NEETPrep Test Series

Test # 10
Contact Number of NEETPrep: 8527521718

1. To protect and improve the quality of our 4. Choose the correct match
environment, government of India has passed
Environment (Protection) Act in the year ______ Mean Mean
1. 1974 2. 1981 Type of Annual Annual
3. 1986 4. 1987 Biome Rainfall Temperature
2. Read the following statements and chooser the (mm) (C)
correct option Tropical 2000-
1 23-27
Statement A: Electrostatic precipitator can Rain Forest 3500
remove over 99% particulate matter present in Temperate
1000-
exhaust from a thermal power plant. 2 Needle Leaf "6-15"
2500
Statement B: According to CPCB particulate size Forest
2.5m or less in diameter are responsible for Tropical
900-
causing the greatest harm to human health.
3 deciduous "6-20"
1600
forest
1. Only statement A is correct.
Temperate
2. Only statement B is correct.
4 Broad Leaf 400-900 0-10
3. Both statements A and B are correct.
Forest
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect.
3. State True (T) or False (F) for the following
statements and select the correct option
A. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic
converter should use unleaded petrol because
5. Triangular age pyramid represents
lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
1. Expanding population.
B. Recently government of India has instituted
2. Declining population.
the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award
3. Mature population.
for
4. Both 1. and 3.
individuals from urban areas that have shown
6. Match the following columns and choose the
extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting
correct option
wildlife.
Column-I Column-II
C. Reforestation may occur naturally in a
a. Eurythermal (i) 0.1-0.28 m
deforested area.
b. Hypersaline lagoons (ii) Organisms can
A B C
tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature
1. T T F
c. Stenohaline (iii) > 100 ppt
2. T F T
saltconcentration
3. T F F
d. UV–C (iv) Organisms are
4. F F T
restricted to a narrow range of salinities
1. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
2. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
3. a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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7. Choose the incorrect match 2. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the
extinction of 784 species in the last 500 years.
Vertical distribution of 3. Amazon rainforest is so huge that it is called
different species the ‘heart of the planet’
1 - Stratification
occupying different
levels 4. Extinction of Steller’s sea cow and passenger
The most productive Sugarcane pigeon were due to their overexploitation by
2 - humans.
ecosystem field
The most limiting 14. Who coined the term ecosystem and defined it as
3 nutrient of marine - Nitrogen the sum total of interactions between biotic and
ecosystem abiotic
Release of inorganic components?
nutrients from humus
4 - Mineralisation 1. C. Mobius 2. A.G. Tansley
during the process of
decomposition 3. Forbes 4. Friederich
15. Detritus is
1. Dead raw material for decomposition.
8. Each tropic level has certain mass of living
2. Partially decomposed organic matter.
material at a particular time called
3. Dead remains of animals & plants.
1. Standing crop 2. Standing state
4. Both 1. and 3.
3. GPP 4. NPP
16. In aquatic ecosystem, major channel for energy
9. Term ‘biodiversity’ was popularised by
flow is
1. Robert May 2. Edward Wilson
1. Grazing food chain.
3. Paul Ehrlich 4. C. Mobius
2. Detritus food chain.
10. Choose the incorrect match regarding examples
3. Auxiliary food chain.
of recent extinctions.
4. Parasitic food chain.
1. Quagga - Africa
2. Steller’s Sea Cow - Russia
17. State True (T) or False (F) for the following
3. Dodo - Myanmar
statements and select the correct option
4. Thylacine - Australia
a. Mammals from colder climates generally have
11. Read the following statements and choose the
larger ears and limbs to minimize the heat loss.
correct option
b. Experience of altitude sickness is due to low
Statement 1:The success of mammals is largely
atmospheric pressure at high altitudes.
due to their ability to maintain a constant body
c. The size of a population for any species is not
temperature.
a static parameter.
Statement 2:Majority of the animals and nearly all
d. Resources for growth for most of the animal
plants cannot maintain a constant internal
population are finite and become limiting sooner
environment.
or later.
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
a b c d
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
1. T T T T
3. Both statements are correct.
2. F T T T
4. Both statements are incorrect.
3. F F F F
12. Select the correct option regarding relative
4. T F T F
contribution of various greenhouse gases to total
global warming.
1. CO2  CFCs  N2 O  CH4
2. CH4  CO2  N2 O  CFCs 18. If ‘N’ is the population density at time t, then its
density at time ‘t+1’ will be
3. N2O  CO2  CFCs  CH4
1. Nt 1  Nt  [(B  I)  (D  E)]
4. CO2  CH4  CFCs  N2O
2. Nt 1  Nt  [(B  I)  (D  E)]
13. Select the incorrect statement 3. Nt 1  Nt  [(B  I)  (D  E)]
1. Species diversity decreases as we move
4. Nt 1  Nt  [(B  I)  (D  E)]
away from the equator toward the poles.
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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19. Choose the incorrect match regarding population 25. Choose the correct types of ecological pyramid on
interactions. the basis of following data of dry weights.
Species A Species B (i) Secondary consumer - 11 kg/m2
1. Amensalism – – (ii) Tertiary consumer - 1.5 kg/m2
2. Parasitism + – (iii) Primary producer - 809 kg/m2
3. Commensalism + 0 (iv) Primary consumer - 37 kg/m2
4. Mutualism + + 1. Upright pyramid of biomass.
20. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 2. Inverted pyramid of biomass.
(a) The entire sequence of communities that 3. Inverted pyramid of energy.
successively change in a given area is called 4. Upright pyramid of number.
sere. 26. During primary succession on rocks, pioneer
(b) The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock. species are
(c) Ecological pyramids do not accommodate 1. Annual grasses.
food web. 2. Perennial grasses.
1. Only statement (a) is correct. 3. Xerophytic shrubs.
2. Only statement (b) is correct. 4. Lichens.
3. All (a), (b) and (c) are correct. 27. Out of total cost of various ecosystem services,
4. All (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect. the soil formation accounts for about __A__, and
21. In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number, contribution of other services like recreation and
energy and biomass are upright. It indicates that nutrient cycling, are less than __B__ each.
(a) Producers are more in number and biomass In the above statement for ‘A’ and ‘B’, which
than the herbivores. option is correct?
(b) Herbivores are less in number and biomass 1. A – 6%, B – 10% 2. A – 50%, B – 10%
than the carnivores. 3. A – 10%, B – 50% 4. A – 10%, B – 6%
(c) Energy at a lower tropic level is always more 28. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the
than at a higher level. correct option.
Choose the correct option.
1. Only (a) is correct. Column-I Column-II
2. Only (b) is correct. Doha
a (i) Marrakesh
3. Both (a) and (c) are correct. Amendment
Bali Action
4. Both (b) and (c) are correct. b COP-15 (ii)
Plan (2007)
22. Which one is not an example of primary
To reduce
pollutants? GHG
1. DDT 2. CO emission by
c COP-13 (iii)
3. Pollen 4. PAN at least 18%
below 1990
23. Select the mismatched pair.
level
1. Minimata disease - Mercury
Copenhagen
2. Black foot disease - Arsenic d COP-22 (iv)
Accord
3. Uremia - Copper
4. Itai-itai - Lead
1. a. – (iii), b. – (iv), c. – (ii), d. – (i)
24. In which part of the atmosphere ‘good ozone’ is
2. a. – (iii), b. – (ii), c. – (iv), d. – (i)
found?
3. a. – (i), b. – (iv), c. – (ii), d. – (iii)
1. Troposphere 2. Stratosphere
4. a. – (i), b. – (ii), c. – (iv), d. – (iii)
3. Ionosphere 4. Exosphere
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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29. What is/are the correct explanation(s) for the 3. 1989 30% 65%
species richness of the tropics? 4. 1987 19.4% 30%
1. Tropics had less evolutionary time for species 36. ‘Chipko Movement’ was originated in Himalayan
diversification. region. At present this region is a part of ______
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Uttarakhand
2. Tropics provide a relatively constant
3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Jammu and
environment.
Kashmir
3. Tropics receive more solar energy which
37. In logistic growth pattern, the influence of
contributes to greater productivity.
environmental resistances over the biotic potential
4. Both 2. and 3. are correct. is denoted by
30. Which one is not an effect of increase in the level N
1. r N 2. 1 
of greenhouse gases? K
1. CO2 fertilisation effect. B
3. (b-d)×N 4.  100
2. EI Nino effect. D
3. Snow blindness. 38. Read the statements given below and choose the
correct option
4. Warming of troposphere and cooling of
Statement I: Decomposition is purely an
stratosphereand thermosphere. anaerobic process.
31. In terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of Statement II: The rate of decomposition is
energy flows through______ controlled by chemical composition of detritus and
1. GFC 2. DFC climatic factors.
3. Parasitic food chain 4. Both 1. and 3. 1. Only statement I is correct.
32. Read the following statements and choose the 2. Only statement I is incorrect.
correct option 3. Both statements I and II are correct.
Statement-1 :Food webs provide stability to 4. Both statements I and II are incorrect.
ecosystem. 39. Biomagnification of DDT in aquatic food chain
Statement-2 : Food web operates because of leads to high concentration of DDT in fish eating
birds. It results in
taste
(a) Disturbance in calcium metabolism in birds.
preference for particular food and unavailability of
(b) Thinning of egg shell and their premature
food.
breaking.
1. Only statement (2) is correct.
(c) Decline in bird population
2. Only statement (1) is correct. 1. (a) and (b) only 2. (b) and (c) only
3. Both statements are correct. 3. (a) and (c) only 4. All (a), (b) and (c)
4. Both statements are incorrect. 40. Which one is not a cause of biodiversity loss?
33. How many categories of species, IUCN Red List 1. Alien species invasion.
has? 2. Co-extinction.
1. 10 2. 12 3. Endemism.
3. 8 4. 7 4. Overexploitation.
34. Initially, how many biodiversity hot spots were 41. Select the odd one w.r.t. strategies of biodiversity
identified globally? conservation
1. 34 2. 25 1. Biosphere reserves.
2. Sacred groves.
3. 20 4. 30
3. National parks.
35. National Forest Policy __A__ of India has
4. Zoological parks.
recommended __B__ forest cover for the plains
and __C__ for the hills. Fill the blanks with
suitable A, B and C
A B C
1. 1988 33% 67%
2. 1988 30% 19.4%
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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42. Match the columns and select the correct option: 3. 1953, 1962
Column-I Column-II
Earth 4. 1969, 1972
A (i) Johannesburg
Summit
World 47. In Mendel’s experiments, the contrasting traits
summit on Broadly did not show any blending in:
B (ii)
sustainable utilitarian
development 1. F1 stage
Biodiversity 2. F2 stage
plays a 3. Both F1 and F2 stages
major role in Narrowly
C (iii) 4. The statement is false as blending
many utilitarian
ecosystem was seen at all stages
services
Direct 48. What could be the genotype of a garden pea
economic Rio de plant that expresses tall trait of height?
D (iv)
benefits Janerio
from nature 1. TD

1. A – (iv), B– (i), C– (ii), D– (iii) 2. Tt

2. A – (i), B– (iv), C– (iii), D– (ii) 3. Td
3. A – (iv), B– (i), C– (iii), D– (ii) 4. tt
4. A – (i), B– (iv), C– (ii), D– (iii)
49. A genetic cross between homozygous individuals
43. What is the percentage of PAR
but with different alleles for a single gene of
(Photosynthetically active radiation) in incident
solar radiation? interest is called as:
1. 50% 2. > 50% 1. A reciprocal cross
3. 0% 4. < 50% 2. Monohybrid cross
44. Which statement is incorrect for photochemical
3. Dihybrid cross
smog?
1. It is mainly O3, PAN and NOX. 4. Test cross
2. It is called brown air and grey air. 50. A graphical representation to calculate the
3. It causes blue-baby syndrome. probability of all possible genotypes of
4. It is formed in traffic congested cities where
offspring in a genetic cross is called as:
warm condition and intense solar radiations are
present. 1. Forked line diagram
45. Which one is not a key criterion for determining a 2. Punnett square
hotspot? 3. Pedigree chart
1. Very high levels of species richness.
4. Idiogram
2. High degree of those species which are
51. The F2 genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross
confined to that region and not found anywhere
else. is:
3. Degree of threat, which is measured in terms 1. 1:1
of habitat loss. 2. 3:1
4. No habitat loss.
3. 1:2:1
46.The famous double helix model of DNA was 3. 9:7
proposed by Watson and Crick in ____ and they
shared Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine in
________ for their effort.
1. 1951, 1971
2. 1943, 1963
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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52. In a test cross, the plant expressing the 57. “Chromosomes, which are seen in all dividing
dominant phenotype is crossed with the plant: cells and pass from one generation to the
1. Which is heterozygous dominant next, are the basis for all genetic inheritance”.
2. Which is heterozygous recessive This statement is credited to:
3. Which is homozygous recessive 1. Watson and Crick
4. Which is homozygous dominant 2. Hershey and Chase
53. Which of the following is not true for the Law of 3. Sutton and Boveri
Dominance given by Mendel? 4. Meselson and Stahl
1. Characters are controlled by discrete 58. T. H. Morgan worked on the fruit fly,
units called factors. Drosophila melanogaster . Which of the
2. Factors occur in pairs. following is not an advantage of this fly?
3. In a dissimilar pair of factors one 1. They could be grown on simple
member of the pair dominates the other. synthetic medium in the laboratory.
4. The alleles show blending at the time 2. They complete their life cycle in about
of fertilization two years, and a single mating could produce
54. What is the F2 genotypic ratio in cases of a large number of progeny flies.
incomplete dominance? 3. There was a clear differentiation of the
1. 1:1 sexes – the male and female flies are easily
2. 3:1 distinguishable.
3. 1:2:1 4. It has many types of hereditary
4. 1:1 variations that can be seen with low power
55. Blood group antigens are: microscopes.
1. Carbohydrates present in plasma 59. When the two genes in a dihybrid cross are
2. Carbohydrates present on the surface situated on the same chromosome:
of RBCs 1. The proportion of parental gene
3. Plasma proteins combinations was much higher than the non-
4. Proteins present on the surface of parental type.
RBCs 2. The proportion of parental gene
56. What can be the blood groups of progeny combinations was much lesser than the non-
whose father and mother are of AB and O parental type.
blood group respectively? 3. The proportion of parental gene
1. A and B only combinations was equal to the non-parental
2. AB only type.
3. All except O 4. Only recombinants are formed.
4. A, B, AB and O 60. During his observation of spermatogenesis in
few insects, Henking found that a nuclear
structure was received by 50 % of the sperms.
He called this structure as:
1. X – body
2. Y – body
3. X – chromosome
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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4. Y – chromosome 3. Only II and III

61. In birds, the mechanism of sex determination 4. I, II and III
is: 66. Nucleic acids are polymers of:
1. XX – XY; male heterogamety
1. Nucleosides
2. XX – XY; female heterogamety
2. Nucleotides
3. XX – XO; male heterogamety
3. Amino acids
4. ZZ – ZW; male heterogamety
4. Polypeptides
62. It is unfortunate that in our society women are
67. The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is
blamed for producing female children and made of:
have been ostracised and ill-treated because:
1. Sugar and nitrogenous bases
1. The sex is determined by the type of
2. Phosphate and nitrogenous bases
sperm fertilizing the egg
3. Sugar and phosphate
2. The sex is determined by the type of
4. Sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous
egg fertilizing the sperm
bases
3. The sex is determined by the
hormones produced by the fetus 68. The distance between a base pair in the DNA
double helix is approximately:
4. The sex is determined by the God’s
Will 1. 2.0 nm
63. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a 2. 0.34 nm
number of haemophilic descendants as she
3. 20 nm
was:
1. Affected by the disease
2. Carrier for the disease 4. 3.4 nm

3. Did not carry the allele for hemopihilia 69. Histones are:
4. Was not a queen
1. Positively charged and basic amino
64. Which of the following amino acid substitution
acids
in the beta chain of the haemoglobin molecule
leads to the development of sickle cell 2. Negatively charged and basic proteins
anaemia? 3. Positively charged and acidic proteins
1. Arginine by tyrosine
2. Tyrosine by phenylalanine 4. Not found in bacteria
3. Valine by Glutamic acid 70. Consider the following statements:
4. Glutamic acid by Valine
I. The largest known human gene is
65. An individual affected with Turner’s Syndrome:
dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
I. Is a female
II. Has 45 chromosomes II. Repeated sequences make up very large
III. Has rudimentary ovaries portion of the human genome.
Of the above statements, the correct III. There are about 2.4 million locations
statements are:
where single base DNA differences occur in
1. Only I and II
humans.
2. Only I and III
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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Which of the above statements are true? II. It is the presence of a promoter in a
1. I and II only transcription unit that also defines the

2. I and III only template and coding strands.

3. II and III only III. Exons are said to be sequences that do not

4. I, II, and III appear in mature or processed RNA.

71. Consider the following statements: Which of the above statements are true?

I. RNA is the genetic material of the QB 1. I and II only

bacteriophage. 2.I and III only

II. DNA chemically is less reactive and more 3. II and III only

stable than RNA. 4.I, II, and III

III. Viruses having RNA genome and having
shorter life span mutate & evolve slowly. 74. Consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements are true? I. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates act as
1. I and II only substrates as well as provide energy for

2. I and III only polymerization reaction during DNA

3. II and III only replication.

4. I, II, and III II. The replication of DNA is both

72. Consider the following statements: semiconservative and semi-discontinuous

I. Inheritance of a character is affected by III. In bacterial DNA replication there are

promoter and regulatory sequences of a multiple ori and replication fork moves bi-

structural gene. directionally

II.The split-gene arrangement represents an Which of the above statements are true?

ancient feature of the genome. 1. I and II only

III.The process of splicing represents the 2.I and III only

dominance of RNA world. 3.II and III only

Which of the above statements are true? 4.I, II, and III

1.I and II only 75. Consider the following statements:

2.I and III only I. The unequivocal proof of DNA being the

3.II and III only genetic material was given by Hershey and

4.I, II, and III Chase.

II. Meselson and Stahl proposed that DNA

73. Consider the following statements: replication is semi-conservative.

I. All the reference point while defining a III. Beadle and Tatum proposed the one - gene

transcription unit is made with coding strand. - one - enzyme hypothesis.

 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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Which of the above statements are true?

1.I and II only
2.I and III only
3.II and III only
4.I, II, and III
76. Consider the following statements:
I.The VNTRs belong to a class of satellite DNA
called as mini-satellite.
II. Southern blotting is the transfer of DNA
fragments to a filter cellulose membrane.
III. VNTRs are used in DNA fingerprinting as
they do not show any variations and are not
inherite4. 1. The DNA from the crime scene
matches individual B
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only 2. VNTRs are hypervariable

2.I and III only 3. The larger fragments remain near the
3.II and III only point on introduction in the gel
electrophoresis
4.I, II, and III
4. The smaller chromosomes in the
77. Consider the following statements:
human genome have smaller repeats of VNTR
I. The cellular factory responsible for
79. Consider the following diagram showing the
synthesizing proteins is the ribosome.
working of the lac operon in E.coli in the
II.The ribosome also acts as a catalyst for the presence of inducer and choose the correct
formation of peptide bond. statement from the ones given below:

III.The UTRs (untranslated regions) in an

mRNA are not required for translation.
Which of the above statements are true?
1.I and II only
2.I and III only
3. II and III only
4.I, II, and III
1. A is the inducer and can be either
78. Which of the following cannot be inferred lactose or cAMP
from the information given in the following
diagram: 2. B is the enzyme that will metabolize
glucose, the preferred energy source
 NEETPrep Test Series
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3. Some amount of C will be present in III. The coding strand does not code for
the cell even if lactose is absent anything and is displaced during transcription

4. The absence of D will stop lactose 1. I and II only

from entering the cell
2. I and III only
80. Study the diagram given below and
choose the correct information that can be 3. II and III only
deduced: 4. I, II, III and IV

82. Study the results of the Meselson and Stahl

experiment. What theoretically possible mode
of DNA replication can be excluded after one
round of replication?

1. The core RNA polymerase is capable

of catalyzing elongation only

2. Sigma factor and Rho factor are 1. Conservative

needed for termination of transcription
2. Semiconservative
3. DNA Helicase opens the strand of the
3. Disruptive
DNA
4. Both 1 and 3
4. Both strands of DNA are transcribed
by the same RNA polymerase 83. Which histone is represented by the letter X
in the given diagram?
81. Consider the transcription unit given in the
following diagram and choose the correct
statements:

I. The promoter on the promoter is

situated upstream and 5’ to the structural
gene.

II. It is the presence of the structural

1. H1
gene that defines the template strand.
2. H2A
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3. H2B 1. tRNA

4. H3 2. rRNA
3. mRNA
84. Match each item in Column I with one item in
Column II and chose your answer from the 4. siRNA
codes given below:
89. The structure of ribosome is made of:
Column I Column II
(antibiotic) (effect) 1. rRNA and Proteins
inhibits binding of amino
I. Tetracycline A
acyl tRNA to ribosome 2. rRNA and Polysaccharides
inhibits initiation of
II. Streptomycin B 3. mRNA, rRNA and tRNA
translation
inhibits peptidyl 4. RNA, DNA and Proteins
III. Chloramphenicol C
transferase
90. The lac Y gene codes for permease which
inhibits translocation of
IV. Erythromycin D increases the permeability of the cell to:
mRNA along ribosome
1. Glucose
Codes:
2. Galactose
I II III IV
1. A B C D 3. cAMP
2. B A D C
3. B A C D 4. β-galactosides
4. A B D C
91.
85. In the genetic code, the codon UUC codes for:

1. Methionine
2. Phenylalanine 92.
3. Tyrosine
4. Valine
86. Sickle cell anemia is caused by:

1 Chromosomal aberration
2. Point mutation
3. Non disjunction event
4. An arthropod vector
87. Insertion or deletion of how many bases will
not cause a frame shift mutation?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. Any number
88. Which of the following is also called as the
soluble RNA?
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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93. 98.

94.

99.

95. 100.

96.

97.
 NEETPrep Test Series
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101. 104.

102. 105.

103.

106.
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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107. 111.

108.

112.

113.

109.

114.

115.

110.
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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116. 119.

117.

120.

118.

121.
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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122. 127.

123.

124.

125.

128.

129.

126. 130.

131.
 NEETPrep Test Series
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132. 138.

139.

133.

140.

134.

135.

141.

136.

137. 142.

143.
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144. 148.

145. 149.

146. 150.

147.

151.
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
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152. 158.

153. 159.

154.

160.

155.

156.

157.
 NEETPrep Test Series
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161. 166.

167.

168.

162.

163.

169.

164.

165.
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170. 175. To break a wire, a force of 106 N/m2 is

required. If the density of the material is
3×103 kg/m3, then the length of the wire which
will break by its own weight will be:

1. 34 m

2. 30 m

3. 300 m

4. 3 m

171. 176. The diameter of a brass rod is 4 mm and

Young's modulus of brass is 9×1010 N/m2. The
force required to stretch by 0.1% of its length is :

1. 360 pN

2. 36 N
172.
3. 144 p×103 N

4. 36 p×105 N

177. The Young's modulus of a wire of length L

and radius r is = Y N/m2. If the length and radius
are reduced to L/2 and r/2, then its Young's
173.
modulus will be :

1. Y/2

2. Y

3. 2 Y

4. 4 Y

174.
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 10
Contact Number of NEETPrep: 8527521718

178. The graph is drawn between the applied force

F and the strain (x) for a thin uniform wire. The
wire behaves as a liquid in the part:

1. ab

2. bc

3. cd

4. oa

179. An Indian rubber cord L metre long and area

of cross-section 'a' metre2 is suspended vertically.
Density of rubber is D kg / metre3 and Young's
modulus of rubber is E newton/ metre2. If wire
extends by l metre under its own weight, then
extension l is:

1. L2Dg/E

2. L22Dg/2E

3. L2Dg/4E

4. L

180. A force F is needed to break a copper wire

having radius R. The force needed to break a
copper wirwe of radius 2 R will be :

1. F/2

2. 2 F

3. 4 F

4. F/4