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Question 1

Doctor’s Order: Tylenol supp 1 g pr q 6 hr prn temp > 101; Available: Tylenol supp 325 mg
(scored). How many supp will you administer?
A 2 supp
B 1 supp
C 3 supp
D 5 supp
Question 2
Doctor’s Order: Nafcillin 500 mg po pc; Available: Nafcillin 1 gm tab (scored). How many
tab will you administer per day?
A 2.5 tabs
B 2 tabs
C 1.5 tabs
D 1 tab
Question 3
Doctor’s Order: Synthroid 75 mcg po daily; Available: Synthroid 0.15 mg tab (scored). How
many tab will you administer?
A 1 tab
B 0.5 tab
C 2 tabs
D 1.5 tabs
Question 4
Doctor’s Order: Diuril 1.8 mg/kg po tid; Available: Diuril 12.5 mg caps. How many cap will
you administer for each dose to a 31 lb child?
A 2 caps
B 2.5 caps
C 3 caps
D 1.5 caps
Question 5
Doctor’s Order: Cleocin Oral Susp 600 mg po qid; Directions for mixing: Add 100 mL of
water and shake vigorously. Each 2.5 mL will contain 100 mg of Cleocin. How many tsp of
Cleocin will you administer?
A 3 tsp
B 5 tsp
C 3.5 tsp
D 1 tsp
Question 6
Doctor’s Order: Sulfasalazine Oral Susp 500 mg q 6 hr; Directions for mixing: Add 125 mL
of water and shake well. Each tbsp will yield 1.5 g of Sulfasalazine. How many mL will you
give?
A 5 ml
B 3 ml
C 4 ml
D 2 ml
Question 7
Your patient has had the following intake: 2 ½ cups of coffee (240 mL/cup), 11.5 oz of grape
juice, ¾ qt of milk, 320 mL of diet coke, 1 ¼ L of D5W IV and 2 oz of grits. What will you
record as the total intake in mL for this patient?
A 2,325 ml
B 3,265 ml
C 3,325 ml
D 2,235 ml
Question
8
Your patient has had the following intake: 8 oz glasses of iced tea, 4 oz cartons of grape juice,
¾ pt of ice cream, 32 oz of juice, 1 ½ L of D5W IV and 6 oz of cottage cheese. What will you
record as the total intake in mL for this patient?
A 3,357 ml
B 3,375 ml
C 3,915 ml
D 3,195 ml
Question 9
Doctor’s Order: Kanamycin 7.5 mg/kg IM q 12 hr; Available: Kanamycin 0.35 Gm/mL. How
many mL will you administer for each dose to a 157 lb patient?
A 2 ml
B 1 ml
C 2.5 ml
D 1.5 ml
Question 10
Doctor’s Order: Heparin 7,855 units Sub Q bid; Available: Heparin 10,000 units per ml. How
many mL will you administer?
A 0.79 ml
B 1.79 ml
C 0.17 ml
D 1.17 ml
Question 11
Doctor’s Order: Demerol 50 mg IVP q 6 hr prn pain; Available: Demerol 75 mg/
1.3mL. How many mL will you administer?
A 0.87 ml
B 1.87 ml
C 2 ml
D 2.87 ml
Question 12
Doctor’s Order: Streptomycin 1.75 mg/ lb IM q 12 hr; Available: Streptomycin 0.35 g / 2.3
mL. How many mL will you administer a day to a 59 Kg patient?
A 1.5 ml
B 2 ml
C 2.5 ml
D 3 ml
Question 13
Doctor’s Order: Bumex 0.8 mg IV bolus bid; Reconstitution instructions: Constitute to 1000
micrograms/3.1 mL with 4.8mL of 5% Dextrose Water for Injection. How many mL will you
administer?
A 2 ml
B 3.5 ml
C 3 ml
D 2.5 ml
Question 14
Doctor’s Order: Tazidime 0.3 g IM tid; Reconstitution instructions: For IM solution add 1.5
mL of diluent. Shake to dissolve. Provides an approximate volume of 1.8 mL (280
mg/mL). How many mL will you give?
A 1.9 ml
B 2 ml
C 3 ml
D 1.1 ml
Question 15
Doctor’s Order: Infuse 50 mg of Amphotericin B in 250 mL NS over 4 hr 15 min; Drop
factor: 12gtt/mL. What flow rate (mL/hr) will you set on the IV infusion pump?
A 11.8 ml/hr
B 58.8 ml/hr
C 14.1 ml/hr
D 60.2 ml/hr
Question
16
Doctor’s Order: 1 ½ L of NS to be infused over 7 hours; Drop factor: 15 gtt/mL. What flow
rate (mL/hr) will you set on the IV infusion pump?
A 53.6 ml/hr
B 214.3 ml/hr
C 35.7 ml/hr
D 142.9 ml/hr
Question 17
Doctor’s Order: Mandol 300 mg in 50 mL of D5W to infuse IVPB 15 minutes; Drop factor:
10 gtt/mL. How many mL/hr will you set on the IV infusion pump?
A 200 ml/hr
B 87.5 ml/hr
C 3.3 ml/hr
D 50 ml/hr
Question
18
Doctor’s Order: Infuse 1200 mL of 0.45% Normal Saline at 125 mL/hr; Drop Factor:
12gtt/min. How many gtt/min will you regulate the IV?
A 2 gtt/min
B 12 gtt/min
C 25 gtt/min
D 27 gtt/min
Question 19
Doctor’s Order: Rocephin 0.5 grams in 250 mL of D5W to infuse IVPB 45 minutes; Drop
Factor: 12gtt/min. How many gtt/ min will you regulate the IVPB?
A 6 gtt/min
B 30 gtt/min
C 67 gtt/min
D 87 gtt/min
Question
20
Doctor’s Order: ¼ L of D5W to infuse over 2 hr 45 min; Drop factor: 60 gtt/mL. How many
gtt/min will you regulate the IV?
A 91 gtt/min
B 96 gtt/min
C 125 gtt/min
D 142 gtt/min
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be
marked incorrect.
Question 1
Doctor’s Order: Minipress 3000 mcg po ac; Available: Minipress tabs 2 mg (scored). How
many tab will you administer in 24 hr?
A 1.5 tabs
B 3 tabs
C 4.5 tabs
D 5 tabs
Question 2
Doctor’s Order: Dilantin 0.75 gm po stat; Available: Dilantin 250 mg cap. How many cap
will you administer?
A 1 cap
B 2 caps
C 3 caps
D 4 caps
Question 3
Doctor’s Order: Digoxin 0.25 mg po daily; Available: Digoxin 125 mcg tabs (scored). How
many tab will you administer for this dose?
A 1 tabs
B 2 tabs
C 3 tabs
D 4 tabs
Question 4
Doctor’s Order: Klotrix 0.35 mEq/ lb po dissolved in 6 oz of oj at 8 am; Available: Klotrix 8
mEq/mL. How many mL of Klotrix will you add to the oj for a 20.5 Kg patient?
A 0.5 ml
B 1 ml
C 2 ml
D 2.5 ml
Question 5
Doctor’s Order: Megace Oral Suspension 160 mg po bid; Directions for mixing: Add 100 mL
of water and shake vigorously. Each 0.5 mL will contain 10.7 mg of Megace. How many tbsp
of Megace will you administer?
A 0.5 tbsp
B 2.5 tbsp
C 3.5 tbsp
D 5 tbsp
Question 6
Doctor’s Order: Vistaril Oral Susp 10 mg q 4 hr prn anxiety; Directions for mixing: Add 125
mL of water and shake well. Each tsp will yield 15 mg of Vistaril. How many mL will you
give?
A 1 ml
B 1.3 ml
C 3 ml
D 3.3 ml
Question 7
Your patient had the following intake: 2 1/2 bowls of broth (180 mL/bowl), 1 can of tomato
juice (4.5 oz/can ), 4 oz of cottage cheese, 1 ¾ L of NS IV and ½ pt of ice cream. What will
you record as the total intake in mL for this patient?
A 2,858 ml
B 2,585 ml
C 2,705 ml
D 2,505 ml
Question
8
Your patient has had the following intake: ½ cup of hot tea (240 mL/cup), 3/4 container of
grapefruit juice (4 oz/container), 3/4 qt of milk, 1 pt of water, 125 mL of D5W IV x 8 hr and
2 oz of fruit cocktail. What will you record as the total intake in mL for this patient?
A 2,460 ml
B 2,640 ml
C 2,520 ml
D 2,250 ml
Question 9
Doctor’s Order: Tobramycin 1.25mg/Kg IM q 12 hr; Available: Tobramycin 0.2 g/mL. How
many mL will you administer to a 183 lb patient for each dose?
A 0.52 ml
B 1.52 ml
C 2 ml
D 4 ml
Question 10
Doctor’s Order: Heparin 4,390 units Sub Q bid; Available: Heparin 5,000 USP units per ml
in 10 ml. How many mL will you administer?
A 8.8 ml
B 0.88 ml
C 1.88 ml
D 0.18 ml
Question 11
Doctor’s Order: Penicillin G 223,500 units IM q 4 hr; Available: Penicillin G 500,000 units
/2.5 mL. How many mL will you administer?
A 0.4 ml
B 2 ml
C 1.1 ml
D 2.4 ml
Question 12
Doctor’s Order: Amikacin 5 mg/ lb IM q 12 hr; Available: Amikacin 0.9 gm/ 2 mL. How
many mL will you administer to a 72.7 Kg patient?
A 0.9 ml
B 3 ml
C 5 ml
D 1.8 ml
Question 13
Doctor’s Order: Fentanyl 0.05 mg IV bolus; Reconstitution instructions: Constitute to
Fentanyl 100 micrograms/2.3 mL with 2.4 mL of 5% Dextrose Water for Injection. How
many mL will you administer?
A 0.01 ml
B 0.1 ml
C 1 ml
D 1.2 ml
Question 14
Doctor’s Order: Ancef 0.4253 Gm IM bid; Reconstitution instructions: For IM solution add
1.25 mL of diluent. Shake to dissolve. Provides an approximate volume of 1.6 mL (240
mg/mL). How many mL will you give?
A 0.8 ml
B 1.8 ml
C 2.2 ml
D 3.2 ml
Question 15
Doctor’s Order: Infuse 250 mL of platelets IV over 2 hr 30 min; Drop factor: 10 gtt/mL.
What flow rate (mL/hr) will you set on the IV infusion pump?
A 10 ml/hr
B 100 ml/hr
C 50 ml/hr
D 150 ml/hr
Question
16
Doctor’s Order: 1 ¼ L of D5 with Ringer’s lactate to be infused over 18 hours; Drop factor:
20 gtt/mL. What flow rate (mL/hr) will you set on the IV infusion pump?
A 1.2 ml/hr
B 23.1 ml/hr
C 69.4 ml/hr
D 20 ml/hr
Question 17
Doctor’s Order: Zantac 150 mg in 175 mL of D5W to infuse IVPB over 45 minutes; Drop
factor: 12 gtt/mL. How many mL/hr will you set on the IV infusion pump?
A 7.2 ml/hr
B 233.3 ml/hr
C 86.7 ml/hr
D 433.3 ml/hr
Question
18
Doctor’s Order: Infuse 2750 mL of 0.45% Normal Saline at 150 mL/hr; Drop Factor: 15
gtt/mL. How many gt/mL will you regulate the IV?
A 46 gtt/min
B 38 gtt/min
C 48 gtt/min
D 36 gtt/min
Question 19
Doctor’s Order: Cefoxin 0.5 Gm in 275 mL of D5W to infuse IVPB over 2 hours; Drop
Factor: 60 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min will you regulate the IV?
A 200 gtt/min
B 150 gtt/min
C 257 gtt/min
D 138 gtt/min
Question
20
Doctor’s Order: ¾ L of D5W to infuse over 5 hr 45 min; Drop factor: 60 gtt/mL. How many
gtt/min will you regulate the IV?
A 12.5 gtt/min
B 75.5 gtt/min
C 375/ gtt/min
D 130 gtt/min
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be
marked incorrect.
Question 1
Doctor’s order: Amoxicillin 0.25 g p.o. every 8 hours; Available: Amoxicillin 125 mg tablets.
How many tablets will the nurse give per dose?
A 0.5 tab
B 1 tab
C 1.5 tabs
D 2 tabs
Question 2
Doctor’s order: Zofran 8 mg p.o. t.i.d.; Available: Zofran in a 100 ml bottle labeled 4 mg/tsp.;
How many ml will the nurse administer for each dose?
A 1.25 ml
B 6.25 ml
C 8 ml
D 10 ml
Question 3
Doctor’s order: Morphine gr 1/10; Available: Morphine 10 mg/ml. How many ml will the
nurse give?
A 0.6 ml
B 1 ml
C 6 ml
D 10 ml
Question 4
Give Fortaz mg/kg/day p.o. 50 mg/kg p.o. t.i.d. to a child who weighs 25.5 kg. Fortaz is
available in an oral suspension labeled 100 mg/ml. How many ml would the nurse administer
per dose?
A 0.5 ml
B 0. 8 ml
C 10.8 ml
D 12.8 ml
Question 5
Give Ceclor 45 mg/kg/day p.o. in 3 divided doses for a patient who weighs 66 pounds. A 75
ml stock medication is labeled Ceclor 125 mg/ml. How many ml would the nurse administer
per dose?
A 0.5 ml
B 0.8 ml
C 3.6 ml
D 9 ml
Question 6
Give Biaxin for a child whose BSA is 0.55 m2. The usual adult dose is 500 mg. Biaxin is
available in an oral suspension. The 100ml bottle is labeled 50 mg/ml. How many ml would
the nurse give per dose?
A 3.2 ml
B 1.6 ml
C 1.2 ml
D 5 ml
Question 7
Give Phenergan for a child whose BSA is 1.2 m2. The usual adult dose is 25 mg. How many
milligrams would the nurse administer for the dose?
A 12 mg
17.6
B
mg
20.8
C
mg
D 25 mg
Question 8
LR 125 ml/hr via gravity flow using tubing calibrated at 15 gtt/ml. Calculate the flow rate.
A 8 gtt/min
B 15 gtt/min
C 25 gtt/min
D 31 gtt/min
Question 9
One liter NS to infuse over 24 hours using a micro drip (gravity flow). Calculate the flow rate.
A 42 gtt/min
B 28 gtt/min
C 12 gtt/min
D 10 gtt/min
Question
10
At the change of shift you notice 200 ml left to count in the I.V. bag. The I.V. is infusing at
80 ml/hr. How much longer will the I.V. run?
A 1 hr
B 1 hr and 30 mins
C 2 hrs
D 2 hrs and 30 mins
Question 11
Keflin 2 g in 100 ml D5W IVPB over 20 minutes. The I.V. tubing is 15 gtt/ml. Calculate the
flow rate.
A 150 gtt/min
B 100 gtt/min
C 75 gtt/min
D 76 gtt/min
Question
12
The physician writes an order for Heparin 900 units/hour. The label on the I.V. bag reads:
Heparin 10,000 units in 500 ml D5W. How many ml/hr will deliver the correct dose?
A 11 ml/hr
B 45 ml/hr
C 50 ml/hr
D 55 ml/hr
Question 13
Administer Heparin 1,000 units/hr from an I.V. bag mixed 40,000 units in 1 L D5W. How
many ml/hr will deliver the correct amount of Heparin?
A 40 ml/hr
B 30 ml/hr
C 25 ml/hr
D 15 ml/hr
Question 14
The patient’s Heparin is infusing at 28 ml/hr on an infusion pump. The bag of fluid is mixed
20,000 units of Heparin in 500 ml D5W. What hourly dose of heparin is the patient receiving?
A 1,120 units/hr
B 1,210 units/hr
C 2,120 units/hr
D 2,210 units/hr
Question 15
The patient’s heparin drip is infusing at 11 ml/hr on an infusion pump. The bag of fluid is
mixed 25,000 units of Heparin in 250 ml D5W. What hourly dose of Heparin is the patient
receiving?
A 2,500 units/hr
B 2,000 units/hr
C 1,000 units/hr
D 1,100 units/hr
Question
16
Give Regular insulin by continuous I.V. infusion at 20 units/hr. The solution is 250 ml NS
with 100 units of Regular insulin. What rate on the infusion pump will deliver the correct
dose?
A 5 ml/hr
B 8 ml/hr
C 50 ml/hr
D 100 ml/hr
Question 17
Administer a Theophylline drip at 40 mg/hr The solution is 250 ml D5W + Theophylline 500
mg. What rate on the infusion pump will deliver the correct dose?
A 20 ml/hr
B 40 ml/hr
C 80 ml/hr
D 100 ml/hr
Question
18
Give Tridil 15 mcg/min. Tridil is mixed 50 mg in 500 ml D5W. What rate on the infusion
pump will deliver the correct dose?
A 150 ml/hr
B 15 ml/hr
C 90 ml/hr
D 9 ml/hr
Question 19
Give propofol 10 mcg/kg/minute. The infusion is mixed propofol 250 mg in 250 ml D5W.
The patient weighs 168 pounds. What rate on the infusion pump will deliver the correct dose?
A 10 ml/hr
B 26 ml/hr
C 46 ml/hr
D 50 ml/hr
Question 20
Give Nitroprusside 5 mcg/kg/minute via continuous infusion for a patient weighing 205 lbs.
Nitroprusside is available in a solution of 200 mg in 250 ml D5W. What rate on the infusion
pump will deliver the correct dose?
A 25 ml/hr
B 35 ml/hr
C 45 ml/hr
D 50 ml/hr
Question 21
Tridil is infusing at 15 ml/hr on an infusion pump. The drug is mixed 50 mg in 500 ml D5W.
How many mcg/minute is the patient receiving?
A 25 mcg/min
B 35 mcg/min
C 45 mcg/min
D 50 mcg/min
Question
22
A lidocaine drip is infusing at 30 ml/hr on an infusion device. The drug is mixed 2 g in 500
ml D5W. How many mg/minute is the patient receiving?
A 5 mg/min
B 4 mg/min
C 3 mg/min
D 2 mg/min
Question 23
Aminophylline is infusing at 30 ml/hr. The drug is mixed 250 mg in 500 ml D5W. How
many mg/hr is the patient receiving?
A 30 mg/hr
B 25 mg/hr
C 20 mg/hr
D 15 mg/hr
Question
1
The cardiac patient is to receive Cardizem 5 mg IVP. The vial contains 10 mg/2 ml. How
many ml will you give?
A 10 ml
B 5 ml
C 2 ml
D 1 ml
Question 2
The patient is to take Aspirin gr. X. The bottle contains Aspirin 300 mg tablets. How many
tablets should he take?
A 0.5 tablet
B 1 tablet
C 1.5 tablets
D 2 tablets
Question 3
Digoxin 125 mcg is ordered IVP every a.m. The vial contains 0.5 mg in 2 ml. How many ml
will you give?
A 0.2 ml
B 0.5 ml
C 1.5 ml
D 2 ml
Question 4
The pre-op patient is ordered Atropine gr. 1/150 IM. The vial contains Atropine 0.4 mg in 1
ml. How much will you give?
A 1 ml
B 1.5 ml
C 2 ml
D 2.5 ml
Question 5
The patient is to receive Heparin 1500 units/hr by IV infusion. The IV contains 25,000 units
of Heparin in 250 ml of D5W. At what rate should you set the IV pump (ml/hr)?
A 15 ml/hr
B 16 ml/hr
C 17 ml/hr
D 20 ml/hr
Question
6
The IV with Nitroglycerin is infusing at 6 ml/hr. The concentration of the IV is 50 mg in 250
ml of D5W. How many mg/hr is the patient receiving?
A 1.2 mg/hr
B 5.2 mg/hr
C 25 mg/hr
D 30 mg/hr
Question 7
Situation: The patient is ordered an IV of 1000 ml of Normal Saline over 8 hours.At what rate
would you set the IV pump (ml/hr)?
A 125 ml/hr
B 250 ml/hr
C 100 ml/hr
D 2 ml/hr
Question
8
How many drops per minute would you set the gravity IV tubing with a drip factor of 15
drops/ml?
A 35 gtts/min
B 19 gtts/min
C 31 gtts/min
D 15 gtts/min
Question 9
If the current IV bag was started at 1:00, what time would you hang the next bag?
A 5:00
B 7:00
C 9:00
D 11:00
Question 10
The patient with an infection is to receive an IVPB of Ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml over 30
minutes. At what rate would you set the pump?
A 300 ml/hr
B 200 ml/hr
C 100 ml/hr
D 50 ml/hr
Question 11
An IVPB of Vancomycin 1 gram in 250 ml is to infuse over 90 minutes. At what rate should
the pump be set?
A 28 ml/hr
B 90 ml/hr
C 167 ml/hr
D 270 ml/hr
Question
12
The patient is ordered Fortaz 250 mg IM. The vial contains 500 mg powder with directions to
add 1.5 ml of sterile water for a total volume of 1.8 ml. How many ml will you administer?
A 5 ml
B 3.6 ml
C 2 ml
D 0.9 ml
Question 13
The physician ordered an IV of Dobutamine at 5 mcg/Kg/min. The patient weighs 198 lbs.
The IV solution is 500 mg Dobutamine in 250 ml D5W. How many ml/hr should the pump
be set?
A 2.5 ml/hr
B 5 ml/hr
C 10 ml/hr
D 14 ml/hr
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be
marked incorrect.
Question 1
You need to administer prochlorperazine (Compazine) 10 mg IM to a nauseated patient. You
have on hand Compazine 5 mg/mL. How should you prepare the correct dose?
A 5 mL
B 2 mL
C 1 mL
D 0.5 mL
Question 2
An order reads furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. You have on hand Lasix 20 mg/2 mL.
How should you prepare the correct dose?
A 4 mL
B 2 mL
C 1 mL
D 0.5 mL
Question 3
You need to administer 15 mg of morphine IM. It is supplied as gr 1/6 per mL. How should
you prepare the correct dose?
A 4.5 mL
B 4 mL
C 2 mL
D 1.5 mL
Question 4
You have on hand diazepam (Valium) 5 mg/mL. You need to administer 8 mg IV push stat.
to a patient having a seizure. How much should you draw into the syringe?
A 0.6 mL
B 1 mL
C 1.6 mL
D 2 mL
Question 5
A patient has an aminophylline IV drip ordered for acute asthma, to run at 20 mL/hour. No
IV infusion controller is available right now. How many drops per minute will be required if
microdrip tubing is used?
A 30 gtts/min
B 20 gtts/min
C 15 gtts/min
D 10 gtts/min
Question
6
A safe maintenance dose of aminophylline is 0.36 mg/kg/hour. It is supplied as 100 mg/100
mL. Your patient is 130 pounds and is receiving 20 mL/hour. Is the dose safe?
A patient is receiving 20 mg/hour; yes, dose is safe
B patient is receiving 20 mg/hour; yes, dose is not safe
C patient is receiving 40 mg/hour; yes, dose is safe
D patient is receiving 40 mg/hour; yes, dose is not safe
Question 7
Your patient is to receive metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor) 25 mg/day PO. The pharmacist
dispenses 50 mg scored tablets. How many tablets should your patient take each day?
A 1 tab
B 1/2 tab
C 2 tabs
D 2 1/2 tabs
Question
8
A patient has an IV piggyback of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 500 mg in 50 mL D5W to run over
20 minutes. The tubing has a drip factor of 10. How many drops per minute should be
administered?
A 25 gtts/min
B 20 gtts/min
C 10 gtts/min
D 4 gtts/min
Question 9
A home care patient must restrict fluid intake to 2 L every 24 hours. He has only household
measuring cups. How many cups may he drink daily and not exceed the 2 L limit?
A 12 cups
B 12.3 or 12 and 1/3 cups
C 8 cups
D 8.3 or 8 and 1/3 cups
Question 10
A patient has an IV piggyback of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 500 mg in 50 mL D5W to run over
20 minutes. If you use an IV infusion controller, how many milliliters per hour will you set?
A 50 mL/hour
B 150 mL/hour
C 200 mL/hour
D 17 mL/hour
Question 11
You are providing home care for a patient who needs 15 mL of magnesium
hydroxide/aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) PO. She has only standard measuring spoons in the
house. How do you instruct her to take her dose?
A 2 Tablespoon
B 1.5 Tablespoon
C 1 Tablespoon
D 2.5 Tablespoon
Question
12
Your order reads penicillin 1.2 million units IM daily. You have penicillin 500,000 units/mL.
How should you prepare the correct dose?
A 0.4 mL
B 2.4 mL
C 3 mL
D 4 mL
Question 13
Your order reads labetalol 40 mg IV push every 10 minutes until blood pressure is lower than
140/90 mm Hg. You have labetalol 5 mg/mL available. How should you prepare the correct
dose?
A 0.1 mL
B 4 mL
C 8 mL
D 8.5 mL
Question 14
You have on hand ergocalciferol liquid 8000 units/2 mL. Your order reads ergocalciferol
225,000 units PO daily. How should you prepare the correct dose?
A 0.07 mL
B 14 mL
C 28 mL
D 56 mL
Question 15
Your order reads ergocalciferol 225,000 units PO daily. You have on hand ergocalciferol in
50,000 unit tablets. How many do you administer?
A 4.5 tablets
B 3.5 tablets
C 2 tablets
D 0.5 tablet
Question
16
Your order reads cortisone 15 mg PO every morning. You have on hand cortisone 10 mg
tablets. How should you prepare the correct dose?
A 3 tablets
B 2 tablets
C 1.5 tablets
D 1 tablet
Question 17
Your order reads ceftizoxime 1 g IV piggyback every 8 hours. The pharmacy supplies it in
100 mL D5W. You need to infuse it over 30 minutes. With a drop factor of 10, what drip rate
will you set?
A 12 gtts/min
B 15 gtts/min
C 30 gtts/min
D 33 gtts/min
Question
18
Your order reads Zosyn 4.5 g in 100 mL D5W IV over 1 hour. You have microdrip tubing.
What drip rate will you set?
A 100 gtts/min
B 60 gtts/min
C 28 gtts/min
D 8 gtts/min
Question 19
Your order reads levothyroxine 100 mg PO every morning. You have levothyroxine 0.05 mg
tablets. How many tablets should you administer?
A 5 tablets
B 3 tablets
C 2 tablets
D 1.5 tablets
Question
20
You have on hand morphine 500 mg in 500 mL normal saline. You need to administer
morphine 80 mg/hour in a continuous IV infusion to a patient with terminal cancer pain. How
many milliliters per hour will you set on the controller?
A 100 mL/hour
B 80 mL/hour
C 50 mL/hour
D 30 mL/hour
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be
marked incorrect.
Question 1
Walter, a teenage patient is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol)
overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in
which of the following organs?
A Lungs
B Liver
C Kidney
D Adrenal Glands
Question
2
A contraindication for topical corticosteroid usage in a male patient with atopic dermatitis
(eczema) is:
A Parasite infection
B Viral infection
C Bacterial infection
D Spirochete infection
Question 3
In infants and children, the side effects of first generation over-the-counter (OTC)
antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax) include:
A Reye’s syndrome
B Cholinergic effects
C Paradoxical CNS stimulation
D Nausea and diarrhea
Question 4
Reye’s syndrome, a potentially fatal illness associated with liver failure and encephalopathy
is associated with the administration of which over-the-counter (OTC) medication?
A acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B ibuprofen (Motrin)
C aspirin
D brompheniramine/pseudoephedrine (Dimetapp)
Question 5
The nurse is aware that the patients who are allergic to intravenous contrast media are usually
also allergic to which of the following products?
A Eggs
B Shellfish
C Soy
D acidic fruits
Question
6
A 13-month-old child recently arrived in the United States from a foreign country with his
parents and needs childhood immunizations. His mother reports that he is allergic to eggs.
Upon further questioning, you determine that the allergy to eggs is anaphylaxis. Which of the
following vaccines should he not receive?
A Hepatitis B
B inactivated polio
C diphtheria, acellular pertussis, tetanus (DTaP)
D mumps, measles, rubella (MMR)
Question 7
The cell and Coombs classification system categorizes allergic reactions and is useful in
describing and classifying patient reactions to drugs. Type I reactions are immediate
hypersensitivity reactions and are mediated by:
A immunoglobulin E (IgE)
B immunoglobulin G (IgG)
C immunoglobulin A (IgA)
D immunoglobulin M (IgM)
Question 8
Drugs can cause adverse events in a patient. Bone marrow toxicity is one of the most frequent
types of drug-induced toxicity. The most serious form of bone marrow toxicity is:
A aplastic anemia
B thrombocytosis
C leukocytosis
D granulocytosis
Question 9
Serious adverse effects of oral contraceptives include:
A Increase in skin oil followed by acne
B Headache and dizziness
C Early or mid-cycle bleeding
D Thromboembolic complications
Question 10
The most serious adverse effect of Alprostadil (Prostin VR pediatric injection) administration
in neonates is:
A Apnea
B Bleeding tendencies
C Hypotension
D Pyrexia
Question 11
Mandy, a patient calls the clinic today because he is taking atorvastatin (Lipitor) to treat his
high cholesterol and is having pain in both of his legs. You instruct him to:
A Stop taking the drug and make an appointment to be seen next week
B Continue taking the drug and make an appointment to be seen next week
C Stop taking the drug and come to the clinic to be seen today
D Walk for at least 30 minutes and call if symptoms continue
Question 12
Which of the following adverse effects is associated with levothyroxine (Synthroid) therapy?
A Tachycardia
B Bradycardia
C Hypotension
D Constipation
Question 13
Which of the following adverse effects is specific to the biguanide diabetic drug metformin
(Glucophage) therapy?
A Hypoglycemia
B GI distress
C Lactic acidosis
D Somnolence
Question
14
The most serious adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is:
A Seizures
B Hyperpyrexia
C Metabolic acidosis
D Cardiac arrhythmias
Question 15
The nurse is aware that the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before
and after the administration of blood to a patient is:
A 0.9 percent sodium chloride
B 5 percent dextrose in water solution
C Sterile water
D Heparin sodium
Question 16
Cris asks the nurse whether all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to
prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always require cross-matching?
A packed red blood cells
B platelets
C plasma
D granulocytes
Question 17
A month after receiving a blood transfusion an immunocompromised male patient develops
fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse would suspect this patient has:
A Nothing related to the blood transfusion
B Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
C Myelosuppression
D An allergic response to a recent medication
Question 18
Jonas comes into the local blood donation center. He says he is here to donate platelets only
today. The nurse knows this process is called:
A Directed donation
B Autologous donation
C Allogeneic donation
D Apheresis
Question 19
Nurse Bryan knows that the age group that uses the most units of blood and blood products is:
A Premature infants
B Children ages 1-20 years
C Adults ages 21-64 years
D The elderly above age 65 years
Question 20
A child is admitted with a serious infection. After two days of antibiotics, he is severely
neutropenic. The physician orders granulocyte transfusions for the next four days. The
mother asks the nurse why? The nurse responds:
A “This is the only treatment left to offer the child.”
B “This therapy is fast and reliable in treating infections in children.”
C “The physician will have to explain his rationale to you.”
“Granulocyte transfusions replenish the low white blood cells until the body can produce
D
its own.”
Question 21
A neighbor tells nurse Maureen he has to have surgery and is reluctant to have any blood
product transfusions because of a fear of contracting an infection. He asks the nurse what are
his options. The nurse teaches the person that the safest blood product is:
A An allogeneic product
B A directed donation product
C An autologous product
D A cross-matched product
Question 22
A severely immunocompromised female patient requires a blood transfusion. To prevent
GVHD, the physician will order:
A Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl)
B The transfusion to be administered slowly over several hours
C Irradiation of the donor blood
D Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Question 23
Louie who is to receive a blood transfusion asks the nurse what is the most common type of
infection he could receive from the transfusion. The nurse teaches him that approximately 1
in 250,000 patients contract:
A Human immunodeficiency disease (HIV)
B Hepatitis C infection
C Hepatitis B infection
D West Nile viral disease
Question 24
A male patient with blood type AB, Rh factor positive needs a blood transfusion. The
Transfusion Service (blood bank) sends type O, Rh factor negative blood to the unit for the
nurse to infuse into this patient. The nurse knows that:
A This donor blood is incompatible with the patient’s blood
Pre-medicating the patient with diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) and
B
acetaminophen (Tylenol) will prevent any transfusion reactions or side effects.
C This is a compatible match.
The patient is at minimal risk receiving this product since it is the first time he has been
D
transfused with type O, Rh negative blood.
Question 25
Dr. Rodriguez orders 250 milliliters of packed red blood cells (RBC) for a patient. This
therapy is administered for treatment of:
A Thrombocytopenia
B Anemia
C Leukopenia
D Hypoalbuminemia
Question
26
A female patient needs a whole blood transfusion. In order for transfusion services (the blood
bank) to prepare the correct product a sample of the patient’s blood must be obtained for:
A A complete blood count and differential.
B A blood type and crossmatch.
C A blood culture and sensitivity.
D A blood type and antibody screen.
Question 27
A male patient needs to receive a unit of whole blood. What type of intravenous (IV) device
should the nurse consider starting?
A A small catheter to decrease patient discomfort
B The type of IV device the patient has had in the past, which worked well
C A large bore catheter
D The type of device the physician prefers
Question 28
Dr. Smith orders a gram of human salt poor albumin product for a patient. The product is
available in a 50 milliliter vial with a concentration of 25 percent. What dosage will the nurse
administer?
A The nurse should use the entire 50 milliliter vial.
B The nurse should determine the volume to administer from the physician.
C This concentration of product should not be used.
D The nurse will administer 4 milliliters.
Question 29
Central venous access devices (CVADs) are frequently utilized to administer chemotherapy.
What is a distinct advantage of using the CVAD for chemotherapeutic agent administration?
A CVADs are less expensive than a peripheral IV.
B Once a week administration is possible.
C Caustic agents in small veins can be avoided
D The patient or his family can administer the drug at home
Question 30
A female patient’s central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the
physician order antibiotics to be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV
line?
A To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
B To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
C To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
D To attempt to sterilize the catheter and prevent having to remove it
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