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Tutorial work, 217 questions and answers - MCQ's

Medicinal Chemistry (Northumbria University)

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Medicinal Chemistry MCQ’s

1. Amino acids are joined together via which bond?


a. Dipole-Dipole
b. Amide
c. Hydrogen
d. Ionic

2. Amide Bond Resonance (ABR) in terms of protein structure is an important feature. The N’s
lone pair is delocalised, having several important ramifications. Select which of these is NOT
a ramification.
a. O has a δ- charge and the N has a δ+; the Amide groups can form hydrogen bonds
with each other.
b. Amide C-N bond has partial double bonds character, therefore backbone of protein
is more rigid.
c. The orientation of atoms –CC(=O)NHC are all in a plane, the cis orientation is more
stable than the trans.
d. The orientation of atoms –CC(=O)NHC are all in a plane, the trans orientation is
more stable than the cis.

3. Hydrogen bonding is an essential bond type for the backbone of proteins. Which fact about
hydrogen bonding is FALSE?
a. Forms H δ+ with X δ- (X = N,O, S)
b. Much weaker than chemical bonds
c. Vital for controlling the shape of a protein
d. Amide bonds aren’t good at forming hydrogen bonds

4. The amino acid has little to no influence on protein structure:


a. Gly, G
b. Val, V
c. Asp, D
d. Pro, P

5. Which amino acid doesn’t show hydrophobic characters?

a. b. c. d.

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6. Amino acids form from:


a. N terminus to C terminus
b. C terminus to C terminus
c. C terminus to N terminus
d. N terminus to N terminus

7. Genetic diseases e.g cystic fibrosis often occur in:


a. Dipeptide mutations
b. Polypeptide mutations
c. Tripeptide mutations
d. Single amino acid mutation

8. Different sefguences can be compared by a sefguence alignment. Which statement is true in


this case?
a. Sequences that can be aligned are called homologous
b. Sefguences that can be aligned are called heterologous
c. Sefguences that can be aligned are called analogous
d. Neither of the above

9. The protein secondary structure has four elements:


a. Random coil, turns, α-sheets and β-helix
b. Random coil, rotations, γ-sheets and α-helix
c. Random coil, turns, β-sheets and α-helix
d. Specific coil, turns, β-sheets and α-helix

10. Which elements of the secondary protein structure includes hydrogen bonding?
a. α-helix and Random coil
b. Random coil and β- turns
c. α-helix and β-turns
d. Β-sheets and α-helix

11. Outline the correct residues that disrupt the α-helix:


a. Proline and Glycine
b. Tryptophan and Glutamine
c. Valine and Serine
d. Arginine and Lysine

12. Which arrangement in the β-sheet is prefered?


a. Parallel
b. Antiparallel

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13. Outline the residue that does NOT disrupt the β-sheet:
a. Steric repulsions
b. Charged residues
c. Amino acids that can’t form H-bonds
d. Electronic repulsions

14. Give another name for tertiary protein structure:


a. The Turn
b. The Flip
c. The Fold
d. The Rotate

15. Tertiary proteins are in:


a. Negatively charged form
b. Neutral
c. Equilibrium
d. Positively charged form

16. The efguilibrium in tertiary proteins are a sum of many small effects, which are:
a. Steric repulsions, H-bonds and Ionic bonds
b. H-bonds, covalent bonds and Steric repulsions
c. Dipole-dipole, Vander Walls interactions and H-bonds

17. What is an enzyme?


a. A protein that acts as a catalyst for a reaction
b. A molecule which binds to a receptor without activating it
c. A molecule that produces the same response at a receptor as the natural messenger
d. Organic molecules acting as cofactors

18. What’s a catalyst


a. A protein that increases the rate of reaction, without altering itself
b. A biological chemical that speeds up a reaction, without altering itself
c. Any chemical that speeds up a reaction, without altering itself
d. None of the above

19. Finish the sentence: Catalyst change the reaction __________ by providing a faster reaction
pathway:
a. Kinetics
b. Activation
c. Pathway
d. Neither of the above

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20. Which catalyst is present to convert cis amides to trans amides?


a. Trans-cis isomerase
b. Amide isomerase
c. Cis-trans ismoerase
d. Neither of the above

21. Outline the CORRECT statement:


a. The catalyst only changes the Ea
b. There is a change in the overall reaction energy
c. All chemical reactions are in equilibrium
d. A catalyst gets there faster by changing the efguilibrium

22. Enzymes lower the _________:


a. Kinetics of a reaction
b. Ea to zero
c. Transitional state
d. Rate of reaction

23. Which is the most effective catalyst for Amide hydrolysis?


a. OH-
b. Trypsin
c. HCO3-
d. Fe3+

24. What class do Cytochromes belong in?


a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

25. What class do Kinases belong in?


a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

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26. What class do Proteases belong in?


a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

27. What class do Dehydratases belong in?


a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

28. What class do Topoisomerases belong in?


a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

29. What class do DNA ligases belong in?


a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

30. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Cytochromes?


a. Redox
b. Transfer Function Groups
c. Hydrolysis
d. Double Bond forming
e. Isomerisms and Internal transfers
f. Joining sections together

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31. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Kinases?


a. Redox
b. Transfer Functional Groups
c. Hydrolysis
d. Double Bond forming
e. Isomerisms and Internal transfers
f. Joining sections together

32. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Proteases?


a. Redox
b. Transfer Function Groups
c. Hydrolysis
d. Double Bond forming
e. Isomerisms and Internal transfers
f. Joining sections together

33. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Dehydratases?


a. Redox
b. Transfer Function Groups
c. Hydrolysis
d. Double Bond forming
e. Isomerisms and Internal transfers
f. Joining sections together

34. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Topoisomerases?


a. Redox
b. Transfer Function Groups
c. Hydrolysis
d. Double Bond forming
e. Isomerisms and Internal transfers
f. Joining sections together

35. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of DNA lignases?


a. Redox
b. Transfer Function Groups
c. Hydrolysis
d. Double Bond forming
e. Isomerisms and Internal transfers
f. Joining sections together

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36. Cytochrome P450’s carry out which reaction with drugs?


a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Hydrolysis
d. Decarboxylation
e. Isomerism
f. Transfers functional groups

37. Cytochrome P450’s are inhibited by:


a. Flavonols
b. Chymostatin
c. Ubifguitin
d. None of the abover

38. Function of Kinases are:


a. Oxidise substrates to a more water soluble compound
b. Transfer a phosphate group via ATP to protein
c. Break peptide bonds
d. Condensation of peptides

39. Which type of enzyme is important for signalling ie. Immune response?
a. Cytochrome P450
b. Protease
c. Kinase
d. DNA ligases

40. Which type of enzyme if over-active can lead to cancer?


a. Cytochrome
b. Protease
c. Kinase
d. DNA ligases

41. Cancer can occur due to:


a. Over active kinase
b. Cytochrome P450 Inhibition
c. Protease
d. None of the above

42. Trypsin is a _______ enzyme:


a. Cytochrome
b. Kinase
c. Protease
d. DNA ligase

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43. Which statement is false?


a. Cytochrome P450 are used a lot in detoxification
b. Protease attack proteins from invading microbes
c. Topoisomerases are ATP dependant
d. Dehydratase enzymes reduce C-C to C=C bonds

44. Which enzyme below is ATP dependant?


a. Dehydratase
b. Protease
c. Cytochrome P450
d. DNA ligase

45. Which enzyme below is NOT a good drug target?


a. DNA ligase
b. Topoisomerases
c. Protease
d. Cytochrome P450

46. Which enzyme below is an important drug target?


a. DNA ligase
b. Topoisomerases
c. Protease
d. Cytochrome P450

47. Area of expression is controlled by:


a. Transcription factors
b. Ribsome
c. Protein receptor
d. DNA

48. Define Induced fit:


Enzyme shapes itself around the substrate

49. Name of the enzyme that removes water from retinol


Retinol Dehydratase

50. Name of the substrate that retinol is converted to with a water removing enzyme
Anhydroretinol

51. Amino acids that react via Vander Waals with retinol are:
Leu, Ile, Val and Phe

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52. Amino acid functions to retinol are: (Select two)


Help retinol fit into the Vander Waals pocket the right way round.
They activate the –OH group.

53. Fill in the blanks:


So when there is a close match between the enzyme and substrate, that means that the
enzyme will be _____________, meaning it will only recognise ________ molecule as the
substrate.
Highly Specific
One

54. There are three different rate constants. Select the correct position for each constant:

55. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot, when 1/[S]= 0, [S]=?



56. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot, when 1/rate> 0, so rate=?

57. In which plot is when the rate is never greater than diffusion?

58. Which statement is FALSE:

59. Definition of Competitive Inhibitor

60. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot select which slope represents an Inhibitor present:

61. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot select which slope represents NO Inhibitor present

62. Enzyme products are often a:


Competitive Inhibitor
63. The two compounds that are inhibitors of retinol dehydratase
Retinoic acid
Estradiol
64. In a Line Weaver-Burk plot, the +inhibitor and no inhibitor slopes have:

65. A target enzyme for nerve gases:

66. An intermidate that closes down the enzyme’s active site suggests which type of inhibition?

67. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The
protein composition in Myelm is:

68. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The
carbohydrates composition in Myelm is:

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69. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The lipid
composition in Myelm is:

70. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The
protein composition in Erythrocyte is:

71. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The
carbohydrate composition in Erythrocyte is:

72. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The lipid
composition in Erythrocyte is:

73. Below is the general structure of phospholipids. Mark where the choline section is:
74. Phospholipids are termed:

75. The Fatty acid end of a phospholipid end is termed:


AMPHIPATHIC
76. An example of a steroid is:
Cholesterol
77. Outline a major class of membrane lipids:
Steroids
78. How many ring members in cholesterol?
5
79. Polar amino acids prefer which part of the membrane?
Outer membranes
80. Hydrophobic amino acids prefer which part of the membrane?
Inner membrane
81. Basic amino acids interact with which groups?
Phosphate groups
82. TM helixes are:
α-helces that cross the membrane
83. The protein’s Quarternary structure maybe important. Outline the INCORRECT STATEMENT.:
a. Atypical ion channel
b. Assembled from 5 district protein
c. Each molecule has 4 TM helices
d. The channel has 30 helices in total

84. The function of receptor proteins:


Allow a cell to receive signals without the signal molecule entering the cell
85. The function of channels and pores:
Allow chemical messengers to enter and leave the cell.
86. Select the statement about receptors that is FALSE:

87. Select the correct condition for receptors:


Fast equilibrium

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88. Outline the two natural ligands of a target receptor:


a. Adrenaline
b. Salbutamol
c. Noradrenaline
d. Xamoterol

89. Outline the CORRECT statements about nerve gases


a. Dyflos and Sarin are agents that activate the enzyme aceytlcholinesterase by
phosphorylating the serine residue in the active site.
b. Dyflos and Sarin are agents that inhibit the enzyme aceytlcholinesterase by
irreversibly phosphorylating the serine residue in the active site.

90. Outline the compound that is NOT a neurotransmitter:


a. Acetylcholine
b. Noradrenaline
c. Adrenaline
d. Dopamine
e. Glycine
f. Ca2+

91. Which statement about G-protein coupled receptors, is INCORRECT?


a. In the docking stage, the G-protein binding site is closed.
b. When the signal molecule has binded to the signalling binding site, it opens
(activates) the G-protein.
c. In G-protein activation the α-subunit exchanges GTP for GDP.
d. In G-protein activation the α-subunit separates from subunits β and γ.
e. The G-protein α-subunit is an Allosteric regulator of its enzyme.

92. Different G-proteins can switch their enzymes on or off. Which statements below are
CORRECT?
a. α6 stimulates adenylate cyclase
b. α4 stimulates adenylate cyclase
c. α5 stimulates adenylate cyclase
d. αi stimulates adenylate cyclase
e. αi inhibits adenylate cyclase

93. The function of Adenylate cyclase. Select two answers:


a. Converts cyclic AMP to ATP
b. Converts ATP to cyclic AMP
c. cAMP is the inhibitor for this cell
d. cAMP is the signal molecule

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94. Which statements are FALSE?


a. Receptors need one signal molecule, but can activate many G-proteins
b. Receptors don’t require a specific molecule and can activate many G-proteins
c. Enzymes don’t require a specific G-protein, and produce many cAMP molecules
d. Enzymes need one specific G-protein, but produce many cAMP molecules.

95. When an enzyme is switched off:


a. G-protein complex remains open.
b. G-protein complex breaks up when GTP is hydrolysed back into GDP.
c. G-protein complex breaks up when GDP is hydrolysed back into GTP.
d. G-protein complex self-destructs.

96. Outline the incorrect answer when G-proteins act as drug targets:
a. Activators
b. Peptides that mimic G-protein
c. Non-competitive inhibitors
d. Inhibitors

97. Outline the incorrect answer when receptors act as drug targets:
a. Antagonists
b. Agonists
c. Molecules that block the G-protein binding site
d. Non-competitive inhibitors

98. What is the name of proteins that destroy other proteins?


a. Ubiquitin
b. Flavonals
c. Tyrpsin
d. None of the above

99. Outline the correct answer when enzymes act as drug targets:
a. Block the AS
b. Competitive inhibitors
c. Activators
d. Agonists

100. Bethanechol is a _________ compound:


a. Muscarnic agonist
b. Muscarnic antagonist
c. Nicotinic agonist
d. Nicotinic antagonist

101. The Function of Bethanechol:


a. To decrease smooth muscle tone in GI tract
b. To restart GI function

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c. Reduce blood pressure


d. Relax the muscles in the throat

102. Atropine is what type of compound?


a. Muscarnic agonist
b. Muscarnic antagonist
c. Nicotinic agonist
d. Nicotinic antagonist

103. Hyoscine is what type of compound?


a. Muscarnic agonist
b. Muscarnic antagonist
c. Nicotinic agonist
d. Nicotinic antagonist

104. Which molecule below is Hyoscine?

105. A lead compound extracted from deadly nightshade plant is:


a. Atropine
b. Hyoscine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin

106. A lead compound extracted from the thorn apple is:


a. Atropine
b. Hyoscine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin

107. Why are atropine and hyoscine antagonists?


a. Activate the cholinergic receptors
b. Unable to switch on cholinergic receptors
c. Unable to switch off cholinergic receptors

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d. None of the above

108. Select the region where there are more interactions, than an acetylcholine
compound, with the receptor: Allows, is the molecule a competitive or non-competitive
inhibitor?

109. Propantheline chloride is an:


a. Agonist for Nicitonic receptors
b. Antagonist for Muscarnic receptors
c. Agonist for Muscarnic receptors
d. Antagonist for Nicitonic receptors

110. In antagonist structure activity relationships, the large acyl group has to be either
_____ or _____ and _____ for maximum activity. Fill in the blanks.
a. T shaped
b. R shaped
c. Round
d. Flat
e. Y shaped
f. X shaped
g. Water soluble
h. Ionised

111. An example of an nicotinic antagonist:


a. Decamethonium
b. Suxamethonium
c. Hyoscine
d. Atropine

112. Select the INCORRECT statement: Acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, doesn’t make a


good drug because-
a. Limited penetration of the blood brain barrier, due to the ammonium salt
b. Peripheral enzymes degrade it fguickly
c. Size of the molecule is too big for good interactions with the active site of
receptors
d. None of the above.

113. Circle which bonds would be easily hydrolysed:

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114. Name the intermidate above:


a. Acetylcholine
b. Atropine
c. Suxamethonium
d. Decamethonium

115. What is the main feature for a Decamethonium compound?


a. Aromatic rings
b. Alkyl chain
c. Ammonium salts
d. –OCH3

116. Inhibitors of acetylcholine:


a. Cholinesterase
b. Salbutamol
c. Anticholinesterases
d. Trypsin

117. The function of cholinesterase:


a. Lowers the level of Ach in the synapse via hydrolysis of Ach
b. Increase the level of Ach in the synapse via Ach inhibition
c. Acts as a nucleophile
d. None of the above

118. Answers can be selected more than once: In the active site of cholinesterase, Serine
acts as an _______________. Histodine acts as a __________________ to transfer H + around
the active site. Water acts a ____________ and acetic acid leaves.
a. Nucleophile (1st and 3rd)
b. Base
c. Acid and Base (2nd)

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d. Inhibitor
e. Antagonist
f. Agonist
g. Stimulator

119. Select the lead compound for anticholinesterase drugs:


a. Phystoigmine
b. Cholesterol
c. Psyotigmaine
d. Salbutamol

120. This molecule below is extracted from the Calabar bean from West Africa. Select
which N atom is protonated in an afgueous solution:

121. The molecule in the previous fguestion. Circle the Carbamate group:

122. The molecule in the previous fguestion. If an alkyl group is added in the circled rejoin,
what effect would this have on the compound?
a. Molecule becomes active against acetylcholine
b. Molecule becomes prone to being protonated more easily
c. Molecule becomes inactive
d. None of the above

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123. Circle the section of the molecule that is important for the reactivity of the
carbamate:

124. Select the analogue, for the molecule in the previous fguestion, that can pass the
blood brain barrier:
a. Eseroline
b. Dopamine
c. Naloxane
d. Miotine

125. Which compound below is a purified form of opium?


a. Heroin
b. Codeine
c. 3-Monoacetlymorphine
d. 6-monoacetlymorphine
e. Morphine

126. Which opiate is used in medicine as an analgesic and a cough depressant?


a. Morphine
b. Codeine
c. Heroin
d. Naloxane

127. The metabolism of codeine:


a. No formation of morphine produced
b. Large formation of morphine produced
c. Small formation of morphine produced
d. Formation of heroin produced

128. Which opiate persists in the body longer?


a. Morphine
b. Heroin
c. Codeine

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d. None of the above

129. 6-monoacetylmorphine is conclusive evidence of the usage of which other opiate?


a. Codeine
b. Heroin
c. Morphine
d. None of the above

130. Select the least reactive metabolite of Heroin?


a. 3-monoacetylmorphine
b. 6-monoacetylmorphine
c. Morphine

131. Heroin to 6-monoacetylmorphine involves which reaction below?


a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation

132. 6-monoacetylmorphine to Morphine involves which reaction below?


a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation

133. Morphine to 3-monoacetylmorphine involves which reaction below?


a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation

134. 3-monoacetylmorphine to Heroin involves which reaction below?


a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation

135. Select the INCORRECT side effect of Morphine


a. Constipation
b. Euphoria
c. Nausea
d. Pupil constriction
e. Depression of the respiratory centre
f. Diarrhea

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136. Opiates are generally what sort of shape?


a. T
b. Y
c. R
d. L

137. Codeine is a ________:


a. Catalyst
b. Enzyme
c. Prodrug
d. Agonist

138. Which organ converts codeine to morphine?


a. Kidney
b. Pancreas
c. Small intestine
d. Liver

139. Morphine or Heroin is less water soluble?


Heroin

140. General structure for opiates. In drug extension, when R 2 = Me, Et or Pr, It becomes
more agonist or antagonist?

141. When R2 = Bu, the activity of the compound will be?


a. Extremely high
b. Low
c. Zero
d. Fuck her right in the pussy

142. When R2 = Pentyl or Hexyl, the compound becomes more agonist or antagonist?

143. Opoid antagonists:


a. Methadone
b. Diamorphine
c. Naltrexone
d. Buprenorphine

144. Opoid agonist


a. Naloxane
b. Naltrexone
c. Morphine
d. Nalbuphine

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145. Define an agonist

146. Define an antagonist

147. There a three basic stages in finding a new drug. Select the CORRECT stage below:
a. Find lead compound, determine pharmacophore and synthesize a candidate and
optimise physical properties
b. Find catalyst, determine its structure via HNMR and IR and optimise physical
properties
c. Really nigga, you think I can come up with other potential answers?

148. Select a lead compound for a local anaesthetic:


a. Morphine
b. Dopamine
c. Cocaine
d. Glycine

149. Analogues for the lead compound above are listed below. Outline the ODD one out:
a. Procaine
b. Pethidine
c. Piperocaine
d. Phenzaocine

150. Circle the pharmacophore in the cocaine and procaine structures:


Cocaine

151. Procaine

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152. Metabolism of cocaine affords two common metabolites, shown below. Which
enzymes are involved in cocaine metabolism?
a. Cytochrome P450
b. Ester protease
c. Esterase
d. Trypsin

153. Define Isosteres:


a. Atoms or groups of atoms which share the same valency and which only have
chemical similarities.
b. Atoms or groups of atoms which share the same valency and which have chemical
or physical similarities.
c. Atoms or groups of atoms which share the same valency and which only have
physical similarities.
d. Groups of atoms which only share the same valency.

154. Define Classical Isosteres:


a. Atoms, ions and molecules that had identical outer shells of electrons.
b. Atoms, ions and molecules that have the exact same physical properties.
c. Atoms, ions and molecules that had the exact same chemical properties.
d. None of the above.

155. Match the correct classical isosteres together:

O O O O
C N O S
H2 H

C N
H

156. Select the compounds that are Bioisosteres:


a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine

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c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine

157. Select the compounds that are Isosteres:


a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine

158. Which compound below is used as a drug in the treatment towards glaucoma?
a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine

159. Which compound below is a H2-receptor antagonist and used in treatment of


ulcers?
a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine

160. Which compound is a Human sex hormone?


a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine

161. Which compound is an a1-adrenergic agonist and a Decongestant (used to relieve


nasal congestion)?
a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol

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d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine

162. Which compound is an Analgesic compound?


a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine

163. The function of Isosteres. Identify the ODD one out:


a. Modification of a lead compound
b. Change of the chemical/physical properties
c. Retain the desired biological activity
d. All answers are correct.

164. The function of Bioisosteres. Identify the ODD one out:


a. Modification of a lead compound
b. Change of the chemical/physical properties
c. Retain the desired biological activity
d. All answers are correct.

165. Molecules unable to cross the cell membrane of the gut are:
a. Too polar and hydrophilic
b. Too hydrophilic
c. Too hydrophobic
d. None of the above

166. Molecules that are dissolved in fat globules in the gut and are poorly absorbed are:
a. Too polar and hydrophilic
b. Too hydrophilic
c. Too hydrophobic
d. None of the above

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167. Select which compound below is the most lipophilic molecule:

168. Tioconazole is an antifungal agent, and is used only for skin infections. Therefore this
compound is:
a. Too non-polar
b. Too polar

169. Another compound with the same function as Tioconazole via alterations in its
structure i.e. Adding/removing polar functional groups to modulate the polarity. Select the
compound used:
a. Fluconazole
b. Enalaprilat
c. Hexobarbitone
d. Nordazepam

170. Procaine is a good local anaesthetic drug, however its duration is the body is very
short. Which other compound can be used for this purpose, but is longer lasting?
a. Piperocaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Adrenaline
d. None of the above

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171. Define pro-drug:


a. Compounds that are inactive in themselves but which can be converted into active
drugs in the body.
b. Compounds that are immediately active drugs when they’re placed into the body.
c. None of the above.

172. Outline the compound that is NOT a prodrug:


a. Enalaprilat
b. Codeine

173. What maybe the problem with a drug that consists of carboxylic acids?
a. Too hydrophobic
b. Too many H bond interactions
c. Too many ionic bond formations
d. Too polar

174. Define Phase I


a. Conjugation reactions
b. Interconversion of Functional groups
c. Addition of solubilising groups
d. None of the above

175. Define Phase II


a. Conjugation reactions
b. Interconversion of Functional groups
c. Addition of solubilising groups
d. None of the above

176. Aromatic hydroxylation reactions are _______ dependant:


a. ATP
b. NADH
c. NAD+
d. GTP

177. Benzene in an aromatic hydroxylation reaction produces which compound below?


a. Phenol
b. Methanoic acid
c. Ethanol
d. Benzoic acid

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178. NADH is a:
a. Reducing agent
b. Oxidising agent
c. Cofactor
d. Electron carrier

179. Which mechanism is when a compound is very reactive towards nucelophiles?


a. Aromatic hydroxylation
b. Aliphatic hydroxylation
c. Epoxidation
d. Dealkylation

180. Dealkylation is an _________ process:


a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidative
c. Reductive
d. None of the above

181. Which mechanisms produces Di-ols?


a. Aromatic hydroxylation
b. Aliphatic hydroxylation
c. Epoxidation
d. Dealkylation

182. Imidazole can undergo either hydrolysis or oxidation. If it undergoes oxidation it


produces:
a. (R) Enantiomer
b. (S) Enantiomer

183. Outline the interactions this molecule can have:

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184. Which sort of enzymes help metabolise Phase II transformations?


a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidative
c. Reductive
d. Transferase

185. Correct structure of amino acids are:


a. Zwitter ion
b. Neutral compounds

186. Condensation reaction with amino acids produces:


a. Esters
b. Amides
c. Alcohols
d. Carboxylic acids

187. Glutathione is which type of peptide?


a. Dipeptide
b. Monopeptide
c. Tripeptide
d. None of the above

188. Glutathione acts as _______________ during a conjugation reaction:


a. A Nucleophile
b. An electrophile
c. Enzyme
d. Inhibitor

189. Irreversible inhibitors form which bond to their active site?


a. Ionic
b. Hydrogen
c. Covalent
d. Dipole-Dipole

190. An example of an irreversible inhibitor is?


a. Heroin
b. Penicillin
c. Salbutamol
d. Ethanol

191. Function of that irreversible inhibitors with bacteria?


a. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibit DNA synthesis
c. Inhibit Ribosome synthesis
d. None of the above

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192. Which enzyme is inhibited by this irreversible inhibitor?


a. Trypsin
b. Transpeptidase
c. Badbitchesaremyfuckingproblemase
d. None of the above

193. Oxidation reaction with Ethanol to Ethanoic acid. What is the coenzyme in this
reaction?
a. Alcohol Dehydrogenase
b. NADH + H+
c. NAD+
d. NADH

194. In reduction reaction, which compound is used?


a. NaBH4
b. AgCl
c. NO2
d. None of the above

195. Agonisits resemble:


a. Uncompetitive inhibitors
b. Competitive inhibitors

196. Outline the incorrect ion channel protein in metabolism?


a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-
e. Mg2+

197. Function of ion channel proteins:


a. Allow electrons to cross the membrane
b. Allow ions to cross the membrane
c. Allow proteins to cross the membrane
d. None of the above

198. Which ion pump is ATP dependant?


a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-

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199. Ion channels use ______ to cross the membrane:


a. GTP
b. TM helices
c. ATP
d. NADH

200. There are two components in ion channels. They are:


a. The Filter and The Gate
b. The Filter and The Rolo
c. TheShortyburingonthedancefloor
d. None of the above

201. Which filter refguires an abundance of energy to remove water ligands?


a. Na+
b. Cl-
c. Ca2+
d. K+

202. Only K+ ions allow which other ions to pass through?


a. Na+
b. Cl-
c. Ca2+
d. K+

203. The GATE can be categorised into two different groups:


a. Voltage Gate
b. Ligand Gate
c. Electron Gate
d. Proton Gate

204. How is the Voltage Gate triggered?


a. Triggered by changes in membrane potential

205. How is the Ligand Gate triggered?


b. Triggered by changes in chemical messengers (ie. Neurotransmitters)

206. K+ is an example of which Gate?


c. Voltage

207. AChr does NOT allow which ions to pass?


a. K+
b. Na+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-

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208. Which toxin plugs the K+ channel?


d. Spider venom
e. Snake venom
f. Scorpion venom
g. Nicki Minaj

209. Which toxins affect AChr’s?


a. Snake venom
b. Scorpion venom
c. Spider venom
d. Nicki Minaj

210. Which β-agonists is used to treat asthma?


a. Isoprenaline
b. Adrenaline
c. Noradrenaline
d. Salbutamol

211. Salbutamol is an analogue of which compound?


a. Isoprenaline
b. Adrenaline
c. Noradrenaline
d. None of the above

212. α receptor activation causes:


a. Smooth Muscle Contraction
b. Smooth Muscle Relaxation

213. β receptor activation causes:


a. Smooth Muscle Contraction
b. Smooth Muscle Relaxation (except the heart)

214. Which enzyme metabolises Salbutamol in the body by removing the –OH bond with
MeO- bond?
a. COMT
b. Cytochrome P450
c. Kinase
d. None above
215. A strong inhibitor of ACE:
a. Captopril

216. Adrengeric agonists treat:


b. Asthma, β2 Smooth muscle relaxation

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217. Adrengeric antagonists treat:


c. Blood pressure, heart rate

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