) Transmission control protocol d) None of the mentioned
b) User datagram protocol View Answer
c) Datagram congestion control protocol
d) Stream control transmission protocol Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Public Socket accept () used in
Server Socket class.
Answer: a
Explanation: Client contacts server using TCP as 2. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class
the transport protocol. is used to create a datagram socket and binds it
with the given Port Number?
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both a) Datagram Socket(int port)
the control and data connections. b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address
a) Active mode address)
b) Passive mode c) Datagram Socket()
c) Both Active mode and Passive mode d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Datagram Socket (int port, Int
Explanation: In passive mode the client initiates Address address) is use data create a datagram
both the control and data connections. socket.
9. The file transfer protocol is built on 3. The client in socket programming must know
a) Data centric architecture which information?
b) Service oriented architecture a) IP address of Server
c) Client server architecture b) Port number
d) None of the mentioned c) Both IP address of Server & Port number
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is built on client server Answer: c
architecture. Explanation: The client in socket programming
must know IP address of Server.
10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be
done in 4. The URL Connection class can be used to
a) Stream mode read and write data to the specified resource
b) Block mode referred by the URL
c) Compressed mode a) True
d) All of the mentioned b) False
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: Data transfer can be done in Explanation: The URL Connection class can be
stream, block and compressed modes. used to read and write data to the specified
resource referred by the URL.
1. Which methods are commonly used in Server
Socket class? 5. Datagram is basically an information but there
a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream () is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival
69
time. d) None of the mentioned
a) True View Answer
b) False
Explanation: Datagram Socket, Datagram Packet
Answer: a are used for connection-less socket
Explanation: Datagram is basically an programming.
information but there is no guarantee of its
content, arrival or arrival time. 10. In Int Address class which method returns
the host name of the IP Address?
6. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are a) Public String get Hostname()
examples of? b) Public String getHostAddress()
a) Socket c) Public static IntAddress get Localhost()
b) IP Address d) None of the mentioned
c) Protocol View Answer
d) MAC Address
Explanation: In Int Address class public String
Answer: c get Hostname() method returns the host name of
Explanation: TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. the IP Address.
are examples of Protocol.
1. Cookies were originally designed for
7. What does the java.net.InetAddress class a) Client side programming
represent? b) Server side programming
a) Socket c) Both Client side programming and Server side
b) IP Address programming
c) Protocol d) None of the mentioned
d) MAC Address View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Cookies were originally designed
Explanation: The java.net.InetAddress class for server side programming, and at the lowest
represent IP Address. level, they are implemented as an extension to
the HTTP protocol.
8. The flush () method of Print Stream class
flushes any un cleared buffers in memory 2. The Cookie manipulation is done using which
a) True property?
b) False a) cookie
View Answer b) cookies
c) manipulate
Answer: a d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: The flush () method of Print View Answer
Stream class flushes any un cleared buffers in
memory. Answer: a
Explanation: There are no methods involved:
9. Which classes are used for connection-less cookies are queried, set, and deleted by reading
socket programming? and Writing the cookie property of the
a) Datagram Socket Document object using specially formatted
b) Datagram Packet strings.
c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
70
3. Which of the following explains Cookies d) None of the mentioned
nature? View Answer
a) Non Volatile
b) Volatile Answer: d
c) Intransient Explanation: The Cookie visibility scope is
d) Transient configurable through cookie attributes path and
View Answer domain.
Answer: d 7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to

Explanation: Cookies are transient by default; local Storage?
the values they store last for the duration of the a) /
web browser session but are lost when the user b) %
exits the browser. c) *
4. Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime View Answer
of a cookie?
a) Higherage Answer: a
b) Increaseage Explanation: Setting the path of a cookie to “/”
c) Maxage gives scoping like that of localStorage and also
d) Lifetime specifies that the browser must transmit the
View Answer cookie name and value to the server whenever it
requests any web page on the site.
Answer: c
Explanation: If you want a cookie to last beyond 8. Which of the following is a Boolean cookie
a single browsing session, you must tell the attribute?
browser how long (in seconds) you would like it a) Bool
to retain the cookie by specifying a manage b) Secure
attribute. If you specify a lifetime, the browser c) Lookup
will store cookies in a file and delete them only d) Domain
once they expire. View Answer
5. Which of the following defines the Cookie Answer: b

visibility? Explanation: The final cookie attribute is a
a) Document Path boolean attribute named secure that specifies
b) LocalStorage how cookie values are transmitted over the
c) SessionStorage network. By default, cookies are insecure, which
d) All of the mentioned means that they are transmitted over a normal,
View Answer insecure HTTP connection. If a cookie is
marked secure, however, it is transmitted only
Answer: d when the browser and server are connected via
Explanation: Cookie visibility is scoped by HTTPS or another secure protocol.
document origin as local Storage and session
Storage are, and also by document path. 9. Which of the following function is used as a
consequence of not including semicolons,
6. Which of the following can be used to Commas or whitespace in the Cookie value?
configure the scope of the Cookie visibility? a) EncodeURIComponent()
a) Path b) EncodeURI()
b) Domain c) EncodeComponent()
c) Both Path and Domain d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: a c) Both of the mentioned
Explanation: Cookie values cannot include d) None of the mentioned
semicolons, commas, or whitespace. For this View Answer
reason, you may want to use the core JavaScript
global function encodeURIComponent() to Answer: C
encode the value before storing it in the cookie. Explanation: Both of the above options are
correct.
10. What is the constraint on the data per
cookie? 4. Which of the following HTTP method should
a) 2 KB be idempotent in nature?
b) 1 KB a) OPTIONS
c) 4 KB b) DELETE
d) 3 KB c) POST
View Answer d) HEAD
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each cookie can hold upto only 4 Answer: b
KB. In practice, browsers allow many more than Explanation: DELETE operations should be
300 cookies total, but the 4 KB size limit may idempotent, means their result will always same
still be enforced by some. no matter how many times these operations are
invoked.
1. What REST stands for?
a) Represent State Transfer 5. Which of the following directive of Cache
b) Representational State Transfer Control Header of HTTP response indicates that
c) Represent State Transfer resource is cachable by only client and server?
d) None of the mentioned a) Public
View Answer b) Private
c) Nocache/nostore
Answer: b d) Maxage
Explanation: REST stands for Representational View Answer
State Transfer.
Answer: b
2. Which of the following protocol is used by Explanation: Private directive indicates that
Restful web services as a medium of resource is cachable by only client and server,
communication between client and server? no intermediary can cache the resource.
a) HTTP
b) FTP 6. Which of the following HTTP Status code
c) Gopher means CREATED, when a resource is
d) None of the mentioned successful created using POST or PUT request?
View Answer a) 200
b) 201
Answer: a c) 204
Explanation: Restful web services make use of d) 304
HTTP protocol as a medium of communication View Answer
between client and server.
Answer: b
3. Which of the following is a best practice to Explanation: HTTP Status Code 201 means
create a standard URI for a web service? CREATED, when a resource is successful
a) Maintain Backward Compatibility created using POST or PUT request.
b) Use HTTP Verb
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7. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS a) Delayed
API is used to annotate a method used to create b) Urgent
resource? c) Forwarding
a) @Path d) Delivering
b) @GET View Answer
c) @PUT
d) @POST Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: It is for transforming the message
from source to destination with forward
Answer: C technique.
Explanation: @PUT – HTTP Get request, used
to create resource. 2. A second technique to reduce routing table
and simplify searching process is called
8. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS a) Network-Specific Method
API binds the parameter passed to method to a b) Network-Specific Motion
HTTP matrix parameter in path? c) Network-Specific Maintaining
a) @PathParam d) Network-Specific Membership
b) @QueryParam View Answer
c) @MatrixParam
d) @HeaderParam Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: It is the before method of the
packet switching.
Answer: c
Explanation: @MatrixParam – Binds the 3. Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents
parameter passed to method to a HTTP matrix of a
parameter in path. a) Revolving table
b) Rotating Table
9. In REST architecture, a REST Server simply c) Routing Table
provides access to resources and REST client d) Re-allocate table
accesses and presents the resources. View Answer
a) False
b) True Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: This method is for creating the
shortest distances.
Answer: b
Explanation: In REST architecture, a REST 4. Several techniques can make size of routing
Server simply provides access to resources and table manageable and also handle issues such as
REST client accesses and presents the resources. a) Maturity
b) Error reporting
10. POST operations should be idempotent. c) Tunneling
a) True d) Security
b) False View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: To visible only accessing sub
Explanation: POST operation can cause different networks.
result.
5. Host-specific routing is used for purposes
1. Term is used to place packet in its route to its such as checking route or providing
destination is called a) Network Measures
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b) Security Measures Answer: a
c) Routing Measures Explanation: Reverse Path Forwarding.
d) Delivery Measures
View Answer 10. LSP stands for
a) Link Stable Packet
Answer: b b) Link State Packet
Explanation: Security measures. c) Link State Protocol
d) Link State Path
6. In Unicast routing, if instability is between View Answer
three nodes, stability cannot be
a) Stable Answer: b
b) Reversed Explanation: Link State Packet
c) Guaranteed
d) Forward 1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at
View Answer the
a) transport layer
Answer: c b) network layer
Explanation: It is only for unidirectional. c) application layer
d) session layer
7. In Unicast Routing, Dijkstra algorithm creates View Answer
a shortest path tree from a
a) Graph Answer: b
b) Tree Explanation: None.
c) Network
d) Link 2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the
View Answer a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
Answer: a c) IP payload
Explanation: Graph technique is used for best d) None of the mentioned
node finding technic with shortest path View Answer
algorithms.
Answer: a
8. In Multicast Routing Protocol, flooding is Explanation: None.
used to broadcast packets but it creates
a) Gaps 3. Network layer firewall works as a
b) Loops a) frame filter
c) Holes b) packet filter
d) Links c) both frame filter and packet filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Loops is for multicast routing. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. RPF stands for
a) Reverse Path Forwarding 4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories
b) Reverse Path Failure as
c) Reverse Packet Forwarding a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
d) Reverse Protocol Failure b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
View Answer c) frame firewall and packet firewall
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d) none of the mentioned a) international data encryption algorithm
View Answer b) private data encryption algorithm
c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
5. WPA2 is used for security in Answer: a

a) ethernet Explanation: None.
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi 10. When a DNS server accepts and uses
d) none of the mentioned incorrect information from a host that has no
View Answer authority giving that information, then it is
called
Answer: c a) DNS lookup
Explanation: None. b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
6. An attempt to make a computer resource d) None of the mentioned
unavailable to its intended users is called View Answer
a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack Answer: c
c) worms attack Explanation: None.
d) botnet process
View Answer 1. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called
as
Answer: a a) Link state protocol
Explanation: None. b) Error-correction protocol
c) Routing information protocol
7. Extensible authentication protocol is d) All of the mentioned
authentication framework frequently used in View Answer
a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks Answer: a
c) wired local area network Explanation: Each OSPF router monitors the
d) none of the mentioned cost of the link to each of its neighbours and
View Answer then floods the link state information to other
routers in the network. hence it is called so.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 2. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF
is usually done by
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in a) Bellman-ford algorithm
a) browser security b) Routing information protocol
b) email security c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
c) FTP security d) Distance vector routing
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: Shortest path in OSPF is usually
Explanation: None. computed by Dijkstra’s algorithm.
9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher 3. Which of the following is false with respect to
called the features of OSPF
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a) Support for fixed-length sunbathing by d) 2-1-3
including the subnet mask in the routing View Answer
message
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 Answer: b
to 65535 Explanation: None.
c) Use of designated router
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that 7. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect
have equal cost to the destination errors in the packet?
View Answer a) Type
b) Area ID
Answer: a c) Authentication type
Explanation: Support for variable-length d) Checksum
sunbathing by including the subnet mask in the View Answer
routing message.
Answer: c
4. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect
neighbour routers automatically? errors.
a) Link state protocol
b) Error-correction protocol 8. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if more
c) Routing information protocol database descriptor packet flows, ‘M’ field is set
d) Hello protocol to
View Answer a) 1
b) 0
Answer: d c) more
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover d) none
neighbour routers automatically. View Answer
5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF Answer: a

packet? Explanation: M bit is set to 1.
a) Hello
b) Link-state request 9. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which
c) Link-state response field is used to indicate that the router is master
d) Link-state ACK a) M
View Answer b) MS
c) I
Answer: c d) Options
Explanation: Five types of OSPF packets are: View Answer
Hello, Database description, Link-state request,
Link-state update, Link-state ACK. Answer: b
Explanation: MS bit is set if the router is master,
6. Correct order of the operations of OSPF otherwise slave.
1. Hello packets advertisement
2. Propagation of link-state information and
building of routing tables 10. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which
3. Establishing adjacencies and synchronisation field is used to detect a missing packet
database a) LSA header
b) MS
a) 1-2-3 c) Database descriptor sequence number
b) 1-3-2 d) Options
c) 3-2-1 View Answer
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Answer: c d) floods the LSA to the other routers
Explanation: Sequence number field is used to View Answer
detect a missing packet.
Answer: c
1. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA.
checks its sequence number, and this The router checks its sequence number and finds
number matches the sequence number of the that this number is lower than the sequence
LSA that the receiving router already has. number sends newer LSU update to source
What does the receiving router do with the router.
LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA 4. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default,
b) Adds it to the database how long does an LSA wait before requiring an
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router update?
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers a) 30 seconds
View Answer b) 1 minute
c) 30 minutes
Answer: a d) 1 hour
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA, View Answer
the router checks its sequence number, and this
number matches the sequence number of the Answer: c
LSA that the receiving router already has Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer.
Ignores the LSA. By default, 30 minutes does an LSA wait before
requiring an update.
2. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router
checks its sequence number and finds that 5. Distance vector protocols use the concept of
this number is higher than the sequence number split horizon, but link-state routing protocols,
it already has. Which two tasks does such as OSPF, do not.
the router perform with the LSA? a) True
a) Ignores the LSA b) False
b) Adds it to the database View Answer
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Distance vector protocols use the
concept of split horizon, but link-state routing
Answer: b protocols, such as OSPF, do not use this.
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA.
The router checks its sequence number and finds 6. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used
that this number is higher than the sequence to populate the __________
number Adds it to the database, Floods the LSA a) Topology table
to the other routers. b) Routing table
c) Neighbor table
3. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router d) Adjacency table
checks its sequence number and finds that View Answer
this number is lower than the sequence number
it already has. What does the router do Answer: b
with the LSA? Explanation: The outcome of Dijkstra’s
a) ignores the LSA calculation is used to populate the Routing table.
b) adds it to the database
c) sends newer LSU update to source router 7. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF
packets?
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a) 89 d) Two-way
b) 86 View Answer
c) 20
d) 76 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: DBD packets are involved during
which two states Exstart, Exchange.
Answer: a
Explanation: 89 is the IP protocol number for 12. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?
OSPF packets. a) 10 seconds
b) 30 seconds
8. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type? c) 30 minutes
a) LSU d) 1 hour
b) LSR View Answer
c) DBD
d) Query Answer: d
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Answer: d
Explanation: Query packet is NOT an OSPF 13. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF
packet type. packet header?
a) Packet length
9. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello b) Router ID
protocol use? c) Authentication type
a) 224.0.0.5 d) Maxage time
b) 224.0.0.6 View Answer
c) 224.0.0.7
d) 224.0.0.8 Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: Maxage timeis NOT a field within
an OSPF packet header.
Answer: a
Explanation: 224.0.0.5 is the multicast address 14. Which two commands are required for basic
does the OSPF Hello protocol use. OSPF configuration?
a) Network ip-address mask area area-id
10. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to b) Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-
ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained id
between adjacent routers. c) Router ospf process-id
a) True d) both Network ip-address wildcard-mask area
b) False area-id and Router ospf process-id
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: The Hello protocol sends periodic Explanation: Network ip-address wildcard-mask
updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is area area-id, Router ospf process-id are required
maintained between adjacent routers. for basic OSPF configuration.
11. DBD packets are involved during which two 15. Which OSPF show command describes a list
states? of OSPF adjacencies?
a) Exstart a) Show ipospf interface
b) Loading b) Show ipospf
c) Exchange c) Show ip route
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d) Show ipospf neighbor Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Routing table is used to route the
packets to their destinations.
Answer: d
Explanation: Show ipospf neighborOSPF show 5. The main contents of the routing table in
command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies. datagram networks are
a) Source and Destination address
1. Datagram switching is done at which layer of b) Destination address and Output port
OSI model? c) Source address and Output port
a) Network layer d) Input port and Output port
b) Physical layer View Answer
c) Application layer
d) Transport layer Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Routing table contains destination
address and output port to route the packets to
Answer: a their destinations.
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally
done at network layer. 6. Which of the following remains same in the
header of the packet in a datagram network
2. Packets in datagram switching are referred to during the entire journey of the packet?
as a) Destination address
a) Switches b) Source address
b) Segments c) Checksum
c) Datagrams d) Padding
d) Data-packets View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Destination address remains same
Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram in the header during the entire journey of the
switching packets are called as datagrams. packet.
3. Datagram networks mainly refers to 7. Which of the following is true with respect to
a) Connection oriented networks the delay in datagram networks?
b) Connection less networks a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit
c) Telephone networks network
d) Internetwork b) Each packet may experience a wait at a
View Answer switch
c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a
Answer: b message
Explanation: The switch does not keep the d) All of the mentioned
information about the connection state, hence it View Answer
is connection less.
Answer: d
4. Datagrams are routed to their destinations Explanation: All the options are true with
with the help of respect to the delay in datagram networks.
a) Switch table
b) Segments table 8. During datagram switching, the packets are
c) Datagram table placed in __________ to wait until the given
d) Routing table transmission line becomes available.
View Answer a) Stack
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b) Queue access to your internal, trusted network from
c) Hash outside threats.
d) Routing table
View Answer 2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories
as
Answer: b a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
Explanation: Packets are stored in queue during b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented
delay and are served as first in first out. firewall
c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
9. The probability of the error in a transmitted d) None of the mentioned
block _________ with the length of the block View Answer
a) Remains same
b) Decreases Answer: a
c) Increases Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can
d) None of the mentioned operate as stateful or stateless firewalls, creating
View Answer two subcategories of the standard network layer
firewall. Stateful firewalls have the advantage of
Answer: c being able to track packets over a period of time
Explanation: Probability of the error in a for greater analysis and accuracy — but they
transmitted block increases with the length of require more memory and operate more slowly.
the block. Stateless firewalls do not analyze past traffic and
can be useful for systems where speed is more
10. Which of the following is true with respect important than security, or for systems that have
to the datagram networks? very specific and limited needs. For example, a
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited computer that only needs to connect to a
b) Packets may not be in order at the destination particular backup server does not need the extra
c) Path is not reserved security of a stateful firewall.
View Answer 3. A firewall is installed at the point where the
secure internal network and untrusted external
Answer: d network meet which is also known as
Explanation: All are the facts with respect to the __________
datagram networks. a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
1. Network layer firewall works as a c) Firewall point
a) Frame filter d) Secure point
b) Packet filter View Answer
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a
midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or
Answer: b a combination of these that determines which
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are information or services can be accessed from the
available as hardware appliances, as software- outside and who is permitted to use the
only, or a combination of the two. In every case, information and services from outside.
the purpose of a firewall is to isolate your trusted Generally, a firewall is installed at the point
internal network (or your personal PC) from the where the secure internal network and untrusted
dangers of unknown resources on the Internet external network meet, which is also known as a
and other network connections that may be chokepoint.
harmful. The firewall prevents unauthorized
80
4. Which of the following is / are the types of assumed not to be secure or trusted.[2] Firewalls
firewall? are often categorized as either network firewalls
a) Packet Filtering Firewall or host-based firewalls.
b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
c) Screen Host Firewall 7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ
d) All of the mentioned with two firewalls?
View Answer a) You can control where traffic goes in three
networks
Answer: a b) You can do stateful packet filtering
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a c) You can do load balancing
midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a d) Improved network performance
router, or combination of these. Depending on View Answer
the requirements, a firewall can consist of one or
more of the following functional components: Answer: c
Packet-filtering router Explanation: In a topology with a single firewall
serving both internal and external users (LAN
5. A proxy firewall filters at? and WAN), it acts as a shared resource for these
a) Physical layer two zones.
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer 8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data
d) Application layer stream that has been divided into packets?
View Answer a) The source routing future
b) The number in the header’s identification
Answer: d field
Explanation: The application firewall is typically c) The destination IP address
built to control all network traffic on any layer d) The header checksum field in the packet
up to the application layer. It is able to control header
applications or services specifically, unlike a View Answer
stateful network firewall, which is – without
additional software – unable to control network Answer: a
traffic regarding a specific application. There are Explanation: source routing future.
two primary categories of application firewalls,
network-based application firewalls and host- 9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________
based application firewalls. which is a list of active connections?
a) Routing table
6. A packet filter firewall filters at? b) Bridging table
a) Physical layer c) State table
b) Data link layer d) Connection table
c) Network layer or Transport layer View Answer
d) Application layer
Explanation: Routing table with best
Answer: c performance
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a
network security system that monitors and 10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it
controls the incoming and outgoing network can grow with the network it protects
traffic based on predetermined security rules.[1] a) Robust
A firewall typically establishes a barrier between b) Expansive
a trusted, secure internal network and another c) Fast
outside network, such as the Internet, that is
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d) Scalable d) Security Management
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Expansive to block the fake Explanation: In Network Management System, a
subscribers. term that responsible for controlling access to
network based on predefined policy is called
1. Complex networks today are made up of security management.
hundreds and sometimes thousands of
a) Documents 5. Control of users’ access to network resources
b) Components through charges are main responsibilities of
c) Servers a) Reactive Fault Management
d) Entities b) Reconfigured Fault Management
View Answer c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
Explanation: Complex networks today are made
up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of Answer: c
components. Explanation: Control of users’ access to network
resources through charges are main
2. Performance management, is closely related responsibilities of accounting management.
to
a) Proactive Fault Management 6. The physical connection between an end point
b) Fault management and a switch or between two switches is
c) Reactive Fault Management a) Transmission path
d) None of the mentioned b) Virtual path
View Answer c) Virtual circuit
Explanation: Fault management is called the
performance management. Answer: a
Explanation:bThe physical connection between
3. Configuration management can be divided an end point and a switch or between two
into two subsystems: reconfiguration and switches is transmission path.
a) Documentation
b) Information 7. Which of the following networks supports
c) Servers pipelining effect?
d) Entity a) Circuit-switched networks
View Answer b) Message-switched networks
c) Packet-switched networks
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Documentation is the other type of View Answer
configuration management.
Answer: c
4. In Network Management System, a term that Explanation: Packet switched network is most
responsible for controlling access to network preferred for pipelining process.
based on predefined policy is called
a) Fault Management 8. In Network Management System, maps track
b) Secured Management each piece of hardware and its connection to the
c) Active Management a) IP Server
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b) Domain b) Nmap
c) Network c) Route
d) Data d) Ipconfig
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Network is main thing in Explanation: A ping sweep is a method that can
connecting different entities in a place. establish a range of IP addresses which map to
live hosts and are mostly used by network
9. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that scanning tools like nmap.
can be managed by
a) SMTP 3. ICMP is used in
b) UDP a) Ping
c) SNMP b) Traceroute
d) TCP/IP c) Ifconfig
View Answer d) Both Ping & Traceroute
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Simple network management Answer: d
controls the group of objects in management Explanation: None.
interface base.
4. __________ command is used to manipulate
10. A network management system can be TCP/IP routing table.
divided into a) route
a) three categories b) Ipconfig
b) five broad categories c) Ifconfig
c) seven broad categories d) Traceroute
d) ten broad categories View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: Five broad categories are
• Fault Management 5. If you want to find the number of routers
• Configuration Management between a source and destination, the utility to
• Accounting (Administration) be used is.
• Performance Management a) route
• Security Management. b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
1. Ping can d) Traceroute
a) Measure round-trip time View Answer
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
6. Which of the following is related to ipconfig
Answer: d in Microsoft Windows ?
Explanation: None. a) Display all current TCP/IP network
configuration values
2. Ping sweep is a part of b) Modify DHCP settings
a) Traceroute c) Modify DNS settings
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d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
Answer: d 3. MAC address is of

Explanation: None. 1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
7. This allows to check if a domain is available c) 42 bits
for registration. d) 48 bits
a) Domain Check View Answer
b) Domain Dossier
c) Domain Lookup Answer: d
View Answer
4. What is autonegotiation?
Answer: a a) a procedure by which two connected devices
Explanation: None. choose common transmission parameters
advertisement b) a security algorithm
c) a routing algorithm
8. Choose the wrong statement d) none of the mentioned
a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for View Answer
DNS data
b) Ping is used to check connectivity Answer: a
c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping Explanation: None.
with that of route
d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network 5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN)
interface parameters can be used as
View Answer a) pure ethernet
b) ethernet over SDH
Answer: c c) ethernet over MPLS
Explanation: Pathping combines the d) all of the mentioned
functionality of ping with that of traceroute View Answer
(tracert).
Answer: d
1. Ethernet frame consists of Explanation: None.
a) MAC address
b) IP address 6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a
c) both MAC address and IP address network protocol for
d) none of the mentioned a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet
View Answer frames
b) encapsulating ehternet framse inside PPP
Answer: a frames
Explanation: None. c) for security of ethernet frames
d) for security of PPP frames
2. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet View Answer
frame?
a) 10101010 Answer: a
b) 10101011 Explanation: None.
c) 00000000
d) 11111111 7. High speed ethernet works on
View Answer a) coaxial cable
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b) twisted pair cable Answer: a
c) optical fiber Explanation: None.
View Answer 2. In wireless ad-hoc network
a) access point is not required
Answer: c b) access point is must
Explanation: None. c) nodes are not required
8. The maximum size of payload field in View Answer
ethernet frame is
a) 1000 bytes Answer: a
b) 1200 bytes Explanation: None.
c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes 3. Which multiple access technique is used by
View Answer IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
Answer: d b) CSMA/CA
Explanation: None. c) ALOHA
9. What is interframe gap? View Answer
a) idle time between frames
b) idle time between frame bits Answer: b
c) idle time between packets Explanation: None.
View Answer 4. In wireless distribution system
a) multiple access point are inter-connected with
Answer: a each other
Explanation: None. b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE d) none of the mentioned
802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called View Answer
a) short frame
b) run frame Answer: a
c) mini frame Explanation: None.
d) man frame
View Answer 5. A wireless network interface controller can
work in
Answer: b a) infrastructure mode
Explanation: None. b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless d) none of the mentioned
LAN? View Answer
a) device that allows wireless devices to connect
to a wired network Answer: c
b) wireless devices itself Explanation: In infrastructure mode WNIC
c) both device that allows wireless devices to needs access point but in ad-hoc mode access
connect to a wired network and wireless devices point is not required.
itself
d) none of the mentioned 6. In wireless network an extended service set is
View Answer a set of
85
a) connected basic service sets 1. What is internet?
b) all stations a) a single network
c) all access points b) a vast collection of different networks
d) none of the mentioned c) interconnection of local area networks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
a) time division multiplexing 2. To join the internet, the computer has to be
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing connected to a
c) space division multiplexing a) internet architecture board
d) none of the mentioned b) internet society
View Answer c) internet service provider
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
8. Which one of the following event is not Explanation: None.
possible in wireless LAN.
a) collision detection 3. Internet access by transmitting digital data
b) acknowledgement of data frames over the wires of a local telephone network is
c) multi-mode data transmission provided by
d) none of the mentioned a) leased line
View Answer b) digital subscriber line
c) digital signal line
9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ? Answer: b

a) security algorithm for ethernet Explanation: None.
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication 4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their
d) none of the mentioned networks by
View Answer a) internet exchange point
b) subscriber end point
Answer: b c) isp end point
View Answer
10. What is WPA?
a) wi-fi protected access Answer: a
b) wired protected access Explanation: None.
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access 5. Which one of the following protocol is not
View Answer used in internet?
a) HTTP
Answer: a b) DHCP
Explanation: None. c) DNS
86
d) None of the mentioned a) ethernet
View Answer b) digital subscriber line
c) fiber distributed data interface
Answer: d d) none of the mentioned
6. IPv6 addressed have a size of Answer: d

a) 32 bits Explanation: None.
b) 64 bits
c) 128 bits 1. An interconnected collection of piconet is
d) 265 bits called
View Answer a) scatternet
b) micronet
Answer: c c) mininet
View Answer
7. Internet works on
a) packet switching Answer: a
b) circuit switching Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of
c) both packet switching and circuit switching bluetooth system having a master node and upto
d) none of the mentioned seven active slave nodes.
View Answer
2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________
Answer: a parked nodes in the net.
Explanation: None. a) 63
b) 127
8. Which one of the following is not an c) 255
application layer protocol used in internet? d) 511
a) remote procedure call View Answer
b) internet relay chat
c) resource reservation protocol Answer: c
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for
Answer: c a) local area network
Explanation: None. b) personal area network
c) both local area network and personal area
9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the network
client connected in the internet? d) none of the mentioned
a) DHCP View Answer
b) IP
c) RPC Answer: b
View Answer
4. Bluetooth uses
Answer: a a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
Explanation: None. b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
10. Which one of the following is not used in d) none of the mentioned
media access control? View Answer
87
Answer: a c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-
Explanation: None. multipoint connection
5. Unauthorised access of information from a View Answer
wireless device through a bluetooth connection
is called Answer: c
a) bluemaking Explanation: None.
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring 10. A scatternet can have maximum
d) none of the mentioned a) 10 piconets
View Answer b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
Answer: b d) 40 piconets
6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution Answer: a

profile)? Explanation: None.
a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video 1. WiMAX stands for
c) a bluetooth profile for security a) wireless maximum communication
d) none of the mentioned b) worldwide interoperability for microwave
View Answer access
c) worldwide international standard for
Answer: a microwave access
View Answer
7. In the piconet of bluetooth one master device
a) can not be slave Answer: b
b) can be slave in another piconet Explanation: None.
c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) none of the mentioned 2. WiMAX provides
View Answer a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
Answer: b c) full duplex communication
View Answer
8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in
______ band. Answer: c
a) 2.4 GHz ISM Explanation: None.
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM 3. WiMAX uses the
d) 2.7 GHz ISM a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
View Answer b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
Answer: a d) all of the mentioned
9. The bluetooth supports Answer: a

a) point-to-point connections Explanation: None.
b) point-to-multipoint connection
88
4. Which one of the following modulation Answer: a
scheme is supported by WiMAX? Explanation: None.
a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation 9. WiMAX is mostly used for
c) quadrature amplitude modulation a) local area network
d) all of the mentioned b) metropolitan area network
View Answer c) personal area network
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface Explanation: None.
between
a) higher transport layers and physical layer 10. Which one of the following frequency is not
b) application layer and network layer used in WiMAX for communication?
c) data link layer and network layer a) 2.3 GHz
d) none of the mentioned b) 2.4 GHz
View Answer c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
6. For encryption, WiMAX supports Explanation: None.
a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard 1. SONET stands for
c) both advanced encryption standard and triple a) synchronous optical network
data encryption standard b) synchronous operational network
d) none of the mentioned c) stream optical network
View Answer d) shell operational network
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. WiMAX provides
a) VoIP services 2. In SONET, STS-1 level of electrical
b) IPTV services signalling has the data rate of
c) Both VoIP services and IPTV services a) 51.84 Mbps
d) None of the mentioned b) 155.52 Mbps
View Answer c) 466.56 Mbps
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a Explanation: None.
WiMAX network are known as
a) subscriber stations 3. The path layer of SONET is responsible for
b) base stations the movement of a signal
c) gateway a) from its optical source to its optical
d) none of the mentioned destination
View Answer b) across a physical line
89
c) across a physical section Answer: c
View Answer
8. Automatic protection switching in linear
Answer: b network is defined at the
Explanation: None. a) line layer
b) section layer
4. The photonic layer of the SONET is similar to c) photonic layer
the __________ of OSI model. d) path layer
a) network layer View Answer
b) data link layer
c) physical layer Answer: a
View Answer
9. A unidirectional path switching ring is a
Answer: c network with
Explanation: None. a) one ring
b) two rings
5. In SONET, each synchronous transfer signal c) three rings
STS-n is composed of d) four rings
a) 2000 frames View Answer
b) 4000 frames
c) 8000 frames Answer: b
d) 16000 frames Explanation: One ring is used as the working
View Answer ring and other as the protection ring.
Answer: c 10. What is SDH?

Explanation: None. a) sdh is similar standard to SONET developed
by ITU-T
6. Which one of the following is not true about b) synchronous digital hierarchy
SONET? c) both sdh is similar standard to SONET
a) frames of lower rate can be synchronously developed by ITU-T and synchronous digital
time-division multiplexed into a higher-rate hierarchy
frame d) none of the mentioned
b) multiplexing is synchronous TDM View Answer
c) all clocks in the network are locked to a
master clock Answer: c
View Answer
1. Real-time transport protocol (RTP) is mostly
Answer: d used in
Explanation: None. a) streaming media
b) video teleconference
7. A linear SONET network can be c) television services
a) point-to-point d) all of the mentioned
b) multi-point View Answer
c) both point-to-point and multi-point
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
90
2. RTP is used to Answer: d
a) carry the media stream Explanation: None.
b) monitor transmission statistics of streams
c) monitor quality of service of streams 7. Which one of the following multimedia
d) none of the mentioned formats can not be supported by RTP?
View Answer a) MPEG-4
b) MJPEG
Answer: a c) MPEG
View Answer
3. RTP provides the facility of jitter
____________ Answer: d
a) media stream Explanation: None.
b) expansion
c) both media stream and expansion 8. An RTP header has a minimum size of
d) none of the mentioned a) 12 bytes
View Answer b) 16 bytes
c) 24 bytes
Answer: a d) 32 bytes
4. Which protocol provides the synchronization Answer: a

between media streams? Explanation: None.
a) RTP
b) RTCP 9. Which one of the following is not correct?
c) RPC a) RTCP provides canonical end-point
d) None of the mentioned identifiers to all session participants
View Answer b) RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all
participants
Answer: b c) RTCP itself does not provide any flow
Explanation: None. encryption or authentication methods
5. An RTP session is established for View Answer
a) each media stream
b) all media streams Answer: d
c) some predefined number of media streams Explanation: None.
View Answer 10. Which protocol defines a profile of RTP that
provides cryptographic services for the transfer
Answer: a of payload data?
Explanation: None. a) SRTP
b) RTCP
6. RTP can use c) RCP
a) unprevileleged UDP ports d) None of the mentioned
b) stream control transmission protocol View Answer
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) all of the mentioned Answer: a
91
1. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated c) both on the same computer and on different
by the computers connected with a network
a) server d) none of the mentioned
b) client View Answer
c) both server and client
d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: b 6. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by

Explanation: None. a) program number
b) version number
2. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, c) procedure number
the client is blocked d) all of the mentioned
a) unless the client sends an asynchronous View Answer
request to the server
b) unless the call processing is complete Answer: d
c) for the complete duration of the connection Explanation: None.
View Answer 7. An RPC application requires
a) specific protocol for client server
Answer: a communication
Explanation: None. b) a client program
c) a server program
3. Remote procedure calls is d) all of the mentioned
a) inter-process communication View Answer
b) a single process
c) a single thread Answer: d
View Answer
8. RPC is used to
Answer: a a) establish a server on remote machine that can
Explanation: None. respond to queries
b) retrieve information by calling a query
4. RPC allows a computer program to cause a c) both establish a server on remote machine that
subroutine to execute in can respond to queries and retrieve information
a) its own address space by calling a query
b) another address space d) none of the mentioned
c) both its own address space and another View Answer
address space
d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: b 9. RPC is a
Explanation: None. a) synchronous operation
b) asynchronous operation
5. RPC works between two processes. These c) time independent operation
processes must be d) none of the mentioned
a) on the same computer View Answer
b) on different computers connected with a
network
92
Answer: a 3. One of the most obvious places to put an IDS
Explanation: None. sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in
relation to the firewall is the most productive
10. The local operating system on the server placement?
machine passes the incoming packets to the a) Inside the firewall
a) server stub b) Outside the firewall
b) client stub c) Both inside and outside the firewall
c) client operating system d) Neither inside the firewall nor outside the
d) none of the mentioned firewall.
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: There are legitimate political,
budgetary and research reasons to want to see all
1. Which of the following is an advantage of the “attacks” against your connection, but given
anomaly detection? the care and feeding any IDS requires, do
a) Rules are easy to define yourself a favor and keep your NIDS sensors on
b) Custom protocols can be easily analyzed the inside of the firewall.
c) The engine can scale as the rule set grows
d) Malicious activity that falls within normal 4. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?
usage patterns is detected a) To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities
View Answer b) To help reduce false positives in a signature-
based IDS
Answer: c c) To randomly check suspicious traffic
Explanation: Once a protocol has been built and identified by an anomaly detection system
a behavior defined, the engine can scale more d) To enhance the accuracy of a traditional
quickly and easily than the signature-based honeypot
model because a new signature does not have to View Answer
be created for every attack and potential variant.
Answer: c
2. A false positive can be defined as… Explanation: “Shadow honeypots,” as
a) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a researchers call them, share all the same
system that, upon further inspection, turns out to characteristics of protected applications running
represent legitimate network traffic or behavior on both the server and client side of a network
b) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a and operate in conjunction with an ADS.
system that is not running on the network
c) The lack of an alert for nefarious activity 5. At which two traffic layers do most
d) Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity commercial IDSes generate signatures?
on a system that, upon further inspection, turns a) Application layer
out to represent legitimate network traffic or b) Network layer
behavior and An alert that indicates nefarious c) Transport layer
activity on a system that is not running on the d) both Transport layer and Network layer
network View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: Most commercial IDSes generate
Explanation: A false positive is any alert that signatures at the network and transport layers.
indicates nefarious activity on a system that,
upon further inspection, turns out to represent 6. An IDS follows a two-step process consisting
legitimate network traffic or behavior. of a passive component and an active
93
component. Which of the following is part of the a) Crossover error rate
active component? b) False negative rate
a) Inspection of password files to detect c) False positive rate
inadvisable passwords d) Bit error rate
b) Mechanisms put in place to reenact known View Answer
methods of attack and record system responses
c) Inspection of system to detect policy Answer: a
violations Explanation: As the sensitivity of systems may
d) Inspection of configuration files to detect cause the false positive/negative rates to vary,
inadvisable settings it’s critical to have some common measure that
View Answer may be applied across the board.
Answer: b 10. Which of the following is true of signature-

Explanation: Second component of mechanisms based IDSes?
are set in place to reenact known methods of a) They alert administrators to deviations from
attack and to record system responses. “normal” traffic behavior
b) They identify previously unknown attacks
7. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a c) The technology is mature and reliable enough
signature? to use on production networks
a) An electronic signature used to authenticate d) They scan network traffic or packets to
the identity of a user on the network identify matches with attack-definition files
b) Attack-definition file View Answer
c) It refers to “normal,” baseline network
behavior Answer: d
d) None of the above Explanation: They are constantly updated with
View Answer attack-definition files (signatures) that describe
each type of known malicious activity. They
Answer: b then scan network traffic for packets that match
Explanation: IDSes work in a manner similar to the signatures, and then raise alerts to security
modern antivirus technology. They are administrators.
constantly updated with attack-definition files
(signatures) that describe each type of known 1. Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer
malicious activity. protocols.
a) True
8. “Semantics-aware” signatures automatically b) False
generated by Nemean are based on traffic at View Answer
which two layers?
a) Application layer Answer: a
b) Network layer Explanation: Both HDLC and PPP both are Data
c) Session layer link layer protocol.
d) both Application layer and Session layer
View Answer 2. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide
for handling the capabilities of the
Answer: d connection/link on the network?
Explanation: Nemean automatically generates a) LCP
“semantics-aware” signatures based on traffic at b) NCP
the session and application layers. c) Both LCP and NCP
d) TCP
9. Which of the following is used to provide a View Answer
baseline measure for comparison of IDSes?
94
Answer: c 6. The PPP encapsulation
Explanation: LCP and NCP are the PPP protocol a) Provides for multiplexing of different
provide for handling the capabilities of the network-layer protocols
connection/link on the network. b) Requires framing to indicate the beginning
and end of the encapsulation
3. The PPP protocol c) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-
a) Is designed for simple links which transport link connection
packets between two peers d) None of the mentioned
b) Is one of the protocols for making an Internet View Answer
connection over a phone line
c) Both Is designed for simple links which Answer: a
transport packets between two peers & Is one of Explanation: The PPP encapsulationprovides for
the protocols for making an Internet connection multiplexing of different network-layer
over a phone line protocols.
View Answer 7. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for
a) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-
Answer: c link connection
Explanation: The PPP protocolis designed for b) Establishing and configuring different
simple links which transport packets between network-layer protocols
two peers and one of the protocols for making an c) Testing the different network-layer protocols
Internet connection over a phone line. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
4. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP
suite. Answer: a
a) Link Explanation: A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is
b) Network used for establishing, configuring and testing the
c) Transport data-link connection.
d) Application
View Answer 8. A family of network control protocols (NCPs)
a) Are a series of independently defined
Answer: a protocols that provide a dynamic
Explanation: PPP provides thelinklayer in the b) Are a series of independently-defined
TCP/IP suite. protocols that encapsulate
c) Are a series of independently defined
5. PPP consists of ________components protocols that provide transparent
a) Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name d) The same as NFS
system) View Answer
b) Three ( encapsulating, a link control protocol,
NCP ) Answer: b
c) Two ( a link control protocol, Simple Explanation: A family of network control
Network Control protocol) protocols (NCPs)are a series of independently-
d) None of the mentioned defined protocols that encapsulate.
View Answer
9. Choose one from the following
Answer: b a) PPP can terminate the link at any time
Explanation: PPP consists of three b) PPP can terminate the link only during the
(encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP) link establishment phase
Components. c) PPP can terminate the link during the
authentication phase
95
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: VLSM/subnetting, Auto summary,
Unequal cast load balancing.
Answer: a
Explanation: PPP can terminate the link at any 4. EIGRP send the hello message after every
time because it works on the data link layer ___________ seconds
protocol. a) 5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)
b) 5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN)
10. The link necessarily begins and ends with c) 15s
this phase. During this phase, the LCP automata d) 180s
will be in INITIAL or STARTING states View Answer
a) Link-termination phase
b) Link establishment phase Answer: a
c) Authentication phase Explanation: EIGRP send the hello message
d) Link dead phase after every5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds
View Answer (WAN).
Answer: d 5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is

Explanation: The link necessarily begins and ______
ends with this phase. During this phase, the LCP a) 90
automata will be in INITIAL or STARTING b) 170
states link dead phase. c) 110
d) 91
1. EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by Cisco. View Answer
(Yes/No)?
a) Yes Answer: a
b) No Explanation: Administrative distance for internal
View Answer EIGRP is 90.
Answer: a 6. The EIGRP metric values include:

Explanation: EIGRP is a routing Protocol design a) Delay
by Cisco. b) Bandwidth
c) MTU
2. EIGRP metric is ________ d) All of the above
a) K-values View Answer
b) Bandwidth only
c) Hop Count Answer: d
d) Delay only Explanation: The EIGRP metric values are
View Answer Delay, Bandwidth, and MTU.
Answer: a 7. For default gateway you will use which of

Explanation: EIGRP metric is K-values. following command on Cisco router?
a) IP default network
3. EIGRP can support ____________ b) IP default gateway
a) VLSM/subnetting c) IP default route
b) Auto summary d) Default network
c) Unequal cast load balancing View Answer
d) All od the above
View Answer
96
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: IP default network command used Explanation: File server allows LAN users to
in default gateway in Cisco router. share computer programs and data.
8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP 2. STP stands for

route is _______ a) Shielded twisted pair cable
a) 90 b) Spanning tree protocol
b) 170 c) Static transport protocol
c) 110 d) None of the mentioned
d) 100 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: STP stands for Shielded twisted
Explanation: Administrative distance for pair cable.
external EIGRP route is 170.
3. A standalone program that has been modified
9. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for to work on a LAN by including concurrency
finding shortest path. controls such as file and record locking is an
a) SPF example of ___________
b) DUAL a) LAN intrinsic software
c) Linkstat b) LAN aware software
d) Dikstraalgo c) Groupware
View Answer d) LAN ignorant software
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm Answer: a
for finding shortest path. Explanation: A standalone program that has
been modified to work on a LAN by including
10. In EIGRP best path is known as the concurrency controls such as file and record
successor, where as backup path is known as locking is an example of LAN intrinsic software.
__________
a) Feasible successor 4. The __________ portion of LAN
b) Back-up route management software restricts access, records
c) Default route user activities and audit data etc.
d) There is no backup route in EIGRP a) Configuration management
View Answer b) Security management
c) Performance management
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Feasible successor is the backup View Answer
path.
Answer: b
1. _____________ allows LAN users to share Explanation: The Security management portion
computer programs and data. of LAN management software restricts access,
a) Communication server records user activities and audit data etc.
b) Print server
c) File server 5. What is the max cable length of STP?
d) Network a) 100 ft
View Answer b) 200 ft
c) 100 m
97
d) 200 m 10. Which of the following architecture uses
View Answer CSMA/CD access method?
a) ARC net
Answer: d b) Ethernet
Explanation: 200m is the max cable length of c) Router
STP. d) STP server
View Answer
6. What is the max data capacity of STP?
a) 10 mbps Answer: b
b) 100 mbps Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA/CD access
c) 1000 mbps method.
d) 10000 mbps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 100 mbps is the max data capacity
of STP.
7. Which connector STP uses?

a) BNC
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45
d) RJ-69
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable.
8. What is the central device in star topology?

a) STP server
b) Hub/switch
c) PDC
d) Router
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hub/switch is the central device in
star topology.
9. What is max data capacity for optical fiber

cable?
a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1000 mbps is max data capacity for
optical fiber cable.
98

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Computer Network and Database Answer: d

Explanation: Data flows in single direction.

6. Bluetooth is an example of Answer: a

7. A __________ is a device that forwards Answer: b

3. The function of DSLAM is 7. Among the optical-distribution architectures

Answer: d 5. Transport layer is implemented in

11. Identify the statement which cannot be Answer: a

Answer: d 9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals

9. Which one of the following is the multiple Answer: d

Answer: a 5. Data communication system within a building

3. Which multiplexing technique transmits 7. Multiplexing can provide

Answer: a 4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L =

2. UTP is commonly used in Answer: b

1. This is not a application layer protocol Answer: a

2. The packet of information at the application Answer: c

3. This is one of the architecture paradigm Answer: d

Answer: d 3. Application layer protocol defines

Answer: d 5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

9. The HTTP response message leaves out the Answer: a

7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using Answer: b

Answer: d 10. The password is sent to the server using

Answer: a 1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail

Answer: c 7. Internet mail places each object in

Answer: a 8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is

3. SMTP uses the TCP port Answer:d

2. A DNS client is called Answer:a

3. Servers handle requests for other domains Answer:b

6. Extensible authentication protocol is 1. A ___________ is an extension of an

7. In segment header, sequence number and Answer: c

Answer: b 4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.

9. In computer security… means that the Answer: c

5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is 9. Which of this is not a class of IP address?

Answer: a 9. Two machines can use the timestamp request

1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to Answer: d

Answer: c 6. ___________ is necessary when the sender

Answer: b 7. Header translation uses ___________ to

Answer: c 7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is

Answer: a 9. _________ is a collective term for a number

Answer: a 10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic

3. Which two statements describe the IP address

6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets Answer: a

Answer: b 5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?

Answer: b 4. HTTP client requests by establishing a

3. In the network HTTP resources are located by Answer: b

Answer: d 7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to

5. Which of the following defines the Cookie Answer: b

5. WPA2 is used for security in Answer: a

5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF Answer: a

Answer: d 3. MAC address is of

9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ? Answer: b

6. IPv6 addressed have a size of Answer: d

6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution Answer: a

9. The bluetooth supports Answer: a

Answer: c 10. What is SDH?

4. Which protocol provides the synchronization Answer: a

Answer: b 6. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by

Answer: b 10. Which of the following is true of signature-

Answer: d 5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is

Answer: a 6. The EIGRP metric values include:

Answer: a 7. For default gateway you will use which of

8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP 2. STP stands for

7. Which connector STP uses?

8. What is the central device in star topology?