Engineering Discipline 1 PDF

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ENGINEERING DISCIPLINE - REPORTS
OVERALL ANALYSIS COMPARISON REPORT SOLUTION REPORT
ALL(150) CORRECT(0) INCORRECT(0) SKIPPED(150)
Gaurav Verma
Course: GATE+ESE
Mechanical Engineering (ME)
Q. 1
The bulk modulus of elasticity

HOME FAQ Have any Doubt ?
MY TEST A
is independent of pressure and viscosity
BOOKMARKS
MY PROFILE B
increases with pressure
Correct Option
REPORTS
Solution :
BUY PACKAGE
(b)

ASK AN EXPERT
C
has the dimensions of (1/p)
D
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D
is larger when the fluid is more compressible
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 2
If the pressure outside the droplet of water of diameter 0.04 mm is 10.275 N/cm2. Then the pressure withi
the droplet, if surface tension is given as 0.0725 N/m of water, will be :
FAQ Have any Doubt ?
A
6.25 N/cm2
B
8.325 N/cm2
C
11 N/cm2
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
14 N/cm2
14 N/cm
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 3
Consider the following statements:

1. Poise and stokes are the units of viscosity and kinematic viscosity respectively.
2. Compressibility is the reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity.
3. In general, viscosity of liquids increases and that of gases decreases with drop in temperature.
4. The rate of strain varies linearly with shear stress in case of milk.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 4
C
1, 2 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Milk is non-newtonian fluid.
D
2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 4
A Pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of water using a differential gauge which contains a manometric
fluid of relative density 1.3. The deflection of the gauge fluid, when water flows at a velocity of 1.5 m/s will
be:
A
382.6 mm
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
350.5 mm
C
333.33 mm
D
311 46 mm
311.46 mm
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 5
The tank, as shown in below figure, is closed at top and contains air at a pressure PA. Value of PA for the
manometer readings shown will be

A
+3.577 kPa
B
–3.577 kPa
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
From figure, it can be seen that water height in tank is 50 cm.

C
+4.557 kPa
D
–4.557 kPa
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 6
The parameters which determines the friction for turbulent flow in rough pipe are:

A
Froude number and relative roughness
B
Froude number and Mach number
C
Relative roughness only
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
Mach number and relative roughness
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 7

1. For the frictionless flow along a streamline of an incompressible fluid, the relationship among the
pressure, elevation and velocity is given by the Euler equation.
2. Integration of the Euler equation for steady, incompressible fluid flow without friction, yields Bernoulli
equation.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 8
For laminar flow through the pipe, what will be the distance from the pipe wall at which velocity is half of the
mean velocity?
A
0.707 R
B
0.293 R
C
0.366 R
D
0.134 R
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 9
What will be the propelling force acting on a ship which takes water through inlet orifices which are at right
angles to the direction of motion of ship, and discharges at the back through orifices having effective areas
of 0.04 m2The water is flowing at the rate of 1000 litres/s and ship is moving with a velocity of 8 m/s.
A
17 kN
Correct Option
Solution :
Solution :
(a)
Velocity of jet through orifice relative to water

B
20 kN
C
24 kN
D
30 kN
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 10
In a Francis turbine velocity of flow through the runner is constant and vanes are radial at inlet. If the guide
blade angle at inlet is 60°, then hydraulic efficiency of the above turbine will be:
A
88.88%
B
72.73%
C
56.34%
D
40%
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
For the given condition, efficiency of the Francis turbine is given by:

QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 11
Consider the following statements about reciprocating pumps:

1. A reciprocating pump is a positive displacement pump.
2. One way valve is provided only in suction side.
3. Multicylinder pumping is employed to get more steady flow in the delivery pipe.
4. The area of indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump, represents the work done by the pump.
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
One way valves are provided on suction as well as delivery sides of the piston to provide help in
pumping action.
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 12
Surge tanks are installed in Pelton turbine stations because:

A
It prevents cavitation in turbines
B
It prevents hydraulic jump
C
It prevents the surges at the transformer
D
It prevents water hammer due to sudden reduction in load
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 13
Match List-I (Stress induced) with List-II (Situation/location) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:

A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 14
A solid shaft of diameter d and length L is fixed at both ends A torque T is applied at a distance L/3, as
shown in figure below.

The maximum shear stress in the shaft is:

Q y
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 15
Consider the following statements about pure torsion:

1. For a given cross-section angle of twist remains constant.
2. On a given cross-section shear strain varies from point to point on a given radial line.
3. Angle of twist is directly proportional to distance of a cross-section from fixed end.
4. Shear strain is always maximum on the surface of the shaft.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
( )
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 16
What will be the central deflection of the simply supported beam as shown below:

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C O i 17/152
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
By unit load method: Apply additional load W at a distance b from A. Due to this application deflection
at C will be doubled. Now apply a unit load C, where deflection is desired.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 17
Consider a simply supported beam of span 8 m and diameter of 70 mm, carrying a UDL of 1.5 kN/m over its
entire length. The maximum value of bending stress in the beam will be:
A
356.36 MPa
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
301.33 MPa
C
286.45 MPa
D
270.11 MPa
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 18
A cylindrical tank with closed ends is filled with compressed fluid at pressure of 0.6 MPa. The inner radius of
the tank is 2 m and its wall thickness is 12 mm. The magnitude of maximum in-plane shear stress is:
A
12.5 MPa
B
25 MPa
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
50 MPa
D
100 MPa
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 19
Consider the following statements about theory of failures:

1. MSST is not suitable for hydrostatic state of stress conditions.
2. MPST and MSST will always give same result under bi-axial state of stress conditions.
3. MSST gives over safe design for ductile materials.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
1 and 3 only
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
MPST and MSST will give same result under following two conditions:
(i) Uniaxial state of stress condition.
(ii) Bi-axial state of stress condition, when principal stresses are like in nature.
D
2 and 3 only
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 20
A steel rod of 18 mm diameter and 1 m long is heated from 25°C to 145°C and have E = 200 GPa, α = 12 ×
10–6°C. If the rod is not free at ends to expand, the thermal stress developed is:
A
zero
B
144 MPa, tensile
C
288 MPa, compressive

Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
288 MPa, tensile
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 21
Consider the following statements about shear force and bending moment:
1. The change in bending moment between two cross-section of a beam is equal to the area of the shearing
force diagram between the two sections.
2. The change in shearing force between two cross-sections of a beam due to distributed loading is equal to
the area of the load intensity diagram between the two sections. Of above statements:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2
both 1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 22
A roller of weight 966 N rests on a smooth inclined plane and is kept free from rolling by string as shown
below. The tension in the string will be:

A
707 N
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
Considering free body diagram: From Lami’s theorems,

B
683 N
C
523.85 N
D
353.5 N
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 23
The principal stresses at a point inside a solid object are σ1 = 200 MPa, σ2 = 100 MPa, σ3 = 0 MPa. The yield
strength of the material is 450 MPa. Then the ratio of factor of safety calculated using Tresca theory to that
calc lated sing Von Mises theor ill be:
calculated using Von Mises theory, will be:
A
2.3
B
1.81
C
0.433
D
0.866
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 24
Match List-I withMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
(a)
B
B
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 25
Air at 200 kPa and 277°C has volume 0.8 m3. In a frictionless process at constant volume the pressure
changes to 100 kPa. The heat transfer in this process will be:
A
– 100 kJ
B
100 kJ
C
200 kJ
D
–200 kJ
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 26
Consider the following statements about pure substance:

1. A pure substance has one degree of freedom.
2. Pressure and temperature are the thermodynamic properties, which are easiest to measure.
3. When a liquid and its vapour are in equilibrium at a certain pressure and temperature, only pressure or the
temperature is sufficient to identify the saturation state. Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
3 only
C
2 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
The state of a pure substance gets fixed if two independent properties are given, thus a pure substance
have two degrees of freedom.
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 27
27 A pure substance at 12 MPa and 400°C is having a specific internal energy of 2930 kJ/kg and a specific
volume of 0.0345 m3⁄ kg. Its specific enthalpy (in kJ/kg) will be:
A
3123 kJ/kg
B
3344 kJ/kg
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
3376 kJ/kg
D
3391 kJ/kg
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 28
A reversible heat engine drives the reversible refrigerator as shown in figure. The net work output as shown
is 200 kW. The refrigeration effect will be:

A
1500 kW
B
2000 kW
C
2500 kW
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
3000 kW
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 29
Air enters an adiabatic nozzle at 300 kPa, 500 K with a velocity 25 m/s. It leaves the nozzle at 100 kPa with
a velocity of 135 m/s. If the specific heat of air is 1008 J/kgK, then the exit temperature of the air is:
A
429.20 K
B
441.47 K
C
466.67 K
D
466.67 K
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 30

1. Reversible processes do not affect the entropy of the universe.
2. Impossible process decreases the entropy of the universe.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 31

1. At idling the suction is applied at the petrol jet.
2. To avoid flat spot during acceleration a diaphragm type acceleration pump is provided.
3. During cold starting period, at low cranking speed and before engine has warmed up, a mixture much
richer than usual mixtures must be supplied.
4. An alternative to the choke is the provision of auxiliary fuel jets.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
c o t ese state e ts s/a e co ect?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
At idling the throttle is almost closed and hence engine suction is applied at the petrol jet.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 32
In an ideal constant volume cycle the pressure and temperature at the beginning of compression are 97 kPa
and 40°C, respectively. The volume ratio of compression is 5.656 : 1. If the heat supplied is 1200 kJ/kg of
working fluid, then the maximum temperature attained in the cycle, would be (Cv = 0.72 kJ/kgK)
A
2292.67°C
B
2019.67°C
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
1807.17°C
D
1757.56°C
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 33
A four-stroke petrol engine delivers 35 kW with a mechanical efficiency of 80%. The fuel consumption of the
engine is 0.4 kg per kW-hr and the air-fuel ratio is 14 : 1. The heating value of fuel is 42000 kJ/kg. The
indicated thermal efficiency of the cycle will be:
A
19.33%
B
21.43%
C
26.78%
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
29.47%
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 34
Which cycle is represented in the diagram given above?

A
Brayton cycle
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
Ericsson cycle
C
Atkinsion cycle
D
Miller cycle
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 35
Consider the following statements about coil ignition system:

1. In this system, battery is a must.
2. Starting of engine is easier.
3. Occupies less space.
4. Mostly employed in petrol cars and buses.
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
1, 2 and 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
• Battery or coil ignition system requires more space than magneto ignition system.
• In this, a good spark is available at spark plug at low speed.
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 36
100 W heat is being transferred when a pipe is critically insulated. Temperture of the pipe is 100°C and
ambient temp is 30°C. What will be the total conduction resistance offered by the insulation?
A
0.07 K/W
B
0.7 K/W
C
0.6 K/W
D
0.35 K/W
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 37
For flow over flat plate the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness is 1 mm. Dynamic viscosity is 15 × 10–6
Pa-s, Sp. heat is 0.79 kcal/kgK, thermal conductivity is 0.05 W/mK. Thermal boundary layer thickness would
be approximately
A
0.5 mm
B
1.667 mm
C
1 mm
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
2 mm
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 38
Flow of air overheated plate at atmospheric pressure is assumed to laminar. If denote the
hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layer thickness respectively, then
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 39
Consider the following statements about shape factors:

1. The shape factor for two infinite parallel flat surfaces separated by a distance d will be unity.
2. The shape factor of a hemispherical body placed on a flat surface with respect to itself will be 0.25.
3. Fraction of radiative energy leaving one surface that strikes the other surface is called shape factor.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 40
Match List-I (Nusselt number) with List-II (Flow condition) and select the correct answer using the codes
A
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
B
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 41
Air enters a counter flow heat exchanger at 110°C and leaves at 70°C. Water enters at 30°C and leaves at
50°C, the LMTD in °C is:
A
24.51°C
B
31.26°C
C
37 54°C
37.54 C
D
49.32°C
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 42

1. Automatic expansion valve is used in evaporator to maintain constant pressure inside it.
2. Internally equalized thermostatic expansion valve maintains constant degree of superheat at evaporator
exit pressure.
3. In expansion valve of a domestic refrigerator, enthalpy remains constant.
4. Poppet valves are generally preferred in reciprocating refrigerant compressors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
• Internally equalized thermostatic expansion valve maintains constant degree of superheat at
evaporator inlet pressure.
• In reciprocating refrigerant compressors, plate valves are preferred.
D
2 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 43
The pressure, dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air in a room are 98.975 kPa, 30°C and 70%
respectively. If the saturated steam pressure at 30°C is 4.25 kPa, the specific humidity of the room air in kg
water vapour/kg of dry air is:
A
0.00814
B
0.01927
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
0.0216
D
0.02233
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 44
In vapour compression refrigeration plant, the enthalpy values at different points are
at exit of evaporator = 320 kJ/kg
at exit of compressor = 440 kJ/kg
at exit of condenser = 56 kJ/kg
If the refrigerating efficiency of the plant is 0.75, then the power required per kW of cooling to be produced?
A
0.606 kW
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
0.8 kW
C
1.2 kW
D
1.65 kW
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 45
Air is passed through a cooling coil, which have ADP of –7°C. If the temperature of air drops from 27°C to
18°C, then by pass factor of the coil is:
A
0.36
B
0.612
C
0.735
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
0.822
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 46
The saturation temperature of water vapour at its partial pressure is equal to:
A
wet bulb temperature
B
dew point temperature
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
adiabatic saturation temperature
D
dry bulb temperature
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 47
Consider the following statements about various angle in solar radiation:

1. Angle made by radial line joining a location to the centre of Earth, with projection of the line on the
equatorial plane is known as latitude angle.
2. Angle through which earth has rotated since solar noon is known as declination angle.
3. Angle between projection of solar beam on horizontal plane and the longitude meridian, is known as solar
azimuth angle.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Angle through which earth has rotated since solar noon is known as hour angle.
D
2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 48
For a long triangular duct having sides a, b and c as 2 cm, 3 cm and 4 cm. What will be the incident radiation
on side b from surface a if sides a, b and c are at 400 K, 300 K and 200 K respectively?
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 49
If the average temperature of the earth is 300 K, then what will be the wavelength at which maximum
spectral emissive power is obtained?
A
9.66 μm
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
7.73 μm
C
6.18 μm
D
4.94 μm
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 50
What will be the declination angle of earth on 22 April for a flat plate collector in Delhi(25°35′N, 77°12′N)?
A
30.15°
B
21.73°
C
17.44°
D
11.93°
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 51
Conversion efficiency of a solar cell is 20%, incident radiation on the solar cell is 1.2 kW/m2. If open circuit
voltage and short circuit current are 12 volt and 5 amp. What will be the area required of solar cell? (Take fill
factor = 0.8, if required)
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 52
Fluidized bed is required to operate at atmospheric pressure and a bed temperature of 850°C. The fuel has
CV of 25 MJ/kg. The stoichiometric AFR is 9.5 by mass and 20% excess air is used. The total fueling rate is
4.8 MW. The density of air at 850°C is 0.32 kg/m3. What will be the plan form area required if the fluidizing
velocity is 3 m/s?
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 53
The work output from a reaction turbine stage is 350 kW per kg/s of steam. If the nozzle efficiency is 0.95
and rotor efficiency is 0.88, then the isentropic static enthalpy drop in the stage will be :
A
301.14 kW
B
324.21 kW
C
377 84 kW
377.84 kW
D
418.66 kW
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 54
In a regenerative cycle, steam with enthalpy of 4042 kJ/kg is expanded in a high pressure turbine to a state
corresponding to saturated enthalpy of water equal to 637 kJ/kg. If the pump work requirements in the high
pressure and low pressure zones are 4 kJ/kg and 1.5 kJ/kg respectively, then amount of heat transferred
in the boiler will be:
A
3362.5 kJ/kg
B
3394 kJ/kg
C
3399.5 kJ/kg
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
3410.5 kJ/kg
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 55
Consider the following statements regarding effects of regenerative feed water heating for the same turbine
output:
1. It significantly increases the cycle efficiency and reduces the heat rate.
2. It decreases the steam flow rate (requiring smaller boiler)
3. It reduces steam flow rate through the condenser and thus reduces its size.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
For the same turbine output, use of regenerative feed water heating increases the steam flow from
boiler thus requires larger boiler.
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 56

1. In gas turbine, reheating is preferred over regeneration to yield a higher thermal efficiency.
2. The thermal efficiency of Brayton cycle with regeneration decreases as the compression ratio increases.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
In gas turbine, reheating decreases the cycle’s thermal efficiency because mean temperature of heat
rejection increases more than mean temperature of heat addition.
C
both 1 and 2
D
neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 57
The following data pertain to a single stage impulse steam turbine:

Nozzle angle = 20°
Blade velocity = 200 m/s
Relative steam velocity at entry = 350 m/s
Blade inlet angle = 45°
Blade exit angle = 30°
If steam flow rate is 0.5 kg/s and blades are smooth, then work done is:
A
55.06 kW
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
(a)
B
68.82 kW
C
110.12 kW
D
137.65 kW
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q 58
Q. 58
In a Parson’s reaction stage, the absolute velocity angle at inlet is 30°. Mean peripheral speed is 90 m/s and
absolute velocity at exit is axial. Then the stage specific work is:
A
6.075 kJ/kg
B
7.33 kJ/kg
C
8.1 kJ/kg
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
For the above condition stage specific work =u2
D
14.03 kJ/kg
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 59
Which of the following statements are correct about mechanical draught cooling towers?
1. The air flow into the tower is more or less horizontal.
2. They have high capital and construction costs.
3. Assured supply of the required quantity of air at all loads and climatic conditions.
4. They have small physical structure in comparison to natural draught cooling towers.
Select the correct statements sing belo codes
Select the correct statements using below codes.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Mechanical draught cooling towers posses low capital and construction costs, and have small physical
structure.
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 60
A refrigerator unit having a mass 30 kg is to be supported on three springs, each having a spring stiffness
‘s’. The unit operates at 480 rpm. If 50% of the shaking force is allowed to be transmitted to the supporting
structure, then the stiffness of each spring will be:
A
25.266 N/mm
B
21.05 N/mm
C
12.525 N/mm
D
8.422 N/mm
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 61
For a single degree of freedom viscous damped system, transmissibility is less than 1 if frequency ratio is
A
Equal to one
B
Less than one
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 62
A shaft of 40 mm diameter and 3 m length has a mass of 15 kg per meter length. It is simply supported at
ends and carries three masses of 90 kg, 150 kg and 60 kg at 0.7 m, 1.5 m and 2 m respectively from left
support. If deflection under mass of 90 kg is 9 mm, under mass of 150 kg is 164 mm, under mass of 60 kg is
3 mm and deflection due to shaft weight is 25.4 mm, then frequency of transverse vibration of the whole
system is:
A
0.812 Hz
B
1.126 Hz
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
1.96 Hz
D
2.33 Hz
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 63
Consider the following statements about epicyclic gear train:

1. A gear train having a relative motion of axes is called a planetary or an epicyclic gear train.
2. Large speed reductions are possible with epicyclic gear train.
3. Only one input is sufficient to obtain a controlled motion of the output.
A
1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
Epicyclic gear trains have two degrees of freedom, this means to obtain controlled motion of the
output, the train must have two inputs.
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 64
In the below figure if A is fixed and arm a makes 15 revolutions, then number of revolutions made by B is:

A
30
B
45
C
75
D
D
105
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 65
Which one of the following points is not responsible for occurrence of critical or whirling speed of shaft ?

A
Eccentric mounting of rotor
B
Non-uniform of distribution of rotor material
C
Bending of the shaft due to the weight of the rotor and the shaft itself
D
Environmental effects such as effect of moisture and temperature
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 66
Consider the following statements about different types of followers:

1. Knife-edge follower produces greater wear of the surface at the point of contact.
2. In case of steep rise, a roller follower jams the cam.
3. In case of radial followers, the line of movement of the follower passes through the centre of rotation of
cam.
4. A mushroom follower is also subjected to problem of jamming the cam.
A
1, 2 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
Mushroom follower does not have the problem of jamming the cam. But in flat-faced mushroom
follower, wear rate is high, so spherical faced mushroom followers are preferred.
B
2, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 67
Bifilar suspension is an experimental method of determining

A
Periodic time and a body
B
Moment of inertia of the body
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
C.G. of a body
D
Centre of percussion of the body
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 68
A flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 0.8 m and mass 2500 kg. The starting torque of the
steam engine is 1500 Nm and may be assumed constant. What will be the kinetic energy of the flywheel
after 8 seconds from the start?
A
60 kNm
B
52 kNm
C
45 kNm
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
38 kNm
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 69

1. When the pitching of a ship rises the bow upward, the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be to
move the ship towards star-board.
2. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane
takes a turn to the right. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be to dip the nose and
raise the tail.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 70
Match List-I (Part) with List-II (Method of holding on lathe) and select the correct answer using the codes
A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 71
A milling cutter having 12 teeth, is rotating at 100 rpm. The table feed is set at 3.6 meter per hour. The feed
per tooth in mm is:
A
0.05 mm
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
0.5 mm
C
0 25 mm
0.25 mm
D
0.25 mm
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 72
A 20 mm dia drill with point angle 120° is used to drill a through hole in a plate 30 mm thick, assume the
length of approach and over travel as 2 mm and 3 mm , respectively. The time required for drilling, if the feed
is 0.1 mm/rev and the material is cut with a velocity of 20 m/min, will be:
A
0.9 min
B
1.28 min
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
1.9 min
D
2.5 min
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 73
Consider the following statements :

1. In a Swiss type automatic lathe, the turret is given longitudinal feed for each tool in a specific order with
suitable indexing.
2. A turret is a multiple tool holder to facilitate machining with each tool by indexing without the need to
change tools.
3. The cutting velocity determined by optimization need not to be modified.
A
1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
Often, the cutting velocity determined by optimization has to be modified because onlyfinite number of
speeds are available on the machine tool.
B
2 only
y
C
3 only
D
2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 74
Which of the following gases can be used for GMAW as a shielding gas?
A
Argon
B
Oxygen
C
Carbon dioxide
D
1, 2 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
To increase arc stability in case of welding of steel O2 and CO2 are added.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 75
Consider the following statements about explosion welding:

1. It is done at room temperature in air, water or vacuum.
2. It is well suited to metals which are prone to brittle joints.
3. Surface contaminants should be removed before welding.
4. It is an expensive process.
A
1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
• Surface contaminants tend to be blown off the surface during welding. So surface contaminants need
not to be removed prior to welding.
• It is an inexpensive process.
B
3 and 4
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 76
In sand slinging ramming force is obtained by

A
by continuous hammering
B
throwing sand at high velocity with the help of rotating blades
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
filling the sand and dropping the mould box from a height
D
none of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 77
Choose the correct statements

1. Follower rest is used to hold long heavy objects on lathe.
2 Steady rest is used to hold long thick objects on lathe
2. Steady rest is used to hold long thick objects on lathe.
3. 4-jaw chuck is used for holding cylindrical jobs.
A
1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
4-jaw chuck is used to hold non-cylindrical objects.
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 78
Which one of the following moulding processes does not require use of core?
A
Sand moulding
B
Shell moulding
C
Plaster moulding
D
Lost foam
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
Lost foam or expendable pattern casting does not require parting lines, cores or riser systems, hence
has
design flexibility.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 79
Coronite is made of
A
Tungsten carbide and cobalt
B
HSS and Cobalt
C
Tungsten carbide and HSS
Correct Option
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
TiC and HSS
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 80
Consider the following statements about investment casting:

1. It is also known as ceramic-mould casting.
2. In this slurry is a mixture of fine-grained zircon (ZrSiO4) aluminium oxide and fused silica.
3. Wax, pattern is used.
4. The high temperature resistance of the refractory moulding materials allows these moulds to be used
in casting ferrous and other high temperature alloys.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1 2 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 81
Parting off operations is carried out on a cylindrical work piece of 140 mm diameter. The groove width is 3
mm and an infeed of 0.2 mm per revolution is given at a maximum cutting speed of 45 m/min. The specific
cutting force for the material is 800 N/mm2 . The maximum power required for the operation is :
A
290 W
B
320 W
C
360 W
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
480 W
480 W
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 82
The rake angle of a cutting tool is 15° and shear angle is 45°. What will be the shear strain, if the side cutting
edge angle is 12°?
A
1.577
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
2.34
C
3.73
D
4.31
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 83
In an orthogonal turning of medium carbon steel, the specific machining energy is 3.5 J/mm3 . The cutting
velocity, feed and depth of cut are 130 m/min, 0.25 mm/rev and 2.4 mm, respectively. The main cutting force
(in N) will be:
A
800
B
1300
C
1700
D
2100
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 84
In an orthogonal machining operation, the tool life is 15 min at a cutting speed of 80 m/min, while at 60 m/
min cutting speed, the tool life is 45 min. The value of Taylor’s tool life index(n) is:
A
0.13
B
0.19
C
0.26
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
0.34
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 85
A 72 mm thick steel plate with 420 mm width is rolled to 24 mm thickness in 3 passes with equal reduction
in each pass, by using rolls of 900 mm diameter. Assuming plain-strain deformation, what is the minimum
coefficient of friction required for unaided rolling to be possible?
A
0.11
B
0.188
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
0.23
D
0.29
0. 9
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 86
Drop forging is used to produce:

A
Large components
B
Small components
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
The typical products obtained in drop forging are cranks, crank shaft, connecting rods, wrench, crane
hooks etc.
C
Identical components
D
None of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 87
Holding device used to hold complicated shape objects on lathe machine is

A
mendral
B
4 jaw chuck
C
steady rest
D
face plate
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 88
Which of the followings are the desirable properties of forging die materials?
1. Adequate fatigue resistance.
2. High thermal conductivity.
3. Amenability to weld repair.
4. Good machinability.
Select correct answer using below codes:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
• The die material should have low thermal conductivity, to reduce the heat conduction from forging
work part.
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 89
Consider the following cutting tool materials used for metal-cutting operation at high speed.
1. Tungsten carbide 2. Cemented titatnium carbide
3. High speed steel 4. Ceramic The correct sequence in increasing order of the range of cutting speeds for
optimum use of these materials is:
A
3, 1, 4, 2
B
3, 1, 2, 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
1, 3, 2, 4
D
1, 3, 4, 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 90
Match List-I (Measuring instrument) with List-II (Application) and select the correct answer using the codes


A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
B
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 91
A DC servomotor is coupled to a lead screw which drives a table of a CNC machine tool. A digital encoder,
mounted at the end of the screw emits 420 pulses per revolution. If the pitch is 6 mm per revolution and
motor rotates at 500 rpm, then the frequency of pulses transmitted by the encoder is:
A
583.33 Hz
B
1750 Hz
1750 Hz
C
3500 Hz
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
5040 Hz
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 92
Inductosyn position transducers can be used as:

(a) Ratiometric comparisons of sine and cosine output signals
(b) Amplitude measurement or nulling of error output signals
(c) Phase shift of rotor output signals
(d) All of the above
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 93
In case of a d.c. servomotor, the back emf is equivalent to an ‘electric friction’ which tends to
(a) slowly decrease the stability of the system
(b) improve stability of the system
(c) very rapidly decrease the stability of the system
(d) have no effect on stability
A
A
B
B
https://onlinetestseriesmadeeasy.in/madeeasy/index.php?pageName=timeManagementReport&testid=539&t=cont-1&testType=2
C O i 97/152
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 94
Consider the following statements about various designs of gripper fingers:

1. Magnetic grippers requires only one surface for gripping.
2. Expandable bladder type grippers are mechanical grippers.
3. Vacuum cup type grippers can grip a object if the object is flat, smooth and clean.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Expandable bladder type grippers are non-mechanical type grippers and in them, the bladder expands
to grasp/grab the object.
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 95
Consider the following statements about a resolver:

1. Resolution of resolver is not as good as optical encoder.
2. Resolver does not utilize principle of electromagnetic induction.
3. A resolver is an analog device.
4. In resolver primary coil acts as rotor and secondary coil acts as stator.
5. Resolver is used to measure angular displacement of shaft.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
• Resolution of resolver is much better than optical encoder.
• Resolver works on principle of electromagnetic induction.
D
1, 3 and 5
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 96
The mechanism connecting the wrist assembly is a twisting joint which can be rotated through 2.844
revolutions from the start to end position. It is desired to have control resolution of rotation ± 0.25° at the
least. What is the number of bit storage capacity to achieve this resolution?
A
9
B
10
C
11
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
12
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 97
A current carrying conductor produces EMF of 25 volt at the edges of sensor, when a constant magnetic
field of 0.25 Wb/m2 is passed perpendicular to it. If the thickness of conductor is 0.1 m and Hall-coefficient
of conductor is 0.8 unit then the magnitude of current will be :
A
5 Amp.
B
7.5 Amp.
C
9 Amp.
D
12.5 Amp.
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 98
Find the 2’s compliment of

Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
2’s complement = replace 0 with 1 and 1 with 0 then add 1 to the least significant bit.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 99
Consider the following statements related to memory:

1. Hard disc works on the principle of magnetization
2. Pendrive and hard disc is a primary memory.
3. Standard word length of memory is 8 bits.
Choose the correct statements:
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
Secondary memory is where programs and data are kept on a long-term basis. Common secondary
storage devices are the hard disk and optical disks.
C
2 and 3
D
D
1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 100
Consider the following statements about aging:

1. Aging is called artificial aging if it is carried out above room temperature.
2. Several aluminium alloys harden and become stronger over period of time at room temperature through
natural aging.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
There is also a process known as maraging, which is a precipitation-hardening treatment for a special
group of high strength iron-base alloy. The word maraging is derived from martensite age hardening.
D
neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 101
Consider the following statements about imperfections:

1. The presence of a point imperfection introduces distortions in the crystal.
2. Point imperfections of different types can interact with one another and increase the total energy.
3. Frenkel defect is a cation vacancy and a cation interstitial, and the Schottky defect is a pair of cation and
anion vacancies.
4. The dislocation line is defined as the boundary between the slipped and unslipped parts of the slip plane.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Point imperfections of different types can interact with one another and lower the total energy. For
example, a solute atom which is larger than the parent atom can have a smaller distortional energy if it
stays close to a vacancy. This reduction in energy is called the binding energy between the two point
imperfections.
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 102
Which of the following is not the motion command in APT language?

A
GOLFT
B
GORGT
C
GOFWD
D
GODWN
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 103
What will be the time required to machine 100 components each of 100 mm long with a CNC machine? A
200 step DC motor is used. Pulse rate is 10000 pulse per minute. Speed ratio of motor to the lead screw is 4.
Lead scre is do ble start ith pitch of 2 mm Tool life is 60 min and time req ired to change the tool is
Lead screw is double start with pitch of 2 mm. Tool life is 60 min and time required to change the tool is
1 minute. Every component is machined in a single pass.
A
406 min
B
203 min
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
106 min
D
103 min
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 104
Which one of the following statement is not correct?

A
Compression moulding is analogous to hot pressing of powdered metals.
B
Transfer moulding is similar to hydraulic extrusion.
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
Transfer moulding is very similar to compression moulding.
C
In injection moulding, mould cavity must be heated to cure the plastic forced into it
D
Injection moulding is analogous to die casting of metals.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 105
Polyacrylonitrile (Orlon) is used

A
as coating for frying pans
B
for sound proofing in buildings
C
to produce ropes
D
as wool substitute in clothing
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 106
Consider the following data:

Annual demand (D): 25 units
Unit price (C): Rs. 2.50
Order cost (C0): Rs. 4
Storage rate (R1) : 1 % per year
Interest rate (R2) : 12% per year
Obsolescence rate (R3) : 7% per year
What will be the total annual cost of the production run ?
A
Rs. 10
B
Rs. 35
C
Rs. 45
D
Rs. 72.5
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 107
The activities along with their dependency relationships are given below in table:
The number of dummy activities in its network diagram will be:

A
2
B
3
C
5
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
7
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 108
For a system composed of two elements in parallel, determine the reliability of system for 2000 hrs of
operation when the two components have identical failure rate of 0.0005/hr and time to failure is
exponentially distributed.
A
0.747
B
0.632
C
0.60
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
0.367
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 109
Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM) can be viewed as an integration of :

A
Product and process design
B
Production planning and control
C
C
Production process
D
All of the above
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 110
The components of flexible manufacturing system includes:

1. Processing stations 2. Material handling devise
3. Auxiliary equipments 4. Computer control system
Select the correct answer using below codes:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
• Processing stations are CNC m/c tools which perform machining operations.
• Material handling devices are used to transport the work.
• Auxiliary equipments for cleaning, inspection and automated measurement.
• Computer control system is used to coordinate the activities of the processing station.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 111
Which of the following are characteristics of job type production?

1. General purpose machines and equipments are used to perform wider range of operation.
2. Relatively lower skilled workers can manage work.
3. Manufacturing cycle time is large.
4. Low work-in-process inventory.
Select the correct answer using below codes.
A
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
In job type production:
• High variety and low volume production.
• Highly skilled workforce is required.
• Very large work-in-process inventories.
B
2 and 4
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 112
To meet short range changes in demand of a product, which of the following strategies can be considered?
1. Overtime 2. Subcontracting
3. Building-up inventory 4. New investments
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A
2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
New investment means to install new production run, which will require large time and cost, so new
investments are not preferred for short range changes in demand of any product.
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1 and 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 113
Seven jobs are to be machined on three machines. Machining times of various jobs on various machines are
as given below in table.

Then the optimal machining sequence will be:

A
E-A-D-F-G-B-C
B
A-G-D-F-B-E-C
C
A-D-G-F-B-C-E
Correct Option
Solution :
Solution :
(c)
D
Johnson’s rule is not applicable
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 114
The past data regarding the sales for last five years is given in below table. Estimate the sale for 1997.
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
Using least square method, let straight line is y = a + bx,
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 115
Consider the following statements regarding theory of failure:

1. In maximum shear stress theory and distortion energy theory, it is assumed that the yield strength in
tension is equal to the yield strength in compression.
2. Maximum shear stress theory and distortion energy theory are used for ductile materials.
3. The maximum principal stress theory is the proper choice for brittle materials.
4. The hexagonal diagram of maximum shear stress theory is outside the ellipse of distortion energy theory.
A
1, 2 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
The hexagonal diagram of MSST is inside the ellipse of distortion energy theory, thats why MSST gives
oversafe design and distortion energy theory gives more conservative design.
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 116

1. The fluctuating or alternating stress varies in a sinusoidal manner with respect to time.
2. In case of repeated stress, the magnitudes of maximum and minimum stresses are equal in a cycle.
3. Fatigue failure is sudden and occurs without any warning.
A
2 only
B
3 only
C
1 and 3
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
For repeated stress
D
1 and 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 117
For a solid disc flywheel of radius 0.5 m, maximum stress induced is 125 MPa. What will be the stress at a
radius of 0.2 m ?
A
20 MPa
B
50 MPa
C
85 MPa
D
105 MPa
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 118
A 50 mm long and 8 mm thick fillet weld carries a steady load of 18 kN along the weld. If the shear strength
of the material is 180 MPa, then factor of safety will be:
A
2.47
B
2.83
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
As load is along the fillet weld, so maximum shear stress developed in the weld:
C
3 16
3.16
D
3.72
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 119
Match List-I (Type of antifriction bearing) with List-II (Specific use) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 120
If the helix angle and the circular pitch of a helical gear are 15° and 7 mm respectively, then the axial pitch of
the helical gear will be:
A
7.25 mm
B
13.11 mm
C
17.43 mm
D
26.21 mm
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 121
Assertion (A): A line joining the piezometric heads at various points in a flow is known as the hydraulic grade
line.
Reason (R): A line joining the elevation of total energy of a flow measured above a datum is known as energy
grade line.
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
Energy grade line lies above the HGL by an amount
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 122
Assertion (A): For uniform velocity distribution, kinetic energy correction factor is 0.5.
Reason (R) : Greater the non-uniformity in velocity distribution, larger will be the value of correction factor.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
For uniform velocity distribution, the value of kinetic energy correction factor will be one.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 123
Assertion (A): The efficiency of pump is generally lower than that of turbine.
Reason (R) : Eddy and turbulence losses in pumps are more.
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
In pumps eddies and turbulence formations increases the irreversibility and reduces pumps efficiency.
So pumps efficiency is generally lower than that of turbines.
B
B
C
C
D
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 124
Assertion (A): Like parallel forces have their lines of action parallel to each other and all of them do not act in
the same direction.
Reason (R) : These forces may be equal or unequal in magnitude.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
• Like parallel forces have their lines of action parallel to each other and all of them act in same
direction.
• Unlike parallel forces have their line of action parallel to each other and all of them don’t act in the
same direction.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 125
Assertion (A): Moment and work both are vector quantities.

Reason (R): Both, moment and work, have the same unit of measurement i.e. Nm.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q 126
Q. 126
Assertion (A): When a beam is subjected to a couple, the rotation at the point of application of couple can be
found by equating the total strain energy of the beam to the work done by the couple.
Reason (R): We can find the deflection at any point of the beam by fictious load method.
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
In strain energy method, we can find deflection at the point of application of load or moment. But by
fictious load method (Castigliano’s method), we can find deflection at any point along the beam.
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 127
Assertion (A): Time has large impact on reversibility.

Reason (R): If the time allowed for a process to occur is infinitely large, even through the gradient is finite,
the process becomes reversible if friction is neglected.
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
When the time allowed for a process becomes infinite, then the process becomes slow and may be
assumed that it is passing through equilibrium states at each point of process path.
B
B
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 128
Assertion (A): At the same pressure and temperature, the specific volumes of different gases are same.
Reason (R): At the same reduced pressure and reduced temperature, the reduced volumes of different gases
are approximately the same.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
At the same pressure and temperature the specific or molal volumes of different gases are different.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 129
Assertion (A): The air-fuel ratio at full load in SI engines is slightly richer than stoichiometric air-fuel ratio.
Reason (R): Richer mixture increases rate of combustion and amount of heat evolved.
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
At full load condition, in SI engines slightly richer mixture is used because richer mixture increases the
velocity of flame travel and ultimately increases the amount of heat evolved and power output.
B
B
B
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 130
Assertion (A): The fuel-air mixture formed in the combustion chamber is essentially heterogeneous in CI
engine.
Reason (R): It is impossible to inject the fuel droplets so that they distribute uniformly throughout the
combustion space.
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
B
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 131
Assertion (A): An orderly and controlled movement of air in CI engines is called swirl.
Reason (R): Turbulence which is required in SI engines implies disordered air motion with no general
direction of flow.
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
Swirl in SI engines is an orderly movement of the whole body of air with a particular direction of flow, to
bring a continuous supply of fresh air to each burning droplet and sweep away the products of
combustion which otherwise would suffocate it.
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 132
Assertion (A): In a heat exchanger, the temperature ratio is defined as the ratio of the rise in temperature of
the cold fluid to the difference in the inlet temperatures of the two fluids.
Reason (R): When the problem is to determine the inlet or exit temperatures for a particular heat exchanger,
the analysis is performed easily by using LMTD method.
A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
LMTD method is used when inlet and outlet temperatures are specified.
D
C
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 133
Assertion (A): Power input per TR of a refrigeration system increases with decrease in evaporator
temperature.
Reason (R): COP of refrigeration system decreases with decrease in evaporator temperature.
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
With decrease in evaporator temperature, refrigeration effect decreases and work required by
compressor increases due to which COP decreases.
B
B
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 134
Assertion (A): Collapsibility of moulding sand is the property to ease the breaking of the mould after
solidification.
Reason (R): While breaking the mould it should not offer more resistance, as it may cause damage the
casting surface
casting surface.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 135
Assertion (A): Reheat takes place with increase in entropy.

Reason (R): The reheat in a given stage is available to do work in the succeeding stage except the last stage
where the reheat is a loss.
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 136
Assertion (A): In vibration, the phase angle is 90° at resonance irrespective of damping.
Reason (R): As the damping increases, the maximum value of the magnification factor decreases.
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 137
Assertion (A): A governor is said to be stable radius of rotation of balls increases as speed increases.
Reason (R): The sensitivity of an isochronous governors is zero.
A
A
B
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Stability and sensitivity are two opposite characteristics but both are desirable. Sensitivity of an
isochronous governor is infinite.
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 138
Assertion (A): In slab milling the axis of cutter rotation is parallel to the workpiece surface to be machined.
Reason (R): Cutters of slab milling may have straight or helical teeth resulting in oblique or orthogonal
cutting action respectively.
A
A
B
B
C
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
If cutters in slab milling have straight teeth then they results in orthogonal cutting whereas if they have
helical teeth then cutters result in oblique cutting action.
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 139
Assertion (A): Gun drills are self centering.

Reason (R): The thrust force is balanced by bearing pads on the drill that slide along the inside surface of the
hole.
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
Gun drills are self-centering because thrust force (the radial force that tends to push the drill sideways)
is balanced by bearing pads on the drill.
B
B
C
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 140
Assertion (A): In gas metal arc welding DCRP is preferred for high production rate.
Reason (R): In gas metal arc welding consumable electrodes are used.
A
A
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
In GMAW, as consumable electrodes are used so direct current with reverse polarity is preferred for
high production rate. In DCRP electrode will be +ve and work will be negative. In GMAW ac current can
also be used.
B
B
C
C
D
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 141
Assertion (A): Pressure tightness of cast components is usually determined by sealing the openings in the
casting and pressurizing it with water, oil or air.
Reason (R): For extreme leak tightness requirements, pressurized helium or specially scented gases with
detectors are used.
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 142
Assertion (A): In ideal condition value of tracking signal should be unity.

Reason (R): Tracking signal indicates how well forecast is predicting the actual data.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 143
Assertion (A): Draft angles are necessary in almost all forging dies, in order to facilitate the removal of the
Assertion (A): Draft angles are necessary in almost all forging dies, in order to facilitate the removal of the
part from die.
Reason (R): Upon cooling, the forging expands both radially and longitudinally.
A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Upon cooling, forging shrinks both radially and longitudinally, so internal draft angles are made larger
than external ones. Internal angles are about 7° to 10° whereas external angles are about 3° to 5°.
D
C
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 144
Assertion (A): Compensators are typically employed to correct a single design flow.
Reason (R): Occasionally, it is necessary to alter the phase characteristics of a given system, without altering
the magnitude characteristics, this is done by compensators.
A
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
To change only phase characteristic, we need to alter the frequency response in such way that the
phase response is altered, but magnitude response is not altered. It is done by variety of controllers,
known as phase compensators.
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 145
Assertion (A): Creep is the permanent elongation of a component under a static load maintained for a period
of time.
Reason (R): Lead creeps under a constant tensile load at room temperature.
A
A
B
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
For metals and their alloys, creep of any significance occurs at elevated temperatures, beginning at
about 200°C for aluminium alloys and at 1500°C for refractory alloys, where as for lead creep occurs at
room temperature.
C
C
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 146
Assertion (A): Austenite is an important phase in heat treatment of steels.

Reason (R): Its single phase fcc structure is brittle even at elevated temperatures.
A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Austenite is denser than ferrite, and its single-phase fcc structure is ductile at elevated temperature.
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 147
Assertion (A) : Brine is an effective quenching medium.

Reason (R) : Salt helps to nucleate bubbles at the interfaces.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
Solution :
(a)
Brine is an effective medium for quenching, because salt helps to nucleate bubbles at the interfaces.
Where as water forms vapour bubbles blanket at metal water interface which creates barrier to heat
conduction.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 148
Assertion (A): In SI engine to increase the power, cylinder size is not increased beyond certain limit.
Reason (R): Bigger size cylinders have to bear higher stresses so construction cost increases.
A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
In big cylinder flame front have to travel more distance, so knocking may occur.
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
QU S O CS
Q. 149
Assertion (A): In batch production, variety of products can be manufactured on the same machine.
Reason (R): The batch production employs product layout.
A
A
B
B
C
C
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
Batch production employs process layout. As all machines performing similar type of operations are
grouped at one location in process layout.
D
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 150
Assertion (A): Using regenerative heat exchanger in vapour compression refrigeration cycle (VCR), degree of
h ti l t th d f b li
superheat is equal to the degree of subcooling.
Reason (R): Heat loss to the surrounding for the heat exchanger is neglected.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS

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1/6/2018 MADE EASY ONLINE TEST SERIES

ENGINEERING DISCIPLINE - REPORTS

OVERALL ANALYSIS COMPARISON REPORT SOLUTION REPORT

ALL(150) CORRECT(0) INCORRECT(0) SKIPPED(150)

The bulk modulus of elasticity

Consider the following statements:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements:

Consider the following statements about reciprocating pumps:

Surge tanks are installed in Pelton turbine stations because:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

The maximum shear stress in the shaft is:

Consider the following statements about pure torsion:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements about theory of failures:

288 MPa, compressive

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Considering free body diagram: From Lami’s theorems,

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements about pure substance:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements:

Consider the following statements:

Which cycle is represented in the diagram given above?

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements about coil ignition system:

Consider the following statements about shape factors:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements:

Consider the following statements about various angle in solar radiation:

Consider the following statements:

The following data pertain to a single stage impulse steam turbine:

Consider the following statements about epicyclic gear train:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements about different types of followers:

Biﬁlar suspension is an experimental method of determining

Consider the following statements:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Consider the following statements :

Consider the following statements about explosion welding:

In sand slinging ramming force is obtained by

Choose the correct statements

Consider the following statements about investment casting:

Drop forging is used to produce:

Holding device used to hold complicated shape objects on lathe machine is

FAQ Have any Doubt ?

Inductosyn position transducers can be used as:

Consider the following statements about various designs of gripper ﬁngers:

Consider the following statements about a resolver:

Find the 2’s compliment of

Consider the following statements related to memory:

Consider the following statements about aging:

Consider the following statements about imperfections:

Which of the following is not the motion command in APT language?

Which one of the following statement is not correct?

Polyacrylonitrile (Orlon) is used

Consider the following data:

The number of dummy activities in its network diagram will be:

Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM) can be viewed as an integration of :

The components of flexible manufacturing system includes:

Which of the following are characteristics of job type production?

Then the optimal machining sequence will be:

FAQ Have any Doubt ?