LEGAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Who wrote the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) C Rajagopalachari
d) Thakur Baldev Singh

2. What is the name of the Act passed by the Parliament to try an individual against
who warrants for arrest is issued for his involvement in select economic offences
involving amount of at least Rs 100 crore or more and has left India to avoid
prosecution?
a) Prevention of Money Laundering Act
b) Fugitive Economic Offenders Act
c) Anti–Money Laundering Act
d) Trial and Punishment of Social and Economic Offences Act

3. The correct order in which the following words appear is:

a) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
b) Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic Secular
c) Secular Democratic Republic Sovereign Socialist
d) Socialist Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

4. Which of the following is a unitary element in India Federal System?

(i) Decentralization of Powers
(ii) Appointment of Governors
(iii)Unequal representation in Rajya Sabha
(iv)Judicial Review
(v) All India Services
(vi)Bicameral legislature
Code:
a) i iii vi
b) ii iii v
c) iii v vi
d) ii iv v

5. A Bill for the purpose of creating a new State in India must be passed by:
a) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two–third of
the States
b) A simple majority in Parliament
c) A two–third majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two–third
of the States
d) None of the above

6. How many States and Union Territories are there in India?

a) 25 States and 7 Union Territories
b) 28 States and Union Territories (including national capital territory–1)
c) 24 States and 6 Union Territories
d) None of the above

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7. Under which article of the Constitution reservations in admission to educational
institutions, including private and unaided, to OBCs/ST/SC is made?
a) Article 15(4)
b) Article 15(5)
c) Article 16(4)
d) Article 16(5)

8. Which one of the following is not properly matched?

a) Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human and forced labour
b) Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories
c) Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs
d) Article 29 – Freedom of establishment and administration of educational
institutions by minorities

9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour – Article 23
b) Protection of Interests of minorities – Article 29
c) Right to Constitutional remedies – Article 32
d) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions –
Article 31

10. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List-II (Provisions) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Article of Indian Constitution) (Provisions)
A. Article 16 (2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his Property
save by the authority of law
B. Article 29 (2) 2. No person can be discriminated against in
the matter of public Appointment on the
ground of race, Religion or caste.
C. Article 30 (1) 3. All minorities whether based on Religion or
language shall have right to establish and
administer educational institutions of their
choice.
D. Article 31 (1) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into
any educational Institution maintained by
the State, or receiving State aid, on the
grounds of religion, race, caste, language or
any of them.
Code:
A B C D
a) 2 4 3 1
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 2 1 3 4
d) 2 4 2 1

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11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I
A. Fundamental Duties
B. Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights
C. Doctrine of Basic Structure
D. Prohibition of Trafficking in Human Beings
List-II
1. Minerva Mills Case
2. Article 23 of the Constitution
3. 42th Amendment of the Constitution
4. Keshvanand Bharti Case
Code:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 1 2 3 4

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Abolition of Title (i) Article 29
B. Freedom of manage Religious Affairs (ii) Article 21-A
C. Protection of Language of Minorities (iii) Article 18
D.Right to Education (iv) Article 26
Code:
A B C D
a) iii ii i iv
b) iv iii ii i
c) ii iii iv i
d) iii iv i ii

13. The ‘Right to Property’ was deleted from the List of Fundamental Rights
guaranteed to the citizens of India by:
a) Forth-second Amendment
b) Forth-third Amendment
c) Forty-fourth Amendment
d) Forth-fifth Amendment

14. Consider the following statements:

No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since:
1. It will be violation of the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
2. It will be violation of the Right to Freedom Conscience and Practice and
Propagation of Religion
3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem
In these statements:
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

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 d) None is correct
15. The Constitution of India recognizes:
a) Only religious minorities
b) Only linguistic minorities
c) Religious and linguistic minorities
ARTICLE 29
d) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities

16. Audi alteram partem means:

a) Hear the other side
b) No one shall be a judge in his/her own cause
c) Law is blind
d) None of the above

17. Which of the following Articles bestows special status on the State of Jammu and
Kashmir?
a) Article 371
b) Article 371A
c) Article 370
d) Article 239

18. Who has been nominated to be the next CJI of India after Hon’ble Justice Dipak
Mishra?
a) Justice PJ Kurien
b) Justice Indu Malhotra
c) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
d) Justice J Chelameshwar

19. The Supreme Court recently declared Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code
unconstitutional. What is the name of the case in which this judgment came?
a) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
b) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Union of India
c) NAZ Foundation v. Union of India
d) None of the above

20. Who of the following is not a member of the Selection Committee of the Lokpal as
per the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013?
a) Prime Minister
b) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
c) Home Minister Borrowed f
d) Chief Justice of India

21. The Animal Welfare Board of India was founded by:

a) Jane Goodall
b) Muthulaxmi Reddy
c) Ramabai Ranade
d) Rukmini Devi Arundale

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22. Which Indian State, other than Assam, is planning to undertake publication of
the National Register of Citizens (NRC)?
a) Mizoram
b) Nagaland
c) Manipur
d) Tripura

23. The Central Information Commission and the State Information Commissions are:
a) Statutory bodies
b) Constitutional bodies
c) Executive bodies
d) None of the above

24. The rules to regulate livestock markets and what came to be referred to in many
circles as the beef ban was under which of the following legislations?
a) The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
b) The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
c) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Regulation of Live
d) None of the above

25. A judge of the Supreme Court can resign from office by addressing a letter to the:
a) President
b) Chief Justice of India
c) Prime Minister
d) Union Minister of Law and Justice

26. Which of the following Parts of India’s Constitution are not applicable to the State
of J & K?
a) Part III
b) Part IV
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Both (a) and (b) are applicable

27. An ordinance has recently been passed with the objective of curbing instances of:
a) Talaq–i–biddat
b) Nikah halala
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

28. Which of the following international conventions is India not a signatory of?
a) UN Convention against Corruption
b) UN Convention against Torture
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

29. The State Finance Commission is a:

a) Constitutional body
b) Statutory body
c) Quasi–judicial body

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 d) None of the above
30. Hon’ble Justice Geeta Mittal has been appointed as the Chief Justice of which
High Court? (She happens to be the first woman CJ of this State)
a) Kerala High Court
b) Uttarakhand High Court
c) Odisha High Court
d) Jammu & Kashmir High Court

31. A musical composition most often comes under which of the following categories
of Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)?
a) Copyright
b) Trademark
c) Patent
d) Geographical Indication

32. By which one of the following Acts was the Federal Court in India created?
a) Indian Council Act, 1861
b) Government of India Act, 1909
c) Government of India Act, 1919 Govt. of India Act, 193
d) None of the above

33. Which of the following Acts set up Dyarchy System at the central level?
a) Government of India Act, 1935
b) Government of India Act, 1919
c) Indian Council Act, 1909
d) Indian Council Act, 1892

34. The Indian Legislature was made bi–cameral fir the first time by:
a) Indian Council Act, 1892
b) Indian Council Act, 1909
c) The Government of India Act of 1919
d) The Government of India Act of 1935

35. Which of the following statements is/are not true in relation to constituent
assembly?
1. Assembly was not based on adult suffrage.
2. The assembly was a result of direct election.
3. Assembly was a multiparty body.
4. Assembly worked through various committees.
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Constituent Assembly of India was established on:

a) 10 June, 1946
b) 09 December, 1946
c) 26 November, 1949

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 d) 26 December, 1949
37. Who was the Chairman of Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and
Minorities constituted by the Constituent Assembly?
a) Pandit Nehru
b) Sardar Patel
c) B. N. Rao
d) Ambedkar

38. Match List–I and List–II and give correct answer by using codes given below:
List–I (Feature of Constitution of India)
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Parliamentary System
C. Emergency Provisions
D. Directive Principles of State Policy
List–II (Borrowed from which country)
1. United Kingdom
2. United States
3. Ireland
4. Germany
5. Canada
Code:
A B C D
a) 2 4 5 1
b) 5 1 3 4
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 1 2 4 3

39. Match List–I and List–II and select the correct answer:
List–I
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Concurrent List for Union–State Relations
D. India as a Union of States with greater Powers to the Union
List–II
(Country from which it was derived)
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Ireland
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Codes:
A B C D
a) 5 4 1 2
b) 3 5 2 1
c) 5 4 2 1
d) 3 5 1 2

40. The Indian Constitution comprises of:

a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
b) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules
c) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules

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 d) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules
41. Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent
List by the:
a) 24th Amendment
b) 25th Amendment
c) 42th Amendment
d) 44th Amendment

42. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the code given below
the lists:
List–I List – II
A. 7 Schedule
th 1. Languages
B. 8th Schedule 2. Disqualification on ground of defection
C. 9 Schedule
th 3. Distribution of legislative powers
D. 10 Schedule
th 4. Validation or certain Acts
Code:
A B C D
a) 3 1 2 4
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 4 2 1 3

43. Match the following:

List–I List – II
A. Union List 1. Police and Public Order
B. State List 2. Space Research
C. Concurrent List 3. Census
D. Residuary Subject 4. Population Control and Family Planning
Code:
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 4 1 2 3

44. The constituent assembly had which animal on its seal

a) Peacock
b) Lion
c) Elephant
d) Tiger

45. The minimum age for being eligible to become the Prime Minister of India is
a) 21 years
b) 25 years
c) 30 years
d) 35 years

46. Which one of the following is not mentioned in the Indian constitution?
a) Election Commission
b) NITI Ayog
c) Public Service Commission

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 d) Finance Commission
47. The Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation is appointed under Section 4A
of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. Amongst the following, who is not a
member of the high powered committee which appoints the CBI Director:
a) Home Minister of India
b) Prime Minister of India
c) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
d) Chief Justice of India

48. After the Tsunami hit India, which of the following laws was made to deal with
natural calamities:
a) Disaster Management Act 2005
b) Disaster Prevention Act 2006
c) Natural Hard Protection Act 2004
d) National Disaster Relief Force Act 2004

49. The right of property is a:

a) Constitutional right
b) Fundamental right
c) Statutory right
d) All of the above

50. Which of the following has been recognized in India as per the Supreme Court
judgment in Common Cause v. Union of India (2018)?
a) Living Will
b) Uniform Civil Code
c) Odd–even rule to curb pollution
d) None of the above

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