Forensic MCQs

Table of Contents
Chapter Reported
Chapter Title Page No.
No. by:
1 Introduction 2 Abarcar
2 Crime Scene Investigation 4 Advincula
Collection and Preservation of
3 9 Almine
Evidence for Examination
4 Forensic Evidence Examination 13 Amascual
Overview of Revised Rules of
5 17 Bandoukji
Evidence and Expert Witness
Admissibility of Scientific or
6 21 Cabalona
Technological Evidence
7 DNA as Evidence 27 Dadulla
8 Forensic Identification 30 Delfin
9 Forensic Anthropology 34 Flores
10 Forensic Odontology 37 Larios
11 Forensic Radiology 41 Mendiola
12 Fingerprinting 44 Montilla
13 Trace Evidence Examination 49 Nablo
14 Questioned Document Examination 53 Ong
15 Forensic Serology 56 Paleyan
16 Bloodstain Pattern Analysis 59 Perez, N.
Forensic Biochemistry and Molecular
17 62 Ponce
Biology
18 Forensic Botany 66 Rojas
19 Forensic Entomology 69 Ruiz
20 Forensic Engineering 73 Singzon
21 Firearms 76 Tagarino
22 Forensic Ballistics 79 Uy, D.
Gunshot Wounds and Ballistic
23 83 Uy, S.
Jurisprudence
24 Polygraph Test 87 Cadiz
25 Forensic Psychology and Psychiatry 91 Palamos
26 Personality Disorders 93 Martin
27 Mental Disorders 99 Egargo
28 Criminal Profiling 103 Mabanan
29 Forensic Toxicology 107
30 Poisoning 111
31 Forensic Drug Testing 114
32 Alcohol Abuse 116
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CHAPTER 1
INTRODUCTION
Prepared by: Abarcar, Rugie B.
1. _______ is the professional and academic discipline which concerns itself with
legal aspects of medical sciences, medical practice and other health care
delivery problems?
a) Medico-legal practitioner c) General Medicine
b) Forensic Medicine d) Legal Medicine.
2. Which of the terms below is defined as the application of scientific, technical

or other specialized knowledge to assist courts in resolving questions of fact
in civil and criminal trials?
a) Forensic Medicine c) Forensic Pathology
b) Medical Jurisprudence d) Forensic Science
3. Which branch of medicine deals with the application of medical knowledge to

the purposes of law?
4. Who popularized scientific crime detection methods?

a) Sir Arthur Conan Doyle c) Francis Galton
b) Sir Arthur Conan Boyle d) Calvin Goddard
5. Who devised a simple procedure for determining the blood type of a dried
bloodstain?
a) Henry Polates c) Leone Lattes
b) Eric Spoon d) Hans Gross
6. Which is the subspecialty of Pathology that focuses on the medico-legal

investigation of sudden or unexpected death?
a) Legal Medicine c) Medical Jurisprudence
b) Forensic Medicine d) Forensic Pathology
7. Who serves as expert witness in the court of law, testifying in a variety of civil
and criminal cases involving death or injury?
a) Medical Doctor c) Police officer
b) Forensic pathologist d) Forensic Science
8. Which process pertains to put together past events and uses physical
evidence on its analysis?
a) Criminalistics c) Forensic Science
b) Reconstruction d) Pathology
9. Which refers to a medical doctor who serves as researched and clinical
practitioners in the areas in which psychiatry is applied to legal issues?
a) Forensic Medicine c) Forensic Nursing
b) Forensic Psychology d) Forensic Psychiatry
10. Which of the terms below is defined as the application of scientific, technical
or other specialized knowledge to assist courts in resolving questions of fact
in civil and criminal trials?
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11.Which refers to the study of blood groups?
a) Serology c) Physics
b) Chemistry d) Botany
12. The branch of forensic which uses insects as evidence to help reconstruct
the circumstances?
a) Forensic Entomology c) Forensic Science
b) DNA typing d) Forensic Chemistry
13. Who are the computer and information scientists/technicians who may be
involved in the recovery and examination of probative information from digital
evidence?
a) Forensic Evidence c) Forensic Engineering
b) Forensic Nursing d) Forensic Odontology
14. Expertise of a forensic scientist must include the following:

a) Analysis of physical evidence
b) Expert witness
c) Specially Trained Evidence Collection Technicians
d) All of the above
15. The Categories of death are as follows, choose the exception.

a) natural death and accident
b) homicide and suicide
c) undetermined manner of death
d) none of the above
16.Which branch of Forensic Science deals with determining suspects with the
process matching of bite marks, teeth structure or match a victim to his
dental xrays, resulting in an identification of an unknown individual?
a) Forensic Odontology c) Forensic Dentology
b) Forensic Entomology d) Forensic Analysis
17.Which is the function of Forensic Scientist that refers to the skilled personnel
in applying the principles and the physical and nature sciences?
a) Witness c) Collection specialist
b) Analysis of Physical Evidence d) Evidence
18.Which is the function of Forensic Scientist that possess skill that will aid the
court in determining the truth?
a) Expert Witness c) Collection Technicians
b) Specially Trained Evidence d) Analysis of Physical Evidence
19. This is the function of Forensic Scientist trained in proper recognition,

collection and preservation of evidence required so that the medical examiner
or coroner can determine the cause of death in an autopsy.
a) Analysis of Physical Evidence
b) Expert Witness
c) Specially Trained Evidence Collection Technician
d) Computer Analyst
20.Which causes and manner of death falls under the jurisdiction of the local
medical examiner or coroner?
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a) Suspicious deaths, sudden/expected deaths or deaths in children/infant
b) Deaths in individuals not under the care of a physician
c) Situations where illicit drugs or alcohol may have contributed to the death
d) All of the above
21.These are scientists who provide service in postmortem cases, human

performance cases and workplace testing.
a) Forensic odontologists c) Forensic entomologists
b) Forensic toxicologists d) Forensic psychiatrists
22._________ are dentist and oral pathologists who identify people from dental
structures and analysis/comparisons of bitemarks.
a) Forensic odontologists c) Forensic entomologists
b) Forensic toxicologists d) Forensic psychiatrists
23.These are medical doctors who serve as researches and clinical practitioners
in the many areas in which psychiatry as applied to legal issues.
a) Forensic botanists c) Forensic entomologists
b) Forensic psychiatrists d) Forensic biologists
24.He undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a

method of classifying fingerprints.
a) Aphonse Bertillon c) Albert S. Osborn
b) Francis Galton d) Hans Gross
25.He devised the first scientific system of personal identification, using body
measurements known as anthropometry.
26.He developed fundamental principles of document analysis was responsible

for the acceptance of documents as scientific evidence by the courts
27.He described the application of scientific disciplines to the field of criminal

investigation.
28.Branch of pathology that encompasses surgical pathology, autopsy pathology,

and diagnostic cytology.
a) Clinical pathology c) Anatomic pathology
b) Forensic pathology d) None of the above
29.Branch of pathology that includes various laboratory departments such as

clinical microscopy, hematology, microbiology, immunology, serology, clinical
chemistry, toxicology and transfusion medicine.
a) Clinical pathology c) Anatomic pathology
b) Forensic pathology d) None of the above
30.They perform a wide range of functions including serving as sexual assault

nurse examiners (SANEs) and case reviewers for medical malpractice
attorneys.
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a) Forensic Teachers c) Forensic Pilots
b) Forensic Nurses d) Forensic Sociologists
CHAPTER 2
CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION
Prepared by: Advincula, Lerma A.
1. Which of the following refers to the place where the initial crime was
committed.
a) primary crime scene c) secondary crime scene
b) multiple crime scene d) none of the above
2. Which among the following refers to two or more physical locations of

evidence associated with a crime?
a) primary crime scene c) secondary crime scene
b) multiple crime scene d) none of the above
3. Which of the following refers to a group of professional investigators each

trained in variety of special disciplines?
a) Special Task Force c) Crime Scene Team
b) Team leader d) Police Investigator Group
4. This refers to the focal point of the crime scene investigation and is
absolutely imperative that this person exerts positive control of the entire
crime scene operation.
a) Team leader c) Photographer
b) Recorder d) Custodian
5. Which of the following establishes a link between various facets of the crime
scene, the victim and the suspect?
a) Bermuda Triangle c) Crime Scene Triangle
b) Evidence Triangle d) none of the above
6. Who formulated the basic principle of forensic science as: "Every contact
leaves a trace"?
a) Dr. Edmond Locard c) Dr. William Bass
b) Dr. Joseph Bell d) Dr. Raymond Locard
7. It involves the use of scientific methods, physical evidence, deductive

reasoning and their interrelationships to gain explicit knowledge of the series
of events that surround the commission of the crime.
a) crime scene investigation c) scientific interrogation
b) scientific investigation d) none of the above
8. Which of the following is not a function of photographer in a crime scene

team?
a) photograph entire scene
b) photograph each item of evidence before it is moved
c) photograph all latent fingerprints and other impression evidence before
lifting and casting
d) diagram a rough sketch of immediate area of the scene
9. Which of the following is not a purpose of physical evidence?

a) helps establish the elements of the crime
b) helps reconstruct the crime or crime scene
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c) helps associate or disassociate defendants with crimes
d) helps fast track investigation
10.This is a search method usually used for covering large or open areas.
a) wheel search method c) counterclockwise method
b) strip search method d) spiral search method
11.This search method is a variation of the strip search method-best used

outdoors. Personnel will search a strip along one axis, east to west and then
come back and cover the same area on a north to south axis.
a) grid search method c) zone or sector method
b) counterclockwise d) all of the above
12.Which of the following search method which is not very systematic, it can
be used in small confined areas.
a) point to point search method c) grid search method
b) zone or sector method d) none of the above
13.Which of the following search method which is usually conducted by a

single searcher who walks in a slightly decreasing less-than-concentric circle
from the outermost boundary towards the center.
a) spiral search method c) point to point search
b) grid search method d) none of the above
14.Which of the following activity provides the first opportunity to identify

valuable and/or fragile evidence and determine initial investigative
procedures, providing for the systematic examination and documentation
of the scene?
a) walk –through c) run through
b) read through d) none of the above
15.Which of the following is the purpose of crime scene investigation?

a) To determine if a crime has been committed and to bring to
justice the person or persons who committed the crime.
b) To determine if there is probable cause.
c) To determine if the suspect is innocent.
d) All of the above.
16.It is the determination of physical or chemical identity of a substance with as

near absolute certainty as existing analytical techniques will permit.
a) Comparison c. Identification
b) Differentiation d. None of the above
17.It is an analysis that subjects specimen (unknown) and a control to the same
test and examinations for the ultimate purpose of whether or not they have
common origin.
a) Comparison c) Identification
b) Differentiation d) None of the above
18.Which of the following characteristics refers to properties of evidence where

the features or characteristics are not unique for that item but which are
shared by other items of the same class?
a) Individual characteristics c) Dual Characteristics
b) Group Characteristics d) Class characteristics
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19.Which of the following characteristics refers to properties of evidence that
can be associated with a common source with an extremely high degree of
certainty?
a) Individual characteristics c) Dual Characteristics
b) Group Characteristics d) Class characteristics
20.What is the first stage in crime scene investigation according to Crime Search
Study of 2003?
a) Approach the scene.
b) Initiate a preliminary survey of the scene and brief the team.
c) Preparation
d) Basic premises
21.In Documenting the crime scene what is the Golden rule to follow?
a) “Do not Change, Remove and Take pictures until Someone Document the
scene.”
b) “Do not Touch, Move, or Alter any evidentiary Item Until
Someone Document The Scene”
c) “Do not Remove, Alter or Change anything until Someone document the
scene”
d) None of the above
22.Which of the following activity allows for the development of a plan for the
coordinated identification, collection, and preparation of physical evidence
and identification of witnesses?
a) Observation c) Survey
b) Scene Assessment d) all of the above
23.Which of the following is not a function of a Team Leader?
a) Determine search patterns and make appropriate assignments.
b) Designate command post locations.
c) Ensure that sufficient supplies and equipment are available.
d) Ensure that appropriate safety measures are adhered to.
24.In approaching the crime scene what should be the first priority?
a) officer safety c. legal issue
b) evidence d. supplies and equipment
25.Which of the following is not a function of Evidence Recorder/Custodian?

a) Coordinate evidence nomenclature
b) Receive and record all evidence.
c) Maintain chain of custody and control of evidence
d) Obtain appropriate assistance for taking measurements and list
assistants on sketch.
26.Which of the following survey is a critical review of all aspects of the search?
a) Initial Survey c) Final Survey
b) Final Search d) none of the above
27.The following legal search may also be done based on a plane view
doctrine, except for:
a) If a resident call s for help at his own dwelling
b) if the evidence is in plain view
c) in an emergency condition in dwelling or in a place of business.
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d) none of the above
28.Which of the following is not true when releasing a crime scene test?
a) Release is accomplished only after completion of the final survey.
b) Only the person-in-charge should have the authority to release the scene.
c) Consider the need to have certain specialties observe the scene before it
is released.
d) Ensure all equipment used in the search is gathered.
29.Which of the following maybe an issue even in crime investigation, if the

victim is already dead?
a) crime scene c) crime team
b) right of the suspect d) right to privacy
30.In release of crime scene, minimum documentation should be made which

should contain of the following, except for:
a) time and date of release c) name of respondent
b) to whom released d) by whom released
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CHAPTER 3
COLLECTION AND PRESERVATION OF EVIDENCE FOR EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Almine, Shareen Donna A.
1. Potential contamination of physical evidence can occur in the following,

except:
a) at the crime scene;
b) during the packaging;
c) during evidence analysis and storage;
d) at the laboratory.
2. The collection process will usually start with the collection of the
____________ evidence.
a) most fragile c) most valuable
b) most recent d) most precise
3. The following are the individuals that should be present at typical death
scene, except
a) crime scene examiners c) coroner or medical examiners
b) the officer d) prosecuting attorneys
4. ___________ can be transported in non-breakable, leakproof containers

a) Liquid items c) Moist or wet evidence
b) Arson evidence d) Large quantities of evidence
5. ___________ is usually collected in air-tight, clean metals cans.

a) Large quantities of evidence c) Most items of evidence
b) Moist or wet evidence d) Arson evidence
6. ___________ can be collected in paper containers such as packets,

envelopes, and bags.
a) Most items of evidence.
b) Any items which may cross contaminate each other
c) Liquid items
d) Moist or wet evidence
7. Each container containing an evidence should have the following, except

a) the collecting person’s initials;
b) the date and time it was transferred.
c) complete description of the evidence and where it is found
d) the investigating agency’s name and their file number
8. The following are practical tips in the packaging and shipping of evidence,
except
a) Take precautions to prefer the evidence.
b) Wrap and seal each item of evidence separately to avoid contamination
c) Place the evidence in a clean, dry, and previously unused inner container
d) Seal the inner container with tamper-evident or filament tape
9. ________must be taken when transporting the evidence from the scene to a

temporary facility, such as the crime scene personnel’s office.
a) Precautionary measures c) Biohazard labels
b) Care d) Special precautions
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10.The following the protocols to maintain scene security throughout processing
and until the scene is released, except
a) Ensure that the date of collection is documented.
b) Identify essential and nonessential personnel
c) Remove nonessential personnel from the scene
d) Continue to document entry/exit of persons at the scene
11.The following are the procedures to obtain standard/reference samples from

the scene, except
a) Determine if standard/reference samples are needed
b) Identify standard/reference samples altogether.
c) Collect standard/reference samples
d) Package samples individually
12.The following are the procedure in Obtaining Elimination Samples, except

a) Ensure that the description of item(s) to be collected is
documented.
b) Determine if elimination samples are needed
c) Identify and collect elimination samples
d) Package samples individually
13.The following are the ways on how to collect items identified as evidence,
except
a) Impression evidence collection
b) Latent print evidence collection
c) Biological evidence collection
d) Biohazard evidence collection
14.The following are the protocols on how to document the description and
condition of firearms/weapons prior to rendering them safe, except
a) Use additional documentation of any evidence.
b) Record the physical condition of the weapon
c) Determine and record the best method for rendering the weapon safe
d) Identify the weapon
15. ____________ records the movement of the evidence.

a) Proper packing
b) Chain of Custody
c) Scene of the crime
d) Chain of command
16. The following are the techniques for Impression Evidence Collection, except
a) Vacate by using visual observation techniques.
b) Consider collection of elimination samples
c) Collect by using photography, physical lifters
d) Ensure proper packaging of individual items of evidence
17.The following are the ways to maintain the chain of custody, except
a) Store the items in a secured vault or special room with limited access
b) Limit the number of personnel who are involved in the movement of the
evidence
c) The longer the chain the more potential there will be for a weak link to
exist
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d) Mark each item for identification purpose in such a manner as to
destroy any evidentiary value of the item.
18. According to Baldwin and May the potential for evidence contamination has
been a concern of ________ and _________, in general, ever since evidence
was first analyzed.
a) law enforcement; forensic practitioners.
b) criminal investigation; current scientific analyses
c) practitioners; economists
d) investigator; evaluator
19. _________ means proper collection and preservation of evidence.

a) Chain of Custody
b) Bag It and Tag It.
c) Collection Process
d) Anti-Contamination Protocol
20.The level of contamination risk to be expected is related to the type of

__________ and corresponding number of ___________ who have access to
the scene.
a) Crime scene; individuals.
b) Evidence; individuals
c) Crime; investigator
d) Evidence; investigator
21. The following are the individuals that should be present at the burglary
scene
a) the victim c) all of the above.
b) the officer taking the report d) none of the above
22. Any items which may cross contaminate each other must be packaged
___________.
a) Separately c) Altogether
b) Jointly d) Continually
23. Each type of evidence has a __________ in an investigation.

a) Assigned value c) Importance
b) Specific value d) Transitory value
24. Some evidence, particularly ___________, may be sensitive to absolute

temperature or fluctuations on temperature.
a) Biological evidence c) Important evidence
b) Physical evidence d) Bio-chemical evidence
25.Statement 1: Some items that have been recovered as evidence at the crime
scene should be considered significant and handled properly.
Statement 2: Cases are never lost because too much evidence had been
gathered and preserved.
a) Both statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
d) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true.
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26.Statement 1: Keep the number of persons involved in the handling of
evidence to a maximum.
Statement 2: The finder must identify some evidence.
a) Both statements are false.
b) Both statements are true
d) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true
27.Statement 1: After one has collected the evidence, package each item of
evidence separately.
Statement 2: Keep accurate and complete notes.
a) Both statements are false
b) Both statements are true
d) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true
28. Statement 1: It may not be necessary for all those who handled the evidence
to testify.
Statement 2: Handle the evidence in a manner that will avoid contaminating
it.
a) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true.
b) Both statements are false
c) Both statements are true
d) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
29.Statement 1: Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and the
locations of the evidence noted, then the collection and preservation
processes can begin.
Statement 2: Photographs should also continue to be taken if the investigator
is revealing layers of evidence which were not previously documented
because they were hidden from sight.
a) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
b) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true
c) Both statements are false
d) Both statements are true.
30.Statement 1: Do not delay in getting evidence to the laboratory

Statement 2: The officer who collects the items of evidence should also
handle transportation of shipment to and from the laboratory
a) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.
b) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true
c) Both statements are false
d) Both statements are true
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CHAPTER 4
FORENSIC EVIDENCE EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Amascual, Annalou T.
1. This type of examination is used to determine if a person was in the presence

of gunshot residue within a limited time after a weapon discharge.
a) Bullet jacket alloy examination
b) Gunshot residue on hands examination.
c) Explosive examination
d) Chemical examination of general unknowns
2. What type of forensic examination that determines the origin on the bones
sent to the laboratory for DNA analysis or for facial reproductions?
a) DNA examinations
b) Anthropological examinations
c) Nuclear DNA
d) Mitochondrial DNA
3. What id being analyzed in the Bank Security Dyes Examinations?

a) Presence of ignitable liquids
b) Trace-drug presence
c) Presence of dye and tear gas
d) Presence of drugs and poisons
4. The type of forensic examination that can determine the presence of ignitable
liquids introduced to a fire scene.
a) Arson examinations
b) Electronic devices examinations
c) Explosive examinations
d) Paint examinations
5. It is a type of forensic examination that uses evidence which typically consists

of pieces of plastics or other man-made materials.
a) Polymers examination. c) Ropes and cords examination
Product tampering examination d) Safe insulations examination
6. This is a type of forensic examination which can disclose the presence of

drugs and poisons in biological specimen and food products.
a) Soil examination c) Toxicology examination.
b) Metallurgy examination d) Pharmaceutical examination
7. This type of forensic examination can establish trace-drug presence, identity

and quantity.
a) Controlled substances examination.
b) Pharmaceutical examination
c) Toxicology examination
d) Lubricants examination
8. Which forensic examination that can determine the amount of pressure

necessary to release the hammer or firing pin of a firearm?
a) Trigger-pull examination. c) Gunshot residue examination
b) Explosive examination d) Arson examination
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9. This type of forensic examinations involve the analysis of encoded and
enciphered documents used by terrorists, foreign intelligence agents, violent
criminals, street and prison gangs, and organized crime groups.
a) Computer examinations
b) Cryptanalysis and racketeering records examination.
c) Electronic devices examination
d) Feather examination
10.The type of forensic examination that determines bird species and can
compare feathers found on clothing, vehicles, and other objects with feathers
from the crime scene.
a) Feather examination. c) Audio examination
b) Glass examination d) Electronic devices examination
11.This is a comparative examination of two metals to determine if they come

from the same source or from each other.
a) Polymers examination c) Metallurgy examinations.
b) Paint examinations d) Ink examination
12.A forensic examination conducted to determine whether a commercial

product is intentionally distorted to harm someone or for extortion purposes.
a) Product tampering examination.
b) Paint examination
c) Serial number examination
d) General crime scene photograph
13.What type of forensic examination that determines the origin of or the

authenticity of questioned writing?
a) Ink examinations
b) Computer examination
c) Questioned documents examinations.
d) Soil examination
14.It is said to be the best evidence to place an individual at a scene of a crime.

a) Bite marks c) Fingerprints.
b) Broken fingernails d) Video examinations
15.It is a type of forensic examination that typically analyzed in evidence

containing naturally shed hairs, hair fragments, bones, and teeth.
a) Controlled substances examinations
b) Hair and fiber examinations
c) Facial imaging
d) Mitochondrial DNA.
16.The type of examination that include the authenticity of the recordings,

enhancement made, voice comparisons, signal analysis to interpret signals
such as gunshots and telephone touch-tones, and damaged media to repair if
such damage is not too extensive.
a) Computer examination
b) Electronic devices examination
c) Glass examination
d) Audio examination.
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17.This includes examinations of Commercial Electronic Devices, Interception of
Communication Devices, and other Electronic Devices and/or Circuits.
a) Explosive residue examination
b) Electronic devices examination.
c) Computer examination
d) Audio examination
18.This forensic examination includes examinations of the contents such as data

files in order to compare the data files from known documents, transactions,
extraction, deleted data files, format conversion, keyword searching,
passwords, and limited source code.
a) chemical examinations
b) electronic devices examinations
c) computer examinations.
d) audio examinations
19.This type of examination determines the direction and type of the breaking
force and the sequencing of shots.
a) Crime scene surveys, documentation, and reconstruction
b) Glass examination.
c) Explosive residue examination
d) Electronic devices examination
20.Forensic examination which determines whether the substances are highly

explosive, low explosive or incendiary mixtures, whether the composition of
the substances is consistent with known explosives products, and the type of
explosives.
a) Explosive residue examination.
b) Explosive examination
c) Chemical examination s of general unknowns
d) Arson examinations
21.The analysis of this forensic examination may be helpful when there are
multiple shooters and types of jacketed ammunition.
a) Bullet jacket alloy examination.
b) Abrasive examinations
c) Building materials examinations
d) Weapon of mass destruction examinations
22.The forensic examination that often results in the positive identification of the
suspect shoes or tires from the suspect vehicles.
a) Shoeprint and Tire Tread Examinations.
b) Serial Number Examinations
c) General Crime Scene Photograph
d) Tape examinations
23.This can be used to lift impressions from porous and nonporous surfaces.
a) Gelatin lifters. c) Adhesive lifters
b) White adhesive lifters d) Transparent tapes
24.This can be used to lift impressions developed with fingerprint powders.

a) Gelatin lifters c) Adhesive lifters
b) White adhesive lifters. d) Transparent tapes
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25.This can be used to lift impressions from smooth nonporous surfaces.
a) Gelatin lifters c) Adhesive lifters
b) White adhesive lifters d) Transparent tapes
26.What is not included in the classes of poisons which is necessary to be

screened in the toxicology examination?
a) Volatile compound c) Pharmaceuticals
b) Heavy metal d) Sealants
27.This type of examination is conducted to maximize the clarity of the video

signal through video processors and time-base correctors.
a) Enhancement examination c) Fracture examination
b) Authenticity examination d) Polymers examination
28.This type of signatures are prepared by copying or drawing a genuine

signature.
a) Traced signatures c) Simulated signatures.
b) Freehand signatures d) Typewriting
29.This type of signatures are prepared by using a genuine signature as a

template or pattern.
a) Traced signatures. c) Simulated signatures
b) Freehand signatures d) Typewriting
30.Signatures which are written in the forger’s normal handwriting with no

attempt to copy another’s writing style.
a) Traced signatures c) Simulated signatures
b) Freehand signatures. d) Typewriting
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CHAPTER 5
OVERVIEW OF REVISED RULES OF EVIDENCE AND EXPERT WITNESS
Prepared by: Samar Mohamed B. Bandoukji
1. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Evidence is admissible when it is believed to be in connection with the
case
b) Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not
excluded by the ROC.
c) Evidence is admissible even if it violates certain rights of a person
d) All of the above
2. Which of the following is not a type of evidence?

a) Testimonial Evidence c) Object Evidence
b) Documentary Evidence d) Truth Evidence.
3. Evidence that tends to make a material fact more or less probable than it
would be without the evidence.
a) Relevant Evidence. c) Direct Evidence
b) Hearsay Evidence d) Circumstantial Evidence
4. Which is not a ground for disqualification of witnesses?

a) Persons who can perceive, are perceiving and can make their
perceptions known to others.
b) By reason of mental incapacity.
c) By reason of marriage.
d) Privileged communication.
5. This refers to an as evidence consist of writing or any material containing

letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols or other modes of written
expression.
a) Object Evidence c) Documentary Evidence.
b) Collateral Evidence d) Written Evidence
6. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact may be given

in evidence against him.
a) Compromise of parties c) Admission of a party
b) Confession of a party d) None of the above
7. The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged.

a) Compromise of parties. c) Admission of a party
b) Confession of a party d) None of the above
8. Which of the following statement is not true about the rule on the opinion of
an expert witness?
a) The expert witness may not testify to a reasonable degree of
certainty regarding his opinion, inference, or conclusion.
b) He needs to have a special skill, knowledge or experience, which has been
known to possess, may be perceived as evidence.
c) An expert witness need not to be present during the accident.
d) None of the above.
17
9. In criminal cases, the degree of evidence needed is:
a) Preponderance of evidence.
b) Circumstantial of evidence.
c) Substantial evidence.
d) Proof beyond reasonable doubt.
10.Which of the following courts does not belong to Municipal and City Courts?
a) Municipal Circuit Trial Courts.
b) Municipal Trial Courts in Cities.
c) Metropolitan Trial Courts.
11.As a rule on evidence, which of the following is not true?

a) Object evidence must be marked Exhibit A, B, etc. for the plaintiff.
b) Object evidence must be marked Exhibit A, B, etc. for the
defendant.
c) The marking of the exhibit must be done during the pre-trial or its
presentation during the trial.
d) The marked evidence must be formally offered after the presentation of a
party’s testimonial evidence.
12.It is a legal system that has drawn its inspiration largely from the Roma Law
heritage and which, by giving precedence to written law, has resolutely opted
for a systematic codification of its general law.
a) Criminal Law c) Common Law System
b) Civil Law. d) All of the above
13.__________ is the examination-in-chief of a witness by the party presenting

him on the facts relevant to the issue.
a) Direct Examination. c) Re-direct Examination
b) Cross-Examination d) Re-cross Examination
14.Which of the following is not true in Axiom of Admissibility of Evidence?

a) Evidence is generally admissible when it is relevant to the issues and its
component.
b) Evidence is said to be relevant if it tends in any reasonable degree to
establish improbability of a fact in issue.
c) Evidence is said to be relevant if it tends in any reasonable degree to
establish the probability of a fact in issue.
15.Which of the following is not true about the Sandiganbayan?

a) It is a graft court which has exclusive jurisdiction over violations of RA
3019 or Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act.
b) It covers public officials and employees including those employed or
GOCCs.
c) It has exclusive jurisdiction in all cases where the penalty
prescribed is more than 12 years of imprisonment and a fine not
less than Php 500,000.00
d) The decisions of the Sandiganbayan are appealed to the Supreme Court.
16.Proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular
fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
a) Direct Evidence. c) Testimonial Evidence.
18
b) Indirect Evidence. d) Circumstantial Evidence.
17.Evidence which suffices for the proof of a particular fact until contradicted
and overcome by other evidence.
a) Direct Evidence. c) Circumstantial Evidence
b) Prima Facie Evidence. d) None of the above.
18.A witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal
knowledge; that is, which are derived from his own perception, except as
otherwise provided in the Rules.
a) Testimonial Knowledge or Hearsay Rule.
b) Character Evidence
c) Direct Evidence
d) Circumstantial Evidence
19.When a witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a) Denial Evidence. c) Excluding Evidence.
b) Negative Evidence. d) None of the above.
20.As a rule, disqualification by reason of privileged communication includes the

following except:
a) Husband or wife.
b) An attorney without the consent of his client.
c) A person authorized to practice medicine, surgery, or obstetrics cannot in
a civil case, without the consent of the patient, be examined as to any
advice or treatment given by him.
21.In criminal cases, the general rule is an offer of compromise is admissible.

However, it is inadmissible under the following cases, except:
a) Quasi-offenses (criminal negligence)
b) Cases allowed by law to be compromise
c) Plea of guilty not withdrawn until rendition of judgement.
d) Unaccepted offer to plead guilty to a lesser offense
22.The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an

impending death, may be received in any case wherein his death is subject of
inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of such
death is called__________.
a) Dying Declaration.
b) Declaration against interest
c) Act or declaration against pedigree
d) Parts of the res gestae
23.___________ is the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue

necessary to establish his claim or defense by the amount of evidence
required by law.
a) Testimonial declarations c) Burden of proof.
b) Plea d) None of the above
24.A witness may be impeached by the party against whom he was called by
way of __________.
a) Negative Evidence. c) Opposing Evidence
19
b) Contradictory Evidence. d) Destruction Evidence
25.The law of evidence is governed by__________.

a) New Civil Code of the Philippines
b) Rules of Court.
c) 1987 Constitution
d) Statute
26.Which of the following is a CORRECT order of examination of witnesses?

a) Direct Examination; Cross-Examination; Re-Direct Examination;
Re-Cross Examination.
b) Direct Examination; Re-Direct Examination; Cross-Examination; Re-Cross
examination
c) Pre-Trial; Trial; Rendition of Judgement
27.According to Professor Thompson, the necessary qualifications for an expert

witness are as follows, except:
a) Knowledge based upon proper training in the subject under review
b) Humility in admitting when there is doubt
c) Courage in desiring to establish the truth
28.In administrative cases, the degree of evidence needed is:

a) Preponderance of Evidence.
b) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c) Substantial Evidence.
d) Circumstantial Evidence.
29.Which party has the burden of proof in a criminal trial?

a) The government.
b) The defendant.
c) The plaintiff.
d) The respondent.
30.As regards with the testimony of the witness, the offer must be made at:
a) The moment the case is filed.
b) The period the respondent is called.
c) The time the witness is called to testify.
20
CHAPTER 6
ADMISSIBILITY OF SCIENTIFIC OR TECHNOLOGICAL EVIDENCE
Prepared by: Cabalona, Ruby Theresa E.
1. Under Philippine law and jurisprudence, when is evidence admissible pursuant

to Section 3, Rule 128 of the Rules of Court?
a) When it is relevant to the fact in issue.
b) When it is not otherwise excluded by stature or Rules of Court.
c) Both A and B
2. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the weight of evidence

vs. admissibility of evidence?
a) Admissibility of evidence depends only on its relevance and not
competence while weight of evidence pertains to evidence not admitted
and its tendency to persuade and convince.
b) Admissibility of evidence depends only on its competence and not
relevance while weight of evidence pertains to evidence admitted and its
tendency to persuade and convince.
c) Admissibility of evidence depends on its relevance and competence while
weight of evidence pertains to evidence not admitted and its tendency to
persuade and convince.
d) Admissibility of evidence depends on its relevance and competence while
weight of evidence pertains to evidence admitted and its tendency to
persuade and convince.
3. As provided by the Court (U.S.) in the Daubert Case, which of the following
statements is TRUE on the role of Judges as Gatekeepers?
a) The trial judge must determine at the outset whether the expert is
proposing to testify to technological knowledge that will assist the trier of
fact to understand or determine a fact in issue.
b) The appellate court must determine whether the expert is proposing to
testify to scientific knowledge that will assist the trier of fact to
understand or determine a face in issue.
c) The trial judge must determine at the outset whether the expert is
proposing to testify to scientific knowledge that will assist the trier of fact
to understand or determine a fact in issue.
4. Which of the following doctrines/tests on admissibility of evidence expanded

or broadened the circle of experts to be subjected to the court’s gatekeeping
process?
a) Kumho Doctrine c) Frye-Schwartz Test
b) Frye Test d) Daubert Standards Test
5. Generally in American Jurisdictions, which of the statements below is TRUE

relative to the application of Daubert Standards to Ballistics Examination?
a) Ballistics generally fails the Daubert standard despite widespread
acceptance.
b) Ballistics generally fails the Daubert standard because of its lack of
widespread acceptance.
c) Ballistics is generally valid and passes the Daubert standard because of its
d) Ballistics is admissible and conclusive.
21
6. Generally in American Jurisdictions, which of the statements below is TRUE
relative to the application of Daubert Standards to Hair Analysis?
a) Daubert has been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods for
detecting the past use of drugs.
b) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods for
detecting the past use of drugs.
c) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods due to
controversy over the qualifications required for a forensic scientist or lab
technician as a microanalyst.
d) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods to
determine filial relationship
7. Which of the following standards is CONTROLLING in the Philippines

relative to admissibility of evidence?
a) Frye-Schwartz Standard c) Both A and B
b) Daubert-Kumho Standard d) None of the above
8. Under Philippine law and jurisprudence, which of the following is NOT a

factor on determining the admissibility of scientific or technological evidence?
a) Whether a theory of technique can be or has been tested.
b) Whether it has been subjected to peer review and publication.
c) Whether the theory or technique enjoys general acceptance within a
relevant scientific community.
9. Generally in American Jurisdictions, which of the statements below is FALSE

relative to the application of Daubert Standards?
a) Voice Comparison techniques have failed the Daubert test, for the most
part.
b) Computer Simulation has failed because experts often can’t explain the
algorithms.
c) DNA is inadmissible under either the Frye or Daubert standard.
d) Ballistics generally fails the Daubert standard despite widespread
acceptance.
10.Generally in American Jurisdictions, which of the statements below is TRUE

relative to the application of existing standard/doctrines on admissibility of
evidence to DNA Evidence?
a) DNA is inadmissible under either the Frye or Daubert standard.
b) DNA is admissible under either the Frye or Daubert standard.
c) DNA is inadmissible under the Kumho Doctrine.
11.Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a) American jurisprudence has generally gained acceptance under Philippine
jurisprudence.
b) American jurisprudence applies suppletorily in our Philippine laws.
c) American jurisprudence merely has persuasive effects in Philippine
Supreme Court.
d) Both A and B are true.

relative to the application of Daubert Standards to Psychiatric Evidence?
22
a) Psychiatric Evidence has widely gains acceptance under Daubert.
b) Psychological or sociopsychological profiling results are valid for its logical
foundation and strong methodology.
c) Testimony regarding mental disorders that go to the matter of mens rea
fails the Daubert test
13.Under the Philippine Rules of Court, which of the following statements is

TRUE?
a) The Philippine Courts follow the restrictive tests for admissibility
established by Frye-Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho.
b) The Philippine Courts do not follow the restrictive tests for admissibility
established by Frye-Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho.
c) The Philippine Trial Courts follow the restrictive tests for admissibility
established by Frye-Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho, but not the Supreme
Court because it is not a trier of facts.
d) The Supreme Court follows the restrictive tests for admissibility
established by Frye-Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho, but not the lower
courts because their decisions do not form part of the legal system of the
country.

evidence to Computer Simulation?
a) Computer simulation generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some
jurisdiction but failed in most.
b) Computer simulation generally fails the Daubert standard because of its
lack of widespread acceptance.
c) Computer simulation generally failed because experts can’t explain the
algorithms.
d) Computer simulation is admissible and conclusive.
15.In Philippine jurisdiction, which of the following is TRUE?

a) Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the fact in issue and is not
otherwise excluded by statute or Rules of Court.
b) Neither the Frye-Schwartz nor Daubert-Kumho standard is controlling in
the Philippines.
c) The restrictive tests of admissibility established by Frye Schwartz and
Daubert Kumho go into the weight of evidence.
d) All of the above

evidence to Child Accommodation Syndrome?
a) Child Accommodation Syndrome generally satisfied the Daubert standard
in some jurisdiction but failed in most.
b) Child Accommodation Syndrome generally fails the Daubert standard
because of its lack of widespread acceptance.
c) Child Accommodation Syndrome generally failed because experts can’t
explain the algorithms.
d) Child Accommodation Syndrome has failed the test for the most part.
17.Under the Rules of Courts, when is evidence considered COMPETENT?

a) When it is not excluded by law.
23
b) When it is not excluded by the Rules of Court.
c) When it is not gathered from illegal search or seizure.
d) All of the above

evidence to Forensic Anthropology?
a) Forensic anthropology generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some
b) Forensic anthropology has not yet met the Daubert test but the study of
certain features from the bones remains reliable.
c) Forensic anthropology generally failed because experts can’t explain the
algorithms.
d) Forensic anthropology has failed the test for the most part.
19.Which of the following doctrines/standards on admissibility of evidence was

EXPANDED by the Kumho Doctrine which included all forms of expert
testimony?
a) Frye Standard c) Daubert Doctrine
b) Frye-Schwartz Standard d) Poisonous Tree Doctrine

evidence to Voice Comparison?
a) Voice comparison generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some
b) Voice comparison has not yet met the Daubert test but the study of
certain features from the bones remains reliable.
c) Voice comparison generally failed because experts can’t explain the
algorithms.
d) Voice comparison has failed the test for the most part.
21.Under the Rules of Courts, when is evidence considered RELEVANT?

a) When it is not excluded by law.
b) When it is not excluded by the Rules of Court.
c) When it is important to the issues for the resolution of the case.
d) When it is not gathered from illegal search or seizure.

evidence to Intoxilyzer Test?
a) Intoxilyzer Test generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some
b) Intoxilyzer Test has not yet met the Daubert test but the study of certain
features from the bones remains reliable.
c) Intoxilyzer Test generally failed because experts can’t explain the
algorithms.
d) Intoxilyzer Test has been ruled valid and is considered beyond scientific
dispute by many judges.

evidence to Polygraph?
24
a) Polygraph generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some jurisdiction but
failed in most.
b) Polygraph has not yet met the Daubert test but the study of certain
features from the bones remains reliable.
c) Polygraph is beginning to be found reliable in Daubert hearings but still
does not enjoy widespread acceptance.
d) Polygraph has been ruled valid and is considered beyond scientific dispute
by many judges.
24.Which of the following doctrines/tests on admissibility of evidence is based on

a generally accepted and reliable scientific technique?

evidence to Questioned Documents?
a) Questioned Documents generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some
b) Questioned Documents have been ruled by many judges as not requiring
the Daubert test.
c) Questioned Documents is beginning to be found reliable in Daubert
hearings but still does not enjoy widespread acceptance.
d) Questioned Documents has been ruled valid and is considered beyond
scientific dispute by many judges.
26.Which of the following is NOT one of the two ways in which appellate courts
on appeal have reviewed a lower court’s decision to exclude or include expert
testimony?
a) Whether there was an abuse of discretion by the judge in his application
of the Daubert factors to determine reliability.
b) Whether the expert testimony had an adequate factual basis so as to be
deemed reliable.
c) Whether the evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the fact in issue
and is not otherwise excluded by statute or Rules of Court.

evidence to Battered Woman Syndrome (BWS)?
a) BWS generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some jurisdiction but
failed in most.
b) BWS generally fails the Daubert standard because of its lack of
c) BWS is generally valid and passes the Daubert standard because of its
d) BWS is admissible and conclusive.
28.What is the importance of the need for standards or rules of admissibility of

scientific or technological evidence?
a) Because misuse of such is a serious problem.
b) Because misuse of such does not affect the relevance of evidence.
c) Because misuse of such does not send hundreds of innocent people to
jail.
25
d) Because misuse of such is not a serious problem.

evidence to Hypnosis?
a) Hypnosis generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some jurisdiction but
failed in most.
b) Hypnosis does not meet Daubert test because of its known therapeutic
value.
c) Hypnosis is beginning to be found reliable in Daubert hearings but still
does not enjoy widespread acceptance.
d) Hypnosis has been ruled valid and is considered beyond scientific dispute
by many judges.
30.Under this doctrine, the admissibility of expert testimony is to be more

rigorously scrutinized by the trial judges.
26
CHAPTER 7
DNA AS EVIDENCE
Prepared by: Dadulla, Mark Joed
1. DNA test is (or analysis) is synonymous to:

a) DNA crossing c) DNA finding
b) DNA typing d) DNA swatching
2. DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA is an organic substances found in a

person’s cells which contains his or her genetic code. Except identical twins,
each person’s DNA profile is distinct and unique.
a) True
b) False
c) True for the first sentence only
d) True for the second sentence only
3. DNA test may yield _______ possible results:

a) 2 c) 4
b) 3. d) 5
4. DNA is the ________________ of a person’s entire genetic make-up.

a) Fundamental building block. c) Primary reason
b) Ultimate definition d) Is the same that
5. DNA analysis is a procedure in which DNA ______ from a biological sample

obtained from an individual is examined and processed to generate a patter,
or DNA profile.
a) Extracted. c) Remaining
b) Analyzed d) Damaged
6. The chemical structure of DNA has _____ bases.

a) 3 c) 5
b) 4. d) 6
7. The following are the bases of the chemical structure of DNA, except:
a) Adenine c) Guanine
b) Cytosine d) Biotine.
8. DNA is a double-stranded molecule. It is composed of ___ specific paired

bases, called “genes”.
a) 2 c) 4
b) 3 d) 5
9. Somewhere in the DNA framework are sections that differ known as

“______________”, which are the area analyzed in DNA typing, profiling,
tests, fingerprinting, and other analogous DNA analysis.
a) Polyamorous Locus c) Polyambiguous Loci
b) Polymorphic Loci. d) Polymorphous Locus
10.A molecular biologist could analyze extracted DNA in several ways. One of
which is through RFLP which stands for:
a) Restriction Fragment Loci Polymorphism
b) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism.
27
c) Re-arrangement Fragment Locus Polyamorous
d) Restriction Fraction Length Polymorphism
which is through HLA which is also known as:
a) Reverse Blot. c) Gram Staining
b) Blank Slate d) Filter Blot
which is through VNTR which stands for:
a) Variable Neurons Tandem Reconstitution
b) Variable Number Tandem Repeats
c) Variable Number Tandem Reconstitution
d) Variable Nuerons Tenacity Repeats
13.When DNA or fingerprint tests are done to identify a suspect in a criminal

case, the evidence collected from the crime scene is compared with the
“known” print. If a substantial amount of the identifying features are the
same, the DNA or fingerprint is deemed match. But even if the only one
feature of the DNA or fingerprint is different, it is deemed not to have come
from the suspects.
a) True
b) False
c) True for first and third sentences only
d) True for second sentence only
14.A person’s possesses _____ genetic types of human DNA regions called,
“allele”, one inherited from each parent.
a) 2 c) 4
b) 3 d) 5
15.In a__________, the forensic scientist looks at a number of variable regions

in an individual to produce a DNA profile, comparing DNA of the mother and
child, and determine the alleged father profile.
a) Paternity Test c) Parental DNA
b) Paternal Examination d) Paternal Gene Exam
16.If the man’s DNA types do not match the child, he is excluded as the father.
If DNA types matches, then he is still excluded as the father.
a) True c) Neither true or false
b) False d) True for second sentence only
17.The first breakthrough of DNA analysis as admissible and authoritative

evidence in the Philippine Jurisprudence came in _______ in People v Vallejo
(G. R. No.144656) where the rape and murder victim’s DNA samples from the
bloodstained clothes of the accused were admitted in evidence. The DNA
profile from the vaginal swabs taken from the victim and SC affirmed the
accused’s conviction of rape with homicide and sentenced him to death.
a) 2000 c) 2002
b) 2001 d) 2003
18.The issue of DNA tests as a more accurate and authoritative means of

identification than eyewitness identification need not be belabored. DNA
testing proposed by petitioners, in a case at bar, to have an objective and
28
scientific basis of identification of “semen samples to compare with those
taken from the vagina of the victim” are thus unnecessary or are forgotten
evidence too late to consider now.
a) True
b) False
19.Obtaining DNA samples from an accused in a criminal case or from the

respondent in a paternity case, contrary to the belief of the respondent in this
action, will not violate the right to self-incrimination, as the SC ruling in the
case People v. Yatar, the kernel of the right is not against all compulsion, but
against testimonial compulsion. The right against self-incrimination is simply
against the legal process of extracting from the lips of the accused an
admission of guilt. It does not apply where the evidence sought to be
excluded is not an incrimination but as part of object evidence.
a) True
b) False
20.Section _______, Article 3 of the Constitution, provides that “no person shall
be compelled to be a witness against himself.”
a) 15 c) 17
b) 16 d) 18
21.This foreign jurisprudence shows that DNA testing is so commonly accepted

that, in some instances, ordering the procedure has become a ministerial act.
a) Wilson v. Lumb c) Rafferty v. Perkins
b) Greg v. Coleman d) Frye V. US
22.Michigan SC while ruling on the constitutionality of a provision of law allowing

non-modifiable support agreements pointed out that it was because of the
difficulty of determining paternity before the advent of DNA testing that such
support agreements were necessary.
23.Results showing paternity were sufficient to overthrow the presumption of

legitimacy of a child born during the course of a marriage.
24.Even default judgments of paternity could be vacated after the adjudicated

father had, through DNA testing, established non-paternity.
a) Kohl v. Amundson c) Rafferty v. Perkins
b) State v. Schwartz d) Frye V. US
25.When a scientific principle or discovery crosses the line between the

experimental and demonstrable stages is difficult to define. Somewhere in
this twilight zone the evidential force of the principle must be recognized, and
while courts will go a long way in admitting expert testimony deduced from a
well recognize scientific principle of discovery, the thing from which the
29
deduction is made must be sufficiently established to have gained general
acceptance in the particular field in which it belongs.
26.While the court agree with the trial court forensic DNA typing has gained
acceptance in the scientific community, the admissibility of specific test
results in a particular case hinges on the laboratory’s compliance with
appropriate standards and controls, and the availability of their testing data
and results.
27.____________ is defined as that which has any ”tendency to make the

existence of any fact that is of consequence to the determination of the
action more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence.
a) Relevant DNA c) Relevant Document
b) Relevant Evidence d) Relevant Existence
28.Evidence which is not relevant is not admissible.

a) True c) It depends
b) False d) Neither true or false
29.Rule 702 of the Federal Rules of Evidence governing expert witness provides;
if scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will assist the trier of
the fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue, a witness
qualified as an expert by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education,
may testify thereto in the form of an opinion or otherwise. If (1) the
testimony is based upon sufficient facts or data, (2) the testimony is the
product of reliable principles and methods, and (3) the witness has applied
the principles and methods reliably to the facts of the case.
a) True c) True for the first sentence only
b) False d) True for the second sentence only
30.The following are the bases of the chemical structure of DNA, except:
a) Adenine c) Guanine
b) Cytosine d) None of the above
30
CHAPTER 8
FORENSIC IDENTIFICATION
Prepared by: Delfin, Dick Guiller G.
1. It is the application of forensic science and technology to identify specific

objects from the traces they leave, often at a crime scene.
a) Fingerprint identification c) Forensic identification.
b) Trace evidence identification d) Firearms identification
2. A Latin term which was introduced in English in the early 19th century
literally means “the body of offense”.
a) Bertillon classification c) Corpus delicti.
b) Quetelet classification d) Anthropometry
3. The basis of identification parades but is notoriously unreliable.

a) Handwriting
b) Fingerprints
c) Personal impression (visual identification)
d) Photography
4. The study of automated methods for uniquely recognizing humans based

upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits.
a) Personal impression c) Biometrics
b) Photography d) Facial reconstruction
5. Which are not included in the characteristics of biometric identifiers.

a) Uniqueness c) Gait analysis
b) Permanence d) Measurability
6. It is one of the characteristics of biometric identifiers that don’t change over

time.
a) Universality c) Permanence.
b) Measurability d) Uniqueness
7. It is the process of quantification and interpretation of animal including

human locomotion.
a) Measurability c) Gait analysis.
b) Pathological gait d) User friendliness
8. It is one of the study conducted by Lynnerup in the year 2005, surveillance

images from bank a robbery were analyzed and compared with images of a
suspect.
a) Earprint c) Photogrammetry
b) Gait analysis d) Lip print
9. Which of the following is a characteristics of biometric identifiers that are
easy and comfortable to measure?
a) Gait analysis c) User friendliness
b) Lip print d) Earprint
10.According to Dr. Anil Aggrawal it is the identification of a person means

knowing positively who a given person.
a) Forensic identification c) Criminal identification
b) Fingerprint identification d) Firearms identification
31
11. It is the first rigorously scientific method of identification that was adopted
by the Frenchman Alphonse Bertillion in the year 1853 to 1914.
a) Quetelet Classification c) Portrait Parle
b) Corpus delicti d) Handwriting
12.Who is the Belgian statistician that put forward his theory that there was one
to four chances of any two adult persons having the same height?
a) Alphonse Bertillion c) Adolph Quetelet
b) Dr. Anil Aggrawal d) Dr. Juzef Wojcikiewics
13.It is an identification of the living in which a person claims that he/she is

someone who he/she is not.
a) Personal Impression c) Impersonation
b) Interchange of Babies d) Absconding Shoulder
14.It is more useful in identifying the living and the dead.

a) Handwriting c) Photography
b) Fingerprints d) Polygraphy
15.It is unique to every individual.

a) Sex c) DNA
b) Forensic Odontology d) Forensic Anthropology
16.What is that pattern of bone ends (epiphysis) to bone shaft (metaphysis) in

each bone indicate age?
a) Ossification Centers c) Epiphyseal Fusion
b) Laboratory Test d) Age determination from Skeleton
17.What technology scan a fingertip and turns the unique pattern therein into an
individual number?
a) Artificial nose c) Biocrypt
b) Biometrics d) Finger scanning
18.What devise that chemically analyses the unique combination of substances

excreted from the skin of people?
a) Biometrics c) Artificial nose
b) Biocrypt d) Heat signature
19.What is one the most touted means of biometric identification during the last
several years?
a) Fingerprints c) DNA Matching
b) Eye Scan d) Facial Recognition
20.What type of scan reads the outline of the shape of a shadow not the
handprint?
a) Facial recognition c) Hand Geometry
b) Eye Scan d) Voice recognition
21.It is refers to the same purpose but by looking at semantics, spelling, word
choice, syntax, and phraseology.
a) Hand Geometry c) Forensic Stylistic
b) Voice recognition d) Handwriting Analyst
22.It is occur in as many people as possible.
32
a) Permanence c) Universality
b) Uniqueness d) Measurability
23.It is useful only in fetuses and babies.

a) Epiphyseal fusion
b) Age determination from Skeleton
c) Ossification Centers
d) Determination of Stature from Bones
24.What secondary physical characteristics that more useful in Caucasiane than

negroid and mongoloid races?
a) Hair c) Eyes
b) Scars d) Tattooing
25.What secondary physical characteristics that seen even if the body is

putrefied?
a) Teeth c) Tattooing
b) Hair d) Fingerprints
26.What primary physical characteristics that external appearances, internal

degenerative disease, bones, joints?
a) Weight c) Age
b) Height or Stature d) Race
27.What method used include photographic enlargement, analysis of ink,

analysis of paper?
a) Forensic Identification c) Handwriting
b) Photography d) Fingerprints
28.What friction skin of the palms and soles that have a ridge pattern?
a) Handwriting c) Fingerprints (Dactylography)
b) Photography d) Forensic Identification
29.What primary physical characteristics that corpse often appears of different

build to that in life?
a) Sex c) Weight
b) Race d) Height or Stature
30.What secondary physical characteristics that very resistant and bear much
useful information?
a) Deformities c) Teeth
b) Jewelry d) Scars
33
CHAPTER 9
FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY
Prepared by: Flores, Ryan Isavelino B.
1. Forensics are also called:

a) Bone Detectives. c) Female
b) Male d) None of the above
2. Forensic Anthropology is a subset of Physical Anthropology.

a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
3. Forensic Anthropology is the application of the science of physical

Anthropology to the legal process.
4. Physical or forensic Anthropology concerns human identification when

traditional means of identification is not possible.
5. The identification of skeletal, badly decomposed, or otherwise unidentified

human remains is important for both legal and humanitarian purposes.
6. Forensic Anthropology is the subject of this chapter.

7. Physical Anthropology is the study of the primate order, past and present.
8. Archeology is the study of past cultures via material remains and artifacts.
9. Forensic anthropology are experienced osteologists.

10.Forensic anthropologist’s general focus is on bones.

11.Anatomical position is a kind of physical position.

34
12.A forensic anthropologist can tell a lot about a person from bones.
13.A forensic anthropologist can determine from a bone its gender.

14.A forensic anthropologist can determine the age of the person from its bones.
15.Femur is the longest bone.

16.Negroid femur bones are straighter than other racial groups.

17.Facial and head hair can help determine race.

18.Caucasian nose holes are triangular.

19.Negroid nose holes are square

20.Mongoloid nose holes are diamond-shaped.

21.Forensic anthropologist may guess what the occupation the person had.
22.Forensic anthropologist can determine if the person was left handed or not.
23.Forensic anthropologist can determine if the person died violently or not.

35
24.Forensic anthropologist can determine if the person was strangled or not.
25.Forensic anthropologist can determine if the person had fallen from a high
area.
26.Forensic anthropologist can determine the age of the person when he/she
died.
27.Acidic soil accelerates decomposition.

28.Alkaline soil retards decompositions.

29.Bones of males are usually larger.

30.Bones of males are usually longer.

36
CHAPTER 10
FORENSIC ODONTOLOGY
Prepared by: Larios, Roldan
1. What is the branch of forensic medicine that deals with the proper
examination, handling and presentation of dental evidence in a court of law?
a) Forensic Sicrenfo c) Forensic Odontology
b) Forensic Foreigner d) Forensic Taxation
2. The work of a forensic odontologist covers: (choose the wrong answer)

a) Identification of bite marks on the victims of attack
b) Identification of unknown bodies through dental records
c) Identification of unknown bodies through feelings
d) Age estimation of skeletal remains
3. What is the most common role of forensic odontologist/dentist?

a) To clean the teeth of the deceased
b) To make a report about the teeth of the deceased
c) Identification of deceased individuals
d) Identification of the relatives of the deceased
4. A dental profile will typically provide information on the deceased’s? Choose

the wrong answer.
a) Age c) Lovelife
b) Ancestry background d) Sex and socio-economic status
5. Dental tissues are relatively resistant to environmental assaults, such as:

(Choose the wrong answer)
a) Incineration c) Kissing
b) Trauma d) Decomposition
6. Where can we specifically find the Genomic DNA?

a) In the nuclear plant c) In the nucleus of each cell
b) In the nectar d) In the Rules of Court
7. This is the sequence of building blocks of which can be determined to assist

in identification of remains.
a) Hollow blocks c) Mitochondrial DNA
b) Mitosmines DNA d) Misoldermihed DNA
8. The following are some of the physical characteristics of both the bite mark
wound and the suspect’s teeth: choose the wrong answer.
a) The shape of the mouth arch c) Kiss mark
b) The curves of biting edges d) Missing teeth
9. What Presidential Decree requires practitioners of dentistry to keep records of

their patients?
a) PD No. 1445 c) PD No. 1575
b) PD No. 7610 d) PD No. 7160
10.The physical characteristics of both the bite mark wound and the suspect’s
teeth include: (choose the wrong answer)
a) The distance from cuspid to cuspid
b) The shape of the mouth arch
37
c) The color of the teeth
d) The evidence of a tooth out of alignment
11.Adults have ____ permanent teeth.

a) 64 c) 32
b) 256 d) 4
12.Bit mark in human tissue must be photographed before ___ days or the
tissue will begun to swell.
a) 30 c) 7
b) 60 d) 1
13.The ___ of a tooth is an excellent source of DNA.

a) Color c) Pulp
b) Smell d) Root
14.Teeth are harder than bone and are the last part of the body to be broken
down or destroyed. Which component of the teeth is the hardest substance in
the human body?
a) Gum c) Enamel
b) Pulp d) Dentin
15.What is a bitten off piece of body?

a) Artemu c) Artefact
b) Arteko d) Artenya
16.This technique for dissection/resection involves bilateral incision of the face,

beginning at the oral ommissures and extending posteriorly to the anterior
ramus.
a) Facial Disection c) Pruning Shears Method
b) Mallet and Chisel Method d) Stryker Autopsy Saw Method
17.This method of jaw resection includes the use of small pruning shears placed
within the nares and forced back into the maxillary sinus.
18.This method is characterized by the use of a mallet and chisel to induce a “Le
Fort” Type I fracture of the maxilla.
19.The soft tissue and muscle attachments on the lateral aspect of the mandible
are dissected away by incisions which extend through the mucobuccal fold to
the lower border of the mandible. What type of method is this?
20.This system is the most commonly used during dental examination in the
country which reflects any missing dental structure.
a) FDI Numbering System c) Universal Numbering System
b) Dental Impressions d) Dental Radiology
38
21.This system of dental nomenclature is more widely used in developed
countries where quadrants are numbered 1 to 4 and the teeth are numbered
from midline to posterior.
a) Universal Numbering System c) FDI Numbering System
b) Dental Radiology d) Dental Impressions
22.These should be collected and considered when bite marks, rugae patterns or
other evidence warrant the procedure.
a) Dental Nomenclature c) Dental Radiology
b) Dental Impressions d) Dental Resection
23.These method is required when there is no putative ID, antemortem records

have not yet been located and/or the jaws cannot be retained.
a) Universal Numbering System c) FDI Numbering System
b) Dental Radiology d) Dental Impressions
24.The following are agencies or individuals that might provide assistance in

locating records to establish positive ID, EXCEPT:
a) Hospitals c) Insurance Carriers
b) Family/Friends d) None of the above
25.Which of the following dental features are useful in identification?

a) Crown Morphology c) Missing Teeth
b) Tooth Type d) All of the above
26.comprehensive postmortem radiographic examination might include some of

the following views, EXCEPT:
a) Periorbital Radiograph c) Edentulous Areas
b) Intraoral Radiograph d) Extraoral Radiographs
27.This term signifies that the antemortem and postmortem data match in
sufficient detail to establish that they are from the same individual.
a) Sufficient Evidence c) Positive Identification
b) Exclusion d) Possible Identification
28.This term is used when the antemortem and postmortem data are clearly
inconsistent.
a) Exclusion c) Possible Identification
b) Insufficient Evidence d) Negative identification
29.This term signifies that the antemortem and postmortem data have
consistent features, but due to the quality of either the postmortem remains
or the antemortem data, it is not possible to positively establish dental
identification.
a) Positive Identification c) Insufficient Evidence
b) Possible Identification d) Exclusion
30.This term is used when the available information is insufficient to form the
basis for a conclusion.
a) Positive Identification c) Insufficient Evidence
b) Possible Identification d) Exclusion
39
40
CHAPTER 11
FORENSIC ODONTOLOGY
Prepared by: Mendiol, Ivy Y.
1. What is Forensic Radiology?

a) It is a specialized are of medical imaging utilizing radiological
techniques to assist physicians and pathologists in matters
pertaining to law.
b) The professional and academic discipline which concerns itself with legal
aspects of medical sciences, medical practice and other health care
delivery problem.
c) The application of scientific, technical or other specialized knowledge to
assist courts in resolving questions of fact in civil.
d) Branch of medicine deals with the application of medical knowledge to the
purposes of law?
2. Who discovered X-Rays?

a) Wilhelm Roentgen c) William Crookes
b) Dragomer Hurmuzescu d) Georghe Marinescu
3. When was X-Ray discovered?

a) 1888 c. 1895
b) 1893 d. 1885
4. What is Virtopsy?
a) It is a virtual autopsy which uses computed tomography CT and
magnetic resonance imaging MRI that can provide general
pathology and provide details about specific areas of the body
and determines the time of death which aids in giving forensic
evidences
b) It is the method of identification using the impressions made by the
minute ridge information or patterns found on the Fingertips.
c) It is the application of allied sciences and analytical techniques to
questions concerning documents.
d) It is the examination of the shapes, locations, and distribution patterns of
bloodstains, in order to provide an interpretation of the physical events
which gave rise to their origin.
5. What is the main diagnostic tools in forensic pathology?

a) Magnetic Resonance Imaging/MRI
b) Skull Chisel
c) Digital Scanners
d) Scalpel
6. – 10) What are the benefits of Virtopsy? (5 points)

 Uniform Documentation of Findings
 Increase Understandability
 Scientific Benefits
 Societal Benefits
11.What is the country where Virtual Autopsy is already a reality?

a) Australia c) New. Zealand
41
b) Switzerland d) Mexico
12.The Institution which performs 100 Virtual Autopsies

a) University of Berne’s Institute of Forensic Medicine
b) National School of Forensic Medicine in Mexico
c) Victorian Institute of Forensic Medicine
d) The Institute of Forensic Medicine
13.Provides information about the general pathology of the body

a) CT images c) MR sepectroscopy
b) 3-D Surface Scanning d) Photography
14.Determines the time of Death

a) CT images c. MR sepectroscopy
b) 3-D Surface Scanning d. Photography
15.Limitation/s of Virtual autopsy if any.

a) Expensive
b) Graphic Limitations
c) Expensive and the Graphic Limitations
d) None
16. – 20. What are the 5 goals of Virtopsy?

 Achieve minimal invasive autopsy.
 Perform exact forensic-medical reconstruction.
 Apply photogrammetry and 3D surface scanning.
 Producing and validating post-mortem biochemical profile.
 Implementation of technical basis imaging database.
21.Statement I: Virtopsy Can enhance traditional autopsy or even replace it in

selected cases. One of the main benefits of imaging lies in the observer-
independent documentation of forensically relevant findings. In addition,
digital imaging data can be stored permanently and may be re-examined at
any time if a second opinion is required.
Statement II: Virtopsy Determines the causes and manner of death
a) Only I is correct c) Both statements are incorrect
b) Both statements are correct d) Only II is correct
22.Statement I: The availability of 2D and 3D Reconsturctions will impressively

improve the clarity and 3D Reconstrctions will impressively improve the clarity
and consequently, the understandability of future experts evidence.
Statement II: The multi-discipline research effort between radiology and
forensic medicine will lead to the development of protocols and imaging
sequences in Computed Tomography and Magnetic Resonance Imaging
23.Statement I: Prior to autopsy, radiographic techniques can assist the

pathologist in determining the potential cause of death.
Statement II: Autopsy technique does not need alteration given the prior
knowledge of specific radiographic findings
42
24.Statement I:During the course of hospitals admission or medical care,

adverse events may occur.
Statement II: Radiographic imaging is an integral part of the medical process
and provides a permanent record of the patient’s condition.
a) Only I is correct
b) Both statements are correct.
c) Both statements are incorrect
d) Only II is correct.
25.Statement I: Following injury or assault radiological imaging is commonly

obtained by medical practitioners.
Statement II: Expert interpretation of these images may provide useful
evidence in criminal and civil jurisdictions.
d) Only II is correct
26.Statement I: Along with the dental and DNA analysis, radiographic images
can be used in the indentification of uknown victims. Statement II:This does
not require the securing of pre morterm examinations e.g CT scan or
radiographs from a suspected individual and the matching of specific
anatomical details with similar post mortem studies.
d) Only II is correct
27.Statement I: The present day descriptive, subjective protocoling of autopsy

findings can be replaced by a uniform and observer-independent, objective
radiological documentation.
Statement II: This will decrease the quality of the evidence presented in court
by experts.
b) Both statements are correct. d) Only II is correct.
28.Statement I:Drug Trafficking- Increasingly sophisticated methods are used by

drug traffickers to avoid detection
Statement II: This includes the deliberate ingestion or cavity insertion of
drugs related of drugs wrapped in protection materials (known as body
packing)
29.Statement I: Over the last 20 years, radiological techniques have become

more sophisticated with the introduction of CT, MRI and ultrasound.
Statement II:However,these newer procedures are not being applied in the
forensic environment requiring the active participation of medical imaging
specialist.
43
30.Statement I: The virtual autopsy does not destroy key forensic evidence-
which may be damaged during a classic autopsy said Wilhelm Roentgen
Statement II: It can also be used in cultures and situations where autopsy is
not tolerated by religion, such as in the traditional Jewish faith, or is rejected
by family members.
a) Only I is correct c. Both statements are incorrect
44
CHAPTER 12
FINGERPRINT IDENTIFICATION
Prepared by: Montilla, Giovanni G.
1. What i Fingerprints patterns are hardly detected in the following conditions,

except:
a) Leprosy c) Strong acid
b) Drowning d) Deep burn
2. A child of 12 years, the expected number of teeth in his mouth is:

a) 28 teeth c) 32 teeth
b) 24 teeth d) none of the above
3. A child has 24 teeth all of them are permanent, the age of this child is:
a) 9 years c) 11 years
b) 10 years d) 13 years
4. Second permanent molar tooth erupt at:

a) 6-7 years c) 17-25 years
b) 12-14 years d) none of the above
5. Temporary canine teeth erupt at:

a) 6-7 months c) 16 months
b) 11 months d) none of the above
6. Which of the following points of identification which are applicable to living

persons only?
a) Gait c) occupational marks
b) tribal marks d) weight
7. In the examination of the ridges of the hands and fingers, this means of
identification is applied when only a part of the fingerprint is available.
a) Fingerprinting c) Plain Method
b) Dactyloscopy d) Poroscopy
8. Why is there variation of a person’s handwriting?

a) because of the movement of the finger
b) because of the movement of the hand
c) because of the arm movement
d) because of anger, worry or drunkenness
9. How to determine whether a certain instrument has been written by a certain

person?
a) Compare the writings on the document with some standard
writings of the same person
b) Handwriting examination done by comparison
c) By the acknowledgment of the writer that he wrote it.
d) By the opinion of an expert who compares the questioned writing which
are admitted to be genuine.
10. The study of handwriting for the purpose of determining the writer’s
personality, character and aptitude.
a) Bibliotics c) Idiosyncracies
b) Graphology d) Poroscopy
45
11.The following are the characteristic of the handwriting of an illiterate, except:
a) The handwriting will not usually show fine lines continuously but
the strokes are mostly rough and made with considerable
pressure.
b) The writing is not rhythmic but made up of disconnected unskilled
movement.
c) Tremor or involuntary trembling is seen.
d) Same speed is utilized from beginning to end and seldom is the pen raised
to get a new adjustment.
12. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) The principle of identification of handwriting is different to hand
printing and hand numbering.
b) Signature forgery examination is the most common activity of a
questioned document examiner.
c) Traced forgery is basically drawing and consequently lack free natural
movement in herent in a person’s normal writing.
d) Handwriting is a complex interaction of nerves, memory and muscular
movement.
13. When can a person hardly recognized another at a distance farther than one
hundred yards for persons who has never been seen before?
a) When there is a flash of firearm.
b) When it is broad daylight.
c) When there is a flash of lightning.
d) When there is an artificial light.
14. The following statement are correct in relation to Portrait Parle, except:
a) It is a spoken picture.
b) It is a verbal, accurate and pictures-que description of the person
identified.
c) The only way to have an idea of the prominent physical features is for the
witnesses to tell the investigator.
d) It is impossible for find two human beings having bones exactly
like.
15. At what age does the person ceases to increase in height?

a) 20 c) 25
b) 22 d) 28
16. After the age of 18, the growth of a person rarely exceeds how many
centimeters?
a) 10 cm c) 18 months
b) 15cm d) 5cm
17.The following are the rules in personal identification, except:

a) It is impossible to find two human beings having bones exactly
like.
b) Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification
c) The value of the different points of identification varies in the formulation
of conclusion.
d) There is no rigid rule to be observed in the procedure of identification of
persons.
46
18.Under ordinary methods of identification, which of the following
characteristics may not easily be changed?
a) growth of hair, beard or mustache
b) body ornamentations
c) speech
d) grade of profession
19.Which of the following strongly establish the identity of the person?

a) The fingerprints on file are the same as those recovered from the
crime scene.
b) The person with bodily marks, like moles, scars and complexion is the
same with the person identified.
c) The relative or friends was able to recognize the person identified.
d) Statement A and C .
20. A person on account of disease or some inborn traits may show a

characteristic manner of walking where there is involuntary movement in
short accelerating steps.
a) Ataxic gait c) Festinating gait
b) Paretic gait d)Frog gait
21. The genuineness of any disputed writing may be proven by any of the
following ways.
i) Acknowledgment of the alleged writer
ii) Statement of the witness who saw the writing
iii) Opinion of persons who are familiar with the handwriting of the
alleged writer
iv) Opinion of an expert
a) ii, iii, iv c) i, ii, iii, iv

b) i,iv d) i,ii
22. What is the purpose of handwriting examination?

i) Whether the document was written by the suspect
ii) Whether the document was written by the person whose signature it
bears
iii) Whether the writing contains additions or deletions
iv) Whether the document is genuine or a forgery
a) iii, iv c) i, ii, iii, iv

b) i,iv d) i,iii, iv
23. What is the most valuable method of identification?

a) Handwriting
b) Fingerprinting
c) Dental identification
d) Identification of Hair
24.There are different kinds of facial expressions brought about by disease or

racial influence. This appearance of the face is indicative of approaching
death.
a) Mongolian facies c) Hippocratic facies
b) Myxedemic facies d) Facies Leonine
47
25.Which of the following characteristics of a person is not easily changed:
a) Hair pattern c) Gait and mannerisms
b) Places frequented d) Grade or profession
26.Dactylography is...
a) The study of the pores on the papillary or friction ridges of the skin for the
purpose of identification
b) Art of changing fingerprints
c) Art and study of recording fingerprints as a means of
identification
d) Art of comparing fingerprints for identification
27. Indentations left in soft or pliable materials belong to what type of

fingerprints:
a) Latent c) Visible
b) Plastic d) Imprinted
28.In the identification of both the living and the dead before onset of
decomposition, which statement is NOT correct?
a) birth marks like spots naevi may be remove by carbon dioxide snow,
eletrocautery or excision
b) moles are permanent and cannot be removed except by surgery
c) certain occupations may result in some characteristic marks or identifying
guide
d) blood type examination may be utilized to distinguish one person from
another
29. Fingerprinting is considered to be the best valuable method of identification.

It is universally used because fingerprints, until decomposition, are not
changeable from the time they are formed in the fetus during pregnancy in
the:
a) second month c) fourth week
b) third month d) fifth month
30. This is not a good point of identification for it is easily changed from time
to time.
a) Stature c) weight
b) deformities d) scar
48
CHAPTER 13
TRACE EVIDENCE EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Nablo, Jheanniver C.
1. Forensic microscopic hair comparisons are founded on the__________?

a) Floor, Buildings
b) soils, botanical materials, gunshot residue, explosive residue, glass, and
volatile hydrocarbons
c) precepts of comparative biology, microscopy, zoology, histology,
and anthropology
2. Evidence that may be collected, except?

a) Hair c) Dress
b) Fibers d) Glass
3. The principle that explains how material is left at a crime scene is called?
a) Lonan’s Exchange Principle
b) Howard’s Excahnge Principle
c) Locard’s Exchange Principle
4. All are evidence that is found at a crime scene in small but measurable
amounts except?
a) Hair c) water
b) Gunshot d) None of the above
5. Trace evidence is useful in crimes except?

a) crimes of violence, Homicide
b) Sexual Assault, Aggravated Assault
c) Rubbery, Theft
d) Where physical contact my have occurred
6. Most animals have medullae that are either:

a) Continuous c) A and B
b) Interrupted d) Only A
7. Another form of DNA that may be found in a hair sample and may be useful
in eliminating some of the suspects is:
a) Cellular DNA c) Nuclear DNA
b) Paternal DNA d) Y-Chromosome DNA
8. Methods of collecting Hair evidence except;

a) Collection of Visually observed hairs
b) Vacuuming method
c) None of the above
d) Brushing, scraping or shaking of garments
9. In terms of evidence collection, what does trace mean?

a) Fleeting c) Transient
b) Small or Minute d) Invisible
10. Structure of hair are contains the following. Except:

a) Human hair sample is analyzed as a whole and in cross section.
49
b) Most animal hair have continuous or interrupted medulla.
c) Scale structure is not used to determine species.
d) The Root of the hair contains DNA.
11.Which of the following is considered a type of trace evidence?

a) Fired cartridge casings c) Hairs
b) Blood stain patterns d) Shoe or tire tracks
12. The body area from which a hair originated can be determined
by____________________________?
a) Microscopy c) General morphology
b) X-Ray d) None of the above
13. The examination of human hairs in the forensic laboratory is typically

conducted through the use of____________________________?
a) Microscopy c) Light Microscopy
b) Dark Microscopy d) None of the above
14. It is recommended that a ________________ sample can be obtained as

soon as possible after a crime and should contain at least 25 full-length hairs
taken from different areas of the public region.
a) Animal Hair c) Pubic Hair
b) Root d) Tip
15. This part of hair can tell whether the hair in question has been pulled out or
shed naturally.
a) Shaft c) Root
b) Tip d) None of the above
16. This part of hair can tell whether the hair in question has been pulled out or
shed naturally.
a) Shaft c) Root
b) Tip d) None of the above
17. Common layers of automobile paint except?

a) The first coat is the Micro coat Primer which is bonded to the raw metal.
This provides a surface to which the following layers of paint can bind.
b) The second coat is the Primer surfacer which also helps hide seams and
other defects
c) The third layer of paint is the Basecoat. This layer is the layer
which gives the vehicle its color.
d) The final layer of paint is the Clear coat. This layer is not pigmented. The
clear coat protects the underlying layers from scratches and damage from
the sun and rain as well as salt and abrasion from blowing sand.
18. A _____ occurs when a fiber is transferred from a fabric directly onto a
victim’s clothing.
a) Secondary Transfer c) Primary transfer
b) Fiber Transfer d) None of the above
19. Interpretation of Hair Examination EXCEPT.

a) Hair can provide myriad information
b) None of this evidence can be used as solid evidence of its own.
c) Hair is best used as solid evidence on its own.
50
d) Hair is best used to back up other forms of evidence
20. ______________is a smallest unit of a textile material that has a length

many times greater than its diameter.
a) Medulla c) Shaft
b) Fiber d)None of the Above
21. This hair are shorter in length, are-like in shaped and often abraded or
tapered at the tips;
a) Fringe Hairs c) Limb Hairs
b) Axillary d) Animal Hair
22. ____________originating from areas of the body outside those specifically

designated as head or pubic are generally not suitable for significant
comparison purposes.
a) Axillary c) Fringe Hairs
b) Limb Hairs d) Animal Hair
23. _____________is commonly called beard hairs or mustache hairs.

a) a. Fiber Hair c) Facial Hair
b) b. Public Hair d) Head Hair
24. ______________ is the longest hair found in the human body.

a) Fiber Hair c) Head Hair
b) Public Hair d) Facial Hair
25. A _____ occurs when already transferred fibers on the clothing of a suspect
transfer to the clothing of a victim.
a) Primary Transfer c) Secondary transfer
b) Fiber Transfer d) None of the above
26. ___________ is an inorganic product of fusion which have cooled to a rigid

condition without crystallizing.
a) Paint c) Glass
b) Soil d) None of the above
27. Geology/Soil analysis are EXCEPT;

a) Soil includes any disintegrated surface material, both natural and artificial,
that lies on or near the earth’s surface.
b) Soil can be differentiated and distinguished-classified by its appearance.
c) Soil may not provide from the crime scene to the suspect.
d) dSoil can be compared using a density-gradient tube technique.
28. Significance of Fiber Evidence EXCEPT;

a) Whenever a fiber found on the clothing of a victim match is the known
fibers of a suspect’s clothing.
b) Matching dyed synthetic fibers or dyed natural fiber can be very
meaningful.
c) The large volume of fabric will not produce the significance of
any fiber association discovered in a criminal case.
d) The discovery of cross transfers and multiple fiber transfers between the
suspect’s clothing and the victim’s clothing increases the likelihood that
these two individuals had physical contact.
51
29. All are true EXCEPT;
a) Use in toxicology as hair remains after the flesh has disintegrated.
b) Napolion Bonaparte -One of the Most famous cases of poisoning may
have been solved by modern technology and hair.
c) Hair can be used as solid evidence in its own.
d) The validity and acceptable forensic hair comparison are supported but
guidelines for hair comparison methodology.
30. All are true EXCEPT;

a) Use in toxicology as hair remains after the flesh has disintegrated.
b) Napolion Bonaparte -One of the Most famous cases of poisoning may
have been solved by modern technology and hair.
c) Hair can be used as solid evidence in its own.
d) The validity and acceptable forensic hair comparison are supported bu
guidelines for hair comparison methodology
52
CHAPTER 14
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Ong, Gellian
1. Questioned Document Examination is also known as?

a) Handwriting Examination
b) Diplomatics
c) Forensic document examination.
2. Which is a common questioned document?

a) Blood sample c) Hair
b) Saliva d) None of the above.
3. FDEs means ____________________________________.

a) Forensic Department Examination.
b) Forensic Document Examiners.
c) Forensic Department Examination.
d) Forensic Development Exam.
4. Graphology or graphoanalysis attempts to predict _________________.

a) Characteristics of the victim.
b) Character traits from handwriting examination.
c) Character trait of the suspect.
d) Age of the victim.
5. The distance between the center points of the front tires

a) Front sat length c) Front truck width
b) Wiper’s width d) Side mirror width
6. Each person’s style of handwriting is _________ and can be identified.

a) Beautiful c) Bogus
b) Artistic d) Unique
7. Reason why comparison of handwriting is useful.

a) No two people have identical handwriting.
b) Nobody is unique.
c) Anyone can forge your handwriting.
8. The following are characteristics for comparisons except one.

a) Placement of letters c) Line spacing
b) Connecting dots d) Pen pressure
9. What is steganography?
a) Art of dancing
b) Art of painting
c) Art of written instrument
d) Art of covered or hidden writing
10. Wheelbase is the _________________________________.

a) Distance between the driver and the passenger side.
b) Distance of the victim and the wheel.
c) Distance between the front and rear axles of a vehicle.
53
d) Distance travelled.
11. What is vocal mechanism?

a) Combination of voices
b) Combination of vocal cavities and articulators
c) Combination of sounds
12. What is the task of document examination?

a) To answer all questions of a case
b) To answer questions about evidences
c) To answer questions about documents using books
d) To answer questions about a document using variety of scientific
processes and methods.
13. What are the two types of files?

a) Referral and Statistic Files
b) Evidential and Pertinent Files
c) Qualified and Important Files
d) Reference and Standards Files
14. An individual’s handwriting is affected by a persons’ __________ and

________ .
a) Style and Mood
b) Physical and emotional well-being
c) State of mind and environment
15. What is the most typical surface examined?

a) Wall c) Cloud
b) Sand d) Paper
16. How to determine watermark evidence?

a) Place it over a source of transmitted light
b) Place it on top of a book
c) Crumple the evidence
d) Wet and dry
17. _____________ is when a light source is passed over the paper at an

oblique angle.
a) Full lighting c) Spotlight
b) Side lighting d) Laser
18. ESDA means?

a) Electron Deficient Apparatus
b) Entrapment Developing Agency
c) Electrical Detection Apparatus
d) Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
19. It is the study of handwriting to reveal the writers’ character or personality

traits.
a) Typewriters c) Text
b) Steganography d) Graphology
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20. Kind of typewriter which typeface elements are permanently fastened into
the machine?
a) Nokia c) Xylophone
b) Abacus d) Typebar
21. What is the purpose of shoeprint examinations?

a) To know the height of the perpetrator.
b) To determine the gender of the perpetrator.
c) To determine the weight of the perpetrator.
d) To determine the brand name and manufacturer of the shoe.
22. It is the instrument that converts sound into a visual graphic presentation?
a) Spectrum c) Spectographs
b) Spectacle d) None of the above
23. What is voice mechanism?

a) Combination of different colors
b) Combination of dance moves
c) Combination of vocal cavities and articulations
24. _______________ is when recorder text is limited or of low quality.

a) Final Elimination c) Positive reinforcement
b) Probable elimination d) All of the above
25. ________ can be identified by ballistics from the marks of the bullets and
cartridge.
a) Grenade c) Firearms
b) Nuclear Weapon d) None of the above
26. Where can you verify car plates?

a) University c) DENR
b) TESDA d) LTO
27. It is the measurement across the tread from one edge of the read design to
the other
a) Thread c) Tread Development
b) Tread Color d) Tread Design Width
28. It is how the T’s are crossed and I’s are dotted..
a) Line quality c) Placement of diacritics
b) Slant d) None of the above
29. Who deals with items that form part of a case which may or may not come
before a court of law.
a) Forensic Document Examiner c) Investigator
b) Teacher d) All of the above.
30.Who deals with items that form part of a case which may or may not come
before a court of law.
a) Forensic Document Examiner c) Investigator
b) Teacher d) All of the above.
55
CHAPTER 15
FORENSIC SEROLOGY
By Mary May P. Paleyan
1. What does forensic mean?

a) A method of procedure that has characterized natural science since the
17th century consisting in systematic observation, measurement, and
experiment, and the formulation, testing, and modification of hypothesis.
b) Relating to or denoting the application of scientific methods and
techniques to the investigation of crime.
c) A material or mixture prepared according to particular formula.
d) The action of devising or creating something.
2. What does serology mean?

a) The study of living organism, divided into many specialized fields that
cover their morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and
distribution.
b) The scientific study or diagnostic examination of blood serum.
c) A material or mixture prepared according to a particular formula.
d) The action of devising or creating something.
3. What year was blood type standardized?

a) 1899 c) 1901
b) 1900 d) 1902
4. What is one of the function of forensic serology?

a) Cell examination
b) Determine type and characteristics of blood
c) Fetus examination
d) Blood stain patter examination
5. Court will qualify someone as an expert in blood stain examination if he or

she has met the following requirements.
a) Specialized training
b) Has conducted a sufficient number of examinations
c) And has enough reference to demonstrate the basis of their opinions
d) Has conducted a sufficient number of computer knowledge
6. The following are properties of blood except;

a) Plasma c) Royal blood cells
b) White blood cells d) Red blood cells
7. The word serology comes from the ancient Sanskrit, Sara which means?
a) Blood c) To Flow
b) Fluid d)To protect
8. There are how many major blood group types?

a) 4 c) 6
b) 8 d) 10
9. In population distribution of blood types, what type is the most common?

a) O and A c) A and B
b) AB d) O and B
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10. What test/technique is used to determine if a sample is blood?
a) Color crystalline test c) Keratin test
b) Luminol test d) Gluten test
11. What test/technique is used to determine if a sample of blood is human

or animal blood?
a) Keratin test c) Color crystalline test
b) Gluten test d) Precipitin test
12. What test/technique is used to determine the animal sample species of

sample blood?
a) Precipitin test c) Keratin test
b) Color crystalline test d) Gluten test
13. What test/technique is used to determine the blood type of a normal

blood sample?
a) ABO system c) Keratin test
14. What test/technique is used to determine the blood type of a dried blood
sample?
a) Absorption elution technique c) Keratin test
15. The following are proper handling of blood sample except;

a) Wear latex gloves, surgical masks, and full coverage gowns
b) Eve covering is a must collecting liquid samples
c) Keeps hands inside hidden areas
d) Label all blood samples
16. What type of blood is most common in human population?

a) O and A c) A and B
b) AB d) O and B
17. Refrigerate red blood cells have a shelf life of about?

a) 30 days c) 42 days
b) 15 days d)45 days
18. Refrigerated white blood cells have a shelf life of about?

a) 2 years c) A year
b) 6 moths d) 30 days
19. What test is used to determine invisible blood stains?

a) Luminol test c) Keratin test
20. Use _________ across all surface when doing visual inspection in the
crime scene specially n dark areas.
a) Powerful sense of smell c) Powerful third eye
b) Powerful light d) Powerful electricity
21. What is the next step if nothing is found but there is a high suspicion of
blood in the crime scene?
a) Spray water c) Go back to the office
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b) Leave the area d) Spray luminol
22. What is the effect of luminol to blood?

a) It reacts to blood by making it royal blood
b) It reacts to blood by making it lumenscent
c) It reacts to blood by making it we blood
d) It doesn’t have effect on the blood
23. The generic term for any way of determining if something is blood or not
is called?
a) Keratin test c) Color crystalline test
b) Gluten test d) Presumptive test
24. Precipitin test is used to determine

a) If blood is female or male
b) If blood is gay or straight
c) If blood is peasant or royal
d) If blood is human or animal
25. Wet blood has more value than dry blood because?
a) It is fresh
b) It is easier to extract
c) It is color red
d) More test can be done on wet blood
26. Blood in the crime scene can be in different form except?
a) Pools c) Smears
b) Drops d) Squares
27. For how many minutes the blood begins to dry after exposure to the air?
a) 30-45 minutes c) 10-15 minutes
b) 15-20 minutes d) 3-5 minutes
28. DNA can be extracted from the following except?

a) Blood c) Hair
b) Bone marrow d) Urine
29. What test used a solution phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide on a

piece of filter paper and when blood of any quantity is present, it turns pink?
a) Kastle-Meyer color test c) Keratin test
30. What substance is found in the blood that produces antibodies to fight
infection?
a) Antigen c) Water
b) Plasma d) Cells
58
CHAPTER 16
BLOODSTAIN PATTERN ANALYSIS
Prepared by: Noel L. Perez
1. _________________ is the acute angle formed between the direction of a

blood drop and the plane of the surface it strikes.
a) Angle of direction c) Angle of impact
b) Angle of velocity d) Angle of the wind
2. _________________ is the blood directed back towards the source of energy

or force that caused the spatter.
a) Angle of velocity c) Side spotter
b) Front battery d) Back spatter
3. _________________ is the evidence that liquid blood has come into contact
with a surface.
a) Bloodletting c) Spotting
b) Menstruation d) Bloodstain
4. _________________ are the bloodstains caused by contact between a wet

blood-bearing surface and a second surface that may or may not have blood
on it.
a) Bloodletting c) Menstruation
b) Contact stain d) Spotting
5. _________________ is an image which is recognizable and may be

identifiable with a particular object.
a) Transfer c) Running
b) Moving d) Spotting
6. _________________ is the wet blood which is transferred to a surface that

did not have blood on it.
a) Swipe c) Dusting
b) Mop d) Sweat
7. _________________ of a bloodstain or pattern which indicates the direction

the blood was travelling when it impacted the target surface.
a) Pushing c) Angle
b) Upward movement d) Directionality
8. _________________ is the angle between the long axis of a bloodstain and a

predetermined line on the plane of the target surface which represents zero
degrees.
a) Pushing c) Directionality Angle
b) Upward movement d) Direction of the wind
9. _________________ is the path of the blood drop, as it moves through

space, from the impact site to the target.
a) Flow Path c) Directionality
b) Downward movement d) Angularity
10. _________________ is the blood which travels in the same direction as the
source of energy or force which caused the spatter.
59
a) Forward Spatter c) Swipe
b) Downward movement d) Transfer
11. _________________ is a drop of blood from which a wave, cast-off, or

satellite spatter originates.
a) Relative Drop c) Parent Drop
b) Ice Drop d) Rain Drop
12. _________________ is a bloodstain drops created or formed by the force of

gravity acting alone.
a) Passive Drop c) Active Drop
b) Fast Drop d) Ice Drop
13. ____________________ is the common point/area, on a two-dimensional

surface, over which the directionality of several blood drops can be retraced.
a) Point of Bloodletting c) Point of No Return
b) Point of Convergence d) Point of Spotting
14. _________________ is the deflection of blood after impact with a target

surface that results in staining of a second target surface.
a) Flow Path c) Point of No Return
b) Ricochet d) Angular Point
15. _________________ is a surface upon which blood has been deposited.

a) Target c) Floor
b) Table d) Desk
16. _________________is the examination of the shapes, locations and

distribution patterns of bloodstains, in order to provide an interpretation of
the physical events which gave rise to their origin.
a) Bloodstain Pattern Analysis c) Financial Analysis
b) Pareto Analysis d) Schematic Analysis
17. _______ it is done by the application of scientific knowledge on biology,

chemistry, math, and physics among scientific disciplines to solve practical
problems.
a) Bloodstain Pattern Analysis c) Financial Analysis
b) Pareto Analysis d) Schematic Analysis
18. When blood falls from a height or at a high velocity, it can overcome its
natural cohesiveness and form _______________.
a) Bubbles c) Leaflets
b) Balloon d) Satellite Droplets
19. When it falls onto a less-than-smooth surface, it can form _______________

around the drops.
a) Flow Path c) Ricochet
b) Spiking Pattern d) Angular Point
20. _______ is a bloodstain drops created or formed by the force of gravity

acting alone.
a) Passive Drop c) Active Drop
b) Drip Drop d) Ice Drop
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21. _______ is a bloodstain pattern which results from blood dripping into blood.
a) Relative Pattern c) Drip Pattern
b) Parent Pattern d) Raindrop Pattern
22. _______ is a change in the shape and direction of a bloodstain due to the
influence of gravity or movement of the object.
a) Relative Pattern c) Zigzag Pattern
b) Parent Pattern d) Drip Pattern
23. _______ Pools is a bloodstain pattern created when a source of blood

remains stationary over a surface causing an accumulation of blood.
a) Bubbles c) Leaflets
b) Balloon d) Pools
24. _______ is a bloodstain pattern created when a volume of blood has been
absorbed by an object.
a) Saturation c) Regulation
b) Menstruation d) Castration
25. __ is a bloodstain pattern that is caused by a low velocity impact/force to a

blood source.
a) MVIS c) HVIS
b) LVIS d) SVIS
26. _______ is a bloodstain pattern caused by a medium velocity impact/force to
a blood source.
a) MVIS c) HVIS
b) LVIS d) SVIS
27. _______ is often produced by a gunshot or high-speed machinery.

a) MVIS c) HVIS
b) LVIS d) SVIS
28. _______ is a bloodstain pattern created when blood is released or thrown

from a blood-bearing object.
a) Relative Pattern c) Zigzag Pattern
b) Cast-Off Pattern d) Drip Pattern
29. _______ is caused by the beating of the heart and typically found on walls or
ceilings.
a) Bubbles c) Pools
b) Balloon d) Gushes
30. _______ is an elastic characteristic along the outer edge of a liquid caused
by the attraction of like molecules
a) Flow Path c) Gushes
b) Surface tension d) Angular Point
61
CHAPTER 17
FORENSIC BIOCHEMISTRY AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
Prepared by: Ponce, Lica Marie S.
1. Unique discipline and it combines chemistry and biology.

a) Biochemistry c) Bioformatics
b) Molecular Biology d) Genomics
2. Very important in the identification of body fluids and their chemical

composition, and in DNA fingerprinting.
a) Biochemistry c) Forensic biochemistry
b) Molecular Biology d) Genomics
3. How many DNA regions that forensic scientists can scan in every individuals?
a) 10 c) 12
b) 11 d) 13
4. Which of the following is NOT a sample of DNA uses for forensic identification
a) Obtain biological specimen
b) Identify crime and catastrophe victims
c) Exonerate persons wrongly accused of crimes
d) Establish paternity and other family relationships
5. The makeup of the genes, that is, the DNA itself.

a) Phenotype c) Genotype
b) Chromosomes d) Fingerprints
6. It is usually based on a complex interaction of several genes

a) Phenotype c) Genotype
b) Chromosomes d) Fingerprints
7. Analysis that used for blood type evidence.

a) DNA Analysis c) Genotype Analysis
b) Phenotype Analysis d) Fingerprint Analysis
8. Analysis that used for DNA evidence

a) DNA Analysis c) Genotype Analysis
b) Phenotype Analysis d) Fingerprint Analysis
9. A technique for analysing the variable lengths of DNA fragments that result
from digesting a DNA sample with a special kind of enzyme.
a) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
c) Polymerase Chain Reaction
d) Combined DNA Index System
10. An electronic database of DNA profiles that can identify suspects.

11. Used to identify tiny amounts of DNA.

62
d) COmbined DNA Index System
12. These are short sequences of non-coding DNA which are repeated over and
over.
13. Used to evaluate specific regions within nuclear DNA.

a) Y-Chromosome Analysis c) Mitochondrial DNA Analysis
b) STR Analysis d) DNA Analysis
14. Useful for tracing relationships among males or for analysing biological
evidence multiple male contributors.
15.Can be used to examine the DNA from samples that cannot be analyzed by
other types of analysis.
16.What is the next step after extracting DNA during analysis?

a) Obtain biological specimen
b) Target specifies STRs on chromosomes
c) Use Polymerase Chain Reaction
d) Visualize Products from PCR using electrophoresis
17.DNA can provide insights into many intimate aspects of a person and their
families including
a) susceptibility to particular diseases
b) legitimacy of birth
c) predispositions to certain behaviours
d) all of the above
18.Potential benefits of DNA Databanking Arrestees

a) Most major crimes involve people who also have committed minor
offenses
b) Innocent people currently are incarcerated for crimes they did not commit
d) A & B
19.The National Institute of Justice wrote the following historical use of DNA
analysis in the US. What was the name of the perpetrator that was linked to
the DNA samples?
a) Gerald Parker c) Maja Parker
b) Kim Parker d) Xian Parker
20.Where is the possible location of DNA of a dirty laundry as evidence?

a) handle c) surface area
b) tips d) inside
63
21.Where is the possible location of DNA of a baseball bat as evidence?
b) tips d) inside
22.Where is the possible location of DNA of a toothpick as evidence?

b) tips d) inside
23.Where is the possible location of DNA of a hat as evidence?

b) tips d) inside
24.Which of the following statements best describe the image.
a) Double-stranded DNA is split into single strands at high

temperature.
b) Temperature is lowered allowing primers to attach.
c) Primers with polymerase extend by stepwise addition.
d) DNA is amplified. This ends Cycle 1.
a) Double-stranded DNA is split into single strands at high temperature.

d) DNA is amplified. This ends Cycle 1


28.Which of the following statements is false.

a) Blood, sweat, tears, urine, semen, saliva contain cells which their surface
have proteins that can be analysed.
64
b) All mothers do not have the same mitochondrial DNA as their
daughters
c) Investigators would be able to compare other cases against arrested
person’s DNA profile
d) DNA profiles are different from fingerprints, which are useful only for
identification.
29.Which of the following statements is correct.

a) Y-Chromosome Analysis evaluates specific regions (loci) that are found on
nuclear DNA.
b) Polymerase Chain Reaction are short sequences of non-coding DNA which
are repeated over and over
c) Variable Number Tandem Repeats is used to identify tiny amount of DNA.
d) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism is a technique for
analysing the variable lengths of DNA fragments.
30.To avoid contamination of evidence, which of the following precautions is

incorrect.
a) Wear gloves.
b) Extract DNA.
c) Air-dry evidence thoroughly before packaging.
d) Do not use staples.
65
Chapter 18
FORENSIC BOTANY
Prepared by: Jayson L. Rojas
1. _____________ is the application of plant evidence to the resolution of legal

questions in a criminal or civil case.
a) Forensic botany. c) Forensic palynology
b) Botany d) Forensic limnology
2. ______________is a field of forensic botany which is the study of pollen and

powdered minerals, their identification, and when and where they occur to
ascertain that a body or other object was in a certain place at a certain time.
a) Systematics c) Forensic dendrochronology
b) Forensic science d) Forensic palynology.
3. ______________ is the study of tree rings.

a) Biology c) Systematics
b) Dendrochronology. d) Tree systematics
4. ______________ is a principle which states that criminal always leaves

something at the crime scene or takes something away.
a) Contact Traces principle. c) Linking Evidence Principle
b) Investigative Forensics Principle d) Botanical Evidence Principle
5. _______________ is a discipline that concerns the study of inland waters.

a) Immunology c) Limnology.
b) Toxicology d) Dendrochronology
6. _______________ case marked the first time plant DNA has been admitted
into evidence in a criminal court in the US.
a) Dendrona Case c) Bascon Case
b) Maricopa Case. d) Mandalo Case
7. ________________ is a branch of science which deals with nature, effects and

detection of poisons.
a) Toxicology. c) Coniumology
b) Limnology d) Venomology
8. These are pollen grains and spores that fall on a particular site.
a) Pollen rain. c) Fallen Pollen
b) Sporain d) Falling grain
9. These plants are also called self-pollinating plants.

a) Zoogamous c) Heterogamous
b) Autogamous. d) Hernogamous
10. These plants are also called animal-pollinated plants.

a) Zoogamous. c) Hernogamous
b) Heterogamous d) Autogamous
66
11. These plants are also called wind-pollinated plants.
a) Autogamous c) Anemophilous.
b) Aerogamous d) Zoogamous
12. It is the study of fossil and modern pollen, grains, spores, and other acid-
resistant microorganisms such as dinoflagellates, acritarchs, and
chitinozoans.
a) Limnology c) Palynology.
b) Ecology d) Dendrochronology
13. Which among the choices is incorrect definition of forensic botany.

a) Forensic botany is the use of plants or plant matter to assist
investigators with solving crime
b) Forensic botany is the non-scientific use of plant materials to
help solve crimes.
c) Forensic botany is the study of plant life in order to gain information
regarding possible crimes
d) All of the above
14. All are correct uses of plant evidence in forensic botany, except:
a) Destroys an alibi
b) Help determine time since death
c) Help determine when was the suspect born.
d) Tells where someone or something has been
15. Toxicology is the branch of science which deals with the nature, effects and
detection of poisons.
a) True. c) Neither true nor false
b) False
16. Pollens can never be used as evidence in a criminal or civil case.

a)True c) Neither true nor false
b) False.
17. Plant evidence is always not admissible in court as evidence.

a) True c) Neither true nor false
b) False.
18. Treecology is the study of tree rings.
b) False.
19. Contact Traces Principle is a principle which states that criminal always
leaves something at the crime scene or takes something away.
b) False
20. Palynology is the study of plants.

b) False.
21. Techniques in forensic botany can establish relationship or lack of one

between victim, suspect and crime scene.
b) False
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22. Hair, dirt and mud can be source of pollen evidence.
b) False
23. Knowledge on plant succession can help investigators identify hidden graves.
b) False
24. Limnology is the study of inland waters.

b) False
25. The following are sub disciplines of plant science which Forensic Botany
encompasses, except:
a) Palynology c. Dendrochronology
b) Astronomy. d. Limnology
26. Ways in which the roots can be used to date the remains or otherwise
characterize the burial site.
a) Examine root development after it has been damaged
b) Examine roots in direct contact with the remains
c) Examine branch growth
27. Why is it that algal community is an excellent way to assess post mortem
interval?
a) Diatoms are ubiquitous in both lotic and lentic systems
b) Algal populations, though variable, persist through the year
c) Most diatoms can be identified to species with only a light microscope
28. Characteristic cell types from plants can be used to identify victim’s last meal;
knowledge about which can be used to identify the victim’s last whereabouts
or actions prior to death. These cell types do not include:
a) Sclereids c) Silica bodies
b) Raphide crystals d) Diatoms.
29. Which among the choices is incorrect definition of forensic botany.

a) Forensic botany is the use of plants or plant matter to assist investigators
with solving crime
b) Forensic botany is the non-scientific use of plant materials to
help solve crimes.
c) Forensic botany is the study of plant life in order to gain information
regarding possible crimes
d) All of the above
30. All are correct uses of plant evidence in forensic botany, except:
a) Destroys an alibi
b) Help determine time since death
c) Help determine when was the suspect born.
d) Tells where someone or something has been
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CHAPTER 19
FORENSIC ENTOMOLOGY
Prepared by: Richael Ruiz
1. The science using insect evidence to uncover circumstances of interest to the

law, often related to a crime.
a) Forensic Entomology. c) Urban Entomology
b) Medicocriminal Entomology d) Diverse Entomology
2. Which of the following are not part of the Areas of Forensic Entomology?
a) Medicocriminal Entomology c) Stored Product Insects
b) Urban Entomology d) Mediocriminal Entomology.
3. When Forensic Entomology was first reported to have been used in China?
a) 19th Century c) 15th Century
b) 13th Century. d) 2nd Century
4. This is commonly found in foodstuffs and the forensic entomologist may serve as
an expert witness during both criminal and civil proceedings involving food
contamination?
a) Stored Product Insects. c) Forensic Entomology
b) Urban Entomology d) Diverse Entomology
5. The most commonly called upon to determine the postmortem interval or ‘’time
since death’’ in homicide investigation.
a) Death Scene Investigation. c) Forensic Entomology
b) Stored Product Insects d) Diverse Entomology
6. This section focuses on the criminal component of the legal system and deals
with the necrophagous or carrion feeding insects that typically infest human
remains
a) Forensic Entomology c) Urban Entomology
b) Medicocriminal Entomology. d) Diverse Entomology
7. The branch of forensic entomology that deals with legal proceedings involving
insects and related animals that affect manmade structures and other aspects of
the human environment
a) Forensic Entomology c) Urban Entomology.
b) Medicocriminal Entomology d) Diverse Entomology
8. The way of using insects to determine elapsed time since death used when the
corpse has been dead for between a month up to a year or more.
a) Using successional waves of insects. c) Using adult insect
b) Using maggot age and development d) Using worms
9. It can give a date of death accurate to a day or less, or a range of days, and
used in the first few weeks after death.
a) Using successional waves of insects c) Using adult insect
b) Using maggot age and development. d) Using worms
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10. One of the application of Forensic Entomology in death scene
investigation in which some flies prefer specific habitats such as distinct
preference for laying their eggs in an outdoor or indoor environment.
a) Entomological Evidence can show Attempt to Conceal or Moving the Body .
b) Entomological Evidence can show the Environmental Temperature or
Environmental Condition
c) Entomological Evidence can show if Victim was poisoned before Death
d) Death Scene Investigation

investigation in which freezing or wrapping of the body may be indicated by an
altered species succession of insects on the body.
a) Entomological Evidence can show Attempt to Conceal or Moving the Body
Environmental Condition.
c) Entomological Evidence can show if Victim was poisoned before Death

investigation in which traces of poisons can be recovered from the insects.
a) Entomological Evidence can show Attempt to Conceal or Moving the Body
Environmental Condition
c) Entomological Evidence can show if Victim was poisoned before Death .
13. In Collection of Insects from the Body at the Scene, what are the insects
should be collected first?
a) Eggs of insect c) Adult flies and beetles.
b) Bug d) Worms
14. It is a case where the insects can be used to place a suspects at the scene
of a crime.
a) Sexual Assault and Rape. c) Abuse of the Elderly
b) Child Abuse or Neglect d) Abuse and Neglect
15. It is a crime where some insects will colonize wounds or unclean areas on
a living person.
a) Sexual Assault and Rape c) Abuse of the Elderly.
b) Child Abuse or Neglect d) Abuse and Neglect
16. Who is the doctor wrote this article “on the skin surface under the diaper,
third instar larvae of the false stable fly Muscina stabulans FALLEN, and the
lesser house fly Fannia canicularis L were found. F. canicularis adults are
attracted to both feces and urine.”
a) Dr. Mark Bernicke. c) Dr. Brickle
b) Dr. Ben d) Dr. Chukie
17. Who is the forensic entomologist, suggest the collection, preservation, and
packaging protocols of entomological evidence?
a) Dr. Mark Bernicke. c) Dr. Brickle
b) Dr Gail Anderson d) Dr. Chukie
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18. What is the range size of larvae or maggots?
a) from 1-2mm to 17 mm c) from 1-4mm to 19 mm.
b) from 1-3mm to 18mm d) from 1-4 mm to 20 mm
19. A very tiny, but are usually laid in clumps or masses, and are usually
found in a wound or natural orifice, but may be found on clothing.
a) Larvae c) Egg
b) Pulpa. d) Maggots.
20. It found crawling on or near the remains and may be in maggot masses.
a) Larvae c) Egg
b) Pulpa. d) Maggots
21. This are often found in clothing, hair or soil near the body.
a) Larvae c) Egg
b) Pupae d) Maggots
22. They are only use in indicating which species of insect are likely to
develop from the corpse, as one cannot determine whether an adult has
developed on the corpse.
a) Pupae c) Maggots
b) Egg d) Flies.
23. It is the process of collecting the insect from the body in which the insects
collected from one part of the body should be kept separate from those from
another.
a) Handling c) Packaging
b) Labeling. d) Transporting
24. It is the process of collecting the insect from the body in which the most
specimens are fairly fragile and are probably best picked up with gloved fingers
which are often gentler than forceps if one is not used to them.
a) Handling. c) Packaging
b) Labeling d) Transporting
25. The limitations of Forensic Entomology which is a very important factor,

but few criminals are thoughtful enough to kill their victim right underneath a
weather station
a) temperature of the death. c) body may have dispose
b) results are not immediate d) body temperature
26. Which of the following equipment are not included in the Entomological
Collection?
a) Nets. c) Forceps
b) Vials d) Fishnets
27. This can be found as adults, larvae or grubs, pupae and also as cast skins.
a) Egg c) Flies
b) Maggots d) Beetles.
28. What is the state that the Forensic Entomology is now a board specialty
a) United States. c) Chicago
b) United Arab d) Las Vegas
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29. Forensically significant conclusions often can be drawn by what?
a) By noting the state of successive colonization of a corpse.
b) By digging the corpse
c) By freezing the corpse
d) By nothing
30. In what century the Forensic entomology play a part in some very major
cases?
a) 2th Century. c) 12th Century
b) 19th Century d) 1st Century
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Chapter 20
FORENSIC Engineering
Prepared by: Genevieve Singzon
1. Which of the following pertains to the investigation of materials, products,

structures or components that fail or do not operate/function as intended?
a) Forensic Engineering . c) Research Analysis
b) DNA Testing d) Data Processing
2. All except one is TRUE about Forensic Engineering. Which statement is it?
a) It only involves preparation of engineering reports and testimony at
hearings
b) It is the application of the art and science of engineering in the
Jurisprudence system.
c) Its main purpose is the determination of persons liable for a crime
d) Any legally qualified professional can be a Forensic Engineer
3. What professional organization is formed in 1982, the purpose of which is to

advance the art and skill of engineers who serve as engineering consultants to
members of the legal profession and as expert witnesses in courts of law,
arbitration proceedings and administrative adjudication proceedings?
a) National Bureau of Investigation
b) Forensic Engineering Association
c) National Academy of Forensic Engineers.
d) Academy of Forensic Engineering Scholars
4. In which aspect is Forensic Engineering applicable?

a) Fire and arson
b) Accident reconstructions
c) Injuries resulting from transportation accidents
5. In what respect does forensic engineering and forensic investigation share a

common ground?
a) Scene of the crime and scene of accident analysis
b) Integrity of the evidence and court appearances
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
6. Which is NOT true about the correlation that exist between forensic engineering
and forensic investigation?
a) Both disciplines makes extensive use of optical and scanning electron

microscopes
b) They share common use of spectroscopy to examine critical evidence
c) Both A and B.
d) Neither A nor B
7. Upon the other hand, which statement effectively distinguishes the two
disciplines?
a) Forensic Engineering makes use of infrared, ultraviolet and nuclear
magnetic resonance; Forensic Investigation, simple hand lens suffices
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b) Forensic Engineering is associated with civil courts; Forensic
Investigation, criminal courts
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B.
8. Why is there an increased emphasis on investigating the cause of failure of

consumer items?
a) The firms are being sued more frequently about allegedly defective
products
b) Certain consumer items are the cause fires, explosions, air and rail
crashes and other important accidents or possible crimes
c) Both A and B.
d) Neither A nor B
9. Why do insurance companies employ the services of forensic engineers?

a) To prove liability or alternatively non liability
b) Most engineering disasters under an insurance policy are subject to
Investigation
c) Train derailments, aircraft crashes and some automobile accidents are
investigated by Forensic Engineers
10. What does full services Forensic Engineering include?

a) Preparation of engineering reports and service as an expert
witness in matters of litigation.
b) Analysis of suspected component failure in matters involving train
derailments, aircraft crashes, etc
c) Objective investigation of conditions related to material, equipment or
construction failures and accidents
d) All of the above
11. In the civil engineering field, what does forensic engineers evaluate?
a) Structural and geotechnical failures c) Vehicular accidents
b) Construction defects d) All of the above.
12. Which of the following are among the common areas of Forensic Science?
a) Crash Investigation and Reconstruction
b) Emissions, Air Transport and Chemistry Medical Services
c) Both A and B.
d) Neither A nor B
13. Which sequence of early forensic engineering methods is arranged in

chronological order?
I. Careful analysis of the service record of the component
II. Review of the loads carried
III. Record of temperatures suffered
IV. Analysis of the microstructure of material used
V. Assessment of witness evidence
a) I, II, III, IV, V. c) II, III, I, IV, V

b) V, IV, III, II, I d) III, I, IV, V, II
14. What method pertains to analysis of loads applied to bodies containing cracks?
a) Biomechanics c) Injury Causation
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b) Fracture Mechanics. d) Human Factors Engineering
15. When did fracture mechanics came to existence?

a) 1920s. c) 1940s
b) 1930s d) 1950s
16. Who started it?

a) Griffith. c) Griffin
b) Goff d) Adkins
17. What is the formula for fracture mechanics?

a) KJc = QȖfv\.
b) KJc = fracture roughness x a function of material
c) KJc = fracture softness x function of material
18. What does Q stand for in the formula?

a) Geometrical factor. c) Quality
b) Quantity d) None of the above
19. How are fracture surfaces analyzed?

a) At magnifications of thousands to determine modes of failure, as
well as the chemical composition of key components of the
microstructure.
b) Through commercial scanning microscopes
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
20. When did commercial scanning electron microscopes become available?

a) 1950s c) 1970s
b) 1960s. d) 1980s
21. Which of the following is an advantage of using commercial scanning electron

microscopes?
a) Magnification from the 1-2000 of the optical microscope to 40-50000 and
increased depth of focus by a factor of about 300
b) Possibility to look at fracture surfaces, which will be too rough for optical
examination
c) Examine polished sections at magnifications of more than 1000
d) All of the above
22. How does the scanning electron microscope operate?

a) By focusing a beam of electrons on a specimen, the point of
focus being scanned line by line over the specimen.
b) By focusing the lens on the specimen, it becomes magnified
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
23. Which of the following pertains to the determination by numerical mathematics

of stresses, temperature at all positions within a body, rather than analytical
solution of simplified shapes?
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a) Finite Element Analysis. c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
b) Fracture Mechanics d) Forensic Engineering
24. Which method depends on dividing up of a body into discrete elements which
may be triangles, squares or other defined shapes?
a) Finite Element Analysis. c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
c) Fracture Mechanics d) Forensic Engineering
25. When was the term “finite element” first used?

a) 1950s c) 1970s
b) 1960s. d) 1980s
26. What method implies the use of numerical mathematics to determine effects of
fluids on components or structures?
a) Finite Element Analysis
b) Fracture Mechanics
c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
d) Computational Fluid Dynamics.
27. Which method is based on breaking up a component or structure into a set of

control volumes?
a) Finite Element Analysis
b) Fracture Mechanics
c) Scanning Electron Microscope
d) Computational Fluid Dynamics.
28. Which method pertains to the use of numerical and analytical codes and models
to determine the behavior of structures when hit by fast-moving projectiles?
a) Finite Element Analysis c) Impact Dynamics.
b) Accident Reconstruction d) Scanning Electron Microscopes
29. Which method pertains to careful experimentation and reconstruction?

a) Finite Element Analysis c) Impact Dynamics
b) Accident Reconstruction. d) Scanning Electron Microscopes
30. Which of the following are considered vital since experimental work in these
areas can tend to be difficult, expensive, or in some cases, illegal?
a) Modelling of Impact Events. c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
b) Accident Reconstruction d) Impact Dynamics
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Chapter 21
FIREARMS
Prepared by: Tagarino, Juniel
1. A type of firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the
barrel, capable or revolving motion and which can accommodate five or six
cartridges; each of which is housed in a separate chamber. After a shot, the
circular magazine rotates by the cocking of the hammer in a way that the next
cartridge is brought in the proper position for firing. The usual muzzle velocity of
a revolver is 600 feet per second.
a. Revolver c) Rifle
b. Pistol d) Shotgun
2. This is a firing weapon in which the empty shell is ejected when the cartridge is
fired and a new cartridge is slipped into the breech automatically as a result of
the recoil. The cartridge is contained in a vertical magazine which holds six to
seven cartridges. It is not automatic in action in the sense that a continuous
pressure on the trigger will not make the firearm fire continuously. It is more
correct to call it a "self-loading firearm." It has a usual muzzle velocity of 1,200
feet or more per second.
3. A firearm with a long barrel and butt. Has a magazine and volt action of various
types. This is a single self-loading weapon. It usually has a muzzle velocity of
2,500 feet per second and a range of 3,000 feet.
4. It is a firearm whose projectile is a collection of lead pellets which varies in sizes

with the type of the cartridge applied
5. A cylindrical structure with a base which houses the powder, the primer at the
base and with the bullet attached at the tip.
a. The cartridge case or shell c) Powder or propellant
b. Primer d) Bullet or projectile
6. The main function of this part is the transformation of mechanical energy by the
hit of the firing pin on the percussion cap to chemical energy by its rapid
combustion
7. Is the primary propulsive force in a cartridge which when exploded will cause the
bullet to be driven forward towards the gun muzzle.
8. Is the metallic object attached to the free end of the cylindrical tip of the
cartridge case, propelled by the expansive force of the propellant, and
responsible in the production of damages in the target.
77
9. The portion of the firearm used for handling it. It may house the magazine.
a. Handle or butt c) Breechblock
b. Firing chamber d) Trigger
10. The place where the cartridge is held in position before the fire mechanism
starts. The portion of the firearm used for handling it. It may house the
magazine.
11. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge.
The face of this block which comes in contact with the base of the cartridge is
known as the breech face.
12. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism. Except in a single
action firearm, pressure on the trigger is the commencement of the whole
firearm mechanism.
a. Trigger c) Breechblock
b. Firing chamber d) Handle or butt
13. The mechanism by which the spent shell or ammunition is withdrawn from the
firing chamber.
a. Trigger c) Extractor
b. Firing chamber d) Ejector
14. The mechanism by which the empty shell or ammunition is thrown from the
firearm.
a. Trigger c) Extractor
15. It is the amount of force (pressure) on the trigger necessary to fire a gun. Its
determination is necessary in the assessment of whether the firing can possibly
be accidental.
a. Trigger pressure c) Extractor
78
Chapter 22
FORENSIC BALLISTICS
Prepared by: Dexter M. Uy
1. Refer to the science of the travel of a projectile in flight; and the flight path of a
bullet includes the travel down the barrel, the path through the air, and the path
through the target. It is the science or art of designing and hurling projectiles so
as to achieve a desired performance.
a) Paraffin wax test c) Ballistics.
b) Paraffin examination d) Forensics Science
2. Ballistics is the science that deals with the motion, behavior, and effects of
projectile, especially to:
a) Bullets c) Rockets
b) Gravity bombs d) All of the above.
3. A ballistic body is a body which is free to move, behave, and be modified in

appearance, contour, or texture by ambient conditions, substances, or forces, as
by the pressure of gases in a gun, by any of the following, except:
a) Rifling in a barrel c) By temperature
b) By rain drops. d) By air particles
4. Separate from ballistics information, these examinations involve analyzing

firearm, ammunition and tool mark evidence in order to establish whether a
certain firearm or tool was used in the commission of a crime.
a) Paraffin examinations
b) Ballistics mark examinations
c) Firearm and weapon examinations
d) Firearm and tool mark examinations.
5. The areas of ballistics include the following, except:

a) Temporary ballistics. c) Transition Ballistics
b) External ballistics d) Initial or internal ballistics
6. These are the actions of the projectile within a gun. It is the study of the
processes originally accelerating the projectile, for example the passage of the
bullet through the barrel of a rifle:
a) Temporary ballistics c) Transition ballistics
b) External ballistics d) Initial or internal ballistics.
7. These are the actions of the projectile in the air. It is the study of the passage of
the projectile through space or the air:
a) Temporary ballistics c. Transition Ballistics
b) External ballistics. d. Initial or internal
ballistics
8. It is the force behind the bullet which accelerates it forward, and the quantity
and type of this affects the initial energy of the projectile.
a) Pellets c) Gunpowder.
b) Bullets d) Gun residue
9. These are typically low-energy weapons with muzzle velocities less than 1,400
feet per second:
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a) Handguns. c) Semiautomatic
b) Shotguns d) None of the above
10. The most frequent used handguns (firearms) in gunshot injuries, except one,
are of three basic types as follows:
a) Single-shot pistols c) Semiautomatics
b) Revolvers d) Rifles.
11. These weapons fire a missile which consists of a fuse of hundreds of pellets
with muzzle velocities of 1,000 to 1,500 per second:
a) Handguns c) Rifles
b) Shotguns. d) None of the Above
12. An example of a handgun is:

a) .45 caliber. c) M16
b) .20 gauge d) AK47
13. An example of a rifle is:

a) .38 caliber c) M16.
b) .20 gauge d) 9mm
14. Procedures used to detect and evaluate Gunshot Residue (GSR) on a

suspect’s hands have become more sensitive and sophisticated, able to detect
minute traces of the compounds in GSR, such as:
a) Antimony c) Lead
b) Barium d) All of the above.
15. The Detection of Primer Residues which is presently the most common
method used to test for residue on the suspect by swabbing the individual’s
hand, has the following methods, except:
a) Neutron activation analysis (NAA)
b) Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS)
c) Scanning electron microscopy with energy dispersive analysis (SEM_EDA)
16. This has become an excellent method for detection of gunshot residue from
among the three methods of the Detection of Primer Residues:
a) Neutron activation analysis (NAA)
b) Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS)
c) Scanning electron microscopy with energy dispersive analysis
(SEM_EDA).
17. When a rifled weapon is discharged, the rifling produces marks on the bullet
as it passes down the barrel. Some markings have the so called “class
characteristics” indicative of the make and model of the firearm. Which of the
following is not a class characteristic?
a) Diameter of land and grooves
b) Imperfections of lands (most pronounced in jacketed bullets).
c) Number of land and grooves
d) Depth of grooves
80
18. When a rifled weapon is discharged, the rifling produces marks on the bullet
as it passes down the barrel. Some markings have the so-called “individual
characteristics” which reflect imperfections peculiar to a particular firearm and
may allow its specific identification. Which of the following is not an individual
characteristic?
a) Diameter of land and grooves.
b) Imperfections of lands (most pronounced in jacketed bullets)
c) Number of land and grooves
d) Depth of grooves
19. This is another type of examination used to identify gun oils in targets, ad is
very sensitive with stored specimens:
a) Ferrozine spray c) Latent fingerprints
b) Gas chromatography. d) Laboratory examination
20. Which among the list below is not among the twelve (12) parameters used
by a system that has also been described for identification of jacketed sporting
rifle bullets?
a) Identification number c) Cartridge
b) Manufacturer d) Bullet base.
21. The finding of a GSR element on a suspect may indicate that:

a) The suspect had recently fired a weapon
b) The suspect was present when a firearm was recently discharged
c) The suspect had handled a recently fired weapon
22. Markings having class and individual characteristics are also found on the
cartridge case primer. These characteristics include the following:
I. Type of breech block marking.
II. Size, shape and location of extractor marks.
III. Size, shape and location of ejector marks.
IV. Size, shape and location of firing pin marks (the most important identifying
marks in rim fire cartridge cases).
a) The 1st & 2nd statement are true, 3rd & 4th statement are false
b) The 1st & 2nd statement are false, 3rd & 4th statement are true
c) All statements are true.
d) All statements are false
23. Test Fired and recovered bullets can:

a) Be related to the same weapon
b) Be unrelated to the same weapon
c) Not be compared with this type of examination
d) All of the above
24. Where are GSR Evidence found?

a) The hands and the face
b) The clothing of the person firing the weapon
c) The hair
25. 1. All ammunition and firearms should be packed in separate containers.
81
2. Spent bullets should be packed in such a way as to reduce any jostling or
friction that might damage the striations.
a) 1st sentence is true, 2nd sentence is false
b) 1st sentence is false, 2nd sentence is true
c) Both statements are true.
d) Both statements are false
26. A rifle or shotgun may:

a) May deposit GSR on hands
b) May not deposit GSR on hands.
c) May cause a false positive GSR test
d) May cause a false negative GSR test
27. Refers to the test that is used to determine if lead residues are present in the
exhibits.
a) Sulphur c) Sodium Rhodizorate.
b) Calcium d) Silicon
28. Sometimes called "intermediate ballistics" the study of the projectile's

behavior when it leaves the barrel and the pressure behind the projectile is
equalized.
a) Temporary ballistics c) Transaction ballistics.
b) External ballistics d) Initial or internal ballistics
29. GSR travels out typically ______ feet from the barrel of most firearm.
a) 6-8 c) 9-11
b) 3-5. d) 1-2
30. One modern methods of collection is through the use of “non-woven cotton
cloth swabs prewetted with a mixture of isopropanol and water”.
2. A very common collection method use today is through pre-packed kits used
to collect samples mainly from the hands of the suspects.
a) 1st sentence is true, 2nd sentence is false
b) 1st sentence is false, 2nd sentence is true
c) Both statements are true.
d) Both statements are false
Chapter 23
Polygraph Test
Prepared by: Cadiz, Reymond A.
1. Which is not part of the newly discovered pieces of evidence that were not
available during the 2nd trial in the double murder case of late Sen. Aquino
and Rolando Galman?
82
a) Independent forensic evidence uncovering the false forensic claims
b) Key defense eye witness to the actual killing
c) All of the above
2. In the same case, all are grave violations of the due process, except:
a) insufficient legal assistance of counsel
b) lack of evidence from forensic examination
c) right to counsel of choice
3. In the same case, all are prayers of the petitioners, except:

a) annulling and setting aside Resolution dated July 23, 1991 and Sept 10,
1991.
b) Ordering the reopening of the case
c) Ordering the Sandiganbayan to not allow the reception of
additional defense evidence.
4. A new trial or reconsideration is granted except:

a) At any time before the judgement of a conviction becomes final
b) On motion of the accused
c) The court’s own instance but with the consent of the accused
d) After the judgement has become final and executory
5. The court has repeatedly held that before a new trial may be granted on he
ground of newly discovered evidence it must show, except:
a) Evidence was discovered after trial
b) Such evidence could not have been discovered or produced at the trial
even with the exercise of reasonable diligence
c) That it is immaterial, commulative and corroborative
d) Evidence of such weight it could probably change the judgement if
admitted
6. Courts are generally reluctant in granting motions for new trial on the ground
of newly discovered evidence because
a) It is presumed that the moving party has had ample opportunity
to prepare his caseand secure all necessary evidence
b) It is time consuming and requires much effort and resources
c) The judgement is already final and executory
7. Grounds for granting a new trial, except:

a) Errors of law or irregularities during trial
b) Newly discovered evidence
8. What was the motion filed by the petitioners in the double murder case of
Sen. Aquino and Galman?
a) Motion to quash
b) Motion to reopen case with leave of court
9. The threshold question in resolving a motion for new trial based on newly
discovered evidence is whether:
a) The evidence is acceptable and recognized by the court
83
b) Newly discovered evidence which could not have been
discovered by due diligence
c) Newly discovered evidence follows the terms and condition set forth by
the court
10. The question of whether the evidence is newly discovered has two
aspects, except:
a) Temporal one
b) Predictive one
c) Elective one
11. Below are components of due diligence except:

a) Time component
b) Venue component
c) Good faith component
12. Due diligence is equated to:

a) Meticulous screening of the newly discovered evidence
b) Reasonable promptness to avoid prejudice to the defendant
c) Completeness of the newly found evidence
13. In the double murder case of Aquino and Galman, the report of the
forensic group may not be considered as newly discovered evidence:
a) Petitioners failed to show that it was impossible for them to
secure an independent forensic study
b) Petitioners failed to present the new evidence in a timely manner
c) Petitioners failed to carefully differentiate the newly discovered evidence
from the evidence of the previous trials
14. – 15. Below are the materials and methods used in the double murder
case if Aquino and Galman except:
a) Court records of the case
b) Gun and live ammunitions
c) Statement of the media
d) Results of forensic experiment
e) Review of forensic exhibit
f) X-ray of the skull of Kris Aquino
16. What caused the fracture of the occipital bone, temporal and parietal
bone of the late Sen. Benigno Aquino Jr. when he was shot?
a) Gravitational Force c) Kinetic Force
b) Frictional Force d) Potential Force
17. According to Dr. Solis what was the bullet trajectory that caused Sen.
Benigno Aquino Jr.’s death?
a) Downward c) Horizontal
b) Upward d) Vertical Midline
18. Radiation of Forces produces what is known as the __________________

which goes to different parts of the body.
a) Deformed Hoop Fracture c) Penetrating Fracture
b) Indented Fracture d) Spider Web Linear Fracture
19. The flight path of a Projectile

a) Low Velocity c) Force
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b) Caliber of a Bullet d) Trajectory
20. Which of the following does ballistics NOT help explain?

a) No. of bullets fired
b) Caliber of the bullet
c) Location of the shooter
d) The angle of the bullet’s impact on a target
21. What is the study of bullets and firearms?

a) Gun Shot Analysis c) Paraffin Test
b) Ballistics d) DNA Analysis
22. This moves only under the influence of gravity and possibly atmospheric
friction.
a) Ballistic Missile c) Ballistic Testing
b) Ballistic Resistance d) Ballistic Trajectory
23. The type of firearm used in a crime can usually be identified by the bullet
or by the casings left at the scene.
a) False c) Only for revolvers
b) True d) Only for shotguns
24. Unique set of markings on a bullet fired from a weapon.

a) Striations c) Gunshot Powder
b) External Ballistics d) Gunshot Residue
25. Which of the following will cause the highest degree of damage at an
entry site?
a) High caliber bullet c) Low velocity bullet
b) Low caliber bullet d) High velocity bullet
26. Which of the following is NOT necessary to know to determine the

location of a shooter at a crime scene?
a) Height of the shooter c) Angle of impact
b) Height of the victim d) Distance of the shooter
27. Tool used to compare striations of fired bullets.

a) Scanning Electron microscope c) Comparison Microscope
b) Compound Microscope d) Transmission Electron Microscope
28. Which of the following would external ballistics be most likely to study?
a) Striation Markings c) Extractor Markings
b) Powder Tattoo Patterns d) Bullet Trajectory
29. The single most important tool for a firearm examiner is :

a) Gun Range c) Microscopes
b) Gun Powder d) Computerized Imaging
30. A new trial will only be allowed if:

a) the New Evidence is Cumulative
b) the New Evidence is Corroborative
c) the New Evidence is Recently Sought
d) the Evidence is Newly Discovered
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86
Chapter 24
Polygraph Test
Prepared By: Cadiz, Reymond A.
1. ___________ is a scientific instrument capable of simultaneously recording

changes in several physiological variables while the subject is asked a series of
questions pertaining to a specific issue under investigation.
a) Polygraph c) both a and b.
b) Lie detector d) None of the above
2. ___________ is also known as lie detector test which is used to prove

truthfulness of the subject and measures and records several physiological
indices while the subject is asked a series of questions.
a) Paragraph test c) Psychological test
b) Physiological test d) Polygraph test.
3. What is the other term for lie detection?

a) Deception detection. C) Deception detector
b) Lie deception d) Polygraph Test
4. The following are the objectives of Polygraph examination, except?

a) To verify the veracity of the statement of suspect, witness & complainant
in all types of crime
b) To replace the third degree method of interrogation in a scientific manner
c) To examine white collar criminals, economic offenders, cyber criminals and
other offenders
d) To collaborate or to refuse the findings of the investigation.
5. Who invented the Polygraph instrument?

a) John Reid c) Both a and b
b) John Augustus Larson. d) None of the above
6. ________ is a medical device which is fastened around the chest and another
around the abdomen to measure the variation in respiratory pattern.
a) Sphygmomanometer c) Plethysmograph
b) Galvanograph d) Pneumograph tube.
7. _________is a medical device which is similar to the one used by physicians, and
is attached to the subject’s upper arm during the test.
a) Pneumograph tube c) Sphygmomanometer.
b) Plethysmograph d) Galvanograph
8. _________is a transducer which is attached to the thumb to measure blood

volume reflecting the pulse rate.
a) Pneumograph tube c) Sphygmomanometer
b) Plethysmograph. d) Galvanograph
9. __________are attached to the hand or index & ring fingers, through which a
weak electric current is passed to measure the galvanic skin response (GSR).
a) Pneumograph tube c) Sphygmomanometer
b) Plethysmograph d) Galvanograph.
10. The following are the persons who should not take polygraph test, except?
a) Pregnant Women c) Person who epileptic
87
b) Person with serious heart condition d) Obese person.
11. The following are the medical devices that are used to monitor changes
occurring in the body during polygraph examination, except?
a) Blood Pressure Cuff c) Electrodes
b) Pneumograph tube d) Stethoscope.
12. _________ means that a change takes place in person who consciously holds
feelings, which manifest into physiological changes in his blood pressure, pulse
rate, respiration and electro-dermal response.
a) Polygraph interaction
b) Isotonic interaction
c) Psychosomatic interaction.
d) Psychological interaction
13. What are these physiological indices that are measured and recorded during
polygraph examination?
a) Blood Pressure, Pulse, Respiration, Body Temperature
b) Blood Pressure, Pulse, Body Temperature
c) Blood Pressure, Pulse, Respiration, Skin Conductivity.
d) Pulse, Respiration, Body Temperature, Skin conductivity
14. The first attempt to develop a scientific instrument to detect truth was made by
________ in 1895.
a) John Reid c) Benussi
b) Lombroso. d) Larson
15. __________ is basically a combination of medical devices that are used to

monitor changes occurring in the body.
a) Sphygmomanometer c) ECG
b) Polygraph instrument. d.) Electrodes
16. Who was the 1st person to work on practical deception tests based on
physiological changes?
a) Benussi. c) Larson
b) Lombroso d) Keeler
17. __________is a questioning technique which do not directly relate to the crime
under investigation, but to a similar situation in which the answers may have a
feeling of concern with respect to either its truthfulness or its accuracy.
a) Peak of tension question c) Control question.
b) Relevant/irrelevant question technique d) all of the above
18. ___________is a questioning technique which is framed when some of the

important details of the offense in question are not made known to the subject.
a) Peak of tension question. c) control question
b) Relevant/Irrelevant question technique d) none of the above
19. ___________ is a questioning technique where both relevant & irrelevant

questions, pertaining to the case in hand are asked.
a) Peak of tension question
b) Relevant/Irrelevant question technique.
c) Control question
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20. ___________is the protégé of Larson which updated the device by making it
portable and added the galvanic skin response to it in 1939.
a) Keeler. c) Lombroso
b) Benussi d) John Reid
21. In 1947, __________ further improved the instrument as well as the technique
of administering the test.
a) Keeler c) Lombroso
b) Benussi d) John Reid.
22. When was the polygraph invented?

a) 1902 c) 1895
b) 1921. d) 1939
23. __________ is a person who purports to be able to detect deception or verify

the truth of statements through the use of instrumentation or of a mechanical
device that records visually, permanently and simultaneously the cardiovascular
pattern, the respiratory pattern, and the galvanic skin response of the individual
being examined.
a) Polygraph examiner. c) Pneumograph examiner
b) Polygraph agent d) Galvanograph examiner
24. The Polygraph Examiner considers the following aspects while analysing the
results of the test, except?
a) Simultaneous occurrence in respiration & increase in blood pressure
immediately after the subject’s reply
b) Heavier breathing immediately after reply to a relevant question
c) Increase on blood pressure several seconds after the subject’s
reply.
25. The Supreme Court reiterated the same rule, by categorically stating that “the
court does not put credit and faith on the result of a lie detector test inasmuch
as it has not been accepted by the scientific community as an accurate means of
ascertaining truth or deception.
a) People vs Reanzares c) Paople vs Daniel
b) People vs Adoviso d) People vs Carpo.
26. The Supreme Court stated “that much faith and credit should not be vested
upon a lie detector test as it is not conclusive.
a) People vs Carpo c) People vs Daniel
b) People vs Adoviso d) Both b and c.
27. The ruling in the Adoviso Case was recapitulated in ___________, where the
Supreme Court emphasize that a lie detector test has never been accepted in our
jurisdiction as a means of ascertaining the truth.
a) People vs Carpo c) People vs Daniel
b) People vs Adoviso d) People vs Reanzares.
28. _________is a change in the electrical resistance of the skin occurring in

moments of strong emotion.
a) Galvanic Skin Response.
b) Defence Mechanism
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c) Electrodermal activity
d) Physiochemical response
29. The polygraph is based on the principle of ___________ of an individual.

a) Isotonic interaction c) Galvanic Skin Response
b) Psychosomatic interaction. d) Defence Mechanism
30. The _____________ interacts with the body and creates physiological changes
in the form of increased blood pressure, increased respiratory rate, increased
heart rate & lower GSR.
a) Psychosomatic interaction c) Defence Mechanism.
b) Galvanic Skin Response d) Electrodermal Activity
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CHAPTER 25
FORENSIC PSYCHOLOGY AND PSYCHIATRY
Prepared by: OMAR BARRION PALAMOS
1. Forensic Psychology is also known as?
a. Criminal Pathology c. Criminal Profiling

b. Criminal Investigation d. Criminal Psychology.
2. This is a theory on crime as adaptive behaviour where delinquent behaviour arises
whenever non-secure attachments are made.
a. Modelling Theory c. Attachment Theory.

b. Behaviour Theory d. Self-Control Theory
3. Which of the following is not a type of personality?
a. None mentioned. c. The Extroverts

b. The Psychotics d. The Neurotics
4. This is a rule on insanity in the practice of law which determines whether a person
accused of a crime was sane at the time of its commission and therefore criminally
liable for the wrongdoing.
a. M’Naughten Rule. c. Durham Rule

b. Irresistible Impulse Test d. Substantial Capacity Test
5. Which of the following is a Theory on Crime as Adaptive Behaviour?
a. Modelling Theory c. Attachment Theory

b. Behaviour Theory d. All of the above.
6. This is a rule on insanity in the practice of law when the accused is not criminally
responsible if his unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect.
A. Brawner Rule c. Irresistible Impulse Test

B. Durham Rule. d. Substantial Capacity Test
7. Where can Forensic Psychology and Psychiatry be applied?
a. Cases In The Family Court c. Cases In The Criminal Court
b. Cases In The Civil Court d. All of the above.
8. What are the major areas in Criminal Evaluations of Forensic Psychiatry?
a. Competency to Stand Trial c. Mental State Opinion

b. As an Expert Witness d. A, B AND C.
9. This is an area of Criminal Evaluations wherein a determination is made if the
defendant has the mental capacity to understand the charges and assist his attorney
which is constitutionally granted by our constitutions.
a. Mental State of the art c. As a Special Witness

b. Competency to Stand Trial. d. Mental State Opinion
10.Refers to investigative and criminological psychology
a. Forensic history c. Forensic psychology.
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b. Forensic sociology d. Not mentioned
11. It encompasses the interface between law and psychiatry.

a. Forensic history c. Forensic psychiatry.
b. Forensic sociology d. Not mentioned
12. Its function is to control the id's impulses. It also has the function of persuading the
ego to turn to moralistic goals rather than simply realistic ones and to strive for
perfection.
a. The ego c. The Id
b. The Superego. d. The Superergo
13. Which of the following is a Theory on Crime as Adaptive Behaviour?
a. Modelling Theory c. Attachment Theory
b. Behaviour Theory d. All of the above.
14. The following statements express maladaptive behaviour. Which is not?

a. This refers to the types of behaviour that inhibit a person’s ability to adjust to
particular situation
b. They are good because they prevent the people from adopting to
the demands of the situation.
c. Often used to reduce anxiety, maladaptive behaviours result in dysfunctional
and non-productive outcomes
d. If you experience frequent panic (anxiety) attacks and have been diagnosed
with panic disorder or another anxiety disorder, you may have inadvertently
developed maladaptive patterns of behaviour to cope with your situations
15. _______________ is a special civil court.

a. Child court c. Family court.
b. Special Court d. All of the above
16. Forensic psychiatrist works with the court in ____________ an individual’s

competency to stand trial, defense based on mental defects.
a. Training c. Evaluating.
b. Visualizing d. Not mentioned
17. In Civil court cases, psychologists also provide psychotherapy and counselling to
individuals for the following problems, except:
a. Anxiety c. Depression
b. Desensitization d. None.
18. Psychotherapy and counselling to families referred by the court

a. Parent-child family counselling c. Parenting skills training
b. Anger management d. All of the above.
19. Includes autism and mental retardation, disorders which are typically first evident in
childhood.
a. Physical condition
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b. Psychosocial condition
c. Developmental disorders and personality disorders.
d. None of the above
20. The following statements describe about the differences between Forensic
Psychology and Forensic Psychiatry. Which among them is not?
a. Forensic psychiatrists favor their capacities to diagnose serious mental
disorder while psychologists were seen as especially prepared to go beyond
the matter of mental disorder to describe the person
b. Forensic psychiatrists generally are seen as better able to use interviews, on-
the-ward observations, and record reviews to reach diagnostic and forensic
conclusions. Conversely, forensic psychologist was perceived as better
prepared to obtain and use standardized, quantitative assessment data
c. Research tradition of psychiatry is rooted in medicine's reliance upon applied
clinical experience in the evolution of knowledge. In contrast, forensic
psychologists are trained in psychology's tradition, which places a higher
value on knowledge that evolves from controlled experimentation
d. Psychiatry only and not psychology contributed to the pool of
psychodynamic, social and behavioral theories that guide the logic
of both forensic psychiatrists and psychologists.
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Chapter 26
Personality Disorders
Prepared By: Nyel Yves T. Martin
1. A class of mental disorders that are characterized by long-lasting rigid patterns of

thought and behavior:
a) Personality Disorders. c) Neurosis
b) Psychological Disorder d) None of the above
2. Cluster A List of Personality Disorders are, except:

a) Paranoid Personality Disorder
b) Schizoid Personality Disorder
c) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
d) Antisocial Personality Disorder.
3. Cluster B List of Personality Disorders are, except:

a) Antisocial Personality Disorder
b) Borderline Personality Disorder
c) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
d) Paranoid Personality Disorder.
4. Cluster C List of Personality Disorders are, except:

a) Avoidant Personality Disorder
b) Dependent Personality Disorder
c) Obsessive- Compulsive Personality Disorder
d) Narcissistic Personality Disorder.
5. Cluster A Personality Disorders is classified to be:

a) Odd or eccentric disorders.
b) Dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders
c) Anxious and fearful disorders
d) Histrionic personality disorders
6. Cluster B Personality Disorders is classified to be:

a) Odd or eccentric disorders
b) Dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders.
c) Anxious and fearful disorders
d) Avoidant personality disorders
7. Cluster C Personality Disorders is classified to be:

a) Anxious personality disorders.
b) dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders
c) odd or eccentric disorders
d) narcissistic personality disorders
8. A kind of personality disorder that is characterized by behavior that consequently

undermines the person’s pleasure and goals:
a) passive-aggressive personality disorders
b)Self-defeating personality disorders.
c) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
d) Paranoid Personality Disorder
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9. This personality disorder is characterized by a long-standing pattern of a
disregard for other people’s rights, often crossing the line and violating those
rights:
a) Antisocial Personality Disorder.
b) Avoidant Personality Disorder
c) Borderline Personality Disorder
d) Dependent Personality Disorder
10. The following are the symptoms of Antisocial Personality Disorder, except:
a) failure to conform to social norms
b) deceitfulness
c) impulsivity
d) Unwilling to get involve with people unless certain of being liked.
11.The following are the manifestations of Avoidant Personality Disorder, except:

a) avoids occupational activities
b) unwilling to get involved with people unless certain of being liked
c) shows restraint within intimate relationships because of the fear of being
shamed or ridiculed
d) Reckless disregard for safety of self or others.
12. This personality disorder is characterized by a long-standing and complex

pattern of feelings of inadequacy, extreme sensitivity to what other people think
about them, and social inhibition:
b) Avoidant Personality Disorder.
c) Dependent Personality Disorder
d) Borderline Personality Disorder
13. The main feature of this disorder is a pervasive pattern of instability in

interpersonal relationships, self-image and emotions:
b) Avoidant Personality Disorder
c) Borderline Personality Disorder.
14.This disorder is characterized by a long-standing need for the person to be taken

care of and a fear of being abandoned or separated from important individuals in
his or her life:
a) Histrionic Personality Disorder
b) Dependent Personality Disorder.
c) Multiple Personality Disorder
d) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
15. A pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking:

a) Obsessive-compulsive Personality Disorder
b) Multiple Personality Disorder
c) Histrionic Personality Disorder.
d) Paranoid Personality Disorder
16. A pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others such as their motives are
interpreted as malevolent:
a) Paranoid Personality Disorder.
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c) Histrionic Personality Disorder
17. The following are the manifestations of Paranoid Personality Disorder, except:
a) suspects, without sufficient basis, that others are exploiting, harming, or
deceiving him or her
b) preoccupied with unjustified doubts about the loyalty or trustworthiness
of friends or associates
c) reluctant to confide in others because of unwarranted fear that the
information will be used maliciously against him or her
d) shows perfectionism that interferes with task completion.
18. A pervasive pattern of grandiosity (in fantasy or behavior), need of admiration,

and lack of empathy:
a) Narcissistic Personality Disorder.
b) Obsessive-compulsive Personality Disorder
d) Histrionic Personality Disorder
19.A pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental

and interpersonal control, at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency:
a) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
b) Histrionic Personality Disorder
c) Obsessive-compulsive Personality Disorder.
20. The following are the characteristics of Narcissistic Personality Disorder, except:
a) has a grandiose sense of self- importance (e.g., exaggerates
achievements and talents, expects to be recognized as superior without
commensurate achievements)
b) preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success, power, brilliance, beauty,
or ideal love
c) believes that he or she is “special” and unique and can only be understood
by, or should associate with, other special or high-status people (or
institutions)
d) perceives attacks on his or her character or reputation that are
not apparent to others and is quick to react angrily or to
counterattack.
21. . A pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute

discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as by
cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior:
a) Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
b) Schizoid Personality Disorder
c) Paranoid Personality Disorder
22.A pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted

range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings:
a) Schizoid Personality Disorder.
b) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
d) Antisocial Personality Disorder
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23. The following are the characteristics of Schizoid Personality Disorder, except:
a) neither desires nor enjoys close relationships, including being part of a
family
b) almost always chooses solitary activities
c) has little, if any, interest in having sexual experiences with another person
d) suspiciousness or paranoid ideation.
24.The following are the manifestations of Obsessive-compulsive Personality

Disorders, except:
a) reads hidden demeaning or threatening meanings into benign
remarks or events.
b) preoccupied with details, rules, lists, orders, organization, schedules to the
extent that the major point of the activity is lost
c) shows perfectionism that interferes with task completion
d) reluctant to delegate tasks or to work with others unless they submit to
exactly his or her way of doing things
25.This disorder is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct identities
or personality states (each with its own relatively enduring pattern of perceiving,
relating to, and thinking about the environment and self):
a) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
b) Histrionic Personality Disorder
c) Schizoid Personality Disorder
d) Multiple Personality Disorder.
26.Odd beliefs or magical thinking that influences behavior and is consistent with
subcultural norms (e.g., superstitiousness, belief in clairvoyance, telepathy, or
“sixth sense”; in children and adolescents, bizarre fantasies or preoccupations)
are characteristics of:
a) Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
b) Neurosis
c) Schizoid Personality Disorder
27.The following are the manifestations of Schizotypal Personality Disorder, except:

a) ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference)
b) odd beliefs
c) unusual perceptual experiences
d) grandiose sense of self-importance.
28.The following are the manifestations of Dependent Personality Disorder, except:

a) has difficulty making everyday decisions without an excessive amount of
advice and reassurance from others
b) needs others to assume responsibility for most major areas of his or her
life
c) feels uncomfortable of helpless when alone because of exaggerated fears
of being unable to take care for himself or herself
d) is uncomfortable in situations in which he or she is not the center
of attention.
29.Has recurrent suspiciousness, without justification, regarding fidelity of spouse or

sexual partner is a manifestation of:
a) Paranoid Personality Disorder.
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c) Avoidant Personality Disorder
d) Multiple Personality Disorder
30.The following are the different types of personality disorders, except:

a) Schizotypal Personality Disorder c) Multiple Personality Disorder
b) Schizoid Personality Disorder d) Psychosis.
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Chapter 27
MENTAL DISORDER QUESTIONS
1. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is more than normal anxiety people

experience day to day.
a) True.
b) False
2. Anorexia Nervosa refers a person typically refuses to maintain a body weight

which is consistent with their build, age and height. The individual usually
experiences an intense and overwhelming fear of gaining weight or becoming
fat.
a) True.
b) False
3. Bulimia Nervosa refers to people with this disorder consume large amounts of
food and then rid their bodies of the excess calories by vomiting, abusing
laxatives ot diuretics, taking enemas, or exercising obsessively.
a) True.
b) False
4. Compulsions is the Repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the person feels
driven to perform in response to an obsession, or according to rules that must be
applied rigidly
a) True.
b) False
5. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) refers to a debilitating condition that

follows a terrifying event.
a) True.
b) False
6. Major Depressive Disorder have a depressed mood or a loss of interest or

pleasure in daily activities for at least a 2 week period
a) True.
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b) False
7. Dysthymic Disorder is also known as dysthymia, is characterized by an

overwhelming yet chronic state of depression, exhibited by a depressed mood for
most of the days , for at least 2 years.
a) True.
b) False
8. Schizophrenia is characterized by at least two of the following symptoms, for at

least one month, EXCEPT.
a) Delusions c) Disorganized speech

b) Hallucinations d) None of the above.
9. The following are Cognitive Disorders, EXCEPT.
a) Delirium
b) Multi-Infract Dementia
c) Dementia Associated with Alcoholism
d) Hypertension.
10. Binge-Eating is still being debated as to ways in determining who has this kind
of disorder, but most people who has this disorder have:
a. Frequent episodes of eating what others would consider an

abnormally large amount.
b. Frequent feelings of love for food
c. Frequent episodes of convulsions after eating
d. All of the above
11. Specific symptoms of GAD, EXCEPT.
a. Excessive anxiety an worry

b. The person finds it difficult to control the worry
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above.
12.The following are Childhood Disorders, EXCEPT:
a. Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

b. Asperger’s disorder
c. Both a and b
13.Compulsions is the repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the person feels
driven to perform in response to an obsession, or according to rules that must be
applied rigidly
a. True.
b. False
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14.Obsessions is the recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are
experienced as intrusive and inappropriate, and that cause marked convulsions.
a. True
b. False.
15.A stressor is anything that causes a great deal of stress in the person’s life,
which could be a positive event, like a wedding, or a negative event, like a family
member’s death.
a. True.
b. False
16.While experiencing or after experiencing the event, the individual may have the
following symptoms, EXCEPT.
a. A subjective sense of numbing, detachment, or absence of emotional

responsiveness
b. A reduction in awareness of his or her surroundings
c. Derealization
d. Depolarization.
17. Adjustment disorder is characterized by the development of emotional or

behavioral symptoms In response to an identifiable stressor, occurring within 3
months of the onset of the stressor, and once the stressor has ended, the
symptoms do not persist for more than 6 months.
a. True.
b. False
18.Restricting Type is when the person restricts their food intake on their own, and
does engage in binge-eating or purging behavior.
a. True
b. False.
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19.Binge-Eating or Purging Type is when the person self-induces vomiting or
misuses antitussives, emetic, or enemas
a. True
b. False.
20. Major Depressive Disorder – have a depressed mood or a loss of interest or

a. True
b. False.
21. Cyclothymic Disorder – people with this disorder have, for at least 2 years, the
presence of numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods
with depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a Major Depressed
Episode
a. True.
b. False
22. Dysthymic Disorder – also known as dysthymia, is characterized by an

overwhelming yet chronic state of depression, exhibited by a depressed mood for
most of the days , for at least 2 years
a. True
b. False.
23.Trichotillomania – recurrent pulling out of one’s hair resulting in noticeable hair

loss
a. True
b. False.
24.Paranoid Schizophrenia is a person feels extremely suspicious, persecuted,

grandiose, or experiences a combination of those emotions.
a. True.
b. False
25.Disorganized Schizophrenia is a person is often coherent but may not have

delusions
a. True
b. False.
26.Catatonics Schizophrenia is a person that is withdrawn, mute, negative and often

assumes very unusual postures
a. True.
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b. False
27.While experiencing or after experiencing the event, the individual may have the
following symptoms, EXCEPT.
a. A subjective sense of numbing, detachment, or absence of emotional

responsiveness
b. A reduction in awareness of his or her surroundings
c. Derealization
28.The following are Cognitive Disorders, EXCEPT.
e) Delirium
f) Multi-Infract Dementia
g) Dementia Associated with Alcoholism
h) Hyperventilation.
29.Major Depressive Disorder have a depressed mood or a loss of interest or

a.True
b. False.
30.Adjustment disorder is characterized by the development of emotional or

behavioral symptoms In response to an identifiable stressor, occurring within 3
months of the onset of the stressor, and once the stressor has ended, the
symptoms do not persist for more than 3 months.
a. True
b. False.
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CHAPTER 28
CRIMINAL PROFILING
Prepared by: Mabanan, Rolando
1. What is the unit at the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) Academy in

Quantico, Virginia historically attributed with the development of criminal
profiling over the past decades?
a) Sociology and Anthropology Unit
b) Behavioral Science Unit
c) Social Science Unit
d) Psychological Unit
2. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves collection and
assessment of all data relating to a specific case?
a) Decision Process Models c) Crime Assessment
b) Criminal Profile d) Profiling Inputs
3. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves arranging of all
information gathered into a logical and coherent pattern?
a) Decision Process Models c) Crime Assessment
b) Criminal Profile d) Profiling Inputs
4. One of the following is not involved in FBI’s crime analysis, which one?
a) Decision Process Models c) Victimology
b) Profiling Inputs d) Criminal Profile
5. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves the reconstruction of the
sequence of events and specific behaviors both of the victim and the
perpetrator?
a) Profiling Inputs c) Crime Assessment
b) Decision Process Models d) Criminal Profile
6. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that provides a list of background,
physical and behavioral characteristics of the perpetrator?
a) Crime Assessment c) Profiling Inputs
b) Criminal Profile d) Decision Process Model
7. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis where the actual profile is provided to
requesting agencies and is incorporated to their investigation?
a) Investigation c) Decision Process Model
b) Apprehension d) Criminal Profile
8. What happens when no suspects are generated or new evidence comes to

light during the investigation stage of the FBI’s crime analysis?
a) Profile is reassessed c) Case is dismissed
b) Charges are filed d) Forgive and forget
9. One of which is not a part of the five-factor model developed by David

Canter, which one?
a) The Significance of Time and Place
b) Interpersonal Coherence
c) Criminal Career
d) Forensic Analysis
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10.What is the method developed by David Canter similar with that employed by
FBI which is used with application of some methods of environmental
psychology to criminal investigation?
a) All-Factor Principle c) Three-Way Method
b) Five-Factor Model d) Single Approach Model
11.What step in the Five-Factor Model refers to whether a variation in criminal

activity will relate to variations in the way which the offender deals with other
people in non-criminal situations?
a) Interpersonal Coherence c) Criminal Characteristics
b) Forensic Awareness d) Forensic Awareness
12.What step in the Five-Factor Model provides the analyst with information
about offender mobility, thereby leading to inferences about offender’s likely
residential location?
a) Interpersonal Coherence
b) Significance of Time and Place
c) Forensic Awareness
d) Criminal Characteristics
13.What step in the Five-Factor Model allows researchers to develop subsystems

for the classification of offender groups, thereby providing investigators the
characteristics likely to be possessed by the perpetrator in the current crime?
a) Criminal Characteristics c) Forensic Awareness
b) Interpersonal Coherence d) Criminal Career
14.What step in the Five-Factor Model refers to the assessment that is made to
determine whether the offender may have engaged in criminal activity in the
past and what kind of activity is mostly to have been?
a) Criminal Characteristics c) Criminal Career
b) Interpersonal Coherence d) Forensic Awareness
15.What step in the Five-Factor Model collects any evidence that an offender has
knowledge of, or may be privy to, police techniques and procedures relating
to evidence collection?
a) Forensic Awareness c) Criminal Career
b) Criminal Characteristics d) Interpersonal Coherence
16.What is the model developed directly from environmental psychology by

David Canter which focuses on offender behavior?
a) Square Model c) Line Principle
b) Pyramid Concept d) Circle Theory
17.What model of offender behavior assumes that offender will “strike out” from
their home base in the commission of their crimes?
a) Marauder Model c) Dunham Model
b) Austin Model d) Commuter Model
18.What model of offender behavior assumes that offender will travel a distance
from their home base before engaging in criminal activity?
a) Marauder Model c) Dunham Model
b) Austin Model d) Commuter Model
19.All of the following are involved in Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) except
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a) Equivocal Forensic Analysis c) Offender Characteristics
b) Perpetratorology d) Victimology
20.What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) has the main purpose of
assessing the most likely meaning of the evidence?
a) Offender Characteristics c) Crime Investigation
b) Crime Scene Characteristics d) Equivocal Forensic Analysis
21.Which of the following could be a source of evidence for Equivocal Forensic

Analysis?
a) Investigators report
b) Map of the victims travel prior to death
c) Background of the victim
d) All of the above
22.What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) involves an in-depth

analysis of the victim?
a) Victimology c) Victimonology
b) Victimniasis d) Victimist
23.What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) involves analysis of the
distinguishing feature of a crime scene as evidence by an offender’s
behavioral decisions regarding the victim and the offense location, and their
subsequent meaning to the offender?
a) Victimology c) Crime Scene Characteristics
b) Equivocal Forensic Analysis d) Offender Characteristics
24.What is the last step in Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) containing the
offender’s behavioral and personality characteristics derived from and
informed by the three preceding steps?
a) Offender Characteristics c) Crime Scene Characteristics
b) Equivocal Forensic Analysis d) Victimology
25.Which of the following in not an information needed to determine offender

characteristics?
a) Aggressiveness c) Race
b) Medical history d) None of the above
26.What is one of the broad phases during which core assumptions of Behavioral
Evidence Analysis (BEA) are useful and is also referred to as “the unknown
offender for the known crime” phase?
a) Honeymoon Phase c) Investigative Phase
b) Riddle Phase d) Interrogative Phase
27.Which of the following is one of the main purposes why an Investigative

Phase is conducted?
a) Help keep overall investigation on track and undistracted
b) Assist in the linkage of potentially related crimes by identifying common
crime scene indicators and behavior patterns
c) Provide investigators with investigative irrelevant leads and strategies
d) Assist in assessing the potential for escalation of nuisance criminal
behavior to less serious or less violent crime
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28.What is one of the broad phases during which core assumptions of Behavioral
Evidence Analysis (BEA) are useful and is also referred to as “the known
offender for the known crime” phase?
a) Trial Phase c) End Phase
b) Actual Phase d) Discovery Phase
29.Which of the following is one of the main purposes why a Trial Phase is
conducted?
a) Help develop and gain insight into victim’s fantasy and motivations
b) Help gain insight into offender state of mind only before commission of a
crime
c) Help suggest a crime scene linkage by virtue of modus operandi
d) Provide investigators with investigatively irrelevant leads and strategies
30.Who developed the Five-Factor Model?
a) David Canter
b) Harry Canter
c) David Hunter
d) Dudley Canter
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CHAPTER 29
FORENSIC TOXICOLOGY
1. It is the study and practice of application of toxicology to the purpose of the

law?
a) Medical Toxicology c) Medical Investigation
b) Forensic Toxicology d) Forensic Investigation
2. Professionals that uses toxicology to aid in medico-legal investigation of death

and poisoning?
a) a. Medical Investigator c) Forensic Investigator
b) b. Forensic Toxicologist d) Medical Toxicologist
3. The profession of Forensic Toxicology were bounded by the supreme principle

and doctrine of:
a) glorified honor as a legal assistants profession
b) work in the interests of truth, justice, and public good
c) for the high compensation
d) for the prestige being privileged few professionals in the field
4. An organized body in the field Forensics that supervised and control the legal
practice and profession of Toxicology?
a) Bureau of Food and Drugs Administration (BFAD)
b) Society of Forensic Toxicology (SOFT)
c) World Health Organization (WHO)
d) Department of Health (DOH)
5. Since toxic substances do not produce characteristic lesions, so if suspected

toxic reactions occur, site a way a good toxicologist or investigator shall
consider in the crime scene the best?
a) take note the weather condition at the crime scene
b) collect at the narrow search any trace residues, powders, pill bottles
c) take note any possible eyewitness
d) secure concurrent medical or death certificate
6. The General Objective or Purpose of the Forensic Toxicology?

a) to glorified the Forensic Toxicology profession
b) to obtain analytical data on poisons and to apply the information obtained
to understanding episode of intoxication
c) to categorize the type of poison that causes the death
d) to contribute education and data to the profession
7. It is one of the specific objectives of the applied science of forensic

toxicology?
a) to carve a name in the rising demand of the profession
b) to produce information of a factual nature (Forensic Toxicology)
c) to categorically classify which substance were toxic in nature
d) to glorified the profession as of utmost importance
8. The other specific objective in the 2-fold aim of the forensic toxicology?
a) to help secure the medical or death certificate
b) to represent opinion
c) to brought lawsuit to an individual or corporation in occupational breach
d) secure a name to the history of Forensic Toxicology
108
9. The best known rare case of poisoning by arsenic (1840) which gave way into
the arena of criminal court?
a) John F Kennedy c) Paul McCartney
b) Madame Lafarge d) Ferdinand E. Marcos
10. A branch of Forensic Toxicology that determines the absence or presence of

drugs and their metabolites, such as CO2 and other gases, metals, and toxic
chemicals in human fluids and tissues, and evaluates their role as a
determinant or contributory factor in the cause or manner of death?
a) Blood Testing c) Drug Testing
b) Post Mortem Forensic Toxicology d) Post Mortem Examination

ethanol and other drugs and chemicals in the blood, breath, or other
appropriate specimen (s), and evaluates their role in modifying human
performance and behaviour?
a) Breath Analyzer Test
b) Blood Test
c) Human-Performance Forensic Toxicology
d) Neuro-Psychiatric Test

drugs and their metabolites in urine to demonstrate prior use or abuse?
a) Urinalysis c) Forensic Urine Drug Testing
b) Litmus Paper Test d) Reagent Salt Test
13. The commonly used body fluid that is being utilized for the toxicology testing
because of quick and easy to be tapped from a live subject?
a) blood c) urine
b) semen d) saliva
14. The commonly abused drug or substance that is a source of toxic

TetraHydraCannabinol (THC) that is subjected to toxicology testing?
a) Methamphetamine c) marijuana
b) lysergic acid (LSD) d) ecstacy
15. In the heavy users of marijuana, what are the chances following use, that
the presence of TetrahydraCannabinol (THC) can still be detected in their
urine sample?
a) 1 month c) 10 days
b) 10 week d) 1 year
16. A body fluid that pose a good profile of a substance for a sufficient,
comprehensive, and ideal sample to screen and confirm most common toxic
substance?
a) urine c) blood
b) semen d) saliva
17. A body outgrowth that can be capable of recording medium to long-term or

high dosage substance abused by getting drugs accumulation estimates
through its follicles and it’s cross sectional dimensions?
a) nails c) hair
b) corn callous d) warts
109
18. It is the approximate growth of hair in one (1) month, on which at such rate,
a feasible forensic study for any drugs accumulated on each strands through
the blood stream, is a viable to the forensic study?
a) 20-25 cm c) 1-1.5 cm
b) 30-50 cm d) 5-10 cm
19. Organisms that may have ingested by the subject matter that may have
ingested any toxic substance within it and which can be used for toxicology
testing?
a) mosquitoes c) bacteria and maggots
b) flies d) cockroaches
20. A commonly used body fluids, particularly collected during the autopsy that
may provide a good sample in detecting undigested pills or liquids which was
ingested prior to death?
a) blood c. gastric contents
b) burine d. semen
21. In the highly decomposed body, a sample or part of the cadaver which might
be the best substitute for toxicology testing ?
a) vitreous humor of the eye c) bone cartilage
b) bteeth d) fingernails
22. The most viable part of the body for examination specimen because it is
protected at best by the skull and sockets against trauma and adulteration?
a) eye c) ear drum
b) nasal cavity d) tonsil
23. It is a method of detection and classification of toxin using a particular

examining gas, or substances that can be heated to produce gas?
a) Gas Chromatography c) Oxidation
b) Carbon Cryogenics d) Gaseous Sublimation
24. A typical volatile organic compound fall under the category of Gas
Chromotography?
a) Ethanol c) Water
b) Sulfuric Acid d) Sodium Hydroxide
25. It is a traditional method in detecting metal toxins wherein the compound

suspected containing toxic metal is separated by organic matrix?
a) thermal/chemical oxidation c) cryogenics
b) bleaching d) filtration
26. A test conducted in metal toxin analysis to identify and quantified the organic
residues leaves behind by the chemical oxidation process?
a) Reinsch Test c) Love Bug Test
b) Summative Analysis d) Kaleidoscopy
27. One of the screening method used in toxin analysis in non-volatile Organic
substances?
a) Thin-layer Chromatography c) Urinalysis
b) Activated Carbon Oxidation d) Solitaire Test
110
28. A typical non-volatile organic substance that can cause toxin ingestion to
human that may be subjected for thin-layered chromatography?
a) Drugs (prescribed or illegal) c) alcoholic drinks
b) Sweetened beverages d) calcium fluoride
29. The most practical means of detecting toxins and measuring this highly
potent and difficult to isolate substance such as venoms and other toxic
mixture proteins?
a) Immunoassays c) Lithmus Paper test
b) Psychoanalytic Test d) Freudan Assestment
30.The pioneer health service provider in the Philippine that had already had full
pledge Clinical Toxicology Unit to cater the toxin medication and aligned with
the legal profession for forensic experts?
a) Philippine General Hospital (PGH)
b) Hospital ng Maynila (HM)
c) Eastern Visayas Reg’l Med Center (EVRMC)
d) San Lazaro Hospital (SLH)
111
CHAPTER 30
POISONING
1. Any material exerting a life threatening effect upon a living organism is

called.
a) Parasite c) toxin
b) virus d) drugs
2. A subgroup of toxins that enters the body in a single massive dose, or

accumulate to a massive dose over time.
a) Muriatic acid c) acids
b) potassium chloride d) poison
3. Method which damages the tissues by a chemical agent is called?

a) Addiction c) excessive alcohol drinking
b) Poisoning d) sex
4. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that is up to 30ml taken by

suprapubic puncture with a long needle or through an incision in the bladder.
a) Urine c) semen
b) blood d) mucus
5. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that at least 250ml needed to be

collected. The stomach is opened fully and any capsule, tablets or powder is
picked off.
a) Food c) feces
b) stomach contents d) stomach acids
6. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that the intact gut is sent to the
laboratory in the case of suspected heavy metals poisoning (arsenic or
antimony)
a) Stomach contents c) Urine
b) Bile d) Intestinal Contents
7. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that can be useful for morphine
and chlorpromazine analyses because these substances are concentrated by
the liver and extracted into the gall bladder and is collected directly through a
bottle.
a) Bile c) Semen
b) Urine d) Blood
8. Which of the following choices are common poisons and drugs.

a) Medical substances c) Paracetamol
b) Analgesics d) All of the above
9. A type of poison that are strong mineral acids, organic acids, alakalis,
household bleaches, detergents and vinegars.
a) Analgesics c) insulin
b) corrosive poisons d) drugs
112
10.A poisonous substance that was popular with murders in the past such as
Madeleine Smith in 1857 who killed her lover and Mary Blandy who murdered
her own father.
a) Rock c) OPM
b) Heavy Metal d) RNB
11.A rat poison that acutely produces abdominal pains and vomiting then appear
confusion, muscle pain and sleep disturbances. Death occurs because of
degeneration of various organs of the body that can be seen in autopsy.
a) Mercury c) Potassium
b) Iron d) Thallium
12.A term usually in a case of poisoning with a medicinal drug the autopsy
findings are unhelpful because the substances are rarely corrosive and no
local lesions are likely to be found.
a) Overdose c) Mercury
b) Medical Substances d) Vitamins
13.Officially developed as insecticides in World War II. Used also as a basis of

“nerve gas”, extremely toxic and blocks neuromuscular conduction by
inhibiting cholinesterase.
a) Organic Sugar c) Organic fertilizers
b) Organic Phosphates d) Iron
14.Extremely poisonous, potassium and sodium cyanides need to be mixed with

water or gastric acid before releasing the poison that acts as a cytochrome
oxidase inhibitor. Causes rapid death.
a) Cyanides c) sodium chloride
b) Opiate drugs d) muriatic
15.An industrial poison but previously it was used in treatment of syphilis, as

aprotection from rheumatism and as a diuretic
a) Iron c) mercury
b) Lead d) cyanides
16.Best known for cases of acute poisoning in children who eat ferrous sulphate.
Gastrointestinal symptoms occur soon after ingestion. Happens due to liver
damage and acidosis from its release.
a) Potassium chloride c) Arsenic
b) Mercury d) Iron
17.Kind of drug dependence that have a strong stimulating effect but can lead to
hyperpyrexia and hypertension that may precipitate a cerebral hemorrhage
and cardiac arrhythmias.
a) Cocaine c) Opiate drugs
b) Amphetamines d) Shabu
18.Kind of drug dependence that produces hypertension that may lead to

cerebral bleeding, dilated pupils and hyperpyrexia; the death may occur as a
respiratory depression or arrhythmia.
a) Opiate drugs c) Cocaine
b) Shabu d) Amphetamines
19.Heroin, morphine, methadone and dihydrocodeine are also called as.
113
a) Opiate drugs c) Cocaine
b) Shabu d) Amphetamines
20.The most common method of self-destruction is.

a) Death by hanging
b) Death by Jumping off a tall building
c) Death Suicidal Poison
d) Death by over sex
114
CHAPTER 31
FORENSIC DRUG TESTING
1. Generally characterized by maladaptive pattern of alcohol or substance use

leading to significant impairment or distress.
a) Abuse of alcohol or substance
b) lack of sleep
c) over sex
d) stress eating
2. A process to determine drug use.

a) Saliva Drug Testing c) Drug Testing
b) Urine d) Blood
3. Which of the following are common types of drug test.

a) Hair Drug Screening c) Sweat Drug Screen
b) Saliva/ Oral based screening d) All of the above
4. Which of the following are types of testing purposes.

a) Random Drug Testing c) A and B only
b) d. Post-Incident Drug Testing d) All of the above
5. A term used for a kind of popular street drug used for incapacitating rape
victims.
a) Viagra c) Date rape drugs
b) Sexual enhancers d) Shabu
6. Which of the following are considered as date rape drugs.

a) GHB/GBL c) Rohypnol/Roofies
b) Ketamine d) all of the above
7. A strong sedative which is similar to the drug valium but is 10 times stronger
than valium.
a) Ecstacy c) Ketamine
b) GHB/GBL d) Rohypnol/Roofies
8. Also known as MDMA, a combination of speed and mescaline that can

produce psychedelic effects, intensifies sexual contact, also known as “love
drug”.
9. A central nervous system depressant which was studied for use with
narcolepsy patients to help them sleep, causes euphoria, hallucinations and
deep sleep.
10.Used legally by veterinarians, known as “rich kids’ drug”. Classified as a

dissociate anesthetic drug and is closely related to PCP.
11.Which of the following are substance related disorders.
115
a) Amphetamine Dependence c) Sedative Dependence
b) Cannabis Dependence d) all of the above
12.Which of the following are substance related disorders.

a) Hallucinogen Dependence c) Nicotine Dependence
b) Inhalant dependence d) all of the above.
13.defined as a need for markedly increased amount of the alcohol or substance

to achieve intoxication or desired effect.
a) Tolerance c) Obsession
b) Addiction d) Desire
14.Is defined as markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same
amount of the alcohol or substance.
a) addiction c) tolerance
b) obsession d) desire
15.A process which is often painful physical and psychological symptoms that
follows a discontinuance of an addicting substance or alcohol.
a) denial c) acceptance
b) withdrawal d) addiction
16.Which of the following are symptoms of withdrawal?

a) rapid pulse c) insomnia
b) increased hand tremor d) all of the above
17.Which of the following are symptoms of withdrawal?

a) physical agitation c) both A and B
b) happiness d) none of the above
18.Marijuana and Hashish intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon
use.
a) 1hr after ingestion, up to 14 hours
b) from time of ingestion for 48 to 72 hours
c) 1hr after ingestion, up to 24 hours
d) from time of ingestion for 48 to 96 hours
19.Marijuana and Hashish intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon
use.
20.Cocaine intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon use.

116
CHAPTER 32
ALCOHOL ABUSE
1. This kind of drinker drinks some form of alcoholic beverage occasionally or

regularly in moderation, within sensible limits.
a) Heavy drinker c) Social drinker
b) Problem drinker d) Dependent drinker
2. The following are causes of death in alcoholics except one;

a) Beautiful trauma c) Acute intoxication
b) Trauma d) Hypothermia
3. Stages of Intoxication, except one;

a) Love stage c) Physical clues
b) Stupor d) Excitement
4. This is the standard treatment regime for alcohol withdrawal for severe
alcoholics. It is imperative to supplement this with thiamine 100 mg and folic
acid 1 mg- both orally four times daily for at least two weeks.
a) Disulfram c) Multivitamin
b) Chlordiazepoxide d) Myra-e
5. This kind of drinker has subjective awareness of compulsion to drink; exhibits

prominent drink-seeking behavior, becomes tolerant to alcohol.
a) Alcoholic c) Heavy drinker
b) Binge drinker d) Social drinker
6. This kind of drinker continues to drink in spite of developing difficulties.

a) Problem drinker c) Social drinker
b) Dependent drinker d) Heavy drinker
7. Choose the correct Widmark equation:

a) 70 kg male, peak BAC= (10x100), (70x0.68)= 21 mg%
b) 50 kg female, peak BAC= (10x100), (50x0.55)= 36 mg%
c) Peak BAC= Weight of alcohol ingested (g) x 100, divided by Body Weight
(kg)x Widmark Factor
8. In this stage of intoxication, the drinker has the tendency to lose emotional
restraint, to forget animosities, to be less critical, converse with abandon and
to lose control over one’s moral integrity.
a) Confusion c) Excitement
b) Stupor d) Hangover
9. What is the meaning of BAC?

a) Blood alcohol concentration c) Breath alcohol concentration
b) Baby aegyo concert d) Basic antenna connection
10.In this stage the drinker tends to anesthetic and unfeeling to injury and may
lie with his face flushed, dribbling from the lips and snoring loudly and can
only be aroused by strong stimuli.
a) Hangover c) Confusion
b) Stupor d) Physical clues
117
11.The following are alcohol dependence recovery in three phases, except one;
a) Drying out period 1-10 days
b) Personality recovery takes months or years
c) Hangover
d) Physical rehabilitation over 10 days to 2 months.
12.The drinker has a tendency to come to grief over longer words owing to slight
incoordination, to slur speech, to lose control over finer movements. This
stage of Intoxication exists over any problem requiring clear thinking and
concentration.
a) Physical clues c) Excitement
b) Confusion d) Stupor
13.This is a rare condition which may occur while the individual is still drinking
heavily or upon stopping drinking. The main clinical features are vivid and
persistent unpleasant auditory or visual hallucinations occurring in a setting of
clear consciousness.
a) Alcohol withdrawal c) Insanity
b) Korsakoff Psychosis d) Alcoholic hallucinosis
14.How much intake of alcohol is recommended for women?

a) 2-3 units /day c) 14-35 units/week
b) 35 units/ week d) 59 units/week
15.Mr. Jose dela Cruz and his friend Mr. Juan Pakulkog decided to drink and
have fun at a very famous bar in Brgy. Liku-liko di Matagpuan City. Mr. Jose
dela Cruz. The next day they were not able to report to the office where they
work because both of them were in ail because the car which was driven by
Mr. Pakulkog crashed causing the death of a pregnant woman. This situation
is an example why _______________ is needed.
a) Criteria for alcohol dependence
b) Addictive process
c) Legal intervention
d) Alcohol abuse
16.Medical Treatment for Alcohol intoxication, except one;

a) Encourage another round of drink
b) Do unscheduled blood test
c) Encourage exercise
d) Teach the disease model of addiction
17.How much intake of alcohol is recommended for men?

a) 21-50 units/week c) 3-4 units /day
b) 50 units/week d) 14-35 units/ week
18.Mr. Smith is alcoholic, his wife decided to get him treated and send him to a
residential center which gives psychosocial treatment through emotional
support. Where should Mrs. Smith send her alcoholic husband?
a) Barangay Health Post c) Mental Hospital
b) Halfway houses d) Rural Health Centers
19.This therapy teaches the alcoholic other ways to reduce anxiety. This is
coupled with relaxation training and assertiveness training. What kind of
alcoholic therapy is this?
118
a) Behavior Therapy c) Massage therapy
b) Psychosocial therapy d) Physical therapy
20.Is it true that drinking alcohol can be beneficial?

a) Yes, because if you do vices you’ll be more accepted by the society.
b) Yes, because it gives you courage to say something which you can’t say
while sober.
c) Yes, because there is no beer and vodka inn heaven so you should enjoy
it now.
d) Yes, according to Ng Po, moderate use of alcohol is socially
acceptable and medically beneficial.
21.Why must the therapist involve the family and friends of the abuser in
treating his alcoholic problems?
a) Patients who are encouraged by family members remain in
treatment
b) Because family/ friends of the abuser can influence the alcoholic to stop
drinking alcohol
c) Because the family/friends does not pressure the abuser to go to therapy.
d) Because they’re alcoholics too.
22.Mr. Raj lose his wife 3 years ago, due to his love for her, he drinks 5 bottles
of red horse every day so that he may be able to sleep. What kind of drinker
is Mr. Raj?
a) Addicted drinker c) Social drinker
b) Heavy drinker d) Binge drinker
23.Ms. Cruz is always present during parties, during parties she drinks alcoholic
beverages with moderation. What kind of drinker is Ms. Cruz?
a) Social drinker c) Heavy drinker
b) Binge drinker d) Addicted drinker
24.This is a kind of medical treatment where alcoholic substances is removed

from the abuser’s home.
a) Teaching the disease model of addiction
b) Restricting access to addicting substances
c) Unscheduled alcohol blood test
d) Treating associated psychiatric problems
25.Why is alcohol abuse a medical problem?

a) Overpopulation is evident because of alcohol abuse.
b) Because it causes accident that makes the hospital crowded.
c) Because alcohol just like love is addictive.
d) Because alcohol can be toxic to the brain.
26.Mr. Chang is working far from home, very time that he comes home his wife
throw a party and this leads to drinking session with Mr. Chang’s friends.
They drink until every one of them can no longer remember their names.
What kind of drinker is Mr. Chang?
a) Dependent drinker c) Heavy drinker
b) Binge drinker d) Social drinker
27.Alcohol is eliminated through ______________.

a) Urine c) Liver enzymes
b) Breath d) All bodily routes of excretion
119
28.This is a rare condition characterized by a marked change in behavior
occurring within a few minutes of drinking a small amount of alcohol, one
which would not produce intoxication in most people. Behavior is often
aggressive.
a) Alcohol dependence c) Alcohol abuse
b) Pathological intoxication d) Addictive intoxication
29.Mr. Oh a gambler and an aggressive drinker has been to the jail many times
because of causing havoc when he is drunk. Despite all this, he continues to
drink spite of developing difficulties. What kind of drinker is Mr. Oh?
a) Heavy drinker c) Social drinker
b) Alcohol Abuser d) Addicted drinker
30.A group of organic liquids which have a particular chemical grouping (OH).
a) Glutathione c) Propanol
b) Ethanol d) Alcohol
120

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Table of Contents

2. Which of the terms below is defined as the application of scientific, technical

3. Which branch of medicine deals with the application of medical knowledge to

4. Who popularized scientific crime detection methods?

6. Which is the subspecialty of Pathology that focuses on the medico-legal

14. Expertise of a forensic scientist must include the following:

15. The Categories of death are as follows, choose the exception.

19. This is the function of Forensic Scientist trained in proper recognition,

21.These are scientists who provide service in postmortem cases, human

24.He undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a

26.He developed fundamental principles of document analysis was responsible

27.He described the application of scientific disciplines to the field of criminal

28.Branch of pathology that encompasses surgical pathology, autopsy pathology,

29.Branch of pathology that includes various laboratory departments such as

30.They perform a wide range of functions including serving as sexual assault

2. Which among the following refers to two or more physical locations of

3. Which of the following refers to a group of professional investigators each

7. It involves the use of scientific methods, physical evidence, deductive

8. Which of the following is not a function of photographer in a crime scene

9. Which of the following is not a purpose of physical evidence?

11.This search method is a variation of the strip search method-best used

13.Which of the following search method which is usually conducted by a

14.Which of the following activity provides the first opportunity to identify

15.Which of the following is the purpose of crime scene investigation?

16.It is the determination of physical or chemical identity of a substance with as

18.Which of the following characteristics refers to properties of evidence where

25.Which of the following is not a function of Evidence Recorder/Custodian?

29.Which of the following maybe an issue even in crime investigation, if the

30.In release of crime scene, minimum documentation should be made which

1. Potential contamination of physical evidence can occur in the following,

4. ___________ can be transported in non-breakable, leakproof containers

5. ___________ is usually collected in air-tight, clean metals cans.

6. ___________ can be collected in paper containers such as packets,

7. Each container containing an evidence should have the following, except

9. ________must be taken when transporting the evidence from the scene to a

11.The following are the procedures to obtain standard/reference samples from

12.The following are the procedure in Obtaining Elimination Samples, except

15. ____________ records the movement of the evidence.

19. _________ means proper collection and preservation of evidence.

20.The level of contamination risk to be expected is related to the type of

23. Each type of evidence has a __________ in an investigation.

24. Some evidence, particularly ___________, may be sensitive to absolute

30.Statement 1: Do not delay in getting evidence to the laboratory

1. This type of examination is used to determine if a person was in the presence

3. What id being analyzed in the Bank Security Dyes Examinations?

5. It is a type of forensic examination that uses evidence which typically consists

6. This is a type of forensic examination which can disclose the presence of

7. This type of forensic examination can establish trace-drug presence, identity

8. Which forensic examination that can determine the amount of pressure

11.This is a comparative examination of two metals to determine if they come

12.A forensic examination conducted to determine whether a commercial

13.What type of forensic examination that determines the origin of or the

14.It is said to be the best evidence to place an individual at a scene of a crime.

15.It is a type of forensic examination that typically analyzed in evidence

16.The type of examination that include the authenticity of the recordings,

18.This forensic examination includes examinations of the contents such as data

20.Forensic examination which determines whether the substances are highly

24.This can be used to lift impressions developed with fingerprint powders.

26.What is not included in the classes of poisons which is necessary to be

27.This type of examination is conducted to maximize the clarity of the video

28.This type of signatures are prepared by copying or drawing a genuine

29.This type of signatures are prepared by using a genuine signature as a

30.Signatures which are written in the forger’s normal handwriting with no