1. Products used in load carrying applications require more careful testing because?

a. Failure can cause loss of life

b. Failure can cause loss of use of the product
c. Failure can be expensive
d. Failure can cause danger to other structures
e. All the above

2. Loads which are most likely to cause failure are?

a. Single direction
b. Multi directional
c. Duo directional
d. Phase orientated

3. The general term for a local variation in material continuity is called?

a. A discontinuity
b. A defect
c. An indication
d. A crack

4. Where an unacceptable condition occurs in a material, due to local variations in

material continuity the term given specifically to this is?

a. A discontinuity
b. A flaw
c. A defect
d. Any of the above

5. Which of the following could be considered a discontinuity?

a. Crack
b. Change of section
c. Drilled holed
d. All the above

6. The study and description of a material property related to analytical studies and
testing attempts to quantify the fracture toughness of a material is known as?

a. Fracture mechanics
b. Acceptance standards
c. Defect reliability
d. Defect analysis
7. A flaw which is deemed to be unacceptable standards is called?

a. A discontinuity
b. A defect
c. An indication
d. A blemish

8. Which of the following is NOT considered a mode of failure?

a. Fracture
b. Plastic deformation
c. Fatigue
d. Elastic deformation

9. Brittle fracture is most likely to occur?

a. At high temperatures
b. At low temperatures
c. Under cyclic loading
d. In a corrosive environment

10. NDT is generally not carried out on cast irons because?

a. Cast iron is inherently free from major defects

b. Due to the high carbon content cast iron can withstand high tensile stresses
c. It is generally used in applications where the loads are principally comprehensive
d. The low cost of cast iron cannot justify the high cost of NDT

11. To make by hand, machinery or by agency: To produce by labour and usally

machinery, defines the?

a. Manufacturing process
b. Engineering process
c. Machinery process
d. Technology

12. Processing is one or more steps that change a Products?

a. Shape
b. Properties
c. Chemical analysis
d. Shape and Properties
e. All the above
13. Changing a material's shape can be accomplished in which of the following states?

a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Plastic
d. Solid and Liquid
e. All of the above

14. Which of the following is an example of reshaping?

a. Casting
b. Forging
c. Grinding
d. All of the above

15. The process of solidification during casting can be likened to that of the?

a. Forging process
b. Rolling process
c. Welding process
d. Extrusion process

16. Reshaping of a material whilst in a plastic or semi-solid form is called?

a. Casting
b. Rolling
c. Extrusion
d. All of the above
e. Rolling and Extrusion

17. Which of the following could be referred to as an engineering material?

a. Plastic
b. Concrete
c. Glass
d. All of the above

18. Which of the following properties of a material can be used to predict the deflection
of a certain size beam under known loads?

a. Tensile strength
b. Elastic limit
c. Younges modules
d. Ductility
19. Which of the following must be considered when choosing an engineering material
for a particular application?

a. Cost
b. Loading
c. Mechanical properties
d. Inspection costs
e. Any of the above

20. Which of the following could effect the properties of an engineering material?

a. Composition
b. Heat treated condition
c. Crystal structure
d. Composition and heat treated condition
e. Composition, heat treated condition and crystal strucure

21. Which of the following is classed as a chemical property?

a. Electrical conductivity
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Corrosion resistance
d. Machine resistance

22. Which of the following is classed as a Physical property?

a. Density
b. Conductivity
c. Melting point
d. All of the above

23. A test designed to determine a materials castability would be classified as looking for
a?

a. Mechanical property
b. Physical property
c. Processing property
d. Chemical property

24. Internal forces acting upon imaginary planes cutting the body being loaded are?

a. Stresses
b. Pressures
c. Strain
d. Fatigues
25. A stress caused by forces at an angle to the plane is known as a?

a. Comprehensive stress
b. Tensile stress
c. Normal stress
d. Shear stress

26. A non-destructive test is usually classified as a?

a. Indirect test
b. Direct test
c. Destructive test
d. Indirect and direct test

27. If a material is loaded until its elastic limit is exceeded, what condition will occur?

a. The material may fracture

b. The material may be work hardened
c. The material will show no harmful effects
d. The material may fracture and the material may be work hardened

28. The ultimate strength of material is?

a. Lower than the breaking strength for ductile materials

b. Lower than the rupture strength for ductile materials
c. The same as the breaking strength for brittle materials
d. None of the above

29. The modulus of elasticity is also known as?

a. Stress's modulus
b. Young's modulus
c. Strain's modulus
d. Resilience

30. Which of the following materials exhibits better compressive strength than tensile
strength?

a. Cast iron
b. Concrete
c. Wood
d. Concrete and wood
e. All the above
31. When a metal is very brittle which test is used to replace the tensile test?

a. The shear test

b. The transverse rupture test
c. The compression test
d. The endurance test

32. Fatigue failure may initiate from?

a. An area of corrosion
b. An internal flaw
c. A surface notch
d. All the above

33. Which of the following is a Notched Bar test?

a. Tensile impact test

b. Charphy test
c. Izod test
d. Charpy test and izod test
e. All the above

34. Hardness tests can be used to determine material?

a. Hardness
b. Composition
c. Heat treated condition
d. All the above

35. The superficial Rockwell test is carried out on materials that?

a. Only allow very small surface blemishes

b. Are very ductile
c. Have very large surface areas
d. None of the above

36. Calculate the factor of safety given that a materials has a working stress of 15, 000 ibs
per square inch and an elastic limit of 60, 000 lbs per square inch?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
37. Which of the following is a notched bar test?

a. Charpy
b. Creep
c. Izod
d. Charpy and Izod
e. All of the above

38. To what angle should a bend test be normally bent?

a. 180 degrees
b. 150 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. None of the above

39. Which of the following is a hardness test?

a. Rockwell
b. Creep
c. Charpy
d. Izod

40. Stresses that act along or parallel to a plane are known as?

a. Shear stresses
b. Tensile stresses
c. Compressive stresses
d. All of the above
1. Electrons in an atom can exist?

a. Only in exact energy levels

b. Only in exact energy shells
c. At random throughout the atom
d. In Exact energy levels and in exact energy shells
e. All the above

2. A material that has high hardness and good electrical and thermal connectivity is
known as?

a. A plastic material
b. A ceramic material
c. A metallic material
d. A liquid material

3. What term is used to define the change of state directly from solid to gas?

a. Crystalisation
b. Vaporisation
c. Sublimation
d. None of the above

4. Which of the following is a crystal lattice that has nine atoms, eight at each corner and

a. one centrally between them?

b. Hexagonal close packing
c. Body centred cubic
d. Face centred cubic
e. Body centred tetragonal

5. Which of the following materials is Body centred cubic at room temperature?

a. Copper
b. Gold
c. Iron
d. Nickel

6. A property of a fine grain material is that it will?

a. Machine more easily than corse grain

b. Case harden more easily than coarse grain
c. Have higher strength than coarse grain
d. All the above
7. Permanent deformation can occur in which of the following ways?

a. Static deformation
b. Twinning deformation
c. Elastic deformation
d. All of the above

8. Work done to produce plastic deformation below a materials re-crystallisation

temperature is known as?

a. Recovery work
b. Cold work
c. Twinning
d. Plasticity work

9. Solution heat treatment requires which of the following?

a. To dissolve maximum amount of equilibrium preciptant in the solid solution

b. Very high temperatures
c. Diffusion times in excess of 24 hours
d. All of the above

10. Preciptation hardening is most commonly carried out on which of the following
materials?

a. Carbon steel
b. Lead
c. Copper
d. Alluminium

11. Altropic changes occur in the?

a. Liquid state
b. Solid state
c. Gaseous state
d. Liquid or solid state

12. Which of the following is an allotropic material?

a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Lead
d. Aluminium
13. A heat treatment process that requires a material to be heated above its critical
temperature for some period of time for carbon to unite in solid solution with iron in
the gamma or F.C.C. lattice is known as?

a. Spherodizing
b. Annealing
c. Austentitization
d. Normalising

14. A process used to decrease hardness, increase ductility and occasionally improve
machinability of high carbon steels is called?

a. Annealing
b. Austenitization
c. Spheroidizing
d. Stress relieving

15. A treatment that is used to give minimum hardness and maximum ductility of steel is?

a. Annealing
b. Austenitization
c. Spheroidizing
d. Normalising

16. Localised corrosion causing deep extend holes is known as?

a. Fisives
b. Pitting
c. Worm holes
d. None of the above

17. Which of the following is classed as permanent deformation?

a. Twinning
b. Rotational deformation
c. Slip
d. Twinning and Slip
e. All of the above

18. Annealing will achieve which of the following properties?

a. Increase ductility and decrease hardness

b. Increase ductility and increase hardness
c. Decrease ductility and increase hardness
d. Decrease ductility and decrease hardness
19. Of the following metals which is most suceptible to corrosion by sea water?

a. Gold
b. Copper
c. Zinc
d. Lead

20. During the hardening of steel which of the following quenching media will produce
the severest quench?

a. Water
b. Brine
c. Oil
d. Air

21. Which is the most common metallic element found on earth?

a. Iron
b. Titanium
c. Aluminium
d. Magnesium

22. The product of a blast furnace is known as?

a. Iron
b. Steel
c. Pig iron
d. A pig

23. What is the approproximate carbon content of Pig iron?

a. 1-2%
b. 2-3%
c. 3-4%
d. 4-5%

24. When the carbon content of iron is reduced below 2% it is called?

a. Steel
b. Gray iron
c. White iron
d. Ductile iron
25. A Bessemer converter is?

a. A method of producing cast iron

b. A method of producing pig iron
c. A method of producing wrought iron
d. A method of producing steel

26. Practically all steel is made with the use of?

a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Helium

27. The carbon content of low carbon steel is?

a. 6-25 points of carbon

b. 25-50 points of carbon
c. 0.06%-0.25% of carbon
d. 6-25 points and 0.06%-0.25% of carbon
e. None of the above

28. The carbon content of high carbon steel is?

a. 6-25 points of carbon

b. 25-50 points of carbon
c. 50-160 points of carbon
d. Over 160 points of carbon

29. An alloy steel is a steel containing one or more?

a. Elements
b. Atoms
c. Mixtures
d. Components

30. What do the letters AISI?

a. American Institute of Steel Industries

b. American Iron and Steel Industries
c. American Industries of Steel Institutes
d. American Iron and Steel Institute
31. Which of teh following is a classification of Stainless Steel?

a. Ferritic
b. Martensitic
c. Austenitic
d. Ferritic and Austenitic
e. All of the above

32. Austenitic stainless steel most typically contain?

a. 18% Chromium 8% Nickel

b. 15% Chromium 10% Nickel
c. 10% Chromium 15% Nickel
d. 8% Chromium 18% Nickel

33. Which of the following metals can be magentised?

a. Martensitic stainless
b. Ferritic stainless
c. Austenitic stainless
d. Martensitic stainless and Ferritic stainless
e. None of the above

34. Which of the following may be used as an alloying element of steel?

a. Copper
b. Nickel
c. Aluminium
d. None of the above
e. All the above

35. Steel has a carbon content of less than?

a. 4%
b. 3%
c. 2%
d. 1%

36. Which is the main alloying element of austenitic stainless steels?

a. Nickel
b. Manganese
c. Molybdenum
d. Chromium
37. Which of the following furnaces is NOT used to produce steel?

a. Blast furnace
b. Bessemer converter
c. Basic oxygen furnace
d. Open hearth furnace

38. Tool and die steels are classed as?

a. Low carbon steels

b. Medium carbon steels
c. High carbon steels
d. Alloy steels

39. Which of the following alloying additions are used to produce tool and die steels?

a. Nickel
b. Chromium
c. Manganese
d. All of the above
e. Both Chromium and Manganese
1. Which of the following is classified as a non-ferrous light alloy?

a. Beryllium base
b. Zinc base
c. Tin base
d. Copper base

2. Of the following, which is considered the most important structural non-ferrous metal?

a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Tin
d. Aluminium

3. Aluminium cannot be used in most areas where vibrations combine with high stress.
There are special care has to be taken to remove all stress raisers. Which below is
considered a stress rasier?

a. A notch
b. A scratch
c. A sudden change of section
d. A notch and a scratch
e. All of the above

4. When applying the term annealed to pure aluminium it is interpreted to mean?

a. Work hardenning
b. Re-crsytalisation
c. Stress releasing
d. Normalising

5. Which NDT method can be used to give general sorting of aluminium alloys?

a. UT
b. MT
c. RT
d. ET

6. Which metal is most used in electrical work, wiring, etc?

a. Copper
b. Brass
c. Aluminium
d. Steel
7. It is generally understood that the principal alloying elements of brass are?

a. Copper and tin

b. Copper and zinc
c. Bronze and tin
d. Tin and zinc

8. Which two NDT methods are usually used to inspect Magnesium components?

a. Radiography and penetrant

b. Radiography and magnetic particle
c. Ultrasonic and magnetic particle
d. Ultrasonic and penetrant

9. Wrought zinc and its alloys have very little NDT inspection on them, when a material
is plated with zinc it is known as?

a. Anodizing
b. Wrapping
c. Galvanising
d. Flashing

10. Thermoplasting can be?

a. Melted down and re-used without loss of properties

b. Softened by heat
c. Will char when heated
d. Melted down and re-used without loss of properties and softened by heat

11. Thermosetting plastics are?

a. Rigid
b. Deteriorated by heat
c. Charred by heat
d. All of the above

12. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is classed as a light alloy?

a. Beryllium base
b. Zinc base
c. Tin base
d. All of the above

13. Which of the metals listed below has the highest strength to weight ratio?
a. Beryllium
b. Titanium
c. Aluminium
d. Zinc
14. One of the major drawbacks of magnesium alloys is?

a. Poor corrosion resistance

b. Notch sensitivity
c. High density
d. More expensive than using beryllium which exhibits similar properties

15. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is almost exclusively die-cast?

a. Aluminium
b. Copper
c. Magnesium
d. Zinc

16. Cobalt is used as an alloying constituent in?

a. Bearing alloys
b. Solders
c. Permanent magnets
d. Dental alloys

17. Manufacturing is a term used generally to describe the ??? of a bulk material?

a. Designing
b. Production
c. Shape changing
d. Casting

18. Which of the following is classed as a manufacturing process?

a. Casting
b. Welding
c. Machining
d. Rolling
e. All of the above

19. Which of the following manufacturing processes is the most economical method of
producing complex shapes?

a. Casting
b. Forging
c. Rolling
d. Welding
20. In modern manufacturing industries which of the following factors are considered?

a. Markets
b. Product life
c. Design
d. Manufacturing process
e. All of the above

21. Which of the following is required when making a sand casting?

a. A mold
b. A pattern
c. A flask
d. All of the above

22. Shrinkage within a casting can occur in which of the following states?

a. Liquid state
b. Solidification
c. Solid state
d. Solidification and solid state
e. All of the above

23. Pattern makers shrinkage occurs in?

a. Liquid state of casting

b. Solidification state of casting
c. Solid state of casting
d. All of the above

24. When a change of wall thickness is required in a casting what would give the best
design results?

a. Sudden section change

b. Small radii
c. Large radii
d. All of the above

25. Metal is fed into the casting cavity through a ??? system?

a. Flow system
b. Gating system
c. Pouring system
d. Riser system
26. Wells outside the normal finished casting are there to allow for?

a. Gas evolution
b. Sand erosion
c. Shrinkage
d. Airlocks

27. Directional solidification in Castings is helped by the use of?

a. Cores
b. Feederheaders
c. Chills
d. Chaplets

28. Where holes or cavities are required in the finished casting a ??? is used in the
modling stage?

a. Chill
b. Ingate
c. Riser
d. Core

29. Green sand is a mixture of sand and?

a. Clay
b. Silicon
c. Water
d. Clay and water
e. All of the above

30. The upper half of a flask is called?

a. A drag
b. A cope
c. A draft
d. A mould

31. Small metal supports which become part of the casting during pouring are called?

a. Chills
b. Chaplets
c. Cores
d. Risers
32. Which of the following casting processes is best used for small intricate casting - upto
2kg - requiring close tolerances?

a. Centrifugal casting
b. Investment casting
c. Continuous casting
d. Permanent mold casting

33. The casting process which gives improved material density towrads the outside of teh
mold is?

a. Centrifugal casting
b. Investment casting
c. Continuous casting
d. Permanent mold casting

34. The casting process which produces bar is known as?

a. Centrifugal casting
b. Last wax process
c. Continuous casting
d. Plaster mold casting

35. Splashed metal entrapped by molten metal that does not re-fuse is called?

a. Hot tear
b. Chill
c. Inclusion
d. Cold shut

36. The bottom part of the flask is known as the?

a. Cope
b. Bottom board
c. Drag
d. Runner

37. Which of the following is used to give preferential solidification of castings?

a. Chills
b. Chaplets
c. Cores
d. None of the above
38. In the casting process what name is given to the part which is used to represent the
finished item?

a. The mould
b. The spruce
c. The pattern
d. The shell

39. The crystal structure of a casting adjacent to the mould wall will be?

a. Fine equiaxed grains

b. Core equiaxed grains
c. Columnar grains
d. Dendritic

40. Shrinkage occuring in the casting process can be divided into how many stages?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
1.Which of the following is required - in theory - for two perfectly matched faces?

a. Atomic cleanliness
b. Atomic closeness
c. Pressure
d. Atomic cleanliness and atomic pressure
e. All the above

2. Fusion bonding creates a metallurgical effect similar to?

a. Rolling
b. Forging
c. Casting
d. Sintering

3. The bonding process giving very high efficiency is?

a. Fusion bonding
b. Pressure bonding
c. Flow bonding
d. Atomic bonding

4. A bonding process where only very small amounts of the base metal is used is called?

a. Fusion bonding
b. Pressure bonding
c. Flow bonding
d. Cold bonding

5. Flow bonding is a particular type of bond, which listed below would be classed as a
flow bond?

a. Fusion welding
b. Braze welding
c. Metal arc welding
d. None of the above

6. Which of these defects can be found in fusion welds?

a. Porosity
b. Slag
c. Cracks
d. All of the above
7. That portion of the base metal affected by the welding process is known as?

a. The weld zone

b. The heat input zone
c. The weld affect zone
d. The heat affected zone

8. Multiple cooling rates can have adverse affects on weld areas. What can be done to
offset this problem?

a. Use different alloy rods to control temperature

b. Using a pre-heat
c. Use different alloy rods to control temperature and using a pre-heat
d. Nothing can be done to offset the problem

9. Angular distortionmay occur in a weld when?

a. Restraints are used

b. Multipass welds are used
c. Single pass welds are used
d. Multiple welds and single pass welds are used

10. Longitudinal stresses in a weld are at a maximum?

a. Along the weld centre line

b. On the weld fusion face
c. At the heat affected zone
d. Lomgitudinal stresses are uniform across teh weld

11. What is required to form a fusion bond?

a. Melting of parent metals

b. A filler rod
c. Pressure
d. All of the above

12. Flow bonding is a term used in the welding process which of the following would be
classed as flow bonding?

a. Brazing
b. Braze welding
c. Soldering
d. All of the above
13. To join two metals which of teh following is essential?

a. Atomic closeness
b. Atomic cleanliness
c. Melting
d. Atomic closeness and cleanliness
e. All the above

14. In order to produce a fully homgenous material afetr welding which of the following
is required?

a. Preheat
b. Post heat treatment
c. Low heat input welding
d. Fillers of different composition

15. In electric arc welding, a metal rod is one electrode, the other is?

a. The work material

b. The rod flux
c. The earth
d. The work material and the rod flux

16. Stud welding is used primarily to?

a. Bond two dissimilar metals

b. Attach threaded fasteners to plates
c. Rivot plates together
d. Fuse bar ends together

17. A welding electrode coatings provides?

a. A shield for the arc against the atmosphere

b. Added heat input
c. Additional stresses to the weld
d. None of the above

18. Where gas is used as a shield for the welding process the gas is commonly?

a. Argon
b. Helium
c. Hydrogen
d. Argon and Helium
e. All of the above
19. When using gas metal arc welding what range of filler wire diameter is available?

a. 0.1-0.5mm
b. 0.5-3mm
c. 0.1-30mm
d. 0.5-10mm

20. Automatic welding under a flux is more commonly known as?

a. TIG welding
b. Manual metal arc welding
c. Submerged arc welding
d. Stick welding

21. Spot welding is commonly used in which of the following applications?

a. Car manufacturing
b. Seam welding
c. Shipbuilding
d. Fabrication yards

22. Which welding process takes place in a vacuum?

a. Plasma arc welding

b. Electron beam welding
c. Friction welding
d. Explosion welding

23. Which welding process is generally used to weld the ends of heavy round bars or
tubes?

a. Ultrasonic welding
b. Electroslag welding
c. Plasma arc welding
d. Friction welding

24. Explosion welding is generally used to join?

a. Two or more metals of different composition

b. Butt welds
c. Very think titanium sheeting
d. Plastics
25. The drawing symbol at the bottom of the page marked one illustrates a?

a. Bevel groove
b. Fillet
c. J Groove
d. Vee Groove

26. The drawing symbol at the bottom of the page marked two illustrates a?

a. Vee Groove
b. J Groove
c. U Groove
d. Bevel Groove

27. AWS categorise weld defects into three classes which below is a dimensional defect?

a. Slag
b. Warping
c. Lack of fusion
d. Porosity

28. Which of the following is classed as a structural defect?

a. Undercut
b. Slag
c. Incomplete fusion
d. Slag and incomplete fusion
e. All of the above

29. Which of the following defects occur in the base metal?

a. Lamination
b. Slag inclusion
c. Lack of fusion
d. Lack of penetration

30. Welds without preheat are said to have?

a. Very low thermal gradients

b. Low thermal gradients
c. Medium thermal gradients
d. High thermal gradients
31.Why is it advisable to leave final inspection of a weld until well after welding has
finished?

a. Because the welds will be too hot to test

b. Due to the possibility of distortion
c. Due to the possibility of post weld cracking
d. All of the above

32. What is the approximate arc column temperature in an electric arc weld?

a. 6000 degrees celsius

b. 5000 degrees celsius
c. 4000 degrees celsius
d. 3000 degrees celsius

33. Which of the following is classified as an inert gas?

a. Hydrogen
b. Helium
c. Oxygen
d. All of the above
e. Hydrogen and helium only

34. Which weld process has a non-consumable electrode?

a. Manual metal arc

b. Metal inert gas
c. Tungsten inert gas
d. Manual metal arc and metal inert gas

35. The weld symbol µ is used to symbolise a?

a. Fillet weld
b. U-Groove
c. Bevel groove
d. None of the above

36. When using basic symbols for NDT what letters are used to denote liquid penetrant
testing?

a. LPT
b. FPT
c. PT
d. RPT
37. Which of the following processes could be performed using oxyacetylene equipment?

a. Flame cutting
b. Brazing
c. Soldering
d. Brazing and Soldering
e. All of the above

38. How might a weld arc be shielded from oxidation?

a. Flux powders
b. Welding rod coatings
c. Inert gases
d. Welding rod coatings and inert gases
e. All of the above

39. The ease with which a solid union may be made between two parts by welding is
known as?

a. Weldability
b. Joining
c. Buttering
d. Soldering

40. A typical temperature range to stress relieve ferritic steel is?

a. 100-150 degrees celsius

b. 250-300 degrees celsius
c. 600-650 degrees celsius
d. 900-950 degrees celsius
1. Which of the following metals has very little ductility?

a. Copper
b. Steel
c. Iron
d. Aluminium

2. Mechanical properties are generally improved?

a. In the direction of rolling

b. 30 degrees to the direction of rolling
c. 45 degrees to the direction of rolling
d. 90 degrees to the direction of rolling

3. Grain refinement for metals existing in one crystalline form can be accomplished by?

a. Hot working
b. Cold working
c. Recrystallisation
d. Hot working and recrystallisation
e. All the above

4. For steels hot working is performed at temperatures of?

a. 500-750 degrees celsius

b. 750-950 degrees celsius
c. 950-1300 degrees celsius
d. 1300-1500 degrees celsius

5. How generally is a decarburised layer removed?

a. Heat treatment
b. Surface removal
c. Stress relief
d. Annealing
e. All of the above

6. Improved properties can be achieved by?

a. Cold rolling
b. Hot rolling
c. Extrusion
d. All of the above
7. Most materials used in Mill work start out as?

a. Cast ingots
b. Slabs
c. Billets
d. Blooms

8. Which listed below have approximately square cross sections?

a. Slab
b. Bloom
c. Billet
d. Bloom and Billet
e. All of the above

9. Of these methods listed below which will eliminate the need for an ingot?

a. Hot rolling
b. Continuous casting
c. Extrusion
d. None of the above

10. Which of the following may be considered as a flat product of the steel mill?

a. Sheet
b. Plate
c. Strip
d. Sheet and Strip
e. All of the above

11. Mill work covers many products. Which below would be classed as a mill product?

a. Pipe
b. Tube
c. Casting
d. Pipe and tube
e. None of the above

12. Pipe and tube may be manufactured using which technique?

a. Extruding
b. Rolling
c. Resistance welding
d. Extruding and Rolling
e. All of the above
13. One type of forging operation uses?

a. Rolling
b. Casting
c. Open dies
d. Extrusion

14. The principal NDT method to locate internal discontinuities in forgings is?

a. UT
b. RT
c. ET
d. MT

15. Impact forging is more commonly known as?

a. Open die forging

b. Drop forging
c. Closed die
d. Rotary swaging

16. The term used in powder metallurgy for the bonding of the solid particles is?

a. Pressing
b. Blending
c. Sintering
d. Mixing

17. A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is?

a. Cutting tools
b. Castings for human implants
c. Extrusion of thin sections
d. Metal fabrication of minute welds

18. Which of the following has an essentially rectangular cross-section?

a. Bar
b. Bloom
c. Slab
d. Billet
19. Which of the following is an advantage of the continuous casting process?

a. Removes the requirement for ingots

b. Reduces wastage of material
c. Can produce intricate cross sections
d. Removes the requirement for ingots and reduces wastage of material
e. All of the above

20. Sheets of metal before it is rolled into pipe using a welding bell is called?

a. Strip stock
b. Skelp
c. Pipe stock
d. Tube stock

21. Which extrusion process uses less pressure due to lower build ups of friction
container and billet?

a. Direct hot working

b. Indirect cold working
c. Indirect hot working
d. Direct cold working

22. Powder metallurgy is used to shape produce refractory metals. Which of the
following is classed as a refractory material?

a. Inconel
b. Magnesium
c. Tungsten
d. Beryllium

23. The shearing operation has many forms - names - of those listed below which is a
shearing operation?

a. Bending
b. Drawing
c. Forming
d. Parting

24. During the bending process what stresses are produced within the material?

a. Compressive
b. Shear
c. Tensile
d. Compressive and Tenisle
e. All of the above
25. In explosive forming?

a. Gun powder is used

b. High explosive is used
c. Slow buring propellants are used
d. High explosive and slow buring propellants are used

26. Which of the following is a hole making operation?

a. Splitting
b. Parting
c. Blanking
d. Notching

27. In the machining process metal is removed in the form of?

a. Swarf
b. Chips
c. Fillings
d. Turnings

28. High speed steels are generally used for which type of cutting tool?

a. Grinders
b. Drills
c. Files
d. Abrasives

29. The letters N/C in machine work stand for?

a. Numerical control
b. Number cycle
c. Numerical cutting
d. Number counting

30. Which of the following may be used as a cutting tool material?

a. Diamonds
b. Cast iron
c. Cemented carbides
d. Both diamonds and cemented carbides
31. What material is usually used in injection molding?

a. Thermosetting plastics
b. Thermoplastics
c. Ceramics
d. Powder metals

32. What materials are required for reinforced plastic molding?

a. Filler
b. Resin
c. Wood Shavings
d. Filler and Resin
e. All of the above

33. Laminates are a composite form which below would be classed as a laminate?

a. Fibreglass
b. Honeycomb
c. Ceramics
d. Fibreglass and Honeycomb

34. The letters EDM stands for?

a. Electronic digital meter

b. Electro discharge motor
c. Electrical discharge machinery
d. Electro dispensing machine

35. The common term used to denote the 'light amplification by stimulated emission of
radiation' is?

a. Laser
b. Cathode ray tube
c. Photon Gun
d. Optical microscope

36. Composites may be made up of which of the following material combinations?

a. Combinations of different metals

b. Combinations of different metals and non metals
c. Combinations of different non metals
d. All of the above
37. Case hardening is accomplished by?

a. Carburizing
b. Heat treating
c. Flame hardening
d. Carburizing and flame hardening

38. With which NDT method is surface cleanliness most important?

a. UT
b. PT
c. MT
d. RT

39. Abrasive finishing could be classified by which of the following methods?

a. Wire brush
b. Polishing
c. Buffing
d. All of the above

40. Electro plated surfaces are ususally quite thin. Which common NDT methd is used to
measure the plate thickness?

a. MT
b. UT
c. ET
d. PT

41. Which materials can best be anodised?

a. Steel
b. Copper
c. Aluminium
d. Brass

42. Which of the following is not a form of case hardening?

a. Spheroidising
b. Carburing
c. Flame hardening
d. Nitriding
43. Which of the following is a measuring device?

a. Micrometer
b. Vernier
c. Steel rule
d. All of the above

44. Fixed guages are used?

a. Only on single purpose applications

b. To measure internal bores
c. Shape relationships
d. All of the above
1. A concave depression formed at the top of an ingot on cooling is termed?

a. Concavity
b. Primary pipe
c. Secondary pipe
d. Solidification shrinkage

2. A method of increasing the yield from an ingot is?

a. Fitting an 'hot top'

b. Use of an insulating insert
c. Increasing casting temperature
d. Both fitting an 'hot top' and use of an insulating insert
e. All of the above

3. Secondary pipe of an ingot is?

a. Considered more detrimental than primary pipe

b. Free from oxide and so opposite walls can be welded together during the rolling
process
c. Suspect to cracking if the ingot is stressed
d. Both free from oxide and so opposite walls can be welded togthere during the
rolling process and suspect to cracking if the ingot is stressed

4. Shrinkage cracks caused when the mould prevents contraction of the cast metal is
termed?

a. Intercrystalline cracking
b. Crystallographic fractures
c. Mould fissures
d. Hot tears

5. The first crystals to form on solidification of a liquid metal are?

a. Columnar grains
b. Equiaxed crystals
c. Chill crystals
d. Solidification crystals

6. Columnar crystals?

a. Are randomly orientated

b. Grow in a direction opposite to the heat flow
c. Grow inwards
d. None of the above
e. Both grow in a direction opposite to the heat fow and grow inwards
7. A chill mould?

a. Will be made of sand with high terminal conductivity and high rate of cooling
b. Will be made of metal with low thermal conductivity and low rate of cooling
c. Will be made of metal with low thermal conductivity and high rate of cooling
d. Will be made of metal with high thermal conductivity and high rate of cooling

8. Internal stress is associated with?

a. High temperature gradients and rapid cooling

b. Low temperature gradients and rapid cooling
c. High temperature gradients and slow cooling
d. Low temperature gradients and slow cooling

9. Internal stress may lead to?

a. Warping
b. Hot cracking
c. Cold cracking
d. All of the above
e. Warping and cold cracking

10. Planes of weakness in an ingot can be controlled by?

a. Mould design
b. Casting at high temperatures
c. Casting at low temperatures
d. Fitting an hot top

11. Elements with completed outer electron shells are?

a. Highly reactive
b. Inert
c. Metallic in nature
d. High melting point materials

12. Mutual attraction of positive and negative ions results in?

a. Ionic bonds
b. Covalent bond
c. Metallic bond
d. Van der waals bonds
13. Which of the following produces the stongest bond?

a. Ionic bond
b. Covalent bond
c. Metallic bond
d. Van der waals bonds

14. The temperature at which bonds between atoms are broken and the atoms are free to
move from their fixed positions is known as?

a. Liquidation temperature
b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Melting point
d. Freezing point

15. The diagram labelled one at the bottom of the page show a metallic structure. What is
it considered to be?

a. Body centred cubic

b. Face centred cubic
c. Close packed hexagonal
d. Tetragonal

16. Which of the following metallic structures exhibits good ductility and high electrical
conductivity?

a. Body centred cubic

b. Face centred cubic
c. Hexagonal close packed
d. Tetragonal

17. Which of the following structures is considered to be tetragonal?

a. Austenite
b. Ferrite
c. Pearlite
d. Mertensite

18. Which of the following atoms will form an interstitial solid solution?

a. Aluminium
b. Carbon
c. Tungsten
d. Argon
19. Solid solubility is NOT affected by?

a. Crystal structure
b. Atom size
c. Ionic charge
d. Chemical difference between solute and solvent atoms

20. Alloying of metals is carried out to?

a. Reduce costs
b. Improve mechanical properties
c. Eliminate the need for heat treatment
d. None of the above
1. Equilibrium diagrams are a plot of?

a. Temperature V Time
b. Composition V Time
c. Temperature V Composition
d. Solid Composition V Liquid Composition

2. The proportion of solid to liquid at a certain temperature during cooling can be

determined by?

a. Arrest points
b. Lever law
c. Cooling rate
d. Solid solubility

3. Equilibrium diagrams can be determined by?

a. Cooling curves
b. Dilatrometry
c. Microscopy
d. X-ray crystallography
e. All of the above

4. One of the effects of alloying is termed?

a. Coring
b. Dendritic growth
c. Homogenous structure
d. Interdendritic growth

5. For questions 5 to 9 refer to diagram one at the foot of the page

At which temperature does pure iron become non magnetic?

a. A1
b. A2
c. A3
d. A4

6. Which point on the iron carbon diagram is the eutectoid point?

a. Point B
b. Point C
c. Point D
d. Point E
7. Point B on the iron carbon diagram is the?

a. Peritectic point
b. Peritectoid point
c. Eutectic point
d. Euctecoid point

8. Cementite has the chemical formulae?

a. FeC
b. Fe2C
c. Fe3C
d. FeC3

9. A metal containing 0.4% carbon is termed?

a. Hypoeutectic white iron

b. Hypereutectic white iron
c. Hypoeutectoid steel
d. Hypereutectoid steel

10. Which of the following micro-structures is termed lamellar?

a. Ferrite
b. Pearlite
c. Austenite
d. Martensite

11. As carbon content increases?

a. Tensile strength decreases, ductility decreases

b. Tensile strength increases, ductility decreases
c. Tensile strength increases, ductility increases
d. Tensile strength decreases, ductility increases

12. Heating to just below AC, and holding at this temperature for several hours is
termed?

a. Spheroidising
b. Process annealing
c. Normalising Anneal
d. Both spheroidising and process annealing are correct
13. Tempering of martensite produces which of the following?

a. Carbon atoms diffuse to form carbide particles

b. Residual stresses are relieved
c. Steel becomes tougher
d. All of the above

14. Which of the following tests is used to determine hardenability?

a. Dilatometry
b. Jominy
c. X ray diffraction
d. Heating and cooling curves

15. Consider a time temperature transformation diagram. Which of the following

structures is last to form?

a. Coarse pearlite
b. Upper bainite
c. Low bainite
d. Martensite
1. Internal stresses will be created from any welding operation in which heat is employed
or generated. After cooling this will result in?

a. Tensile stress in weld metal, compressive stress in adjacent parent plate

b. Compressive stress in weld metal and adjacent parent plate
c. Compressive stress in weld metal. Tensile stress in adjacent parent plate
d. Tensile stress in weld metal and adjacent parent plate

2. The microstructure of the weld metal can be considered to be similar to that of?

a. The parent plate

b. The heat affected zone
c. The parent plate and the heat affected zone
d. A casting

3. Formation of martensite in a welded structure is?

a. Desirable
b. Inevitable
c. Avoided if possible as martensite is prone to cracking
d. Avoided by the use of alloying elements

4. Hardenability increases as?

a. Alloying elements increase

b. Carbon equivalent increases
c. Rate of cooling increases
d. All of the above

5. As the carbon equivalent increases the?

a. Preheat temperature increases

b. Preheat temperature decreases
c. Hardness of the weld decreases
d. Hardenability decreases

6. Which of the following must be avoided to avoid cracking in a weldment?

a. Stress
b. Martensite
c. Hydrogen
d. All of the above
e. Martensite and hydrogen
7. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Weld decay is a form of intercrystalline cracking

b. Weld decay is reduced by decreasing carbon content
c. Weld decay is reduced by additions of niobium
d. Weld decay is reduced by sub-critical annealing

8. Which of the following is not a form of stainless steel?

a. Austenitic
b. Bainitic
c. Ferritic
d. Martensitic

9. Which is the main alloying element with respect to stainless steel?

a. Nickel
b. Chromium
c. Carbon
d. Molybdenum

10. Austenitic stainless steel welds are?

a. Generally easy to test using ultrasonics

b. Equiaxed crystal structure
c. Homogenous
d. Anistropic

11. Solidification cracking is considered to be caused due to?

a. Segregation of alloying elements

b. High heat inputs
c. Lack of preheat
d. High melting point alloying metals

12. The risk of hydrogen induced heat affected zone cracking can be reduced by?

a. Using cellulosic electrodes

b. Increasing the size of the weld pool
c. Increasing the heat affected zone hardness
d. Increasing the alloy addition
13. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to lamellar tearing?

a. Has a characteristic step like appearance

b. Are prone in fillet welds
c. Are perpendicular to the direction of rolling
d. Are caused by the bands of manganese and sulphides

14. Cavities elongated in the direction of which gas is escaping is termed?

a. Pores
b. Wormholes
c. Pipes
d. Wormholes and Pipes and correct

15. Which of the following does not create porosity when welding?

a. Contamination of parent metal surfaces

b. Use of powerful deoxidants
c. Excessive dampness in consumables
d. Inadequate removal of hydrated oxide films

16. Which of the following solid inclusion is most likely in TIG weld?

a. Slag
b. Flux
c. Tungsten
d. Oxide

17. Which of the following welding processes is most prone to lack of fusion type
defects?

a. Manual metal arc

b. Submerged arc
c. Electroslag
d. Oxy gas welding

18. The melting point of the parent plate and its subsequent removal by the force of the
welding process is known as?

a. Misalignment
b. Lack of penetration
c. Undercut
d. Inadequate Capping
19. Shrinkage grooves located in the weld root of pipework is considered to be?

a. Lack of root fusion

b. Root concavity
c. Burn through
d. Root undercut

20. Excessive reinforcement of a butt weld may cause?

a. Stress raiser
b. Fatigue
c. Misalignment
d. Both stress raiser and fatigue are correct
1. Wherever solidification cannot be correctly controlled and is not directional a coarse
form of shrinkage may occur which may extensive, branching, dendritic and
interconnected and is termed?

a. Macro shrinkage
b. Micro shrinkage
c. Filamentary shrinkage
d. Piping

2. Hot tears occur at?

a. Changes in section
b. Hot spots
c. Areas of segregation
d. Both changes in section and hot sopts
e. All of the above

3. Worm holes and blow holes greater than 1.5mm diameter are formed by?

a. The carbon monoxide mechanism

b. The water vapour mechanism
c. Both carbon monoxide and vapour mechanisms
d. Airlocks

4. Cold cracks are formed in steel castings?

a. As a result of large contraction stresses

b. With carbon contents greater than 0.1%
c. By alloying additions which hinder the formation of marteniste
d. All of the above

5. Rolled mild steel sheet which is held for some time at room temperature will result in
the carbon and nitrogen atoms to diffuse and lock the dislocations. This is known as?

a. Stain ageing
b. Precipitation hardening
c. Work hardening
d. Precipitation ageing

6. Strectcher stains are?

a. Surface marks
b. Luder lines
c. Grain boundary deformation
d. Both surface marks and luder lines are correct
7. The orange peel effect is due to?

a. Excessive recrystallisation
b. Hot working
c. Excessive grain size
d. Low dislocation denisty

8. Low temperature heating giving rise to small scale readjustments in the position of the
atoms is known as?

a. Recrustallisation
b. Recovery
c. Grain growth
d. Annealing

9. Segregation within an ingot may be detected by which of the following techniques?

a. Ultrasonics
b. Sulphur printing
c. Visual examination
d. All of the above

10. Secondary pipe is not considered to be as detrimental as primary pipe due to?

a. Secondary pipe always being small than primary pipe

b. Secondary pipe is more easily discarded
c. Secindary pipe is not oxidised and may be healed by forging
d. Exothermic heads eliminate secondary pipe

11. Primary pipe is minimised in ingots by use of?

a. Insulated heads
b. Exothermic powders
c. High forging reductions
d. Both insulated heads and exothermic heads

12. A segregation is associated with serious metallurgical defects including?

a. Non metallic inclusions

b. Shrinkage cavities
c. Hydrogen cracks
d. Non metallic inclusions and shrinkage cavities
e. Non metallic inclusions, shrinkage cavities and hydrogen cracks are correct
13. V segregation is associated with serious metallurgical defects including?

a. Secondary pipe
b. Non metallic inclusions
c. Skull
d. All of the above

14. Ingot corner segregation can be minimised by the use of?

a. Low pouring speeds and low casting temperatures

b. High pouring speeds and high casting temperatures
c. High pouring speeds and low casting temperatures
d. Low pouring speeds and high casting temperatures

15. Products of deocidation are termed?

a. Skull
b. Non metallic inclusions
c. Exogenous inclusions
d. Indigenous inclusions

16. If too greater a forging reduction is attempted in one operation which of the following
may occur?

a. Preferred orientation of the grains

b. Inadequate grain growth
c. Forging busts
d. Forging laps

17. Hairline cracking is rarely encountered in the forging industry due to?

a. The use of exothermic heads

b. Vaccum degassing
c. High forging reductions
d. All of the above

18. The incubation period for hairline cracks if generally considered to be of the order of
??? from the time the forging first cools below 100 degrees celsius?

a. 24 hours
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
19. Hairline cracks are considered to be highly detrimental and are best detected by
which of the following NDT techniques?

a. Ultrasonics
b. Radiography
c. Magnetic particle inspection
d. Both ultrasonic and magnetic particel inspection

20. Transformation stresses which occur as a result of heating or cooling may cause
which of the following defects?

a. Clink
b. Lap
c. Burst
d. All of the above are correct
1. Which of the following is NOT a form of hardness test?

a. Brinell
b. Jominy
c. Rockwell
d. Vickers

2. Which of the following hardness test measures depth of indentation to determine

hardness?

a. Brinell
b. Rockwell
c. Shore sclerescope
d. Vickers

3. An advantage of the shore sclerescope over other methods of hardness testing is?

a. Portability
b. No damage to surface of item being hardness tested
c. Accuracy and repeatability on soft materials
d. Both portability and no damage to surface of item being hardness tested

4. When carrying out a tensile test the maximum load to fracture is 3.2 tons and the test
piece is 0.5 inches diameter. What is the tensile strength?

a. 6.4 tons per square inch

b. 4.07 tons per square inch
c. 16.29 tons per square inch
d. 8.80 tons per square inch

5. A localised extension which leads to reduction in cross section prior to fracture is

termed?

a. Necking
b. Luder line formation
c. Elastic limit
d. Yielding

6. In steels that do not exhibit yield points, the stress at which plastic deformation begins
corresponding to a small permanent strain is termed?

a. Elastic limit
b. Transition point
c. Proof stress
d. Younges modulus
7. Determine the percentage elongation if the guage length of the tensile specimen was
1.5 inches prior to fracture and 1.8 inches after fracture?

a. 83%
b. 16.6%
c. 20%
d. 80%

8. Which of the following impact tests are used to determine transition temperatures?

a. IZOD
b. Charpy
c. Hounsfield tensometer
d. Both Charpy and Hounsefield tensometer

9. Which of the following are possible initiation sites for fatigue?

a. Sharp corners
b. Poor surface finish
c. Sub surface inclusion
d. All of the above

10. The effects of temperature, time and load are used in assessing?

a. Fatigue limit
b. Endurance limit
c. Creep behaviour
d. Impact value

11. Which of the following will effect the result of a tensile test?

a. Size of test piece

b. Orientation of test piece
c. Method of machining
d. All of the above

12. Fracture mechanics was developed to prevent failure due to?

a. Ductile fracture
b. Brittle fracture
c. Overloading
d. Fatigue failure
13. Fracture mechanics is used to?

a. Determine critical defect size

b. Select material type
c. Determine important regions to inspect
d. All of the above

14. The load carrying ability of an engineering structure can be reduced below the tensile
strength of the material if it contains stress concentrations. This recognition led to the
concept of a material property called?

a. Crack opening diplacement

b. Linear elastic fracture mectorices
c. Notch toughness
d. Yield stress

15. Which of the following defects is considered to be the most derimental?

a. Surface porosity
b. Surface cracks
c. Subsurface non metallic inclusion
d. Subsurface cracks
1. Nimonic alloys have been designed to be?

a. Creep resistant
b. Oxidation resistant
c. Corrosion resistant
d. Creep and oxidation resistant

2. Which of the following metals forms a thin impervious film of oxide which resists
oxidation?

a. Iron
b. Molybdenum
c. Akuminium
d. Magnesium

3. Which of the following metals is the most noble?

a. Chromium
b. Aluminium
c. Platinum
d. Zinc

4. Which of the following statements is true with regard to a galvenic cell?

a. The more positive cathodic metals are protected

b. The more negative cathodic metals are protected
c. The more positive anodic metals suffer corrosion
d. The more negative abodic metals are protected

5. Galvanising is the process of coating iron with which of the following metals?

a. Tin
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Gold

6. Season cracking is a form of intergranular corrosion which occurs in which of the

following metals?

a. Chromium
b. Zinc
c. Brass
d. Copper
7. Failure by corrosion fatigue is generally?

a. Brittle failure
b. Cleavage failure
c. Intergranular
d. Transgranular

8. Which of the following methods of protection is used for buried iron pipelines?

a. Cathodic protection
b. Modification of corrosion medium
c. Sacrificial anode
d. Both cathodic protection and sacrificial anode

9. Which of the following would be considered to be viewing aids when carrying out
metallography?

a. Microscope
b. Boroscope
c. Fibre optics
d. All of the above

10. The examination of a fracture surface is considered to be?

a. Macro examination
b. Micro examination
c. Macro etching
d. Metallography

11. Sulphur printing is used to determine the degree of segregation in steel and uses
photographic film dipped into a solution of?

a. 3% nitric acid
b. 3% hydrochloric acid
c. 3% suplhuric acid
d. 3% acetic acid

12. The fundamental difference between macro examination and micro examination is?

a. Micro examination can be regarded as the overall picture

b. Macro examination is the detailed structure
c. Micro structure examination are conducted at higher magnification
d. Macro examination are conducted at higher magnification
13. Which of the following can be determined on an unetched microspecimen?

a. Crystal structure
b. Degree of decarburisation
c. Grain size
d. Presence of non metallic inclusions

14. The advanatages of an electron microscope include?

a. Low capital outlay

b. High magnifications
c. Good resolution
d. High magnification and good resolution

15. Which of the following is a technique in preperation for electron micrcoscopy?

a. Carbon Replica
b. Microetching
c. Macroetching
d. Electro Polishing