TEST ITEM BANK MANAGEMENTplus Jawab Deck PDF

TEST – ITEM BANK
FOR DECK OFFICER AND ENGINEER

OFFICER AT MANAGEMENT LEVEL
DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF SEA TRANSPORTATION

MINISTRY OF TRANSPORTATION
Jl. Medan Merdeka Timur No. 5 Jakarta
Phone : 021-3845808 Fax : 021-3456945Email : dpkp.tu@gmail.com
Website : dpkp-kemenhub.org
CONTENTS
Acknowledgement................................................................................................. i
Foreword ............................................................................................................... ii
Preface .................................................................................................................. iii
Contents ................................................................................................................ iv
I. PRELIMINARY (PART I) ...................................................................................... 1

A. Background ................................................................................................ 1
B. Basic ........................................................................................................... 2
C. Objective.................................................................................................... 3
D. Scope ......................................................................................................... 4
II. DECK OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART II) ......................................................... 1

1. Plan a voyage and conduct navigation ..................................................... 1
2. Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by
any means ................................................................................................. 27
3. Determine and allow for compass errors.................................................. 54
4. Coordinate search and rescue operations ................................................ 77
5. Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures ........................... 103
6. Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from
navigation equipment and systems to assist command decision
making ....................................................................................................... 134
7. Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and
associated navigation systems to assist command decision making ........ 160
8. Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions ..................................... 173
9. Respond to navigational emergencies ...................................................... 194
10. Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions ........................................ 232
11. Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering
systems and services ................................................................................. 262
12. Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers
and ballast tanks and take appropriate action ......................................... 299
13. Carriage of dangerous goods .................................................................... 414
14. Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch
covers and ballast tanks ............................................................................ 453
15. Control trim, stability and stress ............................................................... 461
16. Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and
measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection
of the marine environment ....................................................................... 488
17. Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers and
the operational condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety
systems ...................................................................................................... 568
18. Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle
emergency situations ................................................................................ 589
19. Use of leadership and managerial ............................................................. 643
20. Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board ................ 670
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III. ENGINEER OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART III) ................................................ 676
1. Manage the operation of propulsion
plant......................................................... ................................................. 676
2. Plan and schedule operations ................................................................... 808
3. Operation, surveillance, performance assessment and maintaining
safety of propulsion plant and auxiliary machinery .................................. 982
4. Manage fuel, lubrication and ballast operations ...................................... 1056
5. Manage operation of electrical and electronic control equipment.......... 1069
6. Manage trouble-shooting, restoration of electrical and electronic
control equipment to operating condition ............................................... 1087
7. Manage safe and effective maintenance and repair procedures ............. 1101
8. Detect and identify the cause of machinery malfunctions and
correct faults ............................................................................................. 1118
9. safe working practice ................................................................................ 1161
10. Control trim, stability and stress ............................................................... 1200
11. Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and
measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and protection of
the marine environment ........................................................................... 1228
12. Maintain safety and security of the vessel, crew and passengers
and the operational condition of life-saving, fire-fighting and other
safety systems ........................................................................................... 1311
13. Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle
emergency situations ................................................................................ 1332
14. Use leadership and managerial skills ........................................................ 1345
IV. End Chapter .............................................................................................. 1371
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PRELIMINARY
A. Background
Since the establishment of the International Maritime Organization (IMO), Human
Resource become the most important development of the world shipping industry that
have a considerable influence to improve the quality of education and training for
seafarers through the provision of international and national requirements. It becomes
a matter that can not be negotiable and should get special attention to exam the
competence of seafarers as an assessment of the learning process and is used as an
accurate attestation of training participants competencies. Required the system and
regulations that are sustainable. therefore, The Board of Examination and Assessment
for Seafarers (DPKP) as a forum AD-hoc for independent responsible for organizing
the exam expertise sefarers in a professional, relevant, valid, reliable, consistent and
realistic to develop a system Competence-Base Assessment in facing the challenges
of the future that aims to test the competence of seafarers as the evidence that the
training participants can make and implement behavior and competencies STCW as
Amended in that suit in the realm of domain taxonomy bloom namely Cognitive,
Psychomotor and Affective where training participants with the level of the duties,
responsibilities and authority to master;
1. What should the training participants know (knowledge)
2. What skills should the training participants can do (ability), and
3. How should the training participants have a taste or a change of attitude as a
seafarers (skills).
Proficiency exam seafarers is a exam to obtain a certificate of the seafarers for the
examinees to write a comprehensive testing methods and practices. Appropriate
regulation of the Director General of Sea Transportation No. HK.103 / 4/2 / DGLT-
2015 on Systems and Procedures Implementation Exam Skills for Seafarers (SISPRO)
is as a reference guide in the implementation of assessment system seafarers for the
acquisition of knowledge, abilities and skills of training participants.
1
Computer-Base Assessment (CBA) is a computer-based assessment to evaluate the
level of comprehensive knowledge and understanding in form which complies with
minimum standard column in STCW as amended. Hopefully, the result in the future it
can be apply as on-line assessment expectedly directly be accessed objectively and
the implementation can be more effective and efficient.
As for problems that can be identified both in the learning process and the testing
process competence the basis will be for how seafarers can be generated
internationally and nationally so that in the future human resources of sea
transportation become entrepreneurs in shipping industry and support the
government's vision to make Indonesia as the world Maritime Axis in the face of
globalization market.
B. Basic
1. International Maritime Organization Convention on Standards of Training,
Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) in regulation I / 6 and Code
STCW Section A-I /6;
2. Keputusan Presiden Nomor 60 Tahun 1986 tentang Pengesahan International
Convention on Standard of Training Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers
1978 sebagaimana telah diubah dengan Amandemen yang terakhir;
3. Undang – Undang Nomor 17 Tahun 2008 tentang Pelayaran (Lembaran Negara
tahun 2008 Nomor 64, Tambahan Lembaran Negara Nomor 4849);
4. Undang-undang Nomor 20 Tahun 2003 tentang Sistem Pendidikan Nasional;
Evaluasi, Akreditasi dan Sertifikasi;
5. Peraturan Pemerintah Nomor 7 Tahun 2000 tentang Kepelautan;
6. PerMenHub No PM 70 Tahun 2013 tentang Diklat, Sertifikasi, & Dinas Jaga
Pelaut;
7. Keputusan Bersama Menteri Perhubungan, Menteri Pendidikan Nasional dan
Menteri Tenaga Kerja dan Transmigrasi Nomor KM.41 Tahun 2003, Nomor
5/U/KB/2003, Nomor KEP.208 A/MEN/2003 tentang Sistem Standar Mutu
Kepelautan Indonesia;
8. Peraturan Direktur Jenderal Perhubungan Laut No. HK.103/4/2/DJPL-2015
tentang Sistem dan Prosedur Penyelenggaraan Ujian Keahlian Pelaut.
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C. Objective
Test – Item Bank for Deck Officer and Engineer Officer of Management Level, includes a
collection of Test – Item Bank in accordance with specific minimum standard column ot
the STCW as amended which can be developed as on-line or off-line assessment with
system of computerized random to carry out a written test comprehensively to measure
mastery level of learning outcomes for generating the execellent and professional
seafarers.
D. Targets
The targets are as follows :
1. To stimulate participants spirit of learning

2. To stimulate the instructor and assessors fairness
3. To collect 1000 Test – Item in multiple choice form as necessary
E. Scope
1. Deck Officer at Management Level :
a) Plan a voyage and conduct navigation
b) Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any means
c) Determine and allow for compass errors
d) Coordinate search and rescue operations
e) Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures
f) Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation equipment and
systems to assist command decision making
g) Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and associated navigation
systems to assist command decision making
h) Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions
i) Respond to navigational emergencies
j) Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions
k) Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems and services
l) Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks and
take appropriate action
m) Carriage of dangerous goods
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n) Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks
o) Control trim, stability and stress
p) Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure
safety of life at sea, security and the protection of the marine environment
q) Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers and the operational
condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety systems
r) Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations
s) Use of leadership and managerial
t) Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board
2. Engineer Officer at Management Level :

a) Manage the operation of propulsion plant
b) Plan and schedule operations
c) Operation, surveillance, performance assessment and maintaining safety of propulsion
plant and auxiliary machinery
d) Manage fuel, lubrication and ballast operations
e) Manage operation of electrical and electronic control equipment
f) Manage trouble-shooting, restoration of electrical and electronic control equipment to
operating condition
g) Manage safe and effective maintenance and repair procedures
h) Detect and identify the cause of machinery malfunctions and correct faults
i) Control trim, stability and stress
j) Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure
safety of life at sea, security and protection of the marine environment
k) Maintain safety and security of the vessel, crew and passengers and the operational
condition of life-saving, fire-fighting and other safety systems
l) Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations
m) Use leadership and managerial skills
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1. Merencanakan pelayaran dan melaksanakan navigasi.

( Plan a voyage and conduct navigation )
1. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

A. At the start of the sea voyage.
B. Before the voyage commences.
C. When requested by a pilot.
D. After the pilot has disembarke
2. What should a passage plan include ?

A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage.
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.
C. The plan should cover the first half of the sea voyage.
D. The master decides what to include in the passage plan
3. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn
from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________.
A. DR plot
B. Track line
C. Heading
D. Estimated course
4. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying
reefs and shoals?
A. Approach charts
B. General charts
C. Sailing charts
D. Coastal charts
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5. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in
the North Atlantic Ocean?
A. Pilot chart
B. Coast Pilot
C. Current Table
D. Climatological Atlas
6. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the

__________.
A. Latitude scale near the middle of the track line
B. Longitude scale near the middle of the track line
C. Latitude scale at the mid-latitude of the chart
D. Latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale
7. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted
depth of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to
have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is
01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet
these requirements?
A. 1610
B. 1728
C. 1821
D. 2350
8. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT
approximately the same as the great circle distance?
A. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
C. The two points are near the equator, but in different hemispheres
D. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude, and both are
near the 180th meridian.
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9. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides

information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine
facilities available in that port?
A. American Practical Navigator
B. Notice to Mariners
C. Coast Pilot
D. Sailing Directions
10. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the __________.
A. Position and area of the current
B. Speed and direction toward which the current flows
C. Type and characteristic of the current's flow
D. None of the above
11. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship
would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the
following EXCEPT the __________.
A. Coast Pilot
B. Harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute
C. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
D. Light List
12. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13
knots to intercept vessel A?
A. 249°
B. 256°
C. 262°
D. 268°
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13. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to
navigation by means of __________.
A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
B. Weekly Notices to Mariners
C. Corrected editions of charts
D. Light Lists
14. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________.

A. Local Notice to Mariners
B. Weekly Notice to Mariner
C. Marine broadcasts
D. All of the above
15. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in
__________.
A. The Philippines
B. Australia
C. Republic of Korea
D. Chile
16. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?

A. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and
NAVAREA warnings are the same.
B. NAVAREA warnings concern only coastal navigation and inland
navigation in large bays or sounds such as Puget Soun
C. The United States is responsible for NAVAREA warnings in the North
Atlantic north of 7°N, and west of 15°W.
D. Long range radio navigational warnings are usually broadcast by
radiotelephone, radiotelegraph, and radio-teletypewriter.
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17. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B
Buoyage System?
A. Poland
B. Morocco
C. Peru
D. Saudi Arabia
18. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?

A. Supplements to new editions are issued monthly by the U.S. Coast Guar
B. New editions are published by the National Ocean Service.
C. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
19. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine
information. Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
A. XI
B. IV and XI
C. V and X
D. VI and VII
20. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
A. Chart No. 1
B. Catalog of Charts
C. Guidance for Practical Navigator
D. Coast Guard Light List
21. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to
port ?
A. World Port Index
B. Coast Pilot
C. Nautical Index
D. Sailing Directions
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22. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________.

A. Unpredictable
B. Generally too weak to be of concern
C. Predicted in Tidal Current Tables
D. Generally constant
23. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.

A. Well-charted inner dangers
B. Port facilities
C. Coastal anchorages
D. Offshore traffic separation schemes
24. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white
with a red sector. The red sector __________.
A. Indicates the limits of the navigable channel
B. Indicates a danger area
C. Is used to identify the characteristics of the light
D. Serves no significant purpose
25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?

A. Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
B. Those set up by local authorities
C. Those defined on navigational charts
D. All of the above
26. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and 330
nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours
long
A. 330 naut. Miles
B. 300 naut. Miles
C. 320 naut. Miles
D. 315 naut. Miles
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27. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the
ship is in open waters ?
A. Just before the change of watch
B. Twice a watch
C. At least every 30 minutes
D. Only when the visibility drops
28. What chart should be used when navigating ?

A. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
B. Any chart which shows the area which the vessel is passing through as long
as it is connected
C. The largest scale chart on board for the concerned area
D. The chart which covers the largest part of the passage
29. Define the required interval between position fixes.

A. Before the vessel is due to alter course
B. When the weather changes
C. Such as the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes were
incorrect
D. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger by
the effects of wind, tide or current
30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from _______.

A. The chart catalogue
B. The Annual Notice to Mariners
C. The latest cumulative notices to mariners
D. The Guide to Port Entry
31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year.

A. Three times
B. Once
C. Four times
D. Twice
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32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out _______.

A. Every day at noon when at sea
B. On completion of maneuvering in port
C. One to two hours prior sailing
D. Whenever an item of navigation equipment is not functioning
33. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian
Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult?
A. Port approach chart
B. Admiralty Sailing Directions
C. Admiralty list of Radio Signals
D. Guide to Port Entry
34. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning
a passage in coastal waters?
A. Under keel clearance
B. Clearing bearings and clearing ranges
C. No - Go areas
D. Choice of ocean route
35. A voyage passage plan is made from _____.

A. Pilot station to pilot station
B. Fairway buoy to fairway buoy
C. Berth to berth
D. Berth to drop of pilot of that particular port and from arrival pilot station to
the berth
36. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical
letters. This indicates the __________.
A. Rock is visible at low water springs only
B. Rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only
C. Rock is dry at high water
D. Exact position of the rock is doubtful
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DPKP
37. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships
are on:
A. Parallel courses
B. Opposite courses
C. Diverging courses
D. Collision courses
38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in

1912, the ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
A. 5.5 and 6.0 to 1
B. 6.2 and 6.8 to 1
C. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1
D. 8.2 and 8.5 to 1
39. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on
hydrographic maps ?
A. Light houses
B. Church spires
C. Shore line
D. All the above
40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of
ships, is known as break water
B. The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel
likely to be berthe
C. The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading and
unloading is called a mole
D. All the above
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DPKP
41. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the
chart. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very goo What action
would you take?
A. Keep looking out.
B. Call Master.
C. Stop engines.
D. Alter course.
42. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
A. At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with vessels
within the lane
B. On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane
C. On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of
traffic flow
D. On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at right
angles to the direction of traffic flow
43. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International
Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at
Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line?
A. 0900, 24 January
B. 2100, 24 January
C. 2100, 25 January
D. 0900, 26 January
44. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the
water is called the __________.
A. Range of the tide
B. Plane of the tide
C. Stand of the tide
D. Reversing of the tide
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45. Spring tides are tides that __________.

A. Have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
B. Have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal
C. Are unpredictable
D. Occur in the spring of the year
46. Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________.
A. All vertical measurements
B. Heights above water of land features such as lights
C. Soundings on the East and West Coasts
D. Water depths on the East Coast only
47. The range of tide is the __________.

A. Distance the tide moves out from the shore
B. Duration of time between high and low tide
C. Difference between the heights of high and low tide
D. Maximum depth of the water at high tide
48. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts
is __________.
A. Mean sea level
B. Mean high water
C. Mean low water
D. Half-tide level
49. Charted depth is the __________.

A. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom, plus
the height of tide
B. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
C. Average height of water over a specified period of time
D. Average height of all low waters at a place
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50. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables
is __________.
A. Mean low water
B. The same as that used for the charts of the locality
C. The highest possible level
D. Given in table three of the tide tables
51. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________.
A. A shallow depth reading
B. A zero depth reading
C. No depth reading
D. Two depth readings
52. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will
occur?
A. Apogean
B. Perigean
C. Neap
D. Spring
53. Priming of the tides occurs __________.

A. At times of new and full Moon
B. When the Earth, Moon, and Sun are lying approximately on the same line
C. When the Moon is between first quarter and full and between third quarter
and new
D. When the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third
quarter
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DPKP
54. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS Traffic in shore's lines, traffic
corresponds to that region is :
A. Traffic Areas
B. Traffic lines
C. Range of Traffic
D. Leading Area
55. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area
A. Course lines
B. Trafiic lines
C. Leading lines
D. Heading lines
56. All bridge member shall attended if there is available changing to passage plan :
A. Bridge attention
B. Plan Changes
C. Passage changing
D. All the above
57. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations with extra caution
is
A. Dangerous area
B. Area to be avoid
C. Precautionary area
D. No Go Area
58. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage planning :

A. Checking, maintain and records
B. Planning, maintain and records
C. Excecution, maintain and monitoring
D. Planning, execution and monitoring
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DPKP
59. Area which may not navigate to get bearing with depth and danger of navigation is
:
A. Coution Area
B. No Go Area
C. Danger area
D. Area to be avoid
60. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by clasification indeed is :
A. Coution Area
B. No Go Area
C. Danger area
D. Area to be avoid
61. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow before ship arriving at way
point's is :
A. Way Point
B. Fix Position Cordinate
C. Wheel Over Point
D. Point to altering the course
reefs and shoals?
A. Approach charts
B. General charts
C. Sailing charts
D. Coastal charts
63. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not
show which light characteristic?
A. Isophase
B. Quick flashing
C. Long flashing
D. Group Flashing (2 + 1)
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64. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?

A. Any position
B. A known position
C. An assumed position
65. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that __________.
A. 1 inch is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
B. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
D. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's
surface
66. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are on
the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain
the proper zone time?
A. 45°00'W
B. 52°30'W
C. 60°00'W
D. 67°30'W
67. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

A. They occur only at quadrature.
B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth.
C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe
D. They have a decreased range from normal.
68. Safe water buoys may show ONLY __________.

A. Flashing red lights
B. Flashing green lights
C. White lights
D. Yellow lights
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DPKP
69. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a

__________.
A. Radar conspicuous beacon
B. Circular radio beacon
C. Radar transponder beacon
D. Radar calibration beacon
70. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________.

A. High water line
B. Low water line
C. Low water spring line
D. Tide level
71. On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward
to west longitude. What is your local time?
A. You are in -12 time zone.
B. It is 1700, March 18.
C. It is 0500, March 16.
D. It is 0500, March 18.
72. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet
available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe
the range lights as shown on your starboard beam. You should __________.
A. Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of
obstructions
B. Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights
will be an indication of dragging anchor
C. Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at
anchor
D. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
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73. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and
advanced to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Running fix
B. Dead-reckoning position
C. Fix
D. Estimated position
74. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) __________.

A. White light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres
B. Occulting green light and may be lettered
C. Yellow light and will be numbered
D. Continuous quick white light and may be numbered
75. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of
determining positions and include which of the following?
A. All of these suggested answers
B. Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing
C. Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks
D. Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS
76. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if approved by the Flag State
D. Only if approved by the owner
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77. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or
river, when under pilot?
A. A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage,
or if the ship is under pilot
B. A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for transiting a
canal under pilotage.
C. A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board
D. A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot
station at the destination.
78. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood
and followed by a competent bridge team.
B. All navigational equipment fully functional.
C. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being
used efficiently
D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and
effective operation
79. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local
knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when
under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when
deep sea
B. The passage is well established and known by
the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary
C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst
on board and will be very familiar with what is required, therefore
discussing the passage plan is not necessary
D. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in
knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning
discussions with the Master.
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80. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers
would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding
the courses to steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances
gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the
need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to
improved speeds
C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the
need to arrive within prescribed schedule
D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic
density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits
81. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water?
A. Subtract the draft of the vessel.
B. Add the draft of the vessel.
C. Subtract the sea water correction .
D. Add the sea water correction.
82. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn
from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________.
A. DR plot
B. Track line
C. Heading
D. Estimated course
83. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a __________.

A. Sailing chart
B. General chart
C. Coast chart
D. Harbor chart
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84. Tropic tides are caused by the __________.

A. Moon being at its maximum declination
B. Moon crossing the equator
C. Sun and Moon both being near 0° declination
D. Moon being at perigee
85. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

A. They occur only at quadrature.
B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth.
C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe
D. They have a decreased range from normal.
86. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal perio How
long is this cycle?
A. 16 days
B. 18 days
C. 6 years
D. 19 years
87. The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the
Atlantic Coast is __________.
A. Interval
B. Mixed
C. Diurnal
D. Semidiurnal
88. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach
an entrance or strait at what time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable
current?
A. One hour after the predicted time
B. At the predicted time
C. 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
D. 30 minutes before the predicted time
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89. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the
port side of a channel would be marked by a __________.
A. Red can buoy
B. Black can buoy
C. Red conical buoy
D. Black conical buoy
90. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to
__________.
A. 11.5 fathoms
B. 12.6 fathoms
C. 69.0 feet
D. 78.6 feet
91. Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine surveying?
A. Gnomonic
B. Lambert conformal
C. Mercator
D. Polyconic
92. As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you
encounter a buoy showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy?
A. Pass it about 50 yards off on either side.
B. Leave it to your starboar
C. Leave it to your port.
D. Pass it well clear on either side.
93. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?

A. It is an equal-area projection.
B. It is a conformal projection.
C. Meridians appear as curved lines.
D. The scale is correct along any meridian.
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94. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted __________.

A. Whenever an estimated position is plotted
B. When it agrees with your loran position
C. When coming on or going off soundings
D. At least every hour on the hour in the open waters of the sea
95. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about __________.

A. Average wind conditions
B. Tidal currents
C. Magnetic variation
D. Average limits of field ice
96. Where will you find information about the duration of slack water?
A. American Practical Navigator
B. Sailing Directions
C. Tide Tables
D. Tidal Current Tables
97. All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information concerning
the __________.
A. Percentage of frequency of wave heights
B. Percentage of poor visibility conditions
C. Sea surface temperatures
D. Amounts of precipitation
98. If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and iceberg
limits, you could find this information in the __________.
A. Pilot Chart
B. Coast Pilot
C. Notice to Mariners
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99. When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings
are measured in reference to __________.
A. The meridian through the object of the bearing
B. The meridian through the ship's position
C. The meridian midway between the ship and the object
D. Any meridian
100. The marking A is __________.

A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course
101. The marking B is ___________.

A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course
102. The marking C is ___________.

A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course
103. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.

A. Well-charted inner dangers
B. Port facilities
C. Coastal anchorages
D. Offshore traffic separation schemes
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104. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Inland Navigation Rules?

A. They list requirements for Traffic Separation Schemes.
B. They define moderate spee
C. They require communication by radiotelephone to reach a passing
agreement.
D. All of the above
105. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment,
which document must be available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with
SOLAS?
A. A report giving the result of the
Conformance Test issued by an
Approved Service Provider on behalf
of the flag
B. A report giving the result of the
Performance Test, issued by the
manufacturer in compliance with the
Flag State Authority requirements.
C. The Certificate of Compliance with SOLAS V/19-1, bearing the serial
number of the equipment installation.
D. A Statement of Installation and and Testing by the Approved Service
Provider in compliance with SOLAS V/26-4.
106. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a competent
person required under SOLAS?
A. Annually.
B. At the Intermediate Safety Equipment Survey.
C. When the battery is replace
D. When the data media is downloade
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DPKP
107. What is the main purpose of VTS?

A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of
the environment in the vicinity.
B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in
the area
C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the
are
D. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances
gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the
need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to
improved speeds
109. A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which
__________.
A. Is located between the scheme and the nearest land
B. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the
opposite direction
C. Is designated as an anchorage area
D. Contains all the traffic moving in the same direction
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DPKP
110. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________.

A. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on as small
an angle as is practical
C. Only anchor in the separation zone
D. Use the separation zone for navigating through the scheme if she is
hindering other traffic due to her slower speed
111. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall NOT __________.

A. Cross a traffic lane
B. Engage in fishing the separation zone
C. Proceed in an inappropriate traffic lane
D. Enter the separation zone

A. Only anchor in the separation zone
B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on a heading
at as small an angle as is practical
C. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
D. Use the separation zone for navigation through the scheme if she is
hindering other traffic due to her slower speed
113. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic
separation scheme which __________.
A. Is between the scheme and the nearest land
B. Contains all the traffic moving in one direction
C. Is designated as an anchorage area
D. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the
opposite direction
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DPKP
2. Penentuan posisi dan ketepatan atas hasil akhir penentuan posisi

menggunakan berbagai cara.
(Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any
means )
1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic
compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass
bearings?
A. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
B. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
C. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore
it can be ignored
D. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is
require
2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other
means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the
most accurate?
A. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the
radar.
B. Compass bearings of three shore objects
C. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
D. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three
radio beacons
3. What is important to check when transferring a position

from the GPS output to a paper chart?
A. Any necessary corrections are applied to
convert between the GPS datum and the chart
datum
B. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3
dimensional position fixes.
C. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart
D. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.
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DPKP
4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the
accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
A. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
B. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed
on the screen
C. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
D. The GPS display is always very accurate and does
not give any indication of lack of accuracy.
5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an
observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when observing
the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
A. Figure 4 is correct.
B. Figure 1 is correct.
C. Figure 2 is correct.
D. Figure 3 is correct.
6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude
of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
A. Calculation 3 is correct.
B. Calculation 1 is correct.
C. Calculation 2 is correct.
D. Calculation 4 is correct.
7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the
following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT.
Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept
correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).
A. Figure 2 is correct.
B. Figure 1 is correct.
C. Figure 3 is correct.
D. Figure 4 is correct.
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DPKP
8. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.

A. Buoys close at hand
B. Fixed known objects on shore
C. Buoys at a distance
D. All of the above
9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because

__________.
A. Signals begin to blink
B. Signals begin to shift
C. Stations discontinue transmission
D. Stations transmit grass
10. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be
considered?
A. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
B. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted
location.
C. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
D. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been
freshly painte
11. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible
horizon when __________.
A. In high latitudes
B. The Sun is near or at a solstice
C. The declination is of a different name from the latitude
D. The Sun's declination is at or near 0°
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DPKP
12. When navigating a vessel, you __________.

A. Can always rely on a buoy to be on station
B. Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
C. Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
D. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
13. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that
time is LAT 22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets
available for evening sights is TRUE?
A. Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
B. Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets.
C. Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon.
D. Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good three-line-of-position
fix.
14. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
A. During calm weather only
B. During daylight only
C. Only when inside a harbor
D. Only when fixed aids are not available
15. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check.
What would the azimuth have to be?
A. 000°T
B. 090°T
C. 150°T
D. 240°T
16. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of
__________.
A. 3,600 miles
B. 5,400 miles
C. 12,500 miles
D. 21,600 miles
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DPKP
17. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use
to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 1842
B. 1652
C. 0728
D. 0652
18. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times
and advancing them to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Dead-reckoning position
B. Estimated position
C. Fix
D. Running fix
19. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for __________.
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Saturn
D. Polaris
20. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you
use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 065
B. 0652
C. 1859
D. 1852
21. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
__________.
A. Assumed position
C. Fix
D. Running fix
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DPKP
22. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for __________.
A. The Sun
B. The Moon
C. Mars
D. Mercury
23. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards
which permit __________.
A. Every station in one chain to transmit at the same tim
B. Each station to transmit without reference to another station
C. On-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same time
D. Each station to only depend on the master for synchronization and signal
ratio
24. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day
of the month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and
date is now __________.
A. 00h 02m on the 4th
B. 00h 02m on the 5th
C. 23h 50m on the 5th
D. 00h 02m on the 6th
25. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?

A. Dead reckoning position
B. Leeway position
C. Estimated position
D. Set position
26. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What
is the right ascension of the planet?
A. 7 hours
B. 11 hours
C. 19 hours
D. 23 hours
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DPKP
27. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C
stations is very closely controlled and operates with __________.
A. An atomic time standar
B. Daylight Savings Time
C. Eastern Standard Time
D. Greenwich Mean Time
28. The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is
__________.
A. 1.25 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 75 minutes
29. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's
course and speed is a(n) __________.
A. Dead reckoning position
C. Fix
30. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken
at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.
C. Fix
D. Running fix
31. The date is the same all over the world at __________.
A. 0000 GM
B. 1200 GMT
C. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude
D. No time
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DPKP
32. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
C. Fix
D. Running fix
33. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum
skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is receive This is called the
__________.
A. Skip zone
B. Blackout zone
C. Diffraction zone
D. Shadow zone
34. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
35. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
__________.
A. Index mirror
B. Horizon glass
C. Micrometer drum
D. Telescope
36. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westwar
What is your local time?
A. It is 1000, 5 July
B. It is 1000, 6 July.
C. It is 2200, 7 July.
D. It is 1000, 7 July.
34
DPKP
37. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.

A. Silvered on its half nearer the frame
B. Mounted on the index arm
C. Between the horizon and the shade glasses
D. All of the above
38. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at
that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the
planets available for morning sights is TRUE?
A. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
B. Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line fix
C. Saturn will be near the prime vertical.
D. Venus will be visible low in the western sky.
39. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites
that your receiver is locked onto?
A. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
B. Selective Availability
C. Doppler Shifting
D. Precision Coding
40. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on
the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________.
A. 20°
B. 30°
C. 40°
D. 60°
41. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is
indicated by the __________.
A. Equation of time
B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time unit
C. Longitude in time units
D. Zone description
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DPKP
42. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

A. Radar station
B. Radar transponder beacon
C. Radio beacon
D. Aero light
43. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-
dimensional fix?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
44. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________.
A. Positive correction
B. Dip error
C. Negative correction
D. Semidiameter error
45. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If
you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the
apparent Sun cross the meridian?
A. 1148
B. 1200
C. 1212
D. It cannot be determined from the information given.
46. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix
your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The current is westerly at 0.5 knot.
B. You must increase speed to compensate for the current.
C. The current cannot be determine
D. The drift is 0.25 knot.
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DPKP
47. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.
A. Positive correction
B. Dip error
C. Negative correction
D. Semidiameter error
48. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you
are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your
meridian at __________.
A. 11-51-20 ZT
B. 12-00-00 ZT
C. 12-04-20 ZT
D. 12-08-40 ZT
49. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three-
dimensional fix that takes into account altitude?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
50. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index
error?
A. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
B. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
C. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
D. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
51. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
A. It is afternoon at Greenwich.
B. It is midnight at 126°E longitude.
C. The observer is in time zone -4.
D. All of the above are true.
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DPKP
52. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
A. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
B. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
C. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
D. Elliptical centering error
53. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may
be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is
__________.
A. Index error
B. Prismatic error
C. Perpendicularity of the horizon glass
D. Perpendicularity of the index mirror
54. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from
__________.
A. Center bearings
B. Tangent bearings
C. Ranges
D. Objects that are close aboard
55. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and
advanced to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Running fi
B. Dead-reckoning position
C. Fix
56. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30
knots from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change?
A. Cn 240°, 28.0 knots
B. Cn 270°, 28.0 knots
C. Cn 180°, 30.0 knots
D. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
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DPKP
57. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?

A. Prismatic error
B. Index error
C. Side error
D. Error of collimation
58. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the
longitude of the observer is the __________.
A. Right ascension
B. Meridian angle
C. SHA of the observe
D. Zenith distance
59. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________.
A. Index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with the index set at
zero
B. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at
zero
C. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame
D. Telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame
60. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to
indicate the __________.
A. Distance to the next port
B. Speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
C. Time of the next navigational satellite pass
61. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the
transmitting stations as __________.
A. Gains are made over the signal path
B. A result of variation in propagation conditions
C. The frequency of the pulses increases
D. The stations shift pulses
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DPKP
62. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.

A. Sextant frame
B. Horizon glass
C. Index mirror
D. Micrometer drum
63. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?

A. 127°33'E
B. 52°27'E
C. 61°52'W
D. 61°52'E
64. A polyconic projection is based on a __________.

A. Plane tangent at one point
B. Cylinder tangent at one parallel
C. Cone tangent at one parallel
D. Series of cones tangent at selected parallels
65. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the
horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated
about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has __________.
A. Error of perpendicularity
B. Side error
C. Prismatic error
D. Centering error
66. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

A. Should never use radar bearings
B. Should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the
horizon
C. Can use radar information from one object to fix the position
D. Must use information from targets forward of the beam
40
DPKP
67. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.

A. North and increasing
B. North and decreasing
C. South and increasing
D. South and decreasing
68. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other
during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the
induced ignition ?
A. A 3 cm radar.
B. A 10cm radar.
C. Neither a 10 cm or a 3 cm radar.
D. Both a 10 cm and 3 cm radar.
69. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.

A. The radar of the nearest land
B. The radio direction finder
C. Buoys close at hand
D. Fixed known objects on the shore
70. In Loran C ___________.

A. The master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each
B. The master station transmits one long pulse and the secondary stations
transmit 8 short pulses each
C. The master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 8
pulses each
D. The master station transmits 8 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 9
pulses each
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DPKP
71. In Mercator sailing ________---.

A. D'long / DMP = Tan course
B. Dep / d'long = Cos Course
C. DMP = d'long x Secant Course
D. DMP = d'lat x Secant Course
72. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______.
A. Three bearing position lines are available of different objects
B. Only one bearing line is available
C. Two bearing lines from two different objects are available
D. A bearing and distance off a navigational mark is available
73. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________.
A. 1863.07
B. 634.77
C. 1248.92
D. 614.15
74. The Decca green zone has ________.

A. 18 lanes
B. 24 lanes
C. 30 lanes
D. 72 lanes
75. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.

A. The height of a bridge above sea level
B. A position line
C. A position circle
D. The ullage of a tank
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DPKP
76. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the
arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is
the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
A. 38?30.8'
B. 38?17.6'
C. 37?45.8'
D. 38?23.6'
77. What will be the d?Long for departure of 66.5? When the ship is on m?Lat of 29
degrees N.
A. 137?
B. 76?
C. 36.8?
D. 77.0?
78. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.

A. 137?18'
B. 96?37'
C. 80?47'
D. 90?52'
79. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.

A. By port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
B. By the meteorological department of that country
C. By the mercantile marine department of that country
D. By national broadcasting corporations
80. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _____.

A. Westerly
B. Easterly
C. Northerly
D. Southerly
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81. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?S
position?
A. Doubling angle on the bow.
B. One bearing and distance of one object.
C. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
D. A three point bearing.
82. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sun the micrometer reading
'off the arc' was 32.8' and on the arc was 32.0'. What is the index error of the
sextant?
A. 0.8' off the arc
B. 0.4' off the arc
C. 0.8' on the arc
D. 0.4' on the arc
83. In latitude 42 36? N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26 30? W to longitude 21
12? W . What departure has she made?
A. 234.08 miles
B. 234.00 miles
C. 235.00 miles
D. 235.08 miles
84. To fix the ship's position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least _____.
A. 1 object
B. 2 objects
C. 3 objects
D. 4 objects
85. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is _______.
A. 360?
B. 090?
C. 180?
D. 270?
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86. Your DR latitude is 10?S. A body whose declination in 20?S when setting makes
an angle of 30? At the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth?
A. 150?
B. 330?
C. 030?
D. 270?
87. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m 48s fast on GMT
on 20th March. What will be the error on 4th April?
A. 5m 48s
B. 6m 48s
C. 2m 48s
D. 3m 48s
88. The method used to plot ship?S position when only one navigational mark is
available and radar cannot be used to find the distance off is called ____________.
A. A running fix
B. Plotting by DR Latitude and bearing line
C. Plotting by DR longitude and bearing line
D. Course line intersection technique
89. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at ___________.

A. The Equator
B. 30?N Latitude
C. 30?S Latitude
D. 80?N Latitude
90. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is
indicated by the __________.
A. Equation of time
B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time units
C. Longitude in time units
D. Zone description
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91. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial
navigation, it is used to determine __________.
A. Zone time
B. Sunrise
C. Time of local apparent noon
D. Local mean time
92. 90° - Ho = __________.

A. Sextant altitude
B. Co-latitude
C. LHA
D. Zenith distance
93. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs,
are for the __________.
A. Upper limb of a celestial body
B. Lower limb of a celestial body
C. Centers of the various celestial bodies
D. Lower limb of the Sun and Moon; center of the stars and planets
94. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
A. The objects lie in a straight line.
B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects.
C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects.
D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
95. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal
projection, __________.
A. A straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
B. The chart should not be used outside of the standard parallels
C. The course angle is measured at the mid-longitude of the track line
D. Distance cannot be measured directly from the chart
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96. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip because of
__________.
A. The angle between the horizontal and the line of sight to the visible horizon
B. Index error
C. Parallax
D. Terrestrial refraction
97. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
A. The objects lie in a straight line.
B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects.
C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects.
D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
98. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than
using a Mercator?
A. Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
B. Determining latitude and longitude of a fix
C. Measuring rhumb line distances
D. Measuring rhumb line directions
99. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always
subtract the dip because you are correcting __________.
A. Hs to the visible horizon
B. Hs to the sensible horizon
C. Hs to the celestial horizon
D. Ho to the celestial horizon
100. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for
__________.
A. The Sun
B. The Moon
C. Venus
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101. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________.

A. Mars
B. The Moon
C. Jupiter
D. All of the above
102. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) __________.

A. Plane tangent at one point
B. Cylinder tangent at the equator
C. Cone tangent at one parallel
D. Infinite series of cones tangent at selected parallels
103. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified on
the radar by __________.
A. A dashed line running from the center of the scope to the light
B. An audible signal when the sweep crosses the light
C. A circle appearing on the scope surrounding the light
D. A coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the
light
104. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by
refraction, increases as the __________.
A. Horizontal parallax decrease
B. Observer's height above sea level increases
C. Humidity of the atmosphere decreases
D. Altitude of the body decreases
105. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will
be a(n) __________.
A. Straight line
B. Arc
C. Parabola
D. Line parallel to the coast
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106. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and
transcribed by the daily motion of the body, is called the __________.
A. Hour circle of the body
B. Parallel of declination
C. Vertical circle of the body
D. Parallel of altitude
107. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same
accuracy as a military receiver if __________.
A. Selective availability is set to zero
B. The satellites are all below 15° in elevation
C. Your vessel is equipped with a Doppler receiver
D. The horizontal dilution of precision is high
108. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on

the terrestrial sphere?
A. Altitude
B. Right ascension
C. Celestial meridians
D. Declination
109. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the
heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash,
what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
B. True
C. Compass
D. Magnetic
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110. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n)
__________.
A. Relative bearing
B. Range line
C. Track line
111. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the Moon is
observed with a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is
32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the observed altitude?
A. Ho 4°18.6'
B. Ho 4°29.1'
C. Ho 4°36.3'
D. Ho 4°42.2'
112. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim The sextant
altitude (hs) is 121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 31
feet (9.3 meters). What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A. 31°06.2'
B. 58°53.1'
C. 58°12.2'
D. 58°03.2'
113. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle?
A. Celestial Equator
B. Prime Meridian
C. Celestial Meridian
D. Prime Vertical Circle
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114. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'.
The temperature is -10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye
is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the ar What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A. 4°10.2'
B. 4°14.3'
C. 4°17.0'
D. 4°24.1'
115. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N
and LAT 31°30'N, which 30 mile scale should be used?
A. 33°00'N to 33°30'N
B. 32°30'N to 33°00'N
C. 32°45'N to 33°15'N
D. 32°15'N to 32°45'N
116. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________.

A. Direction of a target
B. Distance to a target
C. Size of a target
D. Shape of a target
117. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle.
The actual position of the vessel __________.
A. Is outside of the triangle
B. May be anywhere in the triangle
C. May be inside or outside of the triangle
D. Is the geometric center of the triangle
118. The magnitude of three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest?
A. Antares + 1.2
B. Altair + 0.9
C. Vega + 0.1
D. Cannot be determined; magnitude indicates size not brightness
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119. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the
principal vertical circle to the ____________ .
A. Greenwich celestial meridian
B. Hour circle of the body
C. Local celestial meridian
D. Vertical circle of the body
120. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe
a celestial body on which bearing?
A. 180°
B. 238°
C. 328°
D. 090°
121. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a
__________.
A. Longitude line
B. Latitude line
C. Line of position
D. Fix
122. 122: When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your
horizontal accuracy to be better than __________.
A. 3 meter
B. 20 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 200 meters
123. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

A. Position
B. Electronic navigational chart source
C. Course made good history
D. All of the above
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DPKP
124. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
A. An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded
B. A warning of loss of position
C. A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
D. All of the above
125. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy
equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
A. Transi
C. Auto-correlation
D. Anti-spoofing
126. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by

__________.
A. DGPS, within a coverage area
B. SPS, without selective availability
C. PPS, without selective availability
D. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift
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3. Menghitung dan menggunakan kesalahan kompas.

(Determine and allow for compass errors )
1. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass. They

are __________.
A. Accurate only in the Polar regions
B. Accurate electronic servomechanisms
C. Hand operated
D. Accurate only if the vessel is underway
2. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
__________.
A. Magnetic latitudes
B. Magnetic declinations
C. Dip
D. Isogonic lines
3. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears

185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea
This indicates that you(r) __________.
A. Must come right to get on the range
B. Course is in error
C. Compass has some easterly error
D. Are being affected by a southerly current
4. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass

__________.
A. Remains aligned with compass north
B. Also turns to starboard
C. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
D. Turns counterclockwise to port
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DPKP
5. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart __________.

A. On the compass rose
B. On the mileage scale
C. Written on the chart title
D. At each line of longitude
6. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard

vessels?
A. Compass error is negligible at or near the
earth's magnetic poles.
B. It does not have to be checked as often.
C. It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
D. All points on the compass rose are readily
visible.
7. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the
heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash,
what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
B. True
C. Compass
D. Magnetic
8. Magnetic compass deviation __________.

A. Varies depending upon the bearing used
B. Is the angular difference between magnetic
north and compass north
C. Is published on the compass rose on most
nautical charts
D. Is the angular difference between geographic and magnetic meridians
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DPKP
9. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________.

A. Vessel's geographic position
B. Vessel's heading
C. Earth's magnetic field
D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
10. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.

A. The vessel's heading
B. Sea conditions
C. Seasons
D. The vessel's position
11. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?

A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of
opposite polarity attract.
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation.
D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the
isogonic lines of the Earth
12. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.

A. Speed
B. Vessel heading
C. Geographical location
D. Cargo
13. Variation is the angular measurement between __________.

A. Compass north and magnetic north
B. Compass north and true north
C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian
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14. A relative bearing is always measured from __________.

A. True north
B. Magnetic north
C. The vessel's beam
D. The vessel's head
15. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.
A. Deviation
B. Annual rate of variation change
C. Precession
D. Compass error
16. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
because __________.
A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment
B. The quadrantal error is 0°
C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error
17. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the
__________.
A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian
B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles
C. Variation is near zero
D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator
18. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the
Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the
__________.
A. North magnetic pole
B. South magnetic pole
C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian
D. Magnetic equator
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19. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by
__________.
A. Compass error
B. Latitude
C. Variation
D. Deviation
20. Compass error is equal to the __________.

A. Deviation minus variation
B. Variation plus compass course
C. Combined variation and deviation
D. Difference between true and magnetic heading
21. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply
__________.
A. Variation
B. Deviation
C. Variation and deviation
D. A correction for the direction of current set
22. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?
A. Poor steering
B. Leeway
C. Known compass error
D. Ocean currents
23. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even keel,
heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________.
A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line
B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings
C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the
heeling magnet
D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted
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24. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________.

A. Flinders bar should be inverted
B. Heeling magnet should be inverted
C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180°
D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle
25. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________.

A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C. Remove heeling error
D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
26. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to
compensate for __________.
A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel
B. The residual deviation
C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
27. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?
A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
B. A single vertical magnet under the compass
C. The Flinders bar
D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle
28. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed
by the __________.
A. Flinders bar
B. Transverse magnets
C. Fore-and-aft magnets
D. Soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass
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29. You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass. To expedite the
adjustment at sea, in what order should the following dockside adjustments be
made?
A. Flinders bar first, then the heeling magnet and spheres
B. Heeling magnet first, then the Flinders bar and spheres
C. Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnet
D. Spheres first, then the Flinders bar and heeling magnet
30. When adjusting a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft permanent magnets, you
should __________.
A. Use the magnets one at a time, putting one in one side and then one on the
opposite side, one step higher.
B. Use the magnets in pairs, starting at the top, with trays at the highest point
of travel
C. Use the magnets in pairs, from the bottom up, with the trays at the lowest
point of travel
D. Fill all the trays with magnets, then remove them one-by-one until the
deviation is removed
31. The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the __________.
A. Induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
B. Induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron
C. Permanent magnetism in ship's steel
D. Vessel's inclination from the vertical
32. The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in
vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of
the deviation?
A. The Flinders bar
B. The heeling magnet
C. Quadrantal soft iron spheres
D. Bar magnets in the binnacle
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DPKP
33. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used to
A. The horizontal component of the permanent magnetism
B. Deviation caused by the vessel's inclination from the vertical
C. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
D. Induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
34. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent and
induced effects of magnetism?
A. Quadrantal spheres
B. Heeling magnets
C. Athwartships magnets
D. Fore-and-aft magnets
35. Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel heels over?
A. The soft iron spheres on the arms of the binnacle
B. Magnets placed in trays inside the binnacle
C. A single vertical magnet beneath the compass
D. The Flinders bar
36. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.
A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading
B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000°
C. 2° and is constant on all headings
D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°
37. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be
broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________.
A. Divisional parts
B. Coefficients
C. Fractional parts
D. Equations
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38. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made
__________.
A. Before correcting for any deviation
B. After correcting for variation
C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass
39. The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to __________.

A. Reduce the variation as much as possible
B. Reduce the deviation as much as possible
C. Reduce the magnetic dip as much as possible
D. Allow the compass bowl to swing freely on its gimbals
40. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation due
to permanent magnetism __________.
A. Increases
B. Remains the same
C. Decrease
D. Is unimportant and may be neglected
41. If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then __________.
A. The deviation has been offset by the variation
B. There is something wrong with the compass
C. The compass is being influenced by nearby metals
D. There is no deviation on that heading
42. How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?
A. Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
B. Red lines on the main body of the chart
C. In parenthesis on the lines of equal magnetic variation
D. Annual rate of change is not shown.
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43. Deviation is the angle between the __________.

A. True meridian and the axis of the compass card
B. True meridian and the magnetic meridian
C. Magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
D. Axis of the compass card and the degaussing meridian
44. Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart
provide?
A. Variation
B. True directions
C. Magnetic directions
D. Annual rate of variation change
45. The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of the
magnetic compass is __________.
A. Deviation
B. Variation
C. Compass error
D. Dip
46. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.
A. True directions
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Magnetic directions
47. How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart?

A. Magnetic compass table
B. Magnetic meridians
C. Isogonic lines
D. Variation is not indicated on small-scale nautical charts.
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48. Deviation changes with a change in __________.

A. Latitude
B. Heading
C. Longitude
D. Sea conditions
49. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.
A. True directions
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Magnetic directions
50. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's,
which statement is TRUE?
A. Compass error and variation are equal.
B. Compass north will be true north.
C. Variation will equal deviation.
D. There will be no compass error.
51. The annual change in variation for an area can be found in __________.
A. The handbook for Magnetic Compass Adjustment, Pub 226
B. The center of the compass rose on a chart of the area
C. The compass deviation table
D. Variation does not change.
52. Variation is a compass error that you __________.

A. Can correct by adjusting the compass card
B. Can correct by adjusting the compensating magnets
C. Can correct by changing the vessel's heading
D. Cannot correct
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53. The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________.

A. Compass north
B. The direction of the vessel's head
C. Magnetic north
D. A relative bearing taken with an azimuth circle
54. The directive force of a gyrocompass __________.

A. Increases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic poles
B. Decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
C. Is greatest when a vessel is near the Earth's magnetic equator
D. Remains the same at all latitudes
55. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?

A. Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes.
B. It seeks the true meridian.
C. It can be used near the Earth's magnetic poles.
D. If an error exists, it is the same on all headings
56. The gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an
east-west direction is called __________.
A. Damping error
B. Ballistic deflection
C. Quadrantal error
D. Speed error
57. A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a

__________.
A. Spider element
B. Mercury ballistic
C. Gyrotron
D. Rotor
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DPKP
58. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________.
A. Spider element
B. Sensitive element
C. Link arm
D. Pickup transformer
59. Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the
__________.
A. Follow-up system
B. Transmitter
C. Phantom element
D. Azimuth motor
60. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be
made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings?
A. The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount of the error
must be added to the compass to obtain true
B. The readings are too low and the amount of the error must be subtracted
from the compass to obtain true
C. The readings are too high (large numerically) and the amount of the error
must be added to the compass to obtain true
D. The readings are too high and the amount of the error must be subtracted
from the compass to obtain true
61. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?

A. The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the same on all
headings.
B. The sign (E or W) of the error will change with different headings of the
ship.
C. Any error will remain constant unless the compass is stopped and restarte
D. Any error shown by a gyro repeater will be the same as the error of the
master compass.
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DPKP
62. The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway is by
__________.
A. Comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth
of the body
B. Comparing the gyro heading with the magnetic compass heading
C. Determining from the chart the course made good between celestial fixes
D. It cannot be determined accurately at sea due to drift of unknown currents.
63. To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply __________.
A. Magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
B. Deviation
C. Variation
D. Deviation and variation
64. Magnetic information on a chart may be __________.

A. Found in the center(s) of the compass rose(s)
B. Indicated by isogonic lines
C. Found in a note on the chart
D. All of the above
65. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears
185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea
This indicates that you(r) ______.
A. Must come right to get on the range
B. Course is in error
C. Compass has some easterly error
D. Are being affected by a southerly current
66. Horizon earth rate causes a free spinning gyro to appear to __________ to an
observer on the earth
A. Change in azimuth
B. Tip or tilt
C. Slow down
D. Spin very rapidly
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DPKP
67. If your gyro compass reads 20 degrees lower than your magnetic compass
A. You should be concerned as they should match fairly closely
B. The gyro is experiencing a large amount of deviation
C. The gyroscopic variation has become irregular
D. The magnetic compass could be experiencing large amount of variation
68. Gyroscopic inertia is that force which causes a gyroscope to

A. Seek true north
B. Remain pointing at a fixed point in space
C. Precessindefinately around the poles
D. Spin very rapidly
69. Vertical earth rate is

A. Maximum at the poles
B. Minimum at the poles
C. Non an effect on the gyrocompass
D. Impossible to compensate for
70. A torque applied carefully to one of the rings housing a gyro will cause the gyro to
A. Swing wildly about
B. Precess in a direction 180 degrees opposite to the torque
C. Precess in a direction 90 degrees from the torque
D. Stop
71. The earth’s magnetic field is

A. Constant over long periods of time
B. Decreasing overall and has lost 50% over the last 4000 years
C. Is increasing slowly due to magnetic sun storms
D. The only force effecting a magnetic compass
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72. While your vessel is proceeding down a channel you notice a range of ligths in line
with your mast. If your vessel on a course of 001° per gyro compass and the charted
value of the range of lights is 359° T, what is the gyro error ?
A. 2° W
B. 2° E
C. 1° E
D. 1° W
73. Your vessel is proceeding up a channel, and you see a pair of range lights that are in
line ahea The chart indicates that the direction of this pair of lights is 311° T, and
the variation is 8° E. If the heading of your vessel at the time of sighting is 305°
PSC, what is the correct deviation ?
A. 2° E
B. 2° W
C. 6° E
D. 6° W
74. You are swinging ship to determine the residual deviation by comparing the
magnetic compass against the gyrocompass. The gyro error is 2° W. The variation
is 8° W. After completing the swinging you have the following readings :
HEADING HEADING HEADING
PSC - PGC PSC - PGC PSC - PGC
358.5° - 354° 122.5° -114° 239.5° -234°
030.5° - 024° 152.0° -144° 269.0° -264°
What
061.5° is-the deviation on a181.0°
054° true heading
-174° of 157° ? 298.0° -294°
A. 2.0°
092.0° W
- 084° 210.0° -204° 327.5° -324°
B. 1.5° W
C. 1.0° E
D. 0°
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75. You are heading 328° PGC to make good a course of 332° T, correcting for 3° of
leeway due to southwesterly winds and 1° E gyro error. If the variation is 17° E,
what should the heading be to make good 332°T. If you were steering by magnetic
compass ?
DEVIATION TABLE
A. 315° MAGNETIC HEADING DEVIATION
B. 318° 345 1° E
C. 343° 330 1° W
D. 345° 315 3° W
300 5° W
76. Your vessel is steering course 216°psc, variation for the area is 9° W, and the
deviation is 2° E. The wind is from the east, proceeding a 5° leeway. What true
course are you making good ?
A. 315°
B. 318°
C. 343°
D. 345°
A. 249°
B. 256°
C. 262°
D. 268°
78. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________.

A. Vessel's geographic position
B. Vessel's heading
C. Earth's magnetic field
D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
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79. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass
__________.
A. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
B. Also turns to starboard
C. Remains aligned with compass north
D. Turns counterclockwise to port
80. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.

A. The vessel's heading
B. Sea conditions
C. Seasons
D. The vessel's position
81. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?

A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of
opposite polarity attract.
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation.
D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the
isogonic lines of the Earth.
82. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.

A. Speed
B. Vessel heading
C. Geographical location
D. Cargo
83. Magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an
external field is called __________.
A. Permanent magnetism
B. Induced magnetism
C. Residual magnetism
D. Terrestrial magnetism
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84. Variation is the angular measurement between __________.

A. Compass north and magnetic north
B. Compass north and true north
C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian
85. A relative bearing is always measured from __________.

A. True north
B. Magnetic north
C. The vessel's beam
D. The vessel's head
86. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.
A. Deviation
B. Annual rate of variation change
C. Precession
D. Compass error
87. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
because __________.
A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment
B. The quadrantal error is 0°
C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error
88. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the
__________.
A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian
B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles
C. Variation is near zero
D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator
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89. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the
Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the
__________.
A. North magnetic pole
B. South magnetic pole
C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian
D. Magnetic equator
90. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by
__________.
A. Compass error
B. Latitude
C. Variation
D. Deviation
91. Your ship is proceeding on course 320°T at a speed of 25 knots. The apparent wind
is from 30° off the starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction,
true direction and speed of the true wind?
A. Relative 80°true 040°T, 16.2 knots
B. Relative 40°true 080°T, 16.4 knots
C. Relative 80° true 060°T, 15.2 knots
D. Relative 60°true 040°T, 18.6 knots
92. The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true heading by __________.
A. Compass error
B. Variation
C. Magnetic dip
D. Deviation
93. Compass error is equal to the __________.

A. Deviation minus variation
B. Variation plus compass course
C. Combined variation and deviation
D. Difference between true and magnetic heading
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94. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply
__________.
A. Variation
B. Deviation
C. Variation and deviation
D. A correction for the direction of current set
95. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?
A. Poor steering
B. Leeway
C. Known compass error
D. Ocean currents
96. How many degrees are there on a compass card?

A. 360°
B. 380°
C. 390°
D. 420°
97. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even keel,
heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________.
A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line
B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings
C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the
heeling magnet
D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted
98. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________.

A. Flinders bar should be inverted
B. Heeling magnet should be inverted
C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180°
D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle
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99. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________.

A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C. Remove heeling error
D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
100. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to
A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel
B. The residual deviation
C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
101. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?
A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
B. A single vertical magnet under the compass
C. The Flinders bar
D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle
102. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made
__________.
A. Before correcting for any deviation
B. After correcting for variation
C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass
103. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be
broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________.
A. Divisional parts
B. Coefficients
C. Fractional parts
D. Equations
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104. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.
A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading
B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000°
C. 2° and is constant on all headings
D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°
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4. Koordinasi di dalam kegiatan pencarian dan pertolongan (Coordinate search and

rescue operations )
1. According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person
in water of 4-10 degrees Celsius, without special protective clothing?
A. Less than 3 hours.
B. Less than 1 hour.
C. Less than 6 hours.
D. Less than 12 hours.
2. If a master initially responds to a distress but then, in special circumstances, decides

not to proceed, what must he then do?
A. Inform the appropriate search and
rescue authorities of his decision
and enter the reason in the ship's
logbook.
B. If possible, inform the casualty of
his decision and communicate his
reasons.
C. Inform his owners of his decision
and resume his passage at the earliest opportunity.
D. Contact the SAR Mission Co-ordinator and secure his written agreement to
the release of his vessel from the operation.
3. In what format will an On-Scene Co-ordinator report such information as on-scene

weather and operation progress to other parties?
A. SITREP.
B. POSREP.
C. SARREP.
D. OSCREP.
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4. It has been shown that the controlled release of oil is effective in reducing the
effects of the sea, making it possible for a rescue craft to approach survivors in the
water. How many square metres does the IAMSAR Manual suggest may be
calmed by releasing 200 litres of lubricating oil slowly through a rubber hose with
the outlet maintained just above the surface while the ship proceeds at slow speed?
A. Approx 5,000 square metres.
B. Approx 500 square metres.
C. Approx 50 square metres.
D. Approx 50,000 square metres.
5. The recommended distance between parallel tracks (track spacing) in a search for a
casualty by a surface vessel varies (amongst other factors) according to visibility
and the nature of the target in the IAMSAR Manual. These distances are then
normally adjusted for prevailing weather conditions. If visibility was 5 nautical
miles and you were looking for a six-person liferaft, what would the recommended
uncorrected track spacing be?
A. 3.6 nautical miles.
B. 2.5 nautical miles.
C. 5.0 nautical miles.
D. 0.7 nautical miles.
6. Under most circumstances, how will communication be carried out between a ship
and a SAR helicopter?
A. On VHF Ch 16.
B. On VHF Ch 70.
C. On 121.5 mhz.
D. On 410 khz.
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7. What are the three volumes of the IAMSAR Manual?

A. I Organization and Management II
Mission Co-ordination III Mobile
Facilities.
B. I Organization II Communications III
Rescue Procedures
C. A Command and Control B
Communications C Rescue
Procedures
D. I Planning and Preparation II Rescue Control III Reference
8. What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International
Maritime Organization and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which
currently outlines the organization and management of search and rescue activities
at sea?
A. The International Aeronautical and Maritime
Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual.
B. The Search and Rescue (IMOSAR) Manual.
C. The Merchant Ship Search and Rescue
(MERSAR) Manual.
D. The Internation Maritime Search and Rescue
(IMARSAR) Manual.
9. What is the world-wide system operated by the US Coast Guard exclusively in

support of search and rescue operations?
A. The Automated Mutual-Assistance Vessel
Rescue (AMVER) System.
B. The International Search and Rescue
Coordination System.
C. The Worldwide Maritime Mutual
Assistance Programme (WMMAP).
D. The U.S. Command and Control Rescue (USCOMR) Service.
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10. What type of search pattern is recommended in the IAMSAR Manual as most
effective when the location of the search object is known within relatively close
limits?
A. Expanding Square Search.
B. Sector Search.
C. Track Line Search.
D. Parallel Sweep Search.
11. Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of
will be designated as the On-Scene Commander (OSC). Which of the following
descibes how this appointment will be made?
A. The OSC will always be
designated by the nearest Rescue
Coordination Centre. No other
vessel may assume the role at any
time.
B. The first rescue unit to arrive at the
scene will normally assume the
role of OSC, until the unit
appointed as OSC by the SAR
Mission Co-ordinator at the applicable RCC is in a position to take control.
C. The OSC will initially be a controlling aircraft. Once a suitable vessel is on
scene, the responsibility will be passed to them.
D. The role of OSC can only be taken by a naval ship with suitable command
and control capability. In many regions, such vessels are permanently
assigned on stand-by to assume such a role.
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12. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?

A. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of
the ship.
B. The General of Sea Transportation is responsible for the ship being at all
times adequately manned in accordance with National acts and regulations.
C. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and
composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility
for the ship being adequately manne
D. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately
qualified seafarers.
13. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be
in each zone?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four
14. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?

A. A ship which carries more than 12 passengers
B. A ship which is arranged and fitted for carriage of persons which are not
members of the ship's crew
C. A ship which carries passengers only
D. A purpose-built passenger ship carrying persons only on defined lines or
routes
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15. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts
threatening the safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency
assistance to other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
D. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
16. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger

cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
B. Escape routes and alarm signals
C. Name of cabin attendant
D. Where to find thermal protective aids
17. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall
be kept on board __________.
A. For 1 year
B. For 2 years
C. Until the next Coast Guard inspection
D. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
18. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest
compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations
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19. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

A. On their side if unconscious
B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D. Arms above their head
20. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You
should FIRST __________.
A. Boat the sea anchor
B. Paddle away from the fire
C. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D. Get out of the raft and swim to safety
21. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the
water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
A. Has fired a torpedo during a drill
B. Is about to rise to periscope depth
C. Is on the bottom in distress
D. Is disabled and unable to surface
22. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at
the rate of how many breaths per minute?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
23. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried

voluntarily, must hold at least a __________.
A. Mate's license
B. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C. Second-class radio operator's license
D. Seaman's document
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24. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at
the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
A. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
B. Fire on board
C. Rescuing an individual from the water
D. Emergency towing
25. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has
bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action
should you take?
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open
the container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
26. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill
the minimum requirements for fire protection?
A. One B-I extinguisher
B. One B-II extinguisher
C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D. One B-V extinguisher
27. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
A. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B. Keeping the head elevated
C. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D. Holding the jaw down firmly
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28. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
A. Shape
B. Shallow draft
C. Large sail area
D. All of the above
29. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the
Rules of the Road?
A. D
B. E
C. S
D. All of the above
30. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum
should be depressed about __________.
A. 1/2 inch or less
B. 1/2 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches
31. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

A. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. Pushing up from under one end
D. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside
of the raft
32. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being
launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions
of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
A. 6°
B. 12°
C. 20°
D. 25°
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33. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
__________.
A. Without losing the rhythm of respiration
B. Only with the help of two other people
C. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D. At ten-minute intervals
34. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing
apparatus be carried?
A. Emergency gear locker
B. Bridge or pilothouse area
C. Where they can be readily found
D. The same location as the equipment it reactivates
35. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You hear
a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of
this?
A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.
B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate
C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
36. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

A. Having the proper equipment for the process
B. Starting the treatment quickly
C. Administering of oxygen
D. Treating for traumatic shock
37. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must
pull the safety pin and __________.
A. Pull the hook release handle
B. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
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38. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

A. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the
righting straps, and leaning backwards
B. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps,
and leaning backwards
C. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
39. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when
should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
A. Immediately upon launching
B. One to three feet before first wave contact
C. Upon first wave contact
D. Only when waterborne
40. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
A. Go in a different direction in search of land
B. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you
C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as
few rafts as possible
D. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
41. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is
important that the crew members should __________.
A. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
B. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
C. Immediately head for the nearest land
D. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the
vessel's last known position
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42. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If
possible, you should __________.
A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. Abandon ship to windward
C. Call for assistance
D. Keep going at half speed
43. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely
inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should
__________.
A. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
B. Plug the safety valve
C. Unscrew the deflation plugs
D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
44. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should
__________.
A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough
C. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
D. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
45. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
A. BR
B. BS
C. BT1
D. BZ
46. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a
life jacket.
C. They should be tight fitting.
D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
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47. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
A. Remain in the immediate vicinity
B. Head for the nearest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
48. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a

fishing vessel?
A. Recovering an individual from the water
B. Steering casualty
C. Emergency towing
D. Loss of propulsion power
49. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call
on channel __________.
A. 13
B. 16
C. 19
D. 23
50. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your

radiotelephone log must contain __________.
A. A record of all routine calls
B. A record of your transmissions only
C. The home address of the vessel's Master or owner
D. A summary of all distress calls and messages
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51. Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is

INCORRECT?
A. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 khz by two dashes of
10 to 15 seconds duration.
B. Channel 16 (156.8 mhz) may be used for distress messages.
C. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the
distress call on any frequency available.
D. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 khz.
52. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to
which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?
A. On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
B. In a separate radio compartment
C. Adjacent to the main power source
D. As high as possible on the vessel
53. Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from
the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 mhz EPIRB that
__________.
A. Is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger
B. Will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate
C. Is protected against all physical hazards
D. All of the above
54. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the
__________.
A. VHF-FM service
B. Coastal harbor service
C. High seas service
D. Emergency broadcast service
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55. The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"

is for the exclusive use of __________.
A. The Master or person in charge of the vessel
B. A person designated by the Master
C. A person on board to pilot the vessel
D. All of the above
56. Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel

Rescue) is TRUE?
A. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER
system.
B. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to
a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
C. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour
advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from
offshore.
D. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding
to calls for assistance.
57. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?

A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to.
B. They can go forward and backward more easily.
C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship.
D. There is no particular reason for this.
58. An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

A. Placed in a position with the head lower than the body
B. Given an inhalation stimulant
C. Given something to drink
D. Treated for injuries until conscious
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59. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a
continuous listening watch on channel __________.
A. 6 (156.3 mhz)
B. 12 (156.6 mhz)
C. 14 (156.7 mhz)
D. 16 (156.8 mhz)
60. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This
indicates that __________.
A. A message about the safety of navigation will follow
B. Message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow
C. The sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
D. You should secure your radiotelephone
61. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.

A. 156.8 mhz (channel 16)
B. 156.7 mhz (channel 14)
C. 156.65 mhz (channel 13)
D. 156.6 mhz (channel 12)
62. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require
immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your
situation with __________.
A. Mayday-Mayday-Mayday
B. Pan-Pan (3 times)
C. Securite-Securite-Securite
D. SOS-SOS-SOS
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63. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that

__________.
A. A ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate
assistance
B. A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
C. The message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation
D. The message following is a meteorological warning
64. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

A. Shorter than the rowing oars
B. The same length as the rowing oars
C. Longer than the rowing oars
D. Unrelated to the length of the rowing oars
65. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a
liferaft?
A. Immediately use all the signals at once.
B. Use all the signals during the first night.
C. Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone.
D. Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the are
66. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of
__________.
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 36 hours
67. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a
ship on the horizon?
A. A red parachute flare
B. A red hand-held flare
C. A flashlight
D. A lantern
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68. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?

A. Securite
B. Mayday
C. Breaker
D. Pan
69. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.

A. On or near the navigating bridge
B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead
C. Above the freeboard deck away from heat
D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat
70. A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

A. Has no more than two compartments
B. Has two compartments in addition to the engine room
C. Will sink if any two compartments are flooded
D. Will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded
71. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoiste
What should you do?
A. Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a pilot.
B. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disable
C. Stop your vessel instantly.
D. Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering
with difficulty.
72. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?

A. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are require
B. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the
only distress signals require
C. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provide
D. A Very pistol with twelve flares is require
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73. An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
A. So as to float free
B. With the vessel's emergency equipment
C. Near the wheelhouse
D. As far forward as possible
74. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that
has a doctor and hospital on boar You want to rendezvous in a certain position so
the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message
contain?
A. MAF
B. MAB
C. MAA
D. MAE
75. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

A. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
B. More than 6 short blasts
C. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
D. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds
76. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent
medical advice. Your message should contain which code?
A. MAB
B. MAD
C. MAA
D. MAF
77. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline
powered machinery must be __________.
A. Explosion-proof
B. Intrinsically safe
C. Ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere
D. All of the above
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78. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds.
Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard
79. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.

A. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same
signal on the general alarm
B. Continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at
least 10 seconds
C. 1 short blast on the whistle
D. Alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle
80. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____."
A. Place patient in hot bath
B. The wound should be stitched
C. You should pass a stomach tube
D. The wound should not be stitched
81. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short
rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard
82. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you
receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".
A. Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours
B. Commence artificial respiration immediately
C. Give enema
D. Pass catheter into bladder
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83. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
A. MPO
B. MPR
C. MPK
D. MPJ
84. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.

A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
B. Find some wood for a fire
C. Get the provisions out of the raft
D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
85. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by
applying the __________.
A. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's
sides and transom for each passenger
B. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of
deck space available for passenger use
C. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger
to rest his/her buttocks upon
D. Any or a combination of the above criteria
86. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
__________.
A. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
D. Starvation
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87. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and
__________.
A. Application of CPR
B. Removal of any foreign objects
C. Administration of oxygen
D. For traumatic shock
88. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

A. Relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication
B. Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
C. Preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain
D. Providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration
89. All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.
A. Boarding and operating procedures
B. Maintenance schedule
C. Navigational systems
D. Fuel consumption rates
90. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content
by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored
quantities of water?
A. Up to 3 days
B. 8 to 14 days
C. 15 to 20 days
D. 25 to 30 days
91. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival
craft, you should __________.
A. Go in one direction until the fuel runs out
B. Plot course for the nearest land
C. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
D. Shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor
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92. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should
be to __________.
A. Remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
B. Head for the closest land
D. Get a majority opinion
93. When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should
__________.
A. Plot a course for the nearest land
B. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
C. Stay in the immediate area
D. Go in one direction until fuel runs out
94. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________.
95. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no
rescue craft is in sight, they should __________.
A. Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in
the water
B. Float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the
air
C. Remove their life jackets and hold on to uninjured survivors
D. Sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes
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96. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no
rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.
A. Tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current
B. Group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water
in the center of the circle
C. Send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
D. From a raft by lashing their life jackets together
97. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established,
the drinking routine should include __________.
A. Small sips at regular intervals during the day
B. A complete daily ration at one time during the day
C. One-third the daily ration three times during the day
D. Small sips only after sunset
98. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's
largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.
A. 1 knot
B. 2 knot
C. 5 knot
D. 10 knot
99. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to
look for __________.
A. Survivors in the water
B. Food and water
C. Land
D. Bad weather
100. What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
A. Open equipment pack.
B. Post a lookout.
C. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
D. Pick up other survivors.
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101. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from
your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.
A. Take measures to maintain morale
B. Prepare and use radio equipment
C. Identify the person in charge of liferaft
D. Search for survivors
102. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
A. Determine when the seaman was
last sighted and concentrate the
search round the course line
between the last sighting and
present position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
B. The focus of the search should be
from the present position as he
probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.
C. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from
track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this
return track back to the last sighted position
D. The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and
all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the
present position.
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103. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been
in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would
you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
B. Leave the position as fast as possible
C. Do nothing and wait for assistance
D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders
104. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133°T,
and bears 042°T, 105 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10
knots?
A. 12h 30m
B. 12h 44m
C. 12h 58m
D. 13h 22m
A. 284°
B. 303°
C. 329°
D. 342°
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5. Menetapkan pengaturan dan prosedur tugas jaga

(Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures )
1. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water,
having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer
may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged
behind the vessel continues to move
forward and cause a strong turning
moment on the stern of the vessel
B. The hydrodynamic interaction
effects from the banks of the
shallow water channel acts on the
stern causing the vessel to sheer
strongly
C. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning
moment and results in the ship swinging towards the bank.
D. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the
vessel stops any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.
2. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little
wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the
tugs and at which position?
A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast
in case the vessel's movement towards
the berth requires reducing by the tug
pulling off.
B. Made fast Forward and Aft using the
centre leads.
C. Pushing on ship's side, but not made
fast to allow the tug to move to another position if needed
D. One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.
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3. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship
in maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
B. Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahea
C. Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require
D. Pushing alongside
4. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow

water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water.
If the speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of
"Squat"
A. The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter
of its original value
B. The squat effect will also be halve
C. There will be a significant change in the
reduction of underkeel clearance, but the
amount varies from ship to ship
D. There will be very little change to the effects of Squat.
5. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead
throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a
complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any
difference in the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
A. No, the diameter of the turning
circle would be almost the same.
B. Yes, it would be a much smaller
turning circle at half ahead
C. Yes, it will be much larger turning
circle at half ahea
D. Yes, there would be a change of
shape of the turning circle; it would
have an increase in the transfer, but not the advance.
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6. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by
the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5
knots it will be expected that there will be a
reduced pull exerted by the tug
B. No, when the speed of the ship is
increasing, the bollard pull exerted by the
tug will also be increasing
C. Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the same at any
speed of the ship
D. Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard pull would be
expected to be at its greatest.
7. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at
the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current
exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the
approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
B. Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes
C. 25 tonnes
D. 75 tonnes
8. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons
creating the effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity and
a decrease of water pressure around the ship's
hull
B. There is a decrease in the water velocity and
an increased of water pressure around the
ship's hull
C. There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea-bed
D. There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the
ships motion.
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9. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely
round the bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully
monitored, some port rudder may be
required to start the swing, though
starboard rudder may be required to
balance any bank rejection.
B. The wheel should be put hard over to
port to keep the ship in the middle of the
channel and the heading carefully
monitore
C. A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and
the engines should be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre.
The heading should be continually monitored
D. The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to
interaction and rejection by the river bank
10. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power
requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing
the heading? Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional
propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward
tug than on the after tug while
monitoring the gyro heading
B. Much greater power on the aft tug
than on the forward tug while
monitoring the gyro heading.
C. Equal power required by both tugs,
but monitor the gyro heading to
ensure sideward movement only
D. It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this
circumstance and it could only be found by observation.
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11. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to
maintain the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while
monitoring the ship's gyro heading
B. Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while
C. Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
D. Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but
continuously monitor the ship's gyro heading
12. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double
banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods.
Select which answer is considered the most successful metho
A. When both vessels are underway,
fig. 1
B. When the larger vessel is at anchor,
fig. 2
C. When the smaller vessel is at
anchor, fig. 3
D. When the larger vessel is stopped
and drifting in the water, fig. 4
13. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which
of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still
close to the vessel?
A. Williamson Turn
B. Scharnow Turn
C. Direct Turn
D. Evinrude Turn
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14. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be
decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the
most dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be
found?
A. The most dangerous position is where the tug
approaches the bow rounding the forward
shoulder of the larger vessel.
B. The most dangerous position is when the tug
is alongside the amidships section of the
larger vessel.
C. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the
larger vessel and enters into its associated positive pressure fiel
D. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing
spring and is then moving ahead of the larger vessel.
15. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If
the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the
engines are stopped, how much lift force remains?
A. About 20 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. About 5 %
16. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much
"lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. There will be lift force remaining
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17. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce
to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately
summarizes the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
B. A further reduction of underkeel
clearance and possible changes of
the ship's trim
C. A reduced ability to stop the vessel
and maintain steerage
D. Touching the bottom if there is any
swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of the vessel
18. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly
increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving
it off the jetty?
A. The force will be Quadrupled
B. The force will be Tripled
C. The force will be Doubled
D. The force will be Quintupled
19. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion
to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be
considered to be located?
A. At a position outside the hull of the
ship itself
B. At a position aft of amidships
C. At a position on the centreline,
about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of
the bow.
D. At a position in the vicinity of the
ship's centre of gravity
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20. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?

A. A rudder with part of the rudder
area forward of the turning axis,
therefore reducing the load on the
steering motor.
B. A rudder with equal rudder area
forward and aft of the turning axis,
the turning axis being at the
geometrical centre of the rudder
area
C. A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts
of thrust to the rudder
D. A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the
rudder efficiency
21. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
A. The position of the tug relative to the ship's
pivot point
B. The experience of the tug crew.
C. The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's
towing spring
D. The length of the towing spring
22. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally
unstable"?
A. The ship requires continual application of the
rudder to maintain a steady course.
B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will
continue on a straight course
C. The ship will only require small amounts of helm to maintain its course
when steaming in a heavy seaway
D. The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some
specific courses
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23. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force.
When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the
rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?
A. About 80 %
B. About 10 %.
C. About 30 %
D. About 50 %
24. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as
"Squat". Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of
squat on the vessel?
A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's
underkeel clearance and a possible change of
trim.
B. There will be an increase in the vessels
draught while moving through the water
C. There will be a change of draught and a
reduction in the spee
D. If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there
will be no effect due to Squat.
25. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow?
A. Wire from a deep sea tug
connected to the ship's anchor
chain.
B. Wire from a deep sea tug through
the forward centre lead of the ship
and made fast onto several
mooring bits on the forecastle
C. Wire from a deep sea tug made
fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's leeward side
D. Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and
made fast on the nearest mooring bits forwar
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26. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to
maintain during this operation?
A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
B. It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting
C. A tug may be connected at any convenient speed
D. The speed should be more than 7 knots
27. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the
stern and the rudder post
B. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
C. Amidships
D. Between amidships and 1/4 of the
vessel's length from the bow
28. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
B. 1/4 of vessel's length from the stern
C. Amidships
D. Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead
29. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through
narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing
steering power?
A. The tug made fast on a line through the
centre lead astern. (figure 4).
B. Tug running free alongside, ready to be
made fast (figure 2)
C. Tug made fast forward on either
shoulder, ready to push (figure 3)
D. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)
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30. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre
of the ship
B. Because the turning moment is created by
the rudder, which is positioned at the stern
of the vessel
C. The ship moves laterally because it always
tries to continue in a straight line.
D. The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels
hull.
31. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be
suitable for berthing the vessel?
A. The approach speed is too fast.
B. The approach speed is essential to
maintain steerage when coming alongside
C. The speed requirements are decided by
the pilot and should not be the concern of
the OOW.
D. The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.
32. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller
and no thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it
comes alongside?
A. Let go starboard anchor to about 1
shackle on deck
B. Reduce speed by going astern on
the engines.
C. Let go port anchor to about 1
shackles on deck
D. Full starboard rudder and stop
engines
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33. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved
is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel?
A. After checking the extent of the
damage and welfare of your crew, if
possible your vessel should standby
and offer assistance, until being
relieved of that obligation by the
other vessel.
B. There is no statutory requirement to
provide assistance as the actions of
that vessel were the primary cause of the collision
C. Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other vessel and aid the fire
fighting operation.
D. You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if
your damage is not serious, continue on your voyage.
34. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is
in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is
the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
A. Put the ship aground on a soft
sandy bottom as soon as possible
B. Attempt to stop the ingress of water
by listing the ship over and
bringing the damaged area of the
hull out of the water.
C. Call for tug boat assistance as soon
as possible
D. Inform the local coast radio station of the situation and ask for advice
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present position.
36. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a
reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal
are What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship?
A. Display NUC lights and investigate
the tidal flow over the next 24 hours
and the probable drift of the vessel.
B. Display NUC lights and inform the
nearest Coast Guard of you
predicament.
C. Display NUC lights and determine
if anchoring is possible
D. Display NUC lights and send out a
navigational warning to all other vessels of your position and situation
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37. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should
there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is
equipped with an operational ECDIS
A. Increase the officers on the
bridge to allow greater use of
visual navigation
B. Change the passage plan to
avoid areas of high density
shipping, if possible
C. Post extra lookouts
D. No changes are necessary
38. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a
collision. What will your actions be following the collision?
A. Make sure your vessel + crew
are safe and then offer your
assistance to the other vessel
B. Continue the voyage to your
destination
C. Call the Company Office
D. Start an argument with the other
vessel about fault
you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
B. Leave the position as fast as possible
D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders
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40. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What
immediate action should you take?
A. Nothing, just standby and wait to
see if any assistance is require
B. Contact one or both vessels
involved in the incident and offer
assistance.
C. Send out a distress message on
their behalf.
D. Inform the local coast radio
station of the incident and submit your name as a witness.
41. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the
required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on
board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other
immediate steps should be taken?
A. Complete soundings of all compartments to
determine the number of compartments floode
Check the vessels stability limitations within its
statutory loadline requirements to determine if still
adequate.
B. Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in
stability due to the lost buoyancy, to determine if
the final residual positive stability is sufficient to
remain afloat.
C. Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final of
equilibrium. Ensure this is sufficient to remain afloat
D. Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at their
lifeboat stations.
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42. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
A. Organise someone to assess the extent of
damage and the residual stability of the vessel.
B. Communicate with the other ship.
C. Determine is there is any evidence of pollution.
D. Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on
board
43. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as
Master tell the Master on the other vessel?
A. Name; Port of registry; Port of
destination of your vessel.
B. Explain your actions prior to the
collision and request details of
actions taken by the other vessel
which resulted in the collision.
C. Ask if there is any assistance
required by the other vessel.
D. There should be no communication with the other vessel.
44. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a
navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the
scheme. What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any?
A. Use the Arpa for early identification of all other ship movements within the
traffic lane and give rogue vessel a wide berth
B. Take no actions but proceed with extra caution.
C. Move out of the traffic lane towards the coast.
D. Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts
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45. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the
lower light you should __________.
A. Come left
B. Come right
C. Continue on the present course
D. Wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
46. When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate __________.
A. The channel boundaries
B. That vessels must stop
C. The bridge is about to open
D. That traffic is approaching from the other side
47. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to
ensure that a correct trace is recorded?
A. Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
B. Set the zone pen on the correct quadrant
C. Line the course pen up on the exact heading of the ship
D. Adjust the chart paper to indicate the correct time
48. You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know that the bridge is open
for river traffic when __________.
A. The fixed, green light starts to flash
B. The amber light changes to green
C. The red light is extinguished
D. The red light changes to green
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49. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye
of a hurricane bears 120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving
towards 285°T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane,
what could be the maximum CPA?
A. 77 miles
B. 82 miles
C. 87 miles
D. 93 miles
50. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be
considered?
A. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
B. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted
location.
C. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
D. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been
freshly painte
51. You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The main navigational
channel span will be indicated by __________.
A. A quick flashing red or green aid to navigation
B. A steady blue light in the center of the span
C. 3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span
D. A flashing green light in the center of the span
52. When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated by
the __________.
A. Light characteristic
B. Color of the uppermost band
C. Shape of an unlighted buoy
D. Color of the light
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53. When navigating a vessel, you __________.

A. Can always rely on a buoy to be on station
B. Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
C. Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
D. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
54. A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n) __________.

A. Anchorage area
B. Fish net area
C. Bifurcation
D. Dredging area
55. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
A. During calm weather only
B. During daylight only
C. Only when inside a harbor
D. Only when fixed aids are not available
56. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________.
A. A shallow depth reading
B. A zero depth reading
C. No depth reading
D. Two depth readings
57. When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to __________.
A. Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day,
and one nearer the surface at night
B. Receive a first return near the surface during the day, and a strong return at
about 200 fathoms (366 meters) at night
C. Receive false echoes at a constant depth day and night
D. Have to recalibrate every couple of days due to inaccurate readings
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58. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye
of a hurricane bears 080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving
towards 265°T at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane,
what could be the maximum CPA?
A. 76 miles
B. 69 miles
C. 63 miles
D. 56 miles
reefs and shoals?
A. Approach charts
B. General charts
C. Sailing charts
D. Coastal charts
60. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not
show which light characteristic?
A. Isophase
B. Quick flashing
C. Long flashing
D. Group Flashing (2 + 1)
61. Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an
individual cardinal buoyage system. The buoys of one cardinal system may be
identified from the other system by __________.
A. The differing light colors
B. One system having odd numbers while the other system has even numbers
C. One system using horizontal bands while the other system uses vertical
stripes
D. The difference in the periods of the light
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62. Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight.
Which statement is TRUE?
A. A safe-water buoy will display red and white vertical stripes of reflective
material.
B. All reflective material is white because it is the most visible at night.
C. A special-purpose mark will display either red or green reflective material to
agree with its shape.
D. A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green reflective material to
agree with the top band of color.
63. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet
available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe
the range lights, as shown, on your starboard beam. You should __________.
A. Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at
anchor
B. Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of
obstructions
C. Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights
will be an indication of dragging anchor
D. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
64. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach
an entrance or strait at which time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable
current?
A. One hour after
B. At the predicted time
C. 30 minutes before
D. 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
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65. In a narrow channel, you are underway on vessel "A" and desire to overtake vessel
"B". After you sound two short blasts on your whistle, vessel "B" sounds five short
and rapid blasts on the whistle. You should __________.
A. Pass with caution on the port side of vessel "B"
B. Hold your relative position, and then sound another signal after the situation
has stabilized
C. Answer the five short blast signal then stop your vessel until the other vessel
initiates a signal
D. Slow or stop and expect radical maneuvers from "B"
66. A vessel proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers sights
another vessel moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way?
A. The vessel moving upstream against the current
B. The vessel moving downstream with a following current
C. The vessel located more towards the channel centerline
D. The vessel sounding the first whistle signal
67. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her
on your starboard side. You may __________.
A. Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
B. Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals
C. Sound five short blasts
D. All of the above
68. A vessel displaying a flashing blue light is __________.

A. Transferring dangerous cargo
B. A law enforcement vessel
C. A work boat
D. Engaged in a race
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69. Which statement is TRUE concerning narrow channels?

A. You should keep to that side of the channel which is on your port side.
B. You should avoid anchoring in a narrow channel.
C. A vessel having a following current will propose the manner of passage in
any case where two vessels are meeting.
D. All of the above
70. Which term is NOT defined in the Inland Navigation Rules?

A. Seaplane
B. Restricted visibility
C. Underway
D. Vessel constrained by her draft
71. You have made your vessel up to a tow and are moving from a pier out into the
main channel. Your engines are turning ahea What whistle signal should you
sound?
A. One prolonged and two short blasts
B. Three long blasts
C. One prolonged blast
D. Five or more short rapid blasts
72. Under the Inland Navigation Rules, what is the meaning of the two short blasts
signal used when meeting another vessel?
A. "I am turning to starboar"
B. "I am turning to port."
C. "I intend to leave you on my starboard side."
D. "I intend to leave you on my port side."
73. A power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way
over __________.
A. Vessels ascending the river
B. Vessels descending the river
C. All vessels ascending and descending the river
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74. Which lights are required for a barge, not part of a composite unit, being pushed
ahead?
A. Sidelights and a stern light
B. Sidelights, a special flashing light, and a stern light
C. Sidelights and a special flashing light
D. Sidelights, a towing light, and a stern light
75. A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current on

the Great Lakes or Western Rivers is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement
is TRUE?
A. The downbound vessel has the right-of-way.
B. The downbound vessel must initiate the required maneuvering signals.
C. The downbound vessel must propose the manner and place of passage.
D. All of the above
76. Your vessel is proceeding down a channel, and can safely navigate only within the
channel. Another vessel is crossing your bow from port to starboard, and you are in
doubt as to her intentions. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The sounding of the danger signal is optional.
B. The sounding of the danger signal is mandatory.
C. You should sound two short blasts.
D. You should sound one prolonged and two short blasts.
77. The stand-on vessel in a crossing situation sounds one short blast of the whistle.
This means that the vessel __________.
A. Intends to hold course and speed
B. Is changing course to starboard
C. Is changing course to port
D. Intends to leave the other on her port side
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78. You are crossing the course of another vessel which is to your starboar You have
reached an agreement by radiotelephone to pass astern of the other vessel. You
MUST __________.
A. Sound one short blast
B. Sound two short blasts
C. Change course to starboard
79. Passing signals shall be sounded on inland waters by __________.

A. All vessels upon sighting another vessel rounding a bend in the channel
B. Towing vessel when meeting another towing vessel on a clear day with a 0.6
mile CPA (Closest Point of Approach)
C. A power-driven vessel when crossing less than half a mile ahead of another
power-driven vessel
D. All of the above
80. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you
should exchange __________.
A. One short blast, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard
B. One short blast, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port
C. Two short blasts, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard
D. Two short blasts, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port
81. A fleet of moored barges extends into a navigable channel. What is the color of the
lights on the barges?
A. Red
B. Amber
C. White
D. Yellow
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82. At night, a light signal consisting of two flashes by a vessel indicates __________.
A. An intention to communicate over radiotelephone
B. That the vessel is in distress
C. An intention to leave another vessel to port
D. An intention to leave another vessel to starboard
83. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her
on your starboard side. You may __________.
A. Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals
B. Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
C. Sound four short blasts
D. Any of the above
84. A barge more than 50 meters long is required to show how many white anchor
lights when anchored in a Secretary approved "special anchorage area"?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. None
85. You are on vessel "B" and vessel "A" desires to overtake you on your starboard
side as shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals, you should
__________.
A. Alter course to the left
B. Slow your vessel until vessel "A" has passed
C. Hold course and speed
D. Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "A" more sea room
86. Which type of vessel is NOT mentioned in the Inland Navigation Rules?
A. An inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel
B. A seaplane
C. An air-cushion vessel
D. A vessel constrained by her draft
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87. You are operating a vessel through a narrow channel and your vessel must stay
within the channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course
from starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to her intentions. You __________.
A. Must sound the danger signal
B. Are required to back down
C. May sound the danger signal
D. Should sound one short blast to show that you are holding course and speed
88. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you
should exchange __________.
A. One short blast, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard
B. Two short blasts, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard
C. One short blast, alter course to the right, and pass port to port
D. Two short blasts, alter course to the right, and pass port to port
89. Which indicates the presence of a partly submerged object being towed?
A. A diamond shape on the towed object
B. An all-round light at each end of the towed object
C. A searchlight beamed from the towing vessel in the direction of the tow
D. All of the above
90. The light used to signal passing intentions is a(n) __________.

A. All-round white light ONLY
B. All-round yellow light ONLY
C. All-round white or yellow light
D. Light of any color
91. Two vessels in a crossing situation have reached agreement by radiotelephone as to

the intentions of the other. In this situation, whistle signals are __________.
A. Required
B. Not required, but may be sounded
C. Required if crossing within half a mile
D. Required when crossing within one mile
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92. Which statement is TRUE concerning the fog signal of a vessel 15 meters in length,
anchored in a "special anchorage area" approved by the Secretary?
A. The vessel is not required to sound a fog signal.
B. The vessel shall ring a bell for 5 seconds every minute.
C. The vessel shall sound one blast of the foghorn every 2 minutes.
D. The vessel shall sound three blasts on the whistle every 2 minutes.
93. Power-driven vessel, when leaving a dock or berth, is required to sound

__________.
A. Four short blasts
B. One long blast
C. One prolonged blast
D. No signal is require
94. Vessels "A" and "B" are meeting on a river as shown and will pass about 1/4 mile
apart. Which statement is TRUE?
A. Both vessels should continue on course and pass without sounding any
whistle signals.
B. The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass port to port.
C. The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass starboard to
starboar
D. The vessels should pass port to port and must sound whistle signals only if
either vessel changes course.
95. Whistle signals shall be exchanged by vessels in sight of one another when
__________.
A. They are passing within half a mile of each other
B. Passing agreements have been made by radio
C. Course changes are necessary to pass
D. Doubt exists as to which side the vessels will pass on
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96. You are on vessel "A" and vessel "B" desires to overtake you on the starboard side
as shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals you should
__________.
A. Alter course to the left
B. Slow your vessel until vessel "B" has passed
C. Hold course and speed
D. Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "B" more sea room
97. Two vessels are meeting on a clear day and will pass less than half a mile apart. In
this situation whistle signals __________.
A. Must be exchanged
B. May be exchanged
C. Must be exchanged if passing agreements have not been made by radio
D. Must be exchanged only if course changes are necessary by either vessel
98. You are approaching a sharp bend in a river. You have sounded a prolonged blast
and it has been answered by a vessel on the other side of the ben Which statement
is TRUE?
A. Both vessels must exchange passing signals when in sight and passing
within one-half mile of each other.
B. No further whistle signals are necessary.
C. The vessel downriver must stop her engines and navigate with caution.
D. Both vessels must immediately sound passing signals whether or not they
are in sight of each other.
99. Which statement is TRUE concerning a passing agreement made by

radiotelephone?
A. Such an agreement is prohibited by the Rules.
B. A vessel which has made such an agreement must also sound whistle
signals.
C. Whistle signals must still be exchanged when passing within half a mile of
each other.
D. If agreement is reached by radiotelephone, whistle signals are optional.
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100. INLAND ONLY You are aboard the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation. You
sound a one blast whistle signal. The give-way vessel answers with a two blast
whistle signal. You should sound the danger signal and __________.
A. Maintain course and speed as you are the stand-on vessel
B. Come around sharply to port
C. Take precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made
D. Maneuver around the stern of the other vessel
101. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the
starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________.
A. Green conical buoy
B. Green can buoy
C. Red can buoy
D. Red conical buoy
102. What information is NOT found in the chart title?

A. Survey information
B. Scale
C. Date of first edition
D. Projection
103. When may the automatic identification system (AIS) be switched off?
A. At anytime as long as it is properly logge
B. At the Master's professional judgment.
C. Only when the vessel is at anchor or in port.
D. Under no circumstance.
104. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How
should this current be treated in determining the position?
A. The drift should be added to the ship's spee
B. The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance
the LOP.
C. The current should be ignore
D. The set should be applied to the second bearing.
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105. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a
height above water of 18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3
meters) and the visibility is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will you first
sight the light?
A. 1.5 miles
B. 2.0 miles
C. 6.0 miles
D. 12.7 miles
106. If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be
positively identified by checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the
Light List?
A. Rhythm
B. Period
C. Intensity
D. Color
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6. Memeliharakeselamatanbernavigasidenganmenggunakaninformasi
yang
diperolehdariperalatandansistemnavigasiuntukmembantumembuat
keputusanperintah.
(Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation
equipment and systems to assist command decision making)
1. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
A. All vessels and on all voyages
B. The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size
C. It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in
International Voyages
D. Over 10 000 dwt
A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and
followed by a competent bridge team.
B. All navigational equipment fully functional.
C. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used
efficiently
D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and
effective operation

A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of
the environment in the vicinity.
B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in
the area
C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the
are
D. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS
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4. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over
many hours, what management issues should the Master consider?
A. All of these answers
B. Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
C. Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit
D. Suitable crew available for lock transits
A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when
under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when
deep sea
B. The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is
therefore not necessary
C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very
familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not
necessary
6. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both
identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.
B. Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect the ship
C. Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur
D. Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur
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7. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
A. The Panama Canal Authority
B. The ship's Master
C. The ship's company
D. The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken to
resolve the emergency situation.
8. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the
Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects
would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
A. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles
visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of
vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and
navigational hazards.
B. Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2
illustrated and reduce speed down to half
speed, approximately 8 knots
C. Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible
range
D. A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid
collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance
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9. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship
has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little
space as possible?
A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After
gaining some sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead
B. Full ahead, rudder hard to port
C. Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
D. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea
Rudder hard to port, full astern.
Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made.
10. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which
could be sounded by a __________.
A. Fishing vessel
B. Vessel anchored
C. Mineclearing vessel
D. Vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
11. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel
indicates that the vessel __________.
A. Is holding course and speed
B. Is turning to starboard
C. Intends to pass port to port
D. Will keep out of the way of the stand-on vessel
12. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?

A. A black cone, apex upward
B. A black cone, apex downward
C. Two vertical black balls
D. A cylinder
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13. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.
A. Engaged in towing
B. Constrained by her draft
C. Under sail
D. All of the above
14. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?

A. The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.
B. The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
C. The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
D. All of the above
15. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast?
A. When overtaking in restricted visibility
B. When overtaking in a narrow channel
C. When overtaking on open waters
D. When no other vessels are in the immediate area
16. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged
followed by one short blast?
A. When overtaking in restricted visibility
B. When overtaking in a narrow channel
C. When overtaking on open waters
D. When no other vessels are in the immediate area
17. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels
means __________.
A. "I am altering my course to starboard"
B. "I am altering my course to port"
C. "I intend to change course to starboard"
D. "I intend to change course to port"
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18. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
A. A vessel constrained by her draft
B. A trawler fishing in close proximity to other trawlers
C. A vessel aground
D. A dredge
19. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel "A" __________.
A. Should sound two short blasts
B. Should sound the danger signal
C. Should sound one long blast
D. Will not sound any whistle signals
20. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
B. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
C. A vessel on pilotage duty
D. A vessel engaged in fishing
21. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?
A. A vessel not under command
B. A vessel constrained by her draft
C. A vessel being towed
D. A vessel sailing
22. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along
the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention?
A. No signal is necessary.
B. Two prolonged blasts
C. Two short blasts
D. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
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23. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________.
A. Intends to alter course to port
B. Intends to pass starboard to starboard
C. Is altering course to port
D. Will alter course to port
24. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel __________.
A. Intends to alter course to starboard
B. Intends to pass starboard to starboard
C. Is altering course to starboard
D. Intends to pass port to port
25. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel
astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention
to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
__________.
A. One short blast
C. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
D. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order
26. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to

pass on the power-driven vessel's port side. The overtaken vessel will have to move
to facilitate passage. The sailing vessel is the __________.
A. Stand-on vessel and would sound two short blasts
B. Give-way vessel and would sound no whistle signal
C. Stand-on vessel and would sound no whistle signal
D. Give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two
short blasts
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27. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.

A. Three all-round red lights
B. Two 225° red lights
C. Three all-round blue lights
D. Two 225° blue lights
28. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either vessel
means __________.
A. "I intend to alter course to port"
B. "I desire to pass starboard to starboard"
C. "I desire to pass port to port"
D. "I am altering course to port"
29. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
__________.
A. A single white light forward
B. Two masthead lights in a vertical line
C. Two towing lights in a vertical line
D. Two all-round red lights where they can best be seen
30. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

A. She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her
draft in relation to the available depth of water.
B. The term applies only to vessels in marked channels.
C. She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver".
D. The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.
31. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, is
sounded by a vessel __________.
A. At anchor
B. Towing a submerged object
C. Being overtaken in a narrow channel
D. In distress
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32. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels
are approaching. You should sound __________.
A. Three short blasts when leaving the slip
B. One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is
taken aboard
C. One prolonged blast only
D. The danger signal
33. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels
are approaching. You should sound __________.
A. Three short blasts when leaving the slip
taken aboard
C. One prolonged blast only
D. The danger signal
34. Which vessel is to keep out of the way of the others?

B. A vessel engaged in underwater operations
C. A vessel engaged in trawling
D. A vessel not under command
35. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds two short blasts of the
whistle. This signal means that the vessel __________.
A. Is altering course to port
B. Is altering course to starboard
C. Intends to leave you on her port side
D. Intends to leave you on her starboard side
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36. You are operating a vessel in a narrow channel. Your vessel must stay within the
channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from
starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to his intentions. According to Rule 9, you
__________.
A. May sound the danger signal
B. Must sound one prolonged and two short blasts
C. Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and
speed
D. Are required to back down
37. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters as shown and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A" __________. (DIAGRAM 17 )
A. Should sound two short blasts
B. Should sound the danger signal
C. Should sound one long blast
D. Need not sound any whistle signals
38. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line on another vessel at night, it would
be a vessel __________.
A. Aground
C. Dredging
D. Moored over a wreck
39. On open water two vessels are in an overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has
just sounded one short blast on the whistle. What is the meaning of this whistle
signal?
A. "I request permission to pass you on my port side."
B. "I will maintain course and speed and pass you on your starboard side."
C. "On which side should I pass?"
D. "I am changing course to starboar"
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40. You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal consisting of one prolonged and two
short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel __________.
A. Engaged in mineclearance
B. Engaged in fishing
C. Constrained by her draft
D. Being towed
41. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her
draft?
B. A fishing vessel
C. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
D. All of the above
42. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast, in that
order is given by a vessel __________.
A. Engaged on pilotage duty
B. In distress
C. At anchor
D. Being overtaken in a narrow channel
43. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another and NOT in or near
an area of restricted visibility?
A. Four short blasts on the whistle
B. One prolonged blast on the whistle
C. One short blast on the whistle
D. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle
44. In addition to her running lights, an underway vessel constrained by her draft may
carry in a vertical line __________.
A. A red light, a white light, and a red light
B. Two red lights
C. Two white lights
D. Three red lights
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45. Which vessel is NOT regarded as being "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A. A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
B. A vessel engaged in dredging
C. A towing vessel with tow unable to deviate from its course
D. A vessel constrained by her draft
46. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT in or near an area of
restricted visibility, any of the following signals may be given EXCEPT
__________.
A. A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes
B. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short whistle blasts
C. Four short whistle blasts
D. Two short whistle blasts
47. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to PASS on the other
vessel's port side would sound __________.
A. One prolonged followed by two short blasts
B. One short blast
C. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
D. Two short blasts
48. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which
would be sounded by a vessel __________.
A. Overtaking another in a narrow channel
B. Anchored
C. Engaged in mineclearance
D. Engaged in fishing
A. Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts
B. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
C. Two prolonged blasts only
D. Two short blasts only
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A. Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts
B. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
C. Two prolonged blasts only
D. Two short blasts only
51. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel
astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention
to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
__________.
A. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
B. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast
C. One short blast
D. Two prolonged blasts
52. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel "A" should __________.
A. Sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
B. Sound the danger signal
C. Not sound any whistle signals
D. Sound one long blast
53. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another?

A. One short blast on the whistle
B. Four short blasts on the whistle
C. One prolonged blast on the whistle
D. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle
54. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle must be __________.
A. Used when the whistle is broken
B. A white light
C. Used only at night
D. Used prior to sounding the whistle
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55. Which statement is TRUE concerning light signals?

A. The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.
B. The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
C. The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
D. All of the above
56. While underway and in sight of another vessel, you put your engines full speed
astern. Which statement concerning whistle signals is TRUE?
A. You must sound three short blasts on the whistle.
B. You must sound one blast if backing to starboar
C. You must sound whistle signals only if the vessels are meeting.
D. You need not sound any whistle signals.
57. While underway at night, a power-driven vessel of less than 7 meters in length,
whose maximum speed which does not exceed 7 knots, may show __________.
A. Sidelights combined in a single lantern, only
B. An all-round flashing yellow light, only
C. One all-round white light, only
D. A lantern showing a white light exhibited in sufficient time to prevent
collision, only
58. At night, a power-driven vessel less than 7 meters in length, with a maximum speed
which does not exceed 7 knots, MUST show when underway at least __________.
A. One white 360° light
B. A white light on the near approach of another vessel
C. Sidelights and a stern light
D. The lights required of a vessel less than 12 meters in length
59. Lighting requirements in inland waters are different from those for international
waters for __________.
A. Barges being pushed ahead
B. Vessels restricted in their ability to maneuver
C. Vessels towing astern
D. Barges being towed astern
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60. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
__________.
A. Two towing lights in a vertical line
B. A towing light above the stern light
C. Two all-round red lights at the masthead
D. Two masthead lights in a vertical line
61. BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A towing light __________.

A. Flashes at regular intervals of 50-70 flashes per minute
B. Is yellow in color
C. Shows an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of not less than 180° nor
more than 225°
D. All of the above
62. A towing light is ____________ .

A. Shown below the stern light
B. White in color
C. Displayed at the masthead
D. A yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern light
63. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an __________.

A. Alternating red and yellow light
B. Alternating white and yellow light
C. All-round white or yellow light
D. All-round white light only
64. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.

A. Three all-round red lights instead of the lights required for a power-driven
vessel of her class
B. The same lights as a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
C. Three all-round red lights in addition to the lights required for a power-
driven vessel of her class
D. The lights for a power-driven vessel which is not under command
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65. Which day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?

A. A black diamond
B. A cylinder
C. A black ball
D. A black cone, apex upward
66. If at night a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line, during the
day she may show __________.
A. Two cones, base to base
B. Three black balls in a vertical line
C. A cylinder
D. A cone, apex downward
67. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________.

A. Restricted in her ability to maneuver
B. Not under command
C. Engaged in mineclearing operations
D. Constrained by her draft
68. The International Rules of the Road apply __________.

A. To all waters
B. To any waters inside the territorial waters of the U.S.
C. Only to waters where foreign vessels travel
D. Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels
69. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

A. The term only applies to vessels in narrow channels.
B. She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her
draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water.
C. She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver".
D. The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.
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70. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

A. She is hampered because of her work.
B. She is unable to maneuver due to some exceptional circumstance.
C. She may be a vessel being towe
D. She must be a power-driven vessel.
71. Which vessel is NOT "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?

A. A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
C. A towing vessel with tow, unable to deviate from its course
D. A vessel engaged in dredging
72. Your vessel is constrained by her draft and operating in a narrow channel. Another
vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port. You are in doubt as to her
intentions. According to Rule 9, you __________.
A. Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and
speed
B. Must sound one prolonged blast
C. May sound the danger signal
D. Are required to back down
73. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. You should __________.
A. Hold your course and speed
B. Not impede the other vessel
C. Exchange passing signals
D. Sound the danger signal
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74. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility is restricte You should
sound __________.
A. One prolonged blast only
taken aboard
C. One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when leaving the slip
the danger signal
75. You are approaching another vessel and will pass safely starboard to starboard
without changing course. You should __________.
A. Hold course and sound no whistle signal
B. Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal
C. Change course to starboard and sound one blast
D. Hold course and sound one blast
76. Which statement is TRUE concerning a situation involving a fishing vessel and a
vessel not under command?
A. They are required to communicate by radiotelephone.
B. If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must keep
clear of the fishing vessel.
C. The fishing vessel must keep out of the way of the vessel not under comman
D. Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.
77. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
C. A vessel pushing a barge
D. A vessel engaged in fishing
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78. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her
draft?
B. A sailing vessel
C. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
D. All of the above
79. A signal of intent must be sounded in international waters by __________.

A. A vessel meeting another head-on
B. A vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
C. A vessel crossing the course of another
D. The give-way vessel in a crossing situation
80. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the
whistle. You should __________.
A. Sound two blasts and change course to the left
B. Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted
C. Sound whistle signals only if you change course
D. Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted
81. A towing vessel and her tow are severely restricted in their ability to change course.
When making way, the towing vessel will show ONLY __________.
A. The masthead lights for a towing vessel
B. The lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
C. Sidelights, stern light, and towing light
D. All of the above.
82. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST __________.
A. Take all way off, if necessary
B. Stop your engines
C. Begin a radar plot
D. All of the above
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83. A fog signal of one short, one prolonged, and one short blast may be sounded by a
__________.
A. Vessel not under command
B. Vessel at anchor
C. Vessel towing
D. All of the above
A. Stop your engines
B. Take all way off, if necessary
D. All of the above
85. A vessel may enter a traffic separation zone __________.

A. In an emergency
B. To engage in fishing within the zone
C. To cross the traffic separation scheme
D. All of the above
86. In a traffic separation scheme, when joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel
shall do so __________.
A. At as small an angle as possible
B. As nearly as practical at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow
C. Only in case of an emergency or to engage in fishing within the zone
never
87. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________.

A. Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
B. Engaged in fishing in the separation zone
C. Cross a traffic lane
D. Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency
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88. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________.

A. Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
B. Engaged in fishing in the separation zone
C. Cross a traffic lane
D. Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency
89. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by her draft, a vessel may display, in a
vertical line, __________.
A. Three 360° red lights
B. Two 225° red lights
C. Three 360° blue lights
D. Two 225° blue lights
90. In addition to other required lights, a power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing
alongside displays __________.
A. Two all-round red lights in a vertical line
B. Two yellow towing lights in a vertical line
C. Two white masthead lights in a vertical line
D. Two lights on the stern, one yellow and one white
91. Which statement is true concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

A. She must be a power-driven vessel.
B. She is not under comman
C. She may be a vessel being towe
D. She is hampered because of her work.
92. When moving from a berth alongside a quay (wharf), a vessel must sound
__________.
A. Three short blasts
B. A long blast
C. A prolonged blast
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93. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight vessel constrained by her draft proceeding
down a narrow channel. There is a vessel engaged in fishing on your starboard bow
half a mile away. According to Rule 9, which statement is TRUE?
A. You are not to impede the fishing vessel.
B. If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's intentions you may sound at
least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle.
C. You are to slow to bare steerageway until clear of the fishing vessel.
D. You must sound one prolonged blast to alert the fishing vessel.
94. The International Rules of the Road apply __________.

A. To all waters which are not inland waters
B. Only to waters outside the territorial waters of the United States
C. Only to waters where foreign vessels travel
D. Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels
95. A towing light is __________.

A. Shown at the bow
B. White in color
C. Shown in addition to the stern light
D. An all-round light
96. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to pass on the other
vessel's port side would sound __________.
A. One prolonged followed by two short blasts
B. One short blast
C. Two short blasts
D. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
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97. You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of
one prolonged and two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a
vessel __________.
A. Minesweeping
B. Engaged in fishing
D. Being towed
98. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________.

A. Not under command
B. Aground
C. Dredging
D. Constrained by her draft
99. At night, a power-driven vessel underway of less than 7 meters in length where its
maximum speed does not exceed 7 knots may show, as a minimum, __________.
A. Sidelights and a stern light
B. The lights required for a vessel more than 7 meters in length
C. Sidelights only
D. One all-round white light
100. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which must be answered by the other vessel,
is sounded by a vessel __________.
A. Meeting another head-on
B. Crossing the course of another
C. Overtaking another
D. Any of the above
101. When two vessels are in sight of one another, all of the following signals may be
given EXCEPT __________.
A. A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes
B. Four short whistle blasts
C. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short whistle blasts
D. Two short whistle blasts
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102. A power-driven vessel leaving a quay or wharf must sound what signal?
A. Three short blasts
B. A long blast
C. A prolonged blast
103. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two vessels are meeting, but
will pass clear starboard to starboard?
A. One short blast
B. Two short blasts
C. Five or more short blasts
104. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to overtake another on the other vessel's port
side, would sound a whistle signal of __________.
A. One short blast
B. Two short blasts
C. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast
D. Two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
105. On open water, a power-driven vessel coming up dead astern of another vessel and
altering her course to starboard so as to pass on the starboard side of the vessel
ahead would sound __________.
A. Two short blasts
B. One short blast
C. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast
D. One long and one short blast
106. If a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line at night, during the
day she may show __________.
A. Three balls in a vertical line
B. A cylinder
C. Two diamonds in a vertical line
D. Two cones, apexes together
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107. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.
A. Towing
C. Under sail
D. All of the above
108. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. What is your responsibility?
A. Hold your course and spee
B. Sound the danger signal.
C. Begin an exchange of passing signals.
D. Do not cross the channel if you might impede the other vessel.
109. You are approaching another vessel and will pass starboard to starboard without
danger if no course changes are made. You should __________.
A. Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal
B. Hold course and sound no whistle signal
C. Change course to the right and sound one blast
D. Hold course and sound two prolonged and two short blasts
110. A fishing vessel is approaching a vessel not under comman Which statement is
TRUE?
A. The fishing vessel must keep clear of the vessel not under comman
B. If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must keep
clear of the fishing vessel.
C. They must exchange whistle signals.
D. Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.
111. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power-driven vessel ONLY?

A. A signal meaning, "I am altering my course to starboar"
B. A signal meaning, "I intend to overtake you on your starboard side."
C. A signal meaning that the vessel sounding it is in doubt as to the other
vessel's actions.
D. A signal sounded when approaching a ben
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112. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle is to be __________.
A. Used when the whistle is broken
B. Used prior to sounding the whistle
C. Used only at night
D. A white light
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7. Memelihara keselamatan navigasi dengan menggunakan ECDIS dan

sistem navigasi yang terkait untuk mendukung pengambilan
keputusan perintah.
(Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and
associated navigation systems to assist command decision making)
1. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of

determining positions and include which of the following?
A. All of these suggested answers
B. Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing
C. Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational
marks
D. Positions determined by GPS and plotted on
the ECDIS
2. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if approved by the Flag State
D. Only if approved by the owner
3. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or
river, when under pilot?
A. A passage plan is always required,
irrespective of the length of the
voyage, or if the ship is under pilot
B. A passage plan is required for all
deep sea passages, but not for
transiting a canal under pilotage.
C. A passage plan is required only
when there is no pilot on board
D. A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot
station at the destination.
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4. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be

supervised by:
A. A responsible Officer
B. An experienced AB
C. The Bosun
D. The Sen.Off.Deck only
5. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
A. All vessels and on all voyages
B. The Convention only applies to ships over a
certain size
C. It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged
in International Voyages
D. Over 10 000 dwt
A. An effective detailed passage plan
fully understood and followed by a
competent bridge team.
B. All navigational equipment fully
functional.
C. Bridge equipment effectively
operating and being used efficiently
D. The bridge equipment includes
ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in
full and effective operation
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A. Increase the safety of all ships and
the protection of the environment
in the vicinity.
B. Provide local information to all
vessels navigating in the area
C. Improve the scheduling and traffic
movement in the are
D. Increase safety for ships
participating in VTS
8. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over
many hours, what management issues should the Master consider?
A. All of these answers
B. Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
C. Fully manned engine room throughout the
canal transit
D. Suitable crew available for lock transits
A. A passage plan should be discussed between
the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in
the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
B. The passage is well established and known by
the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary
C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very
familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not
necessary
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10. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart,
what Chart Datum should be selected?
A. Select WGS84 and when plotting
on the chart apply the stated
corrections.
B. Select the datum stated on the chart
in use
C. WGS78 and input the corrections
stated on the chart into the GPS
D. WGS84 and plot the readout
position directly on the chart
A. The anticipated weather and the
need for weather routing. The
distances gained by sailing by great
circle. The ship's draught and the
loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the
possibility of encountering ice and
the need for weather routing. The
prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds
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12. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
A. Risk is a situation involving
exposure to danger and includes
both identification of the occurrence
and the likelihood that it will
happen.
B. Risk is the term to identify a
dangerous situation which will
affect the ship
C. Risk is the possibility that a
dangerous situation is likely to
occur
D. Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur
13. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships
position by four different methods and they all give slightly different positions.
Which of the following would be considered the most accurate.
A. Radar ranges from two radar destinctive
headlands
B. GPS set on WGS84 datum
C. Bearing and distance from a navigation
buoy close to the vessel
D. Gyro compass bearings from two
lighthouses
14. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
A. The Panama Canal Authority
B. The ship's Master
C. The ship's company
D. The Master and Pilot will agree the
best course of action to be taken to
resolve the emergency situation.
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15. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the
Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects
would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
A. Deciding safe speed consider: 2
miles visibility; traffic density;
manoeuvrability of vessel;
effectiveness of navigational
equipment (ARPA etc); state of
sea and currents and
navigational hazards.
B. Adjust my track to follow Route
1 or 2 illustrated and reduce
speed down to half speed,
approximately 8 knots
C. Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible
range
D. A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid
collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance
16. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship
has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little
space as possible?
A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After
gaining some sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead
B. Full ahead, rudder hard to port
C. Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
D. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea Rudder hard to port, full astern.
Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made
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17. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data
required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
A. Hydrography
B. Aids to navigation
C. Tidal currents
D. Regulatory boundaries
18. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required
by IMO/IHO?
A. Hydrography
B. Ferry routes
C. Regulatory boundaries
D. All of the above
19. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include __________.
A. Vector only
B. Raster only
C. Vector and raster
D. Imposed viewing
20. Raster-scan chart data is __________.

A. The only format recognized by IMO/IHO
B. Organized into many separate files
C. Composed of files that are smaller than vector files
D. A digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
21. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
A. ECDIS warnings and messages
B. Hydrographic Office data
C. Notice to Mariners information
D. All of the above
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22. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
A. Notice to Mariners information
B. ECDIS warnings and messages
C. Ship hydrodynamic information
D. Hydrographic Office data
23. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational
chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by
appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the
__________.
A. Display base information
B. Standard display information
C. System electronic navigational chart
D. Chart display information
24. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on
ECDIS is the __________.
C. System electronic nautical chart
25. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS
display and consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic
areas and under all circumstances is the __________.
C. System electronic nautical chart
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26. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
A. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
B. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross
a safety contour
C. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross
the boundary of a prohibited area
D. All of the above
A. If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
B. When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
C. If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
D. All of the above
A. When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
B. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
C. If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
29. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of
information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and
conform to the standards of (the) __________.
A. International Maritime Organization
B. International Hydrographic Organization
C. NASA
D. US Coast Guard
30. An ECDIS is required to display which information?

A. Radar targets
B. ARPA vectors
C. Hydrographic data
D. All of the above
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31. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the
previous __________.
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

A. Position
B. Electronic navigational chart source
C. Course made good history
D. All of the above
A. An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded
B. A warning of loss of position
C. A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
D. All of the above
34. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy
equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
A. Transit
C. Auto-correlation
D. Anti-spoofing
35. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________.

A. DGPS, within a coverage area
B. SPS, without selective availability
C. PPS, without selective availability
D. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift
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36. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from
several satellites simultaneously?
A. Sequential
B. Continuous
C. Multiplex
37. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS
receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position?
A. Five
B. Four
C. Three
D. Two

A. Soundings
B. Waypoints
C. Meteorological data
D. Radar targets

A. Water temperature
B. Climatology data
C. Speed of advance
D. Depth contours

A. Course made good history
B. Estimated time of arrival
C. Speed through the water
D. Shaft RPM
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A. A warning of loss of position
B. A cross-track error alarm
C. An indication of a change in satellite configuration
D. An alarm if engine speed is suddenly reduced
A. An alarm if engine speed is suddenly increased
B. An alarm if a new position has not been calculated within the last two
seconds
C. An indication of a change in the number of satellites
D. None of the above.
43. As a licensed Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to __________.

A. Obtain a weather forecast before setting out from port
B. Listen to weather forecasts on the radio while enroute
C. Understand all broadcast weather warning information
D. All of the above
44. NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1,
WX-2 and WX-3 on a frequency of __________.
A. 156.8, 157.1, 162.55 mhz
B. 162.55, 162.00, 171.5 khz
C. 162.55, 162.40, 162.475 mhz
D. 2182, 2638, 2670 khz
45. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform?

A. Conversion of "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
B. Transformation of local datum to WGS-'84 datum
C. Calculation of true azimuth and distance between two geographical points
D. All of the above
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46. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________.
A. Determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points
B. Determine magnetic compass deviation
C. Transform a local datum to the WGS-'84 datum
D. Convert "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
47. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous
__________.
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
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8. Ramalan cuaca dan kondisi laut.

(Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions)
1. Wind velocity varies __________.

A. Directly with the temperature of the air mass
B. Directly with the pressure gradient
C. Inversely with the barometric pressure
D. Inversely with the absolute humidity
2. What wind reverses directions seasonally?

A. Monsoon winds
B. Hooked trades
C. Jet stream
D. Secondary winds
3. What wind reverses directions seasonally?
A. Monsoon winds
B. Hooked trades
C. Jet stream
D. Secondary winds
4. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of Mexico,
particularly during the colder months, is called __________.
A. Tehuantepecer
B. Papagayo
C. Norther
D. Pampero
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5. What will a veering wind do?

A. Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere
B. Circulate about a low pressure center in a counterclockwise manner in the
Northern Hemisphere
C. Vary in strength constantly and unpredictably
D. Circulate about a high pressure center in a clockwise manner in the
Southern Hemisphere
6. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the Northern
Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will __________.
A. Shift in a clockwise manner
B. Shift in a counterclockwise manner
C. Continue blowing from the same direction
D. Decrease in velocity
7. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the Northern
Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will __________.
A. Shift in a clockwise manner
B. Shift in a counterclockwise manner
C. Continue blowing from the same direction
D. Increase in velocity
8. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh n'ly wind
blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter
__________.
A. Smoother seas and warmer water
B. Steeper waves, closer together
C. Long swells
D. Cirrus clouds
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9. A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different rates
of warming of land and water is a __________.
A. Foehn
B. Chinook
C. Land breeze
D. Sea breeze
10. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an
adjacent water area?
A. Coastal breeze
B. Sea breeze
C. Land breeze
D. Mistral
11. A katabatic wind blows __________.

A. Up an incline due to surface heating
B. In a circular pattern
C. Down an incline due to cooling of the air
D. Horizontally between a high and a low pressure area
12. The most common form of solid precipitation is

A. Snow
B. Sleet
C. Glaze Ice
D. Hail
13. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is
A. High
B. Layere
C. Precipitation-free
D. Rain-producing
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14. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe?

A. Maritime tropical Pacific
B. Maritime tropical Atlantic
C. Maritime polar Pacific
D. Maritime polar Atlantic
15. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots?

A. Beaufort force 0
B. Beaufort force 6.5
C. Beaufort force 12
D. Beaufort force 15
16. In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would indicate
__________.
A. High winds
B. High overcast clouds
C. Calm or light winds
D. Fog or steady rain
17. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure
diminishes. The winds along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation
toward the east and are known as the __________.
A. Geostrophic winds
B. Doldrums
C. Horse latitudes
D. Prevailing westerlies
18. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes violent, while
storms along a warm front
A. are short-lived and weak.
B. produce precipitation over a large area, and are sometimes violent.
C. are narrow, producing little rain and are always violent.
D. are long-lived, but always weak.
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19. Which of the following statements describes what happens when the sun heats
water and land?
A. Land heats more slowly than water does.
B. Water heats more slowly than land does.
C. Water and land absorb heat from the sun at the same rate.
D. Both absorb heat at the same rate, but water releases it faster.
20. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal weather
systems over the North American continent?
A. Subpolar easterlies
B. Northeast trades
C. Prevailing westerlies
D. Dominant southwesterly flow
21. In the doldrums you will NOT have __________.

A. High relative humidity
B. Frequent showers and thunderstorms
C. Steep pressure gradients
D. Frequent calms
22. The dew point is the temperature at which the rate of condensation
A. equals the rate of evaporation.
B. exceeds the rate of evaporation.
C. lowers the rate of evaporation.
D. raises the rate of evaporation.
23. The area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40°S and 60°S latitude is
called the __________.
A. Polar easterlies
B. Prevailing westerlies
C. Roaring forties
D. Jet streams
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24. The winds you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between latitudes
5° and 30° are known as the __________.
A. Doldrums
B. Westerlies
C. Trades
D. Easterlies
25. The West Wind Drift is located __________.

A. Near 60°S
B. On each side of the Equatorial Current
C. In the North Atlantic between Greenland and Europe
D. In the South Pacific near 5°S
26. The prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5°N to 30°N are
the __________.
A. Prevailing westerlies
B. Northeast trade winds
C. Southeast trade winds
D. Doldrums
27. The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the equatorial
currents are the __________.
A. Doldrums
B. Horse latitudes
C. Trade winds
D. Prevailing westerlies
28. Continental polar, maritime polar, continental tropical, and maritime tropical are
types of
A. air fronts.
B. air masses.
C. air systems.
D. air flow.
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29. Weather map symbols H and L indicate

A. precipitation.
B. temperature range.
C. air pressure centers.
D. wind velocity.
30. The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt and the
northeast trade winds is called the __________.
A. Subtropical high pressure belt
B. Intertropical convergence zone
C. Doldrum belt
D. Polar frontal zone
31. Fog differs from clouds in that fog

A. forms closer to the groun
B. forms in saturated air.
C. requires no condensation nuclei.
D. contains many ice crystals.
32. Lightning causes a rapid expansion and collapse of the air that produces
A. thunder.
B. cyclones.
C. hail.
D. rain.
33. You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong n'ly wind
blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter
__________.
A. Cirrus clouds
B. Long swells
C. Smoother seas and warmer water
D. Steeper waves, closer together
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34. Which of the following is not one of the three properties used by meteorologists to
classify clouds.
A. Basic, Shape
B. Cloud, Composition
C. Height, Ground
D. Whether or not precipitation is generated
35. Fog and stratus clouds are most common during which of the following times of
day.
A. Late, evening
B. Late, afternoon
C. Early, morning
D. Early, afternoon
36. Large-scale circulation systems, fronts, and thunderstorms are the primary source
of which of the following cloud types.
A. Middle and high clouds
B. Low and middle clouds
C. Low and high clouds
D. High and middle clouds
37. High-cloud tops generally are limited by the height of the;

A. Mesopause
B. Stratopause
C. Mesosphere
D. Tropopause
38. The names of all three high-cloud genera contain which of the following words in
some form.
A. Alto
B. Cumulus
C. Cirrus
D. Stratus
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39. The least common of the 10 cloud genera is:

A. Cumulonimbus
B. Cirrocumulus
C. Altostratus
D. Nimbrostratus
40. Which of the following would not be true concerning temperature change taking
place in a parcel of air at the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
A. The temperature rises as the parcel
B. The parcel does not gain or receive heat from its surroundings
C. Condensation does not occur during the process
D. The temperarute falls as the parcel rises
41. Which of the following is true of a parcel of air but not true of theenvironment.
A. Temperature values differ erratically from one level to the next
B. Consists of different air molecules at each level
C. Humidity values differ erratically from one level to the next
D. Changes temperature with altitude at either the dry or moist adiabatic rates
42. Lenticular and stratiform clouds are caused in stable air by:
A. Entrainment
B. Surface heating
C. Orographic lifting
D. Buoyancy
43. Which of the following fog types is composed of unstable clouds.

A. Radiation fog
B. Evaporaton fog
C. Advenction fog
D. Orographic fog
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44. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 miles
due east of your position, what winds can you expect in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. East to northeast
B. East to southeast
C. North to northwest
D. South to southeast
45. The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the __________.
A. Equatorial current
B. Humidity
C. Rotation of the earth
D. Change of seasons
46. When facing into the wind in the Northern Hemisphere the center of low pressure
lies __________.
A. Directly in front of you
B. Directly behind you
C. To your left and behind you
D. To your right and behind you
47. The steady current circling the globe at about 60°S is the __________.
A. Prevailing Westerly
B. Sub-Polar Flow
C. West Wind Drift
D. Humboldt Current
48. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are __________.
A. Stronger than during the summer months
B. Weaker than during the summer months
C. Drier than during the summer months
D. Wetter than during the summer months
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49. If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100 miles due
east of you, what winds can you expect in the Southern Hemisphere?
A. South-southwesterly
B. North-northwesterly
C. South-southeasterly
D. North-northeasterly
50. The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the
Southern Hemisphere is __________.
A. Northwest, west, and south
B. Southwest, south, and southeast
C. North, northwest, and east
D. West, northwest, and north
51. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water oceans
except the __________.
A. Indian Ocean
B. North Pacific Ocean
C. South Pacific Ocean
D. South Atlantic Ocean
52. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical
characteristics, the storm becomes a(n) __________.
A. High pressure area
B. Extratropical low-pressure system
C. Tropical storm
D. Easterly wave
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53. You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the Northern
Hemisphere. If the wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing velocity,
you are most likely __________.
A. In the right semicircle
B. In the left semicircle
C. On the storm track ahead of the center
D. On the storm track behind the center
54. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as
__________.
A. Sea
B. Waves
C. Fetch
D. Swell
55. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical
wave?
A. Heavy rain and cloudiness
B. Good weather
C. A tropical storm
D. Dense fog
56. Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system does not
have closed isobars?
A. Hurricane
B. Tropical disturbance
C. Tropical depression
D. Cyclone
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57. In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would you expect to
see to the west of an approaching tropical wave?
A. Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest
direction
B. High altostratus clouds in the morning hours
C. Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest
direction
D. Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a north to south direction
58. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________.
A. North to south
B. West to east
C. East to west
59. In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle with plenty
of sea room available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the
__________.
A. Starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
B. Starboard quarter, and make as much headway as possible
C. Port quarter, and make as much headway as possible
D. Port bow, and make as much headway as possible
60. Current refers to the __________.

A. Vertical movement of the water
B. Horizontal movement of the water
C. Density changes in the water
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61. Monsoons are characterized by __________.

A. Light, variable winds with little or no humidity
B. Strong, gusty winds that blow from the same general direction all year
C. Steady winds that reverse direction semiannually
D. Strong, cyclonic winds that change direction to conform to the passage of
an extreme low pressure system
62. In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of a
hurricane, and plenty of sea room is available. The best course of action is to bring
the wind on the __________.
A. Starboard bow, note the course, and head in that direction
B. Starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
C. Port quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
D. Port bow, note the course, and head in that direction
63. What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile radius of
circulation, gale force winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically
formed cumulonimbus clouds?
A. A tropical disturbance
B. A tropical depression
C. A tropical storm
D. A typhoon
64. The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) __________.

A. Easterly direction
B. Westerly direction
C. Northerly direction
D. Southerly direction
65. A steep barometric gradient indicates __________.

A. Calms
B. Light winds
C. Strong winds
D. Precipitation
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66. A sea breeze is a wind __________.

A. That blows towards the sea at night
B. That blows towards an island during the day
C. Caused by cold air descending a coastal incline
D. Caused by the distant approach of a hurricane
67. What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed tropical cyclone?
A. Gale force winds from the north
B. An unusually long ocean swell
C. Steep, short-period waves and light wind
D. Thunderstorms and higher than usual humidity
68. Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass
due to __________.
A. Pressure changes in the air mass
B. Movement of the air mass
C. The heterogeneous nature of the air mass
D. Upper level atmospheric changes
69. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea
would be accompanied by which of the following conditions?
A. Rain and poor visibility
B. Dropping barometric pressure and backing wind in the Northern
Hemisphere
C. High winds and rising sea
D. Severe thunderstorms
70. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. The north polar regions are in continual darkness.
B. The Northern Hemisphere is having short days and long nights.
C. The Southern Hemisphere is having winter.
D. The Sun shines equally on both hemispheres.
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71. The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is __________.
A. Clockwise and outward
B. Counterclockwise and outward
C. Clockwise and inward
D. Counterclockwise and inward
72. Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are
responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes,
are called __________.
A. Altostratus
B. Altocumulus
C. Cirrostratus
D. Cirrocumulus
73. Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________.

A. Dry, fair weather
B. High winds and cloudiness
C. Gustiness and continuous precipitation
D. Overcast skies
74. Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________.

A. High clouds
B. Middle clouds
C. Low clouds
D. Vertical development clouds
75. A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________.

A. Cyclone
B. Anticyclone
C. Cold front
D. Occluded front
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76. Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait
between Alaska and Siberia is joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the
Bering Sea to form the __________.
A. Alaska Current
B. Subarctic Current
C. Kuroshio Current
D. Oyashio Current
77. Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms?

A. Cirrus
B. Stratus
C. Cumulus
D. Cumulonimbus
78. The circulation around a low pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is
__________.
A. Counterclockwise
B. Variable
C. Clockwise
D. Anticyclonic
79. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed

__________.
A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Remaining the same
D. Varying during the day
80. All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT
__________.
A. Steady rainfall
B. Hail storms
C. Thunderstorms
D. Tornadoes or waterspouts
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81. In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation

surrounded by higher pressure is a __________.
A. Low
B. High
C. Warm front
D. Cold front
82. If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate
__________.
A. Rain
B. Hurricane weather
C. Fair weather
D. Fog setting in
83. Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.

A. Low barometric pressure
B. High barometric pressure
C. Steady barometric pressure
D. Changing barometric pressure
84. The form of cloud often known as "mackerel sky" which is generally associated
with fair weather is __________.
A. Nimbostratus
B. Stratus
C. Cirrocumulus
D. Cumulonimbus
85. When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________.
A. Improves
B. Worsens
C. Remains the same
D. Is unpredictable
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86. Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering either
small or large portions of the sky are __________.
A. Cirrus
B. Cirrostratus
C. Altostratus
D. Cirrocumulus
87. A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________.

A. Tornado
B. Anticyclone
C. Occluded cyclone or occluded front
D. Polar cyclone
88. That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track (as you face the same
direction that the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere is called the
__________.
A. Windward side
B. Leeward side
C. Safe semicircle
D. Dangerous semicircle
89. High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often
banded together to form a "mackerel sky", would be classified as __________.
A. Cirrus
B. Cirrocumulus
C. Altostratus
D. Cumulonimbus
90. The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is
__________.
A. Counterclockwise and moving towards the high
B. Counterclockwise and moving outward from the high
C. Clockwise and moving towards the high
D. Clockwise and moving outward from the high
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91. A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________.
A. Altostratus
B. Stratus
C. Cumulus
D. Cirrus
92. Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________.

A. Low barometric pressure
B. High barometric pressure
C. Falling barometric pressure
D. Pumping barometric pressure
93. The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical cyclone
because of the __________.
A. Recurvature effect
B. Extension of the low pressure ridge
C. Wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
D. Direction of circulation and pressure gradient
94. Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky?
A. Altostratus, cirrostratus, stratus
B. Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
C. Stratus, cirrostratus, altostratus
D. Altostratus, stratus, cirrostratus
95. Warm air masses will generally have __________.

A. Turbulence within the mass
B. Stratiform clouds
C. Heavy precipitation
D. Good visibility
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96. A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground, is
called __________.
A. Cumulus
B. Nimbus
C. Stratus
D. Cirrus
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9. Merespon keadaan darurat navigasi

(Respond to navigational emergencies )
1. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved
is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel?
A. After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if
possible your vessel should
standby and offer assistance, until
being relieved of that obligation by
the other vessel.
B. There is no statutory requirement
to provide assistance as the actions
of that vessel were the primary
cause of the collision
C. Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other vessel and aid the fire
fighting operation.
D. You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if
your damage is not serious, continue on your voyage.
2. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is
in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is
the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
A. Put the ship aground on a soft
sandy bottom as soon as possible
B. Attempt to stop the ingress of
water by listing the ship over and
bringing the damaged area of the
hull out of the water.
C. Call for tug boat assistance as
soon as possible
D. Inform the local coast radio station of the situation and ask for advice
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present position.
4. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a
reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal
are What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship?
A. Display NUC lights and investigate
the tidal flow over the next 24 hours
and the probable drift of the vessel.
B. Display NUC lights and inform the
nearest Coast Guard of you
predicament.
C. Display NUC lights and determine if
anchoring is possible
D. Display NUC lights and send out a navigational warning to all other vessels
of your position and situation
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5. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should
there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is
equipped with an operational ECDIS
A. Increase the officers on the
bridge to allow greater use of
visual navigation
B. Change the passage plan to
avoid areas of high density
shipping, if possible
C. Post extra lookouts
D. No changes are necessary
6. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a
collision. What will your actions be following the collision?
A. Make sure your vessel + crew
are safe and then offer your
assistance to the other vessel
B. Continue the voyage to your
destination
C. Call the Company Office
D. Start an argument with the other
vessel about fault
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DPKP
you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and
commence searching for any
survivors
B. Leave the position as fast as
possible
D. Call the company, explain the
situation and ask for orders
8. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What
immediate action should you take?
A. Nothing, just standby and wait to
see if any assistance is require
B. Contact one or both vessels
involved in the incident and offer
assistance.
C. Send out a distress message on
their behalf.
D. Inform the local coast radio
station of the incident and submit your name as a witness.
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9. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the
required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on
board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other
immediate steps should be taken?
A. Complete soundings of all compartments to
determine the number of compartments floode
Check the vessels stability limitations within its
statutory loadline requirements to determine if still
adequate.
B. Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in
stability due to the lost buoyancy, to determine if
the final residual positive stability is sufficient to
remain afloat.
C. Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final of
equilibrium. Ensure this is sufficient to remain afloat
D. Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at their
lifeboat stations.
10. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
A. Organise someone to assess the extent of
damage and the residual stability of the vessel.
B. Communicate with the other ship.
C. Determine is there is any evidence of pollution.
D. Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on
board
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11. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as
Master tell the Master on the other vessel?
A. Name; Port of registry; Port of
destination of your vessel.
B. Explain your actions prior to the
collision and request details of
actions taken by the other vessel
which resulted in the collision.
C. Ask if there is any assistance
required by the other vessel.
D. There should be no communication with the other vessel.
12. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a
navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the
scheme. What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any?
A. Use the Arpa for early
identification of all other ship
movements within the traffic lane
and give rogue vessel a wide berth
B. Take no actions but proceed with
extra caution.
C. Move out of the traffic lane
towards the coast.
D. Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts.
13. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall __________.

A. Turn off her sidelights when not making way
B. When operating in restricted visibility, sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged and one short blast
C. Show a day-shape of two diamonds in a vertical line
D. Keep out of the way of a vessel engaged in fishing
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14. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise restricted in its ability to
maneuver, sounds her fog signal at intervals of not __________.
A. More than one minute
B. More than two minutes
C. More than three minutes
D. Less than two minutes
15. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of another vessel
about 20° on your starboard bow. Risk of collision may exist. You should
__________.
A. Alter course to starboard to pass around the other vessel
B. Reduce your speed to bare steerageway
C. Slow your engines and let the other vessel pass ahead of you
D. Alter course to port to pass the other vessel on its portside
16. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight?

A. One black ball
B. Two black balls
C. Three black balls
D. No signal
17. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight?

A. One black ball
B. Two black balls
D. No signal
18. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the bend because
of the height of the bank. You should __________.
A. Stop engines and navigate with caution
B. Stay in the middle of the channel
C. Sound passing signals to any other vessel that may be on the other side of
the bend
D. Sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duration
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DPKP
19. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor?
A. She may show an all-round white light where it can best be seen.
B. She must show all-round white lights forward and aft.
C. The showing of working lights is optional.
20. Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern exhibited in
sufficient time to prevent collision?
A. A 9-meter sailing vessel
B. A rowboat
C. A 6-meter motorboat
D. A small vessel fishing
21. Barges being towed at night __________.

A. Must be lighted at all times
B. Must be lighted only if manned
C. Must be lighted only if towed astern
D. Need not be lighted
22. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the red and green
sidelights. The required action to take would be to __________.
A. Carefully watch his compass bearing
B. Start a radar plot in order to ascertain his course
C. Alter your course to port
D. Alter your course to starboard
23. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in
succession. What is the meaning of this signal?
A. A vessel is in distress and needs assistance.
B. A vessel is fishing, hauling nets.
C. A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
D. A vessel is towing.
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DPKP
24. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at night?
A. A stern light only
B. Anchor lights only
C. A white light over a red light only
D. A white light over a red light and anchor lights
25. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern light only when
__________.
A. Anchored
B. Underway
C. Dead in the water
D. Underway and making way
26. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision?

A. When in sight of another vessel, any action taken must be accompanied by
sound signals.
B. The action taken must include changing the speed of the vessel.
C. The action must be positive and made in ample time.
D. All of the above
27. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that she is
also propelled by machinery if she shows __________.
A. A basket
B. A black ball
C. A black cone
D. Two black cones
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28. Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any way
disable Another vessel is approaching you on your starboard beam. Which
statement is TRUE?
A. The other vessel must give way since your vessel is stoppe
B. Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
C. You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel not under comman
D. You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver.
29. For identification purposes at night, U.S. Navy submarines on the surface may
display an intermittent flashing light of which color?
A. Amber (yellow)
B. White
C. Blue
D. Red
30. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional signals described in Annex II
to the Rules when they are __________.
A. Trolling
B. Fishing in a traffic separation zone
C. In a narrow channel
D. In close proximity to other vessels engaged in fishing
31. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than her identifying
lights?
A. A 55-meter vessel fishing
B. A 55-meter vessel trawling
C. A 100-meter vessel not under command
D. A 20-meter vessel engaged on pilotage duty
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32. While underway in a narrow channel, a vessel should stay __________.

A. In the middle of the channel
B. To the starboard side of the channel
C. To the port side of the channel
D. To the side of the channel that has the widest bends
33. Vessels of less than what length may not impede the passage of other vessels which
can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway?
A. 10 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 40 meters
34. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on a
__________.
A. Sailing vessel of 25 meters in length
B. 20-meter vessel engaged in fishing and making way
C. 25-meter power-driven vessel engaged in trolling
D. 6-meter vessel under oars
35. The lights required by the Rules must be shown __________.

A. From sunrise to sunset in restricted visibility
B. At all times
C. ONLY from sunset to sunrise
D. Whenever a look-out is posted
36. Which vessel may carry her sidelights and stern light in a combined lantern on the
mast?
A. An 18-meter sailing vessel
B. A 10-meter sailing vessel also being propelled by machinery
C. A 25-meter sailing vessel
D. All of the above
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DPKP
37. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may
be hidden by an obstruction shall __________.
A. Sound the danger signal
B. Sound a prolonged blast
C. Take all way off
D. Post a look-out
38. You are approaching a vessel dredging during the day and see two balls in a
vertical line on the port side of the dredge. These shapes mean that __________.
A. You should pass on the port side of the dredge
B. There is an obstruction on the port side of the dredge
C. The dredge is not under command
D. The dredge is moored
39. Which statement is TRUE concerning the light used to accompany whistle signals?
A. It is mandatory to use such a light.
B. The light shall have the same characteristics as a masthead light.
C. It is used to supplement short blasts of the whistle.
D. All of the above
40. Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute?
A. A power-driven vessel underway, not making way
C. A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor
D. A vessel aground
41. By day, you sight a vessel displaying three shapes in a vertical line. The top and
bottom shapes are balls, and the middle shape is a diamon It could be a
__________.
A. Vessel trolling
B. Mineclearing vessel
C. Trawler
D. Vessel engaged in replenishment at sea
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42. You are heading due east (090°) and observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port
beam. The vessel may be heading __________.
A. Northwest (315°)
B. North (000°)
C. Southeast (135°)
D. Southwest (225°)
43. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel?
A. Vessel engaged in fishing
B. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
C. Sailing vessel
D. Vessel towing
44. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after masthead lights when underway?
A. A 200-meter sailing vessel
B. A 50-meter power-driven vessel
C. A 100-meter vessel engaged in fishing
D. All of the above
45. As defined in the Rules, a towing light is a yellow light having the same
characteristics as a(n) __________.
A. Masthead light
B. All-round light
C. Sidelight
D. Stern light
46. A vessel underway and making way in fog shall sound every two minutes
__________.
A. One prolonged blast
C. One prolonged blast and three short blasts
D. Three distinct blasts
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DPKP
47. When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night, you must show __________.
A. One all-round white light
B. Two all-round white lights
C. One all-round white light and the stern ligh
D. One all-round white light and a flare up light
48. According to the Navigation Rules, all of the following are engaged in fishing
EXCEPT a vessel __________.
A. Setting nets
B. Trawling
C. Using a dredge net
D. Trolling
49. When a vessel sounds three short blasts on the whistle, this indicates that
__________.
A. Danger is ahead
B. Her engines are going astern
C. The vessel is not under command (broken down)
D. All other vessels should stand clear
50. A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many
degrees abaft the beam?
A. 0.0°
B. 11.25°
C. 22.5°
D. 45.0°
51. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
A. Whistle only
B. Bell only
C. Whistle and bell only
D. Whistle, bell, and gong
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52. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
A. Whistle only
B. Bell only
C. Whistle and bell only
D. Whistle, bell, and gong
53. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except __________.
A. In a crossing situation
B. In a meeting situation
C. When they are the overtaking vessel
D. On the inland waters of the U.S.
54. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision?

A. Risk of collision never exists if the compass bearing of the other vessel is
changing.
B. Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision.
C. Risk of collision must be determined before any action can be taken by a
vessel.
D. Risk of collision exists if the vessels will pass within half a mile of each
other.
55. You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical
line. The upper and lower lights are red and the middle light is white. Which
statement is TRUE?
A. You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.
B. The other vessel is responsible to keep out of your way.
C. The other vessel is at anchor.
D. The rule of special circumstances applies.
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56. Which vessel is to sound a fog signal of one prolonged followed by two short
blasts?
B. A sailing vessel, underway
C. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when carrying out her work at
anchor
D. All of the above
57. A vessel may exhibit lights other than those prescribed by the Rules as long as the
additional lights __________.
A. Do not interfere with the keeping of a proper look-out
B. Are not the color of either sidelight
C. Have a lesser range than the prescribed lights
D. All of the above
58. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed?
A. It must show a yellow light at each en
B. It will show red lights along its length.
C. A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow.
D. All of the above
59. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the water.
Which fog signal should you sound?
A. One prolonged blast every two minutes
B. Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
C. Three short blasts every two minutes
D. One prolonged and two short blasts every two minutes
60. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel __________.

A. With propelling machinery onboard whether in use or not
B. Making way against the current
C. With propelling machinery in use
D. Traveling at a speed greater than that of the current
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61. In which situation do the Rules require both vessels to change course?
A. Two power-driven vessels meeting head-on
B. Two power-driven vessels crossing when it is apparent to the stand-o
Vessel that the give-way vessel is not taking appropriate action
C. Two sailing vessels crossing with the wind on the same side
D. All of the above
62. A vessel towing where the tow prevents her from changing course shall carry
__________.
A. Only the lights for a vessel towing
B. Only the lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
C. The lights for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver
D. The lights for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel not under command
63. Which statement is TRUE concerning the danger signal?

A. May be sounded by the stand-on vessel only
B. Indicates that the vessel is in distress
C. Is used to indicate a course change
D. May be supplemented by an appropriate light signal
64. If a sailing vessel with the wind on the port side sees a sailing vessel to windward
and cannot tell whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or starboard side,
she shall __________.
A. Hold course and speed
B. Sound the danger signal
C. Keep out of the way of the other vessel
D. Turn to port and come into the wind
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65. Vessel "A" is on course 000°T. Vessel "B" is on a course such that she is involved
in a head-on situation and is bearing 355°T, 2 miles away from vessel "A". To
ensure a safe passing, vessel "A" should __________.
A. Maintain course
B. Alter course to port
C. Alter course to ensure a starboard to starboard passing
D. Maneuver to ensure a port to port passing
66. What is a vessel "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?

C. A vessel underway in fog
D. A vessel towing unable to deviate from her course
67. All of the following are distress signals under the Rules EXCEPT __________.
A. A green star signal
B. Orange-colored smoke
C. Red flares
D. The repeated raising and lowering of outstretched arms
68. The Rules state that vessels may depart from the Rules when __________.
A. There are no other vessels around
B. Operating in a narrow channel
C. The Master enters it in the ship's log
D. Necessary to avoid immediate danger
69. A vessel is towing and carrying the required lights on the masthea What is the
visibility arc of these lights?
A. 112.5°
B. 135.0°
C. 225.0°
D. 360.0°
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70. Which situation would be a "special circumstance" under the Rules?

A. Vessel at anchor
B. More than two vessels meeting
C. Speed in fog
D. Two vessels crossing
71. You are approaching another vessel on crossing courses. She is approximately half
a mile distant and is presently on your starboard bow. You believe she will cross
ahead of you. She then sounds a whistle signal of five short blasts. You should
__________.
A. Answer the signal and hold course and speed
B. Reduce speed slightly to make sure she will have room to pass
C. Make a large course change, accompanied by the appropriate whistle signal,
and slow down if necessary
D. Wait for another whistle signal from the other vessel
72. You are approaching another vessel and are not sure whether danger of collion
exists. You must assume __________.
A. There is risk of collision
B. You are the give way vessel
C. The other vessel is also in doubt
D. All of the above are correct.
73. Which vessel may use the danger signal?

A. The vessel to starboard when two power-driven vessels are crossing
B. A vessel engaged in fishing, crossing the course of a sailing vessel
C. Either of two power-driven vessels meeting head-on
D. All of the above
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74. What is the minimum sound signaling equipment required aboard a vessel 10
meters in length?
A. A bell only
B. A whistle only
C. A bell and a whistle
D. Any means of making an efficient sound signal
75. Which statement is TRUE regarding equipment for sound signals?

A. A vessel of less than 12 meters in length need not have any sound signaling
equipment.
B. Any vessel over 12 meters in length must be provided with a gong.
C. Manual sounding of the bell and gong must always be possible.
D. Automatic sounding of the signals is not permitte
76. Which statement concerning an overtaking situation is correct?

A. The overtaking vessel is the stand-on vessel.
B. Neither vessel is the stand-on vessel.
C. The overtaking vessel must maintain course and spee
D. The overtaking vessel must keep out of the way of the other.
77. The Rules state that a vessel overtaking another vessel is relieved of her duty to
keep clear when __________.
A. She is forward of the other vessel's beam
B. The overtaking situation becomes a crossing situation
C. She is past and clear of the other vessel
D. The other vessel is no longer in sight
78. Which statement is TRUE concerning fog signals?

A. All fog signals for sailing vessels are to be given at intervals of not more
than one minute.
B. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel towe
C. A pilot vessel underway and making way sounds the pilot identity signal
and no other signal.
D. A vessel aground may sound a whistle signal.
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79. Which day-shape would a vessel aground show during daylight?

A. One black ball
B. Two black balls
D. Four black balls
80. Which vessel must have a gong, or other equipment which will make the sound of a
gong?
A. A sailing vessel
B. Any vessel over 50 meters
C. Any vessel over 100 meters
D. A power-driven vessel over 75 meters
81. A sailing vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel and can safely navigate
ONLY inside the channel. The sailing vessel approaches a vessel engaged in
fishing. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The fishing vessel is directed not to impede the passage of the sailing vessel.
B. The sailing vessel must keep out of the way of the fishing vessel.
C. Each vessel should move to the edge of the channel on her port side.
D. Each vessel should be displaying signals for a vessel constrained by her
draft.
82. Day-shapes MUST be shown __________.

A. During daylight hours
B. During daylight hours except in restricted visibility
C. ONLY between 8 AM and 4 PM daily
D. Between sunset and sunrise
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83. Rule 14 describes the action to be taken by vessels meeting head-on. Which of the
following conditions must exist in order for this rule to apply?
A. Both vessels must be power-driven.
B. They must be meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses.
C. The situation must involve risk of collision.
D. All of the above
84. The stern light shall be positioned such that it will show from dead astern to how
many degrees on each side of the stern of the vessel?
A. 22.5°
B. 67.5°
C. 112.5°
D. 135.0°
85. A vessel aground at night is required to show two red lights in a vertical line as well
as __________.
A. Not under command lights
B. Restricted in her ability to maneuver lights
C. Anchor lights
D. Sidelights and a stern light
86. When towing more than one barge astern at night __________.
A. Only the last barge on the tow must be lighted
B. Only the first and the last barges in the tow must be lighted
C. Each barge in the tow must be lighted
D. Only manned barges must be lighted
87. Your vessel is aground in fog. In addition to the regular anchor signals, you will be
sounding __________.
A. Three strokes of the gong before and after the rapid ringing of the gong
B. A blast on the whistle
C. Three strokes of the bell before and after the rapid ringing of the bell
D. No additional signals
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DPKP
88. In a crossing situation, the vessel which has the other on her own starboard side
shall __________.
A. If the circumstances of the case admit, avoid crossing ahead of the other
B. Change course to port to keep out of the way
C. Reduce her speed
D. All of the above
89. You are on vessel "A" in DIAGRAM 32, and hear vessel "B" sound a signal
indicating her intention to overtake you. You feel it is not safe for vessel "B" to
overtake you at the present time. You should __________.
A. Sound five or more short rapid blasts
B. Sound two short blasts
C. Not answer the whistle signal from vessel "B"
D. Sound three blasts of the whistle
90. Which vessel sounds the same fog signal when underway or at anchor?
A. A sailing vessel
C. A vessel constrained by her draft
D. A vessel not under command
91. You are approaching a bend in a river where, due to the bank, you cannot see
around the other side. A vessel on the other side of the bend sounds one prolonged
blast. You should __________.
A. Sound passing signals
B. Not sound any signal until you sight the other vessel
C. Sound a prolonged blast
D. Sound the danger signal
92. Which vessel is "underway" according to the Rules?

A. A vessel made fast to a single point mooring buoy
B. A purse seiner hauling her nets
C. A pilot vessel at anchor
D. A vessel which has run aground
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DPKP
93. When two power-driven vessels are crossing, the vessel which has the other to
starboard must keep out of the way if __________.
A. She is the faster vessel
B. The situation involves risk of collision
C. The vessels will pass within half a mile of each other
D. Whistle signals have been sounded
94. Which signal may at some time be exhibited by a vessel trawling?

A. Two white lights in a vertical line
B. A white light over a red light in a vertical line
C. Two red lights in a vertical line
D. All of the above
95. Risk of collision is considered to exist if __________.

A. Four vessels are nearby
B. A vessel has a steady bearing at a constant range
C. There is any doubt that a risk of collision exists
D. A special circumstance situation is apparent
96. You are underway in low visibility and sounding fog signals. What changes would
you make in the fog signal immediately upon losing propulsion?
A. Begin sounding two prolonged blasts at two-minute intervals.
B. Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts at two-
minute intervals.
C. Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at two-
minute intervals.
D. No change should be made in the fog signal.
97. A power-driven vessel shows the same lights as a __________.

A. Vessel engaged in towing, when not underway
B. Vessel towing astern
C. Sailing vessel
D. Pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed, when they are rigidly connected
in a composite unit
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DPKP
98. Which vessel shall NOT show her sidelights?

A. A fishing vessel that is not making way
B. A sailing vessel which is becalmed
C. A vessel engaged in underwater operations
D. A vessel that is not under command making way
99. A vessel is overtaking when she can see which light(s) of a vessel ahead?
A. Only the stern light of the vessel
B. One sidelight and a masthead light of the vessel
C. Only a sidelight of the vessel
D. The masthead lights of the vessel
100. Which statement about the Navigation Rules is TRUE?

A. The rules require vessels to comply with Traffic Separation Scheme
regulations.
B. The rules use the term "safe spee"
C. The Rules permit a stand-on vessel to take action prior to being in extremis.
D. All of the above are correct.
101. A "short blast" on the whistle has a duration of __________.

A. 1 second
B. 4 to 6 seconds
C. 8 to 12 seconds
D. 12 to 15 seconds
102. As defined in the Rules, the term "vessel" includes __________.

A. Seaplanes
B. Nondisplacement craft
C. Barges
D. All of the above
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DPKP
103. A vessel shall slacken her speed, stop, or reverse her engines, if necessary, to
__________.
A. Avoid collision
B. Allow more time to assess the situation
C. Be stopped in an appropriate distance
D. All of the above
104. An anchor ball need NOT be exhibited by an anchored vessel if she is __________.
A. Under 50 meters in length, and anchored in an anchorage
B. Over 150 meters in length
C. Rigged for sail
D. Less than 7 meters in length, and not in or near an area where other vessels
normally navigate
105. A vessel that is not equipped with towing lights should show that it has a vessel in
tow by_________________.
A. Continuously sounding its horn
B. Sounding one prolonged followed by two short blasts at intervals of not
more than two minutes
C. Shining a searchlight on the towline of the towed vessel
D. None of the above; a vessel shall not engage in towing at night without
proper navigation lights
106. While underway at night you are coming up on a vessel from astern. What lights
would you expect to see?
A. Red and green sidelights
B. Two white lights
C. One white light and red and green sidelights
D. One white light
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DPKP
107. What describes a head-on situation?

A. Seeing one red light of a vessel directly ahead
B. Seeing two forward white towing lights in a vertical line on a towing vessel
directly ahead
C. Seeing both sidelights of a vessel directly off your starboard beam
D. Seeing both sidelights of a vessel directly ahead
108. A vessel anchored in fog may warn an approaching vessel by sounding

__________.
A. The whistle continuously
B. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast of the whistle
C. Five or more short and rapid blasts of the whistle
D. Three distinct strokes on the bell before and after sounding the anchor signal
109. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the
whistle. You should __________.
A. Sound two blasts and change course to the left
B. Sound whistle signals only if you change course
C. Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted
D. Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted
110. You are operating in restricted visibility and hear a signal of a rapidly ringing bell
followed by the rapid sounding of a gong. It could be a __________.
A. 30-meter sail vessel at anchor
B. 150-meter power-driven vessel aground
C. Vessel in distress
D. 300-meter power-driven vessel at anchor
111. A vessel being towed, if manned, shall sound a fog signal of __________.
A. Two short blasts
B. Three short blasts
C. One prolonged and two short blasts
D. One prolonged and three short blasts
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A. Only anchor in the separation zone
B. Cross a traffic lane at as small an angle as possible
C. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
D. Utilize the separation zone for navigating through the scheme if she is
impeding other traffic due to her slower speed
113. A proper look-out shall be maintained __________.

A. Only at night
B. Only during restricted visibility
C. At night and during restricted visibility
D. At all times
114. Risk of collision may be deemed to exist __________.

A. If the compass bearing of an approaching vessel does NOT appreciably
change
B. Even when an appreciable bearing change is evident, particularly when
approaching a vessel at close range
C. If you observe both sidelights of a vessel ahead for an extended period of
time
D. All of the above
115. The Rules state that certain factors are to be taken into account when determining
safe spee Those factors include __________.
A. State of wind, sea, and current, and the proximity of navigational hazards
B. Maximum attainable speed of your vessel
C. Temperature
D. Aids to navigation that are available
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116. Which vessel, when anchored at night, would NOT be required to show anchor
lights?
A. A power-driven vessel
B. A vessel on pilotage duty
C. A vessel dredging
D. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
117. A vessel not under command shall display __________.

A. Two red lights at night and two black balls during daylight
B. Two red lights at night and three black balls during daylight
C. Three red lights at night and two black balls during daylight
D. Three red lights at night and three black balls during daylight
118. A vessel engaged in fishing while at anchor shall sound a fog signal of
__________.
A. One prolonged and two short blasts at two-minute intervals
B. One prolonged and three short blasts at two-minute intervals
C. A rapid ringing of the bell for five seconds at one-minute intervals
D. A sounding of the bell and gong at one-minute intervals
119. Underway at night you see the red sidelight of a vessel well off your port bow.
Which statement is TRUE?
A. You are required to alter course to the right.
B. You must stop engines.
C. You are on a collision course with the other vessel.
D. You may maintain course and spee
120. Which vessel would sound a fog signal consisting of the ringing of a bell for 5
seconds?
A. A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor
B. A vessel restricted in its ability to maneuver, at anchor
C. A sailing vessel, at anchor
D. A sailing vessel becalmed
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121. A vessel towing a barge astern would show, at the stern __________.
A. Only a stern light
B. A towing light above the stern light
C. Two towing lights in a vertical line
D. Two white lights in a vertical line
122. A fog signal consisting of one prolonged blast followed by four short blasts would
indicate the presence of a __________.
A. Vessel being towed
B. Fishing vessel engaged in trawling
C. Vessel at anchor warning of her location
D. Power-driven pilot vessel on station underway
123. In addition to sidelights what light should a vessel being towed astern show?
A. A stern light
B. A masthead light
C. Not under command lights
D. Range lights
124. A pilot vessel may continue to sound an identity signal if she is __________.
A. Aground
B. At anchor
C. Not under command
D. Being towed
125. When two power-driven vessels are meeting head-on and there is a risk of collision,
each shall __________.
A. Stop her engines
B. Alter course to starboard
C. Sound the danger signal
D. Back down
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126. A power driven vessel when towing and the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters
shall exhibit during daylight hours where they can best be seen which of the
following shapes?
A. A diamond shape
B. Two cones, apexes together
C. A black ball
D. One cone, apex upward
127. What is the minimum length of vessels required to show two anchor lights?
A. 40 meters
B. 50 meters
C. 60 meters
D. 70 meters
128. A vessel showing a rigid replica of the International Code flag "A" is engaged in
__________.
A. Diving operations
B. Dredging
C. Fishing
D. Mineclearance operations
129. In determining "safe speed", all of the following must be taken into account
EXCEPT the __________.
A. Maximum horsepower of your vessel
B. Presence of background lights at night
C. Draft of your vessel
D. Maneuverability of your vessel
130. You are aboard the give-way vessel in a crossing situation. What should you NOT
do in obeying the Rules?
A. Cross ahead of the stand-on vessel
B. Make a large course change to starboard
C. Slow your vessel
D. Back your vessel
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131. A vessel, which does not normally engage in towing operations, is towing a vessel
in distress. She __________.
A. Need not show the lights for a vessel engaged in towing, if it is impractical
to do so
B. May show the lights for a vessel not under command
C. Must show a yellow light above the stern light
D. Must show the lights for a vessel towing
132. An all-round flashing yellow light may be exhibited by a(n) __________.

A. Vessel laying cable
B. Vessel towing a submerged object
C. Vessel not under command
D. Air cushion vessel
133. Working lights shall be used to illuminate the decks of a vessel __________.
A. Over 100 meters at anchor
B. Not under command
D. Any of the above
134. Which vessel may show identifying lights when not actually engaged in her
occupation?
A. A fishing vessel
B. A pilot vessel
C. A mineclearance vessel
135. A pilot vessel may continue to sound an identity signal if she is __________.
A. Underway, but not making way
B. Aground
C. Being towed
D. Not engaged in pilotage duty
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136. If your vessel is the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation __________.

A. You must keep your course and speed
B. You may change course and speed as the other vessel must keep clear
C. The other vessel must keep her course and speed
D. Both vessels must keep their course and speed
137. A vessel proceeding along a narrow channel shall __________.

A. Avoid crossing the channel at right angles
B. Not overtake any vessels within the channel
C. Keep as near as safe and practicable to the limit of the channel on her
starboard side
D. When nearing a bend in the channel, sound a long blast of the whistle
138. Which vessel would exhibit sidelights when underway and not making way?
A. A vessel towing astern
B. A vessel trawling
C. A vessel not under command
D. A vessel engaged in dredging operations
139. Which vessel is NOT to impede the passage of a vessel which can only navigate
safely within a narrow channel?
A. Any vessel less than 20 meters in length
B. Any sailing vessel
C. A vessel engaged in fishing
D. All of the above
140. A tug is towing three manned barges in line in fog. The second vessel of the tow
should sound __________.
A. No fog signal
B. One short blast
C. One prolonged and three short blasts
D. One prolonged and two short blasts
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141. The steering and sailing rules for vessels in restricted visibility apply to vessels
__________.
A. In sight of one another in fog
B. Navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility
C. Only if they are showing special purpose lights
D. Only if they have operational radar
142. The Navigation Rules state that a vessel shall be operated at a safe speed at all
times so that she can be stopped within __________.
A. The distance of visibility
B. 1/2 the distance of visibility
C. A distance appropriate to the existing circumstances and conditions
D. The distance that it would require for the propeller to go from full ahead to
full astern
143. A towing vessel 35 meters in length, with a tow 100 meters astern, must show a
minimum of how many masthead lights?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
144. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & INLAND What must be TRUE in order for a stand-
on vessel to take action to avoid collision by her maneuver alone?
A. She must be in sight of the give-way vessel.
B. There must be risk of collision.
C. She must determine that the give-way vessel is not taking appropriate
action.
D. All of the above
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145. A vessel being towed astern, where the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, will
exhibit __________.
A. Two balls in a vertical line
B. A diamond shape where it can best be seen
C. A ball on each end of the tow
D. No day-shape
146. For a stand-on vessel to take action to avoid collision she shall, if possible, NOT
__________.
A. Decrease speed
B. Increase speed
C. Turn to port for a vessel on her port side
D. Turn to starboard for a vessel on her port side
A. Reduce speed to bare steerageway
B. Stop your engines
D. All of the above
148. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a tugboat. Which statement is TRUE
concerning lights on the barges?
A. Each vessel should show sidelights.
B. Each vessel should show at least one white light.
C. The barges should be lighted as separate units.
D. The barges should be lighted as one vessel.
149. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a tugboat. Which statement is TRUE
concerning lights on the barges?
A. Each vessel should show sidelights.
B. Each vessel should show at least one white light.
C. The barges should be lighted as separate units.
D. The barges should be lighted as one vessel.
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150. The Rules state that a seaplane shall __________.

A. Not be regarded as a vessel
B. In general, keep well clear of all vessels
C. Proceed at a slower speed than surrounding vessels
D. When making way, show the lights for a vessel not under command
151. If practical, when shall a manned vessel being towed sound her fog signal?
A. Immediately before the towing vessel sounds hers
B. Immediately after the towing vessel sounds hers
C. As close to the mid-cycle of the towing vessel's signals as possible
D. At any time as long as the interval is correct
152. Your tug is underway at night and NOT towing. What light(s) should your vessel
show aft to other vessels coming up from astern?
A. One white light
B. Two white lights
C. One white light and one yellow light
D. One white light and two yellow lights
153. A vessel conducting mineclearing operations will show __________.

A. Three balls in a vertical line
B. Two balls in a vertical line
C. One ball near the foremast and one ball at each fore yard
D. One diamond near the foremast head and one ball at each fore yard
154. A vessel sailing shall keep out of the way of all of the following vessels except a
vessel __________.
A. Not under command
B. Engaged on pilotage duty
C. Restricted in her ability to maneuver
D. Engaged in fishing
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155. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel under oars?

A. She must show a stern light.
B. She is allowed to show the same lights as a sailing vessel.
C. She must show a fixed all-round white light.
D. She must show a day-shape of a black cone.
156. A power-driven vessel is underway and fishing with trolling lines. This vessel
__________.
A. Must keep out of the way of sailing vessels
B. Must sound a one prolonged, two short blasts signal in restricted visibility
C. Is the stand-on vessel when overtaking power-driven vessels
D. All of the above
157. At night you sight a vessel displaying a single green light. This is a __________.
A. Vessel at anchor
B. Small motorboat underway
C. Vessel drifting
D. Sailing vessel
158. When two power-driven vessels are crossing, which vessel is the stand-on vessel?
A. The vessel which is to starboard of the other vessel
B. The vessel which is to port of the other vessel
C. The larger vessel
D. The vessel that sounds the first whistle signal
159. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after white masthead lights when making
way?
A. A 75-meter vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
B. A 100-meter sailing vessel
C. A 150-meter vessel engaged in fishing
D. A 45-meter vessel engaged in towing
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160. By radar alone, you detect a vessel ahead on a collision course, about 3 miles
distant. Your radar plot shows this to be a meeting situation. You should
__________.
A. Turn to port
B. Turn to starboard
C. Maintain course and speed and sound the danger signal
D. Maintain course and speed and sound no signal
161. A sailing vessel underway at night may show __________.

A. A red light over a green light at the masthead
B. A green light over a red light at the masthead
C. Two white lights in a vertical line at the stern
D. An all-round white light at the bow
162. A vessel engaged in trawling will show identification lights of __________.

A. A red light over a white light
B. A white light over a red light
C. A green light over a white light
D. Two red lights in a vertical line
163. What is required of a vessel navigating near an area of restricted visibility?

A. A power-driven vessel shall have her engines ready for immediate
maneuver.
B. She must sound appropriate sound signals.
C. If she detects another vessel by radar, she shall determine if risk of collision
exists.
D. All of the above
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10. Olah gerak dan penanganan kapal dalam segala kondisi.

(Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions)
1. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water,
having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer
may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged
behind the vessel continues to move
forward and cause a strong turning
moment on the stern of the vessel
B. The hydrodynamic interaction
effects from the banks of the
shallow water channel acts on the
stern causing the vessel to sheer
strongly
C. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning
moment and results in the ship swinging towards the bank.
D. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the
vessel stops any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.
2. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little
wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the
tugs and at which position?
A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast
in case the vessel's movement towards
the berth requires reducing by the tug
pulling off.
B. Made fast Forward and Aft using the
centre leads.
C. Pushing on ship's side, but not made
fast to allow the tug to move to another position if needed
D. One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.
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3. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship
in maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
B. Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahea
C. Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require
D. Pushing alongside
4. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow

water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water.
If the speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of
"Squat"
A. The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter
of its original value
B. The squat effect will also be halve
C. There will be a significant change in the
reduction of underkeel clearance, but the
amount varies from ship to ship
D. There will be very little change to the effects of Squat.
5. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead
throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a
complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any
difference in the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
A. No, the diameter of the turning
circle would be almost the same.
B. Yes, it would be a much smaller
turning circle at half ahead
C. Yes, it will be much larger turning
circle at half ahea
D. Yes, there would be a change of
shape of the turning circle; it would
have an increase in the transfer, but not the advance.
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6. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by
the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5
knots it will be expected that there will be a
reduced pull exerted by the tug
B. No, when the speed of the ship is
increasing, the bollard pull exerted by the
tug will also be increasing
C. Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the same at any
speed of the ship
D. Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard pull would be
expected to be at its greatest.
7. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at
the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current
exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the
approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
B. Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes
C. 25 tonnes
D. 75 tonnes
8. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons
creating the effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity
and a decrease of water pressure around
the ship's hull
B. There is a decrease in the water velocity
and an increased of water pressure
around the ship's hull
C. There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea-bed
D. There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the
ships motion.
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9. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely
round the bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully
monitored, some port rudder may be
required to start the swing, though
starboard rudder may be required to
balance any bank rejection.
B. The wheel should be put hard over to
port to keep the ship in the middle of the
channel and the heading carefully
monitore
C. A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and
the engines should be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre.
The heading should be continually monitored
D. The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to
interaction and rejection by the river bank
10. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power
requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing
the heading? Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional
propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward
tug than on the after tug while
monitoring the gyro heading
B. Much greater power on the aft tug
than on the forward tug while
monitoring the gyro heading.
C. Equal power required by both tugs,
but monitor the gyro heading to
ensure sideward movement only
D. It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this
circumstance and it could only be found by observation.
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11. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to
maintain the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while
B. Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while
C. Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
D. Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but
continuously monitor the ship's gyro heading
12. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double
banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods.
Select which answer is considered the most successful metho
A. When both vessels are underway,
fig. 1
B. When the larger vessel is at anchor,
fig. 2
C. When the smaller vessel is at
anchor, fig. 3
D. When the larger vessel is stopped
and drifting in the water, fig. 4
13. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which
of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still
close to the vessel?
A. Williamson Turn
B. Scharnow Turn
C. Direct Turn
D. Evinrude Turn
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14. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be
decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the
most dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be
found?
A. The most dangerous position is where the tug
approaches the bow rounding the forward
shoulder of the larger vessel.
B. The most dangerous position is when the tug
is alongside the amidships section of the
larger vessel.
C. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the
larger vessel and enters into its associated positive pressure fiel
D. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing
spring and is then moving ahead of the larger vessel.
15. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If
the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the
engines are stopped, how much lift force remains?
A. About 20 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. About 5 %
16. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much
"lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. There will be lift force remaining
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17. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce
to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately
summarizes the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
B. A further reduction of underkeel
clearance and possible changes of
the ship's trim
C. A reduced ability to stop the vessel
and maintain steerage
D. Touching the bottom if there is any
swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of the vessel
18. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly
increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving
it off the jetty?
A. The force will be Quadrupled
B. The force will be Tripled
C. The force will be Doubled
D. The force will be Quintupled
19. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion
to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be
considered to be located?
A. At a position outside the hull of the
ship itself
B. At a position aft of amidships
C. At a position on the centreline,
about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of
the bow.
D. At a position in the vicinity of the
ship's centre of gravity
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20. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?

A. A rudder with part of the rudder
area forward of the turning axis,
therefore reducing the load on the
steering motor.
B. A rudder with equal rudder area
forward and aft of the turning axis,
the turning axis being at the
geometrical centre of the rudder
area
C. A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts
of thrust to the rudder
D. A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the
rudder efficiency
21. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
A. The position of the tug relative to the ship's
pivot point
B. The experience of the tug crew.
C. The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's
towing spring
D. The length of the towing spring
22. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally
unstable"?
A. The ship requires continual application of the
rudder to maintain a steady course.
B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will
continue on a straight course
C. The ship will only require small amounts of helm
to maintain its course when steaming in a heavy seaway
D. The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some
specific courses
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23. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force.
When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the
rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?
A. About 80 %
B. About 10 %.
C. About 30 %
D. About 50 %
24. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as
"Squat". Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of
squat on the vessel?
A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's
underkeel clearance and a possible change of
trim.
B. There will be an increase in the vessels
draught while moving through the water
C. There will be a change of draught and a
reduction in the spee
D. If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there
will be no effect due to Squat.
25. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow?
A. Wire from a deep sea tug connected to
the ship's anchor chain.
B. Wire from a deep sea tug through the
forward centre lead of the ship and made
fast onto several mooring bits on the
forecastle
C. Wire from a deep sea tug made fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's
leeward side
D. Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and
made fast on the nearest mooring bits forwar
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26. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to
maintain during this operation?
A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
B. It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting
C. A tug may be connected at any convenient speed
D. The speed should be more than 7 knots
27. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the
stern and the rudder post
B. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
C. Amidships
D. Between amidships and 1/4 of the vessel's
length from the bow
28. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
B. 1/4 of vessel's length from the stern
C. Amidships
D. Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead
29. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through
narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing
steering power?
A. The tug made fast on a line through the
centre lead astern. (figure 4).
B. Tug running free alongside, ready to be
made fast (figure 2)
C. Tug made fast forward on either shoulder,
ready to push (figure 3)
D. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)
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30. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre
of the ship
B. Because the turning moment is created by
the rudder, which is positioned at the stern
of the vessel
C. The ship moves laterally because it always
tries to continue in a straight line.
D. The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels
hull.
31. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be
suitable for berthing the vessel?
A. The approach speed is too fast.
B. The approach speed is essential to
maintain steerage when coming alongside
C. The speed requirements are decided by
the pilot and should not be the concern of
the OOW.
D. The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.
32. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller
and no thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it
comes alongside?
A. Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on
deck
B. Reduce speed by going astern on the engines.
C. Let go port anchor to about 1 shackles on
deck
D. Full starboard rudder and stop engines
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33. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy
weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve
the strain you could __________.
A. Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel
B. Reduce speed
C. Take a course which most eases the vessel
D. All of the above
34. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?
A. A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines.
B. A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further.
C. A light vessel will be more affected by the win
D. A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.
35. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
A. If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all ballast
overboar
B. Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar.
C. Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerge
D. All of the above
36. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when
__________.
A. Backing
B. Going slow ahead
C. Going full ahead
D. Turning
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37. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forwar How will the vessel lie when drifting
with no way on?
A. With the wind from ahead
B. With the wind off the port beam
C. With the wind off the starboard beam
D. With the wind from abaft the beam
38. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________.

A. Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course
B. Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off
course
C. Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing
them
D. Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course
39. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path
followed by the __________.
A. Bow
B. Bridge
C. Centerline
D. Center of gravity
40. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of
180° has been completed, is called the __________.
A. Advance
B. Pivoting point
C. Tactical diameter
D. Kick
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41. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern
sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?
A. Broaching
B. Fish tailing
C. Squatting
D. Parallel sinkage
42. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard
side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which step is NOT a part of a
Williamson Turn?
A. Step 1: Come right full rudder until the vessel heads 150°T.
B. Step 2: Stop the engines until clear of the man.
C. Step 3: Shift the helm to left full rudder.
D. Step 4: Continue with left rudder until on course 270°T.
43. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance
__________.
A. Gained in the direction of the original course
B. Gained at right angles to the original course
C. The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction
of the turn after the rudder is first put over
D. Around the circumference of the turning circle
44. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
A. Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye
from the second line directly over the first.
B. It makes no difference how the lines are place
C. Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the
other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar
D. Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the
same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.
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45. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the
rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the __________.
A. Advance
B. Drift angle
C. Pivoting point
D. Transfer
46. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
A. Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twin-
screw vessel
B. Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel
C. Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel
D. Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-
screw vessel
47. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled
parallel to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over
to any point on the turning circle is known as __________.
A. Advance
B. Head reach
D. Transfer
48. The distance gained in the direction of the original course when you are making a
turn is known as __________.
A. Advance
B. Drift
D. Transfer
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49. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the
radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are
as liste Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg
A. 40 yards
B. 140 yards
C. 190 yards
D. 230 yards
50. The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________.
A. Tipping center
B. Bow
C. Outermost part of the ship while making the circle
D. Center of gravity
51. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________.
A. At the hawsepipe
B. About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
C. About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow
D. Near the stern
52. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel?
A. It pulls the bow toward the bank.
B. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
C. It pulls the stern toward the bank.
D. It heels the vessel toward the bank.
53. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
A. Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is
now.
B. Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
C. Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho
D. Stop the swing of the ship.
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54. In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the
__________.
A. Difference between the vessel's speed through the water at any instant and
the new speed ordered on the telegraph
B. Distance the vessel has actually run through the water since a change of
speed was ordered
C. Distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being
stationary in the water
D. Speed at which a vessel should proceed to ensure that she will run a
predetermined distance, once her engines have been stopped
55. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm
weather, putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring
__________.
A. The bow in and the stern out
B. Both the bow and stern in
C. The bow out and the stern in
D. Both the bow and stern out
56. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has
no tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The
amount of chain you should pay out is __________.
A. 5 to 7 times the depth of the water
B. 1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
C. Equal to the depth of the water
D. You should NEVER use the anchor to help in docking
57. The helm command "meet her" means __________.

A. Use rudder to check the swing
B. Decrease the rudder angle which is on
C. Steer more carefully
D. Note the course and steady on that heading
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B. It heels the vessel toward the bank.
C. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
D. It pulls the stern toward the bank.
59. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake.
The ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called __________.
A. Propeller velocity
B. Speed of advance
C. Wake distribution
D. Wake fraction
60. The term "Shift the Rudder" means __________.

A. Put the rudder amidships
B. Use right or left rudder
C. Check, but do not stop the vessel from swinging
D. Change from right to left or left or right
61. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?

A. It has no effect on the steering of the vessel.
B. It has no effect on the rudder when the helm is amidships.
C. Its velocity is the same as that of the wake.
D. The propeller gives it a helical motion.
62. A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by __________.
A. Crew members using their arms
B. A boat hook
C. Fenders
D. No fending is necessary due to the rugged construction of most towing
vessels.
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63. The helm command "shift your rudder" means __________.

A. Double your rudder angle or go to full rudder
B. Bring your rudder amidships
C. Change from right rudder to left rudder, or vice versa, an equal number of
degrees
D. Check the swing of the vessel
64. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the
propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and
vibration. These voids are known as __________.
A. Advance
B. Cavitation
C. Edging
D. Slip
65. "Hard right rudder" means __________.

A. Put the rudder over to the right all the way
B. Jam the rudder against the stops
C. Meet a swing to the right, then return to amidships
D. Put the rudder over quickly to 15° right rudder
66. "Ease the rudder" means to __________.

A. Move the rudder slowly in the direction of the most recent rudder command
B. Bring the rudder amidships
C. Decrease the rudder angle
D. Steer the course which is your present heading
67. The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if
there is no slip, is called __________.
A. Advance
B. Head reach
C. Pitch
D. Transfer
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68. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left,
depending on rotation. This force is caused by __________.
A. Back current from the rudder
B. Greater pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on
rotation
C. Lower pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on
rotation
D. Torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges
upon the propeller blades
A. Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
B. Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is
now.
70. A vessel is equipped with a single right-handed screw. With rudder amidships and
calm wind, the vessel will most likely back __________.
A. Straight astern
B. To port
C. To starboard
D. In no particular direction
71. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has
__________.
A. Headway
B. Sternway
C. No way on, with engines stopped
D. No way on, with engines full ahead
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72. A towing vessel is tripped when __________.

A. It is overtaken by the tow
B. It is pulled sideways by the tow
C. The weight of the towing hawser causes loss of maneuverability
D. The propeller is fouled by the towing hawser
73. When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is __________.
A. At the bow
C. About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
D. Aft of the propellers
74. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is
put full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do?
A. It will swing to the left, and will swing left faster as the vessel loses way.
B. It will swing to the left, straighten out and then swing to the right as the
vessel loses way.
C. It will swing to the left without increasing or decreasing its swing.
D. The bow will swing to the right
75. You are maneuvering a vessel with a right-hand propeller. The rudder is amidships.
The vessel will generally back __________.
A. To port
B. To starboard
C. In a straight line directly astern
D. Downstream, the stern going in the direction of the current
76. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force
of the sea is known as __________.
A. Surge
B. Sway
C. Heave
D. Pitch
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77. The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________.
A. Course
B. Track
C. Heading
D. Course over the ground
78. Fetch is the __________.

A. Distance a wave travels between formation and decay
B. Stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
C. Time in seconds required for two crests to pass a given point
D. Measurement of a wave's steepness
79. On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the
__________.
A. Water depth exceeding 100 feet
B. Fetch
C. Wind's velocity
D. Duration of the wind
80. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the
proper side of the buoys, an operator should be cautious of __________.
A. Eddies under the bar
B. Swift current under the bar causing loss of control
C. Cross-currents pushing the tow away from the bar
D. Cross-currents pushing the tow into the bar
81. Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead?

A. One-third the length of the combined unit forward of the towboat
B. One-third the length of the combined unit back from the head
C. At the head of the towboat
D. One-half the length of the combined unit
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82. A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahea If the distance from
the stern of the towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate
location of the pivot point of the unit?
A. At the head of the tow
B. 250 feet from the head of the tow
C. 400 feet from the head of the tow
D. 600 feet from the head of the tow
83. You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing
ahead in the same direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close
alongside __________.
A. You will gain speed
B. Both boats will gain speed
C. The tows will tend to drift apart
D. The tows will tend to drift together
84. The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the
__________.
A. Course
B. Heading
C. Bearing
D. Course over the ground
85. The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for
your vessel is __________.
A. One flowing in the same direction as your course steered
B. One flowing in the opposite direction as your course steered
C. One that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered
D. A rotary current in which the direction of current flow constantly changes
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86. The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________.

A. The density of the water
B. The air temperature
C. The presence of a high pressure area near it
D. Underwater soil conditions
87. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly
current. Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
A. Head your vessel slightly to the right
B. Head your vessel slightly to the left
C. Decrease your speed
D. Increase your speed
88. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard
side". You should instinctively __________.
A. Give full left rudder
B. Give full right rudder
C. Put the rudder amidships
D. Throw a life ring to mark the spot
89. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE?

A. It provides lateral control without affecting headway.
B. It is fully effective at speeds up to about six knots.
C. It can be used to slow the ship in addition to backing down.
D. It will allow you to hold a position when the current is from astern.
90. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends
to __________.
A. Move aft
B. Move forward
C. Move lower
D. Remain stationary
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91. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed
by the __________.
A. Center of gravity
B. Bow
C. Bridge
D. Centerline
92. The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at
sea speed is __________.
A. Right at the bow
B. One-third the length of the vessel from the bow
C. One-half the length of the vessel from the bow
D. Two-thirds the length of the vessel from the bow
93. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy
weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve
the strain you could __________.
A. Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel
B. Reduce speed
C. Take a course which most eases the vessel
D. All of the above
94. The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full
astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________.
A. Advance
B. Head reach
C. Surge
D. Transfer
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95. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's
speed past its "critical speed"?
A. Squatting
B. Smelling the bottom
C. Sinkage
D. Bank cushion
96. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?
A. A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines.
B. A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further.
C. A light vessel will be more affected by the win
D. A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.
97. A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure
that the Pilot is taking sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the
Master do?
A. Nothing; the Pilot is required by law and is solely responsible for the safety
of the vessel.
B. State his concerns to the Pilot but do not interfere with the handling of the
vessel.
C. Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot.
D. Direct the Pilot to stop the vessel and anchor if necessary until the situation
clears.
98. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when
__________.
A. Backing
B. Going slow ahead
C. Going full ahead
D. Turning
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99. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________.

A. Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course
B. Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off
course
C. Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing
them
D. Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course
100. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of
180° has been completed, is called the __________.
A. Advance
B. Pivoting point
D. Kick
101. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern
sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?
A. Broaching
B. Fish tailing
C. Squatting
D. Parallel sinkage
102. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance
__________.
A. Around the circumference of the turning circle
C. Gained in the direction of the original course
D. Or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm
hard over
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103. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance
__________.
A. Gained in the direction of the original course
C. The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction
of the turn after the rudder is first put over
D. Around the circumference of the turning circle
104. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
A. Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye
from the second line directly over the first.
B. It makes no difference how the lines are place
C. Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the
other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar
D. Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the
same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.
105. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
A. Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twin-
screw vessel
B. Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel
C. Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel
D. Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-
screw vessel
106. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled
parallel to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over
to any point on the turning circle is known as __________.
A. Advance
B. Head reach
D. Transfer
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107. You are on a large merchant vessel entering a port. There is a Pilot on board and he
has the conn. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The Pilot is solely responsible for the safe maneuvering of the ship only if
he is required to be on board by law.
B. The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship and the Pilot is
employed for his local knowledge.
C. The Pilot is solely responsible for the internal working of the ship.
D. The Pilot becomes solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel
only if the Master relinquishes the conn.
108. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the
radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are
as liste Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg
A. 40 yards
B. 140 yards
C. 190 yards
D. 230 yards
109. While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary
responsibility of the watch officer?
A. Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if
necessary
B. Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly
executed
C. Record the bells and their times in the bell book
D. Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette
110. The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a
motionless tow is called __________.
A. Shaft horsepower
B. Delivered horsepower
C. Bollard pull
D. Towrope pull
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111. Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________.

A. Master should foresee any danger to the vessel on the present course
B. Vessel must be in extremis
C. Master should agree to sign a release of liability form
D. Master must first request the Pilot to take corrective action
112. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________.

A. At the hawsepipe
C. About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow
D. Near the stern
113. You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a
rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What
should you do?
A. Ask the Pilot if he relinquishes control.
B. Obey the Pilot.
C. Obey the Master.
D. Bring the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting
positions.
B. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
C. It pulls the stern toward the bank.
D. It heels the vessel toward the bank.
A. Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is
now.
B. Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
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11. Mengoperasikan alat kendali (remote control) penataan tenaga

pendorong serta sistem dan pelayanan permesinan.
(Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems
and services )
1. In a 4 cycle engine the in let value begins to open when the piston is on its....
A. Exhaust stroke.
B. Suction stroke.
C. Compression stroke.
D. Power stroke.
2. In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust value opens while the piston is on its...
A. Suction stroke
B. Exhaust stroke
C. Compression stroke
D. Power stroke
3. In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve is open for a period
of...
A. 200 degrees.
B. 190 degrees.
C. 180 degrees.
D. 250 degrees.
4. What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I.
Loss of power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive consumption of
lube oil.
A. 1.111 and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. 11.111 and IV
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5. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four stroke of the piston required to
complete one cycle Which must take place in regular order. The second stroke...
A. Compresses the air.

B. Is the power stroke.
C. Draws off air in the
cylinder.
D. Expels the burned gases. For
Number
6–9
6. If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the
thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change ?
A. They will remain the same
B. They will slightly increase (by `1 to 3 degrees C)
C. They will be a greatly increase (by 6 to 7 degrees C)
D. They will slightly decrease (by 1 to 3 degrees C)
7. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?

A. In series with the cylinders
B. In tandem with the cylinders
C. In parallel with the cylinders
D. In line with the cylinders
8. How is pump 'V" driven ?

A. By gears attached to the crankshaft
B. By a hydraulic motor
C. By an electric motor
D. By gravity
9. What is the component marked 'V" ?

A. The piston cooling pump
B. The lub oil pump
C. The sea water pump
D. The fresh water pump
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10. How is the set pressure (opening pressure) on the safety value of a diesel engine
adjusted ?
A. By adjusting the distance of the valve cone
B. By adjusting the lift height of the spindle
C. By adjusting the spring pressure
D. By fitting distance washers
11. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?
A. A two stroke crosshead type engine

B. A two stroke trunk type engine
C. A four stroke supercharged engine
D. A four stroke trunk type engine
12. What type of scavenge system is in use in this diesel engine ?
A. Combined scavenging
B. Loop scavenging
C. A uniflow scavenge system
D. Diverted scavenging
13. What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine ?
A. A radial inlet type

B. A constant pressure type
C. An impulse type
D. A dual entry type
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14. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?
A. A four stroke trunk type engine

B. A four stroke flanged type engine
C. A two stroke trunk type engine
D. A two stroke suspended engine
15. How do the inlet and the exhaust value pushrods and rocker arms moue on this type
of engine ?
A. Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster

B. Indirectly lifted by cam via tumbler lever
C. Hydraulically lifted by cam activated servo unit
D. Directly lifted by the cams acting on pushrods
16. In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard, during the taking of
crankshaft positions the rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the engine
crankshaft now shown ?
A. Between P and S
B. Between TS and TP
C. Between TP and P
D. Between S and TS
17. Which grade of fuel oil can be used in this kind of engine (built after 1990) ?
A. Marine diesel or distillate diesel oil

B. Any of these
C. Blend or intermediate fuel oil
D. Heavy fuel oil
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18. In a trunk type piston, the downward combustion pressure on the gudgeon pin is
composed of two forces. What are these forces ?
A. Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque
B. Side thrust force and linear force with the connecting rod
C. Side thrust and rotating motion
D. Exhaust pressure and rotational force
19. The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine is in the
number of:
A. Strokes in each combustion cycle.
B. Combustion events occurring in each stroke.
C. Piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution.
D. Piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.
20. Mat part shown in this diagram ?
A. A liner
B. A piston filter
C. A rod
D. A piston
21. The third stroke of four-stroke diesel engine is called the ...
A. Air stroke.
B. Power stroke.
C. Expansion stroke.
D. Compression stroke.
22. A diesel engine block is made of …... And does not permit welding.
A. Mild steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Cast iron
D. Tempered steel
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23. The best way to ensure engine speed governor stability is to allow a given ratio of
............
A. Stability.
B. Compensation.
C. Speed droop.
D. Sensitivity.
24. Which part of the mechanical governor is manipulated by the servo-motor to

increase or decrease engine speed ?
A. The dashpot
B. The linkage to the fuel rack
C. The sensitivity band
D. He compensating spring
25. In a 4 cycle supercharged diesel engine the exhaust value is open in the cycle for a
period of........
A. 280 degree.
B. 200 degree.
C. 230 degree.
D. 220 degree.
26. What do you call the instrument that measures the concentric position of the
crankshaft or rotor Shaft in its bearing ?
A. A Shafting gauge
B. A Bridge gauge
C. A Spirit level gauge
D. A Dial gauge
27. The narrow band of speed variation through which the governor makes no
correction and refers to the sensitivity of the governor is known as the
A. Dead band
B. Speed droop
C. Isochronous band
D. Sensitive band
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28. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lubrication oil system to remove metallic
particles ?
A. A Fuller's earth strainer
B. A Simplex strainer
C. A Metal edge strainer
D. A Magnetic basket strainer
29. If this auxiliary diesel increases its output, say by 30 %, what will the readings of
all the Thermometers on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger show ?
A. They will slightly increase (1 to 3 degrees C).
B. They will slightly decrease (1 to 3 degrees C).
C. They will remain the same.
D. There will greatly increase (6 to 7 degrees C).
30. A lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number would normally be used in
which of the following situations?
A. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range.
B. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range.
C. When the machinery operates at a very high temperature.
D. When the machinery operates at a high load.
31. The Base Number of a lubricating oil is an indication of which of the following?
A. The alkalinity of the oil.
B. The Flash Point of the oil.
C. Amount of contaminants in the lubricating oil.
D. The viscosity of the oil.
32. The diagram shows a the symbol for a component from a hydraulic circuit. What
component does it represent?
A. A directional control valve.
B. A throttle valve.
C. A pressure relief valve.
D. A check valve.
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33. There are two basic types of turbocharging systems used for supplying combustion
air to marine diesel engines: constant pressure and pulse. What is the main
difference between these two types of system?
A. A constant pressure system has a larger volume exhaust gas receiver.
B. A constant pressure system has a smaller volume exhaust gas receiver.
C. A constant pressure system has the exhaust pipes from small groups of
cylinders brought together and led directly to a turbocharger.
D. A constant pressure system has a pressure controller fitted to the exhaust gas
receiver to maintain the exhaust pressure.
34. What is meant by the term "two stage air compressor" ?

A. A compressor in which the compressed air from the first stage is further
compressed in the second stage before being delivered to the air receiver.
B. A compressor in which the air is delivered to two separate air receivers each
at different pressures.
C. A two cylinder compressor in which half of the air is compressed in one
cylinder and half in the other.
D. A set of two compressors. The first compressor delivers low pressure air to
an air receiver. The second further compresses the air for delivery to the
working range.
35. What is the main effect on lubricating oil of operating for long periods at
excessively high temperature?
A. It will cause the oil to oxidise, increasing the viscosity.
B. It will cause the oil to oxidise, reducing the viscosity.
C. It will cause the oil to evaporate, increasing consumption.
D. It will change the flashpoint of the oil.
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36. What is the main reson for keeping engine lubricating oil viscosity within
recommended limits?
A. To ensure the strength of the oil film is sufficient to keep lubricated surfaces
apart.
B. To reduce system pressure losses.
C. To neutralise any acids that may form.
D. It is not important
37. What would be the typical flash point of the lubricating oil in the main lubricating
system of a diesel engine?
A. 200-240 deg C
B. 140-180 deg C
C. Below 140 deg C
D. Above 240 deg C
38. When referring to onboard oil treatments using a centrifuge, what is meant by the
term purification?
A. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and the removal
of solids in the same process.
B. Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid during the process.
C. Separation of one insoluble liquid from another.
D. It is a general term applied to a process for cleaning oil using a centrifuge.
39. Which factor influences the pumping capacity (flow) of a centrifugal pump the
most?
A. Total pressure head
B. Liquid temperature
C. Suction pressure
D. Liquid density
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40. Which of the following changes would occur when the temperature of lubricating
oil is reduced?
A. Viscosity would increase.
B. Flash point would increase.
C. Concentration of contaminants would increase.
D. Pour point would reduce.
41. Which of the following fluids usually has the lowest density at normal ambient
temperatures?
A. Lubricating oil.
B. Heavy fuel oil.
C. Sea water.
D. Marine diesel oil.
42. Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in an oil fired
steam boiler?
A. Forced convection.
B. Natural convection.
C. Conduction.
D. Radiation.
43. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?

A. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
B. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers.
C. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder cover.
D. The piston always has a short skirt.
44. Which term is used to refer to the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature
of one kilogram of any particular substance by one degree Celsius?
A. Specific heat or specific heat capacity.
B. Latent heat
C. Coefficient of thermal expansion.
D. Adiabatic heat
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45. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater cooling
systems? Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater
cooling systems?
A. To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system.
B. To prevent scale formation in the system.
C. To prevent fouling of the system.
D. To prevent marine growth in the system
46. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be 50
ppm. What action should be taken if any?
A. No action is necessary.
B. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of treatment chemicals.
D. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before filling with fresh feed
water.
47. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double
shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve. What
is the main function of the non-return valve?
A. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out through
the feed line if the feed line fractures or a joint in the line blows.
B. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is shut
and the boiler is steaming.
C. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump..
D. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.
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48. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most
accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers.
A. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain less water than
fire tube boilers. They are prone to major damage when run dry during
operation.
B. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam
pressure.
C. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water
when the burner is operating.
D. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater line.
49. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
A. Every day.
B. Every week.
C. Every hour.
D. Every hour.
50. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm.
What action should be taken?
A. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage.
B. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Increase feed water temperature.
D. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.
51. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most
beneficial?
A. When the boiler is firing on high rate.
B. When the boiler burner is off.
C. When the boiler is firing on low rate.
D. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.
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52. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a ph value of less than 9?
A. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the ph value is
back within normal range.
B. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good feedwater.
C. No action is required.
D. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the ph is back
within normal range.
53. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the ph-value in the
boiler water is slightly over 11.5?
A. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water treatment
chemicals.
B. No action is required this is the normal level.
C. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment
chemicals.
D. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute the contents.
54. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler water?
A. Conductivity test.
B. Alkalinity test.
C. Chloride test.
D. Ph test
55. What is the correct range for the ph-value for the water in an oil fired steam boiler?
A. 9 - 11.
B. 4.5 - 7.
C. Below 4.5
D. 7 – 9
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56. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
A. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of
overheating.
B. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler.
C. It increases scale deposits in the boiler.
D. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator from
seeing the water level.
57. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
A. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water.
B. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment.
C. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water.
D. To act as the primary feed heater.
58. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam
boiler?
A. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam
pressure or when the boiler is not on-line.
B. To remove air from the superheater.
C. To remove water from the superheater.
D. To control the superheater pressure during operation.
59. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based compounds
present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out?
A. It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the boiler.
B. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in the boiler.
C. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler.
D. No negative effects are likely.
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60. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
A. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on the surface of the
water in the boiler steam drum.
B. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feed-water
C. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may collect in the bottom of the
boiler water drum.
D. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.
61. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
A. To heat the feed-water
B. To desuperheat the steam
C. To heat the fuel oil
D. To heat the combustion air.
62. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
A. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other fittings
from overheating.
B. To give added strength to the furnace.
C. To support the steam drum.
D. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.
63. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit of
oil or gas fired steam boilers?
A. To check that the flame is present during start up or normal operation of the
burner; if not then fuel is shut off automatically.
B. To check the colour of the flame.
C. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler.
D. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.
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64. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water
tests?
A. At room temperature.
B. As hot as possible.
C. It makes no difference.
D. At less than room temperature.
65. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing
condensate to build up in the heat exchanger?
A. Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
B. An increase in fuel oil temperature.
C. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger.
D. Low water level in the boiler.
66. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
A. From the boiler water space.
B. From the boiler steam space.
C. From the boiler feed system.
D. From the blowdown line.
67. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kw and kvar loading are
respectively transferred by the following controls:
A. Speed governor and voltage regulator
B. Current regulator and voltage regulator
C. Voltage regulator and synchroscope
D. Speed governor and load power factor
68. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator operating in
parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output:
A. Reactive load (kvar)
B. Active load (kw)
C. Frequency
D. None of the mentioned alternatives
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69. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the automatic
voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short circuited or
disconnected in order to:
A. Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester
B. Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from being damaged
C. Prevent charging of capacitive components within the automatic voltage
regulator causing false regulation when generator restarts
D. Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator during insulation testing
70. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kw rated generator has not been in operation for several
weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The minimum
acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator winding to allow you to
proceed with running the generator is:
a. 1 000 000 Ohms
b. 10 Ohms
c. 1000 Ohms
d. 10 000 Ohms
71. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal e.m.f.
Generated in the phase windings of an a.c. Generator is controlled by:
A. The diesel speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
72. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to
check:
A. Its readiness to perform as specified.
B. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-drills.
C. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics.
D. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's recommendations.
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73. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to the same
supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are
respectively adjusted by:
A. AVR and speed governor
B. Voltmeter and frequency meter
C. Speed governor and load power factor controller
D. Synchroscope and speed governor
74. The internal e.m.f. Generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c.
Generator is controlled by:
A. The prime mover speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The prime mover and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
75. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:

A. Voltmeter and synchroscope
B. Kw meter and frequency meter
C. Amp-meter and volt-meter
D. Synchroscope and kvar-meter
76. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an

emergencygenerator?
A. Steering gear and engine room alarm system
B. Engine room lighting and bow thruster
C. Galley and air conditioning
D. Sound powered telephone system
77. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The first
step is to:
A. Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
B. Make sure the load is evenly shared
C. Trip the main circuit breaker
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D. Increase the frequency on the switchboard

78. What is the meaning of “H.S. PUMPS” ?
A. Hele-Shaw pumps
B. Higgins-Simpson pumps
C. Hydraulic solenoid pumps
D. Hydrostatic solenoid pumps
79. What is the function of the values “PR” fitted between the two after and the two
forward cylinders ?
A. To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped

B. To be opened to allow emergency steering.
C. To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage
D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump
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80. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ?
A. As soon as the electric motor is started

B. As soon as point “Z” moves
C. As soon as the telemotor pump is started
D. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge
81. What is part No 3 ?
A. The rudder
B. The poop
C. The transom
D. The stern
82. What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened ?
A. The main engine shaft

B. The intermediate shaft
C. The tail shaft
D. The stern shaft
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83. How is the propeller fitted on the drive shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ?
A. It is locked into slots on the drive shaft

B. It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft
C. A key is fitted between propeller and drive shaft
D. Wires are fitted through the securing holes of
shaft and propeller
84. What part is fitted under the propeller cone ? (Left triangular part of the propeller in
the drawing)
A. The propeller nut

B. The propeller seal
C. The propeller locking bar
D. The oil filling pipe
85. Of what kind commonly named metal is the stern tube lining composed of ?
A. Tin
B. Aluminium brass
C. Lead
D. White metal
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86. How is the stern tube bearing lubricated ?
A. By the main stern supply pump

B. It turns in an oil bath
C. By grease
D. By graphite
87. What is the shape of stern tube seals (forward and aft) ?
A. They are square in form and diagonally cut

B. They are round in form and in one piece
(0-ring type)
C. They are lip seals and in one piece
D. They are flat gaskets between flanges
88. Which are the stern tube bearing parts on this type of stern tube?
A. The cylindrical steel tube aft

B. The forward and the aft bearing
bushes (liners)
C. The cylindrical steel tube with
white metal lining and oil bath
D. The forward and aft plummer
blocks
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89. When a command is given to this steering gear, what happens ?
A. The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated

B. The “HS” pumps will start pumping
C. Point "X" will turn around point "Y", moving "Z" and the control rod
D. The valves 'PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure
90. What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted between point "Y" and the Trunion block of
the steering gear ?
A. To avoid sudden movements and overload

B. To elongate and compress and keep point
"Y" in place
C. To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with
the rod "X-Y"
D. Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances
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91. What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward
movement of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear will be
avoided ?
A. The pallister bearing clearance

B. The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances
C. The rudder plugs
D. The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance
92. Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible ?
A. Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C

B. Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D
C. Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D
D. Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D
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93. During normal operations, the command rod ''C" pushes point “Z” and the control
rod off centre so that the "HS" pumps start pumping and the settering gear moves.
When will it stop moving ?
A. When the command rod "C" stops moving

B. When the command rod ''C" moves in opposite direction
C. When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command
D. When the trunion point "Y" pushes point “Z” back in the centre
94. This electric circuit is part of the Steering Gear Control System, in which the output
is either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is energized. It is an example of what kind of
circuit ?
A. Two (2) double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids

B. Two (2) Potentiometers with amplifier relays
C. A booster aggregate
D. A Wheatstone Bridge
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95. The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the bridge. By
what mode of steering will it be given a command ?
A. By automatic steering via the gyro

B. By hand steering
C. By any of these steering methods
D. By push button steering
96. What will the output be to the solenoids of the steering gear depending
potentiometers stands if : BRIDGE IIGHER THAN RUDDER = A stand,
RUDDER HIGHER THAN BRIDGE = B stand, RUDDER EQUAL TO BRIDGE
= O stand ?
A. O-stand = output 0, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1

B. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1
C. O-stand = S1+S2, A stand = S1, B stand = S2
D. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 0, B-stand = S2 is 0
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97. This steering gear telemotor system is drawn in the neutral position, rudder
amidship. This means that ………….?
A. Neither solenoid “S1" or "S2"is energised

B. The double check valves are blocked
C. The capacity control is at zero
D. Pump “P” is not pumping
98. What is the purpose of the double check valves fitted in this telemotor system ?
A. To maintain the set pressure in the system

B. To keep the rudder locked in the desired position
C. To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements
D. To avoid oil blockage and stickiness
99. What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering gear ?
A. To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant

B. To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption)
C. To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant
D. To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant
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100. Under what circumstances is this steering control system energised / operational?
A. By any of the above

B. By hand steering
C. By automatic gyro steering
D. By push-button steering
101. Mat is the purpose of the 3-way cock part No 7 in the stern tube oil circuit ?
A. To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample

B. To remove air from the system
C. To fill oil in the system
D. To change over from main to forward stern
tube sealing circuit
102. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?
A. To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal

B. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
C. To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
D. To avoid oil being spilled overboard
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103. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump?
A. Bilge empty
B. Discharge value closed.
C. Pump impeller choked.
D. Suction strainer blocked.
104. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump?
A. Bylining an orifice in the discharge line

B. By throttling the suction value
C. By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value
D. By throttling the discharge value
105. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented?
A. Special packing in the stuffing box.

B. An air seal line from the compressed airline.
C. The air pump fitted to the pump
D. A water seal line to the packing gland
106. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the
domestic fresh water System?
A. 20 m3/hour x 25 metres
B. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
C. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres
D. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres
107. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump?
A. Fuel oil transfer

B. Boiler feed pump
C. Hydraulic winch power pack
D. Bilge and ballast
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108. At would you rate the capacity of this type of pump?
A. 10 to 15 m3/hour
B. 50 to 250 m3/hour
C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour
D. 15 to 25 m3/hour
109. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable?
A. Engine cooling water circulating.

B. Engine lub oil pressure supply.
C. Bilge pumping
D. Boiler feed water supply.
110. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium?
A. Liquids mixed with solids.

B. Pumping liquids against a high head pressure.
C. Liquids having high air content.
D. Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.
111. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components?
A. The rounded and the bellow gear.

B. The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.
C. The driving and driven shaft gears
D. The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.
112. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for?
A. Where liquids are not excessively viscous.

B. Where the liquid has a high temperature.
C. Where liquids are extremely viscous.
D. Where there is a high air content.
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113. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient
axial or radial Clearance?
A. The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.

B. The pump will not pump.
C. Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress.
D. The pump will not deliver correct pressure.
114. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the
initial load?
A. Suction and discharge valves closed.

B. The discharge value closed.
C. The suction value closed.
D. The suction value throttled.
115. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance
deteriorating over time?
A. Cavitation of the impeller.

B. Wear of the pump housing.
C. Near of the gland neck bush.
D. Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.
116. Would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil?
A. Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.

B. Throttle the suction value
C. Start/stop the pump frequently
D. Start the pump with values closed and gradually open.
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117. What is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?
A. Malfunction of the electrical motor

B. Tank being transferred into is full.
C. Pump no longer pumping liquid.
D. Malfunction of the pump.
118. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands?
A. Mechanical shaft seal.

B. Preformed lip seals
C. Carbon sealing rings.
D. Soft gland packing.
119. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid?
A. The valve is easier to open.

B. There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings.
C. There is less restriction to flow in this direction.
D. With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.
120. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines?
A. Solid copper joints.

B. Wire reinforced asbestos joints.
C. Preformed neoprene joints
D. General purpose asbestos joints.
121. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts?
A. Sliding securing mounts.

B. Selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.
C. Fitting of steel bellows pieces.
D. Sliding section of piping.
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122. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit?
A. In starting air piping

B. In fuel oil piping
C. In bilge piping
D. In sea water piping
123. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve?
A. Hydraulic ring main supply system.

B. Fuel oil system.
C. Engine jacket water cooling system.
D. Engine lub oil system.
124. How does a 'quick closing' value operate?
A. The value can only be opened and closed hydraulically.

B. An independent mechanism closes the value.
C. The value bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the value o close.
D. A retaining collar is released allowing the value to close.
125. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted?
A. Bilge suction valves

B. Fuel tank valves
C. Ballast tank valves
D. Fire main isolating valves
126. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high
suction?
A. Check suction strainers and valves.

B. Open sea suction value to prime pump
C. Clean the oiliwater separator.
D. Inspect pump internals for wear
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127. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells?
A. They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.

B. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
C. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.
D. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
128. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them?
A. By perforated plating
B. There is no covering
C. By steel grid plates bolted in place
D. By very fine mesh grids
129. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead?
A. Non-return screw down valves

B. Screw lift valves
C. Butterfly valves
D. Gate valves
130. What is the purpose of a cofferdam?
A. To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.

B. As a watertight barrier.
C. As an emergency storage space for bilge water.
D. As a collection space for leaking pipe work
131. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be
not moving, what would you check first?
A. Whether the value is dirty.

B. If there is excess pressure on the value.
C. Check that the value is not broken.
D. Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.
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132. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP

REDUNDANCY. What does this mean?
A. A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately

B. All pumps in the engine room are duplicated
C. Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.
D. All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility
133. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking?
A. Ship's sanitary system.

B. Ballast pumps.
C. Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.
D. Circulating fresh water tanks.
134. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections
separated?
A. Neoprene lip seals

B. Machineable sealing rings.
C. Labyrinth seals.
D. Mechanical garter spring seals.
135. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and
impeller badly, the Shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why?
A. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.

B. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.
D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence
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136. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room?
A. To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running
B. To isolate the pump for repairs.
C. In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room
D. To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply
the deck.
137. What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is
correct?
A. Insufficient liquid supply to the pump

B. Obstruction on the discharge side
C. The pump is not bled off properly
D. Misalignment of the shaft
138. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge?
A. 600ppm
B. 1000ppm
C. 100ppm
D. 50ppm
139. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?
A. 0ppm
B. 25ppm
C. 50ppm
D. L5ppm
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140. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in

'Special Areas'?
A. Only in a case of emergency.

B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.
C. When proceeding Full Ahead.
D. During the hours of darkness.
141. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level?
A. A visible alarm.
B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge
C. An audible alarm.
D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.
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12. Plan And Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care During Voyage
And Unloading Of Cargoes.
1. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive peak
height; what could be the result of this situation?
A. Excessive stresses on tank top
B. Damage to hatch covers
C. Excessive stresses on transverse
bulkheads
D. Excessive cargo sweat
2. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline draft
after loading; what should be the actions of the master?
A. Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until the
maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
B. Record a lower draught and sail
C. Inform the port authorities and sail
D. There is not a problem as over loading is permitted
3. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what regulations
must the vessel comply?
A. IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of
Timber Deck cargoes
B. International Code for the carriage of
Dangerous Goods
C. Grain Regulations
D. Marine Pollution Regulations
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4. During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small
amount of the previous grain cargo is found in a cargo hold; what is the
significance of this situation?
A. The vessel may fail the pre-load survey and
be declared off-hire
B. The affected cargo hold should be left empty
C. The cargo hold can be cleaned while other
holds are loaded
D. The remaining cargo from the previous
voyage can be ignored
5. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier?

A. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes athwartships
B. Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the
longitudinal axes athwartships
C. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes fore and aft
D. Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the longitudinal axes fore and
aft
6. What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity filling
on a Bulk Carrier?
A. There is minimum pressure head
on the tank top and pumps are not
required
B. Ballasting is done more quickly
C. Free surface effect is eliminated
D. Ballasting can be done without
any supervision
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7. What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the crew of
the disposal of garbage within and outside Special Areas?
A. The vessel could be detained by
port state control authorities
B. The vessel could be detained by
its flag Administration
C. The classification society
concerned could suspend the
vessel's International Oil
Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
Certificate
D. The ship owner could be penalized by the P. & I. Club concerned
8. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?

A. MARPOL regulations
B. SOLAS 74/88 regulations
C. Convention on the Prevention of
Marine Pollution by Dumping of
Wastes and Other Matter
D. The Code of Safe Practice for
Solid Bulk Cargoes
9. What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk Carrier
can be achieved?
A. A good stern trim is maintained
during deballasting operations
B. A trim by the bow is required
C. The vessel must be maintained at
an even keel
D. The trim of the vessel is not
important
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10. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to
cargo spaces containing grain, are excessively heated?
A. The grain cargo may be heated and
damaged
B. The cargo may liquefy
C. The grain cargo may produce
methane gas
D. No damage should occur
11. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier?
A. To ascertain the actual weight of cargo loaded
B. The calculate the stability of the vessel
C. To calculate the deadweight of the vessel
D. To calculate light displacement of the vessel
12. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming on top
of coal cargoes on a Bulk Carrier?
A. Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk Cargo Code
B. Ventilation to be continuous?
C. Cargo not to be ventilated?
D. Cargo to be ventilated by opening hatch covers at sea?
13. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk
Carrier?
A. Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested
B. Cargo hold paintwork must be intact
C. Cargo hold ventilation systems must be satisfactorily tested
D. Cargo hold tank tops must be pressure-tested
14. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes?
A. IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk?
B. International Tankers and Terminal Code?
C. Classification Society Grain Rules?
D. Charters' Solid Bulk Cargoes Code?
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15. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a
Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration?
A. Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System
(SMS) for guidance
B. There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea
C. Follow actions of previous crews
D. Check procedures and Arrangements manual
16. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a Bulk
Carrier?
A. The York Antwerp rules
B. The Hague rules
C. The Hague Visby rules
D. The Hamburg rules
17. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?

A. IMO Grain Rules?
B. Classification Society Rules?
C. Statutory Regulations?
D. Port State Regulations?
18. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes?

A. IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime Solid
Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC)
B. The cargo securing manual
C. The timber deck cargo code published by IMO
D. Classification Society Rules
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19. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo
holds?
A. Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces
B. Because of inadequate dunnage placed over the tank top
C. Because of using inadequately sized lasing wires
D. Because of dunnage, provided at every tier of the cargo, not having been
aligned
20. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on Bulk
Carriers?
A. Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders
B. Because of variations in under keel clearances whilst alongside the berth
C. Because of the vessel's movement whilst berthing or unberthing
D. Because the vessel may pass under a bridge(s) whilst approaching or
leaving the berth
21. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard. The
master must report this loss of container incident to:
A. The nearest Coastal state.
B. The Flag state.
C. The ship owner.
D. Vessels in the immediate vicinity.
22. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed across
several flat rack containers. The most appropriate method for lashing such cargo
would be by:
A. Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing points.
B. Taking all lashings to the hatch top.
C. Taking all lashings to the hatch coamings, pillars and lashing bridges.
D. Taking some of the lashings to flat-racks and rest to hatch tops.
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23. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part of
the deck stow are additionally subjected to:
A. The effect of wind on the containers.
B. Transverse accelerating load condition,
leading to loss of GM.
C. The effect of green seas breaking over the
containers.
D. Lack of support from adjacent columns of containers.
24. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would be:
A. On deck, away from sources of heat.
B. Away from reefer units, below deck.
C. Under deck, away from sources of heat.
D. Abaft the accommodation.
25. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous:
A. When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s) listed
in the IMDG Code.
B. When declared as a non-hazardous chemical.
C. When declared as bulk liquid foodstuff.
D. When the shipper instructs that the container be carried on-deck only.
26. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with:
A. The added weight of icing on container stacks,
leading to loss of GM.
B. The presence of icebergs leading to hazard of
navigation.
C. Temperature differential between air and
seawater, leading to shell plating damage.
D. High wind and waves leading to speed reduction and high fuel consumption.
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27. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with:
A. Metacentric height of the vessel.
B. Current wave conditions.
C. Transverse distribution of container stack weights.
D. Hull form of the vessel.
28. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most
important document to refer is:
A. The Cargo Securing Manual.
B. The Code for the Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing.
C. The company's ISM handbook.
D. The Stability Manual.
29. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of containers
is:
A. Determined by the clauses of the charter-party.
B. Provided as per advice from the Supercargo.
C. Always upon the attending cargo surveyor.
D. Always upon the charterer of the vessel.
30. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give
guidance for:
A. Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual.
B. Securing of deck cargoes.
C. Securing of cargoes in hazardous ocean areas.
D. Port State Control Officers when carrying out ship inspections.
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31. The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank

containers is that:
A. They may contain flammable cargo residue.
B. They may not be declared as being empty.
C. They could explode if their vents are closed.
D. They are prone to collapse.
32. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric roll
condition on large container ships is:
A. Head seas.
B. Beam seas.
C. Just forward of the beam seas.
D. Following or quartering seas.
33. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers during a
sea passage is to:
A. Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course.
B. Increase speed, whilst maintaining course.
C. Have the crew remove the ice.
D. Heave to and wait for ambient temperature to rise to safe levels.
34. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would be:
A. By internal shift of ballast.
B. By internal shift of cargo containers.
C. By internal shift of fuel oil.
D. By jettisoning of containers.
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35. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly
manifested, but which is believed to contain dangerous goods, about which
insufficient information is supplied?
A. He has the authority to refuse it.
B. He must load it, but immediately advise his
operations department and request full
information.
C. If it it approved by the operations department,
he can assume all safety checks have been
carried out and should load it.
D. He must load it, but ensure it is placed in a safe loaction, to which there is
immediate access in the event of an emergency.
36. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships,
reference must be made to:
A. The ems Guide.
B. The ISPS Code.
C. SOLAS Chapter V – Safety of navigtaion.
D. The ship's Contingency plan.
37. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG Code
it is not allowed to:
A. Pack and ship the cargo in bags.
B. Ship in open top half containers on deck.
C. Ship in Intermediate Bulk Containers (ibcs).
D. Carry the cargo transport units under deck.
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38. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party, an
exemption from carrying out a mandatory prewash provided that the:
A. Unloaded tank is to be reloaded with the same
substance or another substance compatible with
the previous one and that the tank will not be
washed or ballasted prior to loading.
B. Unloaded tank will be washed outside a special area.
C. Vessel temporarily has defective tank cleaning equipment and the prewash
will be carried out at the first available opportunity after repairs have been
completed and the tank will not be loaded or ballasted before that time.
D. Vessel's stripping system can reduce the residues to less than 10 litres in the
relevant tank and its associated piping.
39. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before
leaving port in compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be
discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the
effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized
surveyor has reached a level of:
A. 0.1% by weight.
B. 0.1% by volume.
C. 0.2% by weight.
D. 0.3% by volume.
40. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the
area(s) designated as “Special Areas” are:
A. The Antarctic.
B. The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf
of Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea, Southern South African Waters,
Antarctic and North-West European Waters.
C. The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic.
D. The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and the
Caribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters and North-West European
Waters.
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41. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to
such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously
carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's
speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
A. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water
that is not less than 25 metres deep.
B. That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and is
proceeding on route.
C. That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge Monitoring
Equipment and a visual watch is maintained on the vessel's wake.
D. Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has been
drawn from the tank and is stored on board, there are no additional
conditions to be imposed on such a discharge.
42. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted to be removed by

ventilation. This may be carried out provided that:
A. The cargo discharged has a vapour pressure greater than 5 kpa at 20 degrees
Celsius.
B. The cargo discharged has a vapour expansion coefficient of at least 1.025.
C. The vessel's ventilation system is capable of delivering a minimum of 20
changes of atmosphere per hour within the compartment.
D. The volume of the tank does not exceed 1750 cubic metres, the maximum
remaining residues are less than 75 litres and ventilation is additionally
possible directly down the pumpstack.
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43. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a “Noxious

Liquid Substance” (other than products provisionally assessed) can be obtained
from:
A. The pollution category column of chapters 17 or 18 of the International
Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code).
B. The pollution category of chapter 17 (only) of the International Bulk
Chemical Code (IBC Code).
C. The product groups within the list of cargoes contained in the Chemical
Data Guide for Bulk Shipment by Water.
D. The Procedures and Arrangements Manual.
44. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low

flash or static accumulator product:
A. The tank must be inerted to less than 8% oxygen content.
B. The product must be allowed settling time within the tank before
recirculation is commenced.
C. All lids and other penetrations must be securely closed before recirculation
is commenced.
D. The tank must already have been cleaned to Water White Standard to ensure
no hazardous reaction with cargo residues.
45. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious Liquid
Substances, the term “Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means:
A. Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo
containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly
cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been discharged and the
tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II.
B. Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage of
ballast or cargoes other than oil or Noxious Liquid Substances as variously
defined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which is
completely separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems.
C. Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed in
accordance with the requirements of the Procedures and Arrangements
Manual.
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D. Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.
46. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a
Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be
made in the Cargo record Book, which shall include:
A. Time of occurrence
Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies)
Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks.
B. Date of occurrence
Position (latitude and longitude)
Estimated quantity and category(ies)
Extract from Master's Log Book detailing the incident.
C. Position at start and stop of accidental discharge
Time at start and stop of accidental discharge
Reason for accidental discharge
D. Name of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental discharge.
Date and Time of occurrence
Name of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Statement of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Approximate quantity and category of product discharged
Identity of nearest sovereign State and Authority of that State contacted with
applicable report reference.
47. The ‘dew point’ of a liquid chemical can be defined as:

A. The temperature at which a gas is saturated with respect to a condensable
component, as in operational terms is seen at the point when air is saturated
with moisture.
B. The temperature at which a condensable component is saturated with
respect to a gas, as in operational terms is seen at the point when moisture
no longer detectable in air.
C. The temperature at which dry-ice melts in Acetone.
D. The temperature at which a saturated gas exhibits condensation.
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48. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code
may be considered possible, provided it is achieved through a ‘tri-partite”
agreement between:
A. The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Carrier / the Port State
of the Receiver.
B. The Shipper / the Receiver / the Operator or Charterer.
C. The IMO / the Port State of the Shipper / the Port State of the Receiver.
D. The Flag State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Charterer / the Flag
State of the Receiver.
49. The chemical term for a substance used as an additive to start a chemical reaction
and speed up the cleaning of a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is:
A. Catalyst.
B. Reactant.
C. Accelerant.
D. Reagent.
50. The document which confirms whether a chemical tanker is authorised to carry a
particular Noxious Liquid Substance, is called:
A. The (International) Certificate of Fitness.
B. The IBC Code.
C. MARPOL.
D. The International Pollution Prevention Certificate for the Carriage of
Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk.
51. The tank cleaning requirements for a Category “X” substance on a chemical tanker
constructed after 01 January 2007, require the vessel to carry out:
A. Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
B. Prewash / strip to 100 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
C. Prewash for solidifying or high viscosity substances / strip to 75 litres / 12
miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en
route / discharge below waterline.
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D. Strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7

knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
52. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:

A. Category "Y".
B. Category "Z".
C. Category "OS" - other substances.
D. Category "A".
53. What is the name given to the risk assessment programme developed by OCIMF,
under which tankers are inspected and the results made available to potential
charterers through a database of records?
A. The Ship Inspection Report Programme
(SIRE).
B. The Chemical Distribution Institute (CDI)
Inpsectionprogramme.
C. The Enhanced Survey Programme.
D. The Tanker Inspection and Reporting System (TIRS).
54. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is
important to ensure that:
A. Once cleaning commences, large quantities of washing water can be
delivered as quickly as possible, so that the acid is quickly diluted.
B. Once cleaning commences, washing water must be introduced in a
controlled manner, allowing time for the acid and water to mix slowly and
thoroughly before the rest of the tank surfaces are flushed.
C. A mixture of hot fresh water and Sodium Hydroxide solution (50/50) is
prepared beforehand and then circulated around the tank, rapidly
neutralising any remaining acid.
D. Any acid remaining in the sump should first be ejected and the tank
ventilated for a minimum of 30 minutes before the introduction of any
water, ensuring that there are insufficient acid residues to create any
dangerous reaction.
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55. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water
in order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid
chemicals, must be ensured that:
A. No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used,
except those components that are readily biodegradable and present in a
total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive. No
restrictions additional to those applicable to the tank due to the previous
cargo shall apply.
B. The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, which
would apply to the additive had it been carried as cargo. Tank washing
procedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in the
Procedures and Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's Flag
State Administration.
C. No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubic
metres of tank volume is used in any one washing operation.
D. If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than 200
litres is used in the washing operation for a single cargo tank, then a
prewash to shore must be carried out
56. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes in Rotterdam in December, for
eventual discharge in Australia, after the ship has called at Singapore and Malaysia.
None of the cargoes on board at any stage of the voyage require heating. None of
the tanks to be discharged in Singapore and Malysia will require hot washing after
discharge. When determining the filling limits of the tanks containing the
Australian cargoes, you will need to consider that:
A. The maximum anticipated temperature that the cargoes will reach bearing in
mind ambient air and sea temperatures to be encountered on passage, so that
any expansion does not result in overflow.
B. The accuracy of the tank level monitoring systems in potentially sub-zero
conditions.
C. The anticipated cargo loss due to the projected evaporation rates as the
vessel passes through the tropics.
D. The potential damage to tank coating in the upper areas of any tanks which
are not fully loaded due to the duration of exposure to cargo vapour.
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57. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward on
deck compared with amidships under deck of a General Cargo Vessel, because:
A. The dynamic stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas
of the vessel.
B. The forward of the vessel is subjected to more rolling conditions.
C. Heavier cargo is generally stowed forward.
D. The roll period is greater forward.
58. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from Brazil to Rotterdam during winter time.
During the voyage, ventilation in cargo spaces should:
A. Be carried out during voyage, as the vessel is
moving from warm to colder areas.
B. Should not be carried out as the vessel is
moving from a cold area to a warmer area.
C. Should occasionally be carried out as the
vessel is moving from a cold area to a warmer area.
D. Would only be carried out once, just before discharging the cargo.
59. Additional lashings on general cargoes must be considered when:

A. Heavy weather is anticipated for the planned
voyage.
B. Passing through the Summer Zone in winter months.
C. Passing through the Tropical Zone in winter months.
D. After the vessel has started to encounter heavy
weather conditions.
60. For a General Cargo ship not specifically designed for carriage of containers, the
maximum stowage height for containers on deck is limited to:
A. One container high.
B. Two container high.
C. The height of the wheelhouse.
D. Three container high.
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61. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must have
on board a:
A. Document of Compliance for carriage of dangerous goods.
B. SOLAS Safety Equipment Certificate.
C. Document of Authorization for the carriage of
bulk IMDG Cargoes.
D. Safety Construction Certificate for carriage of
IMDG cargoes in packaged form.
62. For special category spaces on board general cargo ship, the minimum required air
changes per hour should be:
A. 6
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
63. Information on the forces that may cause cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel
may be available by referring to:
A. The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS)
Code.
B. The ship's stability manual.
C. The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk
Cargoes (BC Code).
D. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
64. On a voyage from cold to hot climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should:
A. Not be carried out at all.
B. Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
C. Be carried out during the day time only.
D. Be carried out during the night time only.
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65. On a voyage from hot to cold climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should:
A. Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
B. Not be carried out at all.
C. Be carried out during the day time only.
D. Be carried out during the night time only.
66. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule of
Thumb', the total strength of the lashings on each side of a heavy lift; what is the
stated value ?
A. The Maximum Securing load of the
lashings must equal the weight of
the cargo unit.
B. The Maximum Securing load of the
lashings must equal the 50%
weight of the cargo unit.
C. The Maximum Securing load of the
lashings must equal twice the
D. The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal five times the
67. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods
declaration on a General Cargo Vessel should be:
A. IMO Class, UN Number, Gross
weight, number of units of cargo,
Proper Shipping Name.
B. IMO Class, weight, cargo brand
name, stowage requirement.
C. Gross and net weight, volume of
cargo, proper shipping name.
D. UN Number, Volume of units,
stowage requirements, weight, centre of gravity.
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68. The most important consideration when planning the lashing system for a particular
sea route on a General Cargo Vessel is:
A. Transverse accelerations.
B. The breaking strength of lashing materials.
C. Encountering heavy weather.
D. The size and weight of general cargo items to
be loaded.
69. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General

Cargo ship may be obtained by referring to:
A. The IMO International Maritime
Dangerous Goods Code.
B. The IMO Bulk cargo Code.
C. The Cargo Securing manual.
D. IMO SOLAS Handbook.
70. The two main considerations when choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo space
of a General Cargo vessel would be:
A. Light reflective and compatible
with edible cargoes.
B. Corrosion resistant and heat
resistant.
C. Low odour and heat resistant.
D. Easy to clean and dark in colour.
71. Which of these can be loaded in the same hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as steel
coils?
A. Steel rebars
B. Hygroscopic cargoes
C. Chemicals
D. Fertilizers
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72. How can you best demonstrate in an audit that you follow company cargo handling
procedures?
A. By being able to provide comprehensive and
verifiable documentary records of cargo
operations.
B. By requesting that an audit takes place during
cargo operations.
C. By providing a summary of out-turn figures for the auditor.
D. By providing a summary of incident and lost time figures for the auditor
that reflects a successful and trouble-free system on board.
73. If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages, irregularities
or short shipment and the phrase "apparent good order and condition" is entered on
the Bill of Lading, what type of Bill is this said to be?
A. A clean Bill of Lading.
B. An endorsed Bill of Lading.
C. A Bill of Lading completed for shipment.
D. A Due Title Bill of Lading.
74. What may be issued by the shipper to indicate that a vessel or her operators will not
be held responsible for any damage that may arise from the carrier issuing a clean
Bill of Lading, even though the Mate's receipt is marked as "unclean", such as may
apply to atmospheric corrosion on steel plates that have been waiting in a port
facility for some time awaiting shipment?
A. A Letter of Indemnity.
B. A Letter of Credit.
C. An absolution clause in the shipping documents.
D. An addendum to the Bill of Lading.
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75. What term is applied to the compensation payment by the charterer that is due when
a vessel is unable to load / discharge her cargo within the allowed and contracted
time?
A. Demurrage.
B. Deferment.
C. Discretion.
D. Contractual penalty discount.
76. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door to door" shipment?

A. A Through Bill of Lading.
B. An Ocean Bill of Lading.
C. A Destination Bill of Lading.
D. A Multi-Phase Bill of Lading.
77. When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, what are the two
elements to be considered?
A. The potential severity of harm and the likelihood
that harm will occur.
B. The chance of an incident re-occuring and the
potential effects of an loss.
C. The time available to complete the task and the
resources to hand.
D. The available manpower and their experience in this type of work.
78. According to SIGTTO publications, what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure
measurement equipment?
A. +/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply within the
MARVS of the tank)
B. +/- 1,00 bar (which will apply within the
MARVS of the tank)
C. +/- 0,50 bar (which will apply within the
MARVS of the tank)
D. +/- 0,0005 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)
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79. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the minimum number of "Firemen’s
outfits" required to be carried on an LNG carrier with a cargo capacity above 5,000
m3?
A. 5 sets
B. 4 sets
C. 2 sets
D. 3 sets
80. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and form dry ice at low temperatures. What is
the solidifying temperature of CO2?
A. Approximately minus 78.5 C
B. Approximately minus 87.5 C
C. Approximately minus 30.5 C
D. Approximately minus 60.5 C
81. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?

A. Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
B. No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers.
C. Yes, but only annex IV.
D. Yes, but only annex V.
82. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying
liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
A. Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
B. No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers.
C. Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products.
D. OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels.
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83. Due to the very low carriage temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k
value, is an important property of the insulation material used in cargo containment
systems. For a given rate of heat leakage across the insulation, which of the
following statements is true?
A. The higher the k value the thicker
the insulation needs to be.
B. The higher the k value the thinner
the insulation needs to be.
C. The rate of heat leakage is
unaffected by the thickness of the
insulation.
D. The k value depends on the
thickness of the insulation material.
84. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling down operations on an LNG carrier
which of the given options, regarding temperature, needs to be observed?
A. Never allow temperature of the insulation to fall
below the safe minimum temperature.
B. Always control the outlet temperature of methane
from the vaporiser.
C. Always control the vaporisers so that the
temperature of methane vapour is lower than existing tank atmosphere
temperature.
D. Always control the temperature in the shore supply line.
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85. Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo tanks prior to loading cargo is
unacceptable due to ice formation at low carriage temperatures. How can water
vapour in the tank atmosphere be removed prior to the cooling down and loading
operation?
A. By displacing the tank atmosphere with pre-dried inert gas.
B. By displacing the tank atmosphere with fresh air.
C. By displacing the tank atmosphere with warm
inert gas direct from a combustion type inert gas
generator.
D. By displacing the tank atmosphere with heated air.
86. What is the approximate normal daily cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of
125000 cubic metre cargo capacity?
A. From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total cargo.
B. From 0,30 % to 0,35 % per day of total cargo.
C. From 0,01 % to 0,05 % per day of total cargo.
D. From 0,75 % to 0,80 % per day of total cargo.
87. What is the normal procedure for cooling down the a cargo tank prior to loading
LNG?
A. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank slowly through the spray lines.
B. Introducing liquid LNG into the bottom of the
tank.
C. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank quickly
through the liquid header.
D. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank through a
heater.
88. What is the typical accuracy for onboard LNG temperature measurement systems?
A. +/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
B. +/- 0.5 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
C. +/- 1.0 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
D. +/- 0.7 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
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89. Which of the gas groups, identified by SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling Principles
on Ships and in Terminals', does LNG belong to?
A. Saturated Hydrocarbons
B. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
C. Chemical Gases
D. Mixed Saturated and Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
\
90. Which term is usually used to describe the compressor that collects the boil-off
from the header connected to each cargo tank of an LNG carrier?
A. The low-duty compressor.
B. The fuel-feed compressor.
C. The high-duty compressor.
D. The medium-duty compressor.
91. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on LNG
carriers?
A. Because the carbon dioxide in
combustion generated inert gas
would freeze when in close
proximity to the cargo.
B. Because of the high oxygen content of combustion generated inert gas.
C. Because of the high temperature of combustion generated inert gas.
D. Because of the high humidity in combustion generated inert gas.
92. With reference to preparations of LNG carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading
operations, how can it be determined that the cool down operation is complete?
A. When temperature monitor, or liquid level
gauge, shows that liquid is forming in the
bottom of the cargo tank.
B. When the outlet temperature from the spray
header reaches minus 10 C.
C. When the temperature at the compressor vapour manifold reaches minus 25
C.
D. When vapour temperature from the HD compressor reaches minus 40 C.
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93. Before loading a refrigerated cargo of LPG the cargo tanks must be cooled down
slowly in order to minimise thermal stresses for the vessel and the cargo
containment system. What is the generally accepted cooling down rate?
A. 10 degrees C per hour.
B. 5 degrees C per hour.
C. 15 degrees C per hour.
D. 20 degrees C per hour.
94. Cargo tanks on an LPG carrier can be inerted using either inert gas from a
combustion type inert gas generator or by using nitrogen. Is gassing up of an
inerted cargo tank with LPG allowed when the tank contains combustion generated
inert gas?
A. Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 5% by
volume and the charter allows it.
B. Yes, it is always allowed if the atmosphere of the inerted tank has an
oxygen content of less than 5% by volume.
C. Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 1% by
volume and the charter allows it.
D. No, it is never allowed; the inert gas must first be replaced by oxygen free
nitrogen.
95. During pre-entry checks of an enclosed space onboard a liquefied gas carrier it is
necessary to check the condition of the atmosphere. If the gas detection equipment
to be used for the checks included a catalytic type combustible gas indicator, an
absorption type toxic gas detector and a paramagnetic type oxygen analyser, which
would be the preferred order for the checks?
A. Oxygen content followed by
hydrocarbon gas content and then
toxic gas content.
B. Hydrocarbon gas content followed by oxygen content and then toxic gas
content.
C. Hydrocarbon gas content followed by toxic gas content and then oxygen
content.
D. Toxic gas content followed by hydrocarbon gas content and then oxygen content
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96. IMO publishes a number of Codes relating to the carriage of bulk cargoes including
the IGC Code for liquefied gas carriers. What is the main purpose of the IGC Code?
A. To provide an international standard for the
construction of, and equipment for, gas carriers
to ensure the safe carriage of liquefied gases in
bulk.
B. To provide national standards for the
construction of, and the equipment for, gas
carriers to ensure the safe carriage of liquefyed
gases in bulk
C. To provide international standards regarding the maximum vessel size and
the minimum manning levels for gas carriers to ensure safe carriage of
liquefied gases in bulk.
D. To provide guidance to the oil and gas companies as to which gases can be
carried in liquefied state.
97. Inhibitors are often added to liquefied gas cargoes prior to loading to prevent or
slow down polymerisation. An inhibitor information form or certificate must be
provided by the cargo shipper to the vessel. What sort of information must this
certificate contain about the inhibitor in addition to the technical name and quantity
added?
A. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor,
temperature limitations affecting
the lifetime of the inhibitor and the
date the inhibitor was added.
B. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor,
name of person who added the
inhibitor and the temperature
limitations affecting the lifetime of
the inhibitor
C. Date the inhibitor was added, the name of the person that added it and
expiry date of the inhibitor
D. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor and the date the cargo tanks were
inhibited
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98. Is it permitted to load fully refrigerated propane directly onto a fully pressurised
LPG carrier without additional conditioning of the cargo or cargo spaces?
A. Only if the cargo containment
system is designed for temperatures
of minus 48 degrees C or less.
B. Only if the vessel is equipped with
cargo cooling plant
C. Only if the loading rate is kept below 100m3/h.
D. Fully refrigerated propane can be loaded directly onto this type of vessel
under any circumstances
99. It is necessary for personnel to enter a liquefied gas carrier cargo tank to clean up
some dust and other loose debris. What are the permit requirements before entry
into the tank is allowed?
A. Both Enclosed Space Entry and
Cold Work Permits are required.
B. Both Enclosed Space Entry and Hot
Work Permits are required.
C. Both Enclosed Space Entry Permit
and a Gas Free Certificate are
required.
D. Only an Enclosed Space Entry
Permit is required.
100. Liquefied gas cargoes will expand as the temperature increases and therefore tanks
are not allowed to be filled to 100%. What is the maximum allowable filling limit
for the cargo tanks on liquefied gas carriers?
A. Maximum allowable filling limit on
cargo tanks is 98% on gas carriers.
B. Maximum allowable filling limit on
cargo tanks is 95% on gas carriers.
C. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 92% on gas carriers.
D. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 90% on gas carriers.
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101. What is the full title of the IMO code which applies to all gas carriers built after
1986?
A. The International Code for the Construction and
Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in
Bulk (the IGC Code)
B. The International Code for Ships Carrying
Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the IGC code)
C. The Code for Existing Ships Carrying Liquefied
Gases in Bulk (the Existing Ship Code)
D. The Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied
Gases in Bulk (the GC Code)
102. What is the main reason for adding inhibitors to some liquefied gas cargoes such as
ethylene oxide and vinyl chloride?
A. To prevent polymerisation of
the cargo.
B. To reduce the boil-off rate of
the cargo.
C. To reduce the toxicity of the cargo.
D. To control the temperature of the cargo.
103. What is the requirement for the atmosphere in the hold spaces surrounding cargo
tanks that require a secondary barrier when carrying LPG cargoes?
A. The hold spaces must be kept in an
inert condition whenever there is
cargo in the cargo tanks.
B. The hold spaces must be filled with
clean dry air at all times.
C. The hold spaces must be filled with
cargo vapour whenever there is
cargo in the cargo tanks.
D. The hold spaces must be kept in an inert condition at all times even when
the cargo tanks are empty.
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104. What method should be used to discharge a semi-pressurised gas carrier if there is a
break down on the cargo discharge pump?
A. By pressurising the vapour space of
the cargo tank using a vaporiser and
cargo compressor to force liquid
cargo ashore.
B. By using a portable submersible
pump to empty the affected tank
C. By using the cargo compressor to
pump the cargo vapour ashore as it
boils off.
D. By using the inert gas system to pressurise the cargo tank and force the
liquid cargo ashore.
105. When a ship is switching from ammonia to LPG virtually all traces of vapours must
be removed. What is the allowable concentration of ammonia vapour in the tank
prior to loading the next cargo?
A. Less than 20 parts per million.
B. Less than 50 parts per million.
C. Less than 100 parts per million.
D. Less than 5 parts per million.
106. Which certificate is issued to LPG and other liquefied gas carriers in accordance
with the IGC code?
A. The Certificate of Fitness is issued
in accordance with the IGC code
B. The Cargo Ship Safety Equipment
Certificate is issued in accordance
with the IGC code.
C. The Cargo Ship Safety
Construction Certificate is issued in
accordance with the IGC code
D. The International Load Line Certificate is issued in accordance with the
IGC code
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107. With some liquefied gas cargoes special conditions must be met before they can be
loaded into a cargo tank. Is it permitted load ammonia into an inerted cargo tank?
A. Only if the tank is inerted with
nitrogen.
B. Only if the tank is inerted with
combustion generated inert gas.
C. Ammonia cannot be loaded into any tank with an inert atmosphere.
D. Ammonia can be loaded into any inerted tank containing either inert gas or
nitrogen.
108. A VLCC is to anchor in a depth of 80 meters in open water with moderate swell
running. How many shackles of anchor chain should be used to aid a safe
anchorage?
A. 11 shackles
B. 6 shackles
C. 8 shackles
D. 3 shackles
109. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board
must be:
A. Not less than 3 years after the date
of the last entry.
B. Not less than 5 years after the date
of the last entry.
C. Exactly 3 years from the date of the
first entry.
D. Until the next port where it may be
handed over to the Port State
Authority.
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110. Any person who can assume overall charge of the ships crude oil washing operation
must have:
A. At least 12 months appropriate
experience on oil tankers, have
participated in at least two COW
programmes and be fully
knowledgeable of the contents of
the Operations and Equipment
Manual.
B. At least three months experience on
tankers, have participated in at least
six washing operations and be aware of the procedures associated with the
completion of the Oil Record Book.
C. At least six months experience on tankers, be knowledgeable of the cleaning
procedures and equipment applicable on board the vessel and be able to
fully demonstrate understanding of the operation of the ODME equipment.
D. At least 12 months equivalent experience on a tanker of any type, provided
at least three washing operations have been witnessed in a supernumerary
capacity and be able to demonstrate full knowledge of Annex I of
MARPOL.
111. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be
carried and completed on oil tankers of:
A. 150 gross tonnes and above.
B. 400 gross tonnes and above.
C. Any size, as long as they are classified as tankers.
D. 50 gross tonnes and above.
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112. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of
discharge must be:
A. Drained and then pumped either
ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop
tank on board.
B. Cleared to shore by the use of
compressed air.
C. Drained directly (and only) to
shore.
D. Discharged ashore or retained on
board as per the pre-discharge agreement made between the ship and shore.
113. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and
Management of Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan
on board to achieve:
A. 95% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the
previous port.
B. 100% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the
previous port.
C. 25% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
D. 80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
114. As per the OCIMF Ship to Ship Transfer Guide (Petroleum) guidelines, both
vessels engaged in the cargo transfer operation shall:
A. Have their main engines ready and available for immediate use
B. Have their duty engineers on stand-by so as to prepare the engines if
required for use at any time
C. Their officer of the watch manning the bridge at all times, with engines on
30-minutes notice of readiness.
D. Their main engines on 1 hour readiness of readiness
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115. As per the US Code of Federal Regulations, the current Oil Transfer Procedures for
a vessel carrying out discharge in US ports must be:
A. Available on board, legibly printed
in a language or languages easily
understood by personnel engaged in
the transfer operation and
permanently posted or available at a
place where crew members can see
and use them.
B. Available on board, legibly printed
in the English and Spanish languages and permanently posted in the
wheelhouse of the vessel.
C. Available on board, in hard-copy or electronic format, to the OOW in a
language with which he is familiar.
D. Available to the crew members, upon request from the terminal
representatives .
116. Crude Oils required by MARPOL to be specifically listed in a tanker's Crude Oil
Washing manual as unsuitable for COW are:
A. Those with high pour point or viscosity.
B. Those with high basic sediment and water content.
C. Those with highbenzene content.
D. Those on the IMO Oil Tanker Technical Committee COW banned list.
117. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in a

tank containing 50,000 cubic metres (314,491 barrels) of oil will result in which of
the following volumes?
A. 25 cubic metres (157 barrels).
B. 35 cubic metres (220 barrels).
C. 7 cubic metres (44 barrels).
D. 16.5 cubic metres (104 barrels).
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118. For a vessel proceeding enroute, located more than 50 nm from nearest land outside
a special area and having in operation its ODME, the maximum instantaneous rate
of oil discharge (from washings of cargo tanks) in to the sea is:
A. 30 litres per nautical mile.
B. 300 litres per nautical mile.
C. 60 litres per nautical mile.
D. 0.03 litres per nautical mile.
119. On board an oil tanker, slop tanks may be used for the carriage of oil:
A. When not being used for the carriage
of slops and are included in the total
cargo capacity of the vessel.
B. Only under exceptional
circumstances and are not included in
the total cargo capacity of the vessel.
C. Only on clean ballast tankers and are
only included in the total cargo
capacity of this type of vessel.
D. Only by agreement between the shipper, receiver and charterer. They are
not normally included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel.
120. Prior to discharging cargo from an oil tanker, ‘line displacement’ or ‘line pressing’
must be conducted to ensure:
A. The verification of the shore line for
calculation purposes.
B. The calibration of the ship's flow
meter.
C. Balancing of a rigid cargo arm.
D. Testing of the automatic shut-down
arrangements in the shore line system.
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121. The details of an internal transfer of oil must be entered in the Oil Record Book:
A. At all times whenever such an
operation is carried out
B. Only is more than 25% of the total
cargo volume is transferred
C. Only if required by the specific
instructions of the owners or Flag
State of the vessel
D. Only is such transfer has taken
place within a port
122. The ideal maximum viscosity at which aromatic crude oil cargoes are best
discharged at, is:
A. 250 cst (250 mm2/s)
B. 450 cst (450 mm2/s)
C. 45 cst (45 mm2/s)
D. 1,250 cst (1,250 mm2/s)
123. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a
cargo oil tank prior to gas freeing is:
A. 5% by volume.
B. 8% by volume.
C. 12% by volume.
D. 2% by volume.
124. The ODME printouts for tank cleaning operations must be retained on board for a
minimum period:
A. Of 3 years.
B. Of 5 years.
C. Till the end of the voyage in which the
ODME operation took place
D. Of 12 months.
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125. The recommended guideline for avoiding the risk of electrostatic potential in a mist
produced by using oil and water during Crude Oil Washing operations is that:
A. Before washing begins, any tank
that is to be used as a source of oil
for Crude Oil Washing should be
partly discharged to remove any
water that has settled out during the
voyage. The discharge of a layer of
at least 1 metreis necessary for this
purpose.
B. As washing begins, any water observed in the stream should be diverted to a
slop tank, before Crude Oil Washing af any cargo compartment is
commenced.
C. If a slop tank is to be used to supply oil to drive a Crude Oil Washing
operation in a cargo tank, then that slop tank must not have contained slops
with a water content of more than 2%.
D. Crude Oil Washing, where the oil source is stored in a slop tank or other
tank that has previously contained slops, should be avoided.
126. To correctly report an oil spill in US waters:

A. The person in charge must report the spill to the National Response Center
or, if not practicable, to the Environmental Protection Agency regional
office or local U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Office. This must be done
immediately that person has knowledge of the spill.
B. The person responsible for the spill must report preliminary details to the
appropriate State Police within 30 minutes of the accidental discharge
taking place.
C. The person or persons in charge must submit a full report of the incident
through the vessel's agent to the appropriate authorities within 24 hours of
the incident.
D. The master of the vessel responsible for the spill must advise the
Environmental Protection Agency National Incident Reporting Center (or
the appropriate regional office) within 2 hours of the incident being reported
to that person.
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127. What do we mean with a IOPP certificate?

A. With IOPP certificate we mean
International Oil Pollution
Prevention certificate and the ship is
classed to prevent oil pollution
B. With IOPP certificate we mean
International Oil Pollution
Prevention certificate and the
certificate prevent oil pollution
from the ship
C. With IOPP certificate we mean International Oil Pollution Prevention
certificate and it is to prevent oil pollution
D. There isn’t any IOPP certificate on gas carriers
128. When discharging dirty ballast from an oil tanker at a high flow rate with main
cargo pumps, the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil is calculated by formula:
A. Instantaneous rate of discharge
(l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x flow
rate (m3/h) / speed (knots) x 1,000
B. Instantaneous rate of discharge
(l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x 1,000 /
flow rate (l/h) x speed (knots)
C. Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/h)
= oil content (ppm) x flow rate (l/h)
/ speed (knots) x 10,000
D. Instantaneous rate of discharge (ml/nm) = oil content (ml/nm) x flow rate
(l/m) / speed (knots) x 100
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129. When internally transferring any oil cargo within the vessel, the correct procedure
would be to:
A. Obtain permission from the
charterers and document all
operations fully in the Oil Record
Book.
B. Obtain permission from the
receivers and retain all e-mail
correspondence for the attention of
the cargo surveyors.
C. Transfer no more than 5% of the total cargo volume at any one time.
D. Transfer the cargo, and then make an appropriate entry in the deck log book.
130. Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System, an ‘overboard discharge
control’ is defined as:
A. A device which automatically
initiates the sequence to stop the
overboard discharge of the effluent
in alarm conditions and prevents the
discharge throughout the period the
alarm prevails.
B. A system which monitors the
discharge into the sea of oily ballast
or other oil-contaminated water from the cargo tank areas.
C. A facility which prevents the initiation of the opening of the discharge valve
or the operation of other equivalent arrangements before the monitoring
system is fully operational.
D. A system which receives automatic signals of oil content, flow rate, ship's
speed, ship's position, date and time.
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131. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for
harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which
two elements?
A. The likelihood that a hazard may
occur and the consequences of the
hazardous event
B. The likelihood that a hazard may
occur and the financial
consequences for the Company
C. The likelihood that a hazard may
occur and the available personal
protective equipment we have onboard
D. The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal
132. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?

A. Every week
B. Every day
C. Every year
D. Every second year
133. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place on board passenger ships?
A. Weekly
B. Bi-weekly
C. Monthly
D. At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every
month
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134. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. Every two weeks
D. Every month
135. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?

A. In a separate locker. The locker shall be
clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
B. In a locker preferably on boat deck. The
locker shall be clearly marked.
C. N the central store or in the engine room
D. In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge
136. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they
can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is
minimum training requirement for all personnel?
A. Basic Safety Training Course and
Crowd & Crisis Management
Training Course
B. Basic Safety Training Course and
Company Specific Familiarisation
Course
C. Basic Safety Training Course
D. No Training Course is required as
long as the personnel have relevant experience
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137. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at
certain intervals. Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships only?
A. Periodical survey every 12 months
B. Periodical survey every 24 months
C. Periodical survey every 6 months
D. A survey before the commence of each voyage
138. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship
generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/ control
of pollution from:
A. Harmful Substances in Packaged
Form, Sewage, Air Pollution,
Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid
Substances in Bulk
B. Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk, Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage
and Ballast Water
C. Proper Pollution Prevention Training
D. All Harmful Substances we have onboard
139. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?

A. All persons on board shall be
counted and details of persons who
have declared a need for special
care or assistance in emergency
situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
B. Details and number of persons who
situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
C. It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
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D. The safety officer shall count the number of passengers
140. What is important to prepare prior to a

helicopter operation?
A. Make sure all loose deck equipment
at helicopter deck is stowed away
and secured.
B. To light up the area for pick-up
C. To increase the speed of the vessel
D. To stop the vessel completely
141. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?

A. To provide all personnel including
emergency personnel with
procedures for handling or working
with that substance in a safe
manner
B. To provide personnel in deck- and
engine department with procedures
for handling or working with that
substance in a safe manner
C. To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working with
that substance in a safe manner
D. To determine if the substance is flammable or not
142. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed
space?
A. Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space is gas free, ventilated and the
oxygen content is measured. O2 content shall be 21% before entering the
tank/ enclosed space
B. Use a breathing apparatus if the oxygen level is below 21%
C. Remember to have a colleague standing by to assist you if any problems
D. Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes
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143. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
A. SOLAS
B. MARPOL
C. STCW
D. ISM
144. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed?
A. The Company/ employer
B. The Master
C. The safety officer
D. The Head Department
145. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from
the vessel's incinerator?
A. Discharge the ashes to a shore facility
B. Discharge the ashes at sea
providing you are more than 25
nautical miles offshore
C. Discharge at sea providing you are
not in any river or estuary
D. Nothing, ashes from any substance
which is incinerated can be
discharged over board
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146. A cellular container vessel is to load frozen ice cream in containers. Space is
available either in the hold or as a deck stow. Select, from the options given, the
most suitable stowage position, with the reason, for this cargo.
A. The deck stow as it is less sensitive
to temperature in the event of a
mechanical problem.
B. The deck stow as it is more
accessible for checking the status
lights on the reefer panel.
C. The hold as it is more sheltered
from the effects of bad weather.
D. The hold as it is more accessible for
maintenance and repair in the event
of a mechanical problem.
147. A conventional reefer vessel operating a Controlled Atmosphere (CA) is

approaching the port of discharge in Northern Europe. Which is the most suitable
action to take from the options given?
A. Turn off the CA plant and thoroughly ventilate the cargo spaces under CA
with fresh air just prior to arrival.
B. Continue to apply CA until the hatches are opened to maintain the condition
of the cargo.
C. Continue to apply CA throughout the discharge to maintain the condition of
the cargo.
D. Turn off the CA plant just prior to the start of discharge operations.
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148. A reefer vessel is loading a cargo of fruit alongside in a South African port. During
loading another vessel arrives at an adjacent berth to have its cargo discharged after
having been towed in following a fire onboard which had resulted in abandonment.
What should concern the Master of the reefer vessel most about the situation?
A. That the cargo may be contaminated by the smell of smoke and the products
of combustion from the damaged vessel.
B. The damaged vessel is unmanned and may not be cared for properly.
C. The cargo being discharged from the damaged vessel may be in poor
condition and may contaminate the loading vessel's cargo.
D. The speed of cargo operations may be hindered due to the discharge of
cargo from the damaged vessel.
149. A reefer vessel is to load a cargo of plantains and bananas. Due to space restrictions
both have to be loaded into a common space. The usual delivery temperature for
bananas is about 13 degrees Celsius and for plantains it is 7 degree Celsius. What
would be the best delivery temperature for the mixture of these two fruits?
A. 13 C as plantains are less sensitive to the consequences of a higher delivery
temperature.
B. 7 C as plantains are more sensitive to the higher delivery temperature of the
bananas.
C. 10 C as this is the mean temperature of the two cargoes and they would both
carry satisfactorily at this temperature.
D. Adjust the set point of the delivery temperature to 7 C for 12 hour periods
and 13 C for the intervening 12 hour periods.
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150. A reefer vessel is to load a part cargo of frozen beef hocks (large joints of beef,
usually quarters, not packed in cartons). In deciding which would be the most
appropriate space on a conventional reefer vessel, which of the given options would
be the preferred choice?
A. 1C deck as this is the narrowest space on the vessel and will best constrain
the cargo from any possible movement during the voyage.
B. 4A deck as this is the largest square space on the vessel and will allow good
access and air flow for the cargo.
C. Any space will be acceptable as this is a hard frozen cargo and relatively
easy to handle and carry.
D. A cargo space low in the vessel as this cargo has a relatively high stowage
factor.
151. A reefer vessel, which is about to carry a palletised cargo, has to have available
sufficient cargo equipment including air bags (dunnage bags), air lines and valves,
cargo slings, wooden dunnage, nails, etc. These items are required to ensure a quick
loading operation and a successful passage. Complete the following statement from
the options given. "Air bags are particularly important in that ….
A. … they reduce the movement of the pallets and prevent short circuiting of
the air flow."
B. … they are quick and easy to deploy."
C. … they protect the pillars and the vent trunking against damage during
heavy weather."
D. … they secure the pallets against movement during the passage."
152. A situation arises where there is insufficient fruit cargo available to fill a cargo
space. There is a cooler arrangement (cooler/evaporator/brine nest/fans) positioned
at one end of the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the best method for
stowage of the fruit.
A. Start at the end with the cooler arrangement and work away from the cooler.
B. Start at the opposite end to the cooler arrangement and work towards the
cooler.
C. Start from one side of the space.
D. Start from the centre of the space and work towards both ends.
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153. A situation exists where a cargo of palletised fruit is being loaded to capacity on a
conventional reefer vessel. In order to load all of the available cargo it is proposed
to break down some of the pallets and place the loose cartons on top of the pallets;
there is just enough space to accommodate this below the deckhead. From the
options given which is the most suitable action to take?
A. Reject the plan as the reduced gap at the top of the stow will restrict the
return air flow.
B. Accept the plan in order to carry all of the cargo.
C. Reject the plan as the extra handling will incur greater stevedoring costs.
D. Reject the plan as the charter is to carry only palletised cargo.
154. A standard convention for a 4 deck reefer vessel is to designate the decks A to D
from upper to lower deck. Decks A and B common as are C and D with a gas tight
seal between B and C. Apples are to be carried in decks C and D with bananas in A
and B. Which of the options is the best to avoid the risk of crossover of temperature
and respiration between the two cargoes?
A. Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks C and D.
B. Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks A and B.
C. Run the cargo fans intermittently in one of the spaces.
D. Operate the two spaces at equal pressures as the cargoes are compatible.
155. After discharge of any refrigerated cargo a thorough inspection of the vessel should
be carried out before presenting the vessel for loading the next cargo. Amongst the
reasons for this is to ensure that any traces of or residues from the previous cargo
are removed. This is particularly so if a fruit or meat cargo is to be loaded after a
fish cargo has been carried. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this
requirement.
A. Fish is strong smelling and the odour may contaminate the next cargo.
B. Fish is usually carried frozen and there may be some damage to the
insulation.
C. Fish can be oily and may leave an oily residue in the cargo space.
D. Ventilating with fresh air may only remove the odour temporarily and it will
build up again if residues are present.
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156. Apart from temperature there are few differences between carrying cargoes of
chilled meat, minus 1 degree Celsius, and frozen meat, minus 18 degrees Celsius. A
key difference is that for frozen meat the cooling fans are operated at half speed or
some are switched off whereas for chilled meat the fans are run constantly at full
speed. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this difference in fan
operation.
A. The chilled meat is more sensitive to damage and therefore tighter
temperature control is necessary.
B. The fans may be damaged if they were run at full speed delivering very cold
air to the frozen cargo.
C. Running the fans at full speed would generate too much heat which may
affect the frozen meat.
D. It is an energy saving measure since chilled meat cargoes do not require as
much cold air.
157. In preparing a reefer vessel for loading the next cargo a careful inspection of the
cargo spaces should be carried out. All required maintenance and the repair of any
damage identified during the inspection should be completed prior to loading.
Select, from the options given, the most appropriate action to be taken when the
maintenance and any repairs are completed.
A. Make a detailed record of all maintenance and repairs carried out for
presentation to the supervisor at the loading port as proof that the vessel is
in an acceptable condition for loading the cargo.
B. Keep a record of all the repairs in the planned maintenance schedule.
C. Don't bother recording anything as this type of work is considered routine.
D. Keep a record of the hours worked as a basis for a claim against the
previous charterers.
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158. On some trades fruit cargoes may be subjected to 'in-transit cold treatment' also
known as cold treatment. From the options given which is the main purpose of this
cold treatment?
A. To maintain a specified minimum temperature for a prescribed time period
to kill off any fruit fly which may be present when loading the cargo.
B. To ensure that the fruit is carried as cold as possible without damaging the
fruit.
C. To achieve uniform quality of the fruit at discharge.
D. To maintain the temperature of the fruit within very tight tolerances.
159. Reefer vessels form part of the 'cold chain' in the transport of perishable goods from
the producer to the consumer. There are times when hatches have to remain open in
less than perfect conditions, for example strong winds. There are steps that can be
taken however to mitigate the effects of this on cargo that has already been loaded.
Which of the options given could be considered to be the most important measure
to counter the effect of such conditions?
A. Cover the stow with a Tenasco (heavy plastic) sheet where possible to
protect it from the wind.
B. Run the cargo fans continuously during cargo operations.
C. Reduce the air delivery temperature.
D. Refrain from ventilating the cargo with fresh air.
160. With the exception of some citrus fruits and bananas, fruit is usually pre-cooled to
the required carriage temperature prior to loading on a reefer vessel. In order to
protect the cold chain, and to maintain the temperature of the fruit, a minimum
exposure time to ambient conditions during loading is necessary. What action
should the deck officers take during loading to achieve this minimum exposure
time?
A. Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any
break in cargo operations that exceed 30 minutes.
B. Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any
overnight break in cargo operations.
C. Close the hatches for any break in cargo operations that exceed 60 minutes.
D. Request that the stevedores work faster to minimise loading time.
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161. A Standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 18mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction
and lashed by belts of SWL 2mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts
should be used to secure the unit?
A. 9 on each side
B. 11 on each side
C. 11 on each side
D. One fore every securing point on the unit
162. A standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded fore and aft and lashed by belts
of SWL 0.6mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be used to
secure the unit?
A. 4 on each side
B. 4 in total
C. 4 in total
D. 10 in total
163. On a roro vessel, a ro-ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt. How many lashing belts should be
used to secure the unit?
A. 4 on each side
B. 4 in total
C. 4 in total
D. 10 in total
164. On a roro vessel, a vehicle weighing 50mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by chains/turnbuckles of SWL 5mt. By the general Rule How
many sets of chains/turnbuckles should be used to secure the unit?
A. At least 10 per side
B. At least 10 in total
C. At least 10 in total
D. At least 15 per side
351
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165. On a roro vessel, how often should a dangerous goods stowage plan be produced
A. Every time you load a dangerous cargo
B. Every time you load any cargo
C. Every time you load any cargo
D. You only ever produce one
166. On a roro vessel, if the vessel is loaded by stevedores, who is responsible for the
lashing of the cargo
A. The vessel is responsible for cargo as soon as it
crosses the ramp including its securing
B. The Stevedores who loaded the ship
C. The Stevedores who loaded the ship
D. The cargo owners
167. On a roro vessel, what dangers are associated with using a steep loading ramp?
A. The ends of ro-ro units can be damaged
B. The ramp's hoisting wires can be damaged
C. It will not be possible to drive vehicles off the
ramp
D. The ramp may slide off the pier
168. On a roro vessel, what instruction should be given to the crew about unlashing of
cargo prior to arrival at the berth
A. This can only be done when the bridge gives
permission and no unit stowed on a ramp or
incline can be unlashed. Provided the company
allow it.
B. The crew can start unlashing without the
permission from the bridge
C. The crew can start unlashing without the
permission from the bridge
D. You can remove half the lashings on any unit when the bridge give
permission
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169. On a roro vessel, what must be considered when planning the loading of ro-ro
cargoes on ramps?
A. SWL and loading limit of the ramp and
Minimum clearances for the operation of ramp
doors
B. The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
C. The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
D. Cargo volumes
170. On a roro vessel, what must be ensured onboard the vessel prior to commencing
cargo?
A. Cargo hold ventilation systems are operational
B. That all cargo is ready for loading
C. That all cargo is ready for loading
D. That the vessel has been cleared by immigration
171. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to prevent a blackout on
board?
A. Check with the duty engineer before switching
on motors, fans or other machinery
B. Check with the duty engineer before correcting
the vessel's list
C. Switch off lights in idle cargo holds
D. Use the minimum number of deck lights at night
172. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to protect the Ramps
when loading ro-ro units?
A. Units whose weights exceed the ramp load
density/SWL must not be loaded
B. Damaged units should be rejected for loading
C. Damaged units should be rejected for loading
D. All ro-ro units must be thoroughly checked for
damage prior to the loading ramp
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173. On a roro vessel, what stowage factors should be taken into account when planning
the loading of cars?
A. The longitudinal and athwartship distances
between the cars
B. Cargo dimensions
C. Cargo volumes
D. Cargo characteristics
174. On a roro vessel, which of the following is not required in the pre-stowage plan?
A. Checking communications equipment
B. The operation of gas-tight and watertight doors
C. Assigning crew duties
D. Stowage and securing of specialised cargoes
175. On a roro vessel, which of the ships trading certificates details the type and location
that dangerous goods are allowed to be stowed onboard
A. Certificate of compliance for the carriage of Dangerous goods
B. Safety Equipment certificate
C. Safety Equipment certificate
D. The Cargo Ship Safety construction certificate
176. On a roro vessel, which of these situations will result in an emergency shutdown of
cargo operations?
A. Any of the listed situations
B. Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
C. Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
D. The vessel developing a sudden and unexpected
list
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177. On a roro vessel, which regulations require supervising the embarkation of persons
on board ship?
A. The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code
B. The Safety Of Life At Sea (SOLAS) Convention
C. Standards of Training Certification and Watch-keeping (STCW) Code
D. International Labour Organization (ILO) standards
178. Under SOLAS, what are the minimum required air changes per hour for 'Special
Category Spaces' on a roro vessel,?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 8
179. What must not be obstructed when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes?
A. Access to fire-fighting equipment
B. Fixed cargo lashing points
C. Ships' bracket connections to the deck
D. In-built non-skid bars
180. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for
harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which
two elements?
A. The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the consequences of the hazardous
event
B. The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the financial consequences for the
Company
C. The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard
D. The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal
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181. How can the Master ensure that all cargo loading doors, bow visors, weathertight
ramps etc. Are locked and secured before the ship proceeds on any voyage?
A. By having an effective system of
supervision and reporting of the
closing and opening of doors. Time
of closing and opening of doors
shall be entered in the log-book.
B. By having experinced officers and
crew to supervise the closing and
opening of doors. Time of closing
and opening of doors shall be entered in the log-book.
C. Automatic systems will alarm you if the doors are not properly secured.
D. The bosun is always responsible to check the watertight integrity before the
ship proceeds on any voyage.
182. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?

A. Every week
B. Every day
C. Every year
183. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place onboard ro-ro passenger
vessels?
A. Weekly
B. Bi-weekly
C. Monthly
D. At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every
month
356
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184. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. Every two weeks
D. Every month
185. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?

A. In a separate locker. The locker
shall be clearly marked, locked and
ventilated.
B. In a locker preferably on boat deck.
The locker shall be clearly marked.
C. In the central store or in the engine
room
D. In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge
186. On most ro-ro passenger ships there is no requirement to carry out drills with the
passengers. What is the most effective ways of informing embarking passengers
about the emergency procedures?
A. Information on boarding cards,
public announcement on departure,
posters in public areas and cabins,
safety video running continuously
B. Posters in public areas and cabins,
safety video running continuously
C. Safety video and folders in tax free
shops
D. Information from the crew
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187. Personnel on board ro-ro passenger vessels must undergo training courses before
they can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board.
What is minimum training requirement for all personnel?
A. Basic Safety Training Course and
Crowd & Crisis Management
Training Course
B. Basic Safety Training Course and
Company Specific Familiarisation
Course
C. Basic Safety Training Corse
D. No Training Course is required as
long as the personnel have relevant experience
188. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship
generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/ control
of pollution from:
A. Harmful Substances in Packaged
Form, Sewage, Air Pollution,
Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid
Substances in Bulk
B. Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk, Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage
and Ballast Water
C. Proper Pollution Prevention Training
D. All Harmful Substances we have onboard
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189. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?

A. All persons on board shall be
counted and details of persons who
situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
B. Details and number of persons who
situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
C. It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
D. The safety officer shall count the number of passengers
190. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation?

A. Make sure all loose deck equipment at
helicopter deck is stowed away and
secured.
B. To light up the area for pick-up
C. To increase the speed of the vessel
D. To stop the vessel completely
191. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?

A. To provide all personnel including
emergency personnel with
procedures for handling or working
with that substance in a safe manner
B. To provide personnel in deck- and
engine department with procedures
for handling or working with that
substance in a safe manner
C. To provide the safety officer with
procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner
D. To determine if the substance is flammable or not
359
DPKP
192. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed
space?
A. Make sure that the tank/ enclosed
space is gas free, ventilated and the
oxygen content is measured. O2
content shall be 21% before
entering the tank/ enclosed space
B. Use a breathing apparatus if the
oxygen level is below 21%
C. Remember to have a colleague
standing by to assist you if any
problems
D. Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes
193. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
A. SOLAS
B. MARPOL
C. STCW
D. ISM
194. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed?
A. The Company/ employer
B. The Master
C. The safety officer
D. The Head Department
360
DPKP
195. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from
the vessel's incinerator?
A. Discharge the ashes to a shore
facility
B. Discharge the ashes at sea providing
you are more than 25 nautical miles
offshore
C. Discharge at sea providing you are
not in any river or estuary
D. Nothing, ashes from any substance which is incinerated can be discharged
over board
196. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo
such as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions
produced?
A. The vessel will normally have a
large intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a fast roll period
B. The vessel will normally have a
small intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a slow roll period
C. The vessel will be tender and have
a poor curve of righting levers.
D. The vessel may have a list
197. A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier is known to be damaged and not
weather tight prior to sailing; what is the legal significance of this situation?
A. The vessel may well be judged to be un-seaworthy; this could invalidate
some certification and hull and machinery insurance
B. There are no legal concerns over this
C. The vessel is still seaworthy but repairs must be carried out at next port
D. The vessel may have its classification affected
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198. Before a solid bulk cargo is loaded, the Master and shore representative must agree
a loading plan which covers which of the following aspects?
A. All of the items specified in the possible answers
B. Maximum permissible forces and moments on the ship
C. Quantity and rate of loading the cargo
D. Sequence of loading
199. How are cargoes on self-unloading bulk carriers fed to the vessel's conveyor belts
during discharge?
A. Via hydraulically-operated hopper
gates at the bottom of each hold
B. Via mechanically-operated hopper
gates at the bottom of each hold
C. By gravity through mechanical
hopper gates at the bottom of each
hold
D. Via remote-controlled hopper gates
at the bottom of each hold
200. The high level water ingress alarm in number 1 hold of a Bulk Carrier activates in
bad weather at sea; what would be the actions of a prudent Master?
A. Sound general alarm, muster ships
crew and transmit a Mayday call
and message.
B. Investigate when the weather
improves
C. The alarms could be faulty and
should be ignored
D. Assess all spaces for signs of
damage if weather conditions permit
362
DPKP
201. Under international regulations for a Bulk Carrier, who needs to be trained in the
use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
A. The ship's crew
B. The master
C. The master and chief engineer
D. All cargo watch-keeping officers
202. What does the IMSBC Code emphasise with reference to the exposure of personal
to the dust created when carrying some bulk cargoes?
A. A high standard of personal hygiene
B. The restricted loading of certain cargoes which may be
excessively dusty
C. The code does not make any reference to this hazard
D. The responsibility of the Master to ensure that staff are wearing the correct
clothing
203. What extent of hatch cover spares should be available on board a Bulk Carrier at all
times?
A. Specimen fittings shown in the
hatch cover manufacturer's manual
B. Rubber packing and hatch cleat
washers for one panel section
C. Rubber packing and hatch cleat
washers for two panel sections
D. Rubber packing hatch cleat washers
and glue for two panel sections
204. What height of water above the inner bottom will activate the cargo hold high level
alarm on a Bulk Carrier
A. Any height above 2.0m
B. Any more than 2.2m
C. Any more than 2.5m
D. Any more than 2.8m
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DPKP
205. What is the maximum period between the sampling/testing of the moisture content
of a solid bulk cargo and the loading of that cargo into a bulk carrier?
A. A maximum for seven (7) days,
when there has been no change in
the moisture content due to rain or
snow
B. It must always be conducted
immediately before loading
C. A test is not required each time of
loading
D. Testing must be carried out on a random sampling basis.
206. What must be specified when ordering gas detection equipment when used in
association with bulk carriers?
A. That the instrument is suited for its purpose of application
B. That the instrument complies with international regulations
C. That the instrument can measure flammable atmospheres
D. That the instrument can measure methane and hydrogen when used in low-
oxygen atmospheres
207. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk
carriers of 150m or more in length?
A. The shear forces exerted on the hull structure
associated with the entered loaded weight distribution
B. The segregation requirements of the cargoes carried.
C. The ultimate strength of main deck plating
D. The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo
holds
208. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
A. At the after end of each cargo hold
B. At the forward end of each cargo hold
C. In cargo hold bilges
D. At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold
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DPKP
209. Which of the following is a warning sign of a faulty hydraulic hatch cover system
on a Bulk Carrier?
A. A fall in the hydraulic header
tank level
B. The presence of dust and cargo
particles around the piston gland
C. Noisy hatch cover operations
D. Dry greasing points
210. Who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
A. The entire ship's crew
B. The Master
C. The Master and Chief Engineer
D. Cargo watch-keeping officers
211. Why do bulk cargo carriers need to carry oxygen analysis and gas detection
equipment?
A. Because of enclosed or confined space entry
requirements
B. Because it is good practice to have this equipment on
board
C. Because the equipment is required under the
International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC)
Code
D. Because the equipment is required under MARPOL
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DPKP
212. Why do the cargo holds of a self-unloading bulk carrier have a "W" shaped cross
section?
A. So that during discharge the cargo
will automatically fall onto the
underlying conveyor belts
B. So that cargoes are self-trimming
during loading
C. To make it easier for cargo to be
discharged by grabs
D. To reduce the extent of tank top
damages when discharging cargo
213. A vessel has lost several containers overboard during a voyage. Upon arrival into
port, she is being inspected by the attending surveyors. The most important item to
be checked during this inspection would be:
A. Certificates of approval related to lashing equipment used to secure those
containers.
B. The vessel's Safety Construction certificate.
C. The vessel's Class certificate.
D. The on-board cargo lashing inventory.
214. An inspection in the amidships area of the weather deck of a Panamax container
vessel has revealed cracks in the hatch coamings. It is extremely important to
urgently inspect the:
A. Longitudinals in the double bottom tanks in the amidships half length of the
vessel.
B. Stiffening in the forepeak tank at approximately water line level.
C. Transverse bulkhead beneath the bridge front.
D. Transverse bulkhead immediately aft of the engine room.
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215. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress
calculations, it must be approved by:
A. A Classification Society.
B. IT Department of Ship owner.
C. Hull and Machinery Insurers of the vessel.
D. The Port State where vessel is currently loading.
216. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for:

A. The carriage of non-hazardous liquids, in bulk.
B. The carriage of hazardous liquids, in bulk.
C. The carriage of liquid cargoes that do not have a Proper Shipping Name.
D. The carriage of liquid cargoes of a particular specific gravity.
217. Racking forces imposed on a container would likely cause the greatest deflection
to:
A. The door end of the container.
B. The closed end of the container.
C. The base of the container.
D. The corner posts of the container.
218. Shock loads in a container lashing system are generally caused by:
A. Loose cargo lashings.
B. Resonant rolling.
C. Ship vibrations.
D. Ship torsion.
219. The correct weight of a wrongly declared container may be best indicated by:
A. Strain gauges fitted to the shore
gantry cranes.
B. The container CSC plate.
C. The tare weight stamped on the
container.
D. The ship's loading computer.
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220. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive
wear and tear is to:
A. Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately.
B. Repair them in the ships workshop, and then re-use.
C. Land them ashore for repair.
D. Get them surveyed by Class prior re-use.
221. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container
stools on weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be:
A. Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack.
B. Uneven loading of the container on the deck.
C. Twist locks not being able to be fully closed.
D. Twist locks not being able to be removed after discharge.
222. The most effective method of dealing with an under-deck cargo space fire on board
a container ship, is to:
A. Deploy the fixed firefighting system.
B. Tackle the fire locally with fire hoses.
C. Turn the vessel off the wind to reduce the relative wind strength.
D. Boundary cool the cargo hold from the deck.
223. The most important function of a buttress fitting on a container vessel is:
A. To transfer forces from the container stow to the ships structure.
B. To maintain a uniform level stow across the tier of containers.
C. To avoid excess load placed on the tank top.
D. To ensure an even distribution of weight throughout the stack.
224. What contributes to wear-down of twistlocks on a container vessel?

A. The continuous action of longitudinal forces.
B. Careless handling by stevedores.
C. Improper greasing procedures.
D. Continuous use with containers exceeding 40' in length.
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225. What items of container securing equipment must be used in conjunction with
buttresses?
A. Double stacking cones or link plates.
B. Twistlocks.
C. Single stacking cones.
D. Single stacking cones and bridge fittings.
226. When planning the loading of containers, the planning officer must refer to:
A. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
B. The Safety of Life at Sea Convention (SOLAS).
C. The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code.
D. MARPOL 73/78 Annex IV.
227. "Passivation" is a restorative process periodically applied to stainless steel tanks on

a chemical tanker. What effect does this process have on the steel surface?
A. It restores and reforms the passive
Chromium Hydroxide surface layer.
B. It restricts active corrosion on the
surface steel.
C. It restores the surface steel to an
even and smooth finish, thereby
encouraging drainage during
discharge.
D. It causes a chemical reaction, which produces a new inert Chromium Oxide
layer on the surface of the steel.
228. A cargo pumproom or other enclosed space which contains cargo handling
equipment on a chemical tanker shall be fitted with a mechanical ventilation
system, capable of being controlled from outside the space. What is the minimum
number of atmosphere changes per hour, based on the total volume of the space,
that such a system must deliver?
A. Not less than 30 changes per hour.
B. Not less than 10 changes per hour.
C. If the ventilation is permanent, it shall deliver at least 20 changes per hour;
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if it involves part recirculation, then it shall deliver at least 30 changes per

hour.
D. There is no specified minimum number of changes, provided it is running
continuously throughout any cargo operation.
229. Basic manual dew point measurement devices are commonly used by surveyors
when monitoring the dryness of a cargo tank prior to loading a liquid chemical
product. Which of the descriptions below is a summary of how the measurement is
carried out?
A. A small quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of
the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device,
passing over the polished or mirrored surface of the container. When the
first drop of mositure (dew) is observed to form on the polished surface, the
temperature of the Acetone bath is noted. Reference may be required to
tables to correct the reading for desired parameters.
B. A quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively
added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the atmosphere
in the tank is continuously pumped through the liquid. Bubbles will be seen
to reach the surface of the bath until the dew point is reached. When the
flow of bubbles ceases, the temperature of the Acetone is noted. Reference
may be required to tables to correct the reading for desired parameters.
C. A small quantity of dry-ice is placed into the device, submerged in
deionized water. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously
drawn through the device, passing across a reagent filter. When the dew
point is reached, this reagent filter will change colour from white to green,
indicating saturation. The temperature of the deionized water is noted at
this time and corresponds to the dew point. Reference to correction tables is
required to correct the reading for barometric pressure.
D. A small quantity of Methanol is placed into the device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the
atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing
over the surface of the Methanol. When the first signs of evaporation are
observed (smoke rising from the surface), the temperature of the Methanol
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is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the reading for

calculation purposes.
230. Chemical tankers of 20,000 tonnes DWT or above, with a keel laid on or after 1st
July 1986, when carrying flammable products with a flashpoint not exceeding 60
degrees Celsius, such as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the International Bulk
Chemical Code, are exempt from the requirement to be fitted with and use an inert
gas plant provided certain conditions are met. Which of the following is a
summary of those conditions?
A. The cargo tank does not exceed 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle does not exceed 17.5 cubic metres per hour
delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing
machines does not exceed 110 cubic metres per hour.
B. The cargo tank is greater than 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle is capable of delivering a minimum of 17.5 cubic
metres per hour / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank
washing machines must be at least 110 cubic metres per hour.
C. The cargo tank does not exceed 1250 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle does not exceed 12.5 cubic metres per hour
delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing
machines does not exceed 90 cubic metres per hour.
D. The cargo tank is greater than 1250 cubic metres capacity / the number of
tank washing machines in use at any one time must be such that no more
than 17.5 cubic metres per hour is delivered / the minimum quantity of wash
water delivered in the washing operation must be greater than 110 cubic
metres.
231. High level and high-high level alarms must be tested at the tank for proper
operation within 24 hours of the start of cargo transfer on a chemical tanker. What
acceptable alternative is there to this requirement?
A. That a function test is carried out by means of an automatic self-test and
circuit monitoring facility within the alarm system.
B. There is no alternative to this requirement. The test must be conducted at
the tank location and the audible and visual alrams sighted. The results must
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be logged accordingly.
C. That a function test is carried out on completion of cleaning operations
following discharge.
D. That a programme of maintenance, including selective function tests, exists
within the vessel's Planned maintenance System, provided all such level
alarms are tested at least once within a period of three months.
232. How would you determine whether a particular cargo transfer hose was compatible
with the chemical product to be transferred?
A. Refer to the product entry in the hose manufacturer's chemical resistance
chart.
B. Check the product classification mark stamped on the flange collar of the
hose.
C. Check the colour of the hose against the general classification code in the
IBC Code.
D. There will be no need to check. If the hose has been supplied to a chemical
tanker, it will have been certified for the transfer of all chemical products.
233. 118. If your chemical tanker is equipped with high velocity venting valves, at what
minimum height above the weather deck or catwalk should they be installed?
A. 3 metres
B. 2.5 metres
C. 4.5 metres
D. 6 metres
234. In a typical shipboard de-humidifier plant as may be found on a modern chemical

tanker, operating on a "rotating bed" principle, what names are given to the two
parts of the rotating bed?
A. The "process sector" and the "reactivation sector".
B. The "inbound sector" and "outbound sector".
C. The "active sector" and the "dormant sector".
D. The "live sector" and the "reserve sector".
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235. The IBC Code prescribes certain design conditions for a cargo heating or cooling
system fitted to a chemical tanker. What does it require in respect of pressure
within such a system, for any condition other than when it is empty?
A. That a higher pressure can be maintained within the system than the
maximum pressure head that could be exerted by the contents of the cargo
tank on that system.
B. That a lower pressure will be maintained within the system than the actual
pressure head that is being exerted by the contents of the cargo tank on that
system.
C. That the system must be fitted with automatic control valves that will
maintain the inlet pressure at not less than 0.2 bar above the return pressure.
D. That an automatic alarm is fitted to alert the operator when the pressure
within the system drops to within 0.2 bar of the pressure measured at the
lowest located cargo pressure sensor within the tank.
236. The specified maximum working pressure of a cargo hose in service on a chemical
tanker should be at least which of the following?
A. 10 bar gauge.
B. 12 bar gauge.
C. 5 bar gauge.
D. 1/3 design burst pressure.
237. To what pressure will a new length of cargo hose be tested by a manufacturer prior
to its supply to a vessel for service onboard a chemical tanker?
A. Not less than one and a half times its specified maximum working pressure,
but not more than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
B. Not more than one and a half times its specified maximum working
pressure, but not less than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
C. Not less than one and a half times its nominal bursting pressure, but not
more than four-fifths of its specified maximum working pressure.
D. 2 times its designed working pressure, but not more than three-fifths of its
nominal bursting pressure.
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238. What temperature defines "hot" water in the context of tank washing on a chemical
tanker?
A. At least 60 degrees Celsius.
B. At least 70 degrees Celsius.
C. At least 40 degrees Celsius.
D. A minimum of 10 degrees Celsius above the discharge temperature of the
cargo.
239. When a submerged centrifugal cargo pump is being run at too high a speed during
discharge of a viscous chemical cargo, the pump may start racing, causing a heat
build-up around the suction, possible localised solidification of the cargo and
consequent damage to the pump. What term is applied to this problem?
A. Cavitation.
B. Gravitation.
C. Aggregation.
D. Synthesis.
240. Which of the following is a summary of the features of a "controlled tank venting
system" as may be found on a chemical tanker?
A. PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum in the tank; no shut-off
valves may be fitted either above or below the PV valves; provision may be
made to by-pass the PV valves under certain operating conditions; such a
system shall consist of a primary and secondary means of allowing full flow
of vapour, except that the secondary system may be replaced by pressure
sensors fitted within the tank.
B. PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum within the tank; the PV
valves shall be capable of being isolated or by-passed; the system shall be
supplemented by pressure sensors within the cargo tank.
C. The system permits vapour recovery via a collection manifold which may
be connected to a shore reception facility.
D. The system is fitted to a tank used for cargoes having a flash point not
exceeding 60 degrees Celsius and is fitted with a device to prevent the
passage of flame into the cargo tank.
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241. You are carrying a bulk cargo of Phosphoric Acid. Which components of the cargo
pumps may be damaged as a result of discharging this particular cargo and why?
A. The cargo seals may be damaged from the abbrasive effect of any sediment.
B. The outer casing may be corroded by the unstable impurities within the
acid.
C. The impeller veins may be damaged as a result of the relatively high density
of the cargo if the pumps are run at too high a speed.
D. The valves in the associated piping may be distorted by pressure surges
created by cavitation as the acid is discharged
242. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be
carried out by:
A. A classification society surveyor.
B. The master.
C. A deck officer designated by the master.
D. A marine surveyor appointed by the company.
243. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes.
In this case, it would be correct to state that:
A. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
B. The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the
derrick.
C. The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by
small amounts in cargo operations, since the Breaking Load of the slings is
much higher.
D. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
lifting gear must be at least 10% less than the SWL of the derrick.
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244. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient
method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be:
A. Ultra sonic test.
B. Chalk test.
C. Visual inspection.
D. Hose test.
245. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the
stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
A. Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
B. Continue discharge as planned and inform Designated Person
Ashore(DPA).
C. Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents.
D. Provide ships equipment to discharge.
246. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
A. Ships Capacity plan.
B. General Arrangement plan.
C. Docking plan.
D. Planned maintenance schedules.
247. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
A. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
B. The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
C. Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
D. Damage to the cargo by ship structures.
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248. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to
deteriorate would be:
A. Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
B. Due to repeated hatch cover operations.
C. Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures.
D. Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.
249. On a General Cargo vessel, a 16T derrick should be tested to a proof load of:
A. 20T
B. 18T
C. 22T
D. 24T
250. Prior to loading cotton on a General Cargo vessel, it is important to ensure that:
A. The cargo hold fire-fighting system is thoroughly examined.
B. The holds are inspected for signs of previous cargo residues.
C. Tank tops should be sheathed.
D. The cargo hold ventilation system is thoroughly examined.
251. Prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing
wires, terminations, shackles, turnbuckles, pad eyes and D rings etc., you must
make sure that:
A. They must all be certified and be visually inspected for any apparent
damage.
B. They must all be visually inspected.
C. They must all be certified.
D. Lashing wires must be new whereas other accessories may be certified.
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252. Proper guidance on the stowage and securing of general cargo may be obtained by
referring to:
A. IMO Code of practice for stowage and securing of cargoes.
B. IMO Code of Practice for Bulk and General
Cargoes.
C. International Load Line Regulations.
D. IMO Code of Practice for maintaining
stowage safety on cargo ships.
253. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested:
A. When equipment is new, every five years and after repairs or major
modifications.
B. Only after initial installation of equipment.
C. Only when major repairs have been carried out to the equipment.
D. Every four years and after major repairs and modifications.
254. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
A. To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
B. To prevent the ventilator fans from damage.
C. To prevent moisture from entering the hold.
D. To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft.
255. The ship’s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined
at intervals not exceeding:
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
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256. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it
must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the:
A. Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
B. Class surveyor.
C. Surveyor representing the vessel's hull &
machinery underwriters.
D. Surveyor representing the consignee.
257. According to "Summary of minimum requirements" in the IGC Code, what is the
requirement for vapour detection for methane (LNG) cargoes?
A. Flammable vapour detection.
B. Toxic vapour detection.
C. Flammable and toxic detection.
D. Oxygen analyser.
258. According to the IMO Gas Code, what is the requirement for the number of sets of
portable gas detection equipment that must be carried onboard an LNG carrier?
A. There must be at least two sets.
B. There must be at least one set.
C. Sets of portable gas detection equipment are only
required to be carried when there is no fixed
installation.
D. It is only necessary to carry a portable oxygen analyser.
259. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what are the maximum time intervals for
sampling and analysing samples from the permanent installed gas detection system
on a LNG carrier?
A. 30 minutes.
B. 20 minutes.
C. 45 minutes.
D. 10 minutes.
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260. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the required number of temperature
indicating devices in the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier?
A. At least two devices in each tank.
B. At least three devices in each tank. One placed at the
bottom of the tank, one in the middle of the tank and one
near the top of the tank.
C. One device in each tank.
D. There is no requirement for the number of devices.
261. Gas carrier type A and B cargo tanks have a MARVS of less than 0.7 barg? What is
the liquid and vapour connection shut off valve requirement for this type of tank
according to the IMO gas codes?
A. Single shut-off valves with manual closing
facility.
B. Double remote operated shut off valves.
C. One manually operated globe valve and
one remotely operated valve.
D. Double butterfly valves fitted in series.
262. LNG tankers are often fitted with fixed water spray system for fire protection
purposes for deck areas, deck tanks, deck manifolds and pipelines. What is the
minimum required flow rate of water per minute for horizontal and vertical surfaces
to ensure adequate, uniform coverage of these areas?
A. 10 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces
and 4 litre/m2 per minute for vertical
surfaces.
B. 20 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces
and 10 litre/m2 per minute for vertical
surfaces.
C. 100 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 50 litre/m2 per minute
for vertical surfaces.
D. 50 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 25 litre/m2 per minute for
vertical surfaces.
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263. Select, from the options given, the one that best describes a requirement of the
remotely controlled valves fitted in the ESD (Emergency Shut-Down) systems on
an LNG carrier?
A. They must be fail-safe.
B. They must be pneumatically operated.
C. They must be hydraulically operated.
D. They must be electrically operated.
264. Some LNG carriers are fitted with a water glycol system for heating the cofferdam
spaces next to cargo tanks when the vessel is loaded. What is the purpose of this
heating system?
A. To maintain the temperature inside the space above 5
degrees C to protect the steel.
B. To maintain the temperature inside the space at
approximately 25 degrees C to prevent the fuel tanks
from cooling down too much.
C. To maintain the temperature inside the space at approximately 15 degrees C
to protect the insulation.
D. To maintain the temperature inside the space at below minus 5 degrees C to
reduce cargo vaporisation.
265. What is the minimum requirement with respect to pressure relief valves on the
cargo tanks of an LNG carrier where the individual tanks are over 20 cubic metres
capacity?
A. Two valves.
B. One valve.
C. Three valves.
D. There is no such requirement.
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266. What is the preferred method of accommodating expansion in cargo pipeline

systems on LNG carriers?
A. Use expansion loops.
B. Use sliding couplings.
C. Use expansion bellows.
D. Use Viking Johnson expansion couplings.
267. What is the purpose of the "forcing vaporizer" found in some LNG carrier cargo
plants?
A. To provide gas for burning in the boiler.
B. To displace inert gas from cargo tanks.
C. For initial heating in the insulating spaces.
D. To discharge cargo without a vapour return from shore.
268. When LNG is used as fuel a double wall piping system must be used in the engine
room. What condition should the annular space between the concentric pipes be
maintained in when the fuel system is in service?
A. Filled with nitrogen at a pressure greater than the LNG fuel
pressure.
B. Filled with nitrogen at a pressure less than the LNG fuel
pressure.
C. Filled with nitrogen at a partial vacuum.
D. Maintained at a full vacuum.
269. Which kind of cargo pumps are the most commonly used in cargo systems for LNG
carriers?
A. Submerged electric motor pumps.
B. Hydraulic driven submerged pumps.
C. Electric driven screw pumps.
D. Hydraulic driven screw pumps.
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270. Which line can be utilized to prevent line surge when starting the main pumps of a
LNG carrier's cargo system?
A. The condensate spray line.
B. The inert gas line.
C. The vent line.
D. The aeration pipes.
271. Which of the following insulation materials that are used in the cargo containment
systems for LNG carriers has the highest diffusion resistance?
A. Polyurethane foam.
B. Balsa wood.
C. Perlite.
D. Mineral wool.
272. A chlorine carrier must be equipped with a chlorine absorption plant connected to
the cargo tanks and cargo lines. This requirement includes the provision of gas
detectors for the spaces and areas around the cargo containment system and the
absorption plant outlet. What is the recommended setting for the visual and audible
alarms of the gas detectors?
A. 5 ppm.
B. 10 ppm.
C. 15 ppm.
D. 20 ppm.
273. Cargo heaters are frequently used when discharging refrigerated LPG cargoes into
pressurised shore tanks. What would be a typical "heating range" required from a
heater for discharge of fully refrigerated propane?
A. From - 45 C to - 5 C.
B. From - 55 C to - 15 C.
C. From - 35 C to + 5 C.
D. From -25 C to +15 C.
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274. Cargo hoses intended for liquefied gas carriers have to be prototyped tested before
being approved. When new hoses of an already approved type are received onboard
they also need to be pressure tested before being put into service. What are the IMO
Gas Code requirements for such hoses before they are put into service?
A. Not less than 1.5 times the specified
maximum working pressure or
more than two fifths of bursting
pressure at ambient temperature.
B. Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum working pressure or more
than two fifths of bursting pressure at the expected cargo carriage
temperature.
C. 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at ambient temperature.
D. 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at expected cargo carriage
temperature.
275. LPG carriers rely heavily on the compressors fitted as part of the reliquefaction
plant. Screw and reciprocating types are widely used. Which type of reciprocating
compressor is most common as a cargo compressor?
A. Double acting, single stage, oil free
compressor.
B. Double acting, single stage, oil
lubricated piston compressor.
C. Single acting, single stage, oil free
piston compressor.
D. Double acting, two stage, oil free compressor.
276. Most reliquefaction plants on LPG carriers use a direct cooling system. Which of
the statements given in the options best describes a direct cooling cycle?
A. Cargo vapours are drawn off by a compressor, compressed, condensed than
passed through an expansion valve back to the tank.
B. Cargo liquid is pumped to a condenser where it is cooled by seawater and
then passed through an expansion valve back to the cargo tank.
C. Refrigerant gas is passed through a cooling coil in the cargo tank vapour
space which cools the cargo vapour below the dew point turning it back into
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liquid cargo.
D. All direct cooling systems require a refrigerant gas cooled vapour condenser
so that the lowest possible temperature is achieved to change the vapour
back to the liquid state.
277. Some liquefied gas carriers are fitted with nitrogen generating equipment, often of
the membrane module design. What would be the expected purity of the nitrogen
produced by such equipment?
A. 95 to 97% pure nitrogen.
B. 100% pure nitrogen.
C. 90 to 92% pure nitrogen.
D. 87 to 89% pure nitrogen.
278. The IMO Gas Codes require that all liquefied gas carrier cargo tanks are fitted with
pressure relief valves. Pilot operated relief valves are frequently used, particularly
with refrigerated cargoes. What is the main advantage of using pilot operated relief
valves rather than simple spring loaded types for refrigerated liquefied gas cargoes
tanks?
A. They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage pressures.
B. They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage temperatures.
C. The set pressure can be adjusted to above MARVS if problems occur with
the reliquefaction plant.
D. When pilot operated valves are used only one valve per cargo tank is
required irrespective of tank size.
279. The reliquefaction plant for cargo cooling of liquefied gas cargoes can operate on
either a direct or indirect cycle. On which liquefied gas cargoes must indirect cycle
cargo cooling plant be used according to the IMO Gas Codes?
A. Cargoes such as chlorine, ethylene oxide and propylene oxide for which the
vapours cannot be compressed due to temperature restrictions.
B. LPG cargoes being carried in north European waters during winter time
C. All liquefied cargoes in north European waters during winter time
D. Cargoes such as butadiene and vinyl chloride which need two stage cycle
with intercooling.
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280. There are a number of standard reliquefaction plants commonly fitted onboard LPG
and other liquefied gas carriers. What type of reliquefaction plant is required for a
cargo of Ethylene Oxide?
A. Indirect cycle.
B. Cascade direct cycle.
C. Two-stage direct cycle.
D. Single-stage direct cycle.
281. There are strict rules governing the placement and category of electrical equipment
allowed in certain areas of liquefied gas carriers. One such category is that of
flameproof enclosures. What is a flameproof enclosure?
A. One which can withstand the pressure build-up during an internal ignition of
a flammable mixture and is designed to cool any flames occurring within
the enclosure to below the ignition temperature.
B. One which is maintained under positive pressure so preventing the
formation of a flammable mixture.
C. One in which the equipment has such low electrical power that there is
insufficient energy to ignite a flammable mixture and cause a flame.
D. One which is filled with inert gas to prevent formation and possible ignition
of a flammable mixture.
282. What is the main disadvantage of using oil free, screw type compressors for the
reliquefaction plant of an LPG carrier?
A. The compressor has to run at very high speeds to compensate for internal
leakage.
B. The compressor rotor elements wear quickly as they have no lubrication.
C. The compressors quickly overheat.
D. The compressor bearings wear out very quickly.
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283. What is the purpose of an automatic shut-down system fitted onboard most
liquefied gas carriers and how is it initiated?
A. To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a high level
sensor in the cargo tank.
B. To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a back-pressure
switch in the cargo loading line.
C. To prevent cargo tanks from being overcooled. It is initiated by a
temperature switch on the cargo cooling plant.
D. To prevent overpressure of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a pressure
switch in the cargo tank.
284. What is the purpose of the purge gas condenser fitted to some liquefied gas carrier
reliquefaction plants?
A. It is used to condense out any cargo vapours which have passed through the
main condenser with incondensable gases.
B. It is used to condense out any nitrogen or inert gas that has collected in the
main condenser.
C. It is used to condense all of the cargo vapours that have been used in
purging a cargo tank.
D. It is used to generate the cargo vapours required for purging the cargo tanks.
285. When measuring the liquid level in the cargo tank of a liquefied gas carrier a
number of different corrections may be necessary to get a true reading. Why do
readings obtained from a float type ullage tape sometimes require a 'tape
correction'?
A. The length of tape in contact with very cold cargo vapours may contract.
B. The float may become heavier and partly sink due to liquid cargo
absorption.
C. The vessel may not be on an even keel when the readings are taken.
D. The vessel may have a list when the readings are taken.
387
DPKP
286. Which type of reliquefaction plant can have the cooling coil placed directly in the
vapour space of the cargo tank?
A. One type of the indirect cycle reliquefaction plants.
B. The cascade direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
C. The single-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
D. The two-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
287. A “Pellistor” is:

A. It is an electrical sensor unit fitted
in a flammable gas detector for
measuring hydrocarbon vapours and
air mixtures to determine whether
the mixture is within the flammable
range
B. It is the common term applied to the
metal, ceramic or other heat-
resisting material which can cool even an intense flame below the
temperature required for ignition, as utilised in a flame arrester
C. It is the electrical sensor which detects low pressure in an Inert Gas
generating control system
D. It is the reactive element in an oil / water interface detector
288. According to 33 CFR 156, for oil tankers trading in US waters, the minimum
requirement for testing of cargo transfer hoses and associated piping system are:
A. That no leakage occurs under static
liquid pressure of at least 1.5 times the
maximum allowable working pressure.
B. That no leakage occurs under static
liquid pressure of at least 1.25 times the
maximum allowable working pressure.
C. That no leakage occurs under dynamic fluid pressure of less than 1.5 times
the maximum allowable working pressure.
D. That no leakage occurs at the nominal anticipated working pressure.
388
DPKP
289. After passing through the scrubbing tower of an inert gas system, the approximate
level of carbon dioxide in the inert flue gas should be:
A. 13%
B. 1%
C. 3%
D. 21%
290. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be
allowed by a Port State Authority to trade for:
A. One ballast voyage before
proceeding to a repair port.
B. One ballast and one loaded voyage,
provided no cleaning operations are
carried out.
C. An indefinite period as long as the
owners can demonstrate they have
ordered the spare parts for repairs.
D. One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during the
next 12 months.
291. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a
selected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical
angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of
the machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and
quantity of crude oil required?
A. 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
B. 30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil.
C. 48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil.
D. 36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.
389
DPKP
292. As per IMO requirements, the mechanical ventilation system of the cargo pump
room shall be capable of making:
A. At least 20 air changes per hour
B. At least 30 air changes per hour
C. At least 40 air changes per hour
D. At least 50 air changes per hour
293. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must
carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of:
A. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
B. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).
C. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
D. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
294. Fluid driven eductors operate on Bernoulli’s principle, which states that:
A. The speed of a moving fluid increases
as the pressure in the fluid decreases.
B. The volume of a fluid increases as the
pressure in it decreases.The increase in
pressure at the eductor inlet is inversely
proportional to the decrease in pressure
as measured at the discharge orifice.
C. The discharge rate is inversely proportional to the pressure applied in the
drive inlet.
295. Ship’s cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of
hydrocarbon gas concentration are:
A. No higher than 10% of LEL.
B. No higher than 15% of LEL.
C. No higher than 20% of LEL.
D. No higher than 5% of LEL.
390
DPKP
296. The automatic stripping systems fitted on some of the centrifugal cargo pumps
operate on the principle that:
A. If cargo vapour can be stopped from
entering the cargo pump suction
inlet, the flow will continue without
cavitation.
B. If the suction is fitted low enough in
the cargo oil tank and a specified
minimum trim is maintained,
suction will be available until the tank is completely discharged.
C. By automatically reducing the rate at which oil cargo enters the cargo pump,
such that no vapour is lifted along with the liquid, there will be no loss of
suction.
D. By the optimum size and positioning of the suction inlet that feeds the
automatic stripping system, the cargo oil tank is discharged to the maximum
possible extent.
297. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
A. Fresh water.
B. The product being carried on that voyage.
C. Approved bio-degradable light oil
D. Sea water.
298. The difference between the absolute pressure of a liquid at the inlet to a cargo pump
and the vapour pressure of the liquid is called the:
A. Net Positive Suction Head Available.
B. Net Positive Suction Head Requirement.
C. Residual Suction Head Pressure.
D. Effective Suction Head Pressure.
391
DPKP
299. The inert gas system shall be capable of delivering inert gas to the cargo tanks at
the rate of:
A. At least 125% of the maximum discharge capacity.
B. At least 150% of the maximum discharge capacity.
C. At least 200% of the maximum discharge capacity.
D. Equal to the cargo discharge capacity.
300. The typical amounts of sulphur dioxide gas in flue gas produced when burning high
sulphur content fuels would be:
A. 2,000 ppm
B. 200 ppm
C. 4,000 ppm
D. 850 ppm
301. The usual pressure and vacuum levels at which the P/V valves on board an oil
tanker are required to activate are:
A. Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar) Vacuum: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar)
B. Pressure: 3.2 psi (0.22 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
C. Pressure 7 psi (0.048 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
D. Pressure: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar) Vacuum: 0.2 psi (0.014 bar)
302. When in-service testing a hose used for cargo transfer on an oil tanker (and for
which the elongation of the hose assembly when new was greater than 2.5%), the
maximum permitted elongation before the hose must be withdrawn from service
should be:
A. Not more than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation measured
when the hose assembly was new,
as documented in the
manufacturer's certificate.
B. Not less than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation measured
when the hose assembly was new,
as documented in the manufacturer's certificate.
392
DPKP
C. Not more than 1.5 times the temporary elongation measured at the previous
in-service test, as documented in the ship's annual test record.
D. Not more than 1.25 times the temporary elongation measured when the hose
assembly was last tested, as documented in the appropriate certificate.
303. When tank cleaning hoses are tested for electrical continuity, they must display a
reading of:
A. Not greater than 6 ohms per metre length.
B. Not more than 10 ohms per metre length.
C. At least 8 ohms per metre length.
D. It depends on the manufacturer's recommendations.
A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,
Unlawful acts threatening the safety
of the ship and the security of its
passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution,
Personnel accidents and Ship
Security
393
DPKP

instructions?
A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape
routes and alarm signals
306. Here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for life-
saving appliances?
A. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
D. Safety Management System
307. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?

A. Same number as beds in the cabin
B. At least 2
C. Twice the number of beds in the cabin
D. Non, they will be handed out at the muster station
308. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons
and above?
A. Two, one on each side of the ship
B. Two, and at least one of the rescue
boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
C. One Fast Rescue Boat
D. None
394
DPKP
309. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a
passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. One for each survival craft
D. It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF fitted in
a survival craft
310. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power
sypply?
A. Yes, the public address system shall
be connected to the emergency
source of power
B. Yes, only if the voyage is more than
12 hours
C. No, the crew will inform the
passengers in case of any black out
or power failure
D. No
311. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board passenger ships?

A. Yes, all passenger public spaces and
alleyways shall be provided with
supplementary electric lighting
B. No, portable battery operated lamps
shall be provided in alleyways and
public spaces
C. No, passengers should bring their
own flashlights
D. No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes
395
DPKP
312. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board
which type of ship?
A. Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
B. Chemical tankers
C. Tankers
D. Passenger ships fitted with car decks
313. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for
children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous
places on deck or at the muster stations?
A. 5% extra
B. 10% extra
C. 25% extra
D. 50% extra
314. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied
reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting?
A. The liferaft will automatically turn
back into an upright position when
it is empty of people
B. The liferaft will automatically turn
back into an upright position when it is fully loaded with people
C. One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position
D. It means the same as self-righting lifeboats
315. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
396
DPKP
316. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting
lights an self-activating smoke signals?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 50% of the total number of lifebuoys
D. At least 1
317. What is the name of this unit?

A. A hydrostatic release unit
B. A liferaft release unit
C. An antistatic release unit
D. A slip hook
318. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?

A. To identify and eliminate, as far as
practicable, congestion which may
develop during an abandonment
B. To ensure the ship can be evacuated
in less than 30 minutes
C. To provide port state control
inspectors with reports
D. To provide the passengers with
written results of the analysis
319. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships?

A. 30 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
B. 15 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
C. 2 hours from the time the abandon
ship signal is given
D. There is no time limit
397
DPKP
320. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire
safety systems?
A. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
321. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board
passenger ships?
A. From the navigation bridge and in at least one
other location
B. Navigation bridge
C. Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
D. Captain's office
322. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?
A. All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle, a light
and a smoke signal
B. Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at least 2 lifebuoys
provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating
smoke signals
C. All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle
and a light
D. The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous
398
DPKP
323. As part of the decommissioning process for old reefer vessels they are sent to a
recycling yard where any refrigerant remaining in the refrigeration system is dealt
with. Which one of the actions given in the options needs to be carried out in
preparation for delivery of a vessel to a recycling yard?
A. Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard and note
this in the Ozone depletionrecord
Book prior to discharging the gas
into recovery bottles.
B. Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard prior to
arrival at the yard and note this in
the Ozone Depleting Record Book.
C. Make a careful note of the quantities of gas onboard and note this in the
Ozone Depleting Record Book before discharging the gas to atmosphere.
D. Discharge the gas to atmosphere prior to arrival to minimise handling costs
at the recycling yard.
324. As well as having temperature sensors located in the cargo holds some reefer
vessels are also fitted with ethylene sensors. Why is it useful to have information
regarding the ethylene content in a reefer vessel cargo hold when carrying fruit
cargoes?
A. Some fruit cargoes are sensitive to ethylene and the quality of the cargo can
deteriorate as they may over-ripen.
B. The ethylene content can be used as a guide as to when air change fans need
to run.
C. The ethylene content is beneficial to perishable cargoes in transit so the
content needs to be monitored in case the level falls.
D. The ethylene content must be maintained to help ripen the fruit during the
sea voyage.
399
DPKP
325. Data loggers are a vital part of the temperature control and monitoring system on a
reefer vessel. In a situation where the data logger fails several days before the end
of the voyage it is still necessary to maintain control of and monitor cargo
temperatures. How could an accurate, portable thermometer be used to the best
effect, to achieve this, in such a situation?
A. Use the thermometer to check and control the delivery air temperature by
inserting it in the delivery air ducting close to the evaporators.
B. Use the thermometer to check and control the return air temperature by
holding it in the return air space on top of the cargo.
C. Use the thermometer to check the pulp temperature by entering the cargo
space and placing it in the centre of the stow.
D. Use the thermometer to maintain the delivery air settings as they were prior
to the data logger breaking down.
326. Despite setting what appears to be the correct delivery air temperatures in
accordance with shipper's instructions, large cargo loss claims can still occur when
operating reefer vessels. Which of the options given is likely to help avoid the
majority of these large claims?
A. By confirming the temperature scale that the shipper is using in his carriage
instructions, Fahrenheit or Celsius.
B. By confirming that the shipper is supplying to a market that works in
Fahrenheit or Celsius.
C. By confirming that the vessel plant is calibrated in the same temperature
scale that the shipper is quoting.
D. By confirming the whether the shipper is referring to the delivery air or pulp
temperature of the cargo.
400
DPKP
327. Many fruit cargoes are carried refrigerated and also under controlled atmosphere
(CA) conditions. A situation develops where there is a problem with the main reefer
plant that will take several hours to repair but the CA system is still operation.
Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in these
circumstances?
A. The CA plant is only an adjunct for the refrigeration plant and therefore
there should be concern about the condition of the cargo.
B. The CA plant will take care of the cargo without the refrigeration plant and
therefore there is no further action required and no need for concern.
C. The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of carbon dioxide in the
cargo space which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit.
D. The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of nitrogen in the cargo
spaces which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit.
328. Many reefer vessels are fitted with controlled atmosphere systems (CA). There are
a number of different systems available but generally they all work by introducing
nitrogen into the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the main reason why
nitrogen is generally the gas chosen for controlling the atmosphere in the cargo
spaces of a reefer vessel.
A. Nitrogen displaces the oxygen in the cargo space and allows the respiration
of the fruit to be controlled.
B. Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas available.
C. Nitrogen remains as a gas at all temperatures used in refrigerated transport.
D. Nitrogen is inert and there is no risk of creating a flammable mixture in the
cargo space.
401
DPKP
329. Most fruit cargoes carried under refrigeration require introduction of fresh air into
the cargo space to remove any excess carbon dioxide and ethylene produced by
respiration of the cargo and sensors are fitted to detect these gases. Shipper's
instructions will often indicate 'constant air change' as a requirement for a cargo.
Why, even though this is a crude method for controlling the cargo space
atmosphere, is this type of instruction given?
A. Some cargoes are very sensitive to ethylene levels and it may be difficult to
accurately measure the low levels that would affect a cargo.
B. It is the standard method and it is always done that way for simplicity.
C. As much fresh air as possible should always be introduced into the cargo
space throughout the voyage to maintain cargo quality.
D. Fresh air helps to acclimatise the cargo to the prevailing ambient conditions.
330. On a conventional reefer vessel is possible to ventilate the cargo spaces with fresh
air using fans and trunkings. One of the reasons for using fresh air ventilation is to
control the relative humidity within the cargo space. Select the option which best
completes the following statement. "It is beneficial to be able to control the relative
humidity within the cargo space because fruit cargoes should be kept…
A. …relatively moist to avoid the cargo dehydrating during the passage."
B. … relatively dry to avoid the formation of fungus in the vent trunkings
during the passage."
C. …relatively dry to avoid deterioration of the packaging during the passage."
D. ... As dry as possible to avoid build up of mould during the passage."
331. On a reefer vessel air is passed over the cooling coils before entering the cargo
hatch via trunking to cool the cargo. It is important to ensure that the cooling coils
are clear of any material such as plastic sheeting or bags. Why is this so important?
A. The plastic may interfere with the air flow over the cooling coils and
subsequently the cooling of the cargo.
B. The plastic sheeting may be picked up by and foul the cooling fans.
C. The plastic material may block scuppers and bilges.
D. The plastic material may affect condensation forming on the cooling coils.
402
DPKP
332. Prior to loading a reefer cargo it is good practise to carry out an 'ice test' of the
temperature sensors within the cargo space. Part of the test is to immerse the
sensors in a test bucket of known temperature, usually zero degrees Celsius as this
is the melting point of ice. Which of the options is correct in relation to preparing
the test bucket?
A. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2
centimetres square and a small quantity of distilled water to produce an ice-
water mixture. The ice cubes should be produced from clean distilled water.
B. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2
centimetres square which have been made from clean distilled water.
C. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice produced in the vessel's low
temperature chamber. A hole the exact size of the sensor should be drilled
into the ice and the sensor inserted into the hole to give a rapid test process.
D. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with crushed ice purchased in bulk
from a shore supplier.
333. Refrigerated cargo spaces are fitted with temperature sensors and in some cases
carbon dioxide sensors. From the options given select the one which best completes
the following statement. "Monitoring the carbon dioxide content in a cargo space
loaded with fruit can be useful because…
A. … increasing levels indicate that the fruit may be starting to ripen."
B. … its presence indicates that the fruit is ripe."
C. … low levels indicate that there are insufficient numbers of air changes."
D. … its presence indicates that the fruit is still not ripe."
334. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. "A
conventional reefer vessel operating with a controlled atmosphere plant must have
cargo spaces which…
A. … have a gas tight seal."
B. … have a minimum number of deckhead and bulkhead penetrations."
C. … have the normal bulkhead and deckhead penetrations required for a
reefer compartment."
D. … are fitted with variable speed fans."
403
DPKP
335. The data logger on a reefer vessel normally records temperatures for air delivery,
air return and cargo pulp. How would the air delivery and return temperatures be
expected to vary during the first few days of carrying a cargo of citrus fruit which
had not been pre-cooled before loading?
A. The difference between the two temperatures would steadily reduce.
B. The difference between the two temperatures would steadily increase.
C. The difference between the two temperatures would remain constant.
D. The two temperatures would remain constant
336. To correctly interpret the readings on the printout from a reefer vessel’s cargo data
logger it is essential to have some knowledge of the location of the temperature
sensors. Where would the temperature sensor for the delivery air to a cargo hold be
expected to be located?
A. In the air flow path from the cooling coils, about 3 metres from the coils.
B. In the air flow path from the cooling coils, but at the opposite end of the
cargo space to the coils.
C. Just above the cooling coils where the air returns from the cargo space.
D. Near the centre of the cargo space.
337. What should be done with the data logger printouts after completing the discharge
of a refrigerated cargo?
A. They should be retained onboard for a minimum of 2 years.
B. They should be retained onboard indefinitely.
C. They can be discarded once the discharge is completed.
D. They should be handed over to the cargo receiver.
338. During sea passage on a roro vessel, how would you know if gasoline vapours were
escaping from vehicles?
A. By using flammable gas detectors in the vehicle decks
B. By sense of smell
C. By using oxygen meters in the vehicle decks
D. By using carbon monoxide meters in the vehicle decks
404
DPKP
339. On a roro vessel, to what should you pay very close attention, when inspecting the
structure and condition of movable car decks?
A. Cracks in way of deck supports
B. General condition of the portable deck
C. Safety markings on the portable deck
D. Abrasions over the deck surface
340. On a roro vessel, what additional securing arrangements should be used when
loading a vehicle on an incline or fixed Ramp
A. The Vehicle should also be chocked under its wheels
B. Double the normal lashings should be used
C. Lashings should be checked to make sure they are really tight
D. None
341. On a roro vessel, what is Maximum Securing Load?

A. The load capacity of a device used to secure cargo on board
B. The combined capacity of several devices used to secure an item of cargo
on board
C. The safe working load of a device used to secure cargo on board
D. The combined safe working loads of various devices used to secure an items
of cargo on board
342. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of 'D' rings?
A. 50% of the breaking strength
B. 25% of the breaking strength
C. 35% of the breaking strength
D. 40% of the breaking strength
343. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of fibre ropes?
405
DPKP
344. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of mild steel shackles?
345. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of reusable use wire ropes?
346. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of single use wire ropes?
347. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of web lashings?
348. On a roro vessel, when should a trailer horse be taken out of service
A. If there is any damage to the wheel or spring, the frame is rusted or distorted
or the pads are worn out
B. Every 6 months for routine maintenance
C. Once per year
D. Never you use them until they collapse
406
DPKP
349. On a roro vessel, where can you find the validity of web lashings
A. On the certificate supplied with the equipment
B. On the bridge
C. In the cargo office
D. It does not have one they last forever
350. On a roro vessel, where will escaping gasoline vapourssettle in a cargo hold? If the
forced ventilation system is shut down
A. At the lowest levels
B. At deckhead level
C. In ventilator shafts
D. At all levels
351. What must you ensure when using portable slopes to discharge ro-ro units?
A. They must be exactly aligned with the units' tyres
B. They must be new
C. They must be free of dirt
D. The surfaces must be of the fish-bone type
352. When lowering a roro Cargo Side or Stern Ramp what must be ensured ?
A. The vessel is securely moored and
there is nothing beneath the ramp
B. The ramp must be lowered by the
duty officer only
C. The ramp must be lowered at the
minimum speed
D. The ramp surface must be clean
407
DPKP
A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,
Unlawful acts threatening the safety
of the ship and the security of its
passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution,
Personnel accidents and Ship
Security

instructions?
A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
355. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?

A. Same number as beds in the cabin
B. At least 2
C. Twice the number of beds in the cabin
D. None, they will be handed out at the muster station
408
DPKP
356. How many rescue boats should be provided on ro-ro passenger ships of 500 gross
tons and above?
A. Two, and at least one of the rescue
boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
B. Two Fast Rescue Boats, one on
each side of the ship
C. One Fast Rescue Boat
D. None providing the ship has lifeboats
357. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a
ro-ro passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and
upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. One for each survival craft
D. It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF
fitted in a survival craft
358. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power
sypply?
A. Yes, the public address system shall
be connected to the emergency
source of power
B. Yes, only if the voyage is more than
12 hours
C. No, the crew will inform the
passengers in case of any black out
or power failure
D. No
409
DPKP
359. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board ro-ro ships?

A. Yes, all passenger public spaces and
alleyways shall be provided with
supplementary electric lighting
B. No, portable battery operated lamps
shall be provided in alleyways and
public spaces
C. No, passengers should bring their
own flashlights
D. No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes
360. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for
children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous
A. 5% extra
B. 10% extra
C. 25% extra
D. 50% extra
361. Ro-ro passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or
canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-
righting?
A. The liferaft will automatically turn
it is empty of people
B. The liferaft will automatically turn
it is fully loaded with people
C. One person can manage to turn the
liferaft back into an upright position
D. It means the same as self-righting lifeboats
410
DPKP
362. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
363. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting
lights an self-activating smoke signals?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 50% of the total number of lifebuoys
D. At least 1
364. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?

A. To identify and eliminate, as far as practicable,
congestion which may develop during an
abandonment
B. To ensure the ship can be evacuated in less than
30 minutes
C. Provide port state control inspectors with
reports
D. To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis
365. What is the time limit for abandonment of ro-ro passenger ships?
A. 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
B. 15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
C. 2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given
D. There is no time limit
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366. What is this?

A. A hydrostatic release unit
B. A liferaft release unit
C. An antistatic release unit
D. A slip hook
367. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire
safety systems?
A. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
368. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for life-
saving appliances?
A. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
B. SOLAS
C. ISM Code
369. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board ro-ro
passenger ships?
A. From the navigation bridge and in at least one
other location
B. Navigation bridge
C. Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
D. Captain's office
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370. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?
A. All lifejackets shall be fitted with a
whistle, a light and a smoke signal
B. Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at
least 2 lifebuoys provided with self-
igniting lights an self-activating
smoke signals
C. All lifejackets shall be fitted with
reflex, a whistle and a light
D. The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous
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13. Memeriksa dan melaporkan kecacatan dan kerusakan ruang muat,

tutup palka dan tangki tolak bara (Inspect and report defects and
damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks )
1. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of repose
of 45 degrees; what does this indicate?
A. The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
B. The cargo pile will be very unstable
C. The cargo should not be accepted to load
D. The cargo may self-heat
2. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne
(m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?
A. 1500 cubic metres ( m3)
B. 15000 cubic metres (m3)
C. 1000 cubic metres
D. 3000 tonnes
3. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer
calculates 9 500 tonnes have been loaded; what should the Master do?
A. Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P& I Club
representative
B. No action to be taken
C. Bills of Lading to be signed "Clean" by Master.
D. Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA)
4. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; the coal is declared as
having a high moisture content (but less than the transportable moisture Limit
(TML)); what must the Master ensure?
A. All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount
of water logged; the bilges can then be pumped out.
B. The bilges must not be pumped out
C. The bilges must be pumped out regularly
D. The bilges should have been sealed prior to loading
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5. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the
Chief Officer to be rusted; what must the Master ensure?
A. Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference
numbers of the rusty coils and so make the
Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
B. No action needs to be taken.
C. Steel coils to be discharged
D. Cargo temperatures measured on voyage
6. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the
transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master
do?
A. Refuse to load the cargo unless the
vessel is specially designed for the
carriage of cargo which may liquefy
B. Load the cargo as the moisture
limits are within acceptable limits
C. Load cargo and ventilate on passage
to remove water
D. Load part cargo only
7. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a

transportable moisture limit of 18, what should the Master do?
A. Load the cargo as the moisture
content is within acceptable limits
B. Refuse to load the cargo as the
moisture content is outside
acceptable limits
C. Seek advice from charterers and
owners
D. Request additional moisture tests to
be done
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8. What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk?
A. Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon
monoxide in cargo and communicating
spaces
B. Possible dust explosion due to excessive
ventilation
C. Spontaneous combustion and self-heating
D. Possible liquefaction of cargo, en route
9. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose?

A. Liable to shift
B. Unlikely to shift
C. Always stable
D. Likely to produce toxic gas
10. What is the primary hazard associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a
Bulk Carrier?
A. The only possible hazard is
associated with ingress of water
into the hold and a loss of stability
B. There are no special hazards
associated with this cargo
C. This cargo maybe liable to
spontaneous combustion
D. The cargo may be liable to self
heat.
11. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow characteristics
are dependant on what criteria?
A. The volume of air in the cargo
B. The volume of water in the cargo
C. They are fixed and the cargo has a stowage
factor of 0.5 cubic metres/tone
D. The bulk density is standard at 900 kg/cubic meter
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12. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate
instruments to measure the concentration of what gases within the cargo space?
A. The gases specified in all of these
answers
B. The concentration of Methane only
C. The concentration of Oxygen only
D. The concentration of Carbon
Monoxide only
13. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates?

A. When he is fully satisfied that the
actual moisture content of the cargo
is less than the Transportable
Moisture Limit (TML)
B. Once the actual moisture content of
the cargo has been declared by the
shipper
C. As soon as the cargo holds have been passed for loading
D. After a laboratory analysis of the cargo has been carried out
14. A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping from
it. You should:
A. Reject the container.
B. Ensure that the container is
stowed below deck.
C. Ensure that the container is
stowed on deck.
D. Load the container and note
protest.
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15. A typical hazard associated with the carriage of ammonium nitrate is:
A. Explosion.
B. Environmental pollution.
C. Loss of ship stability.
D. Spontaneous combustion.
16. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a container vessel, carrying Calcium
Hypochlorite under refrigeration is beneficial so as to:
A. Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the danger
zone.
B. Maintain a continuous air flow through the cargo.
C. Maintain a record of the temperature of the cargo.
D. Ensure the cargo is shipped in a clean container.
17. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and swarf in containers is generally
considered dangerous, because:
A. It can spontaneously ignite.
B. This type of cargo will corrode the container.
C. The moisture will cause a huge increase in the
weight of the cargo.
D. The cargo will not dry out en route enroute.
18. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by:

A. Smothering.
B. Dousing with seawater.
C. Allowing cargo to smoulder.
D. Cooling with freshwater.
19. Exposure to moderate concentrations of ammonia may cause:

A. Choking and possible loss of eyesight.
B. Loss of memory.
C. Instant death.
D. Instant unconsciousness.
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20. Fire in a container carrying chemicals is difficult to extinguish, because:

A. Heat is often produced due to
chemical reactions within the cargo.
B. Water, if used, will always cause a
chemical fire to flare up.
C. Such containers containing
chemicals are always inaccessible.
D. Chemical fires always spread
instantaneously to other containers.
21. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended:

A. To allow ventilation.
B. To restrict ventilation.
C. Not to use water to cool the container.
D. Not to use dry chemical to extinguish the fire.
22. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel should not be exceeded because this
can cause:
A. Failure of the corner posts of the
containers stowed at the bottom of
the stack.
B. The lashings to be overloaded.
C. The GM tov become excessive
leading to high roll accelerations.
D. Torsional effects on the hull.
23. The most important consideration, in terms of stress, when planning stowage of
containers on a container vessel would be:
A. Distribution and weight of the containers.
B. Distribution of the containers only.
C. Weight of the containers only.
D. The vessel's draft and trim.
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24. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or
deballasting operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources
or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and
therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the
marine environment". Such substances are:
A. A category "Y" substance as
identified in MARPOL Annex II.
B. A category "X" substance as
identified in MARPOL Annex II.
C. An NLS as defined in ISGOTT,
revision V.
D. A liquid cargo that is prohibited for
carriage in vessels other than type 1
chemical tanker, as defined in the IBC Code.
25. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and
before the loading of "high-spec" cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that might
be expected to produce unsatisfactory results during initial wall-wash analysis
would be:
A. Hydrocarbons.
B. Non-volatile matter.
C. Odor.
D. Color.
26. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are
classified as:
A. "OS" (Other substances)"
B. Category Y
C. Category Z
D. Category X
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27. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria for defining
Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is:
A. The time-weighted concentration of a substance to which a worker may be
repeatedly exposed for a normal 8 hour working day and 40 hour week
without adverse health effects.
B. The maximum concentration of a vapour to which a worker may be
repeatedly exposed for a maximum of 12 hours per day, 5 days per week
without serious health effects.
C. The maximum concentration of harmful vapour to which a worker may be
exposed for a period of 15 minutes up to 4 times within any 24 hour period
without adverse respiratory effects.
D. The concentration of a vapour expressed as a percentage of the oxygen
content of an environment in which a fit human-being can work
continuously for a period of 8 hours.
28. It is considered especially necessary to continue to ventilate the tank and to

continuously monitor the atmosphere when working inside a cargo compartment
which still contains vegetable oil residues, because:
A. The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous gases, reducing the
levels of oxygen in the tank and making the atmosphere potentially
dangerous.
B. Forced ventilation will create a hard "skin" on the residues, making them
safer to stand on. Testing the atmosphere will indicate when this skin has
formed, as no further vapours will be released.
C. Vegetable oils are commonly washed using very hot water. Forced
ventilation will make the temperature inside the compartment better to work
in. Monitoring the atmosphere will indicate if the humidity is increasing.
D. For a tank which has contained vegetable oils, if it is continuously
ventilated an Enclosed Space Entry Permit is not required. However, for
anyone entering the compartment without a permit in place, they must carry
an oxygen meter which continuously monitors the atmosphere.
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29. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying substances’ as:

A. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting
point of less than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 5°C above its
melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a
melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a temperature of less
than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
B. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting
melting point equal to or greater than 20°C, is at a temperature of less than
15°C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
C. A noxious liquid which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form
at ambient, or less than ambient temperatures unless an external heat source
is applied.
D. A noxious liquid substance which will crystallise and eventually bond into
solid form if exposed to an external heat source.
30. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity substance’ as:

A. A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal to
or greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading temperature.
B. A noxious liquid substance in category "Y" with a viscosity equal to or
greater than 100 mpa.s at 37.8 degrees Celsius.
C. A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point of greater than
37.8 degrees Celsius.
D. Any noxious liquid substance, the residues of which cannot be stripped from
a cargo compartment and its associated piping and pumping system to equal
to or less than 75 litres.
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31. The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous products
(ethyl ether, antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by prescribing
that:
A. They shall be carried in cargo tanks
independent of the ships hull
structure?
B. They shall be carried in tanks
surrounded by water ballast?
C. They shall be carried only in centre
tanks having double bottoms?
D. The cargo shall not have a height in
any tank above that of the vessel's
waterline?
32. Which of the following groups of chemical cargoes is particularly susceptible to

polymerisation, especially through exposure to heat?
A. Monomers.
B. Aliphatic Amines.
C. Paraffins.
D. Aldehydes.
33. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the North Atlantic in winter time. What
precaution will you take with the double bottom tank located under the cargo tank
containing the Phenol?
A. It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the structure around the
product because Phenol has a relatively high melting point.
B. It should be inerted, because Phenol has a very low Flash Point.
C. It should be continuously vented to avoid the build up of condensation on
the structure around the product.
D. It is not necessary to take any additional precautions with the double bottom
tank because it is part of an entirely separate pumping system.
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34. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a chemical tanker and are about to clear
the lines into the ship. The one particular hazard that must be noted about this
product would be that:
A. It is a static accumulator and settling time must be allowed before gauging.
B. It has a relatively low density. Tanks which are close to maximum filling
are especially liable to overflow during the line clearing operation unless the
flow of blowing medium is strictly controlled.
C. It has a relatively high freezing point and additional line blowing will be
required to ensure the vessel's lines are completely clear.
D. It is a carcinogen but has a relatively high odor threshold value. Personnel
may not readily detect any vapour that is ejected through the vent risers and
should therefore use filter masks while this operation is in progress.
35. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used when dealing with LNG
cargoes. What is the main information that can be obtained from a Mollier
diagram?
A. Information about the exact values
of the pressure, density, specific
volume and dryness fraction of the
vapour when both the enthalpy and
temperature are known.
B. Information about the exact values
of pressure, enthalpy, specific
volume and dryness fraction of the
vapour when only the temperature is known.
C. Information about the exact values of enthalpy, specific volume and dryness
fraction of the vapour when the pressure and temperature are known.
D. Information about the variation in vapour temperature for a known pressure.
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36. An important physical property of LNG is the saturation vapour pressure. What is
the IMO definition of the term "saturated vapour pressure"?
A. The pressure at which a vapour is in
equilibrium with its liquid at a
specified temperature.
B. The pressure at which all of the
liquid becomes vapour.
C. The pressure at which all of the
vapour returns to the liquid state.
D. A vapour mixture which has an
equal mass of each of the different vapours in the mixture.
37. During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the LNG cargo through the cargo
tank insulation which causes some boil off of the cargo. This boil off changes the
composition of the LNG as more of the lighter components will vaporise. Which
component of the LNG cargo is likely to have a lower than original percentage on
arrival at the discharge port?
A. Methane.
B. Ethane.
C. Butane.
D. Pentane.
38. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when looking at the physical properties and
characteristics. With reference to the physical properties of gas mixtures which of
the given options is the SIGTTO definition of the term 'mole'?
A. The mass that is numerically equal to the molecular
mass.
B. The volume occupied by one molecular mass in
grams.
C. A graphic method of representing the heat quantities
contained in air.
D. A substance capable of causing cancer.
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39. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by sea. What is the IMO's definition
of liquefied gases?
A. Liquids with a vapour pressure
exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +37.8
C and certain other chemicals listed
in the Gas Codes.
B. Liquids with a vapour pressure
exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +100
C and certain other chemicals listed
in the Gas Codes.
C. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +73.8 C and
certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes.
D. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 8.2 bar absolute at +37.8 C and
certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes.
40. What is a typical composition of LNG (Arabian Gulf LNG)?

A. Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3%
B. Methane 100%
C. Methane 80% - Ethane 15% - Propane 5%
D. Methane 75% - Ethane 12% - Propane 13%
41. What is the relative liquid density of Methane?

A. 0.427
B. 0.583
C. 0.554
D. 0.624
42. A number of substances are carried as cargoes on liquefied gas carriers. Of those
given in the options, which is the most reactive, and therefore least compatible,
with other liquefied gas cargoes?
A. Chlorine
B. Methane
C. Ethylene
D. Propane
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43. Ethylene is normally carried on fully refrigerated liquefied gas carriers at its
atmospheric boiling point. What is the approximate atmospheric boiling point of
ethylene?
A. Minus 104 degrees C
B. Minus 162 degrees C
C. Minus 48 degrees C
D. Minus 10 degrees C
44. Hydrate formation may be a problem with some LPG cargoes. The hydrates may
enter cargo pumps, block lubricating passages, unbalance impellers and seize
bearings. What is the most common practice to prevent such problems?
A. Inject a small quantity of freezing-point
depressant into the pump.
B. Increase the cargo temperature.
C. Slow down the pumping rate.
D. Hydrates can be avoided by using
cargo filters
45. Polymerisation may be a problem with some liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl
chloride and ethylene oxide. What is the definition of polymerisation?
A. Polymerisation is when single
molecules of the same
compound join together to form
a new compound usually with a
higher viscosity.
B. Polymerisation is when molecules of two or more different compounds join
together to form a new compound.
C. Polymerisation is when the molecules of a compound split and form a new
compound.
D. Polymerisation is when liquids cool down and become more viscous.
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46. The 'Critical Temperature' is important when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes.
What is the IMO Gas Codes' definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'?
A. It is the temperature above
which a gas cannot be liquefied
by pressure alone.
B. It is the temperature at which a
cargo of liquefied gas must be carried.
C. It is the temperature at which liquefied gas cargoes give off flammable
vapours.
D. It is the temperature at which vapours from a liquefied gas cargo will self-
ignite.
47. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures which evolve from normal
petroleum products are greater than the density of air. What would be the
approximate relative density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air and propane
relative to 100% air?
A. 1.25
B. 2.0
C. 1.55
D. 1.8
48. What is the main reason that LPG boil-off gas is unsuitable for use in the vessel's
fuel supply?
A. LPG vapour is heavier than air at
atmospheric conditions and
represent a risk as they may
accumulate in machinery spaces.
B. LPG is too expensive to use as fuel.
C. LPG vapour is too difficult to
ignite.
D. Reliquefaction of LPG vapour is a
simple process and is a cheaper option than burning the boil-off gas in the
boiler.
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49. When butadiene is carried as a liquid gas cargo it usually has inhibitors added. One
reason for this is to minimise the formation of polymers. What is the other reason
for adding inhibitors to this particular cargo?
A. To scavenge any oxygen that may
be present to prevent peroxide
formation.
B. To prevent an exothermic reaction
of the cargo
C. To minimise pressure build up in
the cargo tank.
D. To maintain the solubility of water
in the cargo at low temperatures.
50. Which publication contains detailed information, in the form of material safety data
sheets, relating to the chemical and physical properties and associated hazards of
the most commonly transported liquefied gases, including LPG?
A. The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied Gases)
B. The IGC code
C. The International Certificate of Fitness
D. The IBC Code
51. Why must inert gas from a combustion-type generator never be used when
preparing the cargo tanks of a liquefied gas carrier for a cargo of ammonia?
A. Because inert gas from this type of
generator contains carbon dioxide
which reacts with ammonia to form
carbamates.
B. Because inert gas from this type of generator has a high water content which
can react with ammonia to produce high pressure conditions.
C. Because the high oxygen content in inert gas from this type of generator
will form a flammable mixture with ammonia.
D. Because the high temperature of the inert gas from this type of generator
may ignite the ammonia.
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52. When preparing the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier for loading it is important to
consider the dew point of the vapour mixtures present in the tank. What is the
definition of the "dew point" of a vapour mixture containing water vapour?
A. The dew point is the temperature
at which the water vapour begins
to condense as the temperature
decreases.
B. The dew point is the pressure at
which the water vapour begins to
condense as the temperature
decreases.
C. The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to
evaporate as the temperature decreases.
D. The dew point is the temperature at which all of the water vapour has
completely condensed.
53. Which of the given options is the approximate value of the flammable range for
Methane measured as a percentage volume in air?
A. 5.3 - 14.0% by volume.
B. 2.6 - 12.4% by volume.
C. 3.5 - 13.0% by volume
D. 1.4 - 10.8% by volume
54. A petroleum product is considered “Non-Volatile” when:

A. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C
or above (closed cup method), these
liquids produce, when at any
normal ambient temperature,
equilibrium gas concentrations
below the Lower Flammable Limit.
B. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C
or below (closed cup method), these
liquids produce, when equal to or below any ambient temperature, gas
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concentrations of less than 5% by volume.

C. With a Flashpoint of 37.8 degrees C or above (open cup method), these
liquids produce, when at any normal ambient pressure, equilibrium gas
concentrations below the Lower Flammable Limit.
D. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (open cup method), these
liquids produce, when at any normal ambient temperature, equilibrium gas
concentrations above the Upper Flammable Limit.
55. Anti-static additives are used to treat fuel oil cargoes so as to:
A. Ensure they become non-accumulator of static charge.
B. Ensure they become an accumulator of static charge.
C. Ensure their relaxation time after loading is extended.
D. Ensure they become mildly magnetic during the voyage.
56. At which of the following concentrations of Hydrogen Sulphide would dizziness,

headache, nausea, etc. Occur within 15 minutes of exposure, followed by loss of
consciousness and possibly death, after 30-60 minutes of exposure?
A. 500-700 ppm.
B. 50-70 ppm.
C. 1,000 - 2,000 ppm.
D. 200-300 ppm.
57. Besides danger of vapour inhalation by crewmembers, if Hydrogen Sulphide is

present in high concentrations in crude oil, it can also cause:
A. Corrosion.
B. Polymerisation.
C. Acid build-up.
D. Settling and layering.
58. The approximate API gravity of Arabian Light Crude is:

A. 33 degrees.
B. 27 degrees.
C. 30 degrees.
D. 40 degrees.
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59. The approximate density ratio of undiluted gas, in relation to air, from a typical
crude oil is:
A. 1.5 times that of the air.
B. Twice that of the air.
C. 0.8 times that of the air (assuming atmospheric
pressure above 1000 mb).
D. 1.8 times that of the air.
60. The name given to compounds consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms
joined together by single bonds is:
A. Saturated hydrocarbons.
B. Sour crude.
C. Unsaturated hydrocarbons.
D. Alkadienes.
61. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is determined by the:

A. The Reid Closed Test method.
B. The Crude Open Test Method.
C. The API Open Cup Laboratory Method.
D. The ASTM Elementary Assessment Method.
62. When an inhibitor is added to an oil cargo, the items mentioned on the
accompanying certificate include:
A. Inhibitor name; amount added; date
added; period of efficiency;
precautions if voyage length
exceeds that period; eventual
temperature limitation.
B. Inhibitor class; amount added; date
of expiry; minimum period of
optimum efficiency; precautions to
be taken when added; minimum temperature requirement.
C. Inhibitor name; percentage applied; date of expiry; precautions to be taken
on voyage and interval of application; maximum temperature at which
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continuously effective.
D. Inhibitor class; percentage blended; date added; maximum period of
efficiency and applicable temperature limits; maximum storage period on
board; contact number of manufacturer.
63. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g. Aviation Turbine Oils) it is important to
carefully monitor ship’s tanks during passage, because these cargoes can:
A. Release oxygen, which they may have
absorbed during the refining process,
into the ullage spaces of ship’s cargo
tanks
B. Release acidic effluents which may
make the entire cargo go off-spec
resulting in financial claims
C. Release acids during tropical sea area transit, which may result in increased
corrosion of the ships tanks and internals
D. Release vapours which may cause vapour contamination of the entire cargo
64. When carrying out oil cargo calculations, the relationship between absolute and
gauge pressure is:
A. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + barometric pressure.
B. Gauge pressure = absolute pressure + barometric pressure.
C. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure x 0.947 barometric pressure.
D. Gauge pressure = barometric pressure / atmospheric pressure
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65. When describing the characteristics of oil cargoes or oil/water slops, a ‘mercaptan”
is:
A. A colourless, odorous gas, with a smell
similar to rotting cabbage and which is
generated naturally by the degredation of
natural organisms, as may be found
where water has remained under oil for a
long time.
B. A chemical additive blended with crude
oil to inhibit the natural "rotton egg" smell associated with certain grades.
C. The component of hydrocarbon-based cargoes which is formed from
Merolion Carbonized Tannin.
D. A device fitted to a cargo pump which automatically alerts the operator once
traces of water start to be detected during discharge.
66. When referring to crude oil petroleum products, “volatility” means:

A. Their tendency to produce gas.
B. Their tendency to ignite.
C. Their ability to resist ignition.
D. A measure their vapour pressure.
67. Which of the following type of crude oil requires special consideration in terms of
carriage and cleaning?
A. Paraffinic Crude.
B. Sweet Crude.
C. Medium Crude.
D. Reconstituted Crude.
68. With reference to chemistry of petroleum cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are saturated

hydrocarbons, then unsaturated hydrocarbons are:
A. Alkenes.
B. Alkanes.
C. Pentenes.
D. Octanes.
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69. With reference to oil cargo characteristics, ‘cloud point’ is:

A. The temperature at which a liquid
hydrocarbon begins to congeal and take on
a cloudy appearance, due to the bonding of
constituent paraffin compounds.
B. The temperature at which an oil product
begins to emit vapours which can be
observed in a spectroscope due to the
volume of solid particles extracted during evaporation.
C. The surface pressure at which vapours from an oil cargo overcome gravity
and friction and are expelled from the containing compartment.
D. The depth within a cargo above which no waxy solids are entrained.
70. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax content is generally referred to as:
A. The percentage of paraffinic wax by volume, based on a representative
sample of the crude oil.
B. The observed volume percentage of waxy deposits found in a cargo tank
after discharge in relation to the total volume of cargo previously carried.
C. The percentage of wax remaining in an oil product after distillation.
D. The amount of additive in an oil product, expressed in ppm, designed to
inhibit solidification at lower temperatures.
71. At what latest time shall doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and coaling
ports and other openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at
the start of the voyage?
A. Before leaving the port
B. Before entering open waters
C. Before leaving the pilot station
D. Before leaving the berth
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72. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable from:
A. Above the bulkhead deck

B. The bridge
C. The engine room
D. The section where the unsymmetrical flooding occurs
73. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be
in each zone?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four
74. How often shall watertight doors in main transverse bulkheads which is in use at
sea be operated (tested)?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Every two weeks
D. Every month
75. In which cases shall side scuttles in passenger ships be so constructed that they
cannot be opened without the consent of the master of the ship?
A. Where the sills of the side scuttles are below the margin line
B. Where the sills are mounted below the bulkhead deck
C. Where the sills of the side scuttles are less than 500 mm above the deepest
load line
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D. Where the height of the side scuttles go through more than two decks
76. Is there any requirements regarding double bottom for large passenger ships?
A. Yes, in ship of 76 m in length and
upwards, a double bottom shall be
fitted amidships, and shall extend to
the fore and after peak bulkheads,
or as near thereto as practicable.
B. Yes, in ships of 76 m in length and
longer, a double bottom shall be
fitted amidships, and extend to the
fore and aft not less that ¼ of the ship length.
C. Yes, a double bottom shall be fitted amidship
D. No, a double bottom is not required
77. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?

A. A ship which carries more than 12
passengers
B. A ship which is arranged and fitted
for carriage of persons which are
not members of the ship's crew
C. A ship which carries passengers
only
D. A purpose-built passenger ship
carrying persons only on defined lines or routes
78. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors (class 3 doors) compulsory for
all watertight doors aboard passenger ships?
A. Where the ship has passenger spaces below the bulkhead deck
B. Where one or more doors are situated below deepest load line
C. When the ship is certified for more than 150 passengers
D. Where the ship is fitted with through-going car decks
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79. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in enclosed or confined
spaces, what action should be taken?
A. Arrangements should be made for
testing of the atmosphere to ensure
maintenance of 21% oxygen and a
carbon monoxide content below 50
ppm in the atmosphere of the space
B. Open both bow- and stern doors
C. Supply filter masks to all crew
working on ro-ro deck
D. Ro-ro decks are always ventilated in
advance of an operation
80. Cargoes of frozen beef and chilled beef have approximate carriage temperatures of
minus 18 and minus 1 degree Celsius respectively. Greater care is required when
carrying chilled beef as it is more sensitive to deviations from, and requires finer
control of, its recommended carriage temperature. Which option best completes the
following statement? "This additional care is worthwhile because…
A. …chilled beef commands a much
higher price in the market."
B. ...carrying chilled beef is a modern
innovation."
C. …chilled beef is healthier for
consumers."
D. …chilled beef can be kept longer
than frozen beef."
81. Certain live refrigerated cargoes such as fruit, salad, vegetable and plant cargoes are
sensitive to ethylene during shipment. Select the option which best completes the
following statement. "Ethylene is described as a gas which …
A. ...is a natural fruit ripening hormone."
B. …can cause any type of refrigerated cargo to ripen."
C. …can cause a fruit cargo to ripen if it is present in a large concentration."
D. …is beneficial for the carriage of certain types of fruit."
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82. During loading of bananas the fruit should be visually inspected frequently to check
the quality and for any indications as to its physiological development. Which one
of the options given would indicate that the fruit is in suitable condition for
shipment?
A. The bananas have a uniform green colour with
relatively sharp ridges along the length. They
can be snapped or broken with sap clinging
between the broken parts.
B. The bananas are green with a yellow hue. They
are not really hard and do not break cleanly.
C. The bananas are yellow with small black spots on the skin. They cannot be
snapped but the skin can be peeled off.
D. The bananas are green in colour with patches on the shoulder from the
effects of sunshine and have relatively sharp ridges along the length. They
can be snapped with sap clinging to the broken parts.
83. It is possible to successfully mix certain types of refrigerated cargo in the same
space if they are compatible. Sometimes apparently dissimilar cargoes can be
successfully mixed. Which one of the combinations given in the options could be
successfully carried as a mixed cargo in the same cargo space?
A. Oranges and apples.
B. Oranges and bacon.
C. Oranges and butter.
D. Oranges and rock lobster.
84. Most perishable cargoes are presented for shipment pre-cooled to the correct
carriage temperature. If the cargo is not pre-cooled or has warmed up due to the
cold chain being broken it can result in increased metabolic rates. Which of the
given options would be the most difficult to deal with if such a situation occurred
during a sea passage?
A. The heat produced by the cargo.
B. The carbon dioxide produced by the cargo.
C. The trace gases produced by the cargo.
D. The water produced by the cargo.
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85. Refrigerated cargoes are generally easy to secure for a sea passage when compared
to some bulk, timber and project type cargoes. The cargo must be stowed so that it
will not shift during the voyage and so that a good air flow can be maintained
through the cargo. Which one of the given options is most likely to result in this
required outcome and a successful carriage?
A. A tight uniform stow which forces
air through the cargo.
B. A tight uniform stow but with
vertical gaps in the cargo for air
flow.
C. A loose uniform stow.
D. The stow is unimportant as it is only
the temperature in the hold which
determines whether or not the cargo is carried successfully.
86. Some perishable cargoes which are normally carried refrigerated can also be carried
non-refrigerated even on a long sea passage. This requires that the commodity is
suitably packed and correctly ventilated during transport. Select the option which
correctly completes the following statement. "The type of cargo most suited for a
sea passage under ventilation only would be…
A. …onions."
B. …pineapples."
C. …grapes."
D. …strawberries."
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87. Strawberries are a sensitive cargo with a relatively short carriage life and can only
be carried on short sea passages. They are often irradiated for transport. Select the
true statement from the options given relating to the effect of irradiation.
A. The main effect of irradiating
strawberries prior to transport is that
it kills off any bacteria on the fruit.
B. The main effect of irradiating
it improves the colour of the fruit.
C. The main effect of irradiating
it kills any flies on the fruit.
D. A cargo of irradiated strawberries must be stowed well away from the crew
accommodation to reduce the possible effects of cobalt 60 radiation.
88. When considering how non-containerised perishable cargoes such as bananas and
grapes are presented for loading the temperature of the cargo is important. Which
one of the statements included in the options is correct?
A. Bananas are loaded at field
temperature while grapes are pre-
cooled.
B. Grapes are loaded at field
temperature while bananas are pre-
cooled.
C. Bananas and grapes are both loaded
at field temperature.
D. Bananas and grapes are both loaded pre-cooled.
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89. In roro Cargo Planning What should be considered for the location of stowage of a
heavy loads such as transformer, locomotive or work boats?
A. The stability of the vessel, access to the
location and the SWL of the stowage
location
B. The discharge port rotation
C. Day of the week
D. Requests from the stevedore
90. In roro Cargo planning where should you look to find information on securing
cargos
A. In the vessels approved Cargo Securing Manual
B. On the bulkhead in the ships office
C. On the internet
D. In the maintenance guide for the cargo securing equipment onboard
91. In roro cargo securing which of the following can be used as a general rule for
deciding lashing requirements of a cargo unit
A. The total of the MSL values of the securing devices on each side of a unit of
cargo (port as well as starboard) should equal the weight of the unit.
B. Total MSL for all securing devices should equal the weight of the cargo
C. Total MSL for all securing devices should be at least half the weight of the
cargo
D. Put one lashing on each corner
92. On a roro vessel in a wet climate what can happen to wheeled cargoes?
A. Lashings can become slack over time and the cargo is more likely to shift
due to the wet weather
B. The lashings will become clean because of the water
C. Sticking of wheels to deck plating
D. The ship's paintwork flaking and falling onto the cargo
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93. On a roro vessel, how should caterpillar crawlers stowed on hatch covers be
secured?
A. By means of wire ropes or chains secured to the hatch covers and to the
main deck from all four sides of the unit
B. By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch covers from all four sides of
the unit
C. By means of wire ropes secured to the main deck from all four sides of the
unit
D. By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch coamings
94. On a roro vessel, what should be done first when cargo has shifted at sea on a roro
vessel and re-lashing is not possible?
A. Alter course and/or speed to reduce the accelerations and prevent further
damage
B. Go Faster to outrun the problem
C. Nothing can be done carry on the same
D. Take action to improve stability
95. On a roro vessel, what should be done when cargoes that transmit stack loads are to
be loaded onto the vessel's decks or hatch covers?
A. Stow the cargo on timbers of sufficient thickness so as to distribute the stack
load
B. Weld additional steel plates to the deck and/or hatch covers where stack
loads are transmitted
C. Stow the full length of cargo on any timbers reguardless of their
D. Load the cargo under-deck instead
96. On a roro vessel, what should one consider prior to loading machinery with
caterpillar crawlers on the hatch covers?
A. Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers and the horizontal
restraint of hatch covers and coamings
B. Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers
C. The horizontal restraint of hatch covers
D. The horizontal restraint of hatch coamings
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97. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with
fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
A. Tyre and bodywork damages
B. Tyre damage
C. Meltdown of internal plastic areas
D. Damage to vehicles' engines
98. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature
variations be stowed?
A. Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated
machinery
B. On deck away from the accommodation
C. Anywhere under-deck
D. Anywhere along the side of the main deck
99. At what time should lashings be released?

A. Lashings should not be released
for unloading before the ship is
secured at the berth, without the
Master's express permission.
B. Lashings should be released when
the ship enters enclosed waters.
C. The crew can release lashings prior
to arrival to avoid any delays.
D. As soon as the weather conditions
are favourable, lashings can be released.
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100. How can you arrange for safe movement of passengers on ro-ro decks?
A. Passengers should be warned of
vehicle movements when entering
or crossing car or vehicle decks.
They should preferably keep to
walkways while moving about the
ship.
B. Passengers should stay in their cars
until loading is completed. They
should keep to walkways when leaving the car.
C. Passengers are responsible for their own safety while moving about ro-ro
decks.
D. It is easy, only drivers are allowed to stay in the car during loading and
unloading.
101. Normally ventilation fans in enclosed ro-ro spaces must be run continuously
whenever vehicles are on board, why?
A. An increased number of air
changes may be required when
vehicles are being loaded or
unloaded, or where flammable
gases or liquids are stowed in
closed ro-ro spaces
B. It is better to run the fans
continuously instead of testing the
atmosphere
C. It is easier for the crew, they don't have to think about starting and stopping
of fans
D. The manufacturer of the fans recommends continuous operation to reduce
maintenance cost
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102. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly
marked?
A. Refuse to load the vehicle
B. Ask the driver to write a declaration
of contents and load the vehicle
C. As long as the driver looks ok, load
the cargo
D. Load it, usually tank lorries are not
clearly marked
103. What type of cargo shall always be secured?

A. Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent vehicles should
always be secured.
B. Tank lorries should always be
secured.
C. No cargo or vehicles have to be
secured if the weather conditions
are favourable.
D. The driver must ask the crew to
secure the vehicle and its cargo
104. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in ro-ro cargo spaces,
what action should be taken?
A. Arrangements should be made for
testing of the atmosphere to ensure
maintenance of 21% oxygen and a
carbon monoxide content below 50
ppm in the atmosphere of the space
B. Open both bow- and stern doors
C. Supply filter masks to all crew
working on ro-ro deck
D. Ro-ro decks are always ventilated
in advance of an operation
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105. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods?
A. IMDG code
B. SOLAS code
C. HB code
D. KLMNG code
106. Who should operate ships' ramps, car platforms, retractable car decks and similar
equipment?
A. Only competent persons
authorised by a responsible ships'
officer, in accordance with the
company's work instructions.
B. Only the ships' officers.
C. Bosun and the loading officer
D. All crew working on ro-ro deck
107. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate be
carried out?
A. Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month.
B. Every year
C. Every fourth year provided the lifesaving appliances are inspected annually.
108. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the:
A. Load line certificate
B. Ship's safety certificate
C. Safety construction certificate
D. Ship's trading certificate
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109. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specific
dutys and responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment on , for example, a
liquefied tanker?
A. A tankerman certificate
B. A tankerman certificate or sea service for at least 6 months
C. Documentation of the prescribed courses
D. Documentation of sea service on tankers for at least 6 months
110. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of
cotton commonly tend to cause:
A. Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
B. Large instantaneous fires.
C. Heavy amounts of ship's sweat.
111. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:
A. Crushing and distortion.
B. Bending.
C. Tearing.
D. Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.
112. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo
vessel is associated with:
A. Risk of explosion
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Corrosion of steelwork
D. Build up of carbon dioxide gas
113. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause:

B. Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds.
C. Moisture absorption in the cargo holds.
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114. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to
state that:
A. They must not be exposed to salt water
contamination.
B. They can be loaded in heavy rain.
C. They must always be shipped in stainless steel
envelopes.
D. They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.
115. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be
carried out by:
A. A classification society surveyor.
B. The master.
C. A deck officer designated by the master.
D. A marine surveyor appointed by the company.
116. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient
method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be:
A. Ultra sonic test.
B. Chalk test.
C. Visual inspection.
D. Hose test.
117. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes.
In this case, it would be correct to state that:
A. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
B. The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the
derrick.
C. The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by
small amounts in cargo operations, since the Breaking Load of the slings is
much higher.
D. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
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lifting gear must be at least 10% less than the SWL of the derrick.
118. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the
stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
A. Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
B. Continue discharge as planned and inform Designated Person
Ashore(DPA).
C. Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents.
D. Provide ships equipment to discharge.
119. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
A. Ships Capacity plan.
B. General Arrangement plan.
C. Docking plan.
D. Planned maintenance schedules.
120. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
A. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
B. The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
C. Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
D. Damage to the cargo by ship structures.
121. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to
deteriorate would be:
A. Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
B. Due to repeated hatch cover operations.
C. Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures.
D. Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.
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122. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
A. To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
B. To prevent the ventilator fans from damage.
C. To prevent moisture from entering the hold.
D. To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft.
123. The ship’s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined
at intervals not exceeding:
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
124. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it
must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the:
A. Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
B. Class surveyor.
C. Surveyor representing the vessel's hull &
machinery underwriters.
D. Surveyor representing the consignee.
125. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with
fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
A. Tyre and bodywork damages
B. Tyre damage
C. Meltdown of internal plastic areas
D. Damage to vehicles' engines
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126. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature
variations be stowed?
A. Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated
machinery
B. On deck away from the accommodation
C. Anywhere under-deck
D. Anywhere along the side of the main deck
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13. Pengangkutan muatan berbahaya (Carriage of dangerous goods)
1. A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate has a validity of:

A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
2. IMO recommendations on allowance for water absorption in timber deck cargoes

on a General Cargo Vessel state that:
A. 15% additional weight should be
used in stability calculation for the
arrival condition.
B. 25% additional weight should be
arrival condition.
C. 5% additional weight should be
arrival condition.
D. 10% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival
condition.
3. On a General Cargo ship which of the following statements is correct?

A. Cold rolled steel coils must never be loaded in
rain
B. Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rain
C. Cold rolled steel coils are always shipped in
stainless steel envelopes
D. Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rusty
condition
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4. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of
cotton commonly tend to cause:
B. Large instantaneous fires.
C. Heavy amounts of ship's sweat.
5. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:
A. Crushing and distortion.
B. Bending.
C. Tearing.
D. Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.
6. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo

vessel is associated with:
A. Risk of explosion
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Corrosion of steelwork
D. Build up of carbon dioxide gas
7. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause:

B. Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds.
C. Moisture absorption in the cargo holds.
8. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to
state that:
A. They must not be exposed to salt water
contamination.
B. They can be loaded in heavy rain.
C. They must always be shipped in stainless
steel envelopes.
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D. They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.
9. Which of the following cargoes can normally be loaded next to each other in the
same space of a General Cargo vessel?
A. Drums of cement and steel pipes
B. Drums of cement and bagged milk powder
C. Pallets of pesticides and bagged grain
D. Rolls new carpets and drums lubricating oils
10. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4
(flammable solids) cargoes loaded on a General Cargo vessel?
A. The goods require protection
against movement and can only be
loaded if a cargo declaration is
supplied by the shipper
B. The cargo can be stowed anywhere
on the vessel
C. The cargo is not covered by the
requirements of the IMDG Code
D. The goods can only be carried in the
forward part of the vessel
11. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to IMDG cargo, loaded
on a General cargo vessel, that is also classed as a Marine Pollutant
A. Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and preferably under deck if
IMDG Code allows
B. Cargo of this type can be loaded anywhere on board the vessel
C. This cargo can only be loaded on deck
D. This cargo can only be loaded under deck
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12. As understood within the IMDG Code, what is an "article"?

A. A device that contains a dangerous
substance or mixture of substances.
B. A form that contains important
information about a hazardous
substance.
C. A device that is responsible for
initiating a dangerous reaction.
D. Something that is packed within a
freight container.
13. In conjunction with which two sets of international regulations should the IMDG
Code be read for security purposes?
A. Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code.
B. Part B of the ISPS Code and Chapter II of the Maritime Transport and
Offshore Facilties Act.
C. Chapter V of SOLAS and Annex II of MARPOL.
D. IMO NVIC 24 and 46 CFR 2.05
14. In discussing segregation, the IMDG Code defines what it means by the term
"separated from". Which of the following is that definition?
A. In different compartments or holds
when stowed "under deck".
Provided an intervening deck is
resistent to fire and liquid, a vertical
separation may be accepted as
equivalent. For "on deck" stowage,
this segregation means a distance of
at least 6 metres.
B. Effectively segregated so that the incompatible goods cannot interact
dangerously in the event of an accident, but may be transported in the same
compartment or hold or on deck, provided a horizontal separation, projected
vertically, of 3 metres is obtained. Either in a vertical or horizontal
separation: if the intervening decks are not resistant to fire and liquid, then
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only in a longitudinal separation is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this

means a distance of at least 12 metres. This distance also applies to one
package stowed "on deck" and another in an upper compartment.
C. Either in a vertical or horizontal separation: if the intervening decks are not
resistant to fire and liquid, then only in a longitudinal separation is
acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this means a distance of at least 12
metres. This distance also applies to one package stowed "on deck" and
another in an upper compartment.
D. With an intervening compartment, being both a vertical and horizontal
separation. Provided an intervening deck is resistant to liquid and fire, a
vertical separation of 6 metres is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this
segregation means a distance of at least 12 metres irrespective of
compartment divisions.
15. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG Code as
potentially being the most dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it?
A. Organic peroxides.
B. Liquefied gases.
C. Infectious substances.
D. Toxic substances.
16. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous
Goods List of the IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories.
How are those categories designated?
A. 5 categories, labelled A-E.
B. 10 categories, numbered 1-10.
C. 10 categories, lattered A-K
(excluding I).
D. Three categories, numbered I, ii
and iii.
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17. The Classes drawn up by the UN Committee of Experts for the safe handling of
hazardous substances, as listed in the IMDG Code, are drawn up on the basis of
which of the following criteria?
A. The type of hazard they present.
B. Selective laboratory tests commissioned by the Committee.
C. Alphabetical order.
D. Chronological order in which they have been assessed.
18. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants
is regulated under which international guidelines?
A. Protocol I of MARPOL.
B. Annex II to SOLAS 1974.
C. Appendix B of the Supplement to the IMDG
Code.
D. The UN Convention on the Reporting of
Accidents and Incidents which Present a
Hazard to the Marine Environment 2004.
19. Where should placards be located on a freight container?

A. One on each end and one on each side.
B. One on each end (only).
C. One on each side (only).
D. One of the back end and one on one of the
sides (only).
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20. Which of the following is a definition of the "Proper Shipping Name", as found in
the IMDG Code?
A. The name to be used in any
documentation relating to the
transportation of the dangerous
substance, material or article, such as
on forms, labels and placards.
B. The name assigned by the
manufacturer to a material, substance
or article for the purposes of
shipment.
C. The correct chemical name of a potentially hazardous material, as identified
from the Chemical Cargo List.
D. The name under which a dangerous material, substance or article is
described for export purposes in the country of loading.
21. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code?
A. A substance which is subject to the
provisions of Annex III of
MARPOL.
B. A substance which is subject to the
provisions of Chapter V of SOLAS
1974, as amended.
C. Any substance which is deemed
hazardous to the marine
environment
D. A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, or
because of its hazard potential to the aquatic environment is subject to the
provisions of Annex I of MARPOL, as amended, and carried by sea
accordingly.
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22. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods?
A. IMDG code
B. SOLAS code
C. HB code
D. KLMNG code
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15. Pengendalian trim, stabilitas dan tegangan (Control trim, stability and
stress )
1. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a
ship, what will quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
A. Doubling the roll period
B. Doubling the pitch period
C. Halving the roll period
D. Halving the pitch period
2. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?

A. By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the
ship
B. By the virtual loss of GM
C. By the development of a negative GM
D. By an increase in the angle of pitch
3. What does heaving result in?

A. Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
B. Shearing of container twistlocks
C. Longitudinal accelerations acting on hatch pontoons
D. Tipping of containers
4. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
A. Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
B. Failure without warning
C. Low elasticity
D. Diminished cargo carrying capacity
5. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder?

A. The number of repeated stress cycles
B. Repeated plastic deformation of the hull
C. Panting stresses
D. Resonant rolling
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6. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculating

rolling forces?
A. 24 - 30 degrees
B. 37 - 42 degrees
C. 30 - 36 degrees
D. 18 - 24 degrees
7. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?

A. When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the
ship
B. When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of
the ship
C. When wave heights experienced from either quarter exceed 6 meters
D. When wave heights experienced from the bows exceed 6 meters
8. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?

A. When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
B. When a ship is at its extreme angle of pitch and roll simultaneously
C. When a ship surges
D. During resonant rolling
9. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship?

A. When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction
B. Whenever wind speeds exceed 60 knots
C. Whenever wind speeds exceed 70 knots
D. When on-deck containers are block-stowed
10. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
A. Because pitching varies with ship’s length
B. Because very large container vessels are more exposed to open sea
conditions
C. Because vessel pitching varies with propeller pitch
D. Because container stacks on large container vessels are more exposed to
wind forces
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11. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO
stability criteria cannot be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following?
A. The grain surfaces in some or all of
the cargo spaces must be secured
B. The cargo can still be loaded
C. An exemption certificate must be
applied for
D. An exemption certificate must be
applied for
12. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are the
major concerns of the changes in stability?
A. Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and
loss of freeboard forward
B. Excessive trim by the stern
C. Increase in metacentric height (GM)
D. Reduction of speed and additional fuel
consumption
13. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballast
tank amidships of a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
A. Inform Designated Person Ashore
(DPA) and call in Classification
Society
B. Note the dimensions of the crack
and measure regularly
C. Proceed on ballast voyage without
ballast in this tank
D. Repair with cement box or
temporary welded patch until next drydock
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14. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and carrying
cargo of density 1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand
flooding?
A. Any cargo hold
B. The foremost cargo hold
C. The aftermost cargo hold
D. The midships cargo hold
15. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and carrying
cargo of density 1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is strengthened to
withstand flooding?
A. The foremost cargo hold
B. The aftermost cargo hold
C. The midships cargo hold
D. The ballast hold
16. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of the
following parts of the vessel?
A. Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks
amidships
B. In number 1 and number 2 holds
C. In after peak area
D. On bottom plating in the after part of the vessel
17. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse frame
beam knees are slightly distorted; what is the significance of this?
A. This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is
potentially serious
B. There are no concerns with this observation
C. This is an indication of excessive bending moment stress
D. The distorted areas should be painted
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18. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a high
density cargo. What reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do this?
A. IMO do not recommend alternate loading of
cargo holds with high density cargoes.
B. The trim of the vessel will not be satisfactory.
C. Cargo space cleaning after discharge will be
excessive.
D. The summer deadweight will not be achieve
19. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in a
large metacentric height (GM)?
A. Have a fast roll period and possibly
suffer racking stresses
B. Have a slow roll and large righting
levers
C. Have a slow roll and very small
righting levers
D. Suffer torsional stresses and have small
righting levers
20. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargo
hold which can also be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
A. The ballast hold hatch cover must be
fitted with additional securing devices
B. There is no differences in design
C. This hold does not have ventilators
D. The coamings are much lower on the
ballast hold
21. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
A. The minimum bow height must be maintained
B. The vessel is trimmed by the stern on completion,
C. The vessel is trimmed by the head on completion
D. The vessel should have a stern trim of 2.0 metres by stern.
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22. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a bulk
carrier indicate?
A. That shear forces have been exceeded
B. That the vessel is due for survey
C. That failure of the shell plating is
imminent
D. That bulkhead failure is imminent
23. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical?
A. Upper and lower connection of main side
frames
B. Longitudinal deck plating outside hatches
C. The girders
D. Forecastle deck
24. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for
each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
A. Vessel stability book
B. Line drawing
C. Capacity Plan
D. Shell expansion
25. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for
each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
A. Vessel stability book
B. Line drawing
C. Capacity Plan
D. Shell expansion
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26. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe

environmental and safety hazards which require significant preventative measures
to preclude escape of such cargo, usually of double-hull construction, with a variety
of tank sizes / capacities is rated as:
A. A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
B. A type I chemical tanker as per the IBC Code.
C. A parcel chemical tanker as per the IACS Construction Regulations.
D. A chemical tanker for the purposes of the 1996 IMO directive MEPC/2.12
cir On Mandatory Reporting Requirements for Ships Carrying Dangerous or
Polluting Goods.
27. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks

containing cargoes or cargo residues which might react with each other in a
hazardous manner, are all acceptable methods of segregation in chemical tanker
stowage according to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be acceptable to
have:
A. An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo
residues.
B. A common bulkhead, provided it is at least 10 mm thick.
C. A common bulkhead, provided it overlaps for less than 15% of the length of
the bulkhead on the larger tank.
D. A cruciform joint, separating two tanks diagonally.
28. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability information
booklet, which must be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker, shall include:
A. Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisions for evaluating
other conditions of loading and a summary of the ship's survival
capabilities, together with sufficient information to enable the master to load
and operate the ship in a safe and seaworthy manner.
B. Summary details of light ship and fully loaded conditions and of a
representative part-loaded condition, with examples of calculations of
typical pre-departure stability conditions and an example of a damage
stability calculation to enable the master to determine survival capability in
the event of an emergency involving a breach of the hull.
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C. Certificates confirming the testing and calibration of tank gauging

equipment, the ship's stability computer program and the accuracy of draft
and loadline marks.
D. Details of service and ballast conditions for loading based on the range of
products which a vessel is certified to carry, incorporating the maximum
permissible DWT, the maximum permissible SG of any product, the
maximum permissible trim and any structural constraints that will impact a
loading condition.
29. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as:
A. One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
B. One which forms part of the ship's hull and structure and which is normally
essential to the structural completeness of the ship's hull.
C. One which is not subject to the requirements of the IBC Code in respect of
the loading and carriage of hazardous liquid cargoes.
D. One which can be loaded with hazardous liquid chemicals that can not be
carried in integral cargo tanks.
30. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC
Code states that for a single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker:
A. There is no applicable filling restriction.
B. A restriction of 1250 cubic metres shall apply.
C. A restriction of 3000 cubic metres shall apply.
D. A restriction of 1750 cubic metres shall apply.
31. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and
IBC Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
A. Double hull tankers.
B. Integral cargo tanks only.
C. Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only.
D. IMO type II chemical tankers only.
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32. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the
definition and requirements of a “pressure tank” must be:
A. Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
B. Less than 0.7 bar gauge.
C. At least 1.0 bar gauge.
D. At least 2.1 bar gauge.
33. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 1
chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is:
A. 1250 cubic metres.
B. 3000 cubic metres.
C. 750 cubic metres.
D. 2400 cubic metres.
34. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2
The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2
A. 3000 cubic metres
B. 2400 cubic metres
C. 3400 cubic metres
D. 2750 cubic metres
35. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's shell
plating and the outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type II
chemical tanker is:
A. Not less than 760 mm.
B. Not less than moulded breadth / 15.
C. Not less than moulded breadth / 5.
D. Not less than 1250 mm.
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36. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of
deck cargo alongside the jetty. You should immediately:
A. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small
ballast tank on low side of vessel.
B. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights
within vessel and fill small ballast tank on high
side of vessel.
C. Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower
weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank
on high side of vessel.
D. Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and empty
small ballast tank on low side of vessel.
37. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when:

A. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight.
B. All her certificates are in order.
C. The vessel's Safety Construction Certificate is vali
D. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are watertight.
38. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of
loading, the final level of the water would be at:
A. The top of the summer load line mark.
B. The bottom of the summer load line mark.
C. The top of the winter mark.
D. The mid point between the summer and the tropical mark.
39. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have:
A. A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ
Levers).
B. A fast roll period and small righting levers (GZ
Levers).
C. A long roll period and large righting levers.
D. A long roll period and small righting levers (GZ Levers).
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40. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured
that:
A. There are minimum free surface moments in
tanks.
B. All double-bottom tanks are empty.
C. The vessel has a small metacentric height( GM).
D. The vessel is listed to the side to which the load is
to be lifte
41. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is
carrying timber deck cargoes is:
A. The International Tonnage Convention.
B. SOLAS 74/78.
C. The International Convention on Load lines.
D. MARPOL 73/78.
42. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel
formula at?
A. Larger angles of heel.
B. 5 degrees angle of Heel.
C. Small angles of heel.
D. Ess than 5 degrees angle of heel to the side of
the heavy loa
43. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can be
denoted by the formula:
A. KM - KG x Sin angle of heel.
B. KN - Corrected KG x Sin angle of heel.
C. KN - KG x Sin angle of list.
D. KM - Corrected KG x Sin angle of list.
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44. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can be
maintained by:
A. Completely filling the ship's double
bottom tanks and continuously
monitoring the loading operation.
B. Completely filling those double
bottom tanks below the cargo hold
where heavy cargo is being loade
C. Monitoring the vessel's stability
during the loading operation and not allowing the vessel to list on the side of
the loa
D. Listing the vessel to the opposite side to which the load is being lifte
45. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank
designed for transporting LPG at atmospheric pressure?
A. Carbon-Manganese steel.
B. 9% Nickel steel.
C. Stainless steel.
D. Aluminium.
46. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings
must be maintained within "x" length amidships, where "x" is:
A. 0.4 Length
B. Half Length
C. 0.6 of the Length
D. Quarter of the Length
47. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for
crude tankers in ballast condition is:
A. 2.0 + 0.02L
B. 2.0 + 0.002L
C. 2.0 + 0.15.l
D. 2.0 + 0.0015L
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48. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1
February 2002 shall comply with intact stability whereby it must have a minimum
GM (metacentric height) in port of:
A. Not less than 0.15 m
B. Not less than 0.015 m
C. Not less than 0.25 m
D. Not less than 0.10 m
49. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are:
A. Increased free surface effect and
reduced transverse metacentric
height.
B. Increased longitudinal bending
moments and transverse metacentric
height.
C. Increased likelihood of the vessel
suddenly developing severe trim
and list.
D. Potential hazards relating to damage to internal structure and pipelines.
50. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is:
A. The draught for which the structural
strength of the ship has been designed
B. The maximum draught determined by the
Loadline Rules
C. The minimum draught amidships when in
ballast condition
D. The draught on which the fundamental
design parameters are based
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51. What is the purpose of girders in the tank?

A. They support the stiffeners and also
take up some of the sea forces
B. They transfer all the sea forces
acting on the plating
C. They transfer all the cargo forces
acting on the plating
D. They support the stiffeners
52. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?

A. Boundaries of the watertight
compartments for decks and holds.
Position of controls for opening and
closing of watertight compartments.
Arrangement for correction of list
due to flooding.
B. Arrangements for correction of list
due to flooding within 15 minutes
C. Instructions and procedures for reporting damage to the Company
D. A damage control plan is the same as an emergency plan
53. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical

flooding in damaged condition?
A. Cross flooding arrangement
B. Ballast trimming system
C. Separate trim tanks
D. Self acting ballast trimming arrangement
54. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of
passenger ships?
A. The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
B. SOLAS
C. International Safety Management code
D. ISPS
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55. What is the result of a large metacentric height?

A. The ship will roll violently.
B. The ship will have a long roll perio
C. Bending moment will increase.
D. The center of gravity will move upwards.
56. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make passenger
ships able to withstand critical damage?
A. Maintain sufficient intact stability
B. Damaged stability to be increased by use of water ballast
C. Avoid overloading the ship
D. Damaged stability to be increased by weight redistribution.
57. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and

excessive heel angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is
the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before equalization?
A. 15 degrees
B. 10 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 30 degrees
58. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght?

A. The Master
B. The Shipping Company and the Classification Society
C. The Flag State Administration
D. The Shipyard
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59. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer vessel
is a principal design aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given
represents the optimum cargo space shape?
A. A square space as would be found
in a midships lower deck.
B. A narrow tapered space as would be
found in a forward lower deck.
C. A flared space that would be found
in a forward upper deck.
60. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventional reefer
vessels are usually designed with fine lines and large flared bows. Consequently, in
adverse weather conditions, especially from forward of the beam, the navigating
officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given options?
A. This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result in
structural damage.
B. That the main engine governor may not be effective when the vessel pitches
heavily.
C. That the bow is ideal for keeping the forward decks dry and clear of water.
D. That the vessel design means that high speeds can be maintained and the
perishable cargo can be delivered in good condition.
61. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for
supplying refrigerated air via ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to
supply only electrical power to integral containers. Select the main reason for this
change in design to the vessels and containers
from the options given.
A. The 'porthole' system design was
extremely complex and construction costs
were high.
B. Ducted containers had to be transhipped to their final destination after
discharge and still required refrigeration for that part of the supply chain
C. A large amount of refrigerant gas was required to operate the 'porthole'
system.
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D. The introduction of more powerful diesel engines onto these vessels meant
they had sufficient electrical capacity to supply the integral type containers.
62. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three
tween decks approximately 2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds
approximately 4 to 5 metres deep. Modern designs usually incorporate more decks
each approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the main reason for this
fundamental design change?
A. There is an almost universal use of standard
height pallets.
B. The increased proportion of chilled as
opposed to frozen cargoes that are carrie
C. The increased number of container vessels has reduced the tendency to
carry general cargo outbound from Europe or North America to Australia
and New Zealand on reefer vessels.
D. It is easier to construct vessels with shallow decks.
63. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced?

A. By the cubic foot capacity.
B. By the pallet capacity.
C. By the grain capacity.
D. By the Suez Canal tonnage.
64. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging
from deckhead rails in refrigerated locker spaces. What position should the centre
of gravity be assumed to be at when carrying out the stability calculations for a
vessel with such a stow?
A. At the deckhead of the lockers.
B. At the mid-height of the hanging carcasses.
C. At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook.
D. At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook
with an arbitrary adjustment to take account of the centre of mass of the
hanging carcasses.
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65. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following
statement. "Reefer vessels, loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a
small GM due to the fact that…
A. …they are designed with fine lines and
the biggest cargo spaces are at the top of
the holds."
B. …they are designed with small fuel
tanks."
C. …they are designed that way to produce
a gentle rolling motion."
D. …they usually have large deck cranes."
66. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involves the
transhipment at sea, or at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits.
Both vessels have 4 holds, vessel A has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and
vessel B has 5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the vessels, if any, would
be best suited to this type of operation?
A. Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give more control of
the operation at sea or at anchor.
B. Vessel A would be more suitable as the high speed cranes would allow the
operation to be completed more quickly.
C. Neither vessel would be suitable as none of the cargo handling equipment
fitted could be used at sea or at anchor.
D. Vessel A would be more suitable as the greater lift capacity of the cranes
would allow bigger pallets to be transhippe
67. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other ship
types regarding seaworthiness?
A. They can roll to very large angles without
taking in water
B. They are not easily damaged in heavy
weather
C. Their large reserve buoyancy prevents
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capsizing
D. They can pitch to very large angles without taking in water viathe ramp
doors
68. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations

what else must be taken into account when calculating the external forces acting on
a cargo unit?
A. Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure
B. Longitudinal and vertical forces by wind pressure
C. Vertical and transverse forces by wind pressure
D. Longitudinal forces by sea sloshing
69. What special design feature is attributed to roro vessels which are only car carriers?
A. A very large windage area
B. A stern ramp
C. Solid ballast
D. A small GM when fully loaded
70. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily?

A. When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
B. When wave lengths are equal to twice the ship's length
C. When wave lengths are equal to half the ship's length
D. In confused seas
71. Why are pure roro car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where
their stability is concerne
A. Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress
of water or ballast operations are not handled
correctly
B. Because they have few internal bulkheads
C. Because they have few internal bulkheads
D. Because of the relatively small clearance between waterline and stern ramp
sill when fully loaded
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72. Why is it important in a roro vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way
A. To prevent high sheer forces and bending
moments on the vessel during the loading /
discharge operations
B. Because it looks better and image is important
C. Because it looks better and image is important
D. Because it makes it harder to lash the cargo correctly if you don't
73. What is the result of a "high metacentric height"?

A. The vessel will roll violently?
B. The vessel will have a great bending moment?
C. The vessel will roll slowly or be unstable?
D. The vessel's tweendeck heights is too high?
74. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged?

A. It is unchanged
B. It first rises then lowers
C. It lowers
D. It rises
75. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and
main deck in way of pillars inside forecastle?
A. Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
B. Slamming in way of flat bottom forward of light
draught
C. Impact pressure forces in way of abrupt or flared
bow
D. Forces created by waves on the forecastle
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76. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds
to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1)
A. A calculation example showing the use of
"KG" limitation curves.
B. Drawings and caculations documenting the
stability of the ship, both in intact and all
possible damage condition.
C. A calculation example showing use of "GM" limitation curves.
D. Stability data produced by stability calculation instruments.
77. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation
corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2)
A. The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate
stability is achieved in all loading condition.
B. Unless otherwise stated in the approved stability
calculation, the total weight of the deck cargo shall
not exceed 50 metric tons.
C. Centre of gravity shall be calculated with accuracy better than 5 percent.
D. In waters with the danger of icing, loading of deck cargo must be approved
by competent authority.
78. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength?

A. The master.
B. The management company.
C. The classification society.
D. The flag state administration.
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79. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo
such as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions
produced?
A. The vessel will normally have a
large intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a fast roll period
B. The vessel will normally have a
small intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a slow roll period
C. The vessel will be tender and have
a poor curve of righting levers.
D. The vessel may have a list
80. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk
carriers of 150m or more in length?
A. The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with
the entered loaded weight distribution
B. The segregation requirements of the cargoes carrie
C. The ultimate strength of main deck plating
D. The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo holds
81. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
A. At the after end of each cargo hold
B. At the forward end of each cargo hold
C. In cargo hold bilges
D. At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold
82. Which of the following describes the term couple?

A. Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions along the
centerline of the Vessel
B. A point through which all of the upward forces affecting a vessel are
considered to act.
C. Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions and along parallel
lines.
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D. None of the above.
83. The side to side, bodily motion of a vessel is known as .

A. Yawing
B. Pitching
C. Heaving
D. Swaying
84. Which motion of the vessel does a ship’s officer most easily control through
transverse stability stowage?
A. Swaying
B. Rolling
C. Yawing
D. Pitching
85. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm?
A. GM
B. GZ
C. BM
D. ZM
86. In the diagram onthe right, the distance between the points B and M is known as:
A. Metacentric Height
B. Metacentric Radius
C. Height of the Metacenter
D. Buoyancentric Metadistance
87. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral stability condition?

A. G is below M
B. G is abovem
C. G is at the same height as B
D. G is at the same height as M
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88. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is known as .

A. Angle of Heal
B. Angle of Loll
C. Angle of List
D. Angle of Doom
89. The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of
A. Hydrodynamics
B. Flotation
C. Gravity
D. Buoyancy
90. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, breadth and draft
of the vessel Is known as the vessel’s .
A. Area of the water plane
B. Block coefficient
C. Water plane coefficient
D. Volume ratio
91. Morrish’s Formula is used to determine .

A. Metacentric Height
B. Height of the Center of Buoyancy
C. Height of the Center of Gravity
D. Metacentric Radius
92. Which of the following best describes the moment of inertia about the longitudinal
axis?
A. The measure of a ship’s resistance to heaving.
B. The measure of a ship’s resistance to rolling.
C. The value of the metacentric radius divided by the displacement.
D. The ratio of the area of the water plane to the product of the length and
breadth of the Vessel.
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93. At large angles of inclination, the transverse metacenter will .

A. Remain fixed on the transverse centerline.
B. Move below the center of buoyancy.
C. Move off of the transverse centerline.
D. Move down while staying on the transverse centerline.
94. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is the value of KM when the draft is 18
feet?
A. 9.5 feet
B. 19.5 feet
C. 31.2 feet
D. 26.1 feet
95. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling?

A. It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the same as the ocean
wave perio
B. It occurs when the natural rolling period of the vessel differs from the ocean
wave perio
C. It occurs when the vessel is rolling in calm waters.
D. It occurs when two vessels have the same natural rolling perio
96. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight are considered to be
concentrated is the .
A. Metacenter
B. Center of gravity
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Righting arm
97. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel is discharged, the vessel’s
center of gravity will .
A. Move downward
B. Move upward
C. Remain in its original location
D. Move toward the center of gravity of the cargo.
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98. One long ton is equivalent to .

A. 2000 pounds
B. 1000 kilograms
C. 2 short tons
D. 2240 pounds
99. A vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10 degrees. What is the value of the
righting arm?
A. 2.3 feet
B. 0.7 feet
C. 1.4 feet
D. 10.6 feet
100. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force, assuming that weight on the vessel
remain fixed, you would expect .
A. G and B to both move
B. G to move and B to remain fixe
C. G and B to remain fixe
D. G to remain fixed and B to move.
101. Which of the following would represent the height of the center of gravity on a
vssel?
A. KM + GM
B. KB + BM –KG
C. KM –GM
D. KB + GM
102. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance from:

A. The keel to the metacenter
B. The enter of buoyancy to the metacenter
C. The center of gravity to the metacenter
D. The center of gravity to the center of buoyancy
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103. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination?

A. KG
B. The righting moment
C. GM
D. BM
104. The number of long tons necessary to change the mean draft of a vessel 1 inch is
known as the
A. Moment to trim 1 inch
B. Tons per inch immersion
C. Area of the water plane
D. Block coefficient
105. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a
vessel’s stability?
A. The weight acts upon the vessel at it’s actual height above the keel.
B. The weight acts upon the vessel from the position of the base of the crane
on the vessel’s Deck.
C. The weight acts upon the vessel from the head of the crane
D. The weight acts upon the vessel from the spot on the deck directly below the
suspended Weight
106. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “stiff ship?”

A. A small GM
B. A long rolling period
C. Neutral stability
D. A large GM
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16. Memantau dan mengawasi pelaksanaan persyaratan ketentuan

yang berlaku, dan langkah-langkah yang diambil untuk menjamin
keselamatan jiwa di laut, keamanan dan perlindungan lingkungan
laut. (Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and
measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection of the
marine environment)
1. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for:

A. 5 years with control every 12 months
B. 2 years with control every 6 months
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
2. Are there any exceptions from OPA-90

A. Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US port
B. Yes, if the vessel calls a US port for only a short stop
C. No exceptions
D. Yes, close to any US naval base
3. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90)

A. Unannounced drills at any time
B. Participation in all announced drills
C. Maximum one drill a year
D. Maximum two drills a year
4. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of 18?
A. One year.
B. Two years.
C. No time limit.
D. Three months.
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5. For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected?
A. 1 - 2 years.
B. 3 - 4 years.
C. 5 - 6 years.
D. 8 years.
6. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable?

A. For all listed vessels.
B. For tankers and other vessels carrying persistent oil as cargo.
C. For all vessels except passenger vessels.
D. For all vessels except those engaged in coastal trade.
7. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable?

A. For all vessels.
B. For all vessels except passenger vessels.
C. For passenger vessels only.
D. For tankers and other vessels carrying
persistent oil as cargo.
8. How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be send to
shore based management?
A. Annually.
B. Biannually.
C. Every three years.
D. Not mandatory to send reports.
9. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of annex 1?
A. We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the
regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
B. We find 5 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the
regulations for the prevention of pollution by sewage
C. We find 4 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 regulations
for the prevention of pollution by garbage
D. We find 1 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 regulations for the prevention
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of pollution by chemicals.
10. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?

A. Report to relevant authorities.
B. Inform the manager.
C. Start clean-up operations.
D. Inform the vessel's agent.
11. In case of pollution in US waters, do you always have to notify the National
Response Center (OPA-90)
A. Yes, within thirty (30) minutes
B. Yes, within three (3) days
C. No, not if the local US State Authority is
correctly notified
D. No, only the shipowner can notify NRC
12. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement is correct?

A. COTP-zones may have additional rules and
regulations
B. OPA-90 specify rules and regulations for all
COTP-zones
C. After implementation of OPA-90 there are no
area specific rules and Regulations
D. OPA-90 specify all oil cargo related rules and regulations
13. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was activated in August 1993. What is the
main issue for the introduction of the act?
A. To prevent oil spills in US waters?
B. To enforce owners to use equipment of higher
standards that those of today?
C. To encourage owners to build double hull
vessels for trading US waters?
D. To improve safety measures onboard?
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14. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What do you
understand by the word "Sewage"?
A. Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
B. Mixture of sea water/oil.
C. Waste from galley.
D. Waste from synthetic materials.
15. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily water
separator which was previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to:
A. 15 ppm
B. 50 ppm
C. 25 ppm
D. 10 ppm
16. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI)

A. QI is an authorised individual, situated in the
US, and contracted by the owner or operator
of the vessel
B. QI is the owner’s contingency leader
C. QI is representing the USCG
D. An individual certified by USCG to handle oil spills
17. What are the functions of a flag state administration?

A. They have responsibility for setting,
monitoring and enforcing standards of
safety and pollution prevention on vessels
flying the countries flag
B. They have responsibility for ensuring that
ships are properly registered
C. The have responsibility for ensuring that ships are correctly manned and
that crews' terms and conditions of employment are met satisfactorily
D. The maintain a record of all ship and their crews, and produce statistics
involving ships from their country.
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18. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90)

A. Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violation
of Federal Safety
B. Only gross negligence
C. Only wilful misconduct
D. Wilful misconduct and gross negligence
19. What does STCW deal with?

A. STCW deals with minimum recommendation of
education for seafarers and minimum standards for
training centre and schools
B. STCW deals with minimum recommendation for
training centre and schools
C. STCW deals with recommendation for training centre and schools and type
of education for seafarers
D. STCW deals with training centre and schools and standards for watch
keepers
20. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean?

A. International Convention for the Safety of Lives at Sea
B. International Agreement for Security of Load and Ships
C. International Conference for Security of Loads aboard Ships
D. International Rules for Safe Ocean Lines and Sailingroutes
21. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?

A. The International Convention on Standards of Training,
Certification and Watchkeeping of Seafarers
B. Seafarer's Training and Competence of Watchkeepers
C. The International Convention of Ship's Trading,
Chartering and Waybills
D. The International Shipowners, Transport and Cargo Work Convention
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22. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?
A. All of the mentioned
B. Fuel oil
C. Sludge
D. Oil refuse
23. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea?
A. It is the SOLAS conventions that take care of
the human safety at sea
B. It is the MARPOL conventions that take care
of the human safety at sea
C. It is the STCW 78/95 that take care of the
human safety at sea
D. There isn’t any conventions that take care of the human safety at sea
24. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?

A. Every person other than the Captain and the
members of the crew or other persons
employed or engaged onboard the ship in the
business of that ship.
B. Everyone who travels with a passenger ship
C. Any person holding a ticket and travelling
with a passenger ship
D. Any person paying their voyage regardless of ship type
25. What is full form of VRP (OPA-90)

A. Vessel Response Plan
B. Vessel Report Plan
C. Vessel Response Procurement
D. Vessel Reporting Procedures
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26. What is SOPEP?

A. A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
B. A Ship-Owners Permitted Entry Plan
C. A Shipboard Oil Pollution Exemption Procedure
D. A Seafarer's Offical Pension and Employment Payment scheme
27. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible under US legislation before it is
defined as intoxication?
A. 0,04 %
B. 0,07 %
C. 0,01 %
D. 0,1 %
28. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to be pumped
over board during a voyage?
A. 30 litres per nautical mile
B. 20 litres per nautical mile.
C. 40 litres per nautical mile.
D. 60 litres per nautical mile.
29. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention?

A. Mandatory.
B. Supplementary to classification rules.
C. Should be consulted when the vessel is in distress.
D. Must be regarded as guidelines.
30. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US waters (OPA-90)

A. Safety of ship and crew
B. Protection of the environment
C. Prevention of oil pollution
D. Any immediate action to prevent loss of time
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31. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) should fail
during a ballast voyage?
A. All of the mentioned must be performed
B. The failure must be noted in the Oil Record Book
C. The failure must be repaired
D. If the failure cannot be repaired onboard, the ODME must be repaired
before the ship commences its next voyage
32. What rules and regulations are regulating the watch keeping routines in the engine
room?
A. Both STCW and Class rules
B. International Standard for Training and
Watch keeping (STCW)
C. Class Rules
D. SOLAS
33. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection,
certificates were invalid or missing
A. Rectification would be required before sailing
B. The ship would be allowed to sail to the next
port and rectification would take place then
C. The ship would be detained indefinitely
D. The deficiencies would be recorded in the
ship's register and the ship allowed to sail
34. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
A. Any one involved in the operation
B. Captain only
C. Shipowners only
D. Officers only
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35. Where is OPA-90 applicable?

A. Within 200 nm of US waters including
Guam, Hawaii, Alaska and San Juan
B. Within US waters
C. 200 nm off US coast
D. 200 nm off coast of California
36. Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept?

A. In the Captain's office
B. In the Owner's office
C. In the Captain's safe
D. Posted up in a prominent place onboard the ship
37. Where should the placard you are shown be located, according to U.S. Coast Guard
regulations ? (Title 33-Navigation and Navigable waters, § 155.440 )
A. Both in a conspicuous place in each
machinery space and in a conspicuous place
at the bilge and ballast pump control station
B. In the wheelhouse
C. In a conspicuous place in each machinery
space
D. In a conspicuous place at the bilge and ballast pump control station
38. Which IMO convention takes care of the human safety at sea ?
A. The SOLAS convention
B. The MARPOL convention
C. The STCW 78/95
D. There isn't any conventions that take care of the
human safety at sea
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39. Which international convention deals with fire-fighting equipment etc.

A. SOLAS
B. MARPOL
C. Load Line convention
D. CRISTAL
40. Which international convention deals with pollution prevention?

A. MARPOL.
B. SOLAS.
C. STCW.
D. ISGOTT.
41. Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules for seafaring
nations?
A. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
B. International Labor Organization (ILO)
C. International Marine Association (IMA)
D. International Ocean Safety Organization (IOSO)
42. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections of

ships, and the issue of Safety Certificates?
A. Government Authorities of the Flag State
B. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
C. International Labor Organization (ILO)
D. Ships Classification Associations (Lloyd's, American Bureau of Shipping,
The Norwegian Veritas, Germanische Lloyd's, etc.)
43. Who are responsible for safe working conditions onboard?

A. Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer.
B. The individual person.
C. The safety officer.
D. The officer of the watch.
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44. Who is responsible for keeping the required official publications onboard?
A. The master.
B. The radio officer.
C. The owner.
D. The authorities.
45. Who is responsible for the vessel's radio station and mandatory radio routines?
A. The master.
B. The owners.
C. The radio officer.
D. Statutory authorities.
46. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are not exceeded?
A. The master and department heads.
B. The individual person.
C. The bosun and the second engineer.
D. The safety officer.
47. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oil
leakage. Who should be called to handle pollution claims and damages?
A. The P & I Club's nearest representative.
B. The Leading Hull Underwriter's nearest Average Agent.
C. The Classification Society's representative.
D. Flag state representative.
48. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
A. MARPOL regulations
B. SOLAS 74/88 regulations
C. Convention on the Prevention of Marine
Pollution by Dumping of Wastes and Other
Matter
D. The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes
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49. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a
Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration?
A. Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System
(SMS) for guidance
B. There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea
C. Follow actions of previous crews
D. Check procedures and Arrangements manual
50. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or
deballasting operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources
or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and
therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the
marine environment". Such substances are:
A. A category "Y" substance as identified in
MARPOL Annex II.
B. A category "X" substance as identified in
MARPOL Annex II.
C. An NLS as defined in ISGOTT, revision
V.
D. A liquid cargo that is prohibited for
carriage in vessels other than type 1 chemical tanker, as defined in the IBC
Code.
51. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before
leaving port in compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be
discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the
effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized
surveyor has reached a level of:
A. 0.1% by weight.
B. 0.1% by volume.
C. 0.2% by weight.
D. 0.3% by volume.
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52. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are
classified as:
A. "OS" (Other substances)"
B. Category Y
C. Category Z
D. Category X
53. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying substances’ as:

A. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting
melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a temperature of less
than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
B. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting
melting point equal to or greater than 20°C, is at a temperature of less than
15°C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
C. A noxious liquid which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form
at ambient, or less than ambient temperatures unless an external heat source
is applied.
D. A noxious liquid substance which will crystallise and eventually bond into
solid form if exposed to an external heat source.
54. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity substance’ as:

A. A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal to
or greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading temperature.
B. A noxious liquid substance in category "Y" with a viscosity equal to or
greater than 100 mpa.s at 37.8 degrees Celsius.
C. A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point of greater than
37.8 degrees Celsius.
D. Any noxious liquid substance, the residues of which cannot be stripped from
a cargo compartment and its associated piping and pumping system to equal
to or less than 75 litres.
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55. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the
area(s) designated as “Special Areas” are:
A. The Antarctic.
B. The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf
of Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea, Southern South African Waters,
Antarctic and North-West European Waters.
C. The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic.
D. The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and the
Caribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters and North-West European
Waters.
56. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to
such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously
carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's
speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
A. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water
that is not less than 25 metres deep.
B. That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and is
proceeding on route.
C. That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge Monitoring
Equipment and a visual watch is maintained on the vessel's wake.
D. Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has been
drawn from the tank and is stored on board, there are no additional
conditions to be imposed on such a discharge.
57. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious Liquid
Substances, the term “Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means:
A. Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo
containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly
cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been discharged and the
tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II.
B. Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage of
ballast or cargoes other than oil or Noxious Liquid Substances as variously
defined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which is
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completely separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems.

C. Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed in
accordance with the requirements of the Procedures and Arrangements
Manual.
D. Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.
58. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious
Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in
the Cargo record Book, which shall include:
A. Time of occurrence
Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies)
Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks.
B. Date of occurrence
Position (latitude and longitude)
Estimated quantity and category(ies)
Extract from Master's Log Book detailing the incident.
C. Position at start and stop of accidental discharge
Time at start and stop of accidental discharge
Reason for accidental discharge
D. Name of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental discharge.
Date and Time of occurrence
Name of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Statement of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Approximate quantity and category of product discharged
Identity of nearest sovereign State and Authority of that State contacted with
applicable report reference.
59. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:

A. Category "Y".
B. Category "Z".
C. Category "OS" - other substances.
D. Category "A".
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60. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants
is regulated under which international guidelines?
A. Protocol I of MARPOL.
B. Annex II to SOLAS 1974.
C. Appendix B of the Supplement to the IMDG Code.
D. The UN Convention on the Reporting of Accidents and Incidents which
Present a Hazard to the Marine Environment 2004.
61. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to
water in order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid
chemicals, must be ensured that:
A. No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used,
except those components that are readily biodegradable and present in a
total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive. No
restrictions additional to those applicable to the tank due to the previous
cargo shall apply.
B. The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, which
would apply to the additive had it been carried as cargo. Tank washing
procedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in the
Procedures and Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's Flag
State Administration.
C. No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubic
metres of tank volume is used in any one washing operation.
D. If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than 200
litres is used in the washing operation for a single cargo tank, then a
prewash to shore must be carried out.
62. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and
IBC Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
A. Double hull tankers.
B. Integral cargo tanks only.
C. Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only.
D. IMO type II chemical tankers only.
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63. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code?
A. A substance which is subject to the
provisions of Annex III of MARPOL.
B. A substance which is subject to the
provisions of Chapter V of SOLAS
1974, as amended.
C. Any substance which is deemed
hazardous to the marine environment.
D. A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, or
because of its hazard potential to the aquatic environment is subject to the
provisions of Annex I of MARPOL, as amended, and carried by sea
accordingly.
64. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?

A. Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
B. No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers.
C. Yes, but only annex IV.
D. Yes, but only annex V.
65. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying
liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
A. Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
B. No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers.
C. Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products.
D. OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels
66. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed
by a Port State Authority to trade for:
A. One ballast voyage before proceeding to a
repair port.
B. One ballast and one loaded voyage,
provided no cleaning operations are carried
out.
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C. An indefinite period as long as the owners can demonstrate they have

ordered the spare parts for repairs.
D. One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during the
next 12 months.
67. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a
selected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical
angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the
machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity
of crude oil required?
A. 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
B. 30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil.
C. 48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil.
D. 36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.
68. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must
carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of:
A. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
B. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).
C. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
D. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
69. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
A. Fresh water.
B. The product being carried on that voyage.
C. Approved bio-degradable light oil
D. Sea water
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70. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board
must be:
A. Not less than 3 years after the date of the
last entry.
B. Not less than 5 years after the date of the
last entry.
C. Exactly 3 years from the date of the first
entry.
D. Until the next port where it may be handed
over to the Port State Authority.
71. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be
carried and completed on oil tankers of:
A. 150 gross tonnes and above.
B. 400 gross tonnes and above.
C. Any size, as long as they are classified as tankers.
D. 50 gross tonnes and above.
72. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of
discharge must be:
A. Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a
cargo tank or slop tank on board.
B. Cleared to shore by the use of compressed air.
C. Drained directly (and only) to shore.
D. Discharged ashore or retained on board as per
the pre-discharge agreement made between the
ship and shore.
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73. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and
Management of Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on
board to achieve:
A. 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-
board at the previous port.
B. 100% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-
board at the previous port.
C. 25% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
D. 80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
74. One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is to ………….
A. To restrict the trade of foreign nations.

B. Limit the access of tankers to US waters
C. Create an international pollution regime.
D. Enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in the
event of a pollution incident.
75. All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill recovery
equipment of sufficient capacity to ……………
A. Accommodate oil spilt on deck.

B. Combat a worst case spill.
C. Accommodate oil spilt in the Engine Room.
D. Clean up an accidental spill up to 500 barrels.
76. Tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to …
A. Prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.

B. Disperse floating oil.
C. Wash oil off the cargo deck.
D. Wash oil from the dock.
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77. During oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills in
………
A. Rough weather conditions in open sea.

B. Areas close to response centers.
C. Areas with waves with medium swells and significant height.
D. Calm weather conditions in coastal waters.
78. The costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can …………
A. Greatly exceed the cost of the oil it self.

B. All of these.
C. Cost ship owners and operators their assets.
D. Lead to prosecution of those involved.
79. The intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into the sea is best described as
A. An operational spill.
B. A casualty spill.
C. Willful misconduct.
D. A worst case scenario.
80. OPA 90 response times for salvage and lightering contractors are calculated from
the time of ………….
A. The go ahead signal from the Coast Guard

B. Reaching the pollution scene
C. The call out
D. The occurrence of the oil spill
81. Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargo oil or bunkering system not used
during fuel transfer or cargo oil transfer must be secured …………..
A. With a blank flange.

B. By securing the manual values tight and padlocking the value wheels.
C. With a cement box.
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D. By locking the hydraulic actuators to the respective line values.
82. Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oil spill should be followed ……
A. By obtaining feedback about the action taken and by repeated verbal reports
are to be made if new information is available.
B. Up in writing to facilitate clear communications
C. By the course of action and repeated verbal reports are to be made if new
information is available.
D. By obtaining feedback about the action taken.
83. Most landfills in the United States will not accept ………..
A. Residue from smelting plants.

B. Rock debris.
C. Ashes.
D. Oil soaked materials.
84. Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of the OSRO or Oil Spill Response
Organisation, which of the statements below is true ?
A. The ships staff alone is to activate the OSRO directly within 30 minutes
after the spill after which the USCG is informed
B. The Harbour Master's office is to activate the OSRO immediately
C. The P & I club is to activate the OSRO within 24 to 48 hours
D. The shore management is able to activate the OSRO
85. In event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier
………….
A. Around cargo oil and bunkering manifolds.

B. To avoid oil spilled on the deck from escaping overboard via the fish plate
openings.
C. To keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.
D. To contain small oil spills on the open deck.
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86. Most important in monitoring the loading or bunkering rate is …………..
A. To keep a close eye on the manifold pressure.

B. To keep close radio contact with the jettybarge.
C. The remote control gauging system is to be observed.
D. That tanks should be sounded very regularly.
87. A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he has met the planning criteria of the
OPA 90
A. Employing an OSRO.
B. Contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines for
each area in which the ship is trading.
C. Trading only in high volume ports.
D. Having response equipment on board.
88. Which major port is not a high volume port ?
A. Port Angeles
B. St. Croix
C. Mobile
D. New York.
89. When reporting an oil spill to the National Response Center and a recorded message
is heard and you are placed on hold, your alternate contact should be …
A. The nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port.

B. The local directory operator.
C. The National Transportation Safety Board.
D. Your head office
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90. The penalty for failure to immediately notify the appropriate U.S. Government
agency of an oil spill is………
A. Partial liability.
B. Unlimited liability.
C. A fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison.
D. Ten years in prison.
91. To ensure clear communications under OPA 90, all verbal reports should be
followed by
A. A telex, fax or cable.

B. More telephone calls.
C. The nautical translation.
D. A message in a bottle.
92. A routine cause of operational oil spills is ………….
A. The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actually
remains on board.
B. Miscalculations
C. The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actually
remains on board and sole dependency on remote gauging systems.
D. Sole dependency on remote gauging systems
93. Basic spill prevention measurements include ……….
A. At least one person on board who can speak the language of both persons in
charge on the terminal.
B. Attention to moorings.
C. Insertion of at least one bolt in every other hole of flanges.
D. A signed exchange between ship and terminal.
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94. The first phase of emergency response is …………
A. Breefing the incident commend system.

B. Containment and recovery.
C. Effective reaction to the situation on board.
D. Disposal of oily rags.
95. A key element of the Incident Command System is ……………
A. Liaison with government agencies.

B. Reporting.
C. Containment.
D. Recovery.
96. The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to……………
A. Petroleum oils.
B. Black oil.
C. Petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.
D. Diesel and kerosene fuels.
97. The most important guideline for dealing with the news media is …………….
A. Not speculating about the issues.

B. Adherence to the Freedom of Information Act.
C. Refusing to comment.
D. All of these.
98. Three functions of the Incident Command staff are……………
A. Information, safety and liaison.

B. Command, control and evacuation.
C. Incineration, recycling and disposal.
D. Fire fighting, lightering and salvage.
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99. Who is responsible for the supervision of cleanup until the Oualified Individual
arrives on the scene. ?
A. The Environment Protection Agency.

B. The ship's staff.
C. The person in charge of oil transfer.
D. The local agent.
100. Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are …………….
A. Persistent oils.
B. Non persistent oils.
C. Vegetable oils.
D. Animal oils.
101. The three types of boom are ……………
A. Light, medium and low.

B. Fire fighting, lightering and salvage.
C. Light, heavy and double extra strength.
D. Heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent.
102. The primary forces that will affect the movement of oil on the water are……………
A. Sun light.
B. Vacuum trucks.
C. Currents, tides and winds.
D. Gravitational pull.
103. According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of which oil group may involve
underwater recovery ?
A. Group III
B. Group IV
C. Group I
D. Group V
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104. OPA 90 regulations are effective up to ………..miles offshore.
A. 50
B. 10
C. 200
D. 150
105. Under OPA 90 regulations actuation of Tier I response resources must be

made………after discovery oil discharge.
A. Within one hour

B. Immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes
C. Within two hours
D. Within 45 minutes
106. Under normal conditions a spill of Group V oil will ……………
A. Burn.
B. Sink.
C. Float.
D. Disperse with wind and current.
107. The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is ………….
A. United States legislation

B. Only enforceable in the Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf
C. An equivalent standard of Marpol 73/78
D. An international pollution law
108. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are
satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that……….
A. The tanker is within a Special Area.

B. The tanker is not within a Special Area
C. The tanker is within a Designated Zone
D. The tanker is not within a Designated Zone
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satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that…………
A. The tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land.
B. The tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land.
C. The tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land.
D. The tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.
satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that ……….
A. The tanker is en route.

B. The tanker is in ballast condition.
C. The tanker is tank cleaning.
D. The tanker is loaded.
111. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no
more than ……..of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue
formed part.
A. 1/25000
B. 1/100000
C. 1/15000
D. 1/50000
112. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed ?
A. 120 litres per nautical mile

B. 100 litres per nautical mile
C. 75 litres per nautical mile
D. 30 litres per nautical mile
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113. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common
cases of oil pollution. Which flue of these items are the main preventive measures
against tank overflow ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII

B. I. Ill, IV, V, VI
C. I, II, Ill, VI, VII
D. I, Ill, V, VI, VII
114. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?
A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and
refined products
B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil
C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products
D. Any grade of crude oil
115. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ?
A. A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm

B. A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm
C. A mixture with any oil content
D. A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm
116. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ?
A. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

B. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals
C. Yes
D. No
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117. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil

B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C
C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary
machinery
D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or
boilers
118. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ?
A. Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals

B. No, it is not
C. Yes, it is
D. Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
119. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
A. A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of
construction after 30 June 1976
B. A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995
C. A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979
D. All of these.
120. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to
Marpol ?
A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment

B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed
of the ship in knots at the same instant
C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered during
the time of discharge by the ship
D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600
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121. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?
A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are

required
B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions
and in view of traffic special prevention is required
C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at
anytime
D. A sea area where in view of its particular no overboarddischarged of any
oily mixtures
122. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?
A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils

B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre tank
C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected
D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings
or other oily mixtures
123. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as
defined by Marpol ?
A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces
on the shore lines.
B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the
surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.
C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on
adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.
D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day will
not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below
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124. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ?
A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by
the clean ballast pump
B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which
cargo pumps cannot be used
C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump
D. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from
cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast
125. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date on
its building contract would read……………
A. After 1st January 1981.

B. After 31st of December 1980.
C. After 1st June 1982.
D. After 1st June 1979.
126. Every oil tanker of ….. Tons gross tonnage and above and every other ship of tons
gross tonnage and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
A. 500,1000
B. 400, 700
C. 150, 400
D. 250, 500
127. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order to
ensure compliance with the applicable regulations shall include……
A. A complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks.

B. A complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including
oil-discharging monitoring system, oil tittering and separating systems.
C. A complete survey of all piping.
D. A complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems
arrangements and materials in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.
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128. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the
administration. These intervals are not to exceed…………..
A. Two and a half years.

B. Three years.
C. Two years.
D. Five years.
129. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate.
This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME
are in order. What is this survey called ?
A. The Annual survey

B. The Special survey
C. The Intermediate survey
D. The Midterm survey
130. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its
equipment remain in all respects satisfactory for service. What are these inspections
called ?
A. Annual Inspections
B. Unscheduled inspections
C. Obligatory inspections
D. Special surveys
131. Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures during oil cargo loading and
bunkering. Which one of these is not true ?
A. III - is not true

B. II - is not true
C. V - is not true
D. I- is not true
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132. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it
effect unscheduled Inspections carried out according to Marpol ?
A. The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory

B. Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required
C. Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years
D. Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year periode
133. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ?
A. Approved ship's officers

B. Port-State Control Inspectors
C. Coast Guard Inspectors
D. Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisationsrecognised by
Administrations
134. Who may carry out marpolinspections ?
A. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in

which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.
B. All of these.
C. Surveyors nominated by recognisedorganisations.
D. Coast Guard officers.
135. What is the meaning of a “harmful substance" under Marpol ?
A. Petroleum products and petrochemicals

B. Hydrocarbons in any form
C. Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.
D. Oils and fuels
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136. These items are standard inspection items for Marpol as given in guidelines to
inspectors and surveyors. Which item does not belong ?
A. Item VII - does not belong

B. Item VI - does not belong
C. Item II - does not belong
D. Item V - does not belong
137. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by

Marpol ?
A. Dumping or disposal from the ship

B. Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship
C. Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship
D. Any release how ever caused
138. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ?
A. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents

containing such substances
B. B The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
C. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or
effluents containing such substances
D. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
139. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be…..
A. Adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe

irrespective of where the violation occurs.
B. Imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation
occurs.
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C. Imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.

D. In all cases most severe.
140. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under Marpol
occurs ?
A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with
Marpol Protocol 1.
B. A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration.
C. You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners or
managers.
D. You are to note this incident in the Log Book.
141. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as…
A. A product / chemical carrier

B. A crude oil I product carrier
C. A product carrier
D. A crude oil tanker
142. A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the
requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as COW
may be designated as
A. Product carrier
B. Crude oil / product carrier
C. Crude oil tanker
D. Petrochemical / product carrier
143. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT and PL,
but not fitted with COW should be designated as a …..….on the IOPP certificate.
A. Crude oil 1 product carrier

B. Crude oil tanker
C. Product carrier
D. Petrochemical tanker
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144. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt NOT
fitted with SBT and PL should be designated as a …….on the IOPP certificate.
A. Crude oil tanker

B. Crude oil / product carrier
C. Petrochemical tanker
D. Product carrier
145. Stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT may
be designed as a …………….on the IOPP certificate.
A. Crude oil /product carrier

B. Product oil carrier
C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
D. Crude oil tanker
146. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the
IOPP certificate ?
A. As a product carrier
B. As a crude oil tanker
C. As a crude oil / product carrier
D. As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker
147. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the requirements of
SBT, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
A. Product carrier
B. Crude oil tanker
C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
D. Crude oil / product carrier
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148. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW system,
what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
A. Product carrier
B. Crude Oil / product carrier
C. Crude oil tanker
D. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
149. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are prohibited
except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is
fitted ?
A. An Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment

B. Interface oily water detector
C. A 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system
D. A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system
150. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ?
A. Any one of these

B. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction
C. If significant alterations have taken place for fittings, equipment or
arrangements without sanction
D. If significant alterations have taken place in the ships construction without
sanction
151. When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings or

arrangements are carried out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid.
What is the exception
A. Improvement in ships construction

B. The direct replacement of equipment and fittings
C. Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does not
deviate from Marpol requirements
D. Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by the
Administration
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152. What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out as
specified ?
A. The IOPP certificate remains valid, but when the overdue survey is carried
out, the stringency will depend on the duration of the elapsed time
B. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey corresponding to
the requisite survey is to be carried out .
C. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid when the C survey is 3 months
overdue
D. The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an unscheduled inspection
is to be carried out by the Port State inspection of the country of call
153. Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in
order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ?
A. Segregated ballast tanks

B. 15 ppm oil filtering equipment
C. Double hulls
D. A slop tank arrangement
154. A ship other than tanker of 3000grt and above, but less than 10,0000, cannot
discharge oily mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are
satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
A. II, IV, VIII

B. II, V, VII
C. II, III, VI
D. I, IV, VI
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155. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the
ship is not in a special area ?
A. 100 ppm
B. 50 ppm
C. Less than 15 ppm
D. 15 ppm
156. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily

mixtures prior to discharge these into the sea ?
A. Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm

B. Not allowed at all
C. Oil dispersants are allowed
D. Dillutants are allowed
157. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable to issues
of safety at sea ?
A. They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to lift

same in case of emergencies.
B. They are not applicable when oil is released for the purpose of securing the
safety of a ship or saving life at sea.
C. They do not apply when life can be saved at sea at the cost of releasing oil in
the water
D. They remain in force at all times, they help promote safety as well.
158. The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The regulations will
not apply if the discharge is the result of damage arising from which items in this list
?
A. I, IV
B. IV, V
C. II, V
D. III, VI
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159. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do not
apply if the discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is
the exception ?
A. Damage to ship and equipment due operational error

B. Crew negligence
C. Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could
probably result
D. Collision or groundings
160. It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration,

(eg. Oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into
the sea. Under which of these conditions ?
A. II IV V
B. I, II, V
C. I, III
D. III, IV
161. For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast
tanks shall be such hat, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet
which of these requirements ?
A. I, Ill, IV, VI
B. I, II, IV, V
C. I, II, IV. VII
D. I, IV, V, VII
162. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo
tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise ?
A. IV, V
B. II, V
C. III, V
D. II, V
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163. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers,
which tanks may be included ?
A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks

B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.
C. Segregated ballast tanks only
D. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks
164. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdams
allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of Cars for tankers ?
A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured

B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water
system
C. Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board
D. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15
ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted
165. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operating with
COW is to change its designation to product carrier and vice versa, which provisions
will apply ?
A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey is
required prior switching trades. Manual for both procedures required.
B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade
C. Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in the crude
oil trd.
D. The COW system needs to be blanked
166. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to
immobilise the ship, what are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply

B. The requirements for SBT do not apply
C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
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167. Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the
requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirement for SET does not apply

B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply
C. The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
168. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast
shall be that it is e quipped with…….
A. A crude oil washing system.

B. Two separate slop tanks.
C. Segregated ballast tanks and PL.
D. An oil content meter.
169. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the
tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are existing in ports.
What document is to be endorsed ?
A. The oil record book

B. The bill of lading
C. The charter party
D. The ship's IOPP certificate
170. Which of the following is NOT classed as pollution prevention equipment ?

A. Scupper covers.
B. Sawdust/rubber buckets and shovels.
C. Empty drums and absorbent pads.
D. Air or electric portable pumps.
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171. Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with SBT draught and trim
requirements without the use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with
SBT requirements in full provided which of these items apply ?
A. II, IV V
B. I, II, VI
C. II, V, VI
D. III, IV VI
172. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of

Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers ?
A. To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event of grounding

or collision
B. To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers
C. To reduce the bending moments on tankers
D. To reduce the shear forces on tankers
173. Where is disposal of wooden dunnage allowed ?

A. Outside 25 miles offshore.
B. Only outside special areas.
C. It is never allowed.
D. Outside 12 miles offshore.
174. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil
tank. What is the exception ?
A. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, for
example: tugs, fishing boats
B. For exceptional long voyages, when the ships bunkers are depleted and
weather conditions are deteriorating
C. If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptures, the fuel tank may be filled with
ballast if stability requires this
D. In case of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships
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175. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank
washings, oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than
….. % of the tank capacity.
A. 2.5
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
176. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ?
A. Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue
and tank washings from the cargo tanks.
B. Any tank separated form the ships' side by a distance of at least 3 metres.
C. Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities.
D. Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separation
filter.
177. At least two slop tanks are required for……..
A. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above.

B. New oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.
C. New and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt.
D. New oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above.
178. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to
pollution are conducted on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What
are these questions ?
A. I, III, V
B. I, II, III
C. II, IV, VI
D. I, II, V
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179. How can a ship dispose of plastic at sea ?

A. Anywhere outside 3 mite limit.
B. Outside special areas.
C. 1isposal of plastic is not allowed anywhere at sea.
D. Outside 25 miles offshore.
180. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is required
on board. This manual must mention all operations and ……..
A. Instructions to ensure that at no time oil shall be discharged.

B. Shall be approved by the Administration.
C. All automatic operations. The manual shall be approved by the
Administration.
D. Shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions to
ensure that no oil can be discharged except in compliance with regulations.
181. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not carry
ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a …….oil filtering equipment for
engine bilge discharge.
A. 100 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 150 ppm
182. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format and/or may
it be part of the ship's official Log Book ?
A. It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard but must
contain the required information.
B. It is no part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.
C. It is not part of the ship's official Log, its format is not standard but must
contain all required information.
D. It may be part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.
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183. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge
in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining
what ?
A. The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged

B. The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge
C. The report of the accident indicating precautions
D. The amount discharged and the reasons for it
184. Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book
without delay and…..…..
A. The Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be
countersigned by the Master.
B. The entries match operations completed after which it is signed by the
Master.
C. When the operations are completed will be signed by the Officer or in
charge during the time of the operation.
D. Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each
completed page will be signed by the Master.
185. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ?
A. A Notary Public
B. The Master
C. The Officers of the Flag State
D. Port Authorities
186. Of the four categories of discharges associated with the operation of offshore
platforms for which type or types is Marpol 73.(03 applicable ?
A. Type, I, Ill and IV

B. Type I only
C. Type IV only
D. Type I and Type IV
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187. What can be a major cause of pollution from a dry cargo ship without the vigilance
of the entire crew ?
A. Improper discharge from bilges and engine room.
B. Improper disposal of garbage.
C. Leaking hydraulic oil on deck.
D. Careless bunkering.
188. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ?
A. Roofers Flux
B. Blending Stocks
C. Straight run residue
D. Solvent
189. Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of Marpol
Annex I ?
A. Clarified
B. Road Oil
C. Automotive
D. Spindle oil
190. The following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of
Marpol Annex I?
A. Reformates
B. Polymer fuel
C. Flashed feed stock
D. Alkylates fuel
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191. Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of
marpolannexi?
A. Fuel oil No 1 D
B. Fuel oil No 1
C. Fuel oil No 4
D. Fuel oil No 2
192. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for Oil
Residues (Sludges). What information is recorded in this chapter ?
A. The location and capacity of the sludge tanks

B. The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for disposal of oil residue in
addition to the provision of sludge tanks
C. The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to open
deck sludge connection
D. The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements
193. If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of
a capacity of …….or more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers applies.
A. 100 T
B. 400 T
C. 500 cubic metres
D. 200 cubic metres
194. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with pollution
caused by ……..
A. I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV

= Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
B. I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, Ill = Sewage, IV = Harmful
packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
C. I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill = Oil, IV = Harmful
packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
D. I= Oil, II = Sewage, Ill = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V
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= Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
195. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with ……
A. The construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational

procedures of petroleum tankers
B. The pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfor
discharge of cargo residues
C. The labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages
D. The handling and discharge of garbage
196. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations
concerning processing and treatment of sewage ?
A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being
B. It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must
be installed on board
C. Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant is
on board
D. The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries
have adapted them and have stingent regulations
197. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations ?
A. Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be complied
with
B. Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with
C. They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention
D. National regulations in the ports visited may be more tingent and must be
complied with
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198. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the
Special Areas. Which is the exception ?
A. Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles

offshore
B. Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore
C. Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboard beyond 12
miles offshore
D. Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore
199. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that within 3
miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters……….
A. You cannot throw plastics overboard.

B. You cannot throw anything overboard.
C. You cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that float
overboard.
D. You cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard
unless ground to less than 25 mm.
200. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and
packing materials that float …….
A. Maybe thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore.

B. May not be thrown overboard at anytime.
C. May be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore.
D. May be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
201. Before starting bunkering operations, which one of the following precautions would
you say is most important?
A. Plug scuppers.
B. Exhibit International Code B flag and red light.
C. Check over-side for pollution.
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D. Smoking and naked light restrictions and notices
202. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags,
metal , glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore,
provided it is ground to less than ………in size.
A. 5mm
B. 10mm
C. 30 mm
D. 25 mm
203. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify the type
of garbage which can be thrown overboard at a given distance offshore. Is this
universally accepted ?
A. Yes, except food, some countries have restrictions

B. Yes, accepted by all states and regions
C. Regional or state variations can further restrict the disposal of garbage
D. Yes, except dunnage
204. Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ?
A. Because pollution related incidents are on the increase and all efforts are
needed to reduce them
B. Because many schools and training facilities are considered sub-standard
C. Because MARPOL is not compulsory taught in nautical schools
D. Because each ship has her own characteristics and equipment with which the
new crew member must become familiar
205. How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new crew
member know clearly what is expected of him ?
A. By teaching and pointing out to the new crew members which are the weak
spots which may cause pollution
B. By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis on the
personal responsibilities and duties of the trainee
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C. By teaching the new crew member the requirements of Marpol concerning

pollution of the seas
D. By teaching him the risks of oil transferring operations (bunkers as well as
cargo)
206. For on board pollution prevention training to work, it is important that …..
A. A quite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crew
member for the first week on board
B. The Master puts up a rigid discipline.
C. The trainees have an adequate background in pollution control
D. It is continuous and stresses safe, pollution free operations
207. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to
pollution are conducted on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What
are these questions ?
A. I, III, V
B. I, II, III
C. II, IV, VI
D. I, II, V
208. Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when conducted on cargo ships may
lead to a pollution incident ?

B. I, II, Ill, IV, VI
C. I, III, V, VII, VIII
D. II, IV, V, VII, VIII
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209. Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and transfer
procedures should be available on board in a place where they can be easily seen
and used. Where on board?
A. Either on the bunker manifold values OR in the engine control room OR

near the fuel oil transfer pumps
B. Either on the bridge OR on deck, OR by the manifolds
C. Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkers
emergency shut off valves OR in the cargo — control room
D. Either in the engine control room OR near the fuel transfer pumps OR in the
emergency headquarters
210. There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT tankers
because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this a
notice should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ?
A. FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST

B. START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION
C. ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP
D. START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED
211. Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck. Pollution can be avoided if
prompt action and careful preparation for containment is carried out. Which three of
these items are vital ?
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, III, V
D. II, IV, V
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212. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly inspected
to make sure that……..
A. The fastenings are not worn.

B. The coating is intact.
C. They have not developed cracks or holes.
D. They are correctly fitting.
213. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common
cases of oil pollution. Which flue of these items are the main preventive measures
against tank overflow ?

B. I. Ill, IV, V, VI
C. I, II, Ill, VI, VII
D. I, Ill, V, VI, VII
214. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained
because ……..
A. No electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted.

B. No instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted.
C. No pollution placards were posted.
D. No up to date deck port log was kept.
215. A master or any other person in authority on board treating a person in an improper
manner or fails to prevent his being so treated by other persons onboard shall be
liable to:
A. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
B. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 9 months.
C. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
D. Fines.
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216. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be

liable to:
A. Fines or in especially aggravating
circumstances to imprisonment for a
term not exceeding three months.
B. Fines.
C. Fines or in especially aggravating
circumstances to imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 6 months.
D. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
217. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be
liable to fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to:
a. The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section
65..
b. The Maritime Act
c. The Public Administration Act
d. The International Maritime Organization's
Act of Maritime Activities
218. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves
the ship in distress or other danger while the master still on board shall be liable to
a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
b. Fines.
c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
d. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
219. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger abandons the ship without this
being necessary shall be liable to:
a. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.
b. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months.
c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
d. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years.
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220. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship with
anything which he is entitled to receive in such capacity, or who permits such
refusal, shall be liable to:
a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding
1 year if there are especially aggravating circumstances.
b. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding
9 months if there are especially aggravating circumstances.
c. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
d. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding
2 years if there are especially aggravating circumstances.
221. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationality
marks or registration marks of a registered ship shall be liable to:
a. Fines.
b. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
d. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
222. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?

a. For at least two years
b. As long as the master or owner finds it necessary
c. It shall be delivered to a Norwegian Consulate at first
practicable occasion
d. For at least five years
223. How can the master ensure obedience?

a. He shall ensure obedience by the use of
force if he finds it necessary, but not use
harsher means than the circumstances make
necessary.
b. He has the power of denying the seafarer
their democratic right if they refuse to obey
orders given.
c. By giving clear orders and referring to the necessity of having the work
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carried out as ordered.

d. Only by giving clear orders in an understandable language. It is not allowed
to use any means which may result in personal injuries.
224. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform:

a. The deck officer of the highest rank present
b. Ship's agent
c. Chief Engineer Officer
d. The port authority
225. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board?
a. If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secure
evidence and take statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime
Directorate
b. The company shall be informed and shall take over the case.
c. Alleged suspects should be sent home at the first opportunity.
d. The least possible fuss should be made to ease over the situation.
226. Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming part of a watch and personnel
assisting or performing cargo operations on tankers are properly qualified?
a. It is incumbent on the shipowners and the master to ensure that the
requirements are complied with and documented.
b. The manning agent is responsible for proper documentation, but the master
must confirm in writing that the seafarer is able to carry out his duties.
c. The national authorities of seafarers are responsible for issuing proper
documentation after having controlled that the personnel is adequately
qualified.
d. The Administration of the flag state is responsible for controlling and
documenting the qualifications of all seafarers employed on board.
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227. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?

a. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of
the ship.
b. NMD is responsible for the ship being at all times adequately manned in
accordance with Norwegian acts and regulations.
c. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and
composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility
for the ship being adequately manned.
d. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately
qualified seafarers.
228. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to exercise their right to go ashore?
a. Where possible the master shall provide such service.
Cost and other circumstances may be taken into
consideration. Yes, but only if it is combined with the
agent's use of the same boat.
b. Yes, but only if it is combined with the agent's use of
the same boat.
c. No, but he should assist the seafarers in calling a boat.
d. No, boatservice to shore is up to the seafarers to acquire.
229. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer?

a. No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as dereliction of duty.
b. Yes, if the master considers the reason to be proper
c. Yes, if the seafarer is unagreeable to the master
d. Yes, if the master is asked to do so by members of the crew
230. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply:

a. To both passengers and cargo ships? Yes.
b. To ships and mobile oil drilling offfshore units? Yes.
c. To cargo ships only? Yes.
d. To Norwegian and foreign ships operating solely in Norwegian waters?
Yes.
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231. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice of termination?
a. Yes, if the seafrers demands it
b. Yes, if grounded on factors relating to the seafarer and the seafarer demands
it
c. Yes, if the notice of termination is grounded on factors relating to the
owners
d. The circumstances shall only be disclosed to the manning agent
232. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons?
a. Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyage
and the master fails to take steps to remedy the defects
b. Yes, provided the authorities of the port do not deny him entry into the
country
c. Yes, if the ship has been transferred to another Norwegian owner
d. No, unless he is taken seriously ill
233. For how long shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept
after their completion?
a. For minimum 3 years
b. For as long as the seafarer is in service
c. For at least 5 years
d. Until the settlement of wages has been made
234. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented?

a. By all the other mentioned alternatives.
b. By ensuring that the work is properly organised and executed and that
appropriate accidental prevention equipment is available and used.
c. By ensuring that the seafarer is properly qualified and informed of the
hazards inherent to the work.
d. By having elected or appointed protection supervisors and establishing a
Working Environment Committee as prescribed.
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235. Is it the duty of the Master to see to it that legislation and CWA/CBA are available
to seafarers on board?
a. The seafarers shall have available for their use the Seamen's and NIS-acts
with regulations, together with all relevant CWA's/CBA's.
b. It is sufficient that the master has the necessary legislation on board for his
use. He can if necessary explain this to the seafarers.
c. The seafarers have their contracts and that is sufficient.
d. If the seafarer have use for this, they may write to the manning agent for
information.
236. Is the crew entitled to compensation if the master has to reduce the diet during a
voyage?
a. Yes
b. Yes, but only if the voyage has been longer then calculated
c. Not if the crew has eaten more than could be expected
d. No, the saving should be used to buy new supplies
237. Is there any particular procedure to be followed when dismissing a seafarer?

a. A hearing shall be held before a committee on board.
b. His wages shall be settled and he shall sign the settlement.
c. The agent and shipping company should be informed.
d. The manning agent ordered to send a new man onboard.
238. On what kind of document shall working hours on board ships be kept?
a. On a time sheet arranged by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate
b. On a settlement wages form
c. In an approved logbook
d. There is no obligation to keep a journal
239. Shall the seafarer receive a statement showing the calculation of his wages?
a. Yes, showing how it has been calculated and with possible deductions.
b. Yes, but only at the request of the seafarer.
c. Only for payments for overtime.
d. He shall be told and make a note himself.
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240. The restriction of overtime work is that the person shall not be required, under
normal circumstances, to work more than:
a. 14 hours per day
b. 12 hours per day
c. 16 hours per day
d. 10 hours per day
241. What are the average total working hours per week that must be exceeded over a
period of at most one year on board NIS ships?
a. 56 hors
b. 63 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 40 hours
242. What are the duties of a master if a seafarer gets ill at sea?
a. All the other mentioned alternatives according to the situation
b. Put him to bed and await the situation
c. After observation and checking the medical books, check the medicine chest
to find suitable medication
d. Seek medical advice over radio (Radio Medico/Radio Medical).
243. What are the duties of a master if he has to leave a sick or injured seafarer behind in
a foreign port?
a. Notify nearest Norwegian Consulate
b. Inform the manning agent
c. Settle the bills. Say goodbye and send the seafarer flowers or a get-well card
d. Inform the seafarer next to him of his present address
244. What are the duties of the master if a seafarer dies in service on board?
a. The master shall notify next of kin/ Norwegian Consulate - arrange for
burial/ repatriation of coffin/ashes - and maritime inquiry
b. The master shall notify next of kin, have them make necessary arrangements
c. The master shall notify the consul of the seafarer's home country
d. The master may leave the case to an undertaker
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245. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer?
a. He shall arrange for proper care, including medical care
b. He shall notify the seafarer's next of kin and await further orders
c. He shall immediately notify the manning agent and request guarantee for
payment in case of hospitalization
d. He shall arrange for proper care within what he may find to be reasonable
expenses
246. What is the difference between the Safety Representative and the Working
Environment Committee's area of activity?
a. The Safety Representative's field is the work situation, the committee’s the
total environment, also spare time
b. The Safety Representative's duties relate to the ratings, the committee’s to
all seafarers
c. The committee is supervised by the protection supervisor
d. No difference
247. What is the main rules as to period of notice of termination as per the Seamen's
Act?
a. One month
b. Three months for any employee
c. 14 days
d. 7 days
248. Which mandatory handbooks for medical treatment shall be carried on board?
a. One control book for special medicines, one approved by Norwegian
authorities medical book ("International Medical Guide for ships") and three
pamphlets regarding first aid.
b. None. There are no mandatory requirements.
c. The first aid guide: Resuscitation on board.
d. An approved medical book
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249. Which of the below word(s) is defined as follows: "Service on board a ship which
gives the knowledge, insight and skills required for the issue of a certificate or other
document referred to in these regulations"
a. Seagoing service
b. On-board training
c. Serving
d. Length of service
250. Which rights does a seafarer who is unfit for work normally have?
a. Care, wages, free passage home
b. Care
c. A compensation equal to wages for six months
d. Free passage home
251. Who is responsible for the storage and use of substances injurious to health on
board?
a. The shipping company and the master
b. The protection supervisor
c. The seafarer
d. The shipping company's inspector
252. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies?

a. A pharmacy authorised or accepted by the Norwegian Board of Health or, if
no such pharnacy is available, the master and a doctor approved by a
Norwegian Consulate shall perform inspection once every 12 months.
b. The master shall ensure, at regular intervals, that the medical supplies are
sufficient taking due respect to the areas in which the ship is operating.
c. The master, or an officer authorised by him, shall check all medical
equipment at least twice a year and order supplements to the stock from an
approved pharmacy.
d. The inspection shall be undertaken by a Norwegian pharmacy or by a
person holding a degree in pharmacy and approved by the Norwegian
Maritime Directorate.
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253. A rating has approved emergency preparedness training, a certificate for

watchkeeping in the deck department and 3 years of service time on deck and
necessary knowledge of English. What post is a seafarer, with these required
qualifications, qualified for on a Norwegian cargo vessel?
a. As an able seaman
b. As an ordinary seaman
c. As a greaser
d. As a motorman
254. A seaman's right to go ashore on a day when shops and offices are open is:
a. At least once a month if circumstances permit it
b. Whenever he feels like it
c. To the masters discretion
d. The first call after a seavoyage of 7 days or more
255. An invalidated vessel's certificate shall be:

a. Returned to the Ship Control via a Norwegian Consulate
b. Kept on board for at least three years
c. Destructed by the master
d. Forwarded to NIS head office in Bergen, Norway
256. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?

a. For at least three years
b. As long as the master or owner finds it necessary
c. It shall be delivered to a Norwegian Consulate at first practicable occasion
d. For at least five years
257. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate be
carried out?
a. Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month.
b. Every year
c. Every fourth year provided the lifesaving appliances are inspected annually.
d. Every second year
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258. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the:
A. Load line certificate
B. Ship's safety certificate
c. Safety construction certificate
d. Ship's trading certificate
259. The restriction of overtime work is that no person shall be required, under normal
circumstances, to work more than:
a. 14 hours a day
b. 12 hours a day
c. 16 hours a day
d. 10 hours a day
260. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of English apply?

a. Seafarers employed or engaged on board ship on the business of that ship as
part of the ship's complement with designated safety or pollution duties
b. Persons for whom a certificate of competency is not required, only
c. Persons taking part in a navigational watch
d. The deck officers
261. What are the contents of the book "Excerpts from the Norwegian Ship Control
Legislation" ?
a. A compilation of Norwegian laws and regulations concerning the safety of
ships and crew.
b. Internationally adopted conventions for safety at sea and adequate manning
of ships.
c. The International Classification societies instructions
d. The SOLAS convention
262. What is the ISM Code?

a. The ISM Code is an international standard for the safe management and
operation of ships and for pollution prevention.
b. The ISM Code is an International standard for the maintenance of ships and
marine equipment.
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c. The ISM Code is a standard that is to ensure that rules and regulations of the
flag state are complied with in its territorial waters.
d. The ISM Code is an International maritime dangerous goods code.
263. What is the purpose of the unscheduled inspections on board ships?

a. To determine wether the ship is seaworthy
b. To issue a certificate of seaworthiness
c. To issue a trading permit
d. Mainly to determine whether the manning regulations have been adhered to
264. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specific
dutys and responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment on , for example, a
liquefied tanker?
a. A tankerman certificate
b. A tankerman certificate or sea service for at least 6 months
c. Documentation of the prescribed courses
d. Documentation of sea service on tankers for at least 6 months
265. Where do you find regulations concerning washing of crockery and cutlery?
a. The regulations are a part of the Norwegian Ship Control Legislation
regulations, concerning production and serving of foodstuffs.
b. There are no official regulations, but it is incumbent on the shipping
company to establish appropriate guidelines.
c. The regulations are obligatory to land based public places of refreshment
only, but it is strongly recommended that these regulations should be
adhered to on ships.
d. There are no such regulations for Norwegian ships.
266. Who has the overall responsibility for the general supervision of ships and for
matters governing the seaworthiness of ships?
a. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
b. The maritime investigators
c. The recognized classification societies
d. The shipowners
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267. Who is responsible for keeping documentation of the qualifications required for
personnel on board?
a. The ship's master
b. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
c. The ship's manning agent.
d. The ship owner.
268. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies if the ship is in a foreign port, for
example outside Europe?
a. A pharmacy authorised to do so or if no such pharmacy is available, the
master and an approved seamen's doctor
b. Any doctor
c. The protection supervisor
d. A nurse from an approved seamen's hospital
269. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the provisions, as you know, shall
generally speaking be accessible to the crew. Does this apply as well as to a
collective wage agreement?
a. Yes, if an employment agreement refers to the
collective wage agreement
b. Yes, provided ther collective wage agreement
applies to a category of persons
c. No
d. The NIS Act does not regulate this
270. At what number of crew members is it mandatory to have an Working Environment

Committee on board?
a. Minimum eight crew members.
b. Minimum twelve crew members.
c. Minimum four crew members.
d. Not mandatory.
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271. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected on a

ship with a crew of 13 members?
A. 1 member
B. 2 members.
C. 5 members.
D. 0 members
272. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating to the seafarers in the Act
chiefly relate?
A. The Act relating to hours of work and the Seamen's Act
B. The Seamen's Act and the Seaworthiness Act
C. The Seaworthiness Act
D. The Certification Act
273. Which provisions concerning holidays must the master ensure that is carried
onboard?
A. The Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating to holydays for
employees on ships.
B. The Act relating to holydays and the NIS Act.
C. The Act relating to holydays and the Seamen's Act.
D. The Regulations relating to holydays for employees on ships and the
relevant wages agreement only.
274. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board?

A. Both master and shipping company.
B. Shipping company.
C. Master.
D. Government.
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275. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into
account in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements include
the following information: …………….
A. All of these.
B. The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and
procedures for internal audits and management review.
C. The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between and
amongst shore and shipboard personnel.
D. The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the
provisions of the Code.
276. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop,

implement and maintain a system which includes the following :……………..
A. 1) maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required Letters
of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship.
B. 1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of
countries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities.
C. 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and
procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment.
D. 1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chief
engineers 3) office staff Home telephone numbers.
277. Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to describe how the objectives
of the ISM code willbe achieved.
A. Circulation of informative guidelines
B. Company regulations
C. A safety and environmental policy
D. Company newsletters
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278. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental
Policy is …………….
A. Known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers.
B. Known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew.
C. Known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based as
well as shore based.
D. Known by all ships officers.
279. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be …………..standards

required by the ismcode ?
A. Set above
B. Asubstrtute for
C. Set below
D. Deviating from
280. A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above
the standards of the ISM code, should be …………..
A. Totally disregarded since not enforceable.
B. Erased as far as excessive standards are concerned.
C. Encouraged and supported.
D. Discouraged.
281. It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's
………… which forms an integral part of the Safety Management System ?
A. Legal policy objectives
B. Ethics and environment objectives
C. Safety management objectives
D. Trading policy objectives
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282. Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company
who ………..the ship.
A. Has chartered
B. Owns
C. Has mortgaged
D. Has assumed responsibility for the operation of
283. Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship
related activities such as manning, technical support or maintenance ?
A. Yes, it is allowed
B. No, it is not longer allowed
C. Yes, only for manning
D. Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance
284. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning,
technical support or maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be
issued ?
A. Only one DOC can be issued to the Company
B. One DOC is issued to the company and one DOC is issued to the the
manning company only
C. One DOC is issued to the Company and one for each subcontractor
D. One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for the
maintenance as well as for the technical support company, not for manning.
285. Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is
subcontracted……..
A. Remains the responsibility of the Company
B. Becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor
C. Becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor
D. Is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand
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286. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor
must be satisfied that the company is in control of ……………
A. The subcontractors' personnel and resources.
B. All activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been
subcontracted.
C. The subcontractors' insurance system.
D. The financial portfolio of the subcontractors.
287. Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority
and interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to
and affecting safety and pollution prevention. How ?
A. By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and Officers
Mess room.
B. By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships
C. By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and
pollution prevention activities for each functional area
D. By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility
and command flow chart
288. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in
order to carry out his functions ?
A. All of these.
B. Freedom to travel worldwide at will
C. An executive salary and a company car
D. Adequate resources and shore based support
289. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should
include………….
A. Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of
each ship
B. Having overall control over all company departmental heads
C. Being a member of the Board of the Company
D. Final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities
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290. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ?
A. A master certificate
B. Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and
control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code
C. Twenty years seagoing experience
D. A university degree
291. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ?

A. Every 2 to 3 months
B. May be necessary
C. Is not required at all
D. Frequent lengthy stays on board are required
292. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety and
Environmental Policy on board ?
A. The senior Officer's
B. The Designated Person's
C. The Master's
D. The entire crew's
293. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively
implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the
Company ?
A. By the state of cleanliness on board
B. By judging the moral of the officers and crew on board
C. Through interviewing officers and crew
D. By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water
separator
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294. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental
policy on board ?
A. The Master
B. The Company's shore based and shipboard management
C. All ships officers
D. The senior officers
295. Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the
Safety and Environmental protection policy ?
A. Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will have
to pay their own air fare if they do not observe the policy
B. Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from the
implementation as well as encouraging reception of ownership
C. Ensure that copies of the Company's policy are given to all shipboard
personnel
D. Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and the
heavy fines to be paid for Pollution
296. How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from the
SEP policy and how could their perception of ownership be encouraged ?
A. Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged to
participate in the continuous development of the objectives of the SEP
B. By distribution of Nature, Health &Wealth or the like magazines and by
asking them to open a savings account
C. By encouraging then to join Green Peace or any other environmental group
D. By the Company's monthly newsletter
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297. Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental
policy and should issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple
manner. How is this to be done ?
A. By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples
B. Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social gatherings
to officers and crew
C. By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice
D. By calling the ship's compliment together and give short orders in clear
English
298. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures
and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will
actually verify this on board ?
A. The Designated Person
B. The Master
C. The Master and Officers
D. The Chief Engineer
299. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and
instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed ?
A. By computerizing all specified requirements and have an officer assigned as
input controller
B. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their own
Safety Work Book
C. By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities cof crew members
D. By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master
300. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and
reporting its deficiencies to ………..
A. The shore based management
B. The classification society
C. The Flag state authorities
D. The Port state control of the next port of call
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301. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should include
any deficiencies and may include …………..
A. A list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by the
Company.
B. A list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are to
be promoted
C. Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the
SMS.
D. The officer's and crew's appraisal reports
302. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety,
finds a deficiency in the Safety Management system relevant to the ships operation
he should …………
A. Inform the P & I club.
B. Make note in the log book of this deficiency.
C. Correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the official
log book.
D. Inform the Company.
303. When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report to the
Company ?
A. Prior to change of command
B. The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews
C. Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board
D. Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year
304. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system ?
A. The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge of
implementing the SMS
B. The overriding responsibility of the Master is self evident and need not to be
repeated in the SMS
C. The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of the
vessel
D. The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship
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contains a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority
305. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies …………….
A. In case of oil spill clean-ups
B. In normal circumstances
C. In both normal and extreme circumstances
D. In emergency and extreme circumstances
306. It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has
overriding responsibility and authority as required …………..
A. By the Company's Main Policy Objective
B. By the SOLAS Convention
C. By the International Association of Classification Societies
D. By the Shipowners Trust Fund
307. The Company must be sure that the Master is …………….

A. A safety and environmental protection licensed person.
B. A person in good standing with the P & I club association.
C. Properly qualified for command.
D. Not blacklisted by the U.S. Coast Guard or any other Port state control.
308. Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by …………..

A. Interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental
awareness.
B. Drug and alcohol test.
C. Confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the
STCW convention.
D. Medical examination.
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309. The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relating
to safety and environmental protection by ……………..
A. Having the Superintendents prepare monthly information sheets
B. Including such requirements in operating instructions.
C. Reminding him time to time.
D. Having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.
310. To make sure that the Master and the crew understand the tasks required of them by
the Safety Management System ………..should be described.
A. The vessel's safety equipment
B. Safety and environmental protection hazards
C. Job responsibilities
D. The ship's voyage and cargo details
311. Masters are to be given the necessary support so that they can perform their duties
safely. Support from the Company includes ……………
A. Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in every port.
B. Having diver inspections carried out at least every 6 months.
C. Mantaining the required compliment and onboard expertise
D. Having the ship drydocked every 30 months.
312. Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ……….with which the
Company should be familiar.
A. The shipping business
B. National and International requirements
C. The manpower industry
D. Crew management responsibilities
313. The Company should have a system in place for firstly ………….personnel,
especially if obtained through a manning agent.
A. Briefing
B. Joining and offsigning
C. Dismissing
D. Selecting
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314. To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally difficult …………

A. Since there is usually insufficient time for a thorough medical check up.
B. Since seaman have the tendency to hide illness.
C. Since there are no International or National standards.
D. Since medical certificates cannot be verified
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17. Memelihara keselamatan dan keamanan awak kapal dan

penumpang dan kondisi operasional alat-alat keselamatan dan
sistem keselamatan lainnya. (Maintain safety and security of the
ship’s crew and passengers and the operational condition of lifesaving,
firefighting and other safety systems)
1. *The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of:
A. Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
B. 300 mm
C. 200 mm
D. equally spaced, not less than 200 mm or more than
280 mm
2. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested:
A. Every week
B. Every 2 weeks
C. Every 3 weeks
D. Every month
3. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release
system, precautions to ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due
to a mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken?
A. The main supply line to be blanked off prior to
the work.
B. Arrange a watchman in the CO2 central.
C. No special precautions necessary.
D. Check the main valve for a potential leakage.
4. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be
serviced:
A. Every 12 months.
B. Every 24 months.
C. Every 18 months.
D. Every 36 months.
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5. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this
information recorded in the OLB?
A. Every three months. Details of test with signatures
of Master and witness
B. Monthly with signature of person carrying out test
C. Fortnightly, with signature of Chief Engineer and
witness
D. Monthly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness.
6. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
A. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and
renewed every 5 years
B. Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years
C. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be
renewed if the wire is in poor condition
D. Renewed every three years
7. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is
equipped with fire detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the
detectors are to be observed?
A. All the mentioned alternatives.
B. Check the detector with heat and/or smoke (in
accordance with instructions in its manual)
C. Check that the actual detector is giving appropriate
signals to the central control unit and that all electric
connections are in good order.
D. When testing detectors by suitable equipment (smoke and heat) check that
the sensors self controlling system, e.g. a flashing control light etc. is
functioning.
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8. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows:

A. length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm
B. length = 380 mm, breadth = 145 mm, depth = 20 mm
C. length = 280 mm, breadth = 85 mm, depth = 10 mm
D. length = 580 mm, breadth = 165 mm, depth = 30 mm
9. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present

regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)
A. Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys
shall be provided with self-ignighting lights
B. At least four life-buoys on each side of the ship
shall be fitted with buoyant lifelines
C. All the life-buoys shall be placed in holders with
quick-release arrangement
D. At least one lifebuoy with self-activating smoke shall be placed within the
vicinity of the stern
10. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds
to present regulations?
A. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall
be made of non-combustible or fire
retardant material
B. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall
be fitted with the manufacturers name and
Logo
C. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall
be of such a colour that they are in
contrast to the surrounding colour
D. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall have marking in red colour
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11. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-
saving appliances correspond to present regulations?
A. Instructions for onboard maintenance of
life-saving appliances in accordance with
the regulations shall be provided
B. At least one member of the crew shall
hold a repairman certificate for life-saving
equipment
C. Maintenance and repair of all life saving
equipments shall be carried out by the
certified ship staff only
D. Maintenance and repair of all the life-saving equipments will be carried out
ashore in work shop only
12. *On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and
lowering whenever practicable) must take place
A. every 4 months
B. every 2 months
C. every 3 months
D. every months
13. *The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If
25% of the crew - or more - has not participated in such drill during the last month,
what is the time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a port?
A. Within 24 hrs
B. Within 12 hrs
C. Within 30 hrs
D. Within 48 hrs
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14. *When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with
their assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water?
A. Every month
B. Every week
C. Every two weeks
D. Every six months
15. *When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some
training and instructions in the use of the ship's fire-fighting appliances ?
A. As soon as possible but not later than 2
weeks after he joins the ship
B. As soon as possible
C. As soon as possible but not later than 2
days after he joins the ship
D. As soon as possible but not later than 24
hours after he joins the ship
16. *Where do you find minimum drill requirements?

A. In the SOLAS convention and its annex
B. In manager's instructions
C. In classification society rules
D. In owner's instruction
17. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?

A. instruction in the use of radio life-saving
appliances
B. Checking passenger's immersion suits
C. Checking the distress signal rockets and other
distress signals
D. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies
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18. *Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill?
A. All the items mentioned
B. Starting a fire pump using at least two
required jets of water to show that the
system is in proper working order
C. Checking fireman's outfits and other
personal rescue equipment
D. Reporting to stations and preparing for
the duties described in the muster list
19. *Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to
present SOLAS regulation?
A. Each lifeboat shall be launched, and
manoeuvred in the water with its assigned
crew at least once every three months
during an abandon ship drill
B. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is
in a harbor
C. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills
D. On ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and
manoeuvred in the water at least every six months
20. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew
aboard and manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS?
A. Every three months.
B. Every week.
C. Every two weeks.
D. Every month.
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21. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?
A. Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and
associated equipment
B. Lifeboat radio
C. Location of immersion suits and thermal
protective aids
D. How to communicate using the hand-held
radios
22. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according
to SOLAS?
A. Once every month.
B. Once every 6 months.
C. Once every year.
D. Once every week.
23. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?

A. Once every month
B. Once every week
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once every year
24. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?
A. Once every month
B. Once every week
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once a year
25. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed:

A. Every week
B. Every two weeks
C. Every month
D. Every three months
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26. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo
ship participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?
A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Every second week
D. This is only required when he joins the ship
27. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and
precautionary routines run and tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance are
normally carried out by dedicated personnel. To ensure safe and appropriate
operation of the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same dedicated
personnel operate the pump in emergencies?
A. In case of accidents, it is important
that a wide range of personnel must
be permitted and trained to operate
the pump.
B. To ensure safe operation of the
emergency pump,only dedicated
personnel must be permitted to
operate the pump.
C. Only senior engineers should operate the emergency pump.
D. Only senior deck officers should operate the emergency pump.
28. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?

A. Checking that passengers and crew are
suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly
donned
B. Checking the distress signal rockets and other
distress signals
C. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies
D. Checking that all crew and passenger moral is high
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29. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill
according to SOLAS regulations?
A. Checking that life-jackets are correctly
donned.
B. Manoeuvring the lifeboat in the water.
C. Starting and operating radio life-saving
appliances.
D. Launching and recovery of a survival craft.
30. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)?
A. The appointed lifeboat commander.
B. Sen.Off.Deck.
C. Sen.Off.Engine.
D. The first member of the crew arriving at the
survival craft.
31. "A contractor is hired to install new navigation equipment onboard your ship while
it’s berthed. For a period of time he’s left unsupervised and photographs schematics
of the ship that he finds rolled up and stored in the corner of a nearby office. Later,
from home, he hacks into the network and prints off information about the ship’s
security procedures. Which of these information security measures would have
prevented his unauthorized access?"
A. "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a secure network."
B. "Protective markings, reference checks, and passwords."
C. "Firewall, protective markings, vetting and a secure network."
D. "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and protective markings."
32. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to take,
on entering an area known for pirate activity?"
A. To transit with maximum safe speed
B. To turn off all lights
C. To confine all ship’s personnel to one room onboard
D. To transit at night time only
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33. "If drugs or suspected drugs are found onboard your ship, follow the five C’s.
Confirm, Clear, Cordon, Control and:"
A. Check
B. Change
C. Chuck
D. Cheer
34. "Part way through a profiling interview with a supplier, the package the individual
is carrying arouses your suspicion. What do
you do?"
A. Discreetly inform someone of your
suspicions so he or she can get
assistance.
B. Confront the individual and demand
that he open the package.
C. Call for help on the radio.
D. Take the package and open it.
35. "Which of these precautionary measures can reduce the threat of piracy, if
implemented?"
A. Sail at full speed.
B. Stay at least 15nm away from the shore.
C. Plan to arrive at port at night.
D. Turn off all of the ship’s lights at night.
36. "Your ship security plan must include procedures for responding to security threats,
auditing security activities and interfacing with the port facility."
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. .
D. .
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37. A Ship Security Assessment is integral to the creation of your ship’s security plan.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. .
D. .
38. Assign men to search men and women to search women unless a device such as a
metal detector is used.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. .
D. .
39. Check the items that can be a possible threat

A. All alternatives
B. Bombing and Sabotage
C. "Piracy, Hijacking and Smuggling"
D. Cargo tampering and Stowaways
40. Eavesdropping and phone taps are examples of which threat to information
security?
A. Espionage
B. Sabotage
C. Terrorism
D. Subversion
41. For a search to be effective it must be:

A. Centrally controlled.
B. Organized haphazardly.
C. Conducted by personnel with limited
knowledge of the ship’s layout.
D. Inclusive of all personnel.
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42. If drugs are discovered onboard your ship….

A. Ensure the witness to the discovery signs
your incident report.
B. Notify the authorities after you arrive at the
next port of call.
C. Write a report a few days after the event and
describe everything that occurred.
D. Disembark crew and passengers as quickly as possible at the next port of
call so the authorities can conduct their investigation.
43. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a DoS?

A. Your ship is conducting activities with a port
or ship that is not required to implement an
approved security plan.
B. Your ship is operating at a lower security
level than the ship or port it is interfacing
with.
C. There is a heightened security risk for your ship and a port facility.
D. Your ship has added a new port to its list of ports of call.
44. Information about your ship’s security arrangements and procedures is stored
electronically. Which of these measures will help safeguard it from potential
threats?
A. Passwords
B. Protective markings
C. Encoded email messages
D. Work history verification
45. One of the categories of information that must be included in your SSP is:
A. Security arrangements
B. Ship security survey
C. Threat scenarios
D. Weaknesses in security measures
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46. Only search vehicle compartments where you suspect objects may be hidden.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
C. .
D. .
47. Records relating to breaches of security and changes in security level must be
secured against unauthorized access and available for review by contracting
governments.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. .
D. .
48. Searches are often triggered by:

A. An increase in security level by the Flag State.
B. Lost baggage.
C. The receipt of a shipment of damaged stores.
D. News stories of stowaways.
49. The best way to ensure you get the equipment you need is to:
A. Determine your needs and do some research.
B. Buy the most expensive equipment on the market.
C. Buy what everyone else is buying.
D. Buy the newest models.
50. The best way to prevent stowaways from boarding your ship is to:
A. "Seal spaces that are not in use while in port, and perform a search of the
ship before leaving."
B. "Conduct routine, but irregular searches of the ship."
C. Conduct a Nominated Officers search.
D. Search the ship when you arrive at port and again just after leaving.
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51. The Declaration of Security:

A. Addresses the security requirements shared
between ships or between a port facility and a
ship.
B. Details a ship’s security measures.
C. Identifies the security responsibilities of
shipboard personnel.
D. States the reporting procedures to government
contact points.
52. The DoS addresses the responsibility for the security of the water around the ship
and the verification of increased threat levels.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. .
D. .
53. The first step in completing an SSA is to:

A. Create a list of potential motives for
security incidents against your ship.
B. "Identify the key shipboard operations,
systems, areas and personnel that are
critical to protect."
C. List the existing security measures.
D. Develop an onboard security survey checklist
54. The International Maritime Bureau Piracy Reporting Centre attributes the increased
numbers of hijackings to:
A. The greater involvement in piracy of well-organized and
armed crime networks.
B. Higher crime rates around the world.
C. More crew involvement.
D. Easy access to military weapons.
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55. The most effective way to combat the threat of drug smuggling is to?
A. "Combining routine, but irregular searches of
the ship with spontaneous targeted searches."
B. Organize crew into pairs and conduct weekly
searches of the ship.
C. "Perform routine, but irregular searches using
teams of two or more personnel from the same
department."
D. Perform spontaneous targeted searches using teams of two or more
personnel from the same department.
56. The purpose of profiling is to?

A. Get beneath the outer shell of an individual to
obtain a more complete picture.
B. Make judgements about people based on heir
appearance.
C. Categorize people based on their nationality
and ethnicity.
D. Identify different personality types.
57. What is a Continuous Synopsis Record?

A. A record of the vessels history
B. A plan including all security measures
onboard
C. A record of all security incidents
D. A plan for continuous maintenance of
security equipment
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58. What is a Declaration of Security?

A. A checklist jointly completed by the ship and
shore security representatives
B. A checklist jointly completed by the Ship
Security Officer and the U.S. Coast Guard
C. A document between the port and the cargo
owner stating security
D. A document stating the ship’s security level
59. What percentage of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1?

A. The percentage is not specified.
B. 25-50% of the baggage is required
to be checked at Security Level 1.
C. 100% of the baggage is required to
be checked at Security Level 1.
D. 5-15% of the baggage is required to
be checked at Security Level 1.
60. What percentage of the ship’s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level
3?
A. 100% of the ship’s stores are
required to be inspected at Security
Level 3.
B. 25-50% of the ship's stores are
Level 3.
C. 5-20% of the ship's stores are
Level 3.
D. 50-80% of the ship's stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3.
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61. What type of bomb search should you conduct to avoid panic when the credibility
of the threat is in doubt and you don’t want to disrupt ship business?
A. Nominated officers search
B. External search team
C. Crew search
D. Known hiding spot search
62. Which information should be included in your search plan?

A. Areas to be searched and personnel to be
involved in the search.
B. Areas to be searched.
C. Personnel to be involved in the search.
D. Known hiding spots to be searched.
63. Which of following are security duties?

A. All alternatives
B. Monitoring of restricted areas
C. Calibration of security equipment
D. Checking ID of visitors onboard
64. Which of these actions should you take it your ship is successfully boarded by
armed pirates?
A. Assure your captors that you’re not planning
an attack to overthrow them.
B. Fight back.
C. Scream in fear and refuse to cooperate.
D. Keep quiet and ignore any questions you’re
asked.
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65. Which of these conventions is The International Ship and Port Facility Security
(ISPS) Code a part of?
A. SOLAS
B. MARPOL
C. The Anti Terrorist International Agreement
D. STCW – 95
66. Which of these measures would you implement to prevent drugs from being
smuggled onboard your ship while it’s berthed?
A. Maintain restricted areas.
B. Check a portion of the bags and packages brought onboard.
C. "Search some of the packages, spares and stores received."
D. Eliminate fore and aft deck watch at night.
67. Which of these statements about drug smugglers modes of operating is true?
A. "Drugs smuggled by an organized conspiracy are
usually concealed in a primary ship system such as
the engine room or in a tank, void or
compartment."
B. Individual entrepreneurs usually smuggle large
quantities of drugs.
C. Drugs hidden by individual entrepreneurs are
usually difficult to detect.
D. An organized conspiracy usually smuggles a small amount of drugs.
68. Which of these statements about drug smuggling is true?

A. The risks to ships are not restricted to
specific areas or trading routes.
B. Drugs are difficult to conceal onboard a ship.
C. "Drug smuggling is only a problem in certain
ports, so only ships sailing in those ports
need to implement preventative measures."
D. "The preventative measures you incorporate into your ship’s security plan
should be exhaustive, regardless of the level of threat identified by your
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ship’s security assessment."
69. Which of these statements about profiling is correct?

A. Verify that answers to questions match up
with what’s already known about the person
being questioned.
B. Use only open-ended questions.
C. Check the ID of all visitors and some crew
prior to boarding.
D. Pay less attention to body language and behaviour and more attention to
answers to questions.
70. Which of these tasks are performed as part of the SSA?

A. Assess the likelihood and potential
consequences of security incidents.
B. Assign security duties to ship personnel.
C. Implement measures to address weaknesses in
ship security.
D. Train shipboard personnel in their security duties.
71. Which of this information must be included in a piracy attack alert?

A. Your ship’s name and call sign.
B. The number of pirates/highjackers.
C. The type of weapons being carried by the
pirates/highjackers.
D. The number of crew onboard.
72. Which statement about the use of profiling onboard a ship is true?
A. A random selection process must be
established.
B. Only visitors can be profiled.
C. Detection equipment can be used in place of
profiling.
D. Profilers need at least half an hour to gather the information they need.
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73. Which two persons check the Declaration of Security?

A. The Port Facility Security Officer and the Ship Security Officer
B. The Company Security Officer
C. The local Coast Guard Officer
D. The local Police Officer and Ship Security Officer
74. Which type of profiling is used to obtain information about rival companies and
their employees?
A. Industrial
B. Criminal
C. Commercial
D. General
75. Who is responsible for completing the DoS on behalf of the ship?
A. Ship Security Officer
B. Company Security Officer
C. Chief Officer
D. Chief Engineer
76. Who is responsible for ensuring that your ship’s security plan meets the
requirements of the ISPS Code?
A. Company Security Officer
B. Flag State Administration
C. Ship Security Officer
D. Recognized Security Organization
77. Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment?
A. Company Security Officer
B. Ship Security Officer
C. Flag State Administration
D. Recognized Security Organization
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78. Who is responsible for issuing an ISPS certificate?

A. The Flag State
B. The Port State
C. US Coast Guard
D. The insurance company
79. Who is responsible for the development of the Ship Security Plan?
A. The Company Security Officer
B. The Classification Society.
C. The Port Facility Security Officer
D. The Ship Security Officer
80. Who is responsible for the regular security inspections of the ship?
A. The Ship Security Officer
B. The Company Security Officer
C. The Classification Society.
D. The Port Facility Security Officer
81. You can reduce the need for security guards in certain areas by installing:
A. Anti-intruder devices
B. Vapour detectors
C. Metal detectors
D. Water cannons.
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18. Membuat rencana pengendalian keadaan darurat dan kerusakan

serta menangani situasi darurat.( Develop emergency and damage
control plans and handle emergency situations )
1. *As far as human factor is concerned, which of the following actions should be
considered as an efficient one?
A. All the listed answers
B. To equip them with better communication
systems
C. To train the fire brigade
D. To establish inner rules to perform work of a
special risk
2. *The correct order of actions to be taken in a fire emergency, should be…

A. Evaluation of the situation, rescue
and life-saving, confinement of fire,
extinction, then feed back on the
emergency
B. Extinction, confinement of fire, feed
back on the emergency, rescue and
life-saving, then evaluation of the
situation
C. Extinction, evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-
saving
D. Evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-saving,
extinction
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3. *Which of the following detailed explanations should be mentioned in the Training

Manual ?
A. How to recover survival craft and
rescue boats including stowage and
securing
B. How to use navigational equipment
for survival crafts
C. How to use surface to air visual
signals to be used by survivors
D. How to use escape routes and other escape methods
4. *Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of

survival craft corresponds to the SOLAS regulation?
A. A deck officer or certificated person
shall be placed in charge of each
survival craft to be used
B. Every motorised survival craft shall
have a certificated engineer assigned
C. There shall be at least 5 trained
persons on board, mustering and
assisting untrained persons
D. Every lifeboat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have a
deck officer capable of operating the equipment assigned
5. *You are on board a cargo ship. The ship is heavily listing to starboard, making
impossible the launching of the survival craft stowed on this side. Lifeboats and
liferafts are equally distributed on each side of the vessel. What should be the total
number of persons that can be accommodated in the remaining survival craft
stowed on the port side ? (*) N is the total number of persons that vessel is
permitted to carry.
A. At least 200 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N)
(*)
B. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)
C. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*)
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D. At least 100 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)
6. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer?
A. As instructed by the helicopter pilot
B. With the wind astern so that the
effect of the wind is reduced as much
as possible
C. Directly into the wind
D. With the wind fine on the bow opposite to the helicopter operating area
7. HEL-H is the abbreviation of a heavy helicopter radius of action for rescue

purposes. What do you think the radius and evacuating capacity of the helicopter
is?
A. 200 nm and capacity for evacuating more then 15 persons.
B. 500 nm and capacity for evacuating
more than 25 persons.
C. 150 nm and capacity for evacuating
more than 12 persons.
D. 100 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 10 persons.
8. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded,
what is the next action to be taken by the
Chief Officer on duty?
A. Use the intercom to inform crew
and passengers of the reason for the
alarm
B. Call the nearest coastal radio station
C. Send distress signals to call for help
D. Use the VHF-radio telephone to ask
ships in the vicinity to stand by
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9. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarm
signal be sounded?
A. Until all crew members and passengers have
reported to their respective muster stations
B. 3 times
C. 3 minutes
D. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order
"abandon ship" is given
10. In what language/languages must the fire control plans or booklets (or copies of
these) be written?
A. In the Flag State official language with
copies in English or French
B. In the Flag State official language
C. In the English language
D. In a national language where company head
office is located
11. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat-commander?

A. Yes, you must attend to a course
held by certified personnel, and
provide evidence of having
maintained the required standards of
competence every five years.
B. No, the only thing you need is one
hour instruction from a deck officer.
C. No
D. Yes, you must attend a one week course at a approved course center.
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12. Poster or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their
launching controls. Which one of the following requirements has to be included?
A. Give relevant instructions and
warnings
B. Give an overview of location of all
lifesaving appliances
C. Give information on survival craft
capacity
D. Give information on survival craft
speed and seaworthiness
13. The analyses of the smoke produced by a fire, may give an interpretation of that
fire. Which are the factors we should take into
account?
A. Opacity, amount and colour
B. Amount and opacity only
C. There is no possible interpretation of a fire
according to the smoke
D. Colour only
14. The muster list must be prepared:

A. At any moment before the ship proceeds to
sea
B. At least 2 hours before the ship proceeds to
sea
C. At least 1 hour before the ship proceeds to
sea
D. At least 2 hours after the ship has proceeded to sea
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15. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of
the following duties shall be included according to present regulations?
A. Manning of fire parties assigned to
deal with fires.
B. Preparation of immersion suits for
passengers.
C. Special duties assigned with respect
to the use of pyrotechnics
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion
system.
16. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of the crew.
Which of the given duties necessarily have to be included in the muster list?
A. Preparation and launching of
survival crafts
B. Clearing escape routes
C. Type of fires that can be
encountered on board
D. Preparation and starting of
emergency generator
17. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood
terms and illustrated wherever possible. Which of the following objects have to be
explained in detail in the manual according to
present regulations?
A. Donning of lifejackets and immersion suits
B. Donning of fire protection clothing
C. Starting of Main Engine
D. Handling of stowaways
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18. The Training Manual shall contain instructions and information on the life-saving
appliances and the best method of survival. The training manual shall contain
detailed explanations of crew duties in relation to emergency situations. Which of
the following tasks or duties shall be included in the manual according to present
regulations?
A. The use of the ship's line throwing
apparatus.
B. The use of navigational equipment for
survival crafts.
C. The use of surface to air visual signals to be
used by survivors.
D. The use of escape routes and other escape
methodes.
19. What are the conditions that influence the efforts for organising the fire fighting?
A. Where the fire breaks out, how
many fire teams are available, the
strength of the fire, the ships
mobility, what is burning and
communication
B. Where the fire break out, how many
fire teams are available, what is
burning, distance to the fire station
C. Distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade, what is burning,
possibility to get water
D. Where the fire break out, the ships mobility, distance to the fire station and
the size of the fire brigade
20. What is a contingency plan for ships?

A. Plan for safety preparedness
B. Plan for next voyage
C. Loading plan for general cargo
D. Plan for maintenance and repair
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21. What is most important for crew members when preparing for emergencies?
A. That people are well trained
B. That people know where to find designated
equipment
C. That people know where to muster
D. That people listen to orders given
22. What is the priority for the ship's management team when fire breaks out?
A. The ship's management team must
organise the fire teams and then the
teams have to rescue missing
personnel
B. The ship's management team must
fight the fire and then call the fire
teams
C. The ship's management team must
call the nearest fire brigade and police station
D. The ship's management team and the crew must evacuate the ship
23. What manoeuvre should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship?
A. Reduce speed and, if possible, keep
the fire zone to the leeward of the
ship
B. Keep the stem up against the wind if
possible
C. Let the ship follow the wind in
order to reduce the oxygen supply
D. Continue on course and speed
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24. When a Master takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Must his first action
be a decision that will directly solve the problem?
A. Not necessary, he shall use all available
resources. He should resist the temptation to step
in and do it all by himself
B. Yes, take full controll. Do not delegate to other
officers, to avoid mistake.
C. No, he should observ the situation, and let the other senior officers solve the
situation.
D. Yes, with his experience, it is most likely that he has the best solution.
25. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being
assigned to crewmembers in relation to
passengers?
A. Assembling passengers at muster
station
B. Ensuring that every passenger is
provided with an immersion suit or a
thermal protective aid
C. Ensuring that extra food and water is
taken to the survival craft
D. Clearing the escape routes
26. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being
assigned to members of the crew ?
A. Preparation and launching of the
survival craft
B. Preparation of manoeuvres intended
to ease launching of the survival
craft
C. Preparation of immersion suits for
the ship's passengers
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion
system
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27. Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list?
A. Action to be taken by crew and
passengers
B. The specific duties assigned to
passengers that are in charge of a
group of others
C. The abandon ship signal consisting
of two long blasts
D. The muster list has been prepared and approved by the administration
before the ship proceeds to sea
28. Which of the following prevention actions offers the guarantee of an efficient
intervention in an emergency
A. All the listed answers
B. The installation of protective measures
C. Planning of the emergency
D. Training of the crew
29. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and
embarkation arrangements corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations?
A. Muster and embarkation stations shall be
readily accessible from accommondation
and work areas.
B. Davit-launched survival craft muster and
embarkation stations shall be arranged to
enable stretchers to be placed in survival
craft.
C. Muster and embarkation stations are to be
arranged separately to improve working conditions.
D. Searchlights to be provided at the launching station.
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30. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft
corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed:
A. In a secure and sheltered position and
protected from damage by fire or explosion.
B. Wherever space is available.
C. On the starboard side of the ship.
D. In a state of readiness so that two crew-
members can prepare for embarkation and
launching in less than 15 minutes.
31. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and life-
rafts corresponds to present SOLAS regulations?
A. Lifeboats shall be stowed attached to
launching appliances.
B. Life-rafts shall be stowed close to the stern
of the vessel
C. Life-rafts intended for throw-overboard
launching shall be stowed midships secured
to means for transfer to either side.
D. Davit-launched life-rafts shall be stowed on
starboard side of the ship.
32. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of people
from outsides parties are asking questions. What shall you tell them?
A. Do not reply to any questions from
outside parties, except the Solicitor
appointed by your company.
B. You shall only tell them the truth
and nothing but the truth.
C. Do not tell anybody anything,
except representatives from the
main newspapers, radio and TV.
Remember, the people have the
right to know.
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D. To make sure that all parties are informed about the facts, show them the
extracts of the log-book.
33. A company must update its Safety Management System and Manual:
A. Whenever regulations change
B. At least once every 6 months
C. At least once every 12 months
D. At least once every 18 months
34. A moderate level of stress provides which useful function in an emergency?

A. To prepare for peak performance that will improve the chances of survival
B. To slow down the heart rate to conserve energy
C. To slow down the thought processes to ensure a thorough assessment of the
threat
D. To immobilize the individual until he has decided upon the best course of
action
35. Debriefing of an emergency drill:

A. Expands the experience of all personnel
B. Is most effective when held at a safety meeting
C. Focuses attention on the debriefer's feedback
D. Encourages crewmembers to focus on their duties
36. For which emergency resource is it difficult to plan the best use?
A. Passengers
B. Crew
C. Company personnel
D. Emergency equipment
37. In a crisis, which crew behaviours are most reassuring to passengers?

A. Enthusiasm, confidence, decisiveness
B. Enthusiasm, confidence, hospitality
C. Dependability
D. Keeping up with safety knowledge
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38. Studies of shipboard emergencies show that many passengers do not read or
remember safety information. As an officer, how can you best compensate for this
fact?
A. In an emergency, repeatedly tell passengers what's happening, what's being
done, and what they should do.
B. Prior to departure, provide passengers with a good safety video.
C. Ensure that printed safety information onboard is of the highest quality.
D. Post large, graphic safety signs conspicuously throughout the ship.
39. The Safety Management Manual contains checklists that are:

A. Clear, concise summaries of critical action items in the emergency plan
B. To be used when crewmembers feel especially stressed in emergencies
C. Clear, concise summaries of all action items in the emergency plan
D. Detailed descriptions of action items most easily forgotten in emergencies
40. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles?

A. Lack of leadership
B. No lifeboat drills for passengers
C. Inadequate fire-fighting training
D. Inadequate fire-fighting provisions
41. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisions in
an emergency?
A. Feedback from the crew
B. Input from company personnel
C. Planning of emergency procedures
D. Following safety regulations
42. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ships crew?
A. The level of emergency-preparedness
B. The safety awareness of the senior officers
C. The shipboard training provided
D. The quality of emergency drills
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43. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes to emergency plans and
procedures?
A. The design and layout of the ship
B. The ISM Code
C. MARPOL
D. The safety requirements of the USCG
44. Which statement about stress is correct?

A. Individuals in a shipboard emergency experience different levels of stress.
B. An example of stress is a shipboard fire.
C. Stress is an unusual reaction to a threatening situation.
D. Stress interferes with an individual's ability to respond to a threat.
45. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the
__________.
A. Canop
B. Manropes
C. Sea painter
D. Righting strap
46. Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________.
A. Sewage
B. The galley trash can
C. An oily mixture of one part per million
D. All of the above
47. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall
be kept on board __________.
A. For 1 year
B. For 2 years
C. Until the next Coast Guard inspection
D. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
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48. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with
air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor
concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage
of vapors for men to enter?
A. .15%
B. .85%
C. 1.05%
D. 7.00%
49. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest
compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations
50. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the
requirements for __________.
A. Signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility
B. Minimum hawser lengths when being towed
C. Lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
D. Mooring procedures for support vessels when transferring cargo
51. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?

A. The distance between the actual center of gravity and the maximum center
of gravity that will still allow a positive stability.
B. The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positive
stability.
C. The sum of the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity.
D. The transverse shift of the center of buoyancy as a vessel rolls.
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52. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

A. On their side if unconscious
B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D. Arms above their head
53. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.
A. Allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
B. Prevent outside air from entering the tank
C. Provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
D. Comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations
54. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You
should FIRST __________.
A. Boat the sea anchor
B. Paddle away from the fire
C. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D. Get out of the raft and swim to safety
55. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the
water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
A. Has fired a torpedo during a drill
B. Is about to rise to periscope depth
C. Is on the bottom in distress
D. Is disabled and unable to surface
56. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is
when __________.
A. You first start to receive fuel
B. Hoses are being blown down
C. Final topping off is occurring
D. Hoses are being disconnected
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57. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.

A. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor conten
B. Makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level)
capable of supporting combustion
C. In a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a
regular basis
D. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content
makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
58. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at
the rate of how many breaths per minute?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
59. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried

voluntarily, must hold at least a __________.
A. Mate's license
B. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C. Second-class radio operator's license
D. Seaman's document
60. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the
various angles of inclination will __________.
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Remain unchanged
D. Be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle
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DPKP
61. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at
the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
A. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
B. Fire on board
C. Rescuing an individual from the water
D. Emergency towing
62. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.

A. Aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
B. Increase the rate of discharge of cargo
C. Force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside
atmosphere
D. Lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly
impossible
63. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has
bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action
should you take?
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open
the container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
64. Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the
International Rules of the Road?
A. D
B. F
C. Q
D. U
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DPKP
65. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory
to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of compliance with
MARPOL 73/78.
B. The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years.
C. An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes
authorized thereon.
D. AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification.
66. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill
the minimum requirements for fire protection?
67. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.

A. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is
below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit)
B. Capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above
the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
C. Capable of supporting a fire once started
D. Not safe for ballasting
68. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
A. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B. Keeping the head elevated
C. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D. Holding the jaw down firmly
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DPKP
69. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST
__________.
A. Invert the CO2 extinguisher
B. Squeeze the two trigger handles together
C. Remove the locking pin
D. Open the discharge valve
70. Transverse stability calculations require the use of __________.

A. Hog or sag calculations or tables
B. Hydrostatic curves
C. General arrangement plans
D. Cross-sectional views of the vessel
71. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
A. Electricity
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
72. Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be
equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________.
A. 100,000 DWT (long tons)
B. 100,000 DWT (metric tons)
C. 50,000 DWT (long tons)
D. 50,000 DWT (metric tons)
73. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
A. Shape
B. Shallow draft
C. Large sail area
D. All of the above
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DPKP
74. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules
of the Road?
A. D
B. E
C. S
D. All of the above
75. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?

A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
B. It is not covered by the pollution laws.
C. It does little harm to marine life.
D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil.
76. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the
vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________.
A. One A-I
B. Two A-iis
C. One B-II
D. One C-II
77. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the
vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________.
A. One A-I
B. Two A-iis
C. One B-II
D. One C-II
78. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere
within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.
B. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
C. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
D. Use an explosimeter.
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DPKP
79. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum
should be depressed about __________.
A. 1/2 inch or less
B. 1/2 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches
80. A flame screen __________.

A. Permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
B. Prevents the passage of flammable vapors
C. Prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
D. Permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank
81. Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must
be reported to __________.
A. Environmental Protection Agency
B. Minerals Management Service
C. National Response Center (USCG)
D. All of the Above
82. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must
__________.
A. Secure the engine room ventilation
B. Secure the machinery in the engine room
C. Evacuate all engine room personnel
D. All of the above
83. The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides
__________.
A. For faster loading
B. Tank atmosphere with low oxygen content
C. Better fuel economy
D. All of the above
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DPKP
84. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

A. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. Pushing up from under one end
D. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside
of the raft
85. The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

A. Heating surfaces adjacent to the fire
B. Removing combustibles from the endangered area
C. Increasing the oxygen supply
D. All of the above
86. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?

A. They usually disappear quickly.
B. They usually stay in a small are
C. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative.
D. A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the are
87. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in
the vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is
one __________.
A. B-I
B. B-II
C. C-I
D. C-II
88. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?

A. Combustible gas indicator
B. Vapor indicator
C. Atmosphere analyzer kit
611
DPKP
89. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body
should the pressure be applied?
A. Lower half of the sternum
B. Tip of the sternum
C. Top half of the sternum
D. Left chest over the heart
90. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should
secure the power, then __________.
A. Use a portable foam extinguisher
B. Use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
C. Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
D. Determine the cause of the fire
91. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?

A. Bending moments
B. Initial stability
C. Draft
D. Trim
92. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's
outfit?
A. Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached
B. Combustible gas indicator
C. Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
D. Flame safety lamp
93. Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?
A. Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems.
B. Helium is the preferred inert gas.
C. Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks.
D. All of the above
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DPKP
94. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
A. Pushing up on one side
B. Standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your
weight backwards
C. Getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the
CO2 cylinder
D. Doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate
95. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being
launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions
of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
A. 6°
B. 12°
C. 20°
D. 25°
96. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.

A. Equipment failure
B. Human error
C. Major casualties
D. Unforeseeable circumstances
97. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on
cargo vessels is __________.
A. One A-I
B. One B-I
C. One C-I
D. None required
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DPKP
98. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture
is called the __________.
A. Auto-ignition point
B. Flash point
C. Lower explosive limit (LEL)
D. Threshold limit value (TLV)
99. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
__________.
A. Without losing the rhythm of respiration
B. Only with the help of two other people
C. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D. At ten-minute intervals
100. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing
apparatus be carried?
A. Emergency gear locker
B. Bridge or pilothouse area
C. Where they can be readily found
D. The same location as the equipment it reactivates
101. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel
__________.
A. Has off-center weights
B. Is taking on water
C. Has a greater draft forward than aft
D. Has poor stability
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DPKP
102. You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gas free.
Regulations say that the cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on
the barge may remain open without flame screens __________.
A. Without restriction
B. Only while in areas of good weather
C. When under the supervision of a senior crew member on duty
D. Only when the barge is empty
103. The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.
A. Cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks
B. Acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the
safe working pressure in the hazardous zone
C. Prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
D. Relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
104. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You
hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the
cause of this?
A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.
B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate
C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
105. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid
loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standar ST-
0001
A. 338 tons
B. 309 tons
C. 281 tons
D. 263 tons
615
DPKP
106. The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling
system is that it __________.
A. Accelerates erosion
B. Reduces the effectiveness of chromate additives
C. Can form pockets of high chemical concentrates
D. Accelerates formation of sludge deposits
107. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill
the requirements for fire protection?
108. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.
A. 0% to 1%
B. 1% to 10%
C. 10% to 15%
D. 12% to 20%
109. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

A. Having the proper equipment for the process
B. Starting the treatment quickly
C. Administering of oxygen
D. Treating for traumatic shock
110. Fire hose couplings __________.

A. Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
B. Should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
C. Are specially hardened to prevent crushing
D. Should be greased frequently
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DPKP
111. What represents the center of gravity? (D001SA )

A. GZ
B. M
C. B
D. G
112. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.
A. The name of the vessel on which it is located
B. The date that it was installed
C. The names of the individuals qualified to use it
D. An identification number
113. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must
pull the safety pin and __________.
A. Pull the hook release handle
B. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
114. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

A. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the
righting straps, and leaning backwards
B. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps,
and leaning backwards
C. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
115. Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________.

A. Prohibited
B. Permitted for draining fuel from lines
C. Permitted for drawing fuel samples
D. Permitted for bleeding air from lines
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DPKP
116. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when
should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
A. Immediately upon launching
B. One to three feet before first wave contact
C. Upon first wave contact
D. Only when waterborne
117. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a
galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________.
A. One B-II
B. One C-II
C. Two B-II's or C-II's
D. Two A-II's or B-II's
118. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.

A. 16%
B. 18%
C. 21%
D. 25%
119. Before CPR is started, you should __________.

A. Establish an open airway
B. Treat any bleeding wounds
C. Insure the victim is conscious
D. Make the victim comfortable
120. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially
discharge It should be __________.
A. Labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
B. Replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%
C. Replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D. Replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%
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DPKP
121. What represents the metacentric height? (D001SA )

A. M
B. GM
C. BM
D. GZ
122. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling
the fuel below its ignition temperature?
A. CO2
B. Water stream
C. Water spray
D. Foam
123. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The
discharge should be directed __________.
A. To bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
B. At the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
C. Over the top of the fire
D. At the main body of the fire
124. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
A. Go in a different direction in search of land
B. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you
C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as
few rafts as possible
D. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
125. After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.

A. Put back in service if some C02 remains
B. Hydrostatically tested
C. Retagged
D. Recharged
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DPKP
126. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

A. Shut off all electrical power
B. Remove combustibles from direct exposure
C. Cool the bulkhead around the fire
D. Close all openings to the area
127. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire
extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you __________.
A. Need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are required in the
pumproom
B. Should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity of the exit
C. Should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom
D. May substitute sand for the required extinguishers
128. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank
barge which is NOT gas-free?
A. A three-cell flashlight
B. An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
C. A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp
129. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth
it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
A. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
B. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
C. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.
D. Re-tip the head and try again.
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DPKP
130. To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile
offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________.
A. American Bureau of Shipping classification rules
B. International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea
C. Safety of Life at Sea Convention
D. Minerals Management Service rules
131. Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? (D001SA )
A. GM
B. GZ
C. BM
D. Angle MGZ
132. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by

__________.
A. Removing the fuel
B. Interrupting the chain reaction
C. Removing the oxygen
D. Removing the heat
133. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8' The vessel's
displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47.
What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A. .32 foot
B. .80 foot
C. .96 foot
D. 1.12 feet
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DPKP
134. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is
important that the crew members should __________.
A. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
B. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
C. Immediately head for the nearest land
D. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the
vessel's last known position
135. If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights
were not functioning, you would send __________.
A. PB
B. PD1
C. MJ
D. LN1
136. A spark arrestor __________.

A. Keeps sparks from falling into an open tank
B. Secures covers on ullage openings
C. Prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system
D. Grounds static electricity
137. A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________.

A. 2-1/2 gallons of foam
B. 8 gallons of foam
C. 10 gallons of foam
D. 12 gallons of foam
138. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not
gas free is a lamp that is __________.
A. Battery fed
B. Self-contained
C. Approved explosion proof
D. All of the above
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DPKP
139. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge

into the marine environment of __________.
A. Oil
B. Garbage
C. Noxious liquid substances
140. When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through
B and the line of force through G is called the __________.
A. Metacentric height
B. Righting arm
C. Righting moment
D. Metacentric radius
141. On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric

height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40
feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.
A. Feet
B. 1.2 feet
C. 1.3 feet
D. 1.5 feet
possible, you should __________.
A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
C. Call for assistance
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DPKP
143. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely
inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should
__________.
A. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
B. Plug the safety valve
C. Unscrew the deflation plugs
D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
144. In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate
assistance" is __________.
A. AE
B. CB
C. DX
D. CP
145. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the
requirements for __________.
A. Lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
B. The display of load line markings
C. Minimum horsepower for tugs involved in rig moves
D. Lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed
146. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.

A. 3 gallons of foam
B. 20 pounds of CO2
C. 10 pounds of dry chemical
D. All of the above
147. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?
A. For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate
B. For the instant that it is made
C. Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened
D. Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the
space
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DPKP
148. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.

A. Speed healing
B. Prevent infection
C. Reduce inflammation
D. Increase blood circulation
149. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam
of 55 feet. You have timed it's full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM?
A. 1.18 feet
B. 1.83 feet
C. 2.60 feet
D. 3.36 feet
150. A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will
__________.
A. Increase reserve buoyancy
B. Decrease the righting moments
C. Decrease KG
D. Increase KM
151. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the
spread of fire by __________.
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Ventilation
152. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the
possibility of capsizing by __________.
A. Rigging a sea anchor
B. Constantly shifting the rudder
C. Moving all personnel forward and low
D. Moving all personnel aft
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DPKP
153. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should
__________.
A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough
C. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
D. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
154. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
A. BR
B. BS
C. BT1
D. BZ
155. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a
life jacket.
C. They should be tight fitting.
D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
156. What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?

A. A 2-1/2 gallon soda acid and water
B. A 1-1/4 gallon foam
C. A 2-1/2 gallon foam
D. A 20 pound dry chemical
157. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument
__________.
A. Over an electrically heated platinum filament
B. Where it is mixed with nitrogen
C. Where it is ignited by a sparking device
D. Where its specific gravity is measured
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DPKP
158. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________.

A. With puncture wounds
B. When all other means have failed
C. When the victim is unconscious
D. To prevent bleeding from minor wounds
159. What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?
A. A jack-up rig under tow
B. A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow
C. A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking a tow line
D. All of the above
160. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the
vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
A. Metacentric point
B. Metacenter
C. Metacentric radius
D. Tipping center
161. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam
of 71 feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What
is your vessel's approximate GM?
A. 1.25 feet
B. 1.56 feet
C. 1.98 feet
D. 2.43 feet
162. A negative metacentric height __________.

A. Will always cause a vessel to capsize
B. Should always be immediately corrected
C. Always results from off-center weights
D. All of the above are correct
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DPKP
163. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
164. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

A. Reduce reserve buoyancy
B. Increase righting moments
C. Increase GM
D. All of the above
165. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?

A. 12 gallon soda acid
B. 20 gallon foam
C. 30 pound carbon dioxide
D. 20 pound dry chemical
166. Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be
certified by __________.
A. The Coast Guard
B. The American Bureau of Shipping
C. The shipyard fire department
D. A certified marine chemist
167. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding
excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
A. Wrap a tight bandage around the woun
B. Apply a compression bandage.
C. Use temporary stitches of sail twine.
D. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
628
DPKP
168. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

A. A righting line
B. Red hand flares
C. Pendants
D. Drinking water
169. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel
outwards if __________.
A. The vessel has very little draft
B. G is above the center of lateral resistance
C. G is below the center of lateral resistance
D. The vessel is deeply laden
170. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is
8,000 tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate
KM. (See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference
Book)
A. 18.8 feet
B. 20.9 feet
C. 22.7 feet
D. 32.0 feet
171. The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling
system is that it __________.
A. Causes colloid suspension in the cooling water
B. Reduces the capability of the lubrication system
C. Can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system
D. Leads to the scuffing of cylinder walls
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DPKP
172. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day
should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
A. 1 can
B. 1 pint
C. 1 quart
D. 1 gallon
173. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using
flashing light?
A. AAA
B. TTTT
C. EEEEE
D. AS
174. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the
U.S. is FALSE?
A. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guar
B. Failure to report the spill may result in a fine.
C. The company can be fined for the spill.
D. The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of the spill.
175. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
A. Hand-portable fire extinguisher
B. Life preserver
C. Immersion suit
D. Lifeboat oar
176. The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is
the __________.
A. Master
B. Chief Mate
C. Chief Engineer
D. First Assistant
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177. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thum To remove it you should
__________.
A. Pull it out with pliers
B. Cut the skin from around the hook
C. Push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
D. Have a surgeon remove it
178. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as
possible to __________.
A. Protect themselves from smoke
B. Obtain the best available air
C. Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
D. All of the above
179. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?

A. She will have a large metacentric height.
B. Her period of roll will be large due to her large metacentric height.
C. She will have an unusually high center of gravity.
D. She will pitch heavily.
180. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a

fishing vessel?
A. Recovering an individual from the water
B. Steering casualty
C. Emergency towing
D. Loss of propulsion power
181. You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of
MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass,
and bottles into the sea?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 25
D. Must be retained aboard
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182. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used
during a prolonged period in a raft?
A. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
B. Get plenty of rest.
C. Keep the entrance curtains open.
D. All of the above
183. The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is __________.

A. One and one-half times the length of a dot
B. Twice the length of a dot
C. Three times the length of a dot
D. Four times the length of a dot
184. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the
U.S. is TRUE?
A. The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of the spill.
B. The Department of Interior is responsible for the clean up of the spill.
C. A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone.
D. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guar
185. Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary
inspections required is __________.
A. One
B. Three
C. Six
D. Twelve
186. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.
A. Lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops
B. Stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
C. Apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops
D. Apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it
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187. A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter __________.
A. L
B. N
C. T
D. Z
188. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is
__________.
A. Evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full
B. Concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
C. Concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
D. Concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
189. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo liste
What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-
0002
A. 1.50 feet
B. 1.96 feet
C. 2.21 feet
D. 2.78 feet
190. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing
apparatus?
A. The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the bottle and
prevent the bottle from exploding.
B. In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can be operated
manually to give the wearer air.
C. When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above atmospheric pressure,
the valve opens to release pressure.
D. The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi above
atmospheric pressure.
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191. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.

A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
B. Find some wood for a fire
C. Get the provisions out of the raft
D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
192. The standard rate of signaling by flashing light is __________.

A. Twenty letters per minute
B. Thirty letters per minute
C. Forty letters per minute
D. Fifty letters per minute
193. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after
reporting the discharge?
A. Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.
B. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.
C. Throw sand on the water to sink the oil.
D. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers
194. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat"
by applying the __________.
A. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's
sides and transom for each passenger
B. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of
deck space available for passenger use
C. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger
to rest his/her buttocks upon
D. Any or a combination of the above criteria
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195. On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of
the __________.
A. Master and Second Mate
B. Master and Chief Engineer
C. Master and union delegate
D. Master and Chief Mate
196. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled
by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?
A. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic
D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost bloo
197. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.

A. Concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
B. Concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
C. Evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
D. Concentrated and with the double bottoms full
198. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.

A. Concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
B. Concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
C. Evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
D. Concentrated and with the double bottoms full
199. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo liste
What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-
0003
A. 2.15 feet
B. 1.83 feet
C. 1.64 feet
D. 1.19 feet
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200. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to
__________.
A. Control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
B. Allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
C. Release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode
D. Allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
201. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
__________.
A. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
D. Starvation
202. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

A. It is more effective than CO2.
B. It leaves no residue.
C. It is noncorrosive.
D. It is always non-toxi
203. On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?

A. A-II
B. C-II
C. B-III
D. All of the above
204. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is

accomplished by __________.
A. Installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port
B. Keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage
C. Eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed
D. Trapping and/or poisoning the rats
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205. In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by
__________.
A. Applying direct pressure to the wound
B. Submerging the wound in lukewarm water
C. Cooling the wound with ice
D. Applying a tourniquet
206. The signal T 0735 means __________.

A. The Greenwich mean time is 0735
B. The zone time is 0735
C. The latitude is 7° 35'
D. The longitude is 7° 35'
207. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of
lumber, you should __________.
A. Maximize your deck load
B. Distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per unit of weight
are in the upper holds
C. Place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
D. Keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber
possible you should __________.
A. Call for assistance
C. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
209. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.

A. The canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes
B. The pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air
pressure
C. Deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
D. The entrance curtains should never be opened
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210. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by
__________.
A. D120380
B. D801203
C. D031280
D. D800312
211. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the
__________.
A. Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a sister vessel
B. Projected cost is unreasonable
C. Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available
D. Vessel is of a proven design
212. On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable
when they have a gross weight of more than __________.
A. 55 pounds
B. 75 pounds
C. 95 pounds
D. 125 pounds
213. Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the
responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source __________.
A. Is used by a city
B. Has been treated with chlorine
C. Is approved by the Public Health Service
D. Is not from surface water
214. Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.

A. Applying direct pressure to the wound
B. Heavy application of a disinfectant
C. Pouring ice water directly onto the wound
D. Pinching the wound closed
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215. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is
6780 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5.
What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book)
A. 28 feet
B. 26 feet
C. 22 feet
D. 12 feet
216. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?

A. It has a small GM.
B. It pitches heavily.
C. It has an unusually high center of gravity.
D. Its period of roll is short.
217. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken
at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's
waterline at her deepest operating draft?
A. LBP
B. LOA
C. LWL
D. LLL
218. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

A. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.
B. Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it.
C. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflate
D. All of the above
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219. When signaling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be used to indicate a(n)
__________.
A. Affirmative statement
B. Question
C. Change from affirmative to negative
D. Request for the identity signal of the receiving stations
220. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention
regulations?
A. Petroleum and fuel oil
B. Sludge
C. Oil mixed with dredge spoil
D. Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes
221. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station
No. "1", "2", "3", et The height of the letters and figures must be at least
__________.
A. 1/2 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1-1/2 inches
D. 2 inches
222. What represents poor sanitary procedures?

A. Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water.
B. Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.
C. Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather.
D. After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at
least 170°F (76.7°C).
223. The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.

A. Direct pressure on the wound
B. Elevating the wounded area
C. Pressure on a pressure point
D. A tourniquet above the wound
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224. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.

A. Determine the location of the metacenter
B. Determine the lightweight center of gravity location
C. Verify the hydrostatic data
D. Verify data in the vessel's operating manual
225. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
A. Concentrate weights on upper decks
B. Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
C. Move weights lower in the ship
D. Ballast the peak tanks
226. Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a
mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed?
A. Notice to Mariners
B. COLREGS
C. Coast Pilot
D. Light List
227. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
A. Use different fire hose pressures
B. Use fire hoses of different sizes
C. Not attack the fire from opposite sides
D. Not wear protective clothing
228. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?
A. C
B. RQ
C. N
D. NO
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229. As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge
of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST?
A. Rig a boom for recovery.
B. Call the Coast Guar
C. Alert the fire department.
D. Inform the Environmental Protection Agency.
230. The term "gross tonnage" refers to __________.

A. The weight of the vessel measured in long tons
B. The weight of a vessel with all tanks full
C. The weight of a grossly overloaded vessel
D. The vessel's approximate volume including all enclosed spaces less certain
exempt spaces
231. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.
A. Fire-main system
B. Feed-water system
C. Freshwater sanitary system
D. Domestic water tank
232. A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should
__________.
A. Be assisted in walking around
B. Be examined then walked to a bunk
C. Not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
D. Not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk
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19. Menerapkan kepemimpinan dan manajerial (Use of leadership and

managerial )
1. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:

A. Concerned personnel carry out the on-board
traing progamme effectively
B. All information reagrding the onboard training is
given to the ship manager
C. All personnel participate in the training at the
same time
D. Safety equipment is not used during the training
2. Master of every ship must provide:

A. A link between the shipboard training officer
and the company training officer ashore
B. Facilities to conduct training whenever required
by the training officer
C. Proper rest to the crew after each training
programme
D. The training during crews working hours only
3. Onboard training should be organised in such a way that:

A. It is an integral part of the overall training plan
B. It does not contravene with the rest hours of the crew
C. Each crew member is trained individually
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4. The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of
the three main categories:
A. Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine
pollution, Liability and compensation
B. Maritime Safety, STCW, Maritime Security
C. Safety, Terrorism, ILO
D. There are no conentions that fall under IMO
5. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
A. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
B. Strict and authoritative while giving orders
C. Polite and diplomatic while talking to crew members
D. Give authority to others
6. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?

A. It leads to better work performance and
positive atmosphere among the crew
B. It will prevent accidents from happening
C. It encourages crew to extend their contract
D. Crew comes to know each others problems
7. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?

A. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe
and hygienic condition
B. To search for any contraband goods hidden on board
C. It is a requirement as per flag state
D. To check for alcohol in cabins
8. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
A. Procured before departure from a port
B. Procured during the voyage prior arrival at the next port
C. Procured on arrival at the next port
D. Requested on email
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9. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:

A. The fastest means available
B. The Telex to have a record
C. The email to save cost
D. The Sat-C
10. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest full
and proper attention he should:
A. Investigate the matter carefully and report the
findings to the company
a. Report the matter to the harbour Master
b. Report to the vessel P & I club
c. Change the agent
11. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the
USCG requires:
A. 96 hours notice of arrival
B. 72 hours notice of arrival
C. 48 hours notice of arrival
D. 24 hour notice of arrival
12. Prior to ordering stores for any department;

A. The store inventory should be checked so that
you order only the items required
B. Consult the ISSA catalogue to ascertain what
stores are available for ordering
C. Consult the ISSA catalogue and order
whatever is available but not on board
D. Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered
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13. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorder to:
A. Control the ship's budget
B. Order the required stores
C. Report to the office
D. Show to the port authorities
14. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible
treatment:
A. For ship's clearance to take place
quickly and without complications
B. Because you always have some
faults in arrival/departure
documents
C. Because the ship's trading
certificate are not normally in order
D. Because you have undeclared
dutiable items in excess of permitted on board
15. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be found
in:
A. The Ship's emergency contingency manual
B. Vessel health, safety and environment manual
C. Vessel operation manual
D. Radio log book
16. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is:
A. Master
B. Chief Engineer
C. Chief Officer
D. Chief Stewar
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17. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and
CDC on board a vessel?
A. Ship's Office
B. Master's cabin
C. On the bridge
D. Telly clerk room
18. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone?
A. All accidents where crew are injured or killed
B. All arrival and departure time from port
C. All cases concerning cargo shortages
D. All near misses
19. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?

A. Leaders are born not made.
B. Great men rise up in times of crisis.
C. We can learn from the biographies of great leaders.
D. A great leader is only great in certain situations.
20. In leadership trait theory what is a trait?

A. A list of the things that make leaders different to everyone else.
B. A list of the key things that a leader should do to be great.
C. The list of key behaviours a leader exhibits.
D. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
21. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviourism?

A. Antecedents-behaviour-consequences
B. Attitude-behaviour-conclusions
C. Aptitude-behaviour-consequences
D. Antecents-behaviour-conditioning
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22. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:
A. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
B. Provides clear instructions to the followers so that they know what they are
doing.
C. Knows what their strengths are and makes the most out of them.
D. Spends time with their followers and therefore listens and responds to their
needs.
23. A transactional leader is one who:

A. Inspires people and has strong interactions with them
B. Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants
C. Is the ideal form of leadership
D. Works for long-term goals of the organization
24. What is a transformational leader?

A. Someone who is involved in organizational change.
B. A leader, like Taylor, who provided new ways of carrying out management.
C. A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of
a better future.
D. A leader who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what
they do.
25. What is post-heroic leadership theory?

A. A theory which states that there is too much emphasis on leaders and more
attention should be placed on followers.
B. A theory looking beyond current leadership styles to new, more creative
ways of leading.
C. A theory which tries to create new organizations which do not need leaders.
D. A theory which tries to find the ideal form of leadership.
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26. What is the social construction of leadership?

A. The view that all leadership is social and what matters is how leaders
interact with others.
B. Leadership is a made up idea that therefore we should pay more attention to
more significant aspects of the organization.
C. What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of the
followers.
D. Leadership is something that the leader constructs as they meet with others.
27. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and emotional
aspects of leadership is false?
A. Leaders can use rational techniques and/or emotional appeals in order to
influence followers
B. Leadership includes actions and influences based only on reason and logic
C. Aroused feelings can be used either positively or negatively
D. Good leadership involves touching others’ feelings
28. To many, the word management suggests

A. Dynamism
B. Risk-taking
C. Efficiency
D. Creativity
29. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with

A. Consistency
B. Planning
C. Paperwork
D. Change
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30. This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.

A. Managers maintain while leaders develop
B. Managers innovate while leaders administer
C. Managers inspire while leaders control
D. Managers originate while leaders imitate
31. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false?
A. Leadership is a value-laden, activity, management is not
B. Leaders focus on risk taking; managers perform functions such as planning
and controlling
C. Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right things
D. Leaders develop, managers maintainunit 1 Examination 29 Leadership
32. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?

A. Leadership and management have some unique functions with an area of
overlap
B. A good leader can be a good manager, but the reverse is never true
C. Leadership and management are not related
D. Leadership and management are effectively the same for all practical
purposes
33. What best describes the leader-follower relationship?

A. The relationship is a one-way street
B. Leadership and followership are the same thing
C. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts
D. It is based on the idea of ‘one-man leadership’
34. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all of the
following except
A. Honest
B. Competent
C. Forward-looking
D. Cooperative
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35. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener, in terms of their

leadership experiences,
A. Women tended to describe themselves in transactional terms
B. Men tended to describe themselves in somewhat transformational terms
C. Men influenced others primarily in terms of personal characteristics
D. Women helped subordinates develop commitment for broader goals than
their own self-interest
36. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leaders encouraged
participation and shared power and information, but went far beyond what is
commonly thought of as participative management?
A. Autocratic leadership
B. Laissez faire leadership
C. Interactive leadership
D. Transactional leadershipunit 1 Examination 30 Leadership
37. Women leaders’ interactive leadership style developed

A. Due to their socialization experiences and career paths
B. Because of exchanges with subordinates for services rendered
C. By influencing others primarily through their organizational position and
authority
D. Because of their organizational position
38. According to female executives, what is the major factor that prevents
senior female executives from advancing to corporate leadership?
A. Lack of significant general management
B. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
C. Inhospitable corporate culture
D. Exclusion from informal networks
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39. According to female executives. Which of the following factors least

prevents women from advancing to corporate leadership?
A. Women not being in the pipeline long enough
B. Exclusion from informal networks
C. Inhospitable corporate culture
D. Lack of significant line experience
40. Most male ceos attribute the paucity of women in corporate leadership roles to
which of the following?
A. Exclusion from informal networks
B. Women not in pipeline long enough .
C. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
D. Inadequacies in the quality of experience for the top spots
41. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward
more women leaders is that women themselves have change
It is evident in all except:
A. A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of
leadership
B. Women’s aspirations and attitudes have become less similar to those of men
over time
C. A legislation prohibiting gender-based discrimination at work
D. Changes in organizational norms that put a higher priority on results than an
“old boy” network
42. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to

important leadership positions is evidence of the fact that
A. Culture has changed
B. Women themselves have changed
C. Leadership roles have changed
D. Organizational practices have changed
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43. Which of the following statements concerning the reflection component of the
AOR model is false?
A. Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in leadership
development
B. It is the most neglected component of the AOR model
C. It can provide leaders with a variety of insights into how to frame problems
differently
D. A reason for the reflection component to be neglected often may be due to
time pressure at work
44. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in
which learners seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their
fundamental ideas or actions?
A. Deutero-learning
B. Double loop learning
C. Triple-loop learning
D. Single-loop learning
45. Confronting one’s beliefs, inviting others to challenge you and working on personal
blind spots are aspects of the process of
A. Attribution
B. Double-loop learning
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Single-loop learning
46. Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how to learn.

A. Double-loop learning
B. Single-loop learning
C. Deutero-learning
D. Triple-loop learningunit 1 Examination 32
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47. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue of their
A. Interpersonal skills
B. Technical proficiency
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Intercultural competence
48. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insights through close
association with an experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing. Such
an individual is often called a
A. Supervisor
B. Facilitator
C. Role model
D. Mentor
49. The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize and
encourage younger organizational colleagues is called
A. Evaluating
B. Consulting
C. Mentoring
D. Networking
50. How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring relationship?

A. By gaining an influential ally and by learning about the subtler aspects of
organizational ethics
B. By the greater influence they accrue by having former mentorees in various
positions across the organization
C. By having a younger replacement ready to fill their position if they are
promoted
D. By encouraging younger colleagues in the organization
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51. What is seen as an investment that can help change counterproductive behavior,
often interpersonal, that threatens to derail an otherwise valued manager?
A. Mentoring
B. Executive coaching
C. Team building
D. Change management
52. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to __________.

A. Erase the entry and rewrite
B. Draw several lines through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
C. Completely black out the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
D. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
53. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been
incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't
have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take?
A. Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher ashore with the agent.
B. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails.
C. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails.
D. Pay the seaman's fine.
54. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails
to return. The first report you make should be to the __________.
A. Customs Service
B. Immigration Service
C. Local police
D. OCMI
655
DPKP
55. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in
your unlicensed crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is
correct?
A. Aliens may be employed except that all U.S. flag vessels must maintain no
less than 90% U.S. citizens in the crew.
B. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.
C. Seamen to fill vacancies must be flown from U.S. to join the vessel in the
foreign port.
D. Vacancies can only be filled by U.S. citizens with valid Merchant Mariner's
Documents.
56. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman
becomes violent prior to sailing. The Master should __________.
A. Call local police, put the seaman in prison ashore, and sail the vessel
B. Pay off the seaman and make arrangements with the agent to return him to
the original port of signing on in the U.S.
C. Put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there is an American
Consul
D. Send the seaman ashore and arrange with the agent to repatriate him by
armed guard
57. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.
A. Intoxicated
B. The vessel is overloaded
C. There is a change of home port
D. There is a change of Master
656
DPKP
58. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is being
sold to foreign interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to
complete the voyage. Under these circumstances, the crew __________.
A. Has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation to original port
of engagement
B. Must remain on board
C. Must comply with the decision made by the Master
D. Must remain aboard until the vessel is delivered to the new owners at a
mutually agreed upon port
59. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used
following a serious marine incident?
A. Qualified medical personnel
B. The marine employer
C. The U.S. Coast Guard
D. The local police department
60. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by
__________.
A. The Master on the Certified Crew List
B. The Master on the Shipping Articles
C. Consul on the Certified Crew List
D. Consul on the Shipping Articles
61. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard
Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?
A. The crew members
B. The Master of the vessel
C. The port authorities
D. All of the above
657
DPKP
62. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge
from Articles, he should be issued a __________.
A. Letter of service on company letterhead signed and sealed by the master
B. Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in applying for a
duplicate book
C. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant
D. Mutual Release (CG-2119), and the articles should be annotated as to the
loss
63. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which

statement is TRUE?
A. A Certificate of Discharge Form should be attached to the book.
B. An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge Form
issued to the seaman.
C. If a vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be made in
the Official Logbook.
D. The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guar
64. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the
__________.
A. Master of the vessel
B. Steamship company
C. Custom Service
D. Coast Guard
65. Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after
foreign articles have been signed, and the ship proceeds foreign?
A. The Master will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew
List but not from the articles.
B. The name of the new man is added to the articles but not to the Certified
Crew List.
C. The U.S. Consul will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified
Crew List.
658
DPKP
D. The U.S. Consul will add the new man's name to the Certified Crew List.
66. The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat" involved in a marine

casualty causing injury that requires professional medical treatment must
__________.
A. Immediately notify the nearest USCG MSO, MIO, or Group Office
B. Keep all voyage records and make them available to Coast Guard
investigators
C. File a written report (CG2692) of the casualty within five days
D. All of the above
67. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?

A. Collision with a bridge
B. Injury beyond first aid
C. Loss of life
D. All of the above
68. Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels are required to keep their Coast Guard
License aboard __________.
A. Only when operating more than one mile from shore
B. Only when operating at night
C. Only when carrying passengers for hire
D. At all times
69. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on
boar It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________.
A. In the radio room
B. In the ship's office
C. On or near the bridge
D. Outside the Captain's stateroom
659
DPKP
70. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most
circumstances, this is best done by __________.
A. Stopping the engines and drifting beam to the seas
B. Going slow astern and taking the seas on the quarter
C. Taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to
hold that position
D. Maintaining speed and taking the sea broad on the bow
71. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the
__________.
A. Manifest Certificate
B. Bill of Lading Certificate
C. Certificate of Documentation
D. Official Logbook
72. The official identification of a vessel is found in the __________.

A. Certificate of Inspection
B. Classification Certificate
C. Load Line Certificate
D. Certificate of Documentation
73. The term bullwhip effect is most closely related to:

A. Assertive customers
B. Demand variations
C. Inventory turnover
D. Return of inventory
E. Inventory security
74. Cross docking results in cost savings associated with

A. Dock space
B. Ordering goods
C. Cargo ships
D. Storage space
660
DPKP
E. Down time
75. Which one is not a requirement of effective supply chain management?

A. Low cost
B. Trust
C. Event management
D. Visibility
76. The term "3PL" is most closely associated with

A. Outsourcing
B. E-commerce
C. Learning curves
D. Mass customization
E. Cross docking
77. The letters RFID are most closely associated with

A. Outsourcing
B. Tracking items
C. Cross docking
D. Event management
E. None of these.
78. Which one of these would have a negative impact on inventory costs?
A. Disintermediation
B. Delayed differentiation
C. Cross docking
D. Bullwhip effect
79. Which one is not a reason for increased emphasis on supply chain management?
A. Increased levels of outsourcing
B. Increased transportation costs
C. Trends towards globalization
D. The need to improve internal operations
661
DPKP
80. Which of the following statements concerning manufacturing and service

organizations is generally true?
A. A service facility is more likely to serve national or even international
markets
B. Manufacturing organizations generally find it more difficult to match
capacity with demand
C. In many service organizations customers themselves are inputs to the
transformation processes.
D. Most service organizations can buffer themselves against uncertain demand
by creating inventories and smoothing output levels.
81. Operations typically differ in terms of volume of output, variety of output, variation
in demand or the degree of ‘visibility’ (ie, customer contact) that they give to
customers of the delivery process. Please match the following element with the
most appropriate of the above dimensions. Low unit costs are most closely
matched to:-
A. Variety
B. Variation
C. Volume
D. Visibility
82. Which of the following is an implication of low variety?

A. Low unit cost
B. Flexibility needed
C. High complexity
D. Matching customers specific needs
83. In a service organisation faced with variable demand the Operations Manager can
help smooth demand by:
A. Using part-time help during peak hours
B. Scheduling work shifts to vary workforce needs according to demand
C. Increase the customer self-service content of the service
D. Using reservations and appointments
662
DPKP
84. When developing the operations strategy one of the most important considerations
is that it:
A. Requires minimal capital investment
B. Utilises as much automation as possible
C. Utilises an equal balance of labour and automation
D. Supports the overall competitive strategy of the company
85. A order qualifying characteristic could be described as :

A. A factor which significantly contributes to winning business
B. A factor which may be of significance in other parts of the organisation
C. A factor which is at a higher level than the standard for the industry
D. A factor which has to achieve a particular level to be considered by the
customer
86. Expansion by acquisition of suppliers and customers, illustrates which of the

following strategies
A. Vertical integration strategy
B. Facilities strategy
C. Planning and control systems strategy
D. Supplier development strategy
87. Process design or redesign is most important when

A. Current performance is adequate
B. You have a significant competitive advantage
C. Competitive priorities have changed
D. The cost of inputs remain stable
88. Service shops are characterised as which of the following?

A. Some customer contact, a degree of customisation and some staff discretion
B. Project orientated with little customisation
C. Many customer transactions, involving limited contact time
D. High-contact organisations where customers spend a considerable time in
the service process
663
DPKP
89. A big advantage of a process layout is

A. Its flexibility
B. Its low cost
C. The ability to employ low-skilled labour
D. Its high equipment utilization
90. As production systems move from projects to batch production to mass production
to continuous production
A. Processes become more flexible
B. Customer involvement with the process increases
C. Products become more standardised
D. Demand volumes decrease
91. Which one of the following reactive alternatives would typically be best to
implement a chase strategy for a manufacturing firm?
A. Use creative pricing to modify demand
B. Build anticipation inventory to absorb the variability in demand
C. Increase overtime to satisfy peaks in demand
D. Use promotional campaigns to boost demand
92. Buffer inventory is required as :

A. One or more stages in the operation cannot supply all the items it produces
simultaneously
B. Material cannot be transported instantaneously between the point of supply
and the point of demand
C. Compensation for the uncertainties inherent in supply and demand
D. Compensation for differences in the timing of supply and demand
93. At a strategic level, the essential role of inventory is to support :

A. Quality, dependability, flexibility, cost and speed
B. Flexibility, dependability and quality
C. Cost and speed
D. Range, speed, flexibility and dependability
664
DPKP
94. Where demand is uncertain, a key purchasing objective will be :

A. Fast delivery
B. High quality
C. Low price
D. Dependable delivery
95. In lean systems, if a defective product if found, which of the following is generally
NOT done?
A. The production line is stopped
B. The defective unit is passed on to the next workstation
C. The defective unit is returned to the worker responsible for creating the
defect
D. The production line is made aware of the problem without stopping the line
96. Which of the following illustrates an activity that does not add value?
A. Training employees
B. Ordering parts from a supplier
C. Accumulating parts in front of the next work centre
D. Delivering the product to the customer
97. Job design does not involve which one of the following considerations :
A. How much autonomy should be given to individual employees?
B. What tasks should be allocated?
C. Who should be involved / consulted?
D. Ignoring where the job is located
98. Within a typical behavioural model of job design, which of the following would be
considered as representing core job characteristics?
A. Task combination / task identity / autonomy
B. Vertical loading / skill variety / output
C. Task identity / task significance / autonomy
D. Cultural advancement / absenteeism / nationality
665
DPKP
99. When a worker has a say in the work methods that he/she wishes to utilise in
his/her job is characterised by :
A. Skill variety
B. Job identity
C. Job significance
D. Autonomy
100. Which of the following is NOT considered effective in achieving and maintaining
service quality?
A. Encouraging service providers to be highly visible in dealing with
customers
B. Establishing peer groups among service providers to foster teamwork and a
sense of pride
C. Installing system of incentives that emphasises quality
D. Increasing supervision of service providers
101. A quality variable

A. Takes discrete values
B. May be measured on a continuous scale
C. Is continually changing
D. Is highly undesirable
102. Which of the following is an indirect benefit of improved quality?

A. Improved image
B. Reduced cost of inspection
C. Reduced scrap
D. Reduced inventory
103. A ‘moment of truth’ is NOT

A. An opportunity to influence a customer’s perception of the service quality
B. Critical in achieving a reputation for superior quality
C. When the customer is forming an opinion about the efficiency of the service
D. An interaction between the customer and a service provider
666
DPKP
104. Proactive quality management includes the concept of

A. Quality improvement costs more
B. Needing to find out who is responsible for the quality problem
C. Getting the service to the customer as soon as possible
D. Highlighting problems to help solve them
105. Zero defects in manufacturing

A. Is an unobtainable and misleading ideal
B. Is the goal of TQM
C. Is readily achievable in all areas
D. Is a relevant goal only in electronic assembly
106. Which of the following represent reasons for globalising operations?

A. To gain improvements in the supply chain
B. To improve operations
C. To expand a product’s life cycle
D. All of the above
107. Which of the following is not a key activity of an operations manager?

A. Understanding the needs of customer
B. Continually learning
C. Managing cash flows
D. Exploiting technology to produce goods and services
108. Which of the following is not true regarding the differences between goods and
services?
A. Demand for services is easier to forecast
B. Customers participate in many services
C. Services cannot be stored as physical inventory
D. Patents do not protect services
667
DPKP
109. Service organizations generally

A. Locate in close proximity to the customer
B. Rely on physical inventory
C. Take advantage of patents
D. Can delegate human behaviour and marketing skills
110. The following terms - interchangeability of parts, division of labour, highly

repetitive tasks - best focus on ____.
A. Quality
B. Cost and efficiency
C. Quality
D. Time
111. Which of the following is generally related to service operations?

A. Tangible product
B. Need for flexible capacity
C. Separation of production from consumption
D. Large amount of inventory
112. Which function typically employs more people than any other functional area?
A. Information Systems
B. Operations
C. Marketing
D. Finance
113. The ____ of a firm defines its reason for existence.

A. Strategy development
B. Strategic mission
C. Vision statement
D. Value and code of ethics
668
DPKP
114. The ____ describes where the organization is headed and what it intends to be.
A. Strategy development
B. Strategic mission
C. Vision statement
D. Value and code of ethics
115. A company’s mission statement

A. Is changed quite frequently
B. Helps identify its target customers and competitors
C. Describes in specific terms what the company expects to accomplish
D. Occurs after strategy development
116. Which of the following statements is false?

A. There are two possible operations objectives (cost and speed).
B. Strategy is concerned with the actions an organization takes in order to
survive and prosper in its environment over the long term.
C. Strategy can exist at three levels in an organization: corporate, business and
functional.
D. An organization’s operations can be a source of competitive advantage
117. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?
a. Master
b. 3rd Officer
c. Chief Engineer
d. Chief Officer
669
DPKP
20. Pengorganisasian dan pengelolaan alat kelengkapan penanganan

medis di kapal. (Organize and manage the provision of medical care on
board )
1. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the
body. Most damage occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the
treatment of electrical burns?
A. Place sterile dressing over the burn
and secure with a bandage.
B. Break blisters and secure with
bandage.
C. Remove loose skin and apply ointment. Don't secure with bandage.
D. Apply lotions and ointment to injured area and secure with a bandage.
2. A diabetic has eaten too little food and the person may feel dizzy and lightheaded.
The skin becomes pale, with profuse sweathing. Limbs may begin to tremble and
pulse becomes rapid. The urine glucose reaction is negative. What kind of
medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
A. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something
sweet.
B. Insuline.
C. A glass of cold milk.
D. Nothing at all.
3. A person slowly feels more sleepy and thirsty. The skin and slimhinner become
very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows
positive. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
A. Insulin.
B. A glass of cold milk.
C. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something
sweet.
D. Nothing at all.
670
DPKP
4. A severe blow to or a heavy fall on the upper part of the abdomen (solar plexus)
can upset the regularity of breathing. What is the symptoms and signs?
A. Difficulty in breathing in and the
casualty may be unable to speak.
B. The casualty may start sweating
profusely and develops a fever.
C. The casualty feel very hungry.
D. The casualty is speaking in a very load manner.
5. A strain occurs when a muscle or group of muscles is over- stretched and possibly
torn, by violent or sudden movement. Strain can be caused by lifting heavy weights
incorrectly. The treatment of strain may be remembered as the word RICE.What is
RICE an abbreviation for?
A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
B. Right Internal Cooperative Ending.
C. Rest, Injury, Care, Evaluation.
D. Rubber, Internal, Careful, Estimation.
6. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may be either superficial
or deep, and the affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be
given a person with frostbite ?
A. Hand or body heat the affected parts
skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand in persons
opposite armpit...)
B. Heat the affected area with hot-water
bottles.
C. Rub the affected area.
D. Give the casualty a cigarette.
671
DPKP
7. Asthma is a distressing condition in which the muscles of the air passage go into
spasm. How can the asthma attacks be triggered off ?
A. Nervous tension,allergy, or none obvious
cause.
B. Not keeping the diet
C. Loud music
D. Too much fresh air activity
8. Chemical burns in eyes or on the skin can cause severe damage. Some chemicals
may be absorbed through the skin and cause widespread and sometimes fatal
damage within the body. What is the first main treatment if someone is a victim of
chemical burns?
A. Remove any contaminated clothing and
flood the affected area with slowly
running water. Make sure that the
contaminated water drains away freely
and safely.
B. Break possible blisters around the eye and mouth.
C. Apply lotions, ointments to the affected area ASAP.
D. The casualty may be free to both rub the eye and the affected area.
9. Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the maximum
recommended effective temperature (ET) for full work load in enclosed spaces?
A. 30.5°C ET?
B. 27.5°C ET?
C. 35.0°C ET?
D. 29.0°C ET?
672
DPKP
10. How do the human body absorb toxicants?

A. The human body absorb toxicants through
respiration, skin and the aliment channel
B. The body absorb toxicants through
respiration if the leak is big enough
C. The body absorb toxicants only through the
aliment channel when eating
D. The body absorb toxicants only if we wear
wrong clothes
11. How will you treat a seasick person?

A. Leave him in bed or request him to have some fresh air.
B. Force him to eat any kind of fat food.
C. Encourage him to drink a lot of lukewarm sea water.
D. Make him swallow seasick pills until he stops vomiting.
12. In which way may intake of poisoning material occur?

A. By inhaling, skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing
B. By skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing
C. By inhaling, skin penetrating and skin absorbing
D. By swallowing
13. Severe pains in the chest occur when the coronary arteries, which supply blood to
the heart, become too narrow for sufficient oxygenated blood to reach the muscles
of the heart. Normally these attacks only last a few minutes, and the pain stops if
the casualty rests. What kind of medicine to be taken when an Angina Pectoris
attack occurs?
A. Nitro glycerine tablets.
B. Petidin.
C. Nitro hydrogen tablets.
D. Chlorocin Phosphate.
673
DPKP
14. Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. sea); can cause damage to
the skin and eyes. What is this type of burn called?
A. Radiation burns.
B. Electrical burns.
C. Dry burns.
D. Cold burns.
15. There are three levels of burning, namely:*Superficial *Intermediate*Deep burns

(also called full-thickness burns) A large burn will almost certainly contain areas of
all three grades. How many per cent of the body may be burned before the danger
of shock occurs?
A. 15 percent.
B. 9 percent.
C. 35 percent.
D. 4 percent.
16. Water Jel is a unique product regarding protection and first aid of burns. Water Jel
is delivered in different sizes. Biggest is a carpet with the size 182cm x 152 cm.
What is the highest temperature the Water Jel carpet is resistant against?
A. 1530 C
B. 2500 C
C. 823 C
D. 414 C
17. What is Hypothermia and how is it cured?

A. Body temperature below 35C / Heat the body
B. Heavy coughing / Medication
C. Body temperature above 39C / Cooling down the body
D. Body temp below 23C / Slowly heat the body
674
DPKP
18. What is the first sign and symptom of a Cardiac Infarction?

A. Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest.
B. Strong and painful pulse.
C. Skin may be red and loss of movements in the right arm may occur.
D. Possible frothing at the mouth.
19. What is the purpose of a Medico Message?

A. Call an hospital for professional
medical assistance by radio when
needed.
B. Giving a regular statement of the
health of the vessel's crew.
C. Calling the health department in the
next port of call and ask for free
radio practice.
D. Medico is the certificate which permit the Master to be doctor onboard.
20. Which organs absorb oxygen and part with carbon dioxide?
A. The respiratory organs.
B. The digestive organs.
C. The urine organs.
D. The skin
675

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TEST – ITEM BANK

FOR DECK OFFICER AND ENGINEER

DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF SEA TRANSPORTATION

I. PRELIMINARY (PART I) ...................................................................................... 1

II. DECK OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART II) ......................................................... 1

IV. End Chapter .............................................................................................. 1371

The targets are as follows :

1. To stimulate participants spirit of learning

2. Engineer Officer at Management Level :

1. Merencanakan pelayaran dan melaksanakan navigasi.

1. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

2. What should a passage plan include ?

6. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the

9. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides

14. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________.

16. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?

18. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?

22. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________.

23. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.

25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?

28. What chart should be used when navigating ?

29. Define the required interval between position fixes.

30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from _______.

31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year.

32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out _______.

35. A voyage passage plan is made from _____.

38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in

40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

45. Spring tides are tides that __________.

47. The range of tide is the __________.

49. Charted depth is the __________.

53. Priming of the tides occurs __________.

58. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage planning :

64. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?

67. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

68. Safe water buoys may show ONLY __________.

69. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a

70. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________.

74. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) __________.

76. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

83. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a __________.

84. Tropic tides are caused by the __________.

85. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

93. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?

94. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted __________.

95. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about __________.

100. The marking A is __________.

101. The marking B is ___________.

102. The marking C is ___________.

103. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.

104. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Inland Navigation Rules?

107. What is the main purpose of VTS?

110. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________.

111. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall NOT __________.

112. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________.

2. Penentuan posisi dan ketepatan atas hasil akhir penentuan posisi

3. What is important to check when transferring a position

8. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.

9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because

12. When navigating a vessel, you __________.

25. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?

37. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.

42. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?