500 Indian Polity MCQs - MCQs PR - DemyNotes

500 MCQs
Evaluate yourself on Indian Polity
PREFACE
The book contains 500 Multiple choice questions on issues of
Indian Polity 2017. This is the 1st part of a two part series.The
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THE CHAPTERS COVERED

Parliament
President
Prime Minister
Emergency Provisions
Central Government
Citizenship
Vice-President
Central Council of Ministers
Cabinet Committees
The Constitution
Salient Features of the Constitution
Union and its Territory
Fundamental Rights
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties
Amendment of the Constitution
Basic Structure of the Constitution
Federal System
Centre–State Relations
Inter-State Relation
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otherwise, without prior permission of DemyNotes.
1)Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Feature of Indian constitution borrowed from countries
1. Council of Ministers responsible to Lower House UK
2. Executive head of state known as President and his being the U.S.
Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces
3. Vice- President as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha U.S.
4. Five year plan Russia
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
Correct Answer is B (All are correct )

2) Consider the following statements with respect to lapsing of the bill...
1. A bill pending in Lok Sabha, which originated in Lok Sabha lapses
2. A bill pending in Lok Sabha, which is given to it by Rajya Sabha
also lapses
3. A bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha lapses
Which of the above correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C ( When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business

including bills, resolutions, motions , notices, petitions and so on pending
before it lapse. Such Bills must be reintroduced in the newly-constituted Lok
Sabha to be pursued further. )
3) Which statement/statements is/are correct?
1. Adjournment terminates the sitting and not the session; However,
on the contrary, prorogation terminates the sitting and the session
both
2. Adjournment is done by the presiding officer while prorogation is
done by President
3. Adjournment does affect the bills or any other pending business,
While prorogation does not affect the bills, but the pending notices
lapse
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (Adjournment does not affect the bills or any other
pending business, While prorogation does not affect the bills, but the pending
notices lapse)
4) What is the number determined for the quorum?
(a) 1/5 of the total number in each house
(b) 1/10th of the total number in each house
(c) 1/10th of the total number in each house including the
presiding officer
(d) 1/5th of the total number in each house, including the presiding
Officer
Correct Answer is C (1/10th of the total number in each house including the
presiding officer.)
1. Constitution has declared English as the languages for
transacting business
2. The presiding officer can allow a mother tongue to a member to
address the house
3. Official language act-1963 allowed english language to be
continued with Hindi language
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (All are Correct.)

6) Which of the following comes first in the Parliament sitting?
(a) Starred Question
(b) Zero Hour
(c) Agenda
(d) Question hour
Correct Answer is D (Question hour)

7) How many days notices are required in the case of short notice question?
(a) 5 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 15 days
Correct Answer is D (15 days’ notice is given in the case of short notice
question.)
1. A minister in the LokSabha cannot participate in the proceedings
of the Rajya Sabha
2. The members who are not elected in the new Lok Sabha are called
the lame-ducks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below...

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
(d) Both of the above
Correct Answer is B (A minister in the LokSabha can also participate in the

proceedings of the Rajya Sabha)
1. Starred questions can be answered orally
2. Unstarred questions are answered in written form
3. Short notice questions are answered in writing
Which of the statements given above is are correct...

(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (Short notice questions are answered orally.)
10) where does the question hour mention?
(a) Representative of people act
(b) Rules of procedure
(c) Constitution
(d) None of the above
Correct Answer is A (Representative of people act)

11) When does the zero hour come?
(a) After the question hour
(b) After the agenda
(c) Before the question hour
(d) Before the agenda
Correct Answer is A (The time between the question hour and that agenda is
called the zero hour.)
12) Which of the following is/are not a motion:
1. Substantive motion
2. Substitute motion
3. Subsidiary motion
Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is D (All these motions exist.)

1. In Half-an-Hour Discussion, the matter of sufficient public
importance are discussed.
2. Speaker can allow three days in a week Half-an-Hour
Discussion.
3. Short Duration Discussion is known as two hour discussion.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (All are Correct.)

14) Which motion has ancillary motion, superseding motion an amendment
as the three subcategories?
(a) Subsidiary motion
(b) Substitute motion
(c) Substantive motion
(d) Suspensive Motion
Correct Answer is A (Subsidiary motion.)

1. Closure motion is used by member to cut short the debate.
2. Simple closure is a type of Closure motion
3. In Kangaroo closure, important clauses are taken for the day and
intervening clauses are skipped
4. In Guillotine closure, the clauses which remained
undiscussed are passed

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D ( Closure by Compartments: In this case, the clauses
of a bill or a lengthy resolution are grouped into parts before the
commencement of the debate. The debate covers the part as a whole and the
entire part is put to vote. .)
16) Where does the calling attention motion mention?
(a) Constitution
(b) Representative People's Act 1951
(c) Representative People's Act 1950
(d) Rules of procedure
Correct Answer is D(Calling attention motion is an Indian invention just like

the zero hour. In this, Issues which are urgent and are of public importance
are discussed.)
17) How many members need to support an adjournment motion so that it
could be admitted?
(a) 10 members
(b) 100 members
(c) 20 members
(d) 50 members
Correct Answer is 50 members (50 members.)

1. Censure motion should not state the reason of its adoption,
Which is not in the case of no confidence motion
2. Censure motion can be against one minister or more, or even
against the entire council; On the contrary, no-confidence motion is
always against the Council of ministers
3. If the Lok Sabha passes, in censure motion Council of ministers
need not resign; However, in the case of no-confidence
motion Council of ministers must resign
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is B (Censure motion should state the reason of its adoption.
Which is not in the case of no-confidence motion.)
1. No-Day-Yet-Named Motion is a motion that has been admitted
by the President
2. A member can escalate a point of order when the proceedings of
the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure
3. A Debate is allowed on a point of order.

(a) only 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (No debate is allowed on a point of order. No-Day-Yet-

Named Motion is a motion that has been admitted by the Speaker.)
20) Who addresses the first session after each general election and
procession every fiscal year?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) Chairman
(d) Speaker
Correct Answer is B (The President)

21) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1 Public Servants Enquiry act 1850
2 Indian Penal Code 1860
3 Delhi Police Establishment Act 1946
4 All India Service conduct rules 1968
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
d) Both of the Above
D is the Correct Answer (All are correct.)

22) Consider the following statements:
1. Speaker can decide whether bill is money bill or otherwise, the
Chairman cannot do so
2. Speaker can preside over joint sitting which Chairman cannot do
3. In the case of resignation or removal, speaker can vote on the
first instance, while the chairman cannot do so

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

1. Speaker is a member of the house
2. Chairman is also a member of the house
3. Deputy chairman is subordinate to chairman
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (Chairman is not a member of the house. Deputy

chairman is not subordinate to chairman)
24) Who is called the leader of the house?
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Leader of opposition
Correct Answer is Prime Minister (In American setup, the leader of the house
is known as Majority Leader.)
1. The leader of opposition comes from the party having not less
than 1/10th of the seats of the total strength of the house
2. The leader of opposition is known as minority leader in
American setup
3. The concept of Shadow Cabinet is practiced by US political
system
4. The Deputy Prime Minister is sometimes referred as
alternative Prime Minister

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is B (The concept of Shadow Cabinet is practiced by British

political system. The leader of opposition is sometimes referred as
alternative Prime Minister)
26) Which of the following is applicable over Lok Sabha only?
(a) Adjournment
(b) Prorogued
(c) Dissolution
(d) Adjournment Sine Die
Correct Answer is C (Dissolution is applicable on Loksabha only.)

27) After how many years, automatic dissolution takes place ?
(a) 1 Year
(b) 2 Years
(c) 5 years
(d) 3 Years
Correct Answer is C (The time period can be extended to the National

emergency is implemented.)
1. The terminologies such as “Leader of opposition” is not
mentioned in the Constitution of India
2. “Leader of the house” as a terminology is mentioned in the
Constitution of India
3. The “Office of Whip” is not mentioned anywhere in the
Constitution of India

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C (The leader of the house and the leader of the opposition
are not mentioned in the Constitution of India. However, they are mentioning
rules of the house and Parliamentary statute respectively. Furthermore, the
office of the whip is neither mentioned in the rule of the house nor in
the Parliamentary statute. the office of Whip is merely a convention.)
1. The maximum gap in two Parliament session can be of
six months.
2. There are usually three sessions in the year.
3. It is said that Parliament should meet at least twice in a year.

(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (The three sessions are Budget session, monsoon session
and the winter session Which are transpired throughout the year.)
30) Which of the following terminates the sitting of Parliament for an
indefinite period?
(a) Adjournment Sine Die
(b) Adjournment
(c) Prorogation
(d) Suspension
Correct Answer is A (Adjournment Sine Die.)

31) The resolution of removal of Speaker is considered when it is supported
by_____ members?
(a) 50 members
(b) 20 members
(c) 100 members
(d) 25 members
Correct Answer is 50 members (50 members)

1. The salary and allowances of the speaker are decided by the
Parliament and charged from consolidated fund of India
2. Speaker's working conduct cannot be discussed in the Lok
Sabha in any case
3. Speaker can vote only in the case of tie, he/she cannot vote in
the first instance.

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (Speaker's working conduct cannot be discussed in the

Lok Sabha, except in the case of substantive motion.)
1. Speaker is a non-partisan member
2. Speaker is provided with a security of tenure
3. Speaker can be removed by a resolution which is passed by
absolute majority in the Lok Sabha
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

34) In order of precedence, Which of the following is the rank conferred
upon the Speaker?
(a) 5th
(b) 7th
(c) 3rd
(d) 6th
Correct Answer is 7th (In order of precedence, Speaker's rank is 7th.)

1. Deputy Speaker is elected in Lok Sabha
2. Deputy Speaker can never preside the joint sitting of both the
houses in any case
3. Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker
4. Deputy speaker cannot vote in the first instance when presiding
over the house

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is A (Deputy Speaker may preside the joint sitting of both
the houses when the speaker is absent. Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to
the Speaker. When the speaker is presiding then the Deputy Speaker sits just
like any other member of the house.)
36) In which of the following Lok Sabha, it was decided that speaker comes
from the ruling party and Deputy Speaker comes from the opposition party?
(a) 9th Lok Sabha
(b) 10th Lok Sabha
(c) 11th Lok Sabha
(d) 12th Lok Sabha
Correct Answer is C (Up to 10 Lok Sabha, both the speaker and the Deputy
Speaker used to be appointed from the ruling party.)
37) How many maximum number of chairpersons can be nominated by the
Speaker, who could preside in his absence and the absence of Deputy
Speaker?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
Correct Answer is B (10 Chairperson can be nominated by the speaker.)

1. The institution of speaker originated in 1910 under the provision
of Government of India act 1909.
2. Before 1921, Governor-general of India used to preside on
Central legislative Council meetings.
3. In 1921, Fredrick Whyte was the first speaker appointed by the
Governor-general of India.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is B (The institution of speaker originated in 1921 under the

provision of Government of India act 1919)
1. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar became the first speaker of Central's
legislative assembly.
2. GV Mavlankar was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha.
3. VithalBhai Patel was the first Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(a) only 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (VithalBhai Patel became the first speaker of Central's

legislative assembly. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was the first Deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha.)
40) Which of the following was the first Deputy Speaker of Central's
legislative assembly?
(a) Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
(b) Sachidanand Sinha
(c) GV Mavlankar
(d) VithalBhai Patel
Correct Answer is B (Sachidanand Sinha)

41) A member inif sits in the house before taking the prescribed oath or
affirmation then how much penalty he or she is supposed to bear?
(a) 1000
(b) 500
(c) No fine
(d) 10000
Correct Answer is B (A penalty of 500 rupees is imposed on the member.)

1. There is no provision of pension for the speaker in the
Constitution.
2. The salary and allowances of Speaker and chairman are charged
from the consolidated fund of India.
3. The salary and allowances of Speaker and chairman are subject
to annual vote of Parliament.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A(The salary and allowances of Speaker and chairman are
not subject to annual vote of Parliament.)
1. Speaker can preside in the house when a resolution for his
removal is under consideration.
2. Speaker does not vacate the seat whenever the Lok Sabha
dissolves.
3. The principal spokesman of the houses is the Speaker.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (Speaker cannot preside in the house when a resolution

for his removal is under consideration. Speaker remains there till the time
newly Elected Lok Sabha meets.)
44) Who of the following fix the date of election of the Speaker?
(a) The speaker himself
(b) Chairman
(c) The President
(d) Lok Sabha
Correct Answer is C (The President decides the date of election of the
Speaker)
1. Speaker can allow a secret meeting of the house if the leader of
the house requests so.
2. Speaker of the house has the power to determine whether a bill
is money bill or otherwise
3. Sspeaker decides on the question of disqualification of a
member of Lok Sabha.
4. Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of member
does not come under the purview of judicial review.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is A (Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of

a member comes under the purview of judicial review as per 10th schedule.)
46) Which of the following preside over a joint sitting which is summoned by
President?
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chairman
Correct Answer is Speaker (Speaker himself presides over the joint sitting.)
47) Which of the following is the final interpreter of the provision of
Constitution of India within the house?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) CJI (Chief Justice of India)
(d) Speaker
Correct Answer is D (Within the house, Speaker is the final interpreter of the
provisions of the Constitution.)
48) Which of the following source or sources a speaker derives his or her
power from?
1. Constitution of India
2. Parliamentary conventions
3. Rules of procedure and conduct of business of Lok Sabha

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D (All the three sources.)

49) Which of the following committee or committees, a Speaker is chairman
of?
1. Business advisory committee
2. The rules committee
3. General-purpose committee

(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (All the aforementioned committees.)

50) Which of the following is the chairman of all the Parliamentary
committees of the Lok Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Minister
Correct Answer is B (Speaker is the chairman of parliamentary committees,

while home Minister is the chairman of Parliamentary affairs committee.)
51) Which of the following age is demarcated to be qualified as a member of
Rajya Sabha?
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 21
(d) 35
Correct Answer is 30 (30 years is the age in the case of Rajya Sabha and 25
in the case of Lok Sabha.)
1. A candidate contesting election from Rajya Sabha should be an
electoral in that state.
2. If a member is convicted for any offence which caused the
imprisonment for two or more years than he or she will be
disqualified.
3. A candidate can be disqualified if he or she fails to lodge an
account of his or her election expenses.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (A candidate contesting election from Rajya Sabha need
not be an electoral in that state. Earlier, it was mandatory for the candidate to
come from the same state. However, this condition was dispensed in 2003.)
53) Under defection law, when can a candidate be disqualified?
1. If he voluntary gives up membership of the party he fought for.
2. He votes contrary to the direction of the party.
3. Independently elected member joins any political party.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (Nominated member joins any political party after the
expiry of six months will also lead to disqualification.)
54) After how many days a seat can be declared vacant if a member remains
absent?
(a) 365 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 28 days
Correct Answer is B (However, if the house is prorogued or adjourned for 4

consecutive days, then the same is not counted while computing 60 days.)
55) Which of the following social crime if the candidate is punished for
preaching and practicing, leads to disqualification?
1. Dowry
2. Sati
3. Untouchability

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (The person can be disqualified if he or she is punished

for preaching and practicing social crimes such as Sati, untouchability or
dowry.)
56) Which of the following schedule is related to the defection?
(a) 10th schedule
(b) 9th schedule
(c) 8th schedule
(d) 7th schedule
Correct Answer is A (10th schedule)

57) Which of the following authority can declare an election void if
disqualified candidate is elected?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Speaker
(c) High Court
(d) President
Correct Answer is High Court (Representation of the people act, 1951

enables the High Court to declare an election void in case disqualified
candidate is elected. The aggrieved party can appeal in the supreme court.)
1. Any individual cannot be a member of the both the house
simultaneously.
2. If anyone is elected to both the houses, he is supposed to
intimate within 10 days about the house he wants to serve.
3. If a sitting member of one house is also elected on the other then
the seat in the first house becomes vacant.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D (Apart from this, if a person is elected on two seats in

the house, he should choose one. Otherwise both the seats will become
vacant.)
1. A person cannot be a member of Parliament and State
Legislature simultaneously
2. Elected member in parliament and state legislature gets a time of
7 days to resign from state legislature
3. If the elected person fails to resign, his seat in the Parliament
becomes vacant

(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (Elected member in parliament and state legislature gets

a time of 14 days to resign from state legislature.)
60) Which of the following authority provides an oath of affirmation to the
member of Parliament?
(a) The President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Chairman
Correct Answer is The President (The President)
61) Which of the following union territory has the representation in Rajya
Sabha?
(a) Puducherry
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Andaman
(d) Chandigarh
Correct Answer is Puducherry (Only, Puducherry and Delhi have the

representation in Rajya Sabha.)
1. The Constitution adopted proportional representation system in
Lok Sabha
2. The Constitution adopted territorial representation system in
Rajya Sabha
3. Single transferable vote system is adopted in the elections of
Rajya Sabha, President, Vice president and Legislative Council.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (The Constitution adopted proportional representation

system in Rajya Sabha. The Constitution adopted territorial representation
system in Lok Sabha.)
1. Rajya Sabha is considered as a continuing chamber, where 1/3rd
of the members are retired every second year.
2. The retiring members are not eligible for re-election.
3. In the first batch of Rajya Sabha, a lottery system was used to
determine the members who would retire.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (The retiring members are eligible for re-election.)

64) Once an emergency comes to cease, how long the extension for the Lok
Sabha can run?
(a) 1 Year
(b) 3 Months
(c) Indefinite
(d) 6 months
Correct Answer is D (6 months)

65) Which statement/statements is/are correct with respect to special
knowledge of nominated members in the Rajya Sabha, the nominated
members can come from?
1. Art
2. Science
3. Literature
4. Social science

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (All are correct)

66) Which of the following is the number which represents Lok Sabha
members as representatives of the states?
(a) 530
(b) 550
(c) 552
(d) 545
Correct Answer is 530 (530 members come from state. The maximum limit
of the members is 550 and at present there are 545 members who sit in the
Loksabha.)
67) Which of the following constitutional amendment act reduced the age of
voting from 21 to 18?
(a) 60th constitutional amendment act
(b) 61st constitutional amendment act
(c) 62nd constitutional amendment act
(d) 63rd constitutional amendment act
Correct Answer is B (61st constitutional amendment act)

1. 84th constitutional amendment act extended the provision of
reservation till 2020.
2. 84th constitutional amendment act of 2001, opted for re-fixing
of the reserved seats taking 1991 population figures as base.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None
(d) Both of the above
Correct Answer is B ( The Constitution (Ninety-fifth Amendment) Act, 2009, extended the
period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and representation of
the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years, i.e. up
to 26 January 2020 .)

1. The delimitation act has enacted 4 times so far.
2. 42nd constitutional amendment act froze the allocation of seats
in the Lok Sabha till 2000 at 1971 level.
3. 84th Constitutional amendment act changed the year 2000 for
25 more years, till 2026.

(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C ( 84th constitutional amendment act came in 2001. The

act also empowers the government to go for readjustment and rationalisation
of territorial constituencies.)
70) Which of the following amendment extended the duration of two
members in Lok Sabha coming from an Anglo-Indian community to 2020?
(a) 94th constitutional amendment act 2009
(b) 91st constitutional amendment act 2009
(c) 90th constitutional amendment act 2009
(d) 95th constitutional amendment act 2009
Correct Answer is D (95th constitutional amendment act 2009.)

71) what is the membership number of Cabinet committee?
(a) 2
(b) 3 to 8
(c) 5 to 7
(d) 10
Correct Answer is B (Cabinet committees generally include only the Cabinet
ministers.)
1. The Cabinet committee is an extra constitutional in
the emergence
2. Standing committee and ad hoc committee are parts of Cabinet
committee
3. Cabinet committees are set up by the President
Which of the above correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (Cabinet committees are set up by the Prime Minister)

1. The decisions of the Cabinet committee cannot be reviewed by
Cabinet.
2. Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters
pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
3. Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of
government business in the Parliament.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (The decisions of the Cabinet committee can be
reviewed by Cabinet.)
74) Which of the following authority heads the political affairs committee?
(a) Home Minister
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Leader of Opposition
Correct Answer is Prime Minister (The political affairs committee is
considered as the most powerful committee of all.)
1. At present, the Rajya Sabha has 229 members from the states.
2. Rajya Sabha can have 12 nominated members.
3. President is the authority to nominate the members in the Rajya
Sabha.
4. In Rajya Sabha, the states are represented by proportional
representation and single transferable vote.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (Unlike America, In India different number of members
comes from different states. For instance, from Uttar Pradesh 31 members,
and from Tripura only one member comes.)
76) Which of the following authority chairs the Parliamentary affairs

committee?
(a) Home Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Leader of Opposition
Correct Answer is Home Minister (Home Minister)
77) Which of the following heads the appointment committee in higher
offices such as Central Secretariat?
(a) Leader of Opposition
(b) Home Minister
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Correct Answer is Prime Minister (Appointment committee deals with
appointments at a higher level, such as appointments in Central Secretariat
public enterprises, banks and financial institutions)
1. Part V of the Constitution deals with Parliament and its
organisation.
2. President of India is neither a member of Lok Sabha nor Rajya
Sabha.
3. In context of Parliament, India has modeled on British pattern.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D (All are correct.)
1. Group of ministers (GoM) is an ad hoc body.
2. GoM can give its recommendations the Cabinet.
3. GoM cannot take decisions on behalf of the Cabinet.
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (GoM can also take decisions on behalf of the Cabinet.)
80) Which of the following chairs the economic affairs committee?
(a) President
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Home Minister
(d) Prime Minister
Correct Answer is Prime Minister (Economic Affairs committee deals with
government activities in the economic sphere.)
81) Which of the following is the political head of the services?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Home Minister
Correct Answer is Prime Minister (Prime Minister)
1. The oath of office and secrecy for the Prime Minister is similar
to that of union ministers
2. Council of ministers including the Prime Minister should not
exceed 15% of the strength of Lok Sabha in number
3. All executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the
name of Prime Minister
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (All executive actions of the Government of India are
taken in the name of President. The 15% strength limit was added by 91st
Constitutional Amendment act.)
1. Article 74 says that there shall be a Council of ministers to
advise the Prime Minister.
2. Article 75 says the ministers shall hold office at the pleasure of
the President.
3. Article 78 refers to duties of the prime minister.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (Article 74 says that there shall be a Council of
ministers to advise the President. Under article 75, The Prime Minister is
appointed by the President. And, under Article 78 Prime Minister
communicates the important policy decisions to the President.)
84) For which one of the following office, Primus inter Pares phrase can be
used ?
(a) President
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Prime Minister
Correct Answer is C (Prime Minister)
1. As per article 74, Council of ministers can advise President.
2. The advice given by council to the president is binding.
3. 42nd Constitutional Amendment act made the advice by Council
binding on the President.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D (All of the above.)
86) Which of the following article talks about the collective responsibility of
the Council?
(a) article 74
(b) article 75
(c) article 76
(d) article 78
Correct Answer is B (Article 75 says that the Council of ministers will
swim together and sink together. Although, there is also a provision of
individual responsibility.)
87) Which of the following article refers to the individual responsibility of
the ministers ?
(a) article 71
(b) article 72
(c) article 74
(d) article 75
Correct Answer is D (article 75)
88) Which of the following group or groups form the part of Council of
ministers?
1. Cabinet ministers
2. Ministers of State
3. Deputy ministers
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D (All of the above.)
1. An independent charge can be given to a Minister of State.
2. An independent charge cannot be given to the Deputy Minister.
3. Ministers of State have the privilege to attend Cabinet meetings.
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (Ministers of State do not attend Cabinet meetings
unless they're called for it.)
90) Which of the following is highest decision-making authority ?
(a) Council of Minister
(b) Cabinet
(c) Niti Ayog
(d) Planning Commission
Correct Answer is B (Cabinet)
91) For how long a vice president can act as a president in case of
latter removal of resignation?
(a) 9 months
(b) Till the next president takes over
(c) 1 Year
(d) 6 months
Correct Answer is 6 months (6 months)
1. In case of Vice President, formal impeachment is not required
2. The Vice President has a tenure of 5 years
3. Vice President can be removed by an special majority in Rajya
Sabha
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A
(Vice President can be removed by an absolute majority in Rajya Sabha.
A resolution can be reduced in Rajya Sabha after giving notice of at least 14
days. Once the resolution is passed in Rajya Sabha it is supposed to be agreed
by the Lok Sabha.)
1. Vice president's election can be challenged on the ground of
incomplete electoral College.
2. Supreme Court can declare the vice president election as void.
3. If Vice president's election is declared void then the actions
executed by the Vice President's before the declaration are not
invalidate.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (Vice president's election cannot be challenged on the
ground of incomplete electoral College.)
94) Which of the following is an ex-officiol chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(a) Vice President
(b) President
(c) Speaker
(d) Deputy Speaker
Correct Answer is Vice President (Vice President)
95) Which of the following is a ground for vacancy in the Vice President's
office?
1. death
2. removal
3. resignation
4. disqualification
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (Any of the above.)
96) Which of the following authority usually advises the President to
summon or prorogue the house?
(a) Home Minister
(b) Leader of the Opposition
(c) Speaker
(d) Prime Minister
Correct Answer is Prime Minister (It is the Prime Minister who advises the
president to summon or prorogue the house.)
97) Which of the following Prime Minister was not from Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Deve Gowda
(d) Morarji Desai
Correct Answer is Morarji Desai (Morarji Desai)
98) Which of the following vice presidents have acted as the president when
the president died in the office?
1. VV Giri
2. BD Jatti
3. Zakir Hussain
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is A (VV GIRI acted as a president when the then President
Dr Zakir Hussain died. Similarly, BD Jatti acted as President when
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed died in the office.)
1. Presidents has the authority to appoint Prime Minister.
2. President can use his personal discretion while appointing Prime
Minister in certain cases.
3. When the sitting Prime Minister dies during the office, President
may use his or her situational discretion.
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (When there is no clear majority, then the President has
a leeway for selection and appointment of Prime Minister.)
100) For how long a person who is not a member of either house can become
the Prime Minister of the country?
(a) 1 Year
(b) six months
(c) He/she cannot become
(d) 3 months
Correct Answer is six months (six months)
101. Which of the following is/are true
1. Simple majority is required in slate assembly to either create or
abolish legislative council.
2. To create or abolish legislative council, simple majority is required
in Parliament.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (special majority is required in state assembly..)
1. Maximum Strength of legislative assembly is 500, while usual
minimum strength is 60.
2. In case of Arunachal, Goa and Sikkim, the minimum strength is 40.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Minimum Strength is 30 and not 40 In case of
Arunachal, Goa and Sikkim.)
1. In state assembly such as Nagaland, the minimum Strength is 46.
2. As per 95th amendment, two Anglo Indian community member can
be nominated by Governor.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (As per 95th amendment, one Anglo Indian
community member can be nominated by Governor.)
1. 42nd amendment froze the number of seats in assembly till year
2020.
2. 84th amendment extended the seat readjustment for another 30
years
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (42nd amendment adjusted the seats till 2000. 84th
amendment further expanded it till 2025.)
1. 87th amendment act of 2003 set 2001 as the base year census figure
for delimitation of constituency.
2. Size of council depends upon strength of assembly.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer (Both are correct.)
1. Strength of state council is 1/3rd of State assembly, given the
minimum Strength as 40.
2. Actual strength of council is determined by Governor.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Actual strength of council is determined by
Parliament.)
1. 1/12 members of Legislative council are elected by graduates and
Teachers each.
2. 1/6th members of council are elected by local bodies and legislative
assemblies each.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (1/3rd members of council are elected by local
bodies and legislative assemblies each.)
108. Which of the following is/are true concerning Council...
1. 1/6th members of council are nominated by Governor.
2. 5/6th members of council are indirectly elected.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. During Emergency, the term of assembly can be extended one year
at a time
2. Once the emergency is revoked, this extension cannot go beyond 6
months.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. In Legislative Council, nomination of members can be done by
CM.
2. In Legislative council, the retiring member can be re-elected.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Nomination is done by Governor.)
1. Under article 371 special Provisions for the states have been added
via amendments as they did not exist in original constitution.
2. Articles 371 A to 371 J deal with special provisions for various
states.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Article 371, the president is authorised to confer special
responsibility over Governor of Maharashtra and Gujarat
2. Article 371 A makes special provisions for Assam state.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Article 371 A makes special provisions for
Nagaland state.)
1. Article 371 A ensures that state does not intervene in Naga
Customary laws.
2. Under Article 371 A, the administration of Tuensang district is in
the hands of Central government.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Under Article 371 A, the administration of
Tuensang district is in the hands of Governor.)
1. Under Article 371B, President can create a committee for which the
members are elected from tribal areas.
2. Under Article 371 C, President can form a committee for Which
members are elected from hill area.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Article 371 D and 371 E Contain special provision for state of
Andhra Pradesh.
2. Article 371 E empowers the Parliament to form Central university
in the state.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Article 371 F contains special provision Sikkim.
2. Sikkim legislative assembly consists of not more than 40 members.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Sikkim legislative assembly consists of not than 30
members.)
1. Article 371 G deals with state of Manipur.
2. As per special Provision of article 371 G, Centre cannot intervene
in the Customary laws of state.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Article 371 G deals with state of Mizoram.)
1. Under Article 371-H, special Provisions have been given to state of
Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Arunachal assembly is to consist of not less than 30 members.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Article 371J, President is empowered to provide special
responsibility to Governor of North east.
2. Under special provisions, a separate board is established for North
East.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Article 371J, President is empowered to provide
special responsibility to Governor of Karnataka. Under special provisions, a
separate establishment board for Hyderabad and Karnataka region is
formed.)
1. 98th constitutional amendment act inserted Article 371 J.
2. 371J deals with development of Hyderabad Karnataka region
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. "Local Government" as a subject is given under 7th Schedule in
state list.
2. Balwant Rai Mehta committee recommended a 2 tier system of
government.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Balwant Rai Mehta committee recommended a 3
tier system of government.)
1. Three tier system of Balwant rai mehta demarcated village level,
Block level and district level.
2. At block and district levels, members are directly elected.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (At block and district levels, members are indirectly
elected.)
123. Which of the following is/are true Concerning Balwant Rai Mehta
recommendations
1. District magistrate is the head of Zila Parishad.
2. Panchayat Samiti is an executive body while Zila parishad is an
advisory one.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Panchayat's Raj was first started in Rajasthan.
2. Rajasthan installed a three tier system.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer (Panchayat's Raj was first started in "Nagaur"
district of Rajasthan.)
1. Ashok Mehta committee suggested a two tier system of Panchayati
Raj.
2. Ashok Mehta committee suggested that Zila Parishad should be an
executive body.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. K. Santhanam committee studied finances of Panchayati Raj.
2. K. Santhanam committee studied Panchayati Raj elections.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Reservation for SC/ST in PRI was recommended by Balwant Rai
Mehta committee
2. Balwant Rai Mehta committee recommended to Provide
constitutional status to Panchayati Raj.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Ashok Mehta committee suggested both of the
above recommendations.)
1. GVK Rao committee was formed for Administrative arrangement
for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation.
2. GVK Rao committee recommended to bestow significant role over
Zila Parishad.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. GVK Rao committee advocated to create district planning
committee under DC or Minister.
2. Ashok Mehta and GVK Rao committee advocated the reduction of
the role of DC.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Hanumant Rao committee advocated to create
district planning committee under DC or Minister.)
1. LM Singhvi committee was formulated for Revitalisation of
Panchayati Raj.
2. Rajiv Gandhi appointed LM Singhvi as committee chairman.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Cut motion represents disapproval of policy.
2. When a specified amount is deducted from the demand then it is
called token Cut.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (When a specified amount is deducted from the
demand then it is called economy Cut.)
1. When the amount of demand is reduced merely by 100 then the
same is called Token Cut.
2. Cut motions are generally moved by the opposition.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Cut motion leads to discussion over demand for grant.
2. Speaker has no power whatsoever to decide whether discussion on
a cut motion will be admissible.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Speaker has the power to decide whether discussion
on a cut motion will be admissible or not.)
1. To withdraw money from consolidated fund of India, we need
parliament's approval.
2. For parliament's approval, a bill is enacted which is called
Appropriation Bill.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Amendment can be introduced in the appropriation bill.
2. No debate can be done on appropriation bill.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (No amendment can be introduced in the
appropriation bill. However, Debate can be done.)
1. Article 110 (1)(a) of the constitution deals with Appropriation Bill.
2. Finance bill talks about alteration and abolition of taxes.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Article 110 (1)(a) of the constitution deals with
Finance Bill.)
1. A Finance bill can be a money bill.
2. Finance bill gives effect to the financial proposals of government
for upcoming year.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. LM SINGHVI committee recommended to establish Nyaya
Panchayats.
2. LM SINGHVI committee did not support the constitutional
recognition of Panchayati Raj Institution.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (The committee supported constitutional recognition
and also recommended to given more financial Resources to village
Panchayats.)

1. 64th constitutional amendment bill bestowed constitutional status
to PRI.
2. The first Constitutional amendment bill concerning constitutional
status to PRI was passed by LokSabha, not RajyaSabha.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (64th constitutional amendment bill made an attempt
to bestow constitutional status to PRI. The opposition opposed the bill on the
that it would strengthen centralization in federal structure)
1. 73rd amendment added Part IX and schedule XI in the constitution.
2. There were temporary and compulsory provisions in the act.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. 73rd amendment act does not apply to J&k, Nagaland, Mizoram
and Meghalaya
2. Minimum age for contesting panchayat elections is 25 years.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Minimum age for contesting panchayat elections is
21 years.)
1. Part IX of our constitution does not apply to schedule five areas.
2. The Subject matter for article 243A is Gram Sabha.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer (Both are correct)

1. Article 243 D talks about reservation seats.
2. Article 243 F is about disqualification of membership.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Village Panchayats find a mention in Directive Principles of state
Policies.
2. Local government is a subject mentioned under "Residuary list
" 7th schedule.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Local government is a subject mentioned under
"state list " 7th schedule. DPSPs article 40 talk about local government.)
1. First municipal corporation was setup in madras in 1687.
2. Lord Ripon resolution of 1882 was hailed as "Magana Karta" for
Self Government.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. As per GOI act 1935, local self government was not discussed at
all.
2. 74th amendment act added 12th schedule to the constitution.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (As per GoI act 1935, local government was a
provincial subject.)
1. 1/3rd members of metropolitan planning committee should be
elected by elected members of municipalities and panchayat
Chairpersons.
2. Municipal corporations are created in big cities such as Delhi,
Mumbai, Hyderabad etc.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (2/3rd members of metropolitan planning committee
should be elected by elected members of municipalities and panchayat
Chairpersons.)
1. Municipalities are for the administration of smaller cities.
2. A municipality has three authorities Viz. Council, Standing
committee and Chief executive officer.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer (Both are correct
1. Notified area committee is created to administer a town which is
backward.
2. Notified area committee is an elected body.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Notified area committee is created to administer a
town which is rapidly industrialising. Notified area committee is not an
elected body as all the members of the committee are nominated by state
government.)
1. Town area Committee looked after areas such as drainage, roads
and lighting.
2. Town area committee can be wholly elected or wholly nominated.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
151) Which of the following state was never a union territory ?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Goa
(d) Haryana
Correct Answer is D. (Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram,
Arunachal Pradesh and Goa, which are states today were formerly union
territories.)
152) Consider the following pairs :
1. Delhi : Lt. Governor

2. Puducherry : Lt. Governor
3. Andaman : Commissioner
(a)1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A. (Lieutenant Governor in the case of Delhi, Puducherry
and Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Administrator in the case of
Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu and Lakshadweep.)
153) Which statement/statements is/are correct ?
1. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own
2. Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List and the
Concurrent List
3. Legislative assembly of Puducherry can make laws on any
subject of the State List and the Concurrent List
(a)1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A. ( Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List
(except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List)
154) To which UT, 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a
special status ?
(a) Puducherry
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Delhi
(d) Andaman
Correct Answer is C. (Delhi)
1. Lt. governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during
recess of the assembly.
2. Every ordinance by LG must be approved by the assembly
within six weeks from its reassembly.
3. LG can withdraw an ordinance at any time.
4. LG cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is
dissolved or suspended.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D. (All are Correct.)
156) Under which high court jurisdiction does Lakshadweep come?
(a) Mumbai High court
(b) Madras High court
(c) Kerala High court
(d) Delhi High court
Correct Answer is C. (Lakshadweep is under Kerala high court. Daman and
Diu comes under Bombay high court. )
157) Which Committee advocated separate district planning bodies under
either the District Collector or a minister?
(a) LM Singhvi committee
(b) Santhnam Committee
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee
(d) Hanumanth Rao committee
Correct Answer is D (Hanumanth Rao Committee.)
1. Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for the matters of
Union Territories.
2. UTs without a legislature have the forum of Home Minister’s
Advisory Committee (HMAC).
3. Meetings of the HMAC are chaired by the Prime Minister.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is B (Meetings of the HMAC are chaired by the Union
Home Minister.)
1. Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes
advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the
scheduled tribes.
2. Tribal Affairs consists of 20 members, 3/4th of whom are to be
the representatives of the scheduled tribes
3. District council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are
nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the
basis of adult franchise.
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C(All are correct.)
160) How many tier of government was suggested by Ashok Mehta
committee ?
(a) Three Tier
(b) Two tier
(c) None
(d) Single system
Correct Answer is B(Two tier system.)
161) Which of the following case determined that the preamble is not a part
of Indian constitution ?
(a) Berubari Case
(b) Keshvananda Bharati Case
(c) LIC of India case
(d) Vinit Narayan Case
Correct Answer is A
CASE Preamble part of Preamble part of
constitution constitution
Berubari Case No Non-Justiciable
Yes (Can be amended
Keshvananda Bharati but Basic Structure
Non-Justiciable
case should not be
tempered. )
LIC of India case Yes Non-Justiciable
162) Consider the following pairs:

1. Habeas Corpus : Issued against both public authorities as well
as private individuals.
2. Prohibition : Not available against administrative authorities,
legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies
3. Certiorari : Can be issued even against administrative
authorities affecting rights of individuals.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against

legislative bodies and private individuals.)
1. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is narrower than that
of high court
2. Territorial jurisdiction of the High court is wider than that of a
Supreme court.
3. A remedy under Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and
hence, the Supreme Court may not refuse to exercise its writ
jurisdiction.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (Territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is wider

than that of a high court.)
164) Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person
and not necessarily by the aggrieved person ?
(a) Mandmus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Correct Answer is B (Quo Warranto)

165) Writ of mandamus cannot be issued for?
1. To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess
statutory force
2. When the duty is discretionary and not mandatory
3. To enforce a contractual obligation
4. Against the president of India or the state governors

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (Writ of mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a

private individual or body; (b) to enforce departmental instruction that does
not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary and not
mandatory; (d) to enforce a contractual obligation; (e) against the president of
India or the state governors; and (f) against the chief justice of a high court
acting in judicial capacity.)
166) Which of the following commission is not related to linguistic
reorganisation of states?
(a) Fazl Ali Commission
(b) JVP Commission
(c) Dhar Commission
(d) Santhnam Commission
Correct Answer is D (In 1962, Lal Bahadur Sastri appointed Santhanam to

preside over the committee on anti-corruption. Because of its thorough
investigative work and recommendations, the Committee earned a reputation
as Santhanam’s Committee on Anti-Corruption.)
167) Which of the following Fundamental Right is available to foreigners as
well ?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 19
Correct Answer is C (Article 15,16,19,29 and 30 are not available to

foreigners and can be exercised by citizens only.)
1. Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the
fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military
forces, police forces, intelligence agencies
2. Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any
court of law.
3. Armed forces do not cover such employees of the armed forces
as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, boot-makers,
tailors who are non-combatants.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1and 2 only
Correct Answer is D (Armed forces also cover such employees of the armed
forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, boot-makers,
tailors who are non-combatants.)
1. 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as
a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31
from Part III.
2. Guaranteed right to compensation is given in case of acquisition
or requisition under 300A
3. Part III still carries two provisions which provide for the
guaranteed right to compensation

(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (No guaranteed right to compensation is given in case of

acquisition or requisition under 300A.)
170) Which of the following requires constitutional amendment ?
(a) Altering the territory of state
(b) Altering the name of any state
(c) Ceding territory to another nation
(d) Establishment of new state or states
Correct Answer is C (BERUBARI CASE: Though, the power to amend the

boundary is available with parliament, which does not ask for any
constitutional amendment, but the ceding of territory needs an amendment.
The same was seen when territory was ceded to east Pakistan.)
171) What is the status of Zonal Councils?
(a) Statutory Bodies
(b) Constitutional Bodies
(c) Legislative Bodies
(d) Exemplary Bodies
Correct Answer is A (Zonal Councils are established by an Act of the

Parliament – States Reorganisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country
into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern))
1. Originally, the constitution contained a Preamble with 395
Articles (divided into 22 Parts) and 8 Schedules.
2. Laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a
National Emergency become inoperative six months after the
emergency has ceased to operate.
3. If the Parliament is not in session, President cannot issue
ordinances on the state subjects.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (If the Parliament is not in session, President can issue
ordinances on the state subjects also.)
1. In Bommai case the Supreme Court laid down that the
Constitution is federal and labelled federalism as its ‘basic
feature’.
2. Government of India (GoI) Act of 1935 provided for a three-
fold enumeration viz. federal, provincial and concurrent.
3. Life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond its normal term
by a law of Parliament for one year at a time
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

174) Which of the following area State legislature cannot impose taxes on ?
(a) Profession
(b) Sale of Goods
(c) Purchase of Goods
(d) Newspaper
Correct Answer is D (Newspaper)

1. Chairman of a state public service commission is appointed by
the governor
2. Member of a state public service commission is removed by
President
3. Chairman of PSC can be removed only by the President

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D (The chairman and members of the JSPSC are

appointed by the president; Similarly, judges of a state high court are
appointed by the president in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and
the governor of the state. They can also be transferred and removed by the
president.)
176) Concerning Zonal Council, Where does Uttarakhand fall?

(a) Central Zonal Council
(b) Northern Zonal Council
(c) Eastern Zonal Council
(d) Western Zonal Council
Correct Answer is A (Central Zonal Council)

177) Who of the following Appoint and Remove the state election
commissioner ?
(a) Appointment by President and Removal by Governor
(b) Appointment by Governor and Removal by Governor
(c) Appointment by President and Removal by President
(d) Appointment by Governor and Removal by President
Correct Answer is D (Appointment by Governor and Removal by President)

1. Governor of Assam may direct that an act of Parliament does
not apply to a tribal area (autonomous district)
2. President enjoys the power with respect to tribal areas
(autonomous districts) in Meghalaya.
3. Both Governor and President share the power concerning
Tripura and Mizoram.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C (President enjoys the power with respect to tribal areas
(autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.)
1. 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a
National Emergency immune from the judicial review.
2. 44th Amendment Act of 1978 suppressed 38th amendment.
3. Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that the
proclamation of a national emergency can be challenged in a court
on the ground of malafide.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (All are correct.)

180) Which article authorises the president to suspend the rights to move any
court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National
Emergency?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 359
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356
Correct Answer is B (Article 359)

181) What could be the maximum life of an ordinance ?
(a) Six months and six weeks
(b) Six months
(c) Six weeks
(d) 1 Year
Correct Answer is A (Six months and six weeks. six months being the
maximum gap between the two sessions of Parliament.)
1. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the
Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19,
2. Article 359 deals with the suspension of Fundamental Rights
(except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21)
3. 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article
358.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (44th amendments has imposed restrictions viz. the six
Fundamental Rights under Article 19 can be suspended only if the National
Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not
on the ground of armed rebellion. Furthermore, only the laws which are
related with the Emergency are protected from being challenged and not
other laws. Also, the executive action taken only under such a law is
protected..)
1. Article 358 automatically suspends the fundamental rights under
Article 19
2. Article 359 automatically can suspend any Fundamental Right.
3. Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the
government of every state is carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (Article 359 does not automatically suspend any
Fundamental Right. It only empowers the president to suspend the
enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights.)
184) How many months are given to the houses to approve President’s Rule?
(a) 2 months
(b) 1 month
(c) 6 month
(d) 3 month
Correct Answer is A (2 months are given)

1. In National Emergency there is no maximum period prescribed
for its operation. It can be continued indefinitely with the approval
of Parliament for every six months.
2. In President Rule there is a maximum period prescribed for its
operation which is three years.
3. Lok Sabha can pass a resolution for revocation of National
Emergency.
4. President Rule can be revoked by President only.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (All are Correct.)

186) Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Article 323-A enables the Parliament to take out the
adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil
courts and the high courts and put it before the administrative
tribunals
(b) CAT is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and
members.
(c) CAT members have been given the status of judges of High
Courts.
(d) CAT members are drawn from judicial branch only.
Correct Answer is D (CAT members are drawn from both judicial and
administrative streams and are appointed by the president.)
187) Which of the following statement is wrong out of the following ?
(a) No criminal proceedings can be started against the president
and the governors in respect of their personal acts.
(b) Immunity of personal acts is limited to the period of the term of
their office only and does not extend beyond that.
(c) The president and the governors cannot be sued during the term
of their office or thereafter if the act is done by them in the exercise
and performance of their official powers and duties.
(d) Civil Proceedings cannot be started against President during
their term of office in respect of their personal acts
Correct Answer is D (Civil Proceedings can be started against President

during their term of office in respect of their personal acts after giving two
months’ advance notice.)
1. BG Kher committee was formed on the issue of official
language.
2. All he languages are given in the VII schedule of our
constitution.
3. Santhali was the last language added by the 92nd Amendment
Act of 2003 in the lot of languages.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C (All he languages are given in the VIII schedule of our
constitution. The languages are given in the Part VII.)
189) Which statement/statements is/are correct with respect to co-operative
society?
1. Maximum number of directors of a co-operative society shall
not exceed twenty-one
2. The reservation is provided in cooperative society with one seat
for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes and two seats for
women on the board of every co-operative society
3. The term of office and office bearers is 6 years.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (The term of office is 5 years. Cooperative society has

to file the return within 6 months of closure of every financial year.)
190) Which article says that council of ministers shall be collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Article 72
(b) Article 74
(c) Article73
(d) Article 75
Correct Answer is D (Article 75.)

191) When does the question hour start?
(a) 10 AM
(b) 10:30 AM
(c) 11:00 AM
(d) 11:30 AM
Correct Answer is C (The question hour starts at 11 o’clock.)
192) Consider the following Question and The papers:
1. Starred Question : Green Paper
2. Unstarred Question : White Paper
3. Short Notice Question : Yellow Paper

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (Short notice question is on Pink paper. There are

Questions to private members which are on Yellow paper.)
1. For answering questions each ministries and departments are
divided into 5 groups.
2. No question is asked on Saturday.
3. Each minister has one fixed day of the week to answer the
question.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (All are correct. From Monday to Friday, each day is
dedicated to different departments. On that day only questions pertaining to
that department can be asked. )
194) Which of the following is not a type of question ?
(a) Starred Question
(b) Question to Private members
(c) Short notice question
(d) Long Notice Question
Correct Answer is D (There is short notice question only. There is no long

notice question. Apart from Starred, there is a provision of unstarred question
as well.)
1. Answer to a starred question may be followed by supplementary
question.
2. Unstarred question does not require any supplementary question
to be asked.
3. In short notice question, the urgent issues can be raised with a
notice of 15 days.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer is A (In short notice question, the urgent issues can be raised
with a notice of 10 days else Minimum 15 days notice is required.)
196) Minimum how many days notice is given in advance to ask a question
in the house, generally?
(a) 15 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 7 days
Correct Answer is A (Minimum 15 days notice is required but the time

period can be reduced to 10 if any urgent matter arises.)
197) What is the general number of questions in the Unstarred list for a day ?
(a) 245
(b) 230
(c) 250
(d) 200
Correct Answer is B (Generally, the limit is 230 but it can be increased by 25

of the state is under President’s rule.)
1. A member can give the maximum of 10 notices in a day.
2. If the notices given surpass the stipulated limit then the same is
carry forward for the next day.
3. The identical notice questions are disallowed.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

199) Which statement/statements is/are correct concerning the admissibility
of the Question in the house?
1. Admissibility of the question is determined by Direction 10A of
directions of Speaker.
2. Questions which generally exceed 150 words are not admitted.
3. Questions related to state matters are not admitted.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

200) Which of the following is not an Unstarred Question ?
(a) Statistical Question
(b) Too Long to reply
(c) Question on Local interest
(d) Where there is a scope of supplementaries
Correct Answer is D. (Where there is a scope of supplementaries requires a

question to be starred question.)
201) Which of the following does not participate in the elections of
President?
(a) Legislative Assemblies
(b) Legislative Councils
(c) Elected Members
(d) Both the houses
Correct Answer is B
(The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated
members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and
nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral
legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of
Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President.)
202) Consider the following statements WITH RESPECT TO
PRESIDENTIAL ELECTION:
1. 50 proposers are required for nomination.
2. 50 seconders are required for nomination.
3. A security Deposit of 15000 is required in RBI.
Which of the above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (The security deposit is forfeited in case candidate fails

to secure 1/6th of the polled votes.)
1. Nominated members don’t participate in the election of
president.
2. Nominated members do participate in the impeachment process
of president.
3. Elected members of Delhi and Puducherry participate in the
election of the president.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C ( Elected members of Delhi and Puducherry participate

in the appointment of president but they don’t participate in the impeachment
process of the president.)
204) In case of vacancy of presidential office in how much time the same is
filled?
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 3 months
(d) 1 month

1. President does not possess Suspensive veto in the case of money
bills.
2. Pocket Veto does not prescribe time limit of withholding of bill.
3. Absolute Veto can be applied on Private Members Bill.
4. Suspensive veto can be overridden by the legislature with a re-
passage of the bill.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (All are correct.)

206) Which of the following amendment made it obligatory for the President
to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill?
(a) 24th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 51st amendment
(d) 93rd amendment
Correct Answer is A (24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it

obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment
bill.)
207) Which of the following amendment made the president’s satisfaction
final and conclusive in terms of ordinance ?
(a) 22nd amendment
(b) 38th amendment
(c) 42nd amendment
(d) 44th amendment
Correct Answer is 38th amendment (The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act

of 1975 made the President’s satisfaction final and conclusive and beyond
judicial review. But, this provision was deleted by the 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1978. Thus, the President’s satisfaction is justiciable on
the ground of malafide.)
1. The ordinance may also cease to operate even earlier than the
prescribed 6 weeks.
2. The maximum life of an ordinance is 6 months 6 weeks.
3. An ordinance cannot be issued when one house is in session.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C (The ordinance may also cease to operate even earlier
than the prescribed 6 weeks, if both the Houses of Parliament pass resolutions
disapproving it. If the Houses of Parliament are summoned to reassemble on
different dates, the period of six weeks is calculated from the later of those
dates. This means that the maximum life of an ordinance can be 6 months and
six weeks, in case of non-approval by the Parliament (six months being the
maximum gap between the two sessions of Parliament. An ordinance can be
issued even when one house is in session.)
1. Governor can pardon a death sentence.
2. Governor can pardon a court martial.
3. Governor can commute a death sentence.

(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (Governor Can Suspend, remit or Commute but cannot

pardon a death sentence.)
210) Under which article the Governor does have a pardoning power ?
(a) Article 164
(b) Article 163
(c) Article 162
(d) Article 161
Correct Answer is Article 161 (Article 161)

211) Which of the following is the 2nd highest office of the country ?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Vice President
Correct Answer is D (Vice President is the 2nd highest office of the country.)
212) Consider the following statements w.r.t. election of Vice-President:
1. Electoral college consists of both houses of the Parliament.
2. Electoral college consists of both elected and nominated
members.
3. Electoral college does not include members of state legislative
assemblies.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (The composition of electoral college for vice president

election is different from electoral college for election of President, but
similar to election of president.)
1. In case of the Presidential election, only the elected members
participate.
2. In case of a Presidential Election, the elected members of state
legislative members participate.
3. President is the 2nd highest office of the country after Prime
Minister.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (President is the highest office of the country.)
214) How many proposers are required for the nomination of a candidate for
the election of Vice President ?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
Correct Answer is 20 (20 proposers and 20 seconders are required and a

security deposit of 15000 also needs to be deposited in RBI.)
215) Which statement/statements is/are correct concerning Vice President ?
1. Vice President is removed by a resolution of Rajya Sabha
passed by a special majority.
2. Formal impeachment is not required in Vice President.
3. 14 days of advance notice is necessary to move the resolution.
4. Vice President qualifies for re-election.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is C (Vice President is removed by a resolution of Rajya

Sabha passed by an absolute majority.)
216) Which of the following article says that the Prime Minister is appointed
by the President ?
(a) Article 72
(b) Article 73
(c) Article 74
(d) Article 75
Correct Answer is D (Article 75)

217) For how long the Vice President can act as President of India ?
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months

1. Prime Minister recommends President to dismiss a member.
2. In case of death or resignation of prime minister the council of
minister dissolves automatically.
3. In case of death of a minister the council of minister dissolves
automatically.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer is D (In case of death of a minister the council of minister

does not dissolve. The vacancy can either be filled or leave vacant by Prime
Minister.)
1. Prime Minister can ask the president to summon or prorogue the
house.
2. Prime Minister can’t recommend the dissolution of Loksabha.
3. Prime Minister can announce the government policies on the
floor of the house.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (Prime Minister can also recommend the dissolution of

Loksabha.)
220) Which of the following article says that Council of Ministers can aid
and advice President ?
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 76
(d) Article 77

221) Which of the following article says that there shall be Council of
Ministers?
(a) Article 73
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 75
(d) Article 76
Correct Answer is B (Article 74 says that there shall be council of ministers

with Prime Minister as the head. Council can aid and advice the president, the
advice is not inquired in any court of law.)
1. Council of ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength
of the Loksabha.
2. Article 77 says that all the executive actions are taken in the
name President.
3. Article 78 says that it is the duty of the prime minister to
communicate all the decisions of the Council of Ministers to the
President.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

1. Minister of State can join Cabinet meetings if called for.
2. Deputy Ministers don’t hold any independent charge.
3. Ministers of state cannot be given independent charge.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (Ministers of state can be given independent charge.)

224) What is the maximum percentage of the council of ministers vis a vis
Loksabha ?
(a) 10%
(b) 12%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Correct Answer is 15% (The Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of
the strength of Loksabha.)
1. Council Of Ministers is relatively bigger than the cabinet.
2. Council of Ministers does not have any provision of meeting.
3. Council of Ministers is a constitutional body.
4. The cabinet was defined in the original constitution.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is A (The cabinet was not defined in the original constitution
rather added by article 352 under 44th constitutional amendment act.)
226) Which of the following amendment curtailed the property rights ?
(a) 1st amendment
(b) 2nd amendment
(c) 3rd amendment
(d) 4th amendment
Correct Answer is A (1st amendment)

227) When do we observe Constitution Day ?
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) January 1
Correct Answer is C (November 26 is observed as Constitutional Day or the

Samvidhan Divas. If we go back in time, it was 26th day of November 1949
when the constitution of India was adopted.)
1. Shankari Prasad case – The word law includes only the ordinary
law.
2. Golaknath Case – Constitutional amendment act does not come
under article 13
3. Waman Rao case – Adhered to basic structure of the
constitution

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C (Golaknath Case – Constitutional amendment act also

comes under article 13.)
1. 42nd amendment act makes the aid and advice by the Council of
Ministers binding on the president.
2. The advice given by the council cannot be inquired in court of
law.
3. A person who is not a member of the house cannot be appointed
as minister.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (A person who is not a member of the house can be

appointed as minister.)
230) In which case concept of Basic Structure was introduced ?
(a) GolakNath case
(b) Shankari Prasad Case
(c) Keshvananda Bharati case
(d) Minerva Mill case
Correct Answer is C (Keshvananda Bharati case.)

231) Which of the following article describes India as “Union of States” ?
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 2
(c) Article 3
(d) Article 4
Correct Answer is A (Article 1)
1. Indian federation system is based on Canadian Model.
2. Indian federation system has centralising tendencies.
3. Indian constitution has 25 parts and 465 articles.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

1. Part XI of the constitution deals with Centre-State relations.
2. Article 355 requires Centre to protect the states from external
aggression only.
3. Governor of any state is appointed by the President.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (Article 355 requires Centre to protect the states from
external aggression and internal disturbances.)
234) Which of the following part of our constitution deals with financial
relations of Centre and State ?
(a) Part XI
(b) Part XII
(c) Part XIII
(d) Part XIV
Correct Answer is XII (Where Part XI deals with the administrative
relations. Part XII deals with financial relations.)
235) Which of the following subject/subjects are covered under Centre-State
relations?
1. Territorial extent of centre-state legislations.
2. Distribution of legislative subjects.
3. Parliamentary legislations which fall in state field.
4. Centre’s control over state legislation.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (All the four subjects are covered under centre-state
relations.)
236) Constitution has imposed the financial limit on the taxing powers of the
states, what is the limit?
(a) The tax amount should not exceed 4500 per annum
(b) The tax amount should not exceed 3500 per annum
(c) The tax amount should not exceed 1500 per annum
(d) The tax amount should not exceed 2500 per annum
Correct Answer is D (The tax amount should not exceed 2500 per annum.)
237) Which is the following area where the states cannot impose the taxes ?
(a) Profession
(b) Sale of goods
(c) Newspaper
(d) Electricity
Correct Answer is C (The states cannot impose tax on newspapers.)

1. President of Assam may direct that an act of parliament does not
apply to the autonomous tribal region or apply with some
modifications.
2. Governor of Mizoram, Tripura and Meghalaya may direct that
an act of parliament may not apply to respective tribal regions.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer is D (Governor of Assam may direct that an act of

parliament does not apply to the autonomous tribal region or apply with some
modifications. President of Mizoram, Tripura and Meghalaya may direct that
an act of parliament may not apply to respective tribal regions.)
1. When there is a conflict between State list and Concurrent list
then the latter should prevail.
2. Rajya Sabha may ask the parliament to make laws on the subject
in the state list.
3. The resolution created on call of Rajya Sabha will remain in
force for a year and can be renewed once only.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (The resolution can be renewed any number of times

but not exceeding one year at a time.)
240) Who can formulate an Inter-state council under Article 263 ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Union Minister
(d) Chief Minister
Correct Answer is President ( President can create an inter-state council.)

241) Which of the following authority set up the Cabinet Committee?
(a) President
(b) Home Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Minister
Correct Answer is C (Prime Minister)

1. Cabinet Committee is an extra-constitutional in nature.
2. Cabinet committee could be permanent or ad-hoc.
3. There are no rules for the establishment of Cabinet committee.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (Rules of Business provide for the establishment of

Cabinet committee.)
1. Prime Minister usually heads the Cabinet committee.
2. There are generally 3-8 members in cabinet committee.
3. Cabinet committees are good tool to reduce the enormous
workload.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

244) Which of the following chair the Parliamentary Affair Committee?
(a) Cabinet Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Home Minister
Correct Answer is Home Minister (Parliamentary Affair Committee is

headed by Home Minister; However, the Political affairs committee is headed
by Prime minister which is the most powerful committee.)
1. Group of Minister (GoM) is an ad-hoc body.
2. Parliament is discussed in part VI of the constitution.
3. In India, we follow the Westminister model of government.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1only
Correct Answer is A (Parliament is discussed in part V of the constitution.)

246) Which of the following authority chair Economic Affairs committee ?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Home Ministers
(d) Governor
Correct Answer is A (Prime Minister)

247) Which amendment has extended the freeze over seat allocation in Lok
Sabha till 2026 ?
(a) 42nd amendment act
(b) 44th amendment act
(c) 82nd amendment act
(d) 84th amendment act
Correct Answer is 84th amendment act (42nd amendment act froze it till
2000. However, 84th amendment act froze it till 2026.)
1. Only Delhi union territory has representatives in RajyaSabha.
2. The principle of single transferable vote is practised in
RajyaSabha.
3. Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of members in Rajyasabha.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is B (Only Delhi and Puducherry UTs have representatives

in RajyaSabha.)
1. In India, proportional representation principle is used in Rajya
Sabha.
2. In U.S., equal representation principle is practised.
3. There are 2 nominated members in Rajyasabha.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (There are 12 nominated members in Rajyasabha. There
are 2 nominated members in Loksabha from anglo Indian communities.)
250) Which year is demarcated as the year till which two nominated members
will be taken in Lok Sabha ?
(a) 2018
(b) 2019
(c) 2020
(d) 2025
Correct Answer is 2020 (It was originally decided to take the nominated
members for Lok Sabha till 1960; However, the same was extended till 2020
by the 95th amendment.)
251. Which of the following is/are true?
1. Institution of Ombudsman was first created in Sweden in the year
1908.
2. Ombud is a Swedish term which means the spokesperson or
representative of another person.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

252. Who administers the oath to speaker pro tem?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Deputy Speaker
Correct Answer is C (President)

1. Ombudsman does not have power to take suo moto cases.
2. Ombudsman in India is called Lokpal.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (The suo moto power is available with

Ombudsman.)
1. Administrative Reform Commission (ARC) recommended to
establish Lokpal And Lokayukta for grievance redressal.
2. This system is emulated from Sweden system of grievance
redressal.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (This system is emulated from New Zealand system
of grievance redressal.)
1. ARC kept the judiciary within the ambit of Lokpal.
2. In Sweden, the judiciary is within the reach of Ombudsman.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (ARC exempted judiciary and excluded the same.)
1. As per ARC, the Lokpal will be appointed by President after
consultation with the PM.
2. The Functionaries such as Speaker of Loksabha and Chairman of
Rajysabha will also be consulted.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (There is no role of Prime minister in ARC

recommendation.)
1. As per Lokpal Bill 2011, the Investigation and Prosecution were
kept separate.
2. The constitutional status was also asked to be conferred on Lokpal
and Lokayukta under the Lokpal bill 2011.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. As per 2011 Bill, the Prime Minister (with certain exceptions) has
also been included under the jurisdiction of Lokpal.
2. The Group A,B,C,D Government Servants are also included under
the jurisdiction of Lokpal.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. When the Central Government is not able to pass the Lokpal bill
due to myriad reasons, various State governments have established
state version of Lokpal institution.
2. Maharashtra was the first state to pass such act.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Odisha passed the act in 1970 and Maharashtra in
1971; However, Odisha was able to materialise this institution in 1983.)
1. Recommendation of Lokayukta are binding over the state
government.
2. In U.P., Lokayukta does not have suo moto power.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Recommendations of Lokayukta are not binding.)

1. Article 112 talks about Annual Financial statement.
2. Budget shows the estimated figures of the following year.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Budget shows the revised figures of the ensuing year.
2. Budget shows the expenditures of previous year.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Budget shows the revised figures of the current
year.)
1. Government Budget consists of capital budget and revenue budget.
2. Consolidated Fund of India depicts all the revenues received via
provident fund.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Consolidated Fund of India depicts all the revenues
received via loans and advances.)
1. In performance budgeting the budget is allocated on the basis of
targets achieved.
2. Zero based budgeting is time consuming.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. The Annual Financial Statement is presented before LokSabha
only.
2. The parliament does not have the power to discuss and criticise the
budget.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (The Annual Financial Statement is presented before

both the houses of the parliament. The parliament has the power to discuss
and criticise the budget.)
1. Emoluments and allowance of President are charged from
Consolidated fund of India.
2. Salary and allowances of Supreme Court judge are also charged
from Consolidated fund of India.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Demand for Grants made to Loksabha are voted upon and Lok
sabha can give its assent and refuse if it feels desirable.
2. President's assent is not required for introducing Demand for Grant.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (President's assent is required for introducing

Demand for Grant.)
1. Post Facto Parliament Authorization is required to withdraw funds
from Consolidated fund of India.
2. Article 266 deals with consolidated fund of India.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Parliament Authorization is required to withdraw

funds from Consolidated fund of India before hand.)
1. Article 266 deals with Public Accounts of India.
2. Article 267 deals with Contingency fund of India.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Contingency fund of India is imprest of the Parliament.
2. Post Facto approval of parliament is obtained if money is spent
from contingency fund.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Contingency fund of India is imprest of the

President of India.)
1. Provident Funds and money in other government trusts form part of
Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The money in public account needs to be paid back.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Provident Funds and money in other government

trusts form part of Public Accounts of India.)
1. Parliament Authorization is not required in case money is spent out
of Public Accounts.
2. When money is transferred from consolidated fund of India to
Public accounts for specific expenditure then the parliament's
approval becomes mandatory.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Revenue expenditure may create assets for the government.
2. Loan raised by the government is a part of government receipt.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Capital expenditure may create assets for the
government.)
1. Revenue expenditure helps in running day to day affairs of the
government.
2. Interest received by the government forms part of Capital receipts.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Interest received by the government forms part of

Revenue receipts)
1. If an investment is made by government in shares then the same
comes under Capital Revenue.
2. The interest received on the above investment comes under revenue
receipts.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (If an investment is made by government in shares

then the same comes under Capital Expenditure.)
1. The first part of the budget contains General economic Survey.
2. The second part of the budget contains taxation proposals.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Article 112 deals with Demands for grant.
2. Demand for grant need not to be voted by Lok Sabha
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Article 113 deals with Demands for grant. Demand
for grant needs to be voted by Lok Sabha.)
1. Each Ministry presents separate demands for grant requests.
2. Demand for grant statement is presented along with the Annual
Financial Statement.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Budget is generally discussed on the day it is presented.
2. The day of discussion is determined by Speaker.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Budget is generally not discussed on the day it is

presented..)
1. Motions can be moved to reduce demand for grant.
2. A cut motion can reduce the amount of demand to Rs. 1.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Article 164 says that chief minister shall be appointed by Governor.
2. Procedure for appointment of CM is prescribed in the constitution.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (No procedure for appointment of CM is prescribed

in the constitution)
1. Governor, generally, appoints the leader of majority party as Chief
Minister.
2. If Chief Minister dies then the ruling party can't elect new leader.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (If Chief minister dies then the ruling party can elect
new leader.)
1. It is possible that the governor first choose a Chief Minister and
then ask to prove his majority.
2. A person who is not a member of state legislature can't be elected
as CM.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (A person who is not a member of state legislature

can be elected as CM. But he/she needs to be elected within 6 months.)
1. CJI administers the oath of allegiance to the Chief Minister.
2. CM holds office during the pleasure of the president.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Governor administers the oath of allegiance to the

Chief Minister. The office is held at the pleasure of Governor.)
1. Ministers are appointed by the governor on the recommendation of
CM.
2. CM can ask a minister to resign.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. CM can recommend the governor for the dissolution of the
assembly.
2. CM is the Vice chairman of the state planning board.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (CM is the chairman of the state planning board..)
1. CM is the chief spokesman of the state government.
2. CM is the member of inter-state council
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. CM is the Chairman of National Development Council.
2. NDC is headed by Prime Minister.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (CM is a member of NDC, not the chairman.)

1. Article 163 concerns Council of ministers aids and advice
Governor.
2. Article 164 conveys that ministers hold office on the pleasure of the
president.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Article 164 conveys that ministers hold office on
the pleasure of the Governor.)
1. Article 167 deals with duties of chief minister with respect to
Council of ministers.
2. Article 166 deals with conduct of business of the government of
state.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Article 167 deals with duties of chief minister with
respect to Governor.)
1. Council of ministers (CoM) is headed by Governor.
2. Article 163 dials with status of CoM.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (CoM is headed by Chief Minister.)

1. Article 164 deals with appointment of Council of Minister.
2. As Per article I64 CoM is appointed by Governor.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
1. Council of Minister can advise Governor.
2. Such advice can be inquired by court.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Advice given by CoM can't be inquired by

court.)
1. States such as MP, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand do have
separate ministers for tribal welfare.
2. Odisha is the latest entrant in the list.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Jharknand is the latest entrant.)

1. 91st amendment says that strength of CoM should not be more
than 15% of Strength of assembly.
2. Number of ministers including CoM Should not be less than
12.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. CoM is collectively responsible to Legislative Assembly
2. Ministers hold office at the pleasure of Governor.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Article 167 mandates CM to Communicate information concerning
administration to CoM.
2. CoM, even when dissolved, shall aid and advice Governor.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (CM should communicate information to

Governor.)
1. 94th amendment removed Madhya Pradesh from the Obligation of
having a tribal welfare minister.
2. 94th amendment added Jharkhand in the list of states which should
have tribal welfare minister.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (94th amendment removed BIHAR from the list.)
1. A person who is not a member of either house can still become
minister.
2. Minister who is not a member of house needs to become a
member of Lower house within 6 months
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (He/she can choose to become member of either

house.)
1. Sumptuary allowance is given to minister.
2. Members of state Legislature too get sumptuary Allowance.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Sumptuary allowance is given to ministers only.)
1. In 1862, first three high courts were setup in Calcutta, Bombay and
Madras.
2. In 1866, 4th high court was setup in Delhi.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (In 1866, 4th high court was setup in Allahabad)
1. 7th amendment authorised parliament to demarcate one high court
for two or more states.
2. Territorial jurisdiction of high court is co-terminus with state
boundary.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Delhi is the only union territory which has its own high court
2. The country has 3 common high courts.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. The Strength of high court is determined by Governor.
2. The appointment of high court judges is done by president after
consultation with chief justice
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (The Strength of high court is determined by

President.)
1. The appointment of chief Justice of high court is done by President
after consultation with Governor.
2. 10 years judicial service is one of the pre-conditions to become
high court judge.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer (Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the

President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief
Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and, in the case of appointment of
a Judge other than the chief Justice, the chief Justice of the High court.)
1. Two judge case (1993) said that no high court judge will be
appointed unless there is conformity with Governor.
2. Three judge case said that CJl would consult a collegium of five
senior most supreme court judges to make high court appointments
of judges.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Two judge case (1993) said that no high court judge
will be appointed unless there is conformity with chief justice of India. Three
judge case said that CJl would consult a collegium of two senior most
supreme court judges to make high court appointments of judges.)
1. Oath of affirmation to high court judge is given by President.
2. A high court judge can hold an office until he attains the age of 62.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Oath of affirmation to high court judge is given by

Governor.)
1. President can remove a judge of high court on the recommendation
of parliament.
2. If a high court judge resigns, he can give his resignation to
president.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. A high court judge can be removed by special majority of both the
houses.
2. Special majority implies majority of total membership of house and
not less than 2/3rd of the members present and voting.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. As A judge can be impeached on two grounds viz. misbehaviour
and Incapacity.
2. Judges Enquiry act of (1968) deals with appointment of high court
judge.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (judges Enquiry act of (1968) deals with removal of
high court judge.)
311) In how many days The Finance Bill must be enacted by the parliament
and assented by the president?
(a) 15 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 75 days
Correct Answer is D(According to the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act of

1931, the Finance Bill must be enacted by the Parliament and assented to by
the president within 75 days)
1. The budget consists of two types of expenditure.
2. The charged expenditure is votable.
3. The Charged Expenditure can only be discussed by the
Parliament.
Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A(The charged expenditure is non-votable.)

313) Which of the following is/are charged expenditures?
1. Emoluments and allowances of the President.
2. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of Rajyasabha.
3. Salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor
General.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C
(All are Correct.)
314) Which motion is introduced to reduce any demand for grant?
(a) Adjournment motion
(b) Policy motion
(c) Token Cut
(d) Cut motion
Correct Answer is D(Cut motion)

1. Expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not
submitted to the vote.
2. Voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the
Lok Sabha.
3. The demands are presented ministry wise.
4. Grant becomes a Demand after it has been duly voted.

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is C (Demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted.)
316) In which of the following Cut motion, the amount is reduced to Re 1?
(a) Token Cut
(b) Economic Cut
(c) Value CUt
(d) Policy Cut Motion
Correct Answer is D(Policy Cut Motion)
317) How much is the Vote on account with respect to total estimation?
(a) 1/6th of the total estimation
(b) 1/3rd of the total estimation
(c) 1/5th of the total estimation
(d) 1/7th of the total estimation
Correct Answer is 1/6th of the total estimation(It is usually granted for 2

months.)
1. The Cut motion does not have much utility in practice.
2. The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act and
there is no need to seek an assent by the President.
3. The Government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated
Fund of India till the enactment of the appropriation bill.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C (Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after

it is assented to by the President.)
1. Grants are voted by the Lok Sabha.
2. No money shall be withdrawn from the Contingency Fund of
India except under appropriation made by law.

(a) only 2
(b) 1 only
(c) Both are Correct
(d) None
Correct Answer is B(No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated

Fund of India except under appropriation made by law.)
320) How many days are allotted for the voting of demands?
(a) 25 Days
(b) 26 Days
(c) 30 Days
(d) 10 Days
Correct Answer is B (26 Days)

1. The Appointment of district judge is done by governor with
consultation with High court.
2. A person who already holds seat in central state government can be
appointed as judge.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (He or she should not hold any office in
government.)
1. Minimum age to become a member of Legislative assembly is 30.
2. Minimum age to become a member of legislative council is 25.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Age for assemble is 25 and for council it is 30.)
1. Person who is to be elected for assembly must be an elector for the
assembly constituency.
2. A member of SC/ST can also contest a non-reserved seat.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Representation of People's act 1951 also describes qualifications &
disqualifications to the assembly.
2. RPA disqualifies a member from being chosen in council if the
person has any interest in government contracts.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Disqualification is dealt under tenth schedule is subject to judicial
review.
2. The question of disqualification is decided by house in case of
assembly or council.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (The question of disqualification is decided by

speaker in case of assembly and chairman in case of council..)
1. Double membership is possible in Indian setup
2. Resignation will lead to vacation of seat and resignation can be
handed over to speaker or Chairman as the case may be.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Double membership leads to vacation of seat.)

1. Speaker is the presiding officer for legislative assembly.
2. Deputy speaker is the presiding officer for legislative assembly.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer (Dy. Speaker comes into picture when speaker is not
present.)
1. Absence for a period of 60 days could lead to Vacation of seat.
2. Absence from the house is determined by Governor.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Absence from the house is determined by speaker.)
1. Speaker can be removed by passing a resolution.
2. 14 days' notice is required to pass such resolution.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Speaker cannot allow a secret meeting.
2. Speaker is the final interpreter of provisions of constitution of India
within the house.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Speaker can allow a secret meeting.)

1. Deputy speaker can be removed by a resolution with an advance
notice of 14 days.
2. When both speaker and deputy speaker are not available then
anyone from the panel can preside.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. J&K handed over defence, external affairs and communication to
Indian state under instrument of accession.
2. Provisions concerning J&K are permanent in nature.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (These provisions are temporary in nature.)

1. Article 370 of part XXI, provides special state Status to J&K.
2. Part XXI Provides special status to J&K only.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Part XXI Provides special status to 11 other states
as well.)
1. Judicial magistrate tackles Criminal cases where maximum
punishment is life imprisonment up to 3 years.
2. 20th constitutional amendment added article 233A. This article
retrospectively validated the appointment of certain district judges.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. A session judge has the authority to impose life imprisonment but
not the capital punishment.
2. Capital punishment given by a session judge needs to be confirmed
by High court.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (A session judge has the authority to impose life
imprisonment and even capital punishment.)
1. When a judge deals with Civil cases, he is called session judge.
2. When a judge deals with criminal cases, he is called district judge
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. District judge possesses the original and appellate jurisdiction.
2. A district judge cannot deal with Criminal cases.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (A district judge can deal with Criminal cases..)
1. Munsiff court belongs to civil side.
2. Judicial magistrate court belongs to criminal side.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Appointment in judicial services, other than district judge, is done
by President in consultation with state public service commission
and High Court.
2. Organisational structure of subordinate judiciary is determined by
Supreme court.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Appointment in judicial services, other than district

judge, is done by governor in consultation with state public service
commission and High Court. Organizational structure of subordinate
judiciary is determined by high court.)
1. To be appointed as a district judge a person has to be a pleader or
advocate for 7 years.
2. A high court judge or a jurist is qualified to become judge of
Supreme Court.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Appointment of district judge is done by President with
consultation with High court.
2. A person who already holds seat in central or state government
cannot be appointed as judge.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Appointment of district judge is done by governor

with consultation with High court.)
1. As Per article 164, CoM is Individually responsible to parliament.
2. In case of no confidence motion against CoM, all of them have to
resign.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (As Per article 164, CoM is collectively responsible
to legislative assembly..)
1. CoM cannot advice Governor to dissolve legislative assembly.
2. Principle of collective responsibility means that ministers need to
align with cabinet decisions.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (CoM can advise governor.)

1. Article 164 contains principle of Individual responsibility.
2. A minister can individually be removed If chief Minister so desires.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Constitution does specify size of the state council.
2. CoM categories viz. cabinet ministers, Ministers of States and
deputy Ministers.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Constitution does not specify size of state council..)
1. Cabinet Ministers are given departments such as Education and
Finance.
2. Ministers of state can be attached to Cabinet ministers but they
cannot be given independent charge.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Ministers of state can be attached to Cabinet

ministers or they can be given independent charge.)
1. Ministers of state attend meetings of cabinet.
2. Cabinet meetings Can be attended by MoS, even If they are not
specifically invited.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer (Ministers of state generally dont attend meetings of
cabinet. Cabinet meetings Can be attended by MoS, If they are specifically
invited.)
1. Deputy ministers are not given independent charge.
2. Deputy ministers can assist cabinet ministers.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Cabinet can be called the real power Centre.
2. Cabinet can be called a decision making body.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Cabinet committee could be of 2 types Standing and ad-hoc.
2. Cabinet does not have the power to review its decision.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Cabinet has the power to review its decision..)
1. Resignation of Chief Minister amounts to resignation of council.
2. In states, unlike centre, we don't have ministries but departments.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. 97th constitutional amendment act gave constitutional status to
cooperative societies.
2. Right to form cooperative society is a fundamental right.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

352. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1 243ZH Definitions
2 243ZI Incorporation of cooperative societies.
3 243ZP Returns
4 243ZQ Offences & Penalties
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer (All are correct.)

1. Maximum number of directors in case of cooperative society
should not exceed 10.
2. In cooperative society one seat is reserved for SC or ST.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (the number of director should not exceed 21. In
cooperative society one seat is reserved for SC or ST and 2 seats are reserved
for women.)
1. In cooperative society, Board can be suspended for a maximum
period of 6 months.
2. In case of suspension, the elections need to be conducted within 6
months.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Every Cooperative society shall be audited by the auditor appointed
by auditing firm.
2. The cooperative societies are exempted from filing returns.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (The cooperative societies are required to file return
within 6 months once the financial year ends.)
1. The word cooperative society is given in Article 19.
2. Article 43 B talks about the professional management of
cooperative society.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Article 243ZJ refers to the number and terms of members of
cooperative society.
2. Article 243ZL talks about the election of member of board.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (Article 243ZK talks about the election of member
of board. Article 243ZL talks about the Suspension of member of board)
1. Concerning cooperative societies the rights of members to get
information is given under 243ZO.
2. Under 243 ZM, the accounts of cooperative societies are audited.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2

1. Cooperative Societies can be booked under the acts of omission and
not commission.
2. If the books of society are not handed over in the custody then the
same tantamount to an offense.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer (Cooperative Societies can be booked under the acts
of omission and commission.)
1. The Cooperative society board can be suspended for not conducting
elections within stipulated period.
2. The tenure of elected members of cooperative society is 4 years.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer (The tenure of elected members of cooperative

society is 5 years.)
1. Constitution amendment bill cannot be returned or rejected.
2. Money bill can be returned.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
Correct Answer is A (Money Bill can be rejected but not returned.)

362. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
1 Article 33 Government can restrict the application of
certain rights on government servants.
2 311 (2) Reasonable opportunity is given to the civil
servant.
3 311 (2) Enquiry is not necessary in case of dismissal on
the ground of misconduct.
4 Article 33 The provision of restriction over Fundamental
Rights is taken form US constitution.
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
A is the Correct Answer
"(The provision of restriction over Fundamental Rights is not taken form US
constitution..) "
363. Consider the following statements. Which statement/s is/are correct?
1. Council of ministers are collectively responsible to loksabha
2. PM is the leader of the lower house only.
3. PM recommends president regarding the summoning of the house.
a) 1 and 3only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer is A
1. PM is the principal channel of communication between president
and council of minister
2. President is the principal channel of communication between PM
and the Council of minister
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the two
Correct Answer is A (Only 1)

1. Article 52 Executive power of the union
2. Article 54 Election of the president
3. Article 58 Qualification for presidential election
4. Article 61 Impeachment of the president
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
Correct Answer is C (Article 52 is about that There shall be a President of

India.)
366. Consider the following statements
1. Salary and allowances of prime minister are determined by
Parliament.
2. Salary and allowances of prime minister are determined by
President.
3. A person who is member of neither house can be made prime
minister.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 2
d) None
Correct Answer is A (yes, the member of neither house can be made prime
minister for 6 months only.)
1. Vice president is the 2nd highest office of the country.
2. Both elected and nominated members of parliament participate in
vice president's elections.
3. State assemblies too participate in vice president's election
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) None
Correct Answer is A (1 and 2)

368. Arrange chronologically the vice presidents of India
1. Krishan Kant
2. KR narayanan
3. BS Shekhawat
4. Hamid Ansari
a) 1, 3, 2, 4
b) 1,2,3, 4
c) 2, 1, 3, 4
d) 2,3,1,4
Correct Answer is C (2, 1, 3, 4)

1. Article 66 Election of vice president of india
2. Article 69 Oath and affirmation by vice president
3. Article 67 Term of office of vice president
4. Article 70 Discharge of presidential functions if need be
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
Correct Answer is B (1,2,3 and 4)

1. President is the head of the government.
2. Prime minister is the head of the government.
a) Only 2
b) Both of the above
c) Only 1
d) Neither of the above
Correct Answer is A (President is the head of the state while Prime Minister
is the head of Government.)
1. Regulation act of 1773 was the 1st step in the direction of
controlling east India company.
2. 1773 regulation act did not recognize the political and
administrative functions of company.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
Correct Answer is A (It did recognise the political and administrative

functions of the company.)
1. GoI act 1935 has 321 articles and 12 schedules.
2. Residuary power was given to viceroy as per GoI 1935 act.
a) Only 2
c) Only 1
Correct Answer is A (There were only 10 schedules.)

373. Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct?
1. Pitts India act is also called act of settlement.
2. Pitts India distinguished the political and economic functions of the
company.
3. A new body Board of control was created.
4. Company's territory for the first time was called British territory.
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
Correct Answer is B ( 1,2,3 and 4 )
1. Lord William Bentinck was the 1st Governor General of India.
2. Governor general of Bengal was made Governor general of India
by Pitts India act.
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 2
c) Only 1
Correct Answer is C (Governor general of Bengal was made governor

general of India by charter act 1833.)
375. Which f the following is/are true?
1. 1773 regulation act made the governor of Bombay & Madras
subordinate to Governor of Bengal.
2. 1773 act authorized the establishment of Supreme Court in Delhi.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Correct Answer is A ( Only 1)

1. Charter act of 1861 restored the power of madras and Bombay
presidencies.
2. 1861 act also established new legislative council for Bengal.
3. 1861 act recognised the portfolio system.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) None
Correct Answer is B (1, 2 and 3)

1. Charter act of 1833 ended activities of east India company as a
commercial entity.
2. Charter act 1833 made an attempt to introduce the open
competition system in civil services.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Correct Answer is C (Both of the above )

1. The legislative and executive functions of governor general council
were separated by charter act 1853.
2. An open competition system in civil service got introduced as per
charter act 1853
a) None
b) Only 1
d) Only 2
Correct Answer is C (An attempt to introduce the open competition was

made in 1833 but the system finally got introduced in 1853.)
1. 1853 act Dual system of government (Dyarchy) was started
2. 1892 act Increased the non official members in council.
3. 1909 act Increased the size of legislative council.
4. 1919 act Divided the subjects into transferred and reserved
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
Correct Answer is C (Dyarchy started in 1919 Montague chelmsford

reforms.)
1. GoI Act 1919 introduced Bicameralism for the first time in the
country.
2. The principle of separate electorates was extended by 1919 act.
a) Only 2
c) Only 1
Correct Answer is B (Both of the above)

1. France constitution is rigid in the sense that Special procedure
(60% majority votes in both the House of Parliament) is required.
2. U.S. constitution is flexible as no special procedure is required for
Constitutional amendment.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
Correct Answer is A (In Britain, however, no special procedure is required.)

1. Article 201 Withholding power of president
2. Article 123 Promulgation of ordinance
3. Article 72 Pardoning power of president
4. Article 161 Pardoning power of Governor
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
Correct Answer is B ( 1,2,3 and 4 )

383 Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct?
1. 44th schedule can be subjected to judicial review if fundamental
rights under article 14,15,19 and 21 are being violated.
2. The same was determined under I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
Correct Answer is C (9th schedule can be subjected to judicial review if

fundamental rights under article 14,15,19 and 21 are being violated.)
1. In U.S., The residuary powers are vested in the states
2. In France, local governments are created and abolished by central
government.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Correct Answer is C (both correct )

1. Part XI contains Finance, property and suits.
2. Part IX of our constitution consists – The Panchayats.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Correct Answer is B ( Part XI – Relations between the Union and the States.
Part XII is about finance, property and suits. )
1. Indian constitution was framed under Cabinet mission plan 1946.
2. Indian Constitution contains a preamble, 22 parts and 12 schedules.
3. Part IX-B of our constitution consists – The Municipalities.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) None
Correct Answer is A (Part IXB – The Cooperative Societies.)

1. In Japan, both the houses are directly elected.
2. Just like india, in Japan PM and cabinet are answerable to
Parliament.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Correct Answer is C (Both Correct.)

1. The lower house in Germany is called Bundestag.
2. In China, The Legislative Body is called Duma
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Correct Answer is A ( In Russia, The Legislative Body is called Duma)

1. France's constitution is called Constitution of the Fifth Republic
2. In Russia, President is elected for four year term
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
Correct Answer is A (In Russia, President is elected for six year term.)
1. Term constitution comes through French from the Latin word
constitutio.
2. Constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary system is a
prominent feature of American System.
a) Only 2
c) Only 1
Correct Answer is C (Constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary system is

a feature of British system.)
391) Which Of the following article talks about Inter-State water disputes?
(a) Article 260
(b) Article 261
(c) Article 262
(d) Article 263
Correct Answer is Article 262 (There has been 8 Inter state water tribunal
which have been established so far.)
392) Vansdhara Water dispute Tribunal involve which of the following
states?
1. Odisha
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Bihar
Which of the above are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (Bihar is not included.)

393) Which of the following states are included in Mahadayi water disputes?
1. Goa
2. Karnataka
3. Maharashtra
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (The inter-state tribunal was established in 2010.)

394) Which of the following is also called Constitutional emergency?
(a) National Emergency
(b) Presidents Rule
(c) Financial Emergency
(d) External Emergency
Correct Answer is B (Presidents rule is also called state emergency or

Constitutional emergency. It has been imposed numerous times.)
1. There are five zonal Council.
2. North-east council is in addition to the five zonal counsels.
3. Uttar Pradesh falls in the central zonal Council
4. Uttarakhand falls in the North zonal Council.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is A (Uttarakhand falls in the central zonal Council.)

396) Which of the following Article talks about Inter-state Council?
(a) Article 263
(b) Article 264
(c) Article 265
(d) Article 266

397) Which of the following commission established on the issue of Centre-
State relations?
(a) BN Krishanan Commission
(b) Sarkaria Commission
(c) Bachwat Commission
(d) Dhar Commission
Correct Answer is Sarkaria Commission (Sarkaria Commission)

1. Prime Minister is the chairman of Inter-state Council
2. Inter-state Council was first established by Janta Dal
Government.
3. Inter-state Council is the recommendatory body.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

1. Inter-state Council is assisted by a Inter-state Council
secretariat.
2. Standing committee of the Council assists the Interstate Council.
3. Prime Minister is the chairman of the standing committee of the
Council.

(1) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B (Home Minister is the chairman of the standing

committee of the Council.)
400) which one of the following is the chairman of Zonal Council?
(a) Prime minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Correct Answer is Home Minister (Home Minister)

1. Fundamental rights are given under part III of the constitution
2. DPSPs are given under part IV of the constitution.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer "Both are correct”

402. which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
1. Article 38 Welfare
2. Article 41 Right to Work
2. Article 42 Bonded labour
3. Article 43 Adequate wages
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All are correct
D is the Correct Answer "All Options are Correct "
403. Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct ?

1. DPSPs are justiciable in nature.
2. Articles 36-51 deal with DPSPs.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer “DPSPs are non justiciable. One cannot go to court
to get them enforced”
1. Article 44 talks about rights of women.
2. Article 45 talks about early childhood care.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer "Article 44 talks about uniform civil code."

1. Article 47 concerns with public health.
2. Article 48 deals with animal husbandry.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer "Both are Correct"

1. Article 45 is a liberal directive principle.
2. Article 40 is a Gandhian principle.
3. Article 47 is a socialist principle.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) None
A is the Correct Answer "Article 47 can be cited as a Gandhian and liberal
principle"

1. Article 40 demands the establishment of Gram Panchayats.
2. Article 43 demands the formation of cottage industries.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer "Both are Correct"

1. Article 47 deals with banning slaughtering of Cows.
2. Article 48 deals with banning consumption of liquor.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer. (Article 48 bans slaughtering of cow and 47 deals

with banning liquor consumption")
409. Which of the following is/are true ?
1. 86th constitutional amendment act introduced RTE.
2. Article 21B was introduced via 86th amendment.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer"Article 21A was introduced"

1. Article 51 encourages international peace.
2. Article 48A protects the environment.
a) Only 2
c) Only 1
B is the Correct Answer. "Both are Correct"

1. Part XIV of the constitution deals with civil services rules.
2. Chapter I of part XIV contains articles such as 309, 310, 311
and 312.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer " Both are Correct "

1 Article Supreme court can pass orders which are necessary to do
142 complete justice
2 Article S.C. can give special leave for appeal from any court or
136 tribunal.
3 Article No limitation regarding the cases in which the power is
142 exercised.
4 Article An appeal may lie even for interlocutory order.
136
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
B is the Correct Answer " All options are correct "

413. Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct with
respect civil services?
1. Article 309 deals with recruitment and conditions of service of
persons serving the Union or a State Subject.
2. Article 310 deals with conditions of service.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer " 309 deals with condition of service and 310 deals
with tenure of office. Remember TENure and 310 "

1. Article 311 provides safeguard to the people employed in the
service.
2. Article 312 talks about the creation of new All India Service.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer " parliament can create legislation to create new all
India services under article 312 "

1. Chapter I of part XIV deals with services.
2. Chapter II of part XIV deals with public service commission.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer " chapter I deals with article 308 to 313 and Chapter
II deals with article 315 to 323 "
1. Article 311(2) which places restriction on the pleasure is
applicable only to the Civil services.
2. The expression civil means an appointment, office or
employment on the civil side of the administration which is
distinguished from military side.
3. IFoS is a central service.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) None
A is the Correct Answer " IFoS is an all India service "

1. Our civil service model is based on British model.
2. Article 310 of Indian constitution incorporates the common law
doctrine of pleasure.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer " both are correct "

1. Person employed in civil services under article 311(1) shall not
be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the authority by which
they were appointed.
2. Article 311(2) is silent about minor punishment.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer "both are correct "

419. which of the following is/are true ?
1. With respect to all India service penalty, dismissal and removal
or compulsory retirement can be imposed by GoI not by the state
government.
2. A person who is retired can claim right under article 31.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer " A person who is retired can't claim right under
article 31 "
1. Dismissal from service disqualifies a person from further
reemployment in government.
2. Removal from service does not disqualify a person from
reemployment in government.
a) Only 2
c) Only 1
D is the Correct Answer "Both of the Above"

1. Supreme Court judge does hold office on the pleasure of president.
2. Election commissioner does not require pleasure of the president.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer". (Even SC judge does not require the pleasure of
president.) "
422. How many days are allocated for Short Duration Discussion per week?
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Correct Answer is A (2 days)

1. In case of discharge from service opportunity to defend is extended.
2. In the case of Dismissal or Removal, no opportunity to defend is extended
a) Only 1
b) None of the above.
c) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer"(discharge does not give opportunity to defend but

dismissal and removal give the same.) "
1. As per Article 311(2), enquiry for dismissal is not necessary when the
interest of the security of state is involved.
2. As per Article 311(2) enquiry is not necessary when it is impracticable to
give civil servant an opportunity to defend himself.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer"(both are correct.) "

1. In disciplinary proceedings where doctrine of proof beyond reasonable
doubt does not apply, we apply principle of preponderance of probabilities.
2. Article 311 does not apply on probationers when removed on ground of
unsuitability.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer"(both options are correct.) "

1. Article 148 provides for independent office of CAG.
2. Article 149 authorises parliament to describe the power and duties of
CAG.
3. Article 150 prescribes the forms of account.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) None
B is the Correct Answer"(All options are correct. There is article 151 which
is about submission of audit report.) "
1. CAG can be removed by both the houses with simple majority.
2. CAG can hold office for 6 years or up to the age of 65. whichever is
earlier.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
B is the Correct Answer"(CAG is removed by special majority.) "

1. The salary of CAG is equal to the judge of supreme court.
2. CAG salary cannot be altered in his disadvantage.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer"(both options are correct.) "

1. CAG audits the accounts of union and state governments.
2. The accounts of local bodies are not audited by CAG in any situation.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer"(CAG has to audit the accounts of local bodies if

requested by the president.) "
1. CAG is not responsible for maintenance and compilation of accounts.
2. CAG submits the audit report to the president.
a) Only 2
c) Only 1
B is the Correct Answer "(CAG was relieved from the responsibilities of

maintenance in 1976.) "
1. Appropriation accounts compare the actual expenditure with the
sanctioned ones.
2. Apart from appropriation account, CAG also submits report on
finance accounts and public accounts to the president.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer"(Both the options are correct.) "

1 ONGC CAG does the audit
2 LIC Audit is done by private Audit is done by private auditors
auditors.
3 IFC Audit is done by private auditors and
CAG together
4 SBI Audit is done by CAG
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) None
A is the Correct Answer"(SBI, LIC and RBI's audits are done by private
auditors. ) "
1. CAG can also go for Propriety audit.
2. Propriety audit is discretionary.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer"(both options are correct.) "

1. The CAG office in India is similar to that of in Britain.
2. CAG is responsible for both comptrolling and auditing
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
D is the Correct Answer "(CAG in India is different from britain. The reason
being in India, comptrolling function is not under the ambit of CAG, but in
britain it is. In India, if money needs to be withdrawn from consolidated fund
of India, the permission of CAG is not required.) "
1. Indian forest service was created in 1966.
2. IFoS is the coveted central service.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer "(IFoS is an all India service.) "

1. AIS (All India Service) is controlled by Centre and State.
2. Central service is under the exclusive jurisdiction of centre government.
3. The central services are divided into Group A,B,C and D.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) None
B is the Correct Answer "(All options are correct.) "

1. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel is regarded as father of all India services.
2. The officers of AIS and central services are Gazetted officers.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer "(Group A and B belong to the gazetted class.) "
1. In Government, Gazetted class are called officers.
2. Non-Gazetted class called employees.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
C is the Correct Answer"(Both are correct.) "

1. Principle of pleasure applies to Civil and Military posts.
2. No compensation is given when a government post is abolished.
a) Only 1
b) None
c) Only 2
A is the Correct Answer"(The compensation provision exists given the fact
that no misconduct is involved.) "

1. Article 311 provides safeguard to the civil servants.
2. Article 311 puts restrictions on the principle of pleasure.
a) Only 2
c) Only 1
B is the Correct Answer"(Both are correct.) "
441. Which of the following first suggested setting up of Lokpal and

Lokyukta?
(a) Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC)
(b) Government of India act 1947
(c) Constitution of India
Correct Answer is A
(Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC))
442. Which of the following Institute or institutes work under Central
Vigilance Commission?
1. CVC Secretariat
2. Chief Technical Examiners Wing
3. Commissioners for Departmental Enquiries

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C
(All work under Central Vigilance Commission.)
443. Which of the following is not included in the motto of CBI?
1. Industry
2. Impartiality
3. Intelligence
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A
(It is Integrity, not Intelligence.)
444. Who is the head of the committee which recommends the appointment
of director of CBI?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Vigilance Commissioner
Correct Answer is D
(Chief Vigilance Commissioner)
445. Which statement/statements is/are correct?
1. Special police Establishment is a division of CBI
2. CBI Academy is located at Ghaziabad.
3. CBI comes under the administrative control of Ministry of
Home Affairs.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer is D
(CBI comes under the administrative control of Department of personnel and
training (DoPT).)
446 In which country the institution of ombudsman was first created?
(a) US
(b) Singapore
(c) Sweden
(d) Switzerland
Correct Answer is Sweden

(In 1809, the first institution of ombudsman was created in Sweden. The
word Ombud in Swedish means a person who acts as a spokesman all
representative of another person.)
447. Where does the CBI derive its power?
(a) Constitution
(b) CBI act
(c) From People
(d) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946
Correct Answer is Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946

(CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its power from Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act 1946.)
1. CVC is a statutory body.
2. CBI was set up by a resolution of Ministry of home affairs.
3. CBI was established as per the recommendation of Santhanam
committee

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D
(All are correct.)
1. CVC has the power of a civil court.
2. CVC presents annually report of its performance to the
Parliament.
3. All the ministries and departments of the union government
have a Chief vigilance officer.

(a) only 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C
(CVC presents annually report of its performance to the President.)
450. Where the headquarters of CVC is located?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) New Delhi
Correct Answer is D
(New Delhi)
451) how many sub rights are given under article 19?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Correct Answer is 6 (Six sub rights are there under Article 19.)
452) consider the following statements...
1. When a national emergency is declared on the grounds of
armed rebellion that is called internal emergency.
2. 44th Amendment act curtail the power of Prime Minister in
imposing emergency.
3. As per 38th Amendment act 1975, Judicial review is not
permissible with respect to national emergency
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (However, 44th Amendment act Deleted the provision
of judicial review given in 13th Amendment act. Now, after Minerva Mills
case the emergency can be questioned in the court on the basis of malafide.)
1. Proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses
viz. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
2. It must be passed in two months of proclamation.
3. If an emergency is passed By both the houses it continues for
6 Months.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (It must be passed in one month of proclamation.The
emergency can be extended up to an indefinite period but has to be approved
every six months. The 44th Constitution Amendment act added the provision
of periodic Approval.)
454) Which of the following majority is required for proclamation or
continuation of emergency?
(a) Either house of Parliament by a Simple majority
(b) Either house of Parliament by a Special majority
(c) Upper house of Parliament by a special majority
(d) Lower house of Parliament by a special majority
Correct Answer is B (A majority of total membership of that house along
with Not less than 2/3rd of the member of the house present voting.)
1. President can revoke the emergency at any time.
2. 1/10th of the total member of Lok Sabha can also give notice to
Speaker to consider a resolution which disapproves the
continuation of proclamation.
3. Resolution of approval of continuation has to be passed by both
the Houses of Parliament with special majority
4. Resolution of disapproval needs to be passed by the Lok Sabha
only and that too with simple majority.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is D (All are correct)
456) The life of the Lok Sabha can be extended beyond the usual five years
for ______ year at a time?
(a) 6 Months
(b) 1 year
(c) 3 Months
(d) 2 years
Correct Answer is B(This extension can go any length of time. But, once the
emergency ceases to operate then Lok Sabha cannot continue for a period
beyond 6 months.)
457) Which of the following article deals with suspension of fundamental
rights given in article 19?
(a) Article 355
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 357
(d) Article 358
Correct Answer is D (Article 359, on the other hand, deals with other
fundamental rights which can be suspended except article 19 which is
suspended by article 358, and article 20 and 21 which are not suspended.)
1. Article 19 cannot be suspended only on the grounds of external
aggression or War.
2. Article 19 can be suspended in the case of armed rebellion.
3. Laws which are related to emergency and the executive actions
taken related to such laws are protected.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is A (Article 19 can be suspended only on the grounds of
external aggression or War. Article 19 cannot be suspended in the case of
armed rebellion.)
1. Article 358 uses with article 19, and article 359 deals with rest
of the fundamental rights.
2. Article 358 automatically suspends article 19 while other rights
are not automatically suspended by article 359
3. Article 358 extends to entire country while 359 may or may not
extend to the entire country.
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is (All are Correct.)
460) How many times The National Emergency has been declared?
(a) One Time
(b) Two times
(c) Four Times
(d) Three times
Correct Answer is Three times. (1962, 1971 and 1975 were the years when
the national emergency was proclaimed. Whereas the first two one on the
grounds of conflict with China and Pakistan, the third one was because of
internal disturbances.)
461) Which of the following article makes it a duty of centre that every State
shall be carried out as per the Constitution ?
(a) Article 355
(b) Article 358
(c) Article 357
(d) Article 356
Correct Answer is A (Article 355)
1. The President's rule should be approved by both Loksabha and
Rajysabha within 2 months.
2. Once approved, the President's rule continues for 1 year.
3. The Presidents rule can be extended up to 3 years, and not
indefinitely as in the case of LokSabha.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (The 44th Amendment act of 1978 impose restrictions
on extension of proclamation of Presidents rule beyond One year. The
provision was added that it has to be extended by six months at a time given
the two conditions. First, national emergency is in existence in the entire
country and election commission must certify that the legislative assemblies
election cannot be executed.)
463) Which statement/statements is/are correct with respect to the President's
rule?
1. The functions of state government can be acquired by the
President.
2. President runs the State's administration directly.
3. Parliament can be given the power of State's legislature
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A (President runs the administration through the
Governor of the State.)
464) What is the maximum period for which a national emergency can stay
the operation?
(a) 1 Year
(b) 3 Years
(c) 6 Months
(d) Indefinitely
Correct Answer is D (President's rule can stay in operation for maximum
three years, it can be extended in exceptional circumstances. But National
emergency can run indefinitely.)
1. 38th constitutional amendment act of 1975 made article 356
unchallengeable in any court.
2. 44th Constitutional Amendment act deleted the provision
introduced by 38th Amendment act.
3. The President's rule is subjective to judicial review is also
determined in Bommai case.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
466) Which of the following is proper use of imposition of President's
Rule ?
(a) Not allowing ministry to prove its majority
(b) Internal disturbances not amounting to physical breakdown
(c) Allegations of corruption against the ministry
(d) Hung Parliament
Correct Answer is D (Hung Parliament)
467) Financial Emergency proclamation must be approved by ..... ?
(a) Loksabha
(b) Rajyasabha
(c) Both the Houses
(d) President Only
Correct Answer is Both the Houses (Financial Emergency can run
indefinitely, there is no maximum period. It can be revoked by President at
any time he/she thinks is suitable.)
1. Resolution for Financial Emergency can be passed by simple
majority.
2. During financial emergency salaries of judges can be reduced.
3. In the financial emergency, repeated parliamentary approval is
required.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1and 2
Correct Answer is D (In financial emergency, repeated parliamentary
approval is not required.)
469) Which statement/statements is/are correct with respect to President's
Rule ?
1. 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 raised the period of 6 months to
one year.
2. 44th Amendment Act of 1978 again reduced the period to 6
months.
3. President’s Rule imposed in Punjab (1987) was allowed to
continue for 5 years under the 68th Amendment Act of 1991.
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (All are Correct)
470) Which of the following amendment introduced the terminology Armed
Rebellion replacing Internal Disturbances?
(a) 46th Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 41th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 45th Constitutional Amendment Act
Correct Answer is 44th Constitutional Amendment Act

(44th Constitutional Amendment Act)
471) Which of the following does not participate in the presidential
elections?
(a) Loksabha
(b) Rajyasabha
(c) Legislative Assemblies of states
(d) Legislative Council of states
Correct Answer is D (Only Legislative Assemblies of states participate.)
1. All disputes in connection with the election of the President are
decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.
2. President is a representative of the states only.
3. In India, a President can be appointed any number of times.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A (President a representative of the Union and the states
equally.)
1. A 14 days notice is required to start the impeachment charges
against the president.
2. These charges for resolution of impeachment should be signed
by 1/4th of the members.
3. 2/3rd of the total members should pass the resolution to make it
move to the other house.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C (Once the charges are moved to the other house, there
the charges are investigated. The impeachment process of the president is a
quasi-judicial process.)
474) Which of the following does not participate in the impeachment of the
president?
(a) Loksabha
(b) Rajya sabha
(c) Nominated members of Parliament
(d) Legislative Assemblies
Correct Answer is Legislative Assemblies (All the members of the parliament
can participate in the impeachment process of the president.)
475) Which statement/statements is/are correct with respect to president's
legislative power?
1. President nominates 12 members in Rajya Sabha.
2. President may give his assent or may withhold one with respect
to ordinary bills.
3. The prior recommendation of the President is not required in
the case of the money bill.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is A ( The prior recommendation of the President is required

in the case of the money bill. With respect to financial powers, the money
bill can be introduced with a prior recommendation of the President.
Furthermore, it is the president who lays down the budget before the
Parliament and he is the one who recommends for demand for grant.)
476) Which of the following authority constitutes financial commission?
(a) President
(b) Home Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Correct Answer is President (President constitutes financial commission once
in 5 years. The commission's task is to distribute the revenue between Centre
and State.)
477) Which of the following authority can appoint Inter-state Council so that
inter-state relations, as well as the relations between Centre and State could
be promoted?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) President
(d) Vice President
Correct Answer is President (President)
1. The ordinance is given under article 123.
2. The ordinance has to be approved by the Parliament within 6
weeks of its reassembly.
3. The maximum life of an ordinance is 6 months.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is C (The maximum life of an ordinance is 6 months and 6
weeks.)
1. President has the power to pardon, commute, remission, respite
and reprieve.
2. President has the power with respect to court-martial.
3. President is the Supreme Commander of defence forces.
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C (The President is the authority which appoints the chiefs
of Army, Navy and air force. If Parliament approves, he can also declare the
war or peace.)
480) Which of the following veto is not available with President of India?
(a) Absolute veto
(b) Qualified veto
(c) Suspense veto
(d) Pocket veto
Correct Answer is Qualified veto

(In Indian system, there is no qualified veto. however, the same is given to
American President.)
481) In which of the following cases absolute veto can be exercised?
(a) Private members Bill
(b) Government Bills
(c) Money Bills
(d) Constitutional Amendment Bills
Correct Answer is Private members Bill

(Absolute veto can also be exercised in the case of when the Cabinet resigns
after the passage of the bill but before the president's assent. Similarly, the
other case could be when a new cabinet advises not to give the assent to the
President.)
1. Suspensive veto is exercised in the form when the bill is returned
for reconsideration.
2. If the bill comes back to the President, he is supposed to give his
assent.
3. Concerning money bills, suspensive veto is not available with
the President.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is C(After reconsideration when the bill comes to the
President and he has to give his assent therefore we can say that the re-
passaging of the bill has an overriding power over the presidential veto.)
1.The pocket veto may keep the bill pending for an indefinite
period.
2.There is no such time limit provided by the Constitution in the
case of pocket veto.
3. With respect to the constitutional amendment bills, President has
veto power.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is A
(With respect to the constitutional amendment bills, President does not have
any veto power.)
484) Which of the following amendment made the President's satisfaction
final and conclusive with respect to ordinance?
(a) 44th constitutional amendment act
(b) 42nd constitutional amendment act
(c) 38th constitutional amendment act
(d) 39th constitutional amendment act
Correct Answer is 38th constitutional amendment act
(This Constitution amendment put the President's decision out of the purview
of judicial review. However, the 44th amendment changed it all.)
1. Money bill can be rejected.
2. Money bill cannot be returned.
3. A Constitutional amendment bill can be rejected and can be
returned.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is A
(A money bill can be rejected but cannot be returned. Constitutional
amendment bill neither can be rejected nor can be returned)
486) When an ordinance cannot be promulgated?
(a) When Both the houses are in session
(b) When Loksabha is not in session
(c) When Rajyasabha is not in session
(d) When Both the houses are not in session
Correct Answer is A
(When Both the houses are in session.)
487) In which among the following pardoning power the punishment is
reduced without changing its character?
(a) Pardon
(b) Remission
(c) Respite
(d) Commute
Correct Answer is Remission
(However, In Respite, the lesser form of punishment is given all special
grounds like pregnancy or physical disability. Similarly, in commutation
lighter form of punishment is given for instance imprisonment can be given
in place of death sentence.)
1. An ordinance can be retrospective.
2. Ordinance cannot be issued to amend the Constitution.
3. The maximum gap between the two parliamentary sessions can
be six months.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is D
(All are Correct.)
1. Article 161 confers the pardoning power to the Governor.
2. Like President, the Governor can pardon the death sentence.
3. Governor can only suspend, remit or commute the death
sentence.
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is B
(Unlike President, the governor cannot pardon the death sentence.)
490) Which of the following advices the President when there is a question of
exercising pardoning power?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Minister
Correct Answer is Cabinet

(In case of pardoning, the President can take a different view than the court
but he needs to listen Cabinet.)
491) Article 358 works in which of the following case?
(a) Internal Emergency
(b) External emergency
(c) President's Rule
Correct Answer is B
(External emergency)
1. Article 358 suspends the fundamental right given under article
19.
2. Article 359 suspends the fundamental rights other than article
19, 20 and 21.
3. In India, the National emergency has been imposed twice so
far.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Correct Answer is A
(In India the National emergency has been imposed thrice so far. The first
emergency was imposed during India-China war in 1962 then in 1971 and
finally in 1975. The third and final emergency was proclaimed on the
grounds of internal disturbances.)
1. Article 355 mandates the centre to ensure that the State
government should run as per the Constitution.
2. National emergency must be passed by special majority.
3. The President's rule must be passed by simple majority.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct Answer is C
(The president rule can run for a maximum 3 years. it has been imposed
several times. The condition of its extension is when the election commission
agrees that the situation is not germane for conducting an election in the
state.)
494) Which of the following Constitutional Amendment act made the

president bound by the advise of Council of ministers which is headed by the
Prime Minister?
(a) 42nd constitutional amendment act
(b) 38th constitutional amendment act
(c) 24th constitutional amendment act
(d) 45th constitutional amendment act
Correct Answer is A
(42nd constitutional amendment act)
1. President enjoys situational discretion
2. President enjoys constitutional discretion
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None of the Above
Correct Answer is A
(President does not enjoy constitutional discretion.)
496) How many proposers and seconders are required for the nomination of
a candidate in the presidential election?
(a) 10 proposers 10 seconders
(b) 20 proposers 20 seconders
(c) 50 proposers 50 seconders
(d) 100 proposers 50 seconders
Correct Answer is C
(50 proposers, 50 seconders)
497) On which lines the Vice President's office is modeled in India ?
(a) British Vice President
(b) Canadian Vice President
(c) American Vice President
(d) Australian Vice President
Correct Answer is American Vice President
(Vice President is accorded the rank just next to the President. However,
when compared with American Vice President, he does not enjoy much
power. In America, the Vice President succeeds President if the presidential
post is vacant however in India the Vice President can act as a president for a
maximum period of six months and then the presidential elections are
organised.)
498) Which statement/statements is/are correct with respect to situational
discretion of President?
1. President can appoint Prime Minister when nobody has a clear
majority
2. President cannot dismiss the council even when it fails to prove
the confidence in the Lok Sabha
3. When the council loses its majority in the Lok Sabha then the
President can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is B (President can also dismiss the council when it fails to
prove the confidence in the Lok Sabha.)
499) Which statement/statements is/are correct concerning election of the
Vice President?
1. He should be a citizen of India
2. He should not hold any office of profit under local government,
state government or union government
3. He should be qualified for election as a member of Rajya Sabha
(a) only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
500) How many proposers and seconders are required for the nomination of
a candidate in Vice presidential election?
(a) 20 proposers 20 seconders
(b) 10 proposers 10 seconders
(c) 50 proposers 50 seconders
(d) 100 proposers 50 seconders
Correct Answer is A (20 proposers 20 seconders)

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500 Indian Polity MCQs - MCQs PR - DemyNotes

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500 MCQs

Evaluate yourself on Indian Polity

THE CHAPTERS COVERED

Copyright © by DemyNotes All rights are reserved. No part of this book

1)Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer is B (All are correct )

Which of the above correctly matched?

Correct Answer is C ( When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer is A (All are Correct.)

Correct Answer is D (Question hour)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below...

Correct Answer is B (A minister in the LokSabha can also participate in the

Which of the statements given above is are correct...

Correct Answer is A (Representative of people act)

Which of the above is/are correct?

Correct Answer is D (All these motions exist.)

Correct Answer is C (All are Correct.)

Correct Answer is A (Subsidiary motion.)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer is D(Calling attention motion is an Indian invention just like

Correct Answer is 50 members (50 members.)

Which of the statements given above is are correct...

Correct Answer is A (No debate is allowed on a point of order. No-Day-Yet-

Correct Answer is B (The President)

D is the Correct Answer (All are correct.)

Which of the above correctly matched?

Correct Answer is C (All are Correct.)

Correct Answer is A (Chairman is not a member of the house. Deputy

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer is B (The concept of Shadow Cabinet is practiced by British

Correct Answer is C (Dissolution is applicable on Loksabha only.)

Correct Answer is C (The time period can be extended to the National

Select the correct answer using the codes given below...

Which of the statements given above is are correct...

Correct Answer is A (Adjournment Sine Die.)

Correct Answer is 50 members (50 members)

Which of the above correctly matched?

Correct Answer is A (Speaker's working conduct cannot be discussed in the

Correct Answer is C (All are Correct.)

Correct Answer is 7th (In order of precedence, Speaker's rank is 7th.)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer is B (10 Chairperson can be nominated by the speaker.)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below...

Correct Answer is B (The institution of speaker originated in 1921 under the

Which of the statements given above is are correct...

Correct Answer is A (VithalBhai Patel became the first speaker of Central's

Correct Answer is B (Sachidanand Sinha)

Correct Answer is B (A penalty of 500 rupees is imposed on the member.)

Which of the above correctly matched?

Correct Answer is C (Speaker cannot preside in the house when a resolution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer is A (Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of

Select the correct answer using the codes given below...

Correct Answer is D (All the three sources.)

Which of the statements given above is are correct...

Correct Answer is C (All the aforementioned committees.)

Correct Answer is B (Speaker is the chairman of parliamentary committees,

Which of the above correctly matched?

Correct Answer is B (However, if the house is prorogued or adjourned for 4

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer is A (The person can be disqualified if he or she is punished

Correct Answer is A (10th schedule)

Correct Answer is High Court (Representation of the people act, 1951

Correct Answer is D (Apart from this, if a person is elected on two seats in

Which of the statements given above is are correct...