NEETPrep Test Series

Test # 3
1. The testes are situated outside the
abdominal cavity within a pouch called
scrotum. This is necessary as:
1. The scrotum can contain lengthy ducts
for the transfer of sperms
2. Scrotum helps in maintaining the low
temperature of the testes necessary for
spermatogenesis
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4. Ovaries are the primary sex organs in
human females because they:
I. Produce the female gamete
II. Produce the hormone that
regulates the development of
secondary sexual characters
1. Both I and II

3. Scrotum reduces the pressure around 2. Only I

testes necessary for spermatogenesis 3. Only II
4. Scrotum can store huge amounts of 4. None
sperms

5. Each ovary is connected to the pelvic

2. Leydig cells: wall and the uterus by:
1. Are present in seminiferous tubules and 1. Peritoneum
secrete androgens
2. Adipose tissue
2. Are present in seminiferous tubules and
help in maturation of sperms 3. Ligaments

3. Are present in interstitial space and 4. Areolar tissue

secrete androgens

4. Are present in interstitial space and 6. Which of the following is not a factor
help in maturation of sperms that has led to population explosion in India?
1. Decline in death rate

3. Which of the following is not a male

2. Decline in maternal mortality
accessory sex gland?
rate
1. Bulbourethral gland 3. Decline in Infant mortality rate
2. Testis
4. Decline in number of people in
3. Prostate reproducible age
4. Seminal vesicles
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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7. Lactational amenorrhea method of 10. Which of the following is not true
contraception is based on the fact that: about “saheli”?
1. Ovulation and menstrual flow 1. It is an oral contraceptive pill
does not occur post conception during 2. The basic preparation is
intense lactation steroidal
2. The cervix mucus becomes 3. It is a ‘once in a week’ pill
hostile to sperms after parturition
4. It has very few side effects and
during intense lactation
has high contraceptive value
3. Ovulation and menstrual flow
does not occur post partum during
intense lactation 11. The main drawback of the surgical
4. The endometrium is reabsorbed methods for birth control is:
rather than sloughed off during intense 1. They are poorly reversible
lactation 2. They are very expensive
3. Post operative rest period is
8. The main mechanism of action of Cu very long
released from Cu releasing IUD is: 4. The surgery carries great risks
1. Increased phagocytosis of of morbidity and mortality
sperms in uterus
2. Suppression of sperm motility 12. Intentional or voluntary termination of
3. Early degeneration of the pregnancy before full term is called:
released ovum 1. Contraception
4. Making uterus unsuitable for 2. Spontaneous abortion
implantation
3. Induced abortion
9. The combination pill is taken by a 4. Feticide
female:
13. Consider the given sexually
1. Daily for a period of 21 days transmitted infections:
beginning within first 5 days of
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes,
the menstrual cycle
Chlamydiasis, Genital warts,
2. On alternate days for a period Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis – B, HIV
of 21 days beginning within first
How many of these diseases are
5 days of the menstrual cycle
caused by bacteria?
3. Daily for a period of 21 days
1. 2
beginning after the end of the
menstrual flow 2. 3
4. Daily for a period of 7 days 3. 4
beginning after the end of the 4. 1
menstrual flow
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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14. In ‘test – tube baby’ procedure: 17. The correct sequence of mammalian
1. Fertilization is in-vitro but mammary gland ducts beginning from
embryo development is in-vivo alveoli would be:

2. Fertilization is in-vivo but 1. Mammary tubules → Mammary

embryo development is in-vitro ducts → Mammary ampulla →
3. Both fertilization and embryo Lactiferous ducts
development are in-vitro 2. Lactiferous ducts → Mammary
4. Both fertilization and embryo ducts → Mammary ampulla →
development are in-vivo Mammary tubules
15. What is transferred into the fallopian 3. Lactiferous ducts → Mammary
tube in ZIFT? ampulla → Mammary ducts →
1. Zygote only Mammary tubules
2. Embryos with more than 8 4. Mammary tubules → Mammary
blastomeres ampulla → Mammary ducts →
3. Zygote or embryos with up to 8 Lactiferous ducts
blastomeres
18. What causes the onset the puberty in
4. All of the above can be males?
transferred during ZIFT
1. Increase in secretion of
testosterone by testis
16. Consider the following two
2. Decrease in secretion of
statements:
testosterone by testis
I. The hymen is often torn during
the first coitus. 3. Increase in secretion of GnRH
II. The presence or absence of by hypothalamus
hymen is reliable indicator of virginity. 4. Decrease in secretion of GnRH
Of the two statements: by hypothalamus

1. Both I and II are correct and II 19. FSH:

explains I 1. Acts on Sertoli cells and
2. Both I and II are correct but II stimulates secretion of some factors
that help in spermiogenesis
does not explain I
2. Acts on Sertoli cells and inhibits
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
secretion of some factors that help in
4. Both I and II are incorrect spermiogenesis
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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3. Acts on Leydig cells and 23. What happens to the majority of the
stimulates secretion of some factors follicles during the phase from birth to
that help in spermiogenesis puberty?

4. Acts on Leydig cells and inhibits 1. They get invested by multiple

secretion of some factors that help in layers of granulosa cells
spermiogenesis
2. They enlarge in size and then
20. For normal fertility what percent of the get dormant
sperm in ejaculate must exhibit normal
3. They undergo atresia or
morphology?
degeneration
1. 20
4. They cluster together at one
2. 30 end of the ovary

3. 40 24. The division of primary oocyte results

4. 60 in:

21. The functions of male sex accessory 1. unequal cells – a smaller

ducts and glands are maintained by: haploid secondary oocyte and a larger
diploid polar body
1. Hypothalamic releasing
hormone 2. unequal cells – a larger haploid
secondary oocyte and a smaller haploid
2. Pituitary gonadotropins polar body
3. Adrenal cortex steroids 3. unequal cells – a smaller diploid
4. Testicular androgens secondary oocyte and a larger haploid
polar body
22. At the birth of the female child, the
follicles in her ovaries contain: 4. equal cells – a haploid
secondary oocyte and a haploid polar
1. Primary oocytes that have been body
arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle
25. What is released at ovulation?
2. Primary oocytes that have been
arrested at the Prophase I of Meiosis I 1. Primary oocyte arrested at
meiosis I
3. Secondary oocytes that have
been arrested at the Prophase I of 2. Primary oocyte arrested at
Meiosis I meiosis II

4. Secondary oocytes that have 3. Secondary oocyte arrested at

been arrested at the Metaphase II of meiosis I
Meiosis II 4. Secondary oocyte arrested at
meiosis II

26. The correct sequence of the various
phases of a typical menstrual cycle is:
1. Menstrual → Follicular →
Secretory → Ovulatory
2. Menstrual → Follicular →
Ovulatory → Secretory
3. Ovulatory → Follicular →
Secretory → Menstrual
4. Menstrual → Secretory →
Follicular → Ovulatory
27. During the follicular phase of the
menstrual cycle which of the following
occur?
I. The primary follicle grows and
becomes fully mature Graafian follicle
II. The endometrium of the uterus
regenerates through proliferation
1. Only I
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29. LH surge:
1. is a dramatic sudden increase in
the levels of LH during the early part of
menstrual cycle and is responsible for
ovulation
2. is a dramatic sudden decrease
in the levels of LH during the early part
of menstrual cycle and is responsible
for ovulation
3. is a dramatic sudden decrease
in the levels of LH during the mid
menstrual cycle and is responsible for
ovulation
4. is a dramatic sudden increase in
the levels of LH during the mid
menstrual cycle and is responsible for
ovulation
30. Corpus luteum secretes large amounts
of:

2. Only II 1. LH

3. I and II 2. FSH

4. None 3. Progesterone

28. Which hormone is mainly secreted by 4. Estrogen

the developing follicles during the
31. During pregnancy:
proliferative phase of the menstrual
cycle? 1. All events of menstrual cycle
stop and there is no menstruation
1. LH
2. Events of menstrual cycle
2. FSH continue but there is no menstruation
3. Progesterone 3. Events of menstrual cycle
4. Estrogen continue but there is menstruation only
in the first trimester

4. All events of menstrual cycle

stop and there is menstruation only in
the first trimester
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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32. In the absence of fertilization, corpus 35. What happens when a sperm enters
luteum: the cytoplasm of the secondary
oocyte?
1. Stops secreting progesterone
but increases the secretion of estrogen 1. Release of first polar body

2. Stops secreting estrogen but 2. Completion of meiosis II

increases the secretion of progesterone
3. Degeneration of polar bodies
3. Increases the secretion of both
progesterone and estrogen 4. Dissolution of zona pellucida

4. Degenerates 36. In humans, the sex of the baby is

determined:
33. Consider the following two
statements: 1. At the time of fertilization and
by the father
I. Not all copulations lead to
fertilization and pregnancy 2. At the time of fertilization and
II. Fertilization can occur if the by the mother
ovum and the sperms are 3. At the time of implantation and
simultaneously transported to the by the father
fallopian tubes.
1. Both I and II are correct and II 4. At the time of implantation and
correctly explains I by the mother

2. Both I and II are correct but II 37. Cleavage is:

does not explain I
1. Dissolution of the zona
3. I is correct but II is incorrect pellucida

4. I is incorrect but II is correct 2. A specialized mitotic division in

late fetus
34. What ensures that only one sperm can
fertilize the ovum? 3. A specialized meiotic division in
late fetus
1. Corona radiata
4. A specialized mitotic division in
2. Ground substance around ovum zygote and early embryo
3. Zona pellucida

4. Acrosome

38. Morula is a solid ball of cells during
early embryonic development and
consists of:
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42. The fetal body is covered with fine
hair, eyelashes separate, and
eyelashes are formed by the end of:

1. 4 – 8 cells 1. 20 weeks

2. 8 – 16 cells 2. 24 weeks

3. 28 weeks
3. 24 – 30 cells
4. 30 weeks
4. 60 – 72 cells
43. The signals of fetal ejection reflex
39. Which of the following hormones is originate from:
not secreted by the human placenta?
1. Maternal pituitary
1. hCG
2. Maternal hypothalamus
2. hGH
3. Fully developed fetus and
3. hPL placenta

4. Progesterone 4. Fetal pituitary

40. During pregnancy the levels of 44. To induce uterine contractions for
thyroxin: parturition which of the following
hormones can be injected to the
1. Increase several folds in female?
maternal blood
1. hCG
2. Increases several folds in fetal
2. Estrogen
blood
3. Progesterone
3. Decreases several folds in
maternal blood 4. Oxytocin

4. Decreases several folds in fetal 45. The milk produced during the initial
blood few days of lactation, called colostrum,
is essential for the new born as
41. The first movements of the fetus and colostrums contains:
the appearance of hair on the head are
1. Large amount of glucose
usually observed during:
2. Anti-infective antibodies
1. 2nd month
3. Fats
2. 3rd month

3. 5th month 4. Various hormones

4. 6th month
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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46. Read the statements and select option 52. Water is the medium for gamete transfer
representing correct statements w.r.t. in
stamen. 1. Algae only
A. The distal end of filament is attached 2. Algae and spermatophytes
to thalamus. 3. Most of the algae; all bryophytes and
B. A typical anther is dithecous and pteridophytes
bisporangiate. 4. Algae and fungi only
C. Connective is sterile vasculated tissue. 53. Inter-flowering period is
D. Microsporangia develop further and A. Juvenile phase
become pollen sacs. B. Associated with monocarpic plants
1. A & B 2. A & C C. Recovery phase
3. B & C 4. C & D D. Phase between two flowering in carrot
47. Clear-cut vegetative, reproductive and 1. A & B 2. B & C
senescent phase are not found in
3. C & D 4. ONLY C
1. Annual plants
54. Consider the given statements
2. Biennial plants
A. Asexual reproduction can occur
3. Perennial plants through unspecialised or specialised
4. More than one option is correct parts of parents
48. Most vital event for sexual reproduction is B. Sexual structures and events in sexual
1. Gametogenesis reproduction are fundamentally similar
2. Fertilisation in organisms
3. Embryogenesis 1. A is correct, B is incorrect
4. Gamete transfer 2. A is incorrect, B is correct
49. Water hyacinth is an aquatic plant, also 3. Both are correct
known as “Terror of Bengal” because of 4. Both are incorrect
1. Its ugly flower and odour 55. Outer three layers of anther wall perform
2. It drains oxygen from odour the function of
3. It can propagate sexually at a 1. Nourishment 2. Protection
phenomenal rate 3. Dehiscence 4. Both 2 & 3
4. Fast growth of the plant caused death of 56. Entry of pollen tube through integument
fishes and food scarcity is_____and found in______
1. Chalazogamy, Casuarina
50. Which of the following is not a post- 2. Porogamy, Lily
fertilisation event in flowering plants? 3. Mesogamy, Cucubits
1. Zygote  Zygospore 4. Acrogamy, Ulricularia
2. Zygote  Embryo 57. The genetic mechanism that prevents self
3. Ovule  Seed pollen (from the same flower or other
4. Nucellus  Perisperm flowers of the same plant) from fertilising
51. Offsprings are extremely vulnerable to the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination
predators theratening their survival upto or pollen tube growth in the pistil, called
adulthood in organisms having as
1. Asexual reproduction 1. Dioecy
2. External fertilisation 2. Dichogamy
3. Internal ferilisation 3. Monocliny
4. Vegetative reproduction 4. Self incompatibility
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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2. Sporopollenin
58. What will be the total number of meiosis 3. Cellulose
and mitosis division generations for 5 4. Pectin
typical embryo sac formation respectively 65. The largest cell of embryo sac is
from megaspore mother cells? 1. Antipodal 2. Synergid
1. 5, 5 2. 5, 15 3. Central cell 4. Egg
3. 5, 10 4. 2, 15 66. Read the statements carefully and select
59. Plants pollinated by wind do not show correct option.
1. Light and non-sticky pollen grains A. Pollen grains of carrot grass cause
2. Well-exposed stamens bronchial
3. Large-sized flowers afflictions
4. Presence of single ovule in each ovary B. Pollen viability is maximum in wheat
60. Genetically and functionally self- C. Pollen grains are well preserved as,
pollination is cent percent ensured with fossils due to pecto-cellulose
seed formation even in the absence of D. Pollen grain aperture is devoid of
pollinators by sporopollenin.
1. Bisexuality 2. Dicliny 1. A and D 2. A and B
3. Geitonogamy 4. Cleistogamy 3. B and C 4. A, B and D
61. Polygonum type embryo sac is 67. Which of the following statements for
1. Monosporic generative cell is incorrect?
2. Seven celled with one largest 1. Floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative
binucleate cell cell
3. Eight nucleated with 3 + 2 + 3 2. Has abundant food reserve
arrangement 3. Spindle-shaped
4. All are correct 4. Dense cytoplasm with a nucleus
62. Ovule generally differentiate a single in 68. Pollen grains are released from anther in
the ______region of the nucellus. 60% of angiosperms
1. Megaspore mother cell, micropylar A. With male gametes B. After first
2. Megaspore, micropylar mitosis
3. Megaspore, mother cell, chalazal C. At two-celled stage D. After second
4. Primary mitosis
63. How many statement(s) is/are correct for Mark the correct option
pollen grains? 1. B and C 2. A and D
a. Parthenium is a cause of bronhial 3. A and B 4. A and C
afflictions 69. How many of the given options are
b. Intine exhibits fascinating array of correct?
patterns and designs Column I Column II
c. Cytoplasm of pollen grain is s a. Pollen kitt Sticky pollen
urrounded by spermoderm b. Callase enzyme Secreted by
d. Generative cell is present when pollens endothecium
are shed in 40 percent plants. c. Polyploid layer of Tapetum
1. One 2. Two anther wall
3. Three 4. Four d. Pollen of Pollen allergy
64. Fossilization of pollen grains is helped by Parthenium
1. Compatible protein 1. Two 2. Three
 NEETPrep Test Series
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3. Four 4. One 74. Tapetum is:
70. Gynoecium of Michelia and Papaver is 1. Group of compactly arranged
similar in being polyploidy cells in centre of anther
1. Apocarpous 2. Innermost wall layer which nourishes
2. Syncarpous megaspore mother cells
3. Monocarpellary 3. The cells with more nucleus that do not
4. Polycarpellary help in dehiscence
71. Flowers of which of the following plants 4. Protecting, multilayered, cells with
should be pollinated within half an hour dense cytoplasm in surrounding of
for successful seed formation after anther sporogenous mass
dehiscence? 75. Find the correct statement with respect to
1. Pea 2. Potato given diagram:
3. Rice 4. Bean
72. Find incorrect statement:
1. A polycarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium
is found in Michelia
2. Many ovules are present in an ovary of
papaya and orchids
1. Sex organs are jacketed and unicellular
3. Yellowish, powdery pollen grains found
2. Fresh water green alga with female and
in Hibiscus
male cone
4. The more pistils may be fused together
3. Nucule and globule as female and male
to form monocarpellary syncarpous
sex organs respectively which are
gynoecium
exceptionally present in green algae
73. Match the column with respect to pollen
4. No sexual reproduction and shows
grain:
haplontic life cycle
Column I Column II
76. Asexual reproduction is the:
Abundant Reserve
a) Vegetative Cell Nucleus (i) Food & Irregular 1. Rapid and complex mode of
Nucleus reproduction
Spindle shaped 2. Rapid production of genetically variable
b) Germ Pore (ii) with dense populations
cytoplasm 3. Production of large number of
Where the individuals without alternation of
c) Exine (iii) Sporopollenin is generation
absent 4. Formation of genetically and
Variable Pattern &
(iv) morphologically similar individuals
design
from a zygote
Continuous layer
(v) made up of
Cellulose & pectin
1. a(iv), b(v), c(iii) 2. a(i), b(iii), c(v)
3. a(i), b(iii), c(iv) 4. a(iv), b(i), c(iii)
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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77. Select the correct statement: 80. Which are the common features of all
1. Life span is not necessarily correlated three plant parts shown in the figure?
with the size
2. The habitat of organism responsible for
how it reproduces asexually but not
sexually A.
3. In binary fission, equal division of
cytoplasm is followed by karyokinesis
4. Only the sexual mode of reproduction
is present in most of the animals
78. Which of the following points is incorrect B.
about sporopollenin?
1. It is one of the most resistant organic
material known
2. It can withstand high temperature and
strong acids and alkali
3. 2 enzymes that degrade sporopollenin C.
are known so far a. Presence of adventitious buds
4. Pollen grains are well preserved as b. Presence of nodes & internodes
fossils because of presence of c. Presence of adventitious shoot
sporopollenin d. Presence of buds in form of eyes
79. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. cell 1. Only A 2. Only B
division during gamete formation? 3. A & C Both 4. A, B, C & D
A. A haploid parent produces gametes by 81. Which of the following statement is not
meitotic division and meiosis does not associated with phenomenon of
occur in organism that are haploid. flowering?
B. Organism belong to bryophytes, 1. Decision for flowering takes place much
pteridophytes, gymnosperms & before actual flower appears.
angiosperms have diploid plant body 2. During flowering several structural and
and the reduction division occur at the hormonal changes takes place
time of gametogenesis.
3. During flowering differentiation takes
C. Gametes in all heterogametic species place
are of two types, male and female and
4. Flowering is independent of
are either haploid or diploid depending
environmental factors
upon the parent plant body.
82. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed
D. In diploid organisms, specialized cells
with each lobe having two theca i.e.
called meiocytes undergo meiosis and
dithecous. Theca is separated often by:
from gamete mother cells.
1. A longitudinal groove running
1. A & B 2. B & D
lengthwise
3. A, C & D 4. A, B, C & D
2. A longitudinal groove running breadth
wise
3. A transverse groove running breadth
wise
4. A transverse groove running lengthwise
 NEETPrep Test Series
Test # 3
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83. Following are four statement how many of 88. In biological world each organism has
them are correct? evolved its own mechanism of
a. The anther is a tetragonal structure, reproduction, which depends upon?
with four microsporangia at corners, two in 1. Habitat
each lobe. 2. Internal physiology
b. Microsporangia develops further and 3. Size of organism
become pollen sac. 4. Both 1 and 2
c. A typical microsporangia is surrounded 89. Further development of zygote depends
by four layered wall, 3-protective and 1 upon?
nutritional. 1. Type of life cycle followed by organism
d. The nutritive layer is densely 2. Environment in which that zygote
cytoplasmic and with more than one develops
nucleus
3. Behaviour of that organism
Options :
4. Both 1 and 2
1. 3 2. 4
90. Third integument which is edible is present
3. 2 4. 1 in:
84. When anther is young a group of 1. Castor 2. Litchi
compactly arranged homogenous cells are
3. Mango 4. Apple
present in centre it is known as
91.
1. Sporogenous tissue
2. Potential pollen mother cell
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Conjunctive tissue
85. Which of the following structure is not
associated with protection and dehiscence 92.
of anther?
1. Tapetum 2. Epidermis
3. Endothecium 4. Middle layer
86. Which of the following statement is not
correct for pollen grain? 93.
1. It represents male gametophyte
2. It is a spherical structure, about 25-50
micron in diameter
3. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients 94.
4. In family rosaceae, leguminoseae and
solanaceae pollen lose viability in 30
minute
87. In which of the following plant there will 95.
be no seed set even after pollination?
1. Plant with monoecious flower
2. Dioecious plant with staminate flowers
3. Dioecious plant with pistillate flowers
4. This statement is not true
 NEETPrep Test Series
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96. Given that bond energies of H-H and Cl- Cl 101.
are 430 kJ mol-1 and 240 kJ
mol-1 respectively and ΔHf for HCI is -90 kJ
mol-1. Bond enthalpy of HCl is:

1. 290 kJ mol-1

2. 380 kJ mol-1 102.

3. 425 kJ mol-1

4. 245 kJ mol-1

97.
103.

104.

105.

106.
98.

107.
99. The temperature of an ideal gas
expansion increases in an:-

1. Adiabatic expansion 108.

2. Isothermal expansion

3. Adiabatic compression
109.
4. Isothermal compression

100.
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110. 116. Entropy change of vaporisation at
constant pressure is given by:

1. ∆S(v)= ∆Hv/T
111.
2. ∆S(v)=∆Uv/T

3. ∆S(v)= ∆Hv/∆T

4. none of these
112.
117.

118.

113.

119.

114.

120.

115.
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121. The work done in an open vessel at 300 126.
K, when 112 g iron reacts with dil. HCl
is:

1. 1.2 kcal

2. 0.6 kcal
127.
3. 0.3 kcal

4. 0.2 kcal

122. 128.

123. In which case heat of neutralization is

greater than 13.7 K Cal? 129.

1. HF & NH4OH

2. HCl & NaOH

3. HI & KOH
130.
4. HF & NaOH

124.
131.

132.

125.
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133. 139.

134. The standard change is Gibbs energy

for the reaction,

H2O⇄H+ + OH- at 25°C is:

140.
1. 100 kJ 2. -90 kJ

3. 90 kJ 4. -100 kJ

135.

141.

136.

137.

142.

138.
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143. 148.

149.
144.

150.
145.

146.

151.

152.

147. 153.
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154. 159.

155.
160.

156.
161.

162.
157.

163.

158.
164.
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165. 171.

172.
166.

173.

167.

174.

168. 175.

176.

169.

177.

170.
 NEETPrep Test Series
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178.

179.

180.