Microbiology and Parasitology Review

MICROBIOLOGY
AND PARASITOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY 1

1. Which among the following statements 6. Which among the following is true about
does not indicate the practical use of Gram’s staining?
microbiology in the field of dentistry? 1. It stains a special organelle of the cell
a. It gives an idea on how to properly into two colors
sterilize the different equipment in 2. It is a vital stain
the clinic 3. Aside from using a dropper when
b. It prevents the development of a staining, you can simply submerge the
post-surgical infection entire groups of slides all at the same
c. It narrows the choices of organisms time for batch staining
that can possibly cause an infection 4. It contains a mordant that is used to
d. It provides a detailed idea on how to enhance the staining of a bacterial cell
properly suture a post-extraction 7. Which among the following is not true
wound about Gram’s stain?
2. Which among the following refers to the 1. It is used to differentiate organisms
correct order of Gram’s staining? according to their staining reaction
1. Crystal violet>iodine>safranin>alcohol and morphology
2. Iodine>crystal violet>alcohol>safranin 2. It is an example of a simple stain
3. Crystal violet>iodine>alcohol>safranin 3. Gram positive organisms are violet in
4. Iodine>alcohol>crystal violet>safranin color
3. Which among the following is not true 4. Gram variable refers to a condition
about a bacterial stain? where in bacterial cells appear as
a. It enhances the clarity of an organism either pink or violet
by increasing the refractive index 8. A 50-year old patient came in your clinic,
b. It colors special structure of a bacteria upon observation, his molar tooth appears
c. It aids in the visualization of organism to be color black, the patient is complaining
for easier counting about severe pain from the teeth moving to
d. Together with protein and moisture, his skull. As a dentist you did not performed
they aid in the growth of a bacterial an extraction because he made mentioned
cell that he is suffering from a blood disorder
4. Which among the following is true about known as Thrombocytopenia, a condition
fungi? where in his platelets (blood cells) are very
a. It can be a yeast and mold at certain low and can not properly clot an open
temperature hence the name wound. You requested for a microbiology
dimorphism study to know the cause of the infection,
1. They appear as mushroom under the upon presenting the result, it showed Gram
microscope positive cocci in chains. Which among the
2. They always cause infection following characteristic will lead you to the
3. They divide by means of budding, conclusion that the organism is
which involves the fertilization of an Streptococcus mutans?
egg cell from a mother fungus 1. The organism should have a greenish
5. Which among the following is true about an color around it when inoculated in a
immunoglobulin? blood agar plate
1. It is basically a protein 2. It should be resistant to Novobiocin
2. It stimulates the immune system to 3. It should be susceptible to
produce antibody against an antigen Erythromycin
3. It contains a Fab region which serves 4. It should be coagulase positive
as the basis for antibody attachment
4. It is produces in the liver

“Whatever you do, work at it with all your heart, as working for the Lord, not for men.”
Colossians 3:23
2 MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

9. Which among the following bacteria is 16. The following refers to the natural defense
arranged in this tetrad? mechanism of the urinary tract except ___.
1. Staphylococcus a. Lactobacillus acidophilus
2. Veilonella b. Menstrual cycle of a female
3. Gafknia c. Mucosal surface of the bladder
4. Neiserria d. Presence of normal flora such as
10. Which among the following shows the Staphylococcus saprophyticus
proper way of writing a bacterial name? 17. Which among the following organisms
1. Staphylococcus Aureus causes Vincent’s disease?
2. Staphylococcus Aureus a. Fusiform bacteria
3. Staphylococcus aureus b. Fusibacterium
4. Staphylococcus aureus c. Ruthia
11. Which among the following refers to the d. Streptococcus mutans
correct order of Gram’s staining? 18. Which among the following statements best
1. Crystal violet>iodine>safranin>alcohol describes how a bacterial cell causes
2. Iodine>crystal violet>alcohol>safranin meningitis?
3. Crystal violet>iodine>alcohol>safranin a. The inhibition of phagocytosis
4. Iodine>alcohol>crystal violet>safranin b. The breakage of the BBB
12. Which among the following organisms does c. The lysis of the red blood cells
not need oxygen? d. The person ingests the brain of an
1. Veilonella infected pig
2. Staphylococcus 19. An infection of the blood due to the
3. Legionella presence of bacteria is known as ____.
4. Pseudomonas a. Bacteremia
13. Which among the following is true about an b. Septicemia
immunoglobulin? c. BI
1. It is directly produced by a B cell d. VBI
2. It is constantly at a regular rate, with 20. Which among the following viruses is not a
or without an antigen DNA virus?
3. There are some cases in which an a. Parvovirus
antibody is directly injected in an b. Papilloma virus
individual c. Picorna virus
4. Breast milk is rich in IgG d. Hepadna virus
14. The infection of the skin refers to the 21. Which among the following individuals will
inflammation of a hair follicle is known as most likely develop meningitis from
___. Streptococcus agalactiae?
a. Cellulitis a. A 1 week old infant
b. Folliculitis b. A kinder 2 pupil
c. Curbuncle c. A construction worker
d. Skin ulcer d. A senior citizen
15. The inflammation of the gums is known as 22. Which among the following diseases will
___. most likely cause cellulitis?
a. Gummitis a. Diabetes mellitus type II
b. Gingivitis b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Ulcer c. Diabetes mellitus type I
d. Vincent’s disease d. Burn

“Call to Me, and I will answer you, and show you great and mighty things, which you do not
know”
Jeremiah 33:3
MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY 3

23. Which among the following is true about 29. This is a vesicular lesion in the skin with a
peptic ulcer? honey-colored crust
a. This is due to a bacterial infection a. Erysipelas
known as Helicobacter pylori b. Impetigo
b. This is a condition due to the drilling c. Cellulitis
mechanism of its causative agent d. Skin ulcer
c. This condition is due to the excess 30. Which among the following is true about a
amount of HCl produced by the capsulated organism?
stomach a. They usually hemolyze blood
d. It is caused by hookworms completely
24. Oral thrush is due to what microorganism? b. The capsule present causes the
a. Candida bacteria to migrate from one place to
b. Streptoccus another
c. Staphylococcus c. It causes the organism to inhibit the
d. Aspergillus phagocytic action of the white blood
25. The end product of a microorganism when cells
it utilizes a carbohydrate material from the d. It makes them easily penetrate into
oral cavity of an individual is ___. the host cell
a. Fructose 31. Which among the following statement
b. Citric acid properly shows a phoretic type of symbiotic
c. Fluorine relationship?
d. Botulinum a. Lactobacillus acidophilus is a normal
26. The locking of the jaw in cases of flora in the vagina
Clostridium botulinum is due to ___. b. Entamoeba histolyitica does not
a. The hyperconstriction of the muscles mature nor develop inside the
due to the release of GABA stomach of an individual
b. The poor constriction of the muscles c. Ascaris lumbricoides creating a bolus
because the organism blocks the in the intestines due to copulation
receptors for Acetyl choline A d. Enterobius vermicularis causes
c. The binding of the maxilla and the diarrhea
mandible 32. The causative agent of osmotic diarrhea is
d. The hyper secretion of saliva known as ___.
27. Which among the following is true a. Giardia lamblia
regarding Platyhelminths b. Campylobacter jejuni
I. Dorsoventrally flat c. Ascariasis
II. All of them are leaf in d. Hookworm
shape 33. Vaccination against Diphtheria and
III. There is no digestive system Pertussis was introduced by ___.
IV. Presence of an a. Theodore Schwann
adhesive system b. Emile Von Behring
a. I, III c. Paul Ehrlich
b. I, II, IV d. Robert Koch
c. I, III,IV 34. Prophylaxis against small pox was
d. None of the Above introduced by ___.
28. Phoresis is a symbiotic relationship where a. Paul Ehrlich
the organism is not physiologically b. Emil Von Behrning
dependent to the host. Which among c. Edward Jenner
the following is an example of a d. Richard Petri
phoront?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Entamoeba histolitica
d. Platyhelminthes
Colossians 3:23

35. Small pox is categorized as what class of c. Both
biosafety level? d. Neither
a. BSL I 43. The year when autoclave was developed?
b. BSL II a. 1884
c. BSL III b. 1885
d. BSL IV c. 1886
36. Which among the following is not true d. 1887
about a Petri dish? 44. Roselyn Yallow developed RIA in ___.
a. It was developed by Richard Petri a. 1952
b. It was developed in order to allow the b. 1953
entry of Oxygen without allowing c. 1954
contaminating fungi to enter d. 1955
c. A 150mm Petri dish is commonly used 45. The Bergey’s Manual of Microbial
in Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing Classification was first published in the year
d. None of the Above ___.
37. Salvarsan is a drug used for treating what a. 1922
infection? b. 1923
a. Gonorrhea c. 1924
b. Syphillis d. 1925
c. Trachoma 46. The year when HIV was first discovered?
d. HIV a. 1982
38. Salvarsan is also known as ___. b. 1983
a. 604 drug c. 1984
b. 607 drug d. 1985
c. 606 drug 47. The person who discovered HIV was ___.
d. 609 drug a. Louis Montagnier
39. Salvarsan was developed by ___. b. Salk and Sabin
a. Paul Ehrlich c. Rosalyn Yallow
b. Richard Petri d. Jensen Brothers
c. Louis Pasteur 48. The person/s responsible for the creation of
d. Robert Koch the compound microscope was ___.
40. The microorganism discovered by Robert a. Jensen Brothers
Koch is ___. b. Warner Brothers
a. Treponema pallidum c. Salk and Sabin
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Gallileo and Leeuwenhoek
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria 49. Which among the following is true about a
d. Salinibacter ruber eukaryotic cell’s nucleus?
41. Which among the following is true about a 1. It is bound to a
culture media for the “Tubercle Bacilli”? membrane
a. It should contain a high amount of 2. It has a single
lipid chromosome
b. It should contain a high amount of only
protein 3. Contains DNA
c. It should contain a high amount of and Histones
carbohydrate 4. It is not bound to
d. It should contain a high amount of any membrane
ammonia a. 1 only
42. Which among the following is true about b. 1 and 3 only
Mycobacterium tuberculosis colony in an LJ c. 1 and 2 only
Agar? d. 1,3, and 4 only
a. It is white in color 50. The type of cell division employed by a
b. It forms a cauliflower colony prokaryotic cell is known as ___.
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

a. Mitosis c. Ruthia dentocariosa
b. Meiosis d. Streptococcus mutans
c. Binary Fission 58. Which among the following is not true
d. Budding about osteomyelitis?
51. The part of a prokaryotic cell responsible a. It is an infection of the bone
for preventing a lysis during change in b. Usually affects the proximal tibia
tonicity of a solution is known as ___. c. It affects the level of hyaluronic acid
a. Cell membrane d. It is due to Streptococcus Group B
b. Cell wall 59. Which among the following describes an
c. Nucleus agar?
d. Peptidoglycan layer a. It has a lower melting rate compared
52. Which among the following does not to gelatin
describe bronchitis? b. It contains moisture that is essential
a. This is due to the infection of the in the growth of organisms
bronchioles c. It is only used when growing bacteria
b. There is hardening of the bronchioles d. It can be used in a broth medium
due to the dilation of blood vessels 60. Which among the following microorganism
c. It is due to bacterial infection will most likely grow in a chicken embryo
d. The common treatment is antibiotic media?
administration a. Virus
53. Giardia lamblia causes what type of b. Bacteria
diarrhea? c. Parasite
a. Bloody diarrhea d. Algae
b. Osmotic diarrhea 61. Streptococcus mutans causes dental carries
c. Invasive diarrhea because ___.
d. Secretory diarrhea 1. It converts the glucose present in the
54. Stahpylococcus aureus causes what type of mouth into citric acid that can destroy
food poisoning? the enamel of the tooth
a. Food intoxication 2. On the surface of the cell, it contains
b. Food infection pili that can adhere to the tooth
c. Both 3. It contains a “screw-like” projection
d. Neither that when it reaches the teeth it can
55. Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Periodontitis is create a hole in the crown of the
commonly known as ___. tooth
a. Vincent’s Disease 4. The antibiotic used for treating the
b. Tooth Decay infection creates an acidic saliva that
c. Gingivitis damages the tooth
d. Tartar 62. Which among the following is true about
56. Which among the following is true about ARF?
cystitis? 1. It is a sequelae infection of Strep
a. It is an infection of the kidneys due to throat
the motility of E. coli 2. It is caused by Staphylococcus
b. It is an infection in the urethra due to epidermidis since the organism can be
the contamination of E. coli acquired through implants of heart
c. It is the presence of cysteine crystals valves
in the body of a person 3. It is caused by a tetanus bacteria
d. It is caused by Staphylococcus 4. The heart hardens which causes
saprophyticus difficulty in pumping
57. Which among the following is not a 63. Which among the following antigenic
microorganism associated with an oral property of C. tetani is responsible for blood
infection? lysis?
a. Candida albicans 1. Tetanolysin
b. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Tetanospasmin
Colossians 3:23

3. Tetanohematin d. Chloramphenicol
4. Tetanocytase 73. Which among the following organism is a
64. Which among the following bacteria has a Gram positive bacilli?
spiral morphology? a. Escherichia
a. Staphylococcus b. Edwardsiella
b. Streptococcus c. Lactobacillus
c. Treponema d. Salmonella
d. Moraxella 74. Which among the following microscopes
65. Parasitic flukes are known as ___. are used in viewing very minute organism
a. Nematodes such as viruses
b. Cestodes a. Electron microscope
c. Trematodes b. Bright-field microscope
d. Platyhelminthes c. Dark-field microscope
66. Which among the following tapeworms d. Compound microscope
does not have a scolex? 75. This type of cell literally means “True
a. Taenia solium nucleus”
b. Taenia saginata a. Prokaryote
c. Diphylobothrium lattum b. Eukaryote
d. Multiceps multiceps c. Bacteria
67. This parasite causes the formation of a d. Parasite
bolus in the intestines 76. This refers to a symbiotic relationship
a. Taenia solium where in the host is used to transport an
b. Taenia saginata organism
c. Ascaris a. Commensalism
d. Trichuris b. Phoretic
68. Which among the following is not a bacilli? c. Parasitism
a. Edwardsiella d. All of the above
b. Salmonella 77. The standard used to compare the
c. Streptococcus concentration of an inoculum when
d. Shigella performing susceptibility testing?
69. A bacteria covered with flagella is called? a. Mac Farland
a. Lophotrichous b. Barium Sulfate solution
b. Peritrichous c. Both
c. Amphitrichous d. Neither
d. Atrichous 78. The preferred medium for culturing
70. Which among the following parts of the cell Lactobacillus is ___.
is used by the bacteria to move? a. Chocolate agar
a. Cell membrane b. Rogosa’s Tomato juice agar
b. Nucleus c. Regan Lowe agar
c. Flagella d. CIN agar
d. Mitochondria 79. BHIB stands for ___.
71. Which among the following is not a sexually a. Brain Heart Infusion Broth
transmitted bacteria? b. Brain Heat Infusion Brew
a. Treponema c. Brain Heart Infusion Brew
b. Chlamidyia d. Bacillus, Haemophillus, and Intestinal
c. Neiserria Bacilli
d. Streptococcus 80. What does MSA stand for?
72. The letter “C” in the CNA agar stands for a. Mannitol sugar agar
___. b. Mannitol salt agar
a. Carbon c. Methanol sulfate agar
b. Columbia d. MacConkey sorbitol agar
c. City
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

81. Panton-Valentine Leukocidin is also known d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
as ___. 89. A strain of Staphylococcus commonly used
a. Alpha hemolysin in coagglutination is ___.
b. Beta hemolysin a. Cowar I Strain
c. Gamma hemolysin b. Rhyme I Strain
d. Delta hemolysin c. Rhino I Strain
82. Which among the following exotoxins of d. Pyro I Strain
Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for 90. Basing from the laboratory result, which
curbuncle formation? among the following is probably the
a. Leukocidin organism?
b. Proteolysin 1. Smear shows Gram positive cocci in
c. Hyaluronidase clusters and in chains
d. Lipase 2. Slide Coagulase : Positve
83. Which among the following exotoxins of 3. Tube Coagulase: Negative
Staphylococcus aureus is capable of 4. Catalase Test: Positive
necrotizing tissues?
a. Leukocidin a. Staphylococcus albus
b. Hyaluronidase b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Proteolysin c. Staphylococcus lugdonensis
d. Lipase d. Staphylococcus citreus
84. Which among the following is a function of 91. Micrococcus when exposed to Bacitracin
Protein A present in the cell wall of will have what reaction?
Staphylococcus aureus? a. Susceptible
a. It causes Staphylococcal food b. Resistant
poisoning c. Intermediate
b. It causes inhibition of phagocytosis by d. No valid reaction
competing with opsonins 92. Staphylococcus when exposed to 100 ug
c. It causes TSS Furazolidine Susceptibility Test will have
d. It causes inhibition of phagocytosis by what reaction?
inhibiting chemotaxis a. Susceptible
85. The number 1 cause of food poisoning in b. Resistant
the US is ___. c. Intermediate
a. Stahpylococcus aureus d. No valid reaction
b. Streptococcus agalactiae 93. In a modified oxidase test the color
c. Bacillus cereus produced by Micrococcus is ___.
d. Bacillus anthracis a. Red color
86. Other name of Staphylococcal scalded skin b. Yellow color
syndrome is ___. c. Blue color
a. Von Pirquet Syndrome d. Play of colors
b. Ritter von Ritterscheir 94. Furoxone-Tween 80-oil Red O agar is used
c. Impetigo for what organism?
d. Granulomatous keratitis mycosis a. Staphylococcus
87. The Staphylococcus commonly b. Streptococcus
contaminating medical equipment is ___. c. Stomatococcus
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Micrococcus
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 95. Which among the following is not under the
c. Staphylococcus citreus Bergey’s Classification for Streptococcus?
d. Staphylococcus albus a. Pyogenic Group
88. Endocarditis caused by contaminated b. Non-Pyogenic Group
prosthetic heart valves is known as ___. c. Viridans Group
a. Staphylococcus citrus d. Lactococci Group
b. Staphylococcus albus 96. Which among the following is true about
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis Lancefield classification for Streptococci?
Colossians 3:23

a. It was identified by extracting the C c. Staphylococcus
carbohydrate after an acid elution d. Escherichia
b. It was identified by Grams reaction 105. A bacteria which is characterized as a long
c. It was identified by the reaction of rod is called
the C carbohydrate when stained a. Spirilla
using acid iodine b. Spirochete
d. All of the above c. Cocci
97. The Smith and Brown classification of d. Bacilli
Streptococcus is based on ___. 106. The common cause of UTI is ___.
a. Disease manifestation a. Escherichia
b. Hemolytic property b. Salmonella
c. Antigen property c. Shigella
d. Colony appearance d. Enterobacterium
98. The first disease eradicated by the WHO is 107. The primary stain used in Gram’s staining
___. is?
a. Guinea worm a. Methylene blue
b. Plague b. Safranin
c. Small pox c. Crystal violet
d. Chicken pox d. Iodine
99. MSA is a culture media for? 108. The culture media commonly used in the
a. Shigella laboratory is made up of ___.
b. Salmonella a. Gelatin
c. Streptococcus b. Broth
d. Staphylococcus c. Agar
100. Which among the following genus of d. Blood
bacteria contains a spore? 109. The agar used in the antimicrobial
a. Eshcherichia susceptibility testing is ___.
b. Salmonella a. Mueller-Hinton agar
c. Shigella b. Blood agar
d. Bacillus c. Chocolate agar
101. Which among the following is the principle d. Bordett agar
of autoclaving? 110. A type of agar where in the red blood cells
a. Moist heat are exposed to heat in order to lyse them is
b. Dry heat ___.
c. Wet heat a. BAP
d. Steam under pressure b. CAM
102. The MacConkey sorbitol agar is what type c. MHA
of agar? d. MAC
a. Selective 111. The inhibitor of Gram positive organism in a
b. Differential MAC Agar is ___.
c. Both a. Crystal violet
d. Neither b. Lactose
103. The type of blood which is added on the c. Mannitol
blood agar plate is ___. d. Hemoglobin
a. Horse blood 112. This Schistosome has a very small spine,
b. Sheep blood making it difficult to see is known as ___.
c. Human blood a. S. mansoni
d. Green Monkey blood b. S. japonicum
104. Which among the following is called as the c. S. haematobium
Giant intestinal round worm? d. S. intercalarum
a. Ascaris 113. Which among the following organism is
b. Giardia arranged in grape-like arrangement?
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

a. Staphyloccocus pyogenes c. Both
b. Streptococcus aureus d. Neither
c. Staphylococcus aureus 122. A culture media commonly used for the
d. Micrococcus neutralization of antibiotic is ___.
114. Which among the following agar is not used a. Thioglycollate broth
when isolating a Neisseria specie? b. TCBS
a. NYC c. Todd-Hewitt Broth with Antibiotics
b. Modified Thayer-Martin d. TSB
c. Thayer-Martin 123. The component of an XLD Media that is
d. MSA responsible for differentiating Salmonella
115. Bile salts present in a MacConkey is used for from Shigella is known as ___.
___. a. Lacotse
a. Inhibiting the growth of Gram positive b. Sucrose
organisms c. Sodium Desoxycholate
b. Inhibiting the growth of Gram d. Phenol Red
negative organisms other than 124. Which among the following fungi is properly
Enterobacteriaceae matched with the antibiotics they produce?
c. Inhibits the growth of fungi a. Bacillus subtilis - Bacitracin
d. Inhibits the growth of Salmonella b. Micromonospora purpurea –
116. The culture media commonly referred to as Gentamycin
“cough plate” c. Streptomyces venezuelae -
a. Bordet-Gengou Chloramphenicol
b. Blood Agar d. Streptomyces fradiae – Nystatin
c. Bile esculin agar with Vancomycin 125. The most important pathway of aerobic
d. Buffered Charcoal Yeast extract fermentation is ___.
117. Which among the following is a selective a. Krebs cycle
media for Yersinia? b. TCA cycle
a. CIN Agar c. Both
b. CVA Agar d. Neither
c. Chocolate Agar 126. The first stage of glucose metabolism is ___.
d. TM Agar a. Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas Pathway
118. The culture media used for the recovery of b. Krebs Cycle
Burkholderia cepacia from cystic fibrosis is c. TCA Cycle
___. d. Fermentation
a. Burkholderia cepacia selective media 127. In the Oxidation-Fermentation Test, how
b. BCYE many tubes is commonly used?
c. Campylobacter thioglycollate broth a. 1
d. Chromogenic agar b. 2
119. The incubation temperature of c. 3
Campylobacter thioglycollate broth is ___. d. 4
o
a. 3 C 128. In the Oxidation-Fermentation Test, what
o
b. 4 C tube will contain oil to avoid the entry of
o
c. 5 C air?
o
d. 10 C a. 1
120. How many grams of Amphotericin B is b. 2
present in a Campy-blood agar? c. 3
a. 10mg/L d. 4
b. 5mg/L 129. The fermentation where sugar is converted
c. 2500 U/L to ethanol is known as ___.
d. 2 mg/L a. Alcoholic Fermentation
121. The indicators of an EMB media are ___. b. Homolactic Fermentation
a. Eosin O and Methylene Blue c. Mixed Acid Fermentation
b. Eosin Y and Methylene Blue d. Butyric Acid Fermentation
Colossians 3:23

130. The reduction of pyruvate to lactate is an c. Shigella
example of what type of fermentation? d. Enterobacterium
a. Alcoholic Fermentation 139. The culture media commonly used in the
b. Homolactic Fermentation laboratory is made up of ___.
c. Mixed Acid Reaction a. Gelatin
d. Butanediol Fermentation b. Broth
131. Proteus is capable of what type of c. Agar
fermentation? d. Blood
a. Heterolactic Fermentation 140. The agar used in the antimicrobial
b. Mixed Acid Fermentation susceptibility testing is ___.
c. Butanediol Fermentation a. Mueller-Hinton agar
d. Butyric Acid Fermentation b. Blood agar
132. Clostridium is capable of what type of c. Chocolate agar
fermentation? d. Bordett agar
a. Heterolactic Fermentation 141. A type of agar where in the red blood cells
b. Mixed Acid Fermentation are exposed to heat in order to lyse them is
c. Butyric Acid Fermentation ___.
d. Butanediol Fermentation a. BAP
133. The test used to detect Mixed Acid b. CAM
fermentation is ___. c. MHA
a. Methyl Red Test d. MAC
b. Vogues Proskauer Test 142. The inhibitor of Gram positive organism in a
c. Ox-Ferm Test MAC Agar is ___.
d. Catalase Test a. Crystal violet
134. The test used to detect the ability of the b. Lactose
organism to ferment pyruvate to acetoin is c. Mannitol
known as ___. d. Hemoglobin
a. Methyl Red Test 143. Which among the following organism is
b. Vogues Proskauer Test arranged in grape-like arrangement?
c. Ox-Ferm Test a. Staphyloccocus pyogenes
d. Catalase Test b. Streptococcus aureus
135. Chromogenic Cephalosporin Test is a test c. Staphylococcus aureus
for the detection of ___. d. Micrococcus
a. B-lactamase production 144. Tinea versicolor is caused by what fungi?
b. Presence of Escherichia coli in UTI a. Aspergillus
c. Chloramphenicolase production b. Mallasezia
d. Penicillinase production c. Candida
136. Which among the following is called as the d. Microphyton
Giant intestinal round worm? 145. Which among the following is not a
a. Ascaris characteristic of Trichomonas vaginalis?
b. Giardia a. Causes strawberry cervix
c. Staphylococcus b. Causes “ping-pong” disease
d. Escherichia c. Can be cultured in Diamond Media
137. A bacteria which is characterized as a long d. None of the above
rod is called 146. The measurement of a Giardia lamblia
a. Spirilla trophozoite is ____.
b. Spirochete a. 9.5-21 micra
c. Cocci b. 6-20 micra
d. Bacilli c. 4-9 micra
138. The common cause of UTI is ___. d. 4-5 micra
a. Escherichia 147. Which among the following is not a
b. Salmonella characteristic of Plasmodium malariae?
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

a. It invades old red blood cells 156. V factor needed by Haemophilus is also
b. It infects reticulocytes known as ___.
c. It forms a daisy head shape inside the a. Hemin
red blood cell b. NAD
d. Causes Quartan Malaria c. Heme
148. Which among the following Schistosomes’ d. DNA
egg can be recovered from a fresh urine 157. Which among the following Haemophilus is
specimen? X Factor (+) and V Factor (-)?
a. Schistosoma intercalatum a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Schistosom haematobium b. Haemophilus ducreyi
c. Schistosoma mattheei c. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
d. Schistosoma bovis d. Haemophilus haemolyticus
149. What part of a prokaryotic cell determines 158. James dot is due to an infection with ___.
the staining property is ___. a. Plasmodium falciparum
a. Cell wall b. Plasmodium malariae
b. Cytoplasmic membrane c. Plasmodium ovale
c. Ribosome d. Plasmodium knowlesii
d. Mitohchondria 159. Which among the following organs will
150. Peptidoglycan layer is also known as ___. serve as an attachment organ of a
a. Murein Layer platyhelminth?
b. Lipoprotein Layer a. Rostellum
c. Lipopolysaccharide layer b. Scolex
d. Steroid Layer c. Segment
151. The site of energy production of a d. Cuticle
Eukaryotic cell is ___. 160. Which among the following is not true
a. Mitochondria about the egg of Hookworm?
b. Cytoplasmic membrane a. The scolex of its mature form has four
c. Ribosome suckers, and a conical refractile
d. RER rostellum
152. The site of energy production of a b. The larval form is know as a
Prokaryotic cell is ___. cysticercoid
a. Mitochondria c. Rodents are the intermediate hosts of
b. Cytoplasmic membrane this parasite
c. Ribosome d. The eggs contains egg pockets
d. RER 161. Oncomelania quadrasi harbors what
153. Free ribosome produces proteins in what parasite?
type of cell? a. Paragonimus westermani
a. Eukaryotic cell b. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Prokaryotic cell c. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Both d. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Neither 162. Which among the following parasites is
154. Which among the following is true about considered to be an aphasmid?
the DNA of a Prokaryotic Cell? a. Necator americanus
a. It is naked and cellular b. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. It is bound to a protein c. Capillaria philippinensis
c. It is linear d. Wochereria bancrofti
d. It inside the nucleus 163. The parasite commonly referred to as the
155. X factor needed by Haemophilus is also “Great imitator” is ___.
known as ___. a. Strongyloides stercoralis
a. Hemin b. Trichinella spiralis
b. NAD c. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Heme d. Plasmodium falciparum
d. DNA
Colossians 3:23

164. Paragonimus westermani is endemic in 172. The IMViC reaction of Serratia marcescens
what part of the Philippines? is ___.
a. Manila a. + + - -
b. Sorsogon b. - + - +
c. Davao c. + - + -
d. Batanes d. - - + +
165. Which among the following genus of 173. The IMViC reaction of Proteus stuartii is
parasites is considered to be “romantic ___.
parasites”? a. + + - +
a. Schistosomes b. - + - +
b. Plasmodium c. + - + -
c. Entamoeba d. - - + +
d. Anisakis 174. The IMViC reaction of Morganella morganii
166. A stool sample was given 8:00 a.m. The is ___.
medical technologist found 3 eggs, a. + + - -
measuring 31 micrometers each (using the b. - + - +
ocular micrometer). He also found out c. + - + -
unique radial striations surrounding the d. - - + +
egg. What is the most probable parasite 175. The distinct colonial morphology of
seen? Actinomyces Israeli is ___.
a. Ascaris lumbricoides egg a. Spider colony
b. Hymenolepis diminuta egg b. Raspberry colony
c. Taenia egg c. Radial colony
d. Schistosoma japonicum egg d. Dimpling colony
167. The presence of a “nipple-like” cyst, is 176. PPNG is a strain of what bacteria?
indicative of ____. a. Actinomadura
a. Embadomonas intestinalis b. Nocardia
b. Chilomastix mesnili c. Neisseria
c. Lamblia intestinalis d. Clostridium
d. Enteromonas hominis 177. The common transport media for
168. The motility of Lamblia intestinalis is ___. gonococcal samples is ___.
a. Falling leaf a. Amies Media with Charcoal
b. Jerking b. Dacron agar
c. Straight-forward c. Cotton agar
d. Amoeboid d. Modified Thayer Martin with glycerol
169. The culture for intestinal amoebas is ___. 178. The swab recommended for collecting
a. Novy-McNeal-Nicolle medium samples suspected of Neisseria is ___.
b. Diamond Medium a. Cotton Swab
c. Cleaveland Collier’s medium b. Rayon Swab
d. Harada-Mori paper strip culture c. Iron Swab
170. The egg of Echinococcus granulosus d. Wooden swab
contains an embryo with ___ hooklets. 179. Which among the following is not a
a. 3 component of Thayer-Martin Agar?
b. 6 a. Vancomycin
c. 9 b. Colistin
d. 12 c. Linomycin
171. The smallest and deadliest intestinal fluke d. Trimethoprim
in man 180. All of the following antibiotics are present in
a. Heterophyes heterophyes a Martin Lewis Media except ___.
b. Metagonimus yokogawai a. Anisomycin
c. Echinostoma ilocanum b. Amphotericin
d. Diphylobothrium latum c. Vancomycin
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

d. Collistin 189. Which among the following parts of a
181. Which among the following components of bacterial cell is responsible for anchoring
a New York City media will inhibit the the flagella to the bacterial cell?
swarming of Proteus organism? a. Cell wall
a. Vancomycin b. Cell membrane
b. Anisomycin c. Periplasmic membrane
c. Trimethoprim lactate d. Nucleus
d. Amphotericin B 190. The major component of a cell wall
182. Which among the following antibiotics will responsible for the staining characteristic of
inhibit the growth of contaminating fungi in a bacterial cell?
a New York City media? a. Cellulose
a. Vancomycin b. Chitin
b. Anisomycin c. Murein layer
c. Trimethoprim lactate d. All of the above
d. Amphotericin B 191. Which among the following is true about
183. Neisseria gonorrheae will ferment what the cell wall of a eukaryotic cell?
organism? a. Animal cells usually have a cell wall
a. Maltose made up of polypeptide
b. Sucrose b. Plant cells will usually contain
c. Glucose cellulose on their cell wall which is a
d. Galactose monosaccharide
184. Which among the following carbohydrates c. The cell wall of a fungi is made up of
will Neisseria meningitidis ferment? chitin, this carbohydrate can be seen
a. Sucrose and Maltose in prokaryotic fungi
b. Maltose and Lactose d. None of the above
c. Galactose and Glucose 192. Which among the following is true about a
d. Glucose and Maltose Gram variable reaction?
185. Which among the following Neisseriaceae is a. The cell is stained during the removal
Tributyrin hydrolysis positive? of RNA
a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. The bacterial cell is starting to lyse
b. Moraxella catarrhalis c. The Gram’s iodine is too acidic
c. Branhamella lacunata d. All of the above
d. Neisseria lactamica 193. In the process of Gram’s staining, which
186. The IMViC reaction of Escherichia coli is among the following can be used as a
___. substitute for safranin?
a. + + - - a. Picric acid
b. - + - + b. Carbol Fuschin
c. + - + - c. Malachite green
d. - - + + d. Bromthymol blue
187. Pellicle formation is manifested by what 194. The recommended fixation of a slide that
type of meningitis? will be subjected to acid fast is ___.
a. Bacterial Meningitis a. Saturate the slide with methanol
o
b. Fungal Meningitis b. Heat the slide at 65 C for 2 hours
c. Viral Meningitis c. Heat the slide with a Bunsen burner
d. Tubercular Meningitis for 30 min
o
188. The special organelle present in a d. Heat the slide at 55 C for 1 hour
eukaryotic cell responsible for packing DNA 195. Which among the following is commonly
is known as ___. referred to as the Hot method for acid fast
a. Ribosome staining?
b. RER a. Ziehl-Neelsen Method
c. Histones b. Kinyoun Method
d. Lysosome c. Pappenheim Method
d. Baumgarten Method
Colossians 3:23

196. The Cold method for acid fast staining is 4. The term acid fast refers to the ability
known as ___. of the organism to resist decolorization
a. Ziehl-Neelsen Method with acid alcohol
b. Kinyoun Method a. 1 only
c. Pappenheim Method b. 1 and 2 only
d. Baumgarten Method c. 1, 2, and 3 only
197. Which among the following acid fast is d. 1,2, and 4 only
recommended for tissue biopsies? 204. Which among the following acid fast
a. Ziehl-Neelsen Method organisms has the ability to change its
b. Kinyoun Method morphology from cocci to bacilli after 24
c. Pappenheim Method hours of incubation?
d. Baumgarten Method a. Mycobaterium
198. Which among the following is the b. Rhodococcus
component of Hot Method Acid Fast? c. Nocardia
a. 3 grams carbol fuschin + 5% phenol d. Legionella
b. 4 grams carbol fuschin + 9% phenol 205. Which among the following is not an
c. 5 grams carbol fuschin + 11% phenol anaerobic Gram positive cocc?
d. 9 grams carbol fuschin + 15% phenol a. Micrococus
199. Which among the following is a component b. Peptococcus
of Cold Method Acid Fast? c. Peptostreptococcus
a. 3 grams carbol fuschin + 5% phenol d. Sarcina
b. 4 grams carbol fuschin + 9% phenol 206. Which among the following is not part of
c. 5 grams carbol fuschin + 11% phenol the triads of parasitic infection in the
d. 9 grams carbol fuschin + 15% phenol Philippines?
200. The acid fast stain used for differentiating a. Taenia
Mycobacterium smegmatis from b. Ascaris
Mycobacterium tuberculosis? c. Hookworm
a. Ziehl-Neelsen Method d. Enterobius
b. Kinyoun Method 207. Which among the following is not a defense
c. Pappenheim Method mechanism of the respiratory system?
d. Baumgarten Method a. The excessive secretion of mucus in
201. The acid fast stain used for differentiating cases of colds
Mycobacterium leprae from Mycobacterium b. The secretion of a dimer antibody
tuberculosis? c. The phagocytic property of alveolar
a. Ziehl-Neelsen Method macrophages
b. Kinyoun Method d. The normal flora
c. Pappenheim Method 208. Which among the following is not true
d. Baumgarten Method about otitis media?
202. A macrophage with an engulfed AFB is a. It is an infection of the ear
known as ___. b. It results from the bursting of the ear
a. Feratta Cell drum
b. Lepra Cell c. It can be transmitted when a person
c. Acid Fast Cell shares a pillow with an infected
d. Giemsa Cell individual
203. Which among the following is true about an d. It is due to the absence of ear wax
Acid Fast? due to excessive cleaning
1. The primary stain is Carbol Fuschin 209. Which among the following is not true
2. It is used for staining high-lipid content about the bacterial growth phase?
cells 1. It is plotted in a graph depicting the
3. The term acid fast refers to the ability number of bacteria in the Y-axis
of the organism to decolorize with acid
alcohol
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

2. It is a graph showing the relationship 216. Which among the following life cycles of a
between bacterial nutrient and trematode is arranged properly?
organisms a. Sporocyst, miracidium, metacercaria,
3. Log phase refers to the geometric radia
progression in the population of b. Miracidium, sporocyst, redia,
bacteria metacercaria
4. It can be used to understand if the c. Cercaria, metacercaria, redia,
bacteria is susceptible or resistant to a sporocyst
certain antibiotic d. Redia, sporocyst, miracidium
210. Which among the following cases can be e. Egg, larva, adult
susceptible to the drug Bacitracin? 217. Which among the following parasites will
1. 21-year old characterized with a not have a sea animal as its second
vaginal discharge intermediate host?
2. 30-year old male suffering with an a. Heterophyes heterophyes
enlarged groin b. Opistorchis felineus
3. 12-year old boy who got accidentally c. Paragonimus westermani
pricked with a rusty nail d. Fasciola hepatica
4. 11-year old girl who accidentally ate 218. The stain used for detecting the presence of
an expired lollipop oval fat bodies is ___.
211. The discoverer of Schistosomes is ___. a. Giemsa
a. Bilharz b. Sudan Black
b. Metchnikoff c. Crystal violet
c. Korapov d. Best Carmine stain
d. De Los Reyes 219. Which among the following tests will
212. Which among the following is not true indicate the presence of small amount of
about Entamoeba histolytica? blood?
a. It has a large eccentrally located a. Occult blood test
karyosome b. Watson-Swhartz Test
b. The mature cyst contain one nucleus c. Erlich Test
c. The trophozoite is commonly called d. Zinc sulfate test
as “dirty looking” 220. The term used to denote that the stool is
d. The stained nucleus consists of black is ____.
thicker nuclear membrane a. Bismuthy
213. Which among the following Nematodes do b. Frothy
not infect the small intestine? c. Blacky
a. Capillaria philipinensis d. Tarry
b. Ascaris lumbricoides 221. A special structure of a fungi that arises
c. Strongyloides stercoralis from a basidiospore is known as ___.
d. Enterobius vermicularis a. Sporangium
214. An egg that is barrel-shaped with b. Sterigmata
protruding bipolar mucus plug is a c. Pseudohyphae
characteristic of this parasite. d. Sporangiospore
a. Enterobius vermicularis 222. Which among the following Rickettsia
b. Ascaris lumbricoides causes Q fever?
c. Trichinella spiralis a. Coxiella burnetti
d. Trichuris trichiura b. R. prowazekii
215. Which among the following specimens c. Orientsia
should you use when recovering the filarial d. R. akarii
worm Onchocerca volvulus? 223. Which among the following is true about
a. Blood AIDS?
b. Feces a. It can only be transmitted via sexual
c. Skin snip contact
d. Sputum b. It is caused by an RNA virus
Colossians 3:23

c. It can be cured by killing the viral 232. Which among the following cycles in the
agent bacterial growth cycle will be the period of
d. It is caused by a DNA virus adjustment of the bacteria in the
224. According to the WHO how many steps are environment?
there in handwahsing? a. Lag phase
a. 8 b. Log phase
b. 12 c. Stationary phase
c. 15 d. Decline phase
d. 6 233. The phase in the bacterial growth phase
225. The sac-like cell containing a spore is known where there is stoppage of growth and the
as ___. nutrients are exhausted is known as ___.
a. Ascus a. Lag phase
b. Basidium b. Log phase
c. Zygous c. Stationary phase
d. Conidia d. Decline phase
226. The outermost layer of the skin is known as 234. How many percent of agar is present in a
___. broth medium?
a. Epidermis a. 0%
b. Dermis b. 0-1%
c. Stratum spinosum c. 2-3%
d. Stratum granulosum d. 4-4.5%
227. These are fungi that exhibit a filamentous 235. The melting point of agar is ___.
o
type of growth a. 80-90 C
o
a. Mold b. 40-50 C
o
b. Yeast c. 60-70 C
o
c. Mushroom d. 65-80 C
d. All of the above 236. The solidifying point of agar is ___.
o
228. A thick-walled spore formed during sexual a. 80-90 C
o
reproduction is known as ___. b. 40-50 C
o
a. Zygospore c. 60-70 C
o
b. Ascospore d. 65-80 C
c. Basidiospore 237. Which among the following culture media is
d. Conidiospore extracted from the cervix of a woman?
229. A type of hypha that is divided by cross a. McCoy’s cell
walls is known as ___. b. HELA 229
a. Aseptate c. W138
b. Septate d. Chicken Embryo
c. Basidiospore 238. Which among the following culture media is
d. Ascus extracted from fibroblasts?
230. Which among the following causes scrub a. McCoy’s cell
typhus? b. HELA 229
a. C. burnetti c. W138
b. R. akarii d. Chicken Embryo
c. R. prowazekii 239. Which among the following organisms is
d. O. tsutsugamushi not a rapid lactose fermenter?
231. Which among the following is not an RNA a. Escherichia
virus? b. Klebsiella
a. Toga virus c. Salmonella
b. Picorna virus d. Enterobacter
c. Herpes virus 240. Which among the following is not a late
d. Rubella virus lactose fermenter?
a. Arizona
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

b. Serratia 247. A carbohydrate commonly added to culture
c. Hafnia media in order to detect the presence of
d. Shigella late lactose fermenters is ___.
241. All of the following are non-lactose a. Maltose
fermenters except ___. b. Starch
a. Arizona c. Sucrose
b. Morganella d. Galactose
c. Edwardsiella 248. The EMB media that will contain both
d. Proteus lactose and sucrose is known as ___.
242. Which among the following is true about a. Levine EMB
MacConkey Agar? b. Holt Harris EMB
1. It is a differential media c. Pasteur EMB
2. Rapid lactose fermenters will produce d. Gram’s EMB
a pink colony 249. The EMB media that will contain lactose
3. Late lactose fermenters will produce a only as its carbohydrate is known as ___.
pink colony after 24 hours a. Levine EMB
4. Non-lactose fermenters will produce a b. Holt Harris EMB
colorless colony c. Pasteur EMB
a. 1 only d. Gram’s EMB
b. 1 and 2 only 250. A type of fungi that grown in the keratinized
c. 1, 2, and 3 only portion of the body is known as ___.
d. 1,2, and 4 only a. Superficial mycoses
243. Rapid lactose fermenters will produce a b. Tinea
pink colony because of ___. c. Cutaneous fungi
a. The conversion of lactose into d. Superficial fungi
pyruvate thus forming pyruvic acid 251. A family of virus that is characterized to be
b. The utilization of peptone instead of causing a yellow coloration in an infected
lactose, thus ammonia is produced person is ___.
c. The conversion of lactose into lactic a. Corona virus
acid thus changing the color of the b. Adeno virus
indicator c. Flavi virus
d. The conversion of lactose into acetoin d. Arena virus
244. The selective media for E. coli O157:H7 is 252. Which among the following is not a
known as ___. function of a fungi?
a. Sorbitol MacConkey Agar a. Fermentation
b. EMB Agar b. Antibiotic production
c. NYC Agar c. Decay
d. Bordett-Gengou Agar d. Intracellular infection
245. The following media additives inhibit the 253. Which the following is not a DNA virus?
growth of Gram positive organisms except a. Adeno virus
____. b. Hepadna virus
a. Crystal violet c. Picorna virus
b. Bile Salt d. Herpes virus
c. Vancomycin 254. Rickettsial pox is caused by ___.
d. Potassium tellurite a. R. akari
246. All of the following media additives inhibit b. R. conorii
the growth of Gram negative organisms c. R. flexneri
except ___. d. R. tsutsugamushi
a. PEA 255. The fundamental tube-like structural unit of
b. Potassium tellurite a fungi is known as ___.
c. Colistin a. Mycellium
d. Crystal violet b. Spore
c. Hyphae
Colossians 3:23

d. Conidia a. Bordettella
256. A term used to denote translucent fungi is b. Brucella
known as ___. c. Streptococcus
a. Dematiaceous d. Staphylococcus
b. Hyaline 265. Which among the following organism
c. Albino causes Vincent’s Disease?
d. Nigra a. Actinomyces
257. This refers to a fungi that has the ability to b. Streptococcus
be in a yeast or mold phase depending on c. Fusobacterium
the temperature d. Legionella
a. Diphasic 266. Which among the following is true about an
b. Dimorphic immunoglobulin?
c. Both 1. It is directly produced by a B cell
d. Neither 2. It is constantly at a regular rate, with
258. Queensland Rickettsia is caused by what or without an antigen
organism? 3. There are some cases in which an
a. R. siberika antibody is directly injected in an
b. R. australis individual
c. R. akari 4. Breast milk is rich in IgG
d. R. conorii 267. Which among the following is not a Gram
259. The organism causing tooth decay is known positive organism?
as ___. 1. Corynebactrium
a. Streptococcus viridans 2. Erysipelothrix
b. Streptococcus agalactiae 3. Bacteroides
c. Ruthia dentocariosa 4. Peptococcus
d. All of the above 268. Which among the following is not a Gram
260. Which among the following organism positive organism?
causes peptic ulcer? 1. Corynebactrium
a. E. coli 2. Erysipelothrix
b. V. cholera 3. Bacteroides
c. H. pylori 4. Peptococcus
d. Retroviridae 269. The common method of killing bacteria
261. The culture media used to grow a fungal present in milk is ___.
colony is ___. 1. Pasteurization
a. PDA 2. Variolation
b. MSA 3. Vaccination
c. Mac 4. Catheterization
d. BAM 270. Which among the following is not true
262. A type of hypha that does not have a cross about immunology?
wall is known as ___. 1. B cells were first discovered among
a. Septate chickens
b. Aseptate 2. Immunoglobulins are “Y” in shape
c. Conidia 3. T cytotoxic allows the B cells to stop
d. Basidiospore producing antibodies
263. Which among the following is true about 4. E. Jenner discovered a vaccine against
Picornaviridae? small pox
a. It is a large virus 271. Which among the following is true about
b. It causes a food-borne hepatitis Streptococcus?
c. It causes an inflammation in the liver 1. Each organism has its own designation
d. It is a double stranded DNA virus according to the mode of
264. A microbe of the respiratory system causing differentiation
pertussis is known as ___.
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

2. Organisms liberate hemoglobin hence 4. It contains Amphotericin B
the production of hemolysis in a blood 277. Which among the following is true about
agar Clostridium tetani?
3. They liberate water and oxygen from 1. It can be acquired by ingesting a food
hydrogen peroxide contaminated with rusty flakes
4. Streptococcus aureus is considered to 2. It inhibits Acetyl choline receptor
be the most common specie among 3. It can be used in the field of cosmetics
the genus 4. It is a sporulated organism that can be
272. This enzyme is responsible for the stained using an Acid Fast stain
degradation of connective tissues which is 278. The study of fungi is known as ___.
responsible for the spread of a a. Fungology
Streptococcal infection? b. Mycology
1. Coagulase c. Mushroomology
2. Hyaluronidase d. Saprology
3. Enzymase 279. Tinea corporis refers to ___.
4. Catalase a. Ringworm of the groin
273. Which among the following organisms is b. Ringworm of the beard
considered to be the most common c. Ringworm of the body
coliform present in water? d. Ringworm of the eye
1. E. coli 280. Which among the following parts of the
2. Salmonella nose is responsible for filtering the air a
3. Shigella person breath?
4. Edwardsiella a. Mouth
274. Which among the following is not true b. Nostril
about a normal flora? c. Teeth
1. They act as soldiers to fight any d. Trachea
potential pathogenic organism 281. Boutoneuse Fever is caused by what
2. They cause infection ones their Rickettsial member?
habitat is altered a. R. ewingii
3. They are example of commensal b. R. conorii
organism c. R. prowazekii
4. They have a mutual relationship with d. R. akari
the host 282. A mass of hyphae forming the vegetative
275. Which among the following is not true unit of a fungus is known as ___.
about the bacterial growth phase? a. Hyphae
1. It is plotted in a graph depicting the b. Spore
number of bacteria in the Y-axis c. Mycellium
2. It is a graph showing the relationship d. Conidia
between bacterial nutrient and 283. This refers to a bacteria causing an
organisms inflammation of the throat is known as ___.
3. Log phase refers to the geometric a. Staphylococcus
progression in the population of b. Neisseria
bacteria c. Streptococcus
4. It can be used to understand if the d. Clostridium
bacteria is susceptible or resistant to a 284. Fungi that live on dead organic material is
certain antibiotic known as ___.
276. Which among the following is true about a. Dermatophyte
Thayer-Martin agar? b. Saprophyte
1. It is used for all Neiserria species c. Mycose
2. It is a modification of a chocolate agar d. Mycellium
3. It contains Valinomycin which inhibits 285. A type of virus that infects a bacterium
the growth of Gram positive instead of a person
organisms a. Bacteriophage
Colossians 3:23

b. Bacteriolysin 294. The root like structure present in a mold is
c. Bacteriodeae known as ___.
d. Bacterion a. Mycellium
286. According to the WHO how many steps are b. Hyphae
there in handwahsing? c. Sporangiospore
a. 8 d. Rhizoid
b. 12 295. The organism causing tooth decay is known
c. 15 as ___.
d. 6 a. Streptococcus viridans
287. The sac-like cell containing a spore is known b. Streptococcus agalactiae
as ___. c. Ruthia dentocariosa
a. Ascus d. All of the above
b. Basidium 296. Which among the following organism
c. Zygous causes peptic ulcer?
d. Conidia a. E. coli
288. According to the CDC how many steps are b. V. cholera
there in handwashing? c. H. pylori
a. 8 d. Retroviridae
b. 12 297. The culture media used to grow a fungal
c. 15 colony is ___.
d. 6 a. PDA
289. The outermost layer of the skin is known as b. MSA
___. c. Mac
a. Epidermis d. BAM
b. Dermis 298. A type of hypha that does not have a cross
c. Stratum spinosum wall is known as ___.
d. Stratum granulosum a. Septate
290. These are fungi that exhibit a filamentous b. Aseptate
type of growth c. Conidia
a. Mold d. Basidiospore
b. Yeast 299. Which among the following is true about
c. Mushroom Picornaviridae?
d. All of the above a. It is a large virus
291. Fungi that is capable of producing brown or b. It causes a food-borne hepatitis
black pigments is known as ___. c. It causes an inflammation in the liver
a. Albino d. It is a double stranded DNA virus
b. Nigra 300. Which among the following is not a microbe
c. Dematiaceous of the skin?
d. Hyaline a. Rhinovirus
292. A type of fungi characterized as mucoid or b. Staphylococcus
pasty c. Streptococcus
a. Mold d. Dermatophyte
b. Yeast 301. This refers to reagents used to enhance the
c. Mushroom appearance of a bacterial cell
d. All of the above a. Stain
293. The test used to differentiate Rickettsial b. Fixative
organism is known as ___. c. Mordant
a. Widal Test d. Accentuator
b. Weil-Felix Test 302. The secondary stain in a Gram stain will
c. Barbiero’s Test color what organism?
d. Florence Test a. Gram positive
b. Gram negative
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

c. Both c. Mordant
d. Neither d. Decolorizer
303. Most agars uses this type of sterilization 312. This is a type of stain contained in the base
technique part of the stain
a. Filtration a. Acid stain
b. Steaming b. Neutral stain
c. Autoclaving c. Base stain
d. Boiling d. All of the above
304. The pH of the nucleus of a cell is ___. 313. This type of simple stain, will dye the entire
a. Basic bacterial cell
b. Neutral a. Negative stain
c. Acidic b. Positive stain
d. None of the above c. Differential stain
305. This refers to a gel that is used to grow d. None of the above
microorganisms 314. India ink is an example of what stain?
a. Gelatin a. Positive stain
b. Agar b. Negative stain
c. Peptone c. Differential stain
d. Broth d. None of the above
306. The pH of the cytoplasm of a cell is ___. 315. Which among the following is not a part of
a. Basic the Welch stain?
b. Neutral a. Crystal violet
c. Acidic b. Copper sulfate
d. None of the above c. Safranin
307. The process of staining organisms with a d. All of the above
simple dye is known as ___. 316. Which among the following is an example
a. Direct staining of a negative stain?
b. Indirect staining a. Carbol fuschin
c. Progressive staining b. Methylene blue
d. Regressive staining c. Negrosin stain
308. The cell organelle that is considered to be d. Crystal violet
antiphagocytic in nature 317. The part of a bacterial cell responsible for
a. Spore chromosome attachment in preparation for
b. Capsule binary fission is known as ___.
c. Flagella a. Cell wall
d. Nucleus b. Slime layer
309. A stain that utilizes a mordant is known as c. Mesosome
___. d. Pili
a. Direct staining 318. Which among the following parts of a
b. Indirect staining bacterial cell can be detected by
c. Progressive staining precipitation tests?
d. Regressive staining a. Capsule
310. Crystal violet should be in contact with the b. Spore
slide for how many minutes? c. Flagella
a. 1 d. Pili
b. 2 319. Which among the following is not true
c. 3 about the Neufeld Quellung Test?
d. 4 a. The test was developed by a German
311. This refers to a substance that acts as a Physician Dr. Neufeld Quellung
bridge between the sample and the stain b. The principle is based on capsular
used swelling
a. Accentuator c. Meningitis organisms are usually
b. Fixative positive
Colossians 3:23

d. It is a test for detecting the somatic d. Microaerophilic bacteria
antigen 327. The culture media used for culturing the
320. This refers to a bacterial cell with a tuft of Halophilic Vibrio is ___.
flagella at one side of the organism? a. Wagatsuma Agar
a. Monotrichous b. Mannitol Salt Agar
b. Lophotrichous c. APW
c. Amphitrichous d. 6.5% Salt broth
d. Periplasmic flagella 328. Organisms that need pressure in order to
321. Which among the following is not true grow is known as ___.
about the endotoxin? a. Pressuphilic Organisms
a. It is known as lipopolysaccharide b. Barophilic Organisms
toxin c. Pressurized Bacteria
b. It is produced by Gram positive and d. Autoclavable Organisms
Gram negative organisms 329. Which among the following stages of a
c. Its presence can be detected by bacterial growth cycle is properly arranged
means of lysing the blood of a horse from the first phase to the last phase?
shoe crab a. Log phase>lag phase>stationary
d. Typhoid fever is an example of a phase>death phase
disease caused by the toxin b. Lag phase>log phase>death
322. Which among the following is true about phase>stationary phase
exotoxin? c. Lag phase>log phase>stationary
a. It is produced by Salmonella and phase>logarithmic decline phase
Escherichia d. Death phase>stationary phase>log
b. It can be easily converted to toxoids phase>lag phase
c. The lethal dose is larger 330. In the bacterial growth cycle, which among
d. It has a low toxicity level the following phases will be targeted by
323. The organism in which the reagent for the antibiotics?
Limulus lysate test is extracted from is a. Lag phase
known as ___. b. Log phase
a. Horse Shoe fish c. Stationary phase
b. Horse Shoe crab d. Decline phase
c. Horse Shoe roach 331. This refers to the proteins derived from
d. Horse Shoe shell animals and plants that is considered as a
324. This refers to a group of organisms that vital component of a culture media
obtain carbon from inorganic materials is a. Yeast extract
known as ___. b. Meat extract
a. Litothrops c. Peptone
b. Chemoautotrophs d. Water
c. Heterotrophs 332. This is a type of culture media for organisms
d. Organotrophs that do not require special requirements
325. Most clinically significant organisms belong a. Selective media
in what category under oxygen b. Differential media
requirement? c. Basic media
a. Obligate aerobic bacteria d. Transport media
b. Obligate anaerobic bacteria 333. Which among the following is not a
c. Facultative anaerobic bacteria function of a fluid culture media?
d. Microaerophilic bacteria a. Positive growth is indicated by
326. Treponema pallidum is what type of turbidity
bacteria according to Oxygen requirement? b. It is used as an enrichment media
a. Obligate aerobic bacteria c. Used to observe bacterial motility
b. Obligate anaerobic bacteria d. Used as a blood culture
c. Facultative anaerobic bacteria
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

334. First step in culture media preparation is c. Light bulb
___. d. Aluminum condenser
a. Sterilization 341. The person responsible for the
b. Dispensing development of the simple microscope was
c. Weighing ___.
d. Addition of heat sensitive materials a. James Petri
335. Which among the following components of b. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
the Gram stain will stain a bacterial cell with c. Hans Christian Gram
a thick peptidoglycan layer? d. Zaccharias Jensen
a. Crystal violet 342. The developer of the compound
b. Gentian violet microscope is ___.
c. Safranin a. Jansen
d. Acetone b. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
336. Which among the following is not true c. Ernst Ruska
about a bacterial stain? d. Jennings
a. It enhances the clarity of an organism 343. Which among the following microscopic
by increasing the refractive index elements was not observed by Anton Van
b. It colors special structure of a bacteria Leeuwenhoek?
c. It aids in the visualization of organism b. Red blood cell
for easier counting c. Spermatozoa
d. Together with protein and moisture, d. Bacteria
they aid in the growth of a bacterial cell e. Amoeba
337. Which among the following is true about 344. Which among the following words was used
Gram’s staining? to denote the organisms observed by Anton
a. It stains a special organelle of the cell Van Leeuwenhoek?
into two colors 2. Atoms
b. It is a vital stain 3. Bacteria
c. Aside from using a dropper when 4. Animalcules
staining, you can simply submerge the 5. Amoeba animales
entire groups of slides all at the same 345. The theory which states that organic
time for batch staining materials originated from organic
d. It contains a mordant that is used to substances is known as ___.
enhance the staining of a bacterial cell a. Organic Theory
338. Which among the following is not true b. Vital Force Theory
about a normal flora? c. Vitaforce Theory
a. They act as soldiers to fight any d. Spontaneous Theory
potential pathogenic organism 346. A sample of stool, from a patient suffering
b. They cause infection ones their habitat with bacteremia was submitted in the
is altered Parasitology section of the laboratory. The
c. They are example of commensal Technologist noticed its green coloration.
organism This could be due to?
d. They have a mutual relationship with a. vegetables
the host b. oral antibiotics
339. The part of the microscope known as the c. Pseudomonas infection
lens system nearest to the eye is ___. d. Escherichia coli
a. Phototube 347. A normal fecal sample should have a
b. Ocular consistency likened to ___.
c. Stage a. Milk
d. Arm b. Colgate
340. The type of condenser used in a dark field c. Cream
microscope is ____. d. Gelatin
a. Mercury condenser 348. Triad of infection in the Philippines
b. Opaque condenser I. Hookworm
Colossians 3:23

II. Ascariasis c. + - + -
III. Trichinellosis d. - - + +
IV. Trichuriasis 357. The IMViC reaction of Klebsiella oxytoca is
b. I,II,III ___.
c. I,II,IV a. + + - -
d. II,III, IV b. - + - +
e. II,IV,I c. + - + +
349. This test performed on stool utilizes Guaiac- d. - - + +
impregnated Filter paper 358. This parasite produces eggs which are
a. Harada Mori Filter Paper Test commonly known as “old-fashioned electric
b. Egg hatch Test for Strongyloides spp. bulb”
c. Occult blood test a. Gastrodiscoides hominis
d. Shmidt’s Test b. Metagonimus yokogawai
350. The vector Physopsis will carry what c. Clonorchis sinensis
parasite? d. Nanophyetus salmincola
a. Schistosoma intercalatum 359. Which among the following does NOT
b. Schistosoma japonicum describe a flame cell?
c. Schistosoma mekongi a. It contains a pili that vibrates in
d. Schistosoma mattheei unison giving a flickering of candle
351. The Schistosome with a spike on the lateral appearance
side is a characteristic of what specie? b. It is the functional cell of a
a. Schistosoma haematobium platyhelminth
b. Schistosoma mansoni c. It is also known as solenocyte
c. Schistosoma intercalatum d. None of the above
d. Schistoma mattheei 360. Dracunculus medinensis is also known as
352. The parasite that was identified in “Fiery serpent of the Israelites” because
Mindanao in the year 2004 is? ___.
a. Capillaria philipinensis a. the parasite has a shape of a serpent
b. Haplorchis taichui b. it resembled a serpent on a wooden
c. Nanophyetus salmincola dowel
d. Acantoparyphium c. it was first discovered in Israel from
353. The IMViC reaction of Edwardsiella tarda is the bite of Athrops viper snake
___. d. because the worm infection is treated
a. + + - - by placing a match stick on the site of
b. - + - + entry
c. + - + - 361. Phoresis is a symbiotic relationship where
d. - - + + the organism is not physiologically
354. The IMViC reaction of Shigella sonnei is ___. dependent to the host. Which among the
a. + + - - following is an example of a phoront?
b. - + - - a. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. + - + - b. Trichuris trichiura
d. - - + + c. Entamoeba histolitica
355. The IMViC reaction of Citrobacter freundi is d. Platyhelminthes
___. 362. Which among the following is true about
a. + + - - Tyndallization?
b. - + - + a. It is an example of fractional
c. + - + - sterilization, because the entire
d. - - + + procedure is one day
356. The IMViC reaction of Klebsiella pneumonia b. It involves heating of a sample for
o
is ___. 100 C for 30min. for 3 days
a. + + - - c. It involves heating of a sample for
o
b. - + - + 121 C for 30min. for 3 days
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

d. The first day involves killing of the d. Trichomonas vaginalis
germinating cell, while on the second 371. he biological indicator to measure the
day, the sporulated organisms will effectiveness of Ionizing Radiation the
die, and on the third day, both the recommended organism is ___.
sporulated and germinating cells will a. Bacillus pumitis
die b. Bacillus subtilis var Niger
363. Which among the following temperatures c. Bacillus subtilis var Globujii
will properly describe the Flash Method of d. All of the above
Pasteurization? 372. The biological indicator of the Dry Heat
o
a. 62 C for 30 min Oven is ___.
o
b. 62 C for 30 sec a. Bacillus subtilis var Niger
o
c. 72 C for 15 min b. Bacillus subtilis var Globujii
o
d. 72 C for 15 sec c. Geobacillus stearothermophilus
364. All organisms can be inactivated by d. All of the above
autoclaving except ___. 373. How many mL of blood is needed for blood
a. Prions cultures if the patient is an adult?
b. Fungi a. 5mL
c. Sporulated bacteria b. 10mL
d. Virus c. 15mL
365. Which among the following organisms is d. 15mL
used as a biological indicator of the 374. How many mL of blood is needed for blood
Autoclave? cultures if the patient is a newborn?
a. Bacillus stearothermophillus a. 2mL
b. Clostridium PA 3679 b. 5mL
c. Both c. 10mL
d. Neither d. 15mL
366. T The vector carrying the Malarial parasite 375. The function of 0.025% SPS in blood
is ___. cultures is___.
a. Anopheles flavinostris a. To chelate Calcium thus, no clot will
b. Anopheles mangyanus be formed
c. Aedes egypti b. To inhibit the action of Neutrophils in
d. Tse tse fly phagocytosis
367. The scolex of this cestode is spoon shape. c. All of the above
a. Taenia saginata d. None of the above
b. Diphyllobothrium lattum 376. The recommended culture for throat and
c. Dipylidium caninum nasopharyngeal samples is ___.
d. Echinococcus granulosus a. Thayer-Martin
368. The year when Entamoeba histolytica was b. LJ Media
discovered is ___. c. Todd-Hewitt Media
a. 1874 d. 5% Sheep Blood Agar
b. 1875 377. Bartlett’s Classification is commonly used in
c. 1876 what sample?
d. 1877 a. Throat Swab
369. The parasite that Triatoma fly is carrying is b. Urinary Bladder Aspirate
___. c. Sputum
a. Trypanosoma cruzi d. Urine Culture
b. Trypanosoma gambiense 378. Group A Shigella is also known as ___.
c. Trypanosoma rhodesiense a. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Leishmania braziliensis b. Shigella boydii
370. The only pathologic ciliate is ___. c. Shigella flexneri
a. Entamoeba coli d. Shigella sonnei
b. Entamoeba hartmani 379. Group B Shigella is also known as ___.
c. Balantidium coli a. Shigella dysenteriae
Colossians 3:23

b. Shigella boydii a. Tubercular Meningitis
c. Shigella flexneri b. Bacterial Meningitis
d. Shigella sonnei c. Viral Meningitis
380. Group C Shigella is also known as ___. d. Fungal Meningitis
a. Shigella dysenteriae 389. The most effective size of filter used in the
b. Shigella boydii laboratory for filtration is ___.
c. Shigella flexneri a. 0.22 um
d. Shigella sonnei b. 0.23 um
381. Group D Shigella is also known as ___. c. 0.022 um
a. Shigella dysenteriae d. 0.023 um
b. Shigella boydii 390. Which among the following organisms is
c. Shigella flexneri not categorized under BSL I?
d. Shigella sonnei a. Mycobacterium gordonae
382. Kauffman and White agglutination test is b. Bacillus subtilis
used to detect what Shigella antigen? c. Naeglaria fowlerii
a. Somatic d. Bacillus anthracis
b. Pili 391. Plasmodium falciparum causes black water
c. Capsular fever because ___.
d. Flagellar a. It causes extravascular hemolysis
383. Kauffman and White agglutination test is causing the release of hemoglobin
used to detect what Salmonella antigens? b. The extremities of an infected
a. Somatic and pili individual becomes dark due to the
b. Flagellar and capsular formation of gangrene and
c. Somatic and flagellar spontaneous tissue necrosis
d. Capsular and pili c. It is a febrile disease affecting blacks
384. Strong’s bacillus is commonly known as ___. d. The first patient infected with the
a. Shigella flexneri disease is Mr. Black
b. Shigella sonnei 392. Which among the following characterizes a
c. Shigella boydii Cyclophyllidean?
d. Shigella dysenteriae a. It has a quadrate scolex
385. Which among the following organism b. The strobila is anapolytic
causes British diarrhea? c. It has plerocercoid in its life stage
a. Shigella flexneri d. It has a spoon shape scolex
b. Shigella sonnei 393. Trypsin, a normal component of an infant’s
c. Shigella boydii stool, is an indication of Cystic fibrosis in the
d. Shigella dysenteriae pancreas, when absent in an infant’s stool.
386. The recommended urine volume for culture What test can be performed in testing the
is ___. level of Trypsin in the stool of a child
a. 0.01 mL a. Guiac’s test
b. 0.001 mL b. Gelatin Test
c. 0.02 mL c. Mucicarmine Test
d. 0.002 mL d. Schmidt Test
387. Which among the following serological tests 394. The larva of Taenia solium is called ___.
is recommended for testing bacterial a. Cysticercus bovis
growth present in a CSF sample? b. Cysticercus cellulosae
a. Coagglutination c. Cysticercus taenia
b. Hemagglutination d. Solium cercariae
c. Latex agglutination 395. Echinococcus granulosus stimulates the
d. ELISA production of this antibody?
388. Which among the following types of a. Anti-P1
meningitis is manifested by a positive b. Anti-PP1PK
Limulus Lysate Test? c. Anti-A
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

d. Anti-Yt b. Pasteur
396. Which among the following does not c. Leeuwenhoek
describe Taenia solium? d. Aristotle
a. It is called the pork tapeworm 405. Which among the following is true about
b. The infective stage is the egg Anton Van Leeuwenhoek?
c. It has 7-13 lateral branches a. He is the father of Protozoology
d. None of the above b. He discovered the first simple
397. The old name of Echinococcus granulosus is microscope
___. c. He wrote the book “Micrographia” to
a. Taenia granulosus illustrate his discovery
b. Echinostoma granulosus d. He named his microscopic discovery
c. Dipylidium granulosus as “animalcules”
d. Hymenolepis granulosus 406. Flaming the mouth of a test tube prior to
398. Presence of excess Nitrogen in feces due to inoculation of a broth was developed by
absence of proteolytic enzymes ___.
a. Azotorrhea a. Theodore Schwann
b. Amylorrhea b. Frannie Hesse
c. Nitrorrhea c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Steatorrhea d. Edward Jenner
399. The causative agent of Chaga’s disease is 407. The type of sterilizer used in fractional
___. sterilization is known as ____.
a. Trypanosma rhodesiense a. Fred’s Sterilizer
b. Trypanosoma cruzi b. Edward’s Sterilizer
c. Trypanosoma gambiense c. Harold’s Sterilizer
d. Leishmania donovani d. Arnold’s Sterilizer
400. The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii is 408. Antiseptic Technique was first introduced
___. by ___.
a. Cat a. Joseph Lister
b. Dog b. Howard Hesse
c. Parrot c. Fred Neufeld
d. Goat d. Lazzaro Spallanzani
401. Maltese cross can be seen in this parasite 409. The Father of aseptic technique is ___.
___. a. Joseph Lister
a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
b. Babesia microti c. Robert Koch
c. Coccidia d. Spallanzani
d. Ascaris 410. The first antiseptic material used was ___.
402. Red water fever is due to an infection with a. Alcohol
___. b. Propane
a. Plasmodium c. Merthiolate
b. Babesia d. Glycerol
c. Coccidia 411. He developed the Gram staining by
d. Cryptosporidium experimenting different dyes in tissues
403. The specimen of choice when recovering a. Alexander Gram
Mansonella b. Julius Gram
a. Muscle biopsy c. Christian Gram
b. Hair d. Harvey Gram
c. Skin biopsy 412. Which among the following is not a
d. Feces component of Gram stasining?
404. The first person to hypothesize that a. Iodine
diseases are caused by invisible organism b. Crystal violet
was ___. c. Alcohol
a. Fracastoro d. Carbol fuschin
Colossians 3:23

413. Which among the following is not true 421. The common larval stage of Taenia is
about Gram positive organisms? known as ___.
a. They are violet in color a. Filariform Larva
b. They have a thick peptigoglycan layer b. Rhabditiform Larva
c. They are not easily decolorized c. Cysticercus
d. They can be stained with safranin d. Trypanosomatid
414. The stained used for Mycobacterium spp is 422. Welch stain is used for staining ___.
known as ___. a. Spore
a. Gram’s staining b. Capsule
b. Wayson Stain c. Nucleus
c. Acid Fast stain d. Flagella
d. Spore stain 423. Which among the following is an anaerobic
415. When performing the Ziehl-Neelson Gram negative cocci?
staining method, it is important to heat the a. Moraxella
under of the slide containing carbol fuschin b. Branhamella
for how many minutes? c. Neisseria
a. 1-4 min d. Veilonella
b. 3-5 min 424. Which among the following is an aerobic
c. 2-7 min Gram positive bacilli?
d. 1 min a. Bacillus
416. The secondary stain in an acid fast staining b. Actinomyces
is known as ___. c. Clostridium
a. Methylene blue d. Proprionobacterium
b. Carbol fuschin 425. Which among the following is not an
c. Acid alcohol aerobic bacilli?
d. Turgitol a. Bordetella
417. 5% Malachite green is commonly used for b. Brucella
staining ___. c. Vibrio
a. Flagella d. Bacteroides
b. Spore 426. Which among the following is not true
c. Capsule about Streptolysin S?
d. Nucleus a. It is aerobically active
418. Which among the following sediments will b. It completely hemolyzes blood cells
not be seen in a routine fecal analysis? c. It is non-antigenic
a. Cast d. It is anaerobically active
b. RBC 427. Spreading factor is also known as ___.
c. WBC a. Hyaluronic acid
d. Bacteria b. Hyaluronidase
419. The “Old-Man’s glasses” of Giardia lamblia c. Beta lysine
will be used by the organism to ___. d. M-protein
a. Swim into the blood stream of the 428. Which among the following is true about
host the cellular mimicry of Streptococcus?
b. Attach to the gut of the host a. Protein M
c. Provide food for the parasite b. Hyaluronidase
d. Vision the inside of the body of the c. Streptokinase
host d. NADase
420. The injection of sperm cell directly in the 429. The susceptibility test used for Scarlet Fever
female tract is known as ___. infection is ___.
a. Traumatic Reproduction a. Dick’s Test
b. Hypodermic impregnation b. Schultz Charlton Test
c. Forceful copulation c. Rose Test
d. Sperm Diffusion d. Bright’s Test
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

430. The diagnostic test used for Scarlet Fever 437. Abiotrophia is formerly known as ___.
infection is ___. a. Granulicatella
a. Dick’s Test b. Streptococcus mitior
b. Schultz Charlton Test c. Streptococcus sanguis
c. Rose Test d. Streptococcus mutans
d. Bright’s Test 438. Which among the following properly
431. Acute rheumatic fever is also known as ___. describes Enterococcus?
a. Brights’ Disease a. It does not ferment the carbohydrate
b. Rose’s Disease lactose
c. Lucas’ Disease b. It hydrolyzes esculin
d. Stegmatin Disease c. It is catalase positive
432. CAMP Test is an acronym of the developers d. It is a Gram negative cocci arranged in
of the test who are ___. clusters
a. Chritie, Antonette, Munch, Peteron 439. Pearl of string test is a test used for ___.
b. Christie, Atkins, Mico, Peterson a. Clostridium
c. Christie Atkins, Munch, Peterson b. Bacillus
d. Christie, Albert, Much, Peterson c. Corynebacterium
433. A positive CAMP test is manifested by a/an d. Staphylococcus
___. 440. Black Eschar is commonly referred to as
a. Arrow head hemolysis ___.
b. Bow tie hemolysis a. Intestinal Anthrax
c. Both b. Cutaneous Anthrax
d. Neither c. Pulmonary Anthrax
434. Which among the following is true about d. Oral Anthrax
Streptococcus agalactiae? 441. Intestinal Anthrax is commonly known as
1. Gram Positive ___.
cocci in chains a. Black Eschar
2. CAMP Test – b. Woolsorter’s Disease
Positive c. Violent Enteritis
3. Bile Esculin – d. Gangrene
Negative 442. Which among the following is an anaerobic
4. Hippurate cocci?
Hydrolysis Test – a. Sarcina
Negative b. Veilonella
a. 1 only c. Neisseria
b. 1 and 3 only d. Peptococcus
c. 1, 2, and 3 only 443. The part of a bacterial cell responsible for
d. 1,2, and 4 only holding the antigenic determinant of a cell
435. The following statements describe is known as ___.
Streptococcus pneumoniae except ___. a. Cell wall
a. It is a capsulated organism which can b. Cytoplasmic membrane
be tested with the use of Quellung c. Inclusion
Test d. Pili
b. It is Optochin Sensitive 444. The part of a bacterial cell responsible for
c. It is Bile Solubility Test negative energy production is known as ___.
d. It does not produce the enzyme a. Cytoplasmic membrane
Catalase b. Mesosome
436. Which among the following Streptococcus is c. Inclusion
known as the “Exclusion Group”? d. Endospore
a. Enterococcus 445. The part of a bacterial responsible for food
b. Viridans reservation is known as ___.
c. Lactococcus a. Cytoplasmic membrane
d. All of the above b. Inclusion
Colossians 3:23

c. Mesosome 454. The function of Sucrose in a culture media is
d. Endospore ___.
446. Which among the following bacterial a. To detect the presence of late lactose
inclusions is not properly matched? fermenters
a. Much Granules – Nocardia b. To serve as a control for lactose
b. Sulfur Granules – Actinomyces fermenter organisms
c. Volutin Granules – Corynebacterium c. To detect the presence of glucose
d. Bipolar Bodies – Yersinia fermenters not detected by lactose
447. Burke’s Modification of Gram Stain is d. To inhibit the swarming of proteus
commonly used for staining what 455. The function of Nystatin in a Thayer-Martin
inclusions? Agar is ___.
a. Babes-Ernst Granules a. To inhibit Gram positive organisms
b. Much Granules b. To inhibit Gram negative organisms
c. Bipolar Bodies c. To inhibit the growth of fungi
d. Sulfur Granules d. To inhibit the swarming of Proteus
448. Volutin Granules of C. diphtheria is also 456. Which among the following is not a
known as ___. component of MacConkey?
a. Bipolar bodies a. Lactose
b. Much granules b. Phenol Red
c. Sulfur granules c. Neutral Red
d. Metachromatic granules d. Crystal violet
449. The colonial appearance of Yersinia 457. The component in a MacConkey Media
enterolcolitica CIN Agar is ___. used for inhibiting the growth of Gram
a. Bull’s eye colony positive organisms is ___.
b. Mercury droplets colony a. Lactose
c. Medusa Head colony b. Crystal violet
d. Fried Egg colony c. Neutral red
450. Which among the following stains is d. Potassium Tellurite
commonly used for staining Bipolar bodies 458. The media used in agar dilution AMS is ___.
of Yersinia pestis? a. Brucella-laked SBA
a. Loeffler’s Methylene Blue b. SDA
b. Wrights Stain c. Staphylococcus-rich SBA
c. Wayson Stain d. Escherichia-reduced MHA
d. Feulgen Stain 459. When Calcium and Magnesium is increased
451. Which among the following stains is used in a Mueller-Hinton Agar, Pseudomonas
for staining DNA of a bacterial cell? aeroginosa becomes resistant to ___.
a. Wayson Stain a. Aminoglycosides
b. Feulgen Stain b. Tetracycline
c. Dyor Stain c. Penicillin
d. New Methylene Blue d. Methicillin
452. Milk and Serum Media is commonly used 460. What is the incubation temperature when
for culturing what type of organisms? performing an Agar dilution Antimicrobial
a. Capsulated organism susceptibility test?
o
b. Flagellar organism a. 48 C
o
c. Sporulated organism b. 52 C
o
d. All of the above c. 56 C
o
453. The First antiseptic material used in the d. 72 C
laboratory is ____. 461. The proper description of the motility of
a. Alcohol Listeria monocytogenes is ___.
b. Merthiolate a. Jerky motility
c. Lead b. Tumbling-over motility
d. Glutaraldehyde c. Boring sloping motility
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

d. Forward sloping motility a. Alpha hemolysin
462. “Seal Finger” morphology can be seen in b. Beta hemolysin
what organism? c. Gamma hemolysisn
a. Gardnerella vaginalis d. Delta hemolysin
b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 471. Which among the following antibiotics is
c. Streptomyces properly matched with its organism source?
d. Actinomyces a. Eryhtromycin – Streptomyces
463. Clue cells are squamous epithelial cells erytheus
containing what organism in their b. Oleandomycin – Streptomyces
cytoplasm? antibioticus
a. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Spiramycin – Streptomyces griseus
b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae d. Streptomycin – Streptomyces
c. Streptomyces aerofaciens
d. Actinomyces 472. Which among the following Actinomyces is
464. This malarial parasite has a crescent shape anaerobic?
gametocyte. a. Streptomyces
a. Plasmodium malariae b. Actinomadura
b. Plasmodium falciparum c. Nocardia
c. Plasmodium ovale d. Actinomyces
d. Plasmodium knowlesii 473. The IMViC reaction of Hafnia alvei is ___.
465. Malaria literally means ___. a. + + - -
a. Bad air b. - + - +
b. Polluted air c. + - + -
c. Dirty air d. - - + -
d. Flying parasite 474. The IMViC reaction of Enterobacter
466. The accompaniment song when washing cloaceae is ___.
hands is ___. a. + + - -
a. Leron-leron sinta b. - + - +
b. Atin ku pong sing-sing c. + - + -
c. Twinkle little star d. - - + +
d. Alphabet song 475. All of the following are Vogues-Proskauer
467. Which among the following is blood positive except ___.
flagellate parasite? a. Klebsiella
a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Serratia
b. Chilomastix mesnili c. Yersinia
c. Enteromonas hominis d. Hafnia
d. Leishmania rhodesiense 476. All of the following are Methyl Red positive
468. The coagulase bound to the cell wall of except ___.
Staphylococcus aureus can be tested with a. Escherichia
the use of ___. b. Shigella
a. Slide Coagulase c. Citrobacter
b. Tube Coagulase d. Hafnia
c. Both 477. Which among the following tests for
d. Neither Enterobacteriaceae will determine the
469. The type of hemolysin enhanced by ability of the organism to convert
anaerobic incubation is ___. Phenylalanine to Phenyl pyruvic acid?
a. Alpha hemolysis a. Simon Citrate Test
b. Beta hemolysis b. PAD Test
c. Gamma hemolysis c. Christensen’s Test
d. Delta hemolysis d. ONPG Test
470. Which among the following hemolysins will 478. Which among the following tests for
cause lysis of white blood cells thus not Enterobacteriaceae will determine the
manifesting in a blood agar?
Colossians 3:23

ability of the organism to convert b. Maltose
Tryptophan to Indole? c. Lactose
a. SIM Test d. Glucose
b. PAD Test 487. Double Sugar Iron Agar (DSIA) is also known
c. Christensen’s Test as ___.
d. ONPG Test a. Spangler Agar
st
479. The specimen for the 1 week of b. Koch Agar
Salmonella infection is ___. c. Lewis Agar
a. Blood d. Krigler Agar
b. Sputum 488. Which among the following carbohydrates
c. Stool is present in a DSI Agar?
d. Urine a. Lactose and sucrose
nd
480. The specimen for the 2 week of b. Galactose and sucrose
Salmonella infection is ___. c. Glucose and lactose
a. Blood d. Sucrose and maltose
b. Sputum 489. The slant of a Lysine Iron Agar (LIA) will
c. Stool detect ___ of lysine by a bacteria.
d. Urine a. Deamination
rd
481. The specimen for the 3 week of b. Decarboxylation
Salmonella infection is ___. c. Decontamination
a. Blood d. Deureation
b. Sputum 490. The butt of a Lysine Iron Agar (LIA) will
c. Stool detect ___ of lysine by a bacteria.
d. Urine a. Deamination
482. Which among the following b. Decarboxylation
Enterobacteriaceae will produce a strong c. Decontamination
urea reaction? d. Deureation
a. Klebsiella 491. The indicator of LIA is ___.
b. Citrobacter a. Bromcresol Purple
c. Proteus b. Bromthymol Blue
d. Escherichia c. Brilliant Purple
483. Which among the following Escherichia will d. Brilliant Blue
cause “Traveler’s diarrhea”? 492. Mueller’s Test is a test for ___.
a. EHEC a. Decarboxylation of amino acid
b. ETEC b. Deamination of amino acid
c. EPEC c. Both
d. EIEC d. Neither
484. “Traveler’s diarrhea” is also known as ___. 493. Campylobacter jejuni will what type of
a. Turista unique motility?
b. Montezuma’s revenge a. Boring motility
c. Both b. Jerking motility
d. Neither c. Darting motility
485. Which among the following d. Sloping motility
Enterobacteriaceae will have a different TSI 494. “Runny, Spreading Colony” is a
reaction? manifestation of what organism?
a. Klebsiella a. Helicobacter pylori
b. Enterobacter b. Campylobacter jejuni
c. Shigella c. Vibrio cholera
d. Enterobacter d. Erysipelothrix rheusiopathiae
486. Which among the following is not part of 495. Which among the following organisms will
the different sugars in a TSIA? have a is characterized to have a “sea-gull
a. Sucrose wing shape”?
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

a. Citrobacter b. Baguio City
b. Campylobacter c. Palawan
c. Hafnia d. Mt. Arayat
d. Helicobacter e. Mt. Pulag
496. A sterilizing material that utilizes a 504. Bacillus subtilis is commonly known as ___.
combination of iodine and a detergent is a. Doderlein’s Bacillus
known as ___. b. Hay Bacillus
a. Iodamine c. Gelatin Bacillus
b. Iodamiba d. Fried Rice Bacillus
c. Iodophore 505. The organism commonly seen in improperly
d. Iodamore cooked fried rice is known as ___.
497. A chemical disinfecting material used in a. Bacillus anthracis
cleaning surgical equipment is known as b. Bacillus cereus
___. c. Bacillus subtilis
a. Ethylene oxide d. Clostridium
b. Glutaraldehyde 506. Naeglar agar is commonly used in culturing
c. Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol what organism?
d. Methanol a. Staphylococcus
498. The most reliable and universally applicable b. Clostridium
method of sterilization is known as ___. c. Streptococcus
a. Freezing d. Naeglaria fowlerii
b. Chemical 507. Which among the following is commonly
c. Filtration known as the “canned good bacilli”?
d. Heating a. Clostridium tetani
499. Which among the following types of heat b. Clostridium botulinum
sterilization involves burning of a material c. Clostridium welchii
into ashes? d. Clostridium perfringens
a. Incineration 508. What organism causes flaccid paralysis?
b. Red Heat a. Clostridium tetani
c. Flaming b. Clostridium botulinum
d. Hot Air Sterilizer c. Clostridium welchii
500. The temperature and time period when d. Clostridium perfringens
using a hot air sterilizer is ___. 509. What organism will produce a reverse
o
a. 160 C for 30 min. CAMP reaction?
o
b. 160 C for 60 min. a. Clostridium tetani
o
c. 165 C for 120 min. b. Clostridium botulinum
o
d. 163 C for 30 min. c. Clostridium welchii
501. Which among the following methods of d. Clostridium perfringens
heat sterilization is the least reliable 510. Myonecrosis is caused by what organism?
method? a. Clostridium tetani
a. Inspissation b. Clostridium botulinum
b. Autoclave c. Clostridium welchii
c. Red Heat d. Clostridium perfringens
d. Boiling 511. Cycloserine Cefoxitin Fructose Agar is used
502. The method of sterilization which is for growing what Clostridium organism?
commonly used in culture plates with a high a. Clostridium deficile
amount of protein is known as ___. b. Clostridium welchii
a. Autoclaving c. Clostridium perfringens
b. Red Heat d. Clostridium tetani
c. Boiling 512. Which among the following properly
d. Inspissation describes Corynebacterium diphtheria?
503. Malaria is endemic in which part of the a. Gram positive bacilli, aerobic non-
Philippines? sporeforming
Colossians 3:23

b. Gram negative bacilli, aerobic non- c. Shigella boydii
sporeforming d. Shigella dysenteriae
c. Gram positive bacilli, anaerobic non- 520. Which among the following organism
sporeforming causes British diarrhea?
d. Gram negative bacilli, anaerobic non- a. Shigella flexneri
sporeforming b. Shigella sonnei
513. Which among the following properly c. Shigella boydii
describes a Pai Coaggulated Media? d. Shigella dysenteriae
a. It is used for enhancing the palisade 521. The scientific name of the dwarf tapeworm
formation of Corynebacterium is ___.
diphtheria a. Hymenolepis nana
b. It is used for enhancing the b. Taenia solium
metachromatic granules of c. Taenia saginata
Corynebacterium diphtheria d. Giaridia lamblia
c. It is used for observing the halo- 522. The feeding stage of a protozoan is known
production of Corynebacterium as ___.
diphtheria colonies a. Cyst
d. All of the above b. Trophozoite
514. Metachromatic granules is also known as c. Miracidium
___. d. Metacercaria
a. Chinese-letter Granules 523. Which among the following diseases does
b. Babes-Ernst Granules not manifest resistance to malaria?
c. Schick’s Granules a. G-6-PD deficiency
d. Elek’s Granules b. Sickle cell anemia
515. Gravis, Mitis, Intermidius, and Belfanti are c. Hemoglobin C crystal
common biotypes of what organism? d. Spherocytosis
a. Bacillus subtilis 524. The most common preservative for a fecal
b. Bacillus anthracis sample is ___.
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria a. Acetaldehyde
d. Corynebacterium pseudodiptheriacum b. Hydrochloric acid
516. Anton’s Test is a virulence test for what c. Formalin
organism? d. Zinc sulfate
a. Listeria monocytogenes 525. The recommended fecal container for
b. Bacillus anthracis fecalysis is ___.
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria a. Lipovitan bottle
d. Corynebacterium pseudodiptheriacum b. Boysen can
517. Which among the following organism c. Wilkins bottle
causes Japanese diarrhea? d. Dextrose bottle
a. Shigella flexneri 526. A stool with a high amount of meat fibers is
b. Shigella sonnei called ___.
c. Shigella boydii a. Ammoniacal stool
d. Shigella dysenteriae b. Creatorhea
518. Which among the following organism c. Hematemesis stool
causes Bacillary diarrhea? d. Mucoid stool
a. Shigella flexneri 527. Gay bowel syndrome is due to ____.
b. Shigella sonnei a. Chilomastix mesnili
c. Shigella boydii b. Giardia lamblia
d. Shigella dysenteriae c. Balantidium coli
519. Which among the following organism d. Ascaris lumbricoides
causes Philippine diarrhea? 528. Trichuris trichiura-infected patients tend to
a. Shigella flexneri have anemia. This is due to?
b. Shigella sonnei
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

a. competition of Vit. B12 reabsorption 536. Several stages of asexual reproduction to
in a part of the small intestine penetrate the snail, and the final larval
b. the presence of a bolus or tangling of stage, is known as the _______
copulating worms in the gut a. Redia
c. there is chronic blood loss at the site b. Encystation
of attachment c. Cercaria
d. the teeth of Trichuris triciura abraded d. Sporocyst
the blood vessel during the migration 537. _____ is the name given to a series of
of its larva maturation stages that occur within the
529. The infective stage of Plasmodium in the snail.
mosquito is ___. a. Redia
a. Sporozoite b. Encystation
b. Gametocyte c. Cercaria
c. Merozoite d. Sporocyst
d. Trophozoite 538. What is the common name of Fasciola
530. It is the diagnostic stage of Diphyllobotrium hepatica?
latum a. Large intestinal fluke
a. Embryonated egg b. Chinese liver fluke
b. Unembryonated egg c. Sheep liver fluke
c. Procercoid d. Oriental lung fluke
d. Plerocercoid 539. What is the scientific name of Chinese liver
531. It is the infective stage of Diphyllobotrium fluke?
latum a. Fasciolopsis buski
a. Embryonated egg b. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Unembryonated egg c. Fasciola hepatica
c. Procercoid d. Paragonimus westermani
d. Plerocercoid 540. What is the common name of Fasciolopsis
532. It is the term used as the first larval stage of buski?
Diphyllobotrium latum a. Large intestinal fluke
a. Embryonated egg b. Chinese liver fluke
b. Unembryonated egg c. Sheep liver fluke
c. Procercoid d. Oriental lung fluke
d. Plerocercoid 541. What is the scientific name of Sheep liver
533. What is the common name of Taenia fluke?
saginata? a. Fasciolopsis buski
a. Rat tapeworm b. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Pork tapeworm c. Fasciola hepatica
c. Dwarf tapeworm d. Paragonimus westermani
d. Beef tapeworm 542. The size of unembryonated egg of F. buski;
534. What is the common name of Hymenolepsis 1. 130-140 µm long x 50-70 µm wide
diminuta? 2. 130-150 µm long x 50-70 µm wide
a. Rat tapeworm 3. 130-160 µm long x 50-70 µm wide
b. Pork tapeworm 4. 130-170 µm long x 50-70 µm wide
c. Dwarf tapeworm 543. The diagnostic form for P. westermani is the
d. Beef tapeworm egg, which is oval and measures;
535. What is the common name of Taenia 1. 70-90 µm long x 40-60 µm wide
solium? 2. 70-100 µm long x 40-60 µm wide
a. Rat tapeworm 3. 70-110 µm long x 40-60 µm wide
b. Pork tapeworm 4. 70-120 µm long x 40-60 µm wide
c. Dwarf tapeworm 544. What is the scientific name of bladder
d. Beef tapeworm fluke?
a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma haematobium
Colossians 3:23

c. Schistosoma japonicum 553. This type of stool preservatives has the
d. None of the above advantage of not containing mercuric
545. What is the common name of Schistosoma chloride
haematobium? a. Schaudinn’s solution
a. Manson’s blood fluke b. Polyvinyl alcohol
b. Bladder fluke c. Sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin
c. Blood fluke d. Formalin
d. None of the above 554. The stool specimen should be submitted
546. What is the scientific name of blood fluke? with the following information except ___.
a. Schistosoma mansoni a. Patient’s name
b. Schistosoma haematobium b. Email address
c. Schistosoma japonicum c. Age
d. None of the above d. Requested procedure
547. The diagnostic stage of Schistosomes which 555. The vector of Scrub typhus
is color _____, elongated and embryonated a. Mosquito
with no operculum. b. Chigger mite
a. Brown c. Tick
b. Yellow d. Copepod
c. b. Black 556. The vector of Dracunculiasis
d. Red a. Mosquito
548. The gametocyte of this type of Plasmodium b. Chigger mite
specie is crescent or banana shaped. c. Tick
a. Plasmodium falciparum d. Copepod
b. Plasmodium malariae 557. The vector of Japanese encephalitis
c. Plasmodium vivax a. Mosquito
d. Plasmodium ovale b. Chigger mite
549. The gametocytes of this type of c. Tick
Plasmodium specie is a large, round, almost d. Copepod
filling cell: coarse malarial pigment. 558. The drug of choice for Cryptosporidiosis
a. Plasmodium falciparum a. Albendazole
b. Plasmodium malariae b. Nitazoxanide
c. Plasmodium vivax c. Tetracyline
d. Plasmodium ovale d. Mebendazole
550. Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent of 559. The drug of choice for Filariasis
American trypanosomiasis or also called as? a. Diethylcarbamize
a. Matese cross disease b. lbendazole
b. Kissing bugs disease c. Praziquantel
c. Chagas’ disease d. Paracetamol
d. All of the above 560. The drug of choice for Hymenolepiz nana
551. The percentage of formalin used in fecal a. Praziquantel
concentration procedure b. Mebendazole
a. 5% c. Albendazole
b. 10% d. Paracetamol
c. 15% 561. The most common intestinal nematode of
d. 20% man
552. Staining procedures for protozoa in feces a. Entamoeba coli
are the following except: b. Trichuris trichiura
a. Trichrome stain c. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Acid-fast stain d. None of the above
c. Iron hematoxylin stain 562. The ratio of Wuchereria bancrofti in the
d. Gram stain cephalic space of its microfilariae
a. 1:1
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

b. 2:1 572. The most common way to measure fecal
c. 1:2 chymotrypsin is ___.
d. 2:2 a. Spectrophotometer
563. Dipylidium caninum is a very common b. Northern blot
intestinal parasite of ______ c. Southern blot
a. Rat d. Gelatin test
b. Lion 573. A child accidentally ate a cookie that was
c. Dogs and cats contaminated by a cockroach. The child will
d. Parrot most likely be infected with which of the
564. The infective stage of Schistosoma following parasites?
japonicum a. Giardia lamblia
a. Embryonated egg b. Chilomastix mesnili
b. Sporocyst c. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Unembryonated egg d. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Cercaria 574. Which among the following is not true
565. What is the causative agent of cutaneous about Trichomonas hominis?
leishmaniasis? a. Its main habitat in the human body is
a. Leishmania tropica the intestine
b. Leishmania mexicana b. It does not have any inclusion bodies
c. Leishmania major c. The undulating membrane is 2/3 of
d. None of the above the costa
566. What is the causative agent of Kala-azar? d. The specimen used for diagnosing is a
a. Leishmania donovani fecal sample
b. Leishmania braziliensis 575. The symbiotic relationship between
c. Leishmania tropica Entamoeba histolytica and man is ___.
d. All of the above a. Parasitism
567. Schuffner’s dots is present in: b. Phoresis
a. Plasmodium vivax c. Commensalism
b. Plasmodium falciparum d. Not related with each other
c. Plasmodium ovale 576. Which among the following platyhelminths
d. Plasmodium malariae has a different scolex?
568. It is known to cause quartan malaria: a. Diphylobothrium lattum
a. Plasmodium vivax b. Taenia solium
b. Plasmodium ovale c. Taenia saginata
c. Plasmodium malariae d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Plasmodium falciparum 577. Which among the following parasites can be
569. Plasmodium ovale infects what age of RBC? acquired from ingestion of flour
a. Aging RBC contaminated with rat droppings?
b. Young RBC a. Hymenolepis diminuta
c. All ages of erythrocytes b. Echinostoma ilocanum
d. A&B c. Dipylidium caninum
570. Quartan malaria is caused by this d. Taenia solium
Plasmodium. 578. Which among the following describes the
a. Plasmodium knowlessi cyst of Endolimax nana?
b. Plasmodium falciparum a. Measures 6-12 microns in diameter
c. Plasmodium malariae b. The movement is sluggish
d. Plasmodium vivax c. The karyosome appears as a large
571. The type of diarrhea caused by Protozoans round dot
is ___. d. Commonly referred as “cross-eyed”
a. Secretory diarrhea 579. The vector of Leishmania tropica is ___.
b. Bloody diarrhea a. Triatoma
c. Osmotic diarrhea b. Glossina
d. Hypermotility c. Phlebotomus
Colossians 3:23

d. Anopheles c. 12% H2O2
580. The common name of Enterobius d. 15% H2O2
vermicularis is ___. 588. Which among the following enzymes is an
a. Whipworm exotoxin of Staphylococcus aureus
b. Social worm responsible for the clotting of plasma?
c. Fish worm a. Catalase
d. Broad tapeworm b. Coagulase
581. The enzyme produced by Staphylococcus c. Leukocidin
aureus responsible for breaking down d. Protein A
hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen is 589. Which among the following members of
known as ___. HACEK is commonly encountered?
a. Catalase a. Haemophilus
b. Coagulase b. Actinobacillus
c. Hemolysin c. Eikenella corodens
d. Leukocidin d. Cardiobacteriu,
582. Wartin-Starry Stain is commonly used for 590. Which among the following members of
what organism? HACEK group is described to be star-like in
a. Helicobacter shape?
b. Campylobacter a. Haemophilus
c. Enterobacter b. Actinobacillus
d. Serratia c. Eikenella corodens
e. d. Kingella kingae
583. Organisms that are acquired via aerosol 591. The “teardrop” shape member of HACEK is
inhalation will fall in what Biosafety Level? commonly known as ___.
a. BSL I a. Cardiobacterium
b. BSL II b. Actinobacillus
c. BSL III c. Eikenella corodens
d. BSL IV d. Kingella kingae
584. Organisms that are acquired via digestion 592. Which among the following members of
will fall in what Biosafety Level? HACEK is known to ferment lactose?
a. BSL I a. Haemophilus
b. BSL II b. Actinobacillus
c. BSL III c. Eikenella corodens
d. BSL IV d. Kingella kingae
585. Which among the following organisms is 593. Which among the following members of
not an exotic organism BSL IV? HACEK is known to be Catalase positive?
a. Arbovirus a. Haemophilus
b. Arenavirus b. Actinobacillus
c. HIV c. Eikenella corodens
d. Smallpox virus d. Kingella kingae
586. When performing an anaerobic catalase 594. Which among the following organisms is
test, which among the following reagents distinguished by a “Chartreuse color
should be used? fluorescence”?
a. 3% H2O2 a. Actinomyces
b. 6% H2O2 b. Bacteroides
c. 12% H2O2 c. Eubacterium
d. 15% H2O2 d. Lactobacilli
587. When performing an aerobic catalase test, 595. Which among the following organisms is
which among the following reagents should distinguished by a“Breadcrumb-like”
be used? colony?
a. 3% H2O2 a. Bifidibacterium
b. 6% H2O2 b. Actinomyces
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

c. Fusobacterium a. RPR
d. Eubacterium b. FTA-ABS
596. Which among the following organisms is c. TPIA
distinguished by a “raspberry-like” colony? d. None of the above
a. Leptotrichia 600. What does VDRL mean with respect to non-
b. Bifidibacterium treponemal tests?
c. Actinomyces a. Venereal Diagnostic Research
d. Eubacterium Laboratry
597. Which among the following organisms is b. Venereal Disease Research Laboratry
distinguished by a “brick red fluorescence”? c. Venereal Definitive Research
a. Bifidibacterium Laboratry
b. Actinomyces d. Venereal Diabetes Research Laboratry
c. Eubacterium 601. Leptospirosis is also known as ___.
d. Porphyromonas a. Hansen’s disease
598. How many coils thus a Treponema have? b. Weil’ disease
a. 12 c. Lyme disease
b. 13 d. Syphilis
c. 14 602. All of the following microorganisms are
d. 15 strict aerobe except:
599. Which among the following is not a
Treponemal test?
a. Pseudomonas 606. Quarternary Ammonium Compounds
b. Brucella (QUATS) is an example of:
c. Franciscella a. Chemical food preservative
d. Campylobacter b. Surfactant
603. The most common cause of UTI: c. Detergent
a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus d. None of the above
b. Escherichia coli 607. Mycobacterium leprae is the causative
c. Enterococcus faecalis agent of:
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa a. Hansen’s disease
604. What is/are the specimen/s of choice for b. Hanzell’s disease
bacterial culture of urine? c. Hoffman’s disease
1. Clean-catched d. Klebs-Looeffler disease
midstream 608. It has been found to cause a severe
2. Catheterized pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis:
specimen a. Streptococcus pneumonia
3. Suprapubic b. Klebsiella pneumonia
aspiration c. Mycoplasma pneumonia
4. Random d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
specimen 609. Fibrinolysin is also called:
a. Coagulase
a. 1,2,3,4 b. Staphylokinase
b. 1,2 only c. Hyaluronidase
c. 1,2,3 d. Hemolysin
d. 4 only 610. Which of the following biological safety
cabinets is routinely used by most hospital
605.The logarithmic decline phase of microbial microbiology laboratories?
growth is also called: a. Class I BSCs
a. Stationary phase b. Class II BSCs
b. Log phase c. Class III BSCs
c. Death phase d. a and c
d. Lag phase
Colossians 3:23

611. Which of the following germicide is 619. Which of the following may be used as a
intended to destroy all microorganism and positive quality control organism for the
their spores on inanimate surfaces? motility testing?
a. Antibiotic a. Escherichia coli
b. Sodium hypochlorite b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Antiseptic c. Klebsiella pneumonia
d. Sterilizer d. All of the above
612. This is a presumptive test for the 620. What color indicates a positive result in
identification of Staphylococci group D: ONPG reaction?
a. Bacitracin test a. Orange
b. Bile solubility test b. Violet
c. Sodiun Hippurite test c. Green
d. Bile esculin test d. Yellow
613. All of the following bacterial agents inhibit 621. Tween 80 hydrolysis is used in the
protein synthesis, except: identification of:
a. Polymyxin B a. Mycobacterium kansasii
b. Chloramphenicol b. Mycobacterium simiae
c. Tetracycline c. Mycobacterium marinum
d. Penicillin d. Mycobacteroium asiaticum
614. Which of the following is not appropriate 622. Whenever a biochemical test is substituted
when describing Streptococcs agalactiae? for a serological test, it is reported:
a. Colonies are pinpoint and clear a. By the genus and species name
b. As “presumptive” with the name of
b. Beta hemolytic biochemical test
c. Bacitracin resistant c. By its common name
d. Positive hydrolysis of bile esculin d. None of the above
615. Which of the following specimens is 623. Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of:
acceptable for culture of aerobic bacteria? a. Bacillus anthracis
a. Abscesses b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Vaginal swabs c. Listeria monocytigenes
c. Skin swabs d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Gingival swabs 624. What is the agent of plague?
616. Mac Conkey agar contains all of the a. Yersinia enterolitica
following, except: b. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
a. Lactose c. Yersinia pestis
b. Neutral red indicator d. Plesiomonas shigelloides
c. Bile salt 625. Which medium is preferably used for the
d. Mannitol salt isolation of Vibrio species?
617. which of the following isolation media is a. XLD
NOT used for primary isolation of b. TCBS
Mycobacterium? c. SSA
a. Lowentein-Jensen d. EMB
b. Petragnani 626. Colonies appear medium-large, gray, flat,
c. Chocolate agar irregular with swirling projections (‘medusa
d. Middle brook head”); non hemolytic on 5% sheep blood
618. Staphylococcus aureus: agar.
a. Is coagulase negative a. Bacilllus cereus
b. Has growth, but lack fermentation on b. Bacillus anthracis
MSA c. Bacillus subtilis
c. Is beta hemolytic on SBA d. Bacillus pumilus
d. Is susceptible to novobiocin 627. “Klebs- Loeffler” bacillus is the common
name of:
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

a. Corynebacterium b. Clostridium tatani
b. Erysepelothrix c. Clostridium perfringens
c. Lactobacillus d. Clostridium septicum
d. Rothia 635. Myonecrosis is another term for?
628. Organisms that are associated with a. Gas gangrene
“pseudomembrane” formation of b. Botulism
oropharynx leading to respiratory c. Tetanus
obstruction: d. Pseudomembranous colitis
a. Kurthia bessonnii 636. Which of the following is the anaerobic
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus environment achieved in the glove-box
c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae method?
d. Corynebacterium diphtheria a. 85% hydrogen, 5% carbon dioxide, 5%
629. Which of the following species is considered nitrogen
“partially acid fast”? b. 85% oxygen, 10% hydrogen, 5%
a. Actinomadura carbon dioxide
b. Streptomyces c. 85% nitrogen, 10% hydrogen, 5%
c. Dermatophilus carbon dioxide
d. Nocardia d. 75% nitrogen, 15% hydrogen, 10%
630. Which of the following organisms produce a carbon dioxide
characteristic tumbling motility when 637. Which of the following members of
observed through a hanging drop method Neisseria is catalase negative?
technique? a. Neisseira elongata
a. Kurthia bessonnii b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Bacillus subtilis c. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Neisseria subflava
d. Corynebacterium jeikeium 638. Which of the following is/are true about
631. What does PRAS mean? Neisseria?
a. Prereduced and aerobically sterilized a. Capnophilic
b. Preproduced and anaerobically b. Gram negative diplococcic
sterilized c. Cytochrome oxidase positive
c. Prereduced and anaerobically d. All of the above
sterilized 639. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is
d. Phosphate, rifampin aerobically associated with:
sterilized a. Neisseira elongata
632. Which of the following is NOT true about b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Clostridium botulinum? c. Neisseria meningitidis
a. Motile d. Neisseria subflava
b. Associated with food and wound 640. Which of the following organisms is DNAse
botulism positive?
c. Spores resemble a tennis racket a. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Aerobic gram positive spore-forming b. Neisseria sicca
bacilli c. Neisseria subflava
633. Clostridium difficile is the causative agent d. Neisseria lactamica
of: 641. The specimen recommended for isolation of
a. Gas gangrene Neisseria gonorrhoeae in female is:
b. Botulism a. Endocervical specimens
c. Tetanus b. Anorectal specimens
d. Antibiotic-associated c. Urethral specimens
pseudomembranous colitis d. Oropharyngeal specimens
634. Which of the following Clostridia has a 642. All of the following are characteristics of
typical double zone of hemolysis on Enterobacteriaceae, except:
anaerobic blood agar? a. Glucose fermenters
a. Clostridium difficile b. Facultative anaerobes
Colossians 3:23

c. Cytochrome oxidase positive b. PCR
d. All members are nonmotile c. Direct fluorescent antibody
643. This antigen is associated with the cell wall d. Medical history
of the members of Enterobacteriaceae. It is 651. An important cause of undulant fever is:
heat stable and is the lipopolysaccharide of a. Pasteurella
the cell wall: b. Legionella
a. O antigen c. Brucella
b. Vi antigen d. Bordetella
c. K antigen 652. A small, non-motile, pleomorphic gram-
d. H antigen negative bacillus, is the agent of tularemia,
644. Media used for isolation of a disease of rodents, primarily rabbits is
Enterobacteriaceae: most likely:
a. TCBS a. Pasteurella multocida
b. BHI b. Francisella tularensis
c. XLD c. Brucella melitensis
d. CAN d. Brucella abortus
645. IMVC is an acronym for: 653. The presence of clue cells is assiociated
a. Indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, with:
citrate a. Infection with Streptobacillus
b. Indole, motility, Voges-Proskauer, moniliformis
citrate b. Infection with Gardnerella vaginalis
c. Indole, mannitol, Voges-Proskauer, c. Infection with Legionella
carbohydrate pneumophila
d. Inositol, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, d. Infection with Campylobacter coli
citrate 654. Humans usually acquire the infection with
646. What is the product detected in the Voges- this organism through cat bites or cat
Proskauer reaction? scratch:
a. Nitrite a. Streptobacillus moniliformis
b. Acetoin b. Francisella tularensis
c. Acetic acid c. Brucella melitensis
d. Hydrogen sulfide d. Pasteurella multocida
647. At what pH does the methyl red (MR) test 655. A fastidious, narrow, gram-negative bacilli
become positive? that has been isolated from water-cooling
a. 7.5 towers for air-conditioning is most likely:
b. 6.4 a. Proteus vulgaris
c. 7.0 b. Bordetella bronchiseptica
d. 4.4 c. Legionella pneumophila
648. What color indicates a positive test result in d. Edwardsiella tarda
Simmons Citrate reaction? 656. A motile, facultative anaerobe that is
a. Green oxidase positive; unique in its ability to
b. Red produce a purple pigment is most likely:
c. Yellow a. Cardiobacterium hominis
d. Blue b. Chromobacterium violaceum
649. Legionella species require this enriched c. Proteus vulgaris
media for growth: d. Plesiomonas shigelloides
a. BCYE 657. Streptobacillus moniliformis causes:
b. CVA a. Scarlet fever
c. CTAB b. Rat-bite fever
d. Cysteine-tellurite blood agar c. Ant-bite fever
650. Gold standard for the identification of d. Pontiac fever
Brucella: 658. What is the etiologic agent of Louse-borne
a. Febrile agglutination relapsing fever?
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

a. Borrelia recurrentis d. Leptospira leprae
b. Borrelia parkeri 667. Which of the following is incorrect for the
c. Bordetella canis pathogenic spirochetes?
d. Bordetella suis a. Helically coiled and motile
659. All of the following are spirochetes, except: b. Fail to grow on solid culture media
a. Borrelia c. Serologic are used for diagnosis
b. Leptospira d. Stain well with Gram Stain
c. Chlamydia 668. All of the following organisms contain both
d. Treponema DNA & RNA except:
660. Which of the following infections is a. Chlamydia
associated with Treponema pallidum subsp. b. Rickettsiae
pallidum? c. Mycoplasma
a. Yaws d. Mycobacterium
b. Pinta 669. Chalmydia trachomatis is an agent of:
c. Venereal syphilis a. Mild respiratory infections
d. Endemic non-venereal syphilis b. Lymphogranuloma venereum
661. Which of the following infections is caused c. Ornithosis
by Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue? d. Bacterial vaginosis
a. Yaws 670. The etiologic agent of primary atypical
b. Pinta pneumonia is:
c. Venereal syphilis a. Klebsiella pneumonia
d. Endemic non-venereal syphilis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
662. The stage of syphilis weherein the c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
appearance of a chancre at the site of d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
inoculation is seen: 671. Which statement incorrectly describes
a. Primary Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
b. Secondary a. A genital mycoplasma
c. Latent b. Lacks cell wall
d. Tertiary c. Resistant to beta-lactams
663. A non-treponemal test that is d. Cold agglutinins are produced in
recommended for the diagnosis and follow- response to infection
up of neurosyphilis: 672. It is the lowest concentration of antibiotic
a. RPR that inhibits the growth of bacteria:
b. TPI a. Minimal inhibitory concentration
c. VDRL b. Narrow-spectrum antimicrobial agent
d. MHA-TP c. Minimal bactericidal conc.
664. Which of the following is the detected by d. Broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent
non-treponemal tests such as RPR and VDRL 673. Biochemically, Proteus mirabilis can be
a. Cardiolipin differentiated from Proteus vulgaris by
b. Cholesterol using the:
c. Lecithin a. Urease test
d. Reagin b. Catalase test
665. An antibiotic that can be used as treatment c. Indole test
of syphilis d. Deaminase test
a. Amphotericin B 674. All species of Burkholderia are motile,
b. Rifampicin except:
c. Penicillin a. Burkholderia cepacia
d. Clindamycin b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
666. What is the causative agent of c. Burkholderia stutzeri
Leptospirosis? d. Burkholderia mallei
a. Leptospira biflexa 675. Which of the following statements correctly
b. Leptospira interrogans describes Kinyoun acid-fast method?
c. Mycobacterium leprae a. A modification of ziehl-neelsen
Colossians 3:23

b. “Cold” method 2. Acute rheumatic fever and acute
c. Heat is not required for the glomerular nephritis
penetration of carbol fuchsin 3. Streptococcal toxic shock-like
d. All of the above syndrome and acute glomerular
676. Complete hemolysis of RBC is known as: nephritis
a. Alpha hemolysis 4. Acute rheumatic fever and erythema
b. Delta hemolysis 684. Which lancefield group does Streptococcus
c. Beta hemolysis agalactiae belong?
d. Gamma hemolysis a. Group A Streptococcus
677. This test measures the activity of the b. Group B Streptococcus
antibiotic in the patient’s own serum c. Group C Streptococcus
against the pathogen: d. Group D Streptococcus
a. Vollmer’s test 685. In this reaction, an arrowhead zone of
b. Dick test hemolysis forms when Group B
c. Schlichter test Streptococcus is streaked perpendicularly to
d. Mallein test a beta-hemolytic strain of Staphylococcus
678. A gram-positive cocci, catalase positive, aureus:
strict aerobes, which utilize glucose a. Hippurate reaction
oxidatively or non-saccharolytic resistant to b. Nuefeld reaction
200 µg/mL of Lysostaphin and are modified c. Bile esculin reaction
oxidase positive is most likely: d. CAMP reaction
a. Staphylococci 686. Which of the following statements is
b. Streptococci correct for Group D Streptococcus?
c. Micrococci 1. Enterococci comprise only 2 species,
d. Planococci S. bovis and S. equinis
679. Folliculitis, boils, furuncles and carbuncles 2. Enterococci and non-enterococci are
are infections cause by: bile-esculin negative
a. Staphylococcus aureus 3. Pyrase is positive for Enterococcus but
b. Streptococcus pyogenes negative for non-Enterococcus
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis 4. Non-enterococci can grow in 6.5%
d. Streptococcus agalactiae sodium chlorite (NaCl) broth (are salt
680. All of the following are members of the tolerant)
family micrococcaceae, except: 687. Classified as Lancefield Group F and is
a. Staphylococcus associated rarely with cellulitis, abscesses
b. Stomatococcus and bacteremia:
c. Micrococcus a. Streptococcus anginosus
d. Streptococcus b. Streptococcus zooepidemicus
681. Cell surface antigen which is associated with c. Streptococcus equisimilis
virulence of Group A Streptococcus:
a. S protein d. Sreptococcus dysogalactiae
b. M protein 688. Group of streptococcal species
c. Hyaluronic acid characterized by alpha hemolysis on sheep
d. A protein blood agar; normal flora of oropharynx; the
682. Causative agent of erysipelas: organism may enter the blood after dental
a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae procedures and may cause bacteremia and
b. Staphylococcus aureus septicemia. The organism is most likely:
c. Streptococcus pyogenes a. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Streptococcus agalactiae b. Streptococcus pneumonia
683. Sequelae of group A Streptococcus infection c. Viridans streptococci
1. Acute rheumatic fever and acute d. Streptococcus equi
hepatitis
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

689. Which of the following species of Viridans b. Sulfonamides
Streptococci is associated with dental c. Penicillin
caries? d. Chloramphenicol
a. Streptococcus mutans 694. What is the causative agent of Q fever?
a. Chlamydia psittaci
b. Streptococcus uberis b. Moraxella catarrhalis
c. Streptococcus mitis c. Coxiella burnetti
d. Legionella pneumophila
d. Streptococcus sanguis 695. Microscopic examination of a patient’s stool
690. Which statement is incorrect for culture shows gram-negative straight or
Streptococcus pneumoniae? curved rods. These bacteria require
1. It is lancet or bullet shaped increased NaCl to grow. The bacteria
2. Requires 5% to 10% CO2 for growth probably belong to the genus:
3. Mucoid colonies indicate the the a. Shigella
presence of a capsule b. Escherichia
4. Colonies are beta hemolytic c. Salmonella
691. The test is used to differentiate d. Vibrio
Streptococcus pneumoniae from other 696. Which of the following respiratory
alpha-hemolytic streptococci: infections is/are caused by Mycoplasma
a. PYR test pneumoniae?
b. Optochin test a. Mycoplasmal pneumonia
c. Bacitracin susceptibility test b. Walking pneumonia
d. CAMP test c. Primary atypical pneumonia
692. Which of the following groups are known d. All of the above
as nutritionally variant streptococci? 697. Widal’s test is used for the identification of?
1. Streptococcus and Leuconostoc a. Salmonella typhi
species b. Edwardsiella torda
2. Abiotrophia and Granulicatella species c. Klebsiella oxytoca
3. Lactococcus and Enterococcus species
4. Pediococcus and Gemella species d. Escherichia coli
693. What is the drug of choice for Streptococcus 698. A Gram negative bacilli, which has been
pyogenes and other beta-hemolytic identified as the source of 61 infection,
streptococci? mainly in the tropics and subtropics. The
a. Tetracycline following biochemical reactions seen :
ü TSI: K/A
ü H2S: Positive
ü Lactose: Negative
ü Indole: Positive
ü MR: Positive
ü VP: Negative
ü Citrate: Negative
ü Motility: Positive
Colossians 3:23

The organism is most likely: 706. It is the major normal flora in the mouth
and oral cavity:
a. Edwardsiella tarda a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Yersinia enterolitica b. Viridans streptococcus
c. Escherichia Coli c. Staphyloccocus aureus
d. Citrobacter freundii d. Escherichia coli
699. Which of the following species possess the 707. Which of the following sites does not
deaminase enzyme? contain normal flora?
a. Proteus a. Colon
b. Morganella b. Skin
c. Providencia c. Urinary bladder
d. All of the above d. Mouth
700. What are the organisms used for the quality 708. All of the following are classified as a direct
control of catalase test? route of infection except:
1. Staphylococcus aureus and a. Arthropod vectors
Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Hand-to-hand transmission
2. Staphylococcus epidermidis and c. Congenital contact
Streptococcus pyogenes d. Sexual contact
3. Streptococcus pyogenes and 709. Entrance and multiplication of a
Enterococcus faecalis microorganism in a host is called?
4. Streptococcus pyogenes and a. Infection
Escherichia coli b. Opportunistic infection
701. Which of the following organisms is used c. Infectious disease
for the quality control of autoclaves? d. Nosocomial infection
a. Bacillus subtilis 710. Which of the following microorganisms may
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus be carried asymptomatically in the
c. Bacillus anthracis nasopharynx?
d. Escherichia coli a. Staphylococcus aureus
702. Which of the following organisms is b. Neisseria meningitidis
classified as Biosafety Level 3 pathogens? c. Both
a. Fransicella tularensis d. Neither
b. Brucella melitensis 711. What is the major normal flora in the
c. Yersinia pestis female vaginal tract?
d. Both a & b a. Garnerella vaginalis
703. Media that cannot withstand sterilization b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
by autoclaving can be sterilized by: c. Lactobacillus acidophilus
a. Boiling d. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Incineration 712. Which of the following mycobacteria belong
c. Filtration to Group IV or the rapid growers?
d. Dry heat a. Mycobacterium fortuitum-chelonei
704. Organisms that can grow in the presence or complex
absence of oxygen is termed as: b. Mycobacterium smegmatis
a. Facultative anaerobes c. Mycobacterium phlei
b. Microaerophilic d. All of the above
c. Capnophilic 713. Dapsone (a sulfone drug) is used for the
d. Aerobes treatment of:
705. Organisms that can grow best with higher a. Cholera
CO2 concentrations is termed as: b. Leprosy
a. Facultative anaerobes c. Tularemia
b. Microaerophilic d. Tetanus
c. Capnophilic 714. Chlamydia organisms are usually cultured
d. Aerobes in:
know”
Jeremiah 33:3
MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY 47

a. McCoy cells 722. Sodium polyamethol sulfonate is the best
b. Sheep Blood Agar anticoagulation for blood used in
c. Yolk Sac of a chick Microbiology lab because of its:
d. Chocolate Agar a. Anticoagulant properties
715. The causative agent of trench fever is: b. Anticomplementary properties
a. Mycoplasma hominis c. Antiphagocytic properties
b. Abiotrophia adjacens d. All of the above
c. Borrelia recurrentis 723. What is the causative agent of Rocky
d. Bartonella quintana Mountain spotted fever?
716. The stain used for the detection of a. Rickettsia akari
Bartonella species is: b. Rickettsia typhi
a. Gram Stain c. Rickettsia rickettsia
b. Acid-fasst stain d. Rickettsia prowazekii
c. Warthin-Starry Silver Stain 724. Mode of transmission of Scrub typhus
d. a&b caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamushi:
717. Which of the following tests is used for the a. Tick bite
differentiation of the M. fortuitum-chelonei b. Lice bite
complex? c. Chigger bite
a. Nitrate reduction d. Mite bite
b. Tweem 80 hydrolysis 725. Which of the following infection is caused
c. Iron uptake by Rickettsia typhi?
d. Urease test a. Erlichiosis
718. Which of the following Clostriduim species b. Murine typhus
is associated with malignancies such as c. Trench fever
breast cancer? d. Scrub typhus
a. Clostridium perfringens 726. What is the vector of Rickettsia prowazekii?
b. Clostridium ramosum a. Flying squirrels
c. Clostridium difficile b. Mosquito
d. Clostridium septicum c. Chigger
719. What is the function of N-acetyl-L-cysteine d. Fleas
(NALC) in NALC-NaOH method for 727. Buotonneuse fever is caused by:
liquefaction and decontamination of a. Ehrlichia equi
specimens for Acid-fast bacilli? b. Rickettsia australis
a. A decontaminating agent c. Rickettsia rickettsia
b. A mucolytic agent d. Rickettsia canorii
c. An emulsifier 728. Which of the following reagents is used in
d. A&B Indole test?
720. Which of the following statements is true a. Kovac’s reagent
for HACEK bacteria? b. Ehrlich’s reagent
1. Group of gram-positive bacteria c. Both
b. Represents Haemophilus aphrophilus, d. Neither
Actinobacillus 729. Neisseria meningitidis is carried by some
actinomycetemcomitans, individuals as normal flora in the:
Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella a. Mouth
corrodens and Kingella spp. b. Nasopharynx
c. Causes endocarditis c. Skin
d. B and C d. Genitalia
721. What is the test used to differentiate 730. Which of the following CSF sample tube is
Plsiomonas shigelloides from Shigella spp.? used in microbiology?
a. Oxidase test a. Tube no. 1
b. Microdase test b. Tube no. 2
c. Serotyping c. Tube no. 3
d. Mug test d. Tube no. 4
Colossians 3:23

731. Mycobacterial species that produce b. Bacteroides fragilis
pigment when exposed to light source but c. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
not in the dark. d. None of the above
a. Rapid growers 740. The clean catch midstream urine culture
b. Scotochromagens colony count indicates the patient likely has
c. Non photochormagens UTI:
d. Photochromagens a. No growth
3
732. What is the plasma of choice for the b. 10 CFU/mL
1
coagulase test? c. 10 CFU/mL
5
a. Horse plasma d. 10 CFU/mL
b. Human plasma 741. What is the proper blood-to-broth ratio for
c. Rabbit plasma blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial
d. Sheep plasma effect of serum in adult?
733. Which of the following does coagulate slide a. 1:10
test measured? b. 1:30
a. Clumping factor c. 1:50
b. Free coagulase d. 1:100
c. Aerobic coagulase 742. Chemicals produced by microorganisms
d. Anaerobic coagulase that inhibit the growth of other
734. Why is Phenylethyl Alcohol added in media? microorganisms are called:
1. To inhibit gram positive bacteria a. Antibody
2. To inhibit gram negative bacteria b. Antiseptic
3. To inhibit the swarming of Proteus c. Antibiotics
4. B&C d. None of the above
735. What color indicates a negative result in 743. Bacteriostatic agents:
MRVP tests? 1. Inhibit the growth of the
a. Pink microorganism
b. Yellow 2. Kill the microbes and cell lysis results
c. Red 3. Both
d. Blue 4. Neither
736. Positive control for Deaminase test: 744. What must be the depth of the Mueller
a. Klebsiella pneumonia Hinton Agar for disk diffusion testing?
b. Proteus mirabilis a. 2 mm
c. Proteus vulgaris b. 4 mm
d. Escherichia coli c. 6 mm
737. Satelliting streptococci is commonly d. 8 mm
referred to: 745. False-susceptible results in disk diffusion
a. Streptococcus agalactiae susceptibility testing is caused by which of
b. Streptococcus adjacens the following?
c. Streptococcus pyogenes a. Depth of agar is too thick
d. Haemophilus influenza b. Inoculums used are too heavy
738. Which of the following serotypes of E. coli c. Use of older cultures
resembles Shigella dysenteriae due to its d. a & c
association with bloddy diarrgea and 746. Which of the following antibacterial agents
verotoxic production? may be used for treatment of MRSA
a. GTEC isolates?
b. EHEC a. Tetracycline
c. EPEC b. Chloramphenicol
d. EIEC c. Sulfamethoxazole
739. Which of the following microorganisms is d. Vancomycin
inhibited by SPS? 747. It is an example of an antibiotic media:
a. Veillonella porvula a. HEA
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

b. SSA a. Clostridium perfringens
c. XLD
d. CNA b. Clostridium difficile
748. Which of the following is the most c. Clostridium ramosum
appropriate organism and media d. Clostridium botulinum
combination? 756. Bismuth sulfite or brilliant green agar is
1. Neisseriea species - Hektoen enteric specifically for the isolation of:
agar a. Edwardsiella tarda
2. Legionella spp – Regan Lowe b. Shigella dysenteriae
3. Staphylococcus spp – Mannitol Salt c. Escherichia coli
agar d. Salmonella typhi
4. Francisella spp – Collistin – nalidixic 757. Which of the following statements is true
acid for Eikenella corrodens?
749. The term that denotes a situation in which a. Saccharolytic
the combined effect of two antibiotics is b. Corrodes the surface of agar
greater than the total of the individual c. Motile
effects: d. All of the above
a. Antagonistic 758. On direct examination, Haemophilus
b. Additive ducreyi resembles:
c. Autonomous a. Molar tooth
d. Synergistic b. Medusa head
750. A bamboo rod is the most common c. Bamboo rod
description of the appearance of which of d. “School of fish”
the following microorganisms? 759. It is associated with skin infections
a. Haemophilus ducreyi occurring as red to blue lesions and also the
b. Campyllobacter jejuni agent of swimming pool granuloma:
c. Bacillus anthracis a. Mycobacterium marinum
d. Bbacillus cereus
751. Nagler plate aids in the identification of: b. Mycobacterium asiaticum
a. Clostridium perfringens c. Mycobacterium gordonae
d. None of the above
b. Nocardia asteroids 760. This organism requires hemin for growth:
c. Bacillus fragilis a. Mycobacterium gastri
d. Propionobacteria acnes b. Mycobacterium xenopi
752. What is the most common manifestation of c. Mycobacterium haemophilum
neonatal gonorrhea? d. Mycobacterium avium
a. Bacteremia 761. The etiologic agent of Sodoku:
b. Conjuctivitis a. Spirillum minus
c. Arthritis b. Bordetella pertussis
d. Endocarditis c. Spirillum moniliformis
753. What is the single species in genu Hafnia d. Bordetella parapertussis
that resembles the Enterobacter? 762. Spirillum moniliformis is transmitted by
a. Hafnia oxytoca which of the following routes
b. Hafniatarda 1. By rat bite or possibly by direct
c. Hafnia alvei contact with rats
d. Hafnia vulgaris 2. By ingestion of unpasteurized milk
754. Providencia rettgeri is characteristically: 3. Both
a. Urease positive 4. Neither
b. Non motile 763. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis is the
c. Lactose positive causative agent of:
d. Deaminase negative a. Hansen’s disease
755. Which of these Clostridium species is b. Johne’s disease
positive for lipase reaction? c. Conn’s disease
Colossians 3:23

d. Weil’s disease 771. This type of HBV markers is present in acute
764. This branch of microbiology is a rapidly and chronic hepatitis and is a marker of
expanding discipline in clinical microbiology. infectivity; persistence usually indicates
Much of the emphasis has resulted from the chronic liver disease.
development of modern methods that have a. HBsAg
enhanced virus detection; b. HBeAg
a. Parasitology c. Anti-HBeAb
b. Mycology d. Anti-HBsAg
c. Virology 772. This type of HBV markers is present at the
st
d. Serology onset of infection. It is the 1 serological
765. It is the first step of viral replication, which marker to appear, and it disappears as the
involves the attachment of the virus to the patient recovers.
host receptor site. a. HBsAg
a. Adsorption b. HBeAg
b. Penetration c. Anti-HBeAb
c. Uncoating d. Anti-HBsAg
d. Eclipse 773. It is the causative agent of chickenpox and
766. This step of viral replication can occur in shingles
different ways including, fusion, a. Cytomegalovirus
phagocytosis or the injection of viral b. Varicella-Zoster virus
material into the host cell. c. Epstein-barr virus
a. Penetration d. None of the above
b. Uncoating 774. This type of RNA virus is characterized by
c. Eclipse the presence of single-stranded RNA,
d. Adsorption icosahedral symmetry, and absence of an
767. The virus loses its capsid in a process known envelope.
as _____, which exposes the viral nucleic a. Papovaviruses
acid. b. Poxviruses
a. Uncoating c. Picornaviruses
b. Eclipse d. All of the above
c. Adsorption 775. The family Reoviridae includes all the
d. Penetration following genera except:
768. Replication and expression of genetic a. Reovirus
material are characteristics of _____ stage. b. Rotavirus
a. Eclipse c. Orbivirus
b. Adsorption d. Poliovirus
c. Penetration 776. A complex structure of HIV which is the
d. Uncoating code for core proteins
769. This is the largest DNA virus that is a. Pol
enveloped with complex coats. b. Env
a. Adenovirus c. Gag
b. Poxvirus d. All of the above
c. Parvovirus 777. Rotavirus is a common cause of:
d. Arbovirus a. Gastroenteritis
770. Human Herpesvirus Type 6 is the agent of b. Sporadic outbreaks
exanthema subitum or roseola and also c. Epidemic outbreaks
known as: d. All of the above
rd
a. 3 disease 778. It is the causative agent of rabies
th
b. 4 disease a. Reoviruses
th
c. 5 disease b. Paramyxoviruses
th
d. 6 disease c. Rhabdoviruses
d. All of the above
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

779. EBV is shed in the ____ and transmitted d. India ink
through oral contact. 788. What is the microscopic unit of fungi?
a. Teeth a. Capsule
b. Eyes b. Conidium
c. Saliva c. Hyphae
d. Skin d. Mycelium
780. This type of laboratory methods in virology 789. Which of the following microscopic method
requires properly fixed and stained cells is used to examine skin, hair or nails?
from an appropriate specimen. a. Giemsa stain
a. Cytological Examination b. KOH preparation
b. Chemical Examination c. LPCB
c. Physical Examination d. Saline mount
d. Board Examination 790. Microscopic method used for the detection
781. Viruses that have only a protein coat and no of Histoplasma capsulatum:
outer envelope are categorized as ______ a. Wright’s stain
a. Envelope b. KOH preparation
b. Naked nucleocapsids c. Lactophenol cotton blue
c. Enveloped nucleocapsids d. India ink
d. Nucleocapsids 791. What is the medium used for fungi?
782. In the viral replication the virus is released a. SDA
through _______ as the virus pinched off b. SBA
from the cell c. Rice medium
a. Budding d. Cornmeal agar
b. Evaporation 792. The causative agent of Tinea versicolor
c. Assembly described as having spaghetti and meatball
d. None of the above appearance:
783. Which of the following is the vector for a. Malassezia furfur
yellow fever? b. Triciphyton rubrum
a. Rat c. Microsporum canis
b. Mosquito d. Epidermophyton floccosum
c. Dog 793. Black piedra is caused by:
d. Pig a. Trichosporon beigelii
784. Calcivirus is commonly known as b. Malassezia furfur
a. Airwalk c. Piedraia hortae
b. Norwalk d. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Sidewalk 794. Which of the following is encapsulated?
d. None of the above a. Histoplasma capsulatum
785. What are the phases of fungi? b. Geotrichum candidum
a. Mold phase c. Candida albicans
b. Yeast phase d. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Both 795. The technique that best maintains the
d. Neither microscopic morphology of the fungus:
786. The test used for the identification of a. Tease mount
Candida albicans: b. Slide culture
a. Rapid urease test c. KOH preparation
b. Exoantigent test d. Germ tube test
c. Germ-tube test 796. All of the following can cause athlete’s foot,
d. None of the above except:
787. The stain used for the identification of a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Cryptococcus neoformans: b. Trichophyton rubrum
a. Caloofluer white c. Microsporum canis
b. Papanicolaou stain d. Epidermophyton floccosum
c. Methenamine silver stain
Colossians 3:23

797. What is the function of potassium 2. Penicillin and nystatin
hydroxide in the direct examination of skin, 3. Vancomycin and streptomycin
hair and nails? 4. Nystatin and cycloheximide
a. Preserve fungal elements 805. It is the area of biology concerned with the
b. To fix the preparation for subsequent phenomenon of independence of one living
staining organism on another.
c. Clearing of specimen a. Microbiology
d. Kill contaminants such as bacteria b. Parasitology
798. Considered to be the most infectious of all c. Virology
fungi: d. None of the above
a. Histoplasma capsulatum 806. It is a symbiosis in which two organisms
b. Paracoccidioides brasilienses mutually benefit from each other like
c. Blatomyces dermatitidis termites and the flagellates in their
d. Coccidioides immitis digestive system.
799. The microscopic appearance of this a. Parasitism
organism resembles a mariner’s wheel: b. Commensalism
a. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis c. Mutualism
b. Blastomyces dermatidis d. Symbiosis
c. Coccidioides immitis 807. It is termed as the living together of unlike
d. Histoplasma capsulatum organisms. It may also involve protection or
800. Onychomycosis is a non-dermatophytic other advantages to one or both partners.
infection of the: a. Parasitism
a. Beard b. Commensalism
b. Scalp c. Mutualism
c. Nails d. Symbiosis
d. Groin 808. It is a symbiotic relationship in which two
801. Which of the following is the characteristic species live together and one specie
of dismorphic fungi? benefits from the relationship without
o o
1. Mycelial phase at 25 C to 30 C, yeast harming or benefiting the other.
o o
phase at 35 Cto 37 C a. Parasitism
o o
2. Yeast phase at 25 C to 30 C, mycelial b. Commensalism
o o
phase at 35 Cto 37 C c. Mutualism
3. Both a mycelial phase and yeast phase d. Symbiosis
o o
at 25 C to 30 C 809. It is a symbiotic relationship where one
4. A mycelial phase only in vivo and a organism lives in or on another, depending
yeast phase only in vitro on the latter for its survival and usually at
802. How long should fungal cultures be held the expense of the host.
before reporting as negative? a. Parasitism
a. 24 hours b. Commensalism
b. 4 weeks c. Mutualism
c. 72 hours d. Symbiosis
d. 1 week 810. A parasite living inside the body of a host is
803. A Tinea is commonly known as: called as:
a. Whipworm a. Incidental parasite
b. Piedra b. Endoparasite
c. Hookworm c. Permanent parasite
d. Ringworm d. Ectoparasite
804. Which of the following antibiotics can be 811. A parasite living outside the body of a host
added to Sabouraud dextrose agar for the is called?
isolation of pathogenic fungi from a. Incidental parasite
contaminants such as bacteria? b. Endoparasite
1. Cycloheximide and chloramphenicol c. Permanent parasite
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

d. Ectoparasite b. Naegleria philippinensis
812. It is a type of host in which the parasite c. Naegleira gruberi
attains sexual maturity. d. None of the above
a. Intermediate host 820. What is the causative agent of balantidial
b. Paratenic host dysentery?
c. Final host a. Giardia lamblia
d. Reservoir host b. Isospora beli
813. This type of host harbors the asexual or c. Balantidum coli
larval stage of the parasite. d. Cryptosporidium hominis
a. Intermediate host 821. What is the causative agent of epidemic and
b. Paratenic host endemic diarrhea?
c. Final host a. Giardia lamblia
d. Reservoir host b. Isospora beli
814. This group of parasites is also known as c. Balantidum coli
roundworms because they are elongated d. Cryptosporidium hominis
and cylindrical in shape with bilateral 822. The trophozoites of Giardia intestinalis
symmetry. measures:
a. Protoza 1. 9 to 10 µm long by 5 to 15 µm wide
b. Cestodes 2. 8 to 12 µm long by 5 to 15 µm wide
c. Nematodes 3. 9 to 12 µm long by 5 to 15 µm wide
d. Trematodes 4. 9 to 11 µm long by 5 to 15 µm wide
815. This group of parasites is segmented with a 823. Each oocysts of Cryptosporidium hominis
ribbon-like appearance. contains __ sporozoites
a. Protoza a. 2
b. Cestodes b. 6
c. Nematodes c. 4
d. Trematodes d. 8
816. A group of parasites that requires two 824. What is the mode of transmission of
intermediate hosts in their life cycle. Cryptosporidiosis?
a. Trematodes a. Fecal-oral route
b. Protozoa b. Water-borne transmission
c. Cestodes c. Air-borne transmission
d. Nematodes d. Earth-borne transmission
817. What is the mode of transmission of 825. What is the common name for Necator
Entamoeba histolytica? americanus?
a. Skin contact a. Whipworm
b. Inhalation b. Old world hookworm
c. Sexual contact c. New world hookworm
d. Pinworm
d. Fecal-oral route

826. What is the common name for Ancylostoma
818. It is the most common extra-intestinal form duodenale?
of amebiasis a. Whipworm
a. Amebic hepatitis b. Old world hookworm
b. Amebic liver abscess c. New world hookworm
c. Amebic colitis d. Pinworm
d. Right upper quadrant pain 827. What is the common name for Enterobius
819. This type of Naegleria spp. causes fatal vermicularis?
meningoencephalitis in humans a. Threadworm
a. Naegleria fowleri b. Whipworm
Colossians 3:23

c. Pinworm 836. Urea Breath Test is commonly used for
d. None of the above what organism?
828. What is the common name for a. Helicobacter
Strongyloides stercoralis? b. Campylobacter
a. Threadworm c. Enterobacter
b. Whipworm d. Serratia
c. Pinworm 837. Which among the following is not true
d. None of the above about Taenia solium?
829. What is the common name for Trichuris a. It is commonly referred as pork
trichiura? tapeworm
a. Threadworm b. Pigs are definitive hosts
b. Whipworm c. It has 7-13 uterine branches
c. Pinworm d. The eggs are found free in feces
d. None of the above 838. Arrange the life cycle of Taenia saginata in
830. It is the causative agent of trichinosis proper sequence
a. Trichuris trichiura i. A cow becomes
b. Brugia malayi infected by ingesting
c. Trichinella spiralis a vegetation
d. Loa loa contaminated by eggs
831. The anterior end of the worm is called ii. Oncosphere develop
______, is used for attachment to the host into a cysticercus in
through suckers and in some parasites muscle
a. Scolex iii. Humans become
b. Proglottids infected by ingesting
c. Rostellum raw meat
d. Strobila iv. Oncosphere hatch,
832. The crown of the scolex which may be penetrate intestinal
armed and fitted with hooklets or unarmed wall, and circulate to
and smooth without hooklets is called as muscles
______. a. i, ii, iii, iv
a. Scolex b. i, iii,ii, iv
b. Proglottids c. iv, ii, i, iii
c. Rostellum d. i, iv, ii, iii
d. Strobila 839. Wadsworth Method AMS is commonly
833. The body of the worm is composed of known as ___.
segments known as ______. a. Microplate dilution
a. Scolex b. Agar dilution
b. Proglottids c. Disk Diffusion
c. Rostellum d. E-Test
d. Strobila 840. The elliptical shape growth of inhibition can
834. What is the common name of be seen in what method of antimicrobial
Diphyllobotrium latum? susceptibility testing?
a. Broad tapeworm 1. E-test
b. Beef tapeworm 2. Vitek System
c. Dog tapeworm 3. Tube Dilution
d. Rat tapeworm 4. Agar Dilution
835. Which among the following organisms will 841. The term used to denote the destruction of
bind to the Sialic acid of the Lewis antigen? all forms of microbial life including spores is
a. Helicobacter ___.
b. Campylobacter a. Disinfection
c. Enterobacter b. Sterilization
d. Serratia c. Antisepsis
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

d. All of the above b. Serratia
842. Which among the following properly c. Pseudomonas
describes the motility of Vibrio cholera? d. Actinomadura
a. Darting motility 851. Which among the following is not a
b. Shooting star motility characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
c. Jerky motility a. Oxidase negative
d. Boring and sloping motility b. Nitrate Reductase negative
843. “Comma bacillus” is commonly referred to c. Citrate positive
as ___. d. Oxidase positive
a. Vibrio mimicus 852. Which among the following is not a
b. Salmonella typhimurium characteristic of Bordetella pertussis?
c. Salmonella paratyphi a. Nitrate reduction positive
d. Vibro cholera b. Oxidase positive
844. Which among the following tests is not used c. Urease negative
in differentiating Classical from El Tor d. Catalase positive
Vibrio? 853. Which among the following is not a
a. Vogues Proskauer Test characteristic of Bordetella parapertussis?
b. Chicken Erythrocyte Test a. Nitrate reduction negative
c. Turkey Erythrocyte Test b. Oxidase negative
d. Polymixin B Test c. Urease negative
845. Kanagawa phenomenon can be expected d. Catalase negative
from what organism? 854. Which among the following is not a
a. Vibrio cholera characteristic of Bordetella bronchoseptica?
b. Salmonella typhi a. Nitrate reduction positive
c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus b. Oxidase positive
d. Aeromonadaceae c. Urease negative
846. “Summer diarrhea” is caused by what d. Catalase positive
organism? 855. Castaneda’s Media is commonly used when
a. Vibrio cholera isolating what organism?
b. Salmonella typhi a. Bordetella pertussis
c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus b. Brucella abortus
d. Aeromonadaceae c. Bordetella infantiseptica
847. Wagatsuma agar is commonly used for the d. Francisella tularensis
isolation of what organism? 856. What type of Biosafety Cabinet (BSC) is
a. Vibrio cholera commonly used when working with
b. Salmonella typhi Francisella tularensis?
c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus a. BSC I
d. Aeromonadaceae b. BSC II
848. “Apron-like” colony in CIN media is a c. BSC III
indicative of what organism? d. BSC IV
a. Vibrio cholera 857. The meaning of HACEK is ___.
b. Salmonella typhi a. Haemophilus, Actinobacillus,
c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus Citrobacter, Eikenella, Kingella
d. Aeromonadaceae b. Hafnia, Actinobacillus,
849. “Tortilla like odor” colony is indicative of Cardiobacterium, Edwardsiella,
what organism? Kingella
a. Pseudomonas c. Haemophilus, Actinobacillus,
b. Haemophilus Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella
c. Staphylococcus d. Haemophilus, Arizona,
d. Streptococcus Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella
850. “Grape like odor” colony is indicative of 858. Which among the following is not a
what organism? Hookworm?
a. Hafnia a. Ancylostoma duodenale
Colossians 3:23

b. Necator americanus 866. Which among the following Haemophilus is
c. Ascaris lumbricoides X Factor (+) and V Factor (+)?
d. Ancylostoma caninum a. Haemophilus influenzae
859. Strongyloides stercoralis causes what b. Haemophilus ducreyi
disease? c. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
a. Pneumonia d. Haemophilus paraphrophilus
b. Baghdad boil 867. Which among the following Haemophilus is
c. Cochin-China diarrhea X Factor (-) and V Factor (+)?
d. Malaria a. Haemophilus influenzae
860. Blackfly is a vector for which parasite? b. Haemophilus ducreyi
a. Loa loa c. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
b. Brugia malayi d. Haemophilus haemolyticus
c. Wochereria bancrofti 868. “Musty odor” colony is a manifestation of
d. Onchocerca volvulus what organism?
861. Which among the following is not a a. Pasteurella multocida
characteristic of Angiostrongylus b. Bordetella pertussis
cantonensis? c. Haemophilus influenza
a. Causes eosinophilic d. Francisella tulaernsis
meningoencephalitis 869. Feely-Gorman Agar is used in enhancing the
b. Caused by ingestion of kuhol brown pigmentation of what organism?
c. The parasite migrates into the brain a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
d. Caused by ingestion of raw fish b. Aeromonas
862. Stephen Christopher dots is due to an c. Legionella pneumophilia
infection with ___. d. Haemophilus influenza
a. Plasmodium ovale 870. Common test used in diagnosing
b. Plasmodium knowlesii Legionaire’s disease is known as ___.
c. Plasmodium falciparum a. TFA
d. Plasmodium malaria b. IFA
863. Which among the following life cycles of c. TFPA
Plasmodium falciparum inside a red blood d. APTT
cell is arranged properly? 871. Which among the following organisms can
a. Gametocyte, schizont, ring form, be isolated from dirty air conditioning?
trophozoite a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b. Marginal form, gametocyte, schizont, b. Aeromonas
trophozoite c. Legionella pneumophilia
c. Marginal form, schizont, ring form, d. Haemophilus influenza
gametocyte 872. Which among the following meningitis will
d. Ring form, trophozoite, schizont, not have an increase in lactate level?
gametocyte a. Bacterial Meningitis
864. Swelling of glands in horses and donkeys is b. Tubercular Meningitis
manifestation of what organism? c. Viral Meningitis
a. Pseudomonas d. Fungal Meningitis
b. Burkholderia 873. Which among the following organisms is
c. Stenotrophomonas not categorized under BSL II?
d. Legionella a. HIV
865. Which among the following Acinetobacter b. Bacillus anthracis
organisms will show a negative Glucose c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
oxidation reaction? d. Shigella flexneri
a. Acinetobacter baumanii 874. The pasty or mucoid form of fungal growth
b. Acinetobacter lwoffi is known as ___.
c. Acinetobacter hemolyticus a. Yeast
d. All of the above b. Mold
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

c. Bud c. Systemic
d. Hyaline d. Superficial
875. All of the following fungi are considered as 884. What fungi cause North American
septated except ___. Blastomycosis?
a. Paracoccidoides a. Candida albicans
b. Absedia b. Paracoccidioides braziliensis
c. Epidermophyton c. Malassezia furfur
d. Trichosporon d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
876. Coenocytic hyphae is also known as ___. 885. What fungi cause South American
a. Septated hyphae Blastomycosis?
b. Aseptated hyphae a. Candida albicans
c. Hylaine mycose b. Paracoccidioides braziliensis
d. Pigmented mycose c. Malassezia furfur
877. A Conidia with spine is commonly referred d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
to as ___. 886. Which among the following fungi will
a. Spinulate produce “cherry red colonies” when
b. Echinulate cultured?
c. Catenate a. Microsporum
d. Catheterate b. Trichophyton
878. A Conidia without spine is commonly c. Epidermophyton
referred to as ___. d. Trichosporon
a. Spinulate 887. Which among the following organism is not
b. Echinulate categorized as a superficial fungus?
c. Catenate a. Malassezia
d. Catheterate b. Piedra
879. Hair-Baiting Test is commonly performed to c. Epidermophyton
what types of fungi? d. Trichosporon
a. Endothrixic 888. Which among the following fungi is not a
b. Hyaline Fungi cutaneous fungus?
c. Pigmented Fungi a. Piedra
d. Yeasts b. Microsporon
880. A fungus that has the ability to grow outside c. Trichophyton
of a hair shaft is known as ____. d. Epidermophyton
a. Endothrixic fungi 889. “Sclerotic bodies” is produced by what
b. Ectothrixic fungi organism?
c. Hyaline fungi a. Epidermophyton
d. Cutaneous fungi b. Fonsecaea
881. A fungus that has the ability to grow inside c. Phaeoannellomyces
of a hair shaft is known as ____. d. Malassezia
a. Endothrixic fungi 890. Which among the following fungi will
b. Ectothrixic fungi produce sulfur granules?
c. Hyaline fungi a. Actinomadura
d. Cutaneous fungi b. Actinomyces
882. The root-like structure of a fungi is known c. Trichophyton
as ___. d. Epidermophyton
a. Sterigmata 891. Which among the following fungi is not
b. Hyphae aseptated?
c. Rhizoid a. Mucor
d. Germ tube b. Syncephalastrum
883. Which among the following types of fungi c. Rhizopus
will not give rise to any host reaction? d. Candida
a. Cutaneous 892. Which among the following disorders will
b. Subcutaneous mimic tuberculosis?
Colossians 3:23

a. San Juaquin fever d. Mycosel Agar
b. Rose Gardener’s fever 901. The positive control organism for Cefinase
c. Darling’s disease Test is ___.
d. Pot’s disease a. Staphylococcus aureus
893. Valley fever is commonly known as ___. b. Streptococcus pyogens
a. Mississippi fever c. Haemophilus influenza
b. Darling’s disease d. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. San Juaquin fever 902. The bubble formation in a positive Catalase
d. Queensland fever Test should be seen after how many
894. Which among the following stains will color second?
chitin well? a. 5 minutes
a. Gomori Methenamine Silver Stain b. 10 minutes
b. Gridley Stain c. 15 minutes
c. Lactophenol Cotton Blue d. 20 minutes
d. Gram Stain 903. Positive color of Modified Oxidase Test is
895. Which among the following stains is ___.
commonly used for fluorescent microscopy a. Black coloration
of fungi? b. Green coloration
a. Calcoflour White c. Purple coloration
b. Gram stain d. Blue coloration
c. Giemsa stain 904. Zone of inhibition for a susceptible
d. Periodic Acid Schiff organism to Bacitracin is ___.
896. The color of Cryptococcus neoformans when a. 5 mm
stained with Mayer Mucicarmine is ___. b. 10 mm
a. Yellow gold c. 15 mm
b. Brick red d. 20 mm
c. Deep rose 905. The negative control organism for
d. Night blue Coagulase Test is ___.
897. Sputum samples that are suspected for a. Neisseria gonorrhea
fungal infection should be stained with ___. b. Haemophilus influenza
a. Gram Stain c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Pap stain d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Gridley stain 906. Which among the following organisms is
d. India ink used as a positive control for DNAse Test?
898. Mycosel agar contains what antibiotic? a. Enterococcus cloacae
a. Erythromycin b. Serratia marcescens
b. Linomycin c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Cyclohexamide d. Staphylococcus lugdonensis
d. Chloramphenicol 907. Indicator present in the DNAse medium is
899. What is the fungal colony color if the fungi ___.
is capable of hydrolyzing urea to form a. Malachite green
ammonia in a Christensen’s uera agar? b. Bromthymol blue
a. Deep rose c. Methyl green
b. Deep red d. Methylene blue
c. Dark pink 908. The indicator present in MSA is ___.
d. Fluorscent green a. Phenol red
900. To convert Blastomyces dermatitidis from b. Methyl red
mold to yeast, what culture media should c. Bromthymol purple
you use? d. Bromthymol blue
a. Caffeic Acid Agar 909. The concentration of SXT used in BSXT
b. Kelley Agar media is ___.
c. Levine’s Agar a. 1.25 ug
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

b. 25 ug a. Wash the hands every time you
c. 2.50 ug change your gloves
d. 2 ug b. Chewing gums are allowed in the
910. The positive control organism used in CAMP laboratory for as long as you close
Test is ___. your mouth while chewing
a. Streptococcus agalactiae c. Avoid smelling the agars that had
b. Streptococcus pyogenes been inoculated with bacteria
c. Enterococcus d. Wash every glassware with distilled
d. Viridan Streptococcus water
911. The positive control organism used in CAMP 916. When obtaining a culture from a culture
Test is ___. broth, which among the following
a. Streptococcus bovis laboratory apparatus will you use?
b. Streptococcus agalactiae a. Inoculating loop
c. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Inoculating needle
d. Streptococcus mitior c. Syringe
912. Which among the following laboratory d. Petri dish
apparatus will not be used during the 917. The effect of polymixin is ____.
preparation of a media? a. It causes the leakage of internal
a. Erlenmeyer Flask components of the cells
b. Graduated cylinder b. It inhibits the nucleic acid binding to
c. Petri dish carbohydrates
d. Inoculating loop c. It interferes with protein synthesis
913. Which among the following laboratory d. It inhibits the formation of a cell wall
apparatus is used when performing 918. Which among the following properly
antimicrobial susceptibility testing? describes the mechanism of an oil
a. Forcep immersion oil?
b. Gloves a. It will decrease the resolution of a
c. Cork sample
d. Durham fermentation tube b. It will increase the resolution of a
914. A technician was performing Antimicrobial sample
Susceptibility Testing, after 24-hour of c. It will sterilize the objective of the
incubation the results where as follows: microscope
Neomycin: 3 cm d. It will enhance the color of a sample
Gentamycin: 4 cm 919. This refers to the process of burning the
Penicillin: 6.9 cm entire laboratory material into ashes?
a. Incineration
Susceptibl Resistan Intermediat b. Tyndallization
e (cm) t (cm) e (cm) c. Inspissation
Neomycin 4 0.8 1-3 d. Autoclaving
Gentamyci 4 0.8 1-3 920. Which among the following steps of
n fractional distillation is properly arranged?
Penicillin 5 2 - a. Heat>incubate>incubate
*Basing from the chart above: b. Heat>heat>heat
Which among the following antibiotics should the c. Heat>incubate>heat
doctor administer? d. Incubate>heat>incubate
a. Neomycin 921. Which among the following is true about
b. Gentamycin the hanging drop method?
c. Penicillin a. It is an ordinary glass slide
d. None of the Above b. The organism is fixed with petroleum
915. Which among the following is true about jelly
good practice in the microbiology c. The cover slip is rimmed in order to
laboratory? avoid the cells to escape
d. Observe under HPO
Colossians 3:23

922. The following laboratory materials can be a. Condenser
used in the staining procedures except ___. b. Coarse adjustment knob
a. Staining rack c. Fine adjustment knob
b. Forceps d. Prefocusing knob
c. Petri dish 928. Dennis is using a monocular microscope, in
d. Cotton viewing a Gongylonema pulchrum, which is
923. Every dental equipment should be sterilized a parasite infecting the buccal cavity of
by means of ___. humans. To view this properly at its living
a. Autoclave state, he diluted the specimen with normal
b. Isopropyl Alcohol saline. Which among the following should
c. Incineration he do?
d. Tyndallization a. Incline the microscope in order for
924. Which among the following practices shows the mirror to reflect as much light as
a proper attitude inside a dental clinic, with possible
respect to microbiology? b. Add an oil immersion to the slide
a. Wash every equipment with water c. Place the microscope on top of a
and dry using a towel clean bond paper and observe with
b. Use one pair of glove for every both eyes open
patient d. Since it is a monocular microscope,
c. Washing of hands every time you observe it with one eye close, in order
change a pair of glove to limit the view in one side only
d. Autoclave every equipment, except 929. Which among the following organisms are
dental molds made of plastic most likely to be arranged in a cube-like
925. Which among the following statements configuration?
does not show the proper way of using an a. Tetracoccus
autoclave? b. Streptococcus
a. When covering the autoclave, it is c. Staphylococcus
advised to slide the cover to the sides d. Sarcina
instead of covering 930. Which among the following steps is not
b. Always rim the cover of the autoclave needed when performing Antimicrobial
to ensure that no pressure escapes Susceptibility Testing?
c. Paper boats with agar granules should a. Incinerate forceps every time you put
be autoclave together with hand a new antibiotic
gloves, to ensure maximum sterility b. Streak the entire petri dish
d. Always depressurize the autoclave c. Place the antibiotics near each other
before opening the cover in order to to ensure maximum resistance of the
avoid escaping of pressure bacteria
926. Which among the following is considered to d. Measure the zone of inhibition using
be good microscopic technique? a ruler with centimeter graduations
a. Play with the different knobs 931. Which among the following components of
b. Adjust the light using the light BEA is a coumarin derivative that contains a
intensity knob glucose and a glycine moiety?
c. Always use the scanning objectives a. Bile
first b. Esculine
d. Clean the lenses of the objectives c. Azide
with the use of saline d. Ferric Citrate
927. A microscopist was observing an 932. The positive control organism of Bile-Esculin
oropharyngeal swab smear, when he Agar is ___.
wanted to enlarge the organism, the glass a. Enterococcus faecalis
slide accidentally broke. Which among the b. Streptococcus viridans
following parts of the microscope should be c. Streptococcus agalactiae
adjusted to avoid any further damage. d. Staphylococcus aureus
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

933. The negative control organism of Bile- 942. The quantity of fecal sample needed in case
Esculin Agar is ___. of Amebiasis infection is ___.
a. Enterococcus faecalis a. 3 specimens for 12 days
b. Streptococcus viridans b. 6 specimens for 14 days
c. Streptococcus agalactiae c. 9 specimens for 16 days
d. Staphylococcus aureus d. 12 specimens for 18 days
934. The indicator of 6.5% Salt BrothTest is ___. 943. The feeding stage of Entamoeba histolytica
a. Bromthymol blue is ___.
b. Bromcresol blue a. Cyst
c. Bromthymol purple b. Trophozoite
d. Bromcresol purple c. Larva
935. The positive color of PYRase Test is ___. d. Cercaria
a. Deep Rose 944. Which among the following stool
b. Brick Red precipitate preservatives utilizes Schaudinn’s Solution?
c. Cherry red color a. Formalin
d. Play of colors b. Sodium Acetate Formalin
936. The positive control organism of Indole c. Single Vial system
Broth is ___. d. PVA
a. Salmonella typhi 945. Which among the following stool
b. Serratia marsecens preservatives uses glycerine and 0.9%
c. Escherichia coli Sodium Chloride?
d. Enterobacter cloacae a. Formalin
937. The negative control organism of Indole b. Sodium Acetate Formalin
Broth is ___. c. Cumming Method
a. Salmonella typhi d. Merthiolate Iodine Formaldehyde
b. Serratia marsecens 946. Which among the following stool
c. Escherichia coli consistencies is characterized as “goat
d. Enterobacter cloacae droppings”?
938. The positive control organism of MR Test is a. Scyhalous stools
___. b. Gaseous stool
a. Escherichia coli c. Scybala stool
b. Serratia marsecens d. Pipestem stool
c. Hafnia 947. What is the stool conisitency in cases of
d. Enterobacter cloacae Hirschung’s disease?
939. The negative control organism of VP Test is a. Small caliber
___. b. Large caliber
a. Hafnia c. Gaseous stool
b. Serratia marsecens d. Scybala stool
c. Micrococcus 948. What is the stool color after ingestion of
d. Enterobacter cloacae Barium?
940. The positive control organism of Simmon a. Tarry
Citrate is ___. b. Putty
a. Klebsiella pneumonia c. Bright-red
b. Serratia marsecens d. Greenish-blue
c. Escherichia coli 949. The foul odor of stool is due to ___.
d. Enterobacter cloacae a. Indole
941. The negative control organism of Simmon b. Tryptophan
Citrate is ___. c. Pyruvic acid
a. Enterococcus d. Lactic
b. Serratia marsecens 950. Which among the following parasites can be
c. Escherichia coli retrieved from duodenal samples?
d. Enterobacter cloacae a. Leishmania donovani
b. Naeglaria
Colossians 3:23

c. Isospora 959. Which among the following organisms will
d. Taenia have a commensal relationship with a
951. Cellophane Tape Sample is commonly used human host?
for what parasite? a. Ascaris lumbricoides
a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Giardia intestinalis
b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Entamoeba coli
c. Isospora d. Acanthamoeba keratitis
d. Taenia 960. Which among the following organisms will
952. Which among the following parasites can be have a phoretic relationship with a human
retrieved from the buffy coat of a host?
centrifuged whole blood? a. Ascaris lumbricoides
a. Cryptosporidium b. Giardia intestinalis
b. Isospora c. Entamoeba coli
c. Trypanosoma d. Acanthamoeba keratitis
d. Paragonimus westermani 961. The affinity of the parasite to a tissue of the
953. What developmental stage of Taenia solium host is known as ___.
can be retrieved from a CSF sample? a. Affinity
a. Egg b. Avidity
b. Larva c. Tropism
c. Adult d. Attachment
d. Trophozoite 962. The pathogenesis of a parasite in which
954. The following organisms can be retrieved there is competition for essential nutrients
from eye specimens except ___. is known as __.
a. Acanthamoeba keratitis a. Trauma
b. Loa loa b. Lytic Necrosis
c. Naeglaria fowleri c. Spoliative action
d. Toxoplasma gondii d. Allergic Phenomenon
955. Direct life cycle of a parasite is also known 963. Flagellate parasites that lodge outside the
as ___. digestive system is known as ___.
a. Heterogonic Life Cycle a. Laminar flagellates
b. Homogonic Life Cycle b. Wandering flagellates
c. Definitive Life Cycle c. Atrial flagellates
d. Intermediate Life Cycle d. Axial flagellates
956. Indirect life cycle of a parasite is also known 964. The organelle in which the flagellate of a
as ___. Mastogophora is attached is known as ___.
a. Heterogonic Life Cycle a. Kinetosome
b. Homogonic Life Cycle b. Axial Filament
c. Definitive Life Cycle c. Peptidoglycan layer
d. Intermediate Life Cycle d. Nucleus
957. The type of ulcer caused by Entamoeba 965. The subphylum of Sarcomastigophora that
histolytica is ___. is refered to as the “flagellates” is ___.
a. Peptic ulcer a. Sarcodina
b. Tear-drop ulcer b. Mastigophora
c. Explosive ulcer c. Nematoda
d. Osmotic ulcer d. Cestoda
958. This refers to an animate/inanimate object 966. The subphylum of Sarcomastigophora that
in which the parasites are normally living is refered to as the “amoeba” is ___.
a. Final Host a. Sarcodina
b. Intermediate Host b. Mastigophora
c. Phoretic Host c. Nematoda
d. Reservoir d. Cestoda
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

967. Which among the following Sarcodina will c. Entamoeba gingivalis
cause ulceration of the colon? d. Trichomonas vaginalis
a. Entamoeba coli 975. In cases of Lamblia intestinalis infection,
b. Entamoeba hystolytica what is the common odor of the fecal
c. Entamoeba polecki sample?
d. Naeglaria fowleri a. Flatulence odor
968. A complication brought by Entamoeba b. Sweet odor
histolytica infection, in which the ulcer c. Cabage odor
resembles colon cancer is known as ___. d. Rotten Cheese odor
a. Peptic ulcer 976. Which among the following is not a test for
b. Osmotic colon Lamblia intestinalis infection?
c. Amoeboma a. String Test
d. Cystic fibrosis b. Entero Test
969. Which among the following organism is c. Duodenal Aspirate Tets
described to have a “Swiss cheese” d. Microscopic Test
cytoplasm? 977. “Foot ball cyst” is commonly seen in what
a. Naeglaria fowleri parasite?
b. Entamoeba coli a. Lamblia intestinalis
c. Entamoeba hystolytica b. Oxyuris vermicularis
d. Entamoeba polecki c. Enteromonas hominsi
970. Which among the following procedures will d. Chilomastix mesnili
enhance the motility of Entamoeba 978. The cyst of Chilomastix mesnili is described
histolytica? as ___.
a. Freezing a. Old electric bulb
b. Heating b. Apple shape
c. Wet mount c. Pear shape
d. Application of Castor oil d. Nipple shape
971. Which among the following stages of 979. The cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has a
Sarcodina is properly arranged? chromatoidal bar described as ___.
a. Cyst>Metacyst>Metacystic a. Maltese-cross
Trophozoite>Trophozoite b. Coffin-lid shape
b. Cyst>Metacyst>Trophozoite> c. Crescent shape
Metacystic Trophozoite d. Star shape
c. Metacyst>Cyst>Metacystic 980. Which among the following types of Sand
Trophozoite>Trophozoite Flies usually causes “Old World
d. Trophozoite>Metacyst>Metacystic Leishmaniasis”?
Trophozoite>Cyst a. Phlebotomus
972. Which among the following Mastigophora b. Lutzomia
will not have a cystic stage? c. Both
a. Giardia lamblia d. Neither
b. Trichomonas 981. Which among the following types of Sand
c. Leishmania Flies usually causes “New World
d. Tryopanosoma Leishmaniasis”?
973. “Jerking motility” is observed in what a. Phlebotomus
parasite? b. Lutzomia
a. Endolimaz c. Both
b. Iodamoeba wiliamsi d. Neither
c. Giardia lamblia 982. Which among the following Leishmaniasis is
d. Trichomonas synonymous to Kala-Azar Fever?
974. Which among the following parasites will a. Oriental Sore
have a “Cross-eyed cyst”? b. Aleppo Button
a. Endolimax nana c. Bubas
b. Iodamoeba butschlii d. Visceral Leishmaniasis
Colossians 3:23

983. Novy-Nicole-McNeal Media is a. G-6-PD deficiency
recommended for what parasite? b. Sickle Cell
a. Ascaris c. WAIHA
b. Trichuriasis d. Absence of Duffy 6 receptor
c. Leishmania 992. Sheather’s Sugar Test is commonly used for
d. Balantidium what parasite?
984. Epimastigote Stage in the life cycle of a. Isospora beli
hemoflagellates is also known as ___. b. Sarcocystis hominis
a. Leishmanial Form c. Blastocystis hominis
b. Leptomonal Form d. Cryptosporidium parvum
c. Crithidial Form 993. In what year was Capilaria philipinensis
d. Trypanosomal Form became epidemic?
985. Amastigote Stage in the life cycle of a. 1964
hemoflagellates is also known as ___. b. 1965
a. Leishmanial Form c. 1966
b. Leptomonal Form d. 1967
c. Crithidial Form 994. “Hakanson Phenomenon” is associated with
d. Trypanosomal Form what parasite?
986. Trypomastigote Stage in the life cycle of a. Enterobius vermicularis
hemoflagellates is also known as ___. b. Dientamoeba fragilis
a. Leishmanial Form c. Ancylsostoma duodenale
b. Leptomonal Form d. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Crithidial Form 995. “Dew itch” is associated with what
d. Trypanosomal Form parasite?
987. Promastigote Stage in the life cycle of a. Ancylostoma duodenale
hemoflagellates is also known as ___. b. Strongyloides stercoralis
a. Leishmanial Form c. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Leptomonal Form d. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Crithidial Form 996. Which among the filarial nematodes is not
d. Trypanosomal Form described as sheathed?
988. The Asexual Cycle of the Plasmodium a. Onchocerca volvulus
parasite is also known as ___. b. Loa loa
a. Sporogony c. Brugiya malayi
b. Schizogony d. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Gametogony 997. Which among the filarial nematodes is not
d. Trophozogony described as unsheathed?
989. The Sexual Cycle of the Plasmodium a. Mansonella perstans
parasite is also known as ___. b. Onchocerca volvulus
a. Sporogony c. Mansonella ozardi
b. Schizogony d. Brugiya malayi
c. Gametogony 998. “Servant worm” refers to what parasite?
d. Trophozogony a. Mansonella ozardi
990. Which among the following is true about b. Dracunculus medinensis
the Asexual Cycle of a Plasmodium? c. Loa loa
a. It occurs inside the Anopheles host d. Mansonella streptocerca
b. Cryptozoite develops in the 999. Simolium damnosum is a vector for what
hepatocyte to merozoite parasite?
c. Gametes unite and forms a zygote a. Brugiya malayi
d. Encystment occurs in the gut of a b. Wuchereria bancrofti
mosquito c. Onchocerca volvulus
991. Which among the following diseases does d. Mansonella perstans
not manifest resistance to Malaria?
know”
Jeremiah 33:3

1000. Screening Test for Filarial
Nematodes is known as ___.
a. Wet blood film
b. QBC Method
c. Knott’s Concentration Test
d. Membrane Filtration Test
/opm2017 J
Colossians 3:23

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