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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions M.M. : 360
for
JEE (MAIN)-2017
(Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry)
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted for
indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response
is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
5. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 4
above.
6. For writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet use only Black
BallPoint Pen provided in the examination hall.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
1
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
PART–A : PHYSICS
2
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
(1) m c (2) c – m 3
(4)
2
(3) m (4) c
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Modulated wave has frequency range.
c ± m
Sol. 2R
Since c >> m
l
m is excluded.
6. A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length
25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a mR 2 m2
converging lens of magnitude of focal length 20 cm. I
4 12
A beam of parallel light falls on the diverging lens.
The final image formed is
m ⎡ 2 2 ⎤
(1) Real and at a distance of 40 cm from the I ⎢R ⎥
4 ⎣⎢ 3 ⎥⎦
divergent lens
(2) Real and at a distance of 6 cm from the
m ⎡ v 2 ⎤
convergent lens ⎢ ⎥
4 ⎣⎢ 3 ⎦⎥
(3) Real and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent
lens
dI m ⎡ v 2 ⎤
0
d 4 ⎢⎣ 2 3 ⎥⎦
(4) Virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from
convergent lens
Answer (3) v 2
2
3
f1 = 25 cm f2 = 20 cm
Sol.
23
v
3
I1
23
R 2
3
25 cm 15 cm
2 3
2
For converging lens R 2
u = –40 cm which is equal to 2f
3
Image will be real and at a distance of 40 cm
R 2
from convergent lens.
3
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
8. An electron beam is accelerated by a potential 9. A radioactive nucleus A with a half life T, decays into
difference V to hit a metallic target to produce a nucleus B. At t = 0, there is no nucleus B. At
X-rays. It produces continuous as well as sometime t, the ratio of the number of B to that of
characteristic X-rays. If λmin is the smallest possible A is 0.3. Then, t is given by
wavelength of X-ray in the spectrum, the variation of
log λmin with log V is correctly represented in (1) t T log 1.3
T
(1) log min (2) t log 1.3
log V
T log2
(3) t 2 log1.3
log V
et = 1.3
t = ln 1.3
hc
min log(1.3)
eV t T
log2
⎛ hc ⎞
ln min ln ⎜ ⎟ lnV
⎝ e ⎠ 10. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p ,
4
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
R
z Cp – Cv =
M
p p cos i p sin j R
For hydrogen; a =
2
E 1 Ei
R
T 1 p E1 For N2; b =
28
a
= ( p cos i p sin j ) E i b
= 14
a = 14b
k pE sin
k …(i)
13. A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a temperature T.
It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of mass
E 2 3E1j 100 gm, filled with 170 gm of water at room
temperature. Subsequently, the temperature of the
T2 ( p cos i p sin j ) 3E1j system is found to be 75°C. T is given by :
k 3 pE1 cos
k …(ii) (Given : room temperature = 30°C, specific heat of
copper = 0.1 cal/gm°C)
From (i) and (ii)
(1) 1250°C (2) 825°C
pE sin 3 pE cos (3) 800°C (4) 885°C
5
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
v0 x
⎡ 1⎤ 2 k
⎢ v ⎥ m t0 3g
cos
⎣ ⎦v 0 (1)
2
1 2 k 2g
t0 (2) cos
v0 v0 m 3
3g
1 k (3) sin
t0 2
v0 m
2g
(4) sin
m 3
k
v 0 t0 Answer (3)
Sol. Torque at angle
102
10 10
Mg sin
2
= 10–4 kg m–1
15. When a current of 5 mA is passed through a
galvanometer having a coil of resistance 15 Ω, it ,
shows full scale deflection. The value of the
(M, l)
resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer
to convert it into a voltmeter of range 0-10 V is
Mg
(1) 2.535 × 103 Ω
(2) 4.005 × 103 Ω
(3) 1.985 × 103 Ω = I
6
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
3 1 10
(1) r (2) r
4 3
Current
4 2 (amp.)
(3) r (4) r
3 3
Answer (2)
0.5 s
Sol. From energy level diagram Time
hc (1) 250 Wb (2) 275 Wb
1
E (3) 200 Wb (4) 225 Wb
Answer (1)
hc
2
⎛E ⎞ d
⎜3⎟ Sol. ε =
⎝ ⎠ dt
1 1
d
2 3 iR =
dt
18. A man grows into a giant such that his linear
dimensions increase by a factor of 9. Assuming that ∫ d R ∫ idt
his density remains same, the stress in the leg will
change by a factor of Magnitude of change in flux = R × area under
current vs time graph
1
(1) 81 (2)
81 1 1
= 100 × × × 10
2 2
1
(3) 9 (4)
9 = 250 Wb
Answer (3) 20. In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are
vf separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed
Sol. 93 150 cm away. A beam of light consisting of two
vi
wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain
∵ Density remains same
interference fringes on the screen. The least distance
So, mass Volume from the common central maximum to the point
mf where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths
93
mi coincide is
(1) 9.75 mm (2) 15.6 mm
(Area)f
92
(Area)i (3) 1.56 mm (4) 7.8 mm
7
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
Answer (4)
g
Sol. For 1 For 2
(3)
m1D n 2 D d
y y
d d O
m 2 4
g
n 1 5
For 1 (4) d
O R
m1D
y , 1 = 650 nm
d Answer (2)
= 7.8 mm
g
21. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment
6.7 × 10–2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5 × 10–6 kg m2
Sol. gs
is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a
magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken for 10 complete
oscillations is
d
O d=R
(1) 6.98 s (2) 8.76 s
(3) 6.65 s (4) 8.89 s
Variation of g inside earth surface
Answer (3)
Gm
d Rg d
I R2
Sol. T = 2π
MB
Gm
d R gs
7.5 10 –6 2 R2
= 2π = 1.06
–2
6.7 10 0.01 10
Gm
d Rg
For 10 oscillations, d2
t = 10T = 2π × 1.06
23. 2V 2V 2V
= 6.6568 ≈ 6.65 s
22. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with
distance d from centre of the earth is best 1 1 1
represented by (R = Earth's radius) :
g 2V 2V 2V
8
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
2m1v ∫ dv ∫ 6t dt
v2 0 0
m1 m2
1
4v ⎡t2 ⎤
= v 6⎢ ⎥
3 ⎣2⎦ 0
m ⎡ 4v ⎤ 2mv = 3 ms–1
p2
2 ⎢⎣ 3 ⎥⎦ 3
1
W = KE 1 9 4.5 J
A p2 2
de-Broglie wavelength 2 :1
B p1 27. An observer is moving with half the speed of light
towards a stationary microwave source emitting
25. An external pressure P is applied on a cube at 0°C
waves at frequency 10 GHz. What is the frequency
so that it is equally compressed from all sides. K is of the microwave measured by the observer? (speed
the bulk modulus of the material of the cube and of light = 3 × 108 ms–1)
is its coefficient of linear expansion. Suppose we
want to bring the cube to its original size by heating. (1) 17.3 GHz (2) 15.3 GHz
The temperature should be raised by : (3) 10.1 GHz (4) 12.1 GHz
Answer (1)
3
(1) (2) 3PK
PK Sol. For relativistic motion
P P c v
(3) (4) f = f0 ; v = relative speed of approach
3 K K c v
Answer (3)
c
c
P f = 10 2 10 3 17.3 GHz
Sol. K = c
⎛ V ⎞ c
⎜– V ⎟ 2
⎝ ⎠
9
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
Answer (1) v
Sol. In steady state, flow of current through capacitor will
be zero.
(1) t
E r
i
r1 v
C
(2) t
r2
E
i=
r r2
v
Er2C
VC = i r2C = r r
2
(3)
r2
VC = CE t
r r2
10
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
PART–B : MATHEMATICS
E
m
m= –2 So, n = 11
(5, 2) B ⎡ 1 1⎤
33. The function f : R ⎢ , ⎥ defined as
D C (–2, 2) ⎣ 2 2⎦
m=0 x
f (x) , is
1 x2
Equation of AD,
(1) Neither injective nor surjective
x=2 ...(i)
(2) Invertible
Also equation of BE,
(3) Injective but not surjective
1
y 2 ( x 5) (4) Surjective but not injective
2
11
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
x Sol.
Sol. f ( x )
2
1 x 1 1 1
(1 x 2 ) 1 x 2 x 1 x2 1 a 10
f ( x ) 2 2
2 2
(1 x ) (1 x )
a b 1
f (x) changes sign in different intervals.
–(1 – a)2 = 0
Not injective.
a=1
x
y For a = 1
1 x2
Eq. (1) & (2) are identical i.e.,x + y + z = 1
yx 2 x y 0
To have no solution with x + by + z = 0
For y 0
b=1
2⎡ 1 1⎤ 36. The area (in sq. units) of the region
D 1 4 y 0 ⇒ y ⎢ , ⎥ {0}
⎣ 2 2⎦
{(x, y) : x 0, x + y 3, x2 4y and y 1 x }
For, y = 0 x = 0
Part of range is
⎡ 1 1⎤ 5 59
Range : ⎢ , ⎥ (1) (2)
⎣ 2 2⎦ 2 12
Surjective but not injective.
34. The following statement (p q) [(~ p q) q] 3 7
(3) (4)
2 3
is
(1) A fallacy Answer (1)
(2) A tautology y
12
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
Answer (3)
dy
( x 2)( x 3) y (2 x 5) 1
2 2 2
Sol. 9(25a b ) 25(c 3ac ) 15b (3a c ) dx
dy
(15a )2 (3b)2 (5c )2 45ab 15bc 75ac 0 (6) 1( 5) 1
dx
dy 6
(15a 3b)2 (3b 5c )2 (15a 5c )2 0 1
dx 6
It is possible when Now slope of normal = –1
15a 3b 0 and 3b 5c 0 and 15a 5c 0 Equation of normal y – 1 = –1(x – 0)
y+x–1=0 ... (i)
15a 3b 5c
⎛ 1 1⎞
a b c Line (i) passes through ⎜ , ⎟
⎝2 2⎠
1 5 3
40. A hyperbola passes through the point P ( 2, 3)
b, c, a are in A.P.
and has foci at (±2, 0). Then the tangent to this
38. A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies and 3 hyperbola at P also passes through the point
are men. His wife Y also has 7 friends, 3 of them
are ladies and 4 are men. Assume X and Y have no (1) ( 2, 3) (2) (3 2, 2 3)
common friends. Then the total number of ways in
which X and Y together can throw a party inviting 3 (3) (2 2, 3 3) (4) ( 3, 2)
ladies and 3 men, so that 3 friends of each of X and
Y are in this party, is Answer (3)
(1) 484 (2) 485
x2 y 2
(3) 468 (4) 469 Sol. 1
a2 b2
Answer (2)
Sol. X(4 L 3 G) Y(3 L 4 G) a2 b2 4
3L0G 0L3G 2 3
and 2
2 1
2L1G 1L2G a b
1L2G 2L1G 2 3
2
1
0L3G 3L0G 4b b2
Required number of ways
b2 3
C
2 2 2
= 4C3 4C3 4
C2 3C1 4
C1 3C2 3
3 a2 1
= 16 + 324 + 144 + 1
y2
= 485 x2 1
3
39. The normal to the curve y ( x 2)( x 3) x 6 at y
Tangent at P ( 2, 3) is 2x 1
the point where the curve intersects the y-axis
3
passes through the point
Clearly it passes through (2 2, 3 3)
⎛ 1 1⎞ ⎛ 1 1⎞
(1) ⎜ , ⎟ (2) ⎜ , ⎟ 41. Let a, b, c R. If f(x) = ax2 + bx + c is such that
⎝2 3⎠ ⎝ 2 2⎠
a + b + c = 3 and
⎛ 1 1⎞ ⎛ 1 1⎞
(3) ⎜ , ⎟ (4) ⎜ , ⎟ f ( x y ) f ( x ) f ( y ) xy , x, y R,
⎝2 2⎠ ⎝2 3⎠
Answer (3) 10
then ∑ f (n ) is equal to
Sol. y ( x 2)( x 3) x 6 n 1
Answer (2)
|c a | 3
Sol. As, f ( x y ) f ( x ) f ( y ) xy
⇒ | c |2 | a |2 2(a c ) 9
Given, f (1) 3 932
a c 2
2
Putting, x y 1 f (2) 2f (1) 1 7
43. Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on the level
ground. Let C be the mid-point of AB and P be a
Similarly, x 1, y 2 f (3) f (1) f (2) 2 12
point on the ground such that AP = 2AB. If
BPC = then tan is
10
Now, ∑ f (n ) = f (1) f (2) f (3) ... f (10) 4 6
n 1 (1) (2)
9 7
= 3 + 7 + 12 + 18 + ... = S (let)
1 2
(3) (4)
Now, S 3 7 12 18 ... t n 4 9
Answer (4)
Again, S 3 7 12 ... t n 1 t n
1 B
We get, t n 3 4 5 ... n terms Sol. tan
4
x
n (n 5) 1 C
=
2 tan x
2
P A
n
1 4x
i.e., Sn = ∑ tn 4
tan 1
n 1
1 2
1 tan
4
=
1
2
∑ n 2
5∑n 2
Solving tan
9
n (n 1)(n 8)
= 44. Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing off a
6
flower-bed in the form of a circular sector. Then the
maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is
10 11 18
So, S10 = 330 (1) 30
6
(2) 12.5
42. Let a 2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ and b iˆ ˆj . Let c be a vector
(3) 10
such that | c a | 3, (a b ) c 3 and the angle (4) 25
Answer (4)
between c and a b be 30°. Then a c is equal to
1 Sol. r
(1)
8
25
(2) r r
8
(3) 2
(4) 5 2r r 20 ... (i)
Answer (3)
r 2
A = area = r 2 ... (ii)
Sol. | (a b ) c | 3 a b 2iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ 2 2
⇒ | a b | | c | sin 30 3 |a | 3 ab r 2 ⎛ 20 2r ⎞
A ⎜ ⎟
2⎝ r ⎠
⇒ |c | 2
14
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
⎛ 20r 2r 2 ⎞ dy
A⎜ ⎟ 10r r
2 46. If 2 sin x y 1 cos x 0 and y(0) = 1, then
⎝ 2 ⎠ dx
A to be maximum ⎛ ⎞
y ⎜ ⎟ is equal to
⎝ 2⎠
dA
10 2r 0 ⇒ r 5
dr 4 1
(1) (2)
3 3
d2A
2 0
dr 2 2 1
(3) (4)
Hence for r = 5, A is maximum 3 3
2 dy
Area = 5 2 25 sq m Sol. (2 sin x ) ( y 1)cos x 0
2 dx
3 ⎛⎞
4 y (0) 1, y ⎜ ⎟ ?
dx ⎝2⎠
45. The integral ∫ 1 cos x is equal to
4 1 cos x
dy dx 0
(1) –1 (2) –2 y 1 2 sin x
(3) 2 (4) 4 ln| y 1| ln(2 sin x ) ln C
Answer (3)
( y 1)(2 sin x ) C
3 3
4 4
Put x = 0, y = 1
dx 1 x
2
Sol. ∫ x
dx
2 ∫ sec
2
dx
(1 1) 2 C C = 4
2cos2
4 2 4
Now, ( y 1)(2 sin x ) 4
3
⎡ x ⎤4
tan ⎥ For, x
1⎢ 2
⎢ ⎥ 2
2⎢ 1 ⎥
⎣ 2 ⎦ ( y 1)(2 1) 4
4
4
3 y 1
tan tan 3
8 8
4 1
⎡ y 1
⎢ 1 cos 3 3
4 2 1 2 1
⎢ tan
⎢ 8 2 1 1
⎢⎣
1 cos 47. Let In ∫ tann xdx,(n 1) . If
4
I4 I6 a tan5 x bx 5 C, where C is a constant
3 ⎤
1 cos ⎥ of integration, then the ordered pair (a, b) is equal
3 4 2 1
tan 2 1⎥ to
8 3 2 1 ⎥
1 cos
4 ⎥⎦
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
(1) ⎜ ,0 ⎟ (2) ⎜ ,1⎟
⎝ 5 ⎠ ⎝ 5 ⎠
( 2 1) ( 2 1)
2 ⎛1 ⎞ ⎛1 ⎞
(3) ⎜ ,0 ⎟ (4) ⎜ , 1⎟
⎝5 ⎠ ⎝5 ⎠
15
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
t 5 Sol.
21
C1 21C2 ... 21C10
1
2
21
C0 21C1 ... 21C21 1
C
5 = 220 – 1
1
5
tan5 x C 10
C1 10C2 ... 10C10 210 1
1 Required sum = (220 – 1) – (210 – 1)
a ,b 0
5 = 220 – 210
48. Let be a complex number such that 2 + 1 = z cot x cos x
50. lim equals
where z 3 . If x
( 2)3
2
1 1 1
1
1 2 1 2 3k , then k is equal to (1)
4
1 2 7
1
(2)
(1) 1 (2) –z 24
(3) z (4) –1
1
(3)
Answer (2) 16
Sol. 2 + 1 = z , z 3 i 1
(4)
8
1 3i
Cube root of unity. Answer (3)
2
C1 C1 + C2 + C3 cot x cos x
Sol. lim
x
( 2 x )3
2
1 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1
2
1 1 1 0 2
2 2
Put, x t
1 2
7 2
1 0 2
2
= –3z 1
= .
k = –z 16
16
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
55. The radius of a circle, having minimum area, which 57. The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is at the
touches the curve y = 4 – x2 and the lines, y = |x|
1
is origin is . If one of its directrices is x = – 4, then
2
(1) 4 2 1
⎛ 3⎞
the equation of the normal to it at ⎜ 1, ⎟ is
⎝ 2⎠
(2) 2 2 1
(1) x + 2y = 4
(3) 2 2 1
(2) 2y – x = 2
(4) 4 2 1
(3) 4x – 2y = 1
Answer (4)
Sol. Centre : (0, 4 – r) (4) 4x + 2y = 7
r 4 2r
4 4 x = –4
r , r
1 2 1 2
1
r 4( 2 1) e
2
56. A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow balls. If 10
balls are randomly drawn, one-by-one, with
a
replacement, then the variance of the number of 4
e
green balls drawn is
6 a 4 e
(1)
25
a2
12
(2)
5
Now, b2 a2 (1 e2 ) 3
(3) 6
(4) 4 Equation to ellipse
Answer (2)
x2 y 2
Sol. n = 10 1
4 3
15
p(Probability of drawing a green ball) = Equation of normal is
25
3 2 3
p , q y
5 5 x 1 2
1 3
var(X) = n.p.q 4 23
6 12 4 x 2y 1 0
= 10
25 5
18
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
6 ⎡ 2 3 ⎤
Probability = Sol. A ⎢
55 ⎥
⎣ 4 1 ⎦
59. For three events A, B and C, P (Exactly one of A or
B occurs) = P(Exactly one of B or C occurs) 2 3
1 A I
= P (Exactly one of C or A occurs) = and 4 1
4
1 = (2 – 2– + 2) – 12
P(All the three events occur simultaneously) = .
16
Then the probability that at least one of the events f ( ) 2 3 10
occurs, is
∵ A satisfies f ( )
3 7
(1) (2) A2 – 3A –10I = 0
16 32
7 7 A2 – 3A = 10I
(3) (4)
16 64 3A2 – 9A = 30I
Answer (3) 3A2 + 12A = 30I + 21A
1
Sol. P ( A) P (B ) P ( A B )
4 ⎡30 0 ⎤ ⎡ 42 63 ⎤
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
1 ⎢⎣ 0 30 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 84 21 ⎥⎦
P (B ) P (C ) P (B C )
4 ⎡ 72 63 ⎤
⎢ ⎥
1 ⎢⎣ 84 51 ⎥⎦
P (C ) P ( A) P ( A C )
4
P ( A) P (B ) P (C ) P ( A B ) P (B C ) ⎡ 51 63 ⎤
3 adj(3 A2 12 A) ⎢ ⎥
P( A C ) ⎢⎣84 72 ⎥⎦
8
19
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
PART–C : CHEMISTRY
61. Which of the following compounds will form 63. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following
significant amount of meta product during halides for the SN1 reaction is
mono-nitration reaction?
I. CH 3CHCH 2CH 3
OH
Cl
OCOCH3 (1) (III) < (II) < (I) (2) (II) < (I) < (III)
(3) (I) < (III) < (II) (4) (II) < (III) < (I)
(2)
Answer (2)
Sol. Rate of SN1 reaction stability of carbocation
NH2
I. CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3 CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3
(3)
Cl
NH3 NH3 NH3 64. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen
atom is
NO2
+ + (Planck's Const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js;
NO2 mass of electron = 9.1091 × 10–31 kg;
(51%) (2%)
NO2
charge of electron e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C;
(47%)
permittivity of vacuum
62. U is equal to 0 = 8.854185 × 10–12 kg–1 m–3 A2)
(1) Isochoric work (1) 1.65 Å
(2) Isobaric work (2) 4.76 Å
(3) Adiabatic work (3) 0.529 Å
U = W = 2.12 Å
20
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
65. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base Answer (3)
(BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively, The pH of their
salt (AB) solution is 10
Sol. Mass of hydrogen = 75 = 7.5 kg
100
(1) 7.2
Replacing 1H by 2H would replace 7.5 kg with 15 kg
(2) 6.9
Net gain = 7.5 kg
(3) 7.0 68. Which of the following, upon treatment with
tert-BuONa followed by addition of bromine water,
(4) 1.0
fails to decolourize the colour of bromine?
Answer (2)
O
(1)
1
Sol. pH = 7 +
2
pK a – pKb Br
C6H5
1 (2)
= 7+ 3.2 – 3.4 Br
2
= 6.9 O
(3)
66. The formation of which of the following polymers Br
involves hydrolysis reaction?
O
(1) Nylon 6
–Ea /RT
k2 = Ae 2
CH3
CH3 – *CH –*C – CH2 – CH3 k2 1
Ea – Ea2
= e RT 1
Br H k1
Product (X)
k 2 Ea1 – Ea2
ln =
Since product (X) contains two chiral centres and it k1 RT
is unsymmetrical.
10 103
= 4
So, its total stereoisomers = 22 = 4. 8.314 300
22
JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
74. The correct sequence of reagents for the following Answer (2)
conversion will be
Sol. For Tyndall effect refractive index of dispersion phase
and dispersion medium must differ significantly.
O HO CH3 Secondly, size of dispersed phase should not differ
much from wavelength used.
76. Which of the following compounds will behave as a
reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH solution?
HO CH3
CHO
CH3 HOH2C O CH2OH
O O
OH
+ – +
[Ag(NH3)2] OH CH3 – OH/H
HOH2C O CH2OH
Sol. Esterification
OH
O (i) CH3MgBr HO CH3
(3 moles) HOH2C
(ii) H2O O CH OCH
2 3
CH3 (4) OH
C – OCH3 HO – C OH
O CH3
OH
75. The Tyndall effect is observed only when following Answer (1)
conditions are satisfied
Sol. Sugars in which there is free anomeric –OH group
(a) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much are reducing sugars
smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
OH
(b) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not
much smaller than the wavelength of the light CH2 O CH2 – OH
used O KOH(aq)
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JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
77. Given 79. The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with
cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are
C(graphite) + O2(g) CO2(g);
(1) ClO– and ClO3–
rHº = –393.5 kJ mol–1
(2) ClO2– and ClO3–
1 (3) Cl– and ClO–
H2(g) + O2 (g) H2O(l);
2
(4) Cl– and ClO2–
rHº = –285.8 kJ mol–1 Answer (3)
CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) CH4(g) + 2O2(g);
Sol. Cl2 2NaOH NaCl NaOCl H2 O
Cold & dilute Sodium
rHº = +890.3 kJ mol–1 hypochlorite
Based on the above thermochemical equations, the 80. The major product obtained in the following reaction
value of rHº at 298 K for the reaction is
C(graphite) + 2H2(g) CH4(g) will be Br
mol–1 H
(1) +74.8 kJ t-BuOK
C6H5
(2) +144.0 kJ mol–1 C6H5
(+)
(3) –74.8 kJ mol–1
(1) (±)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
(4) –144.0 kJ mol–1
(2) C6H5CH = CHC6H5
Answer (3) (3) (+)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
Sol. C(graphite) + O2(g) CO2(g); (4) (–)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
rH° = –393.5 kJ mol–1 ...(i) Answer (2)
1 Br
H2 (g) O2 (g) H2O(l);
2 H t-BuOK
Sol. C6H5 C6H5
rH° = –285.8 kJ mol–1
...(ii) C6H5 (E-2) C6H5
(+)
CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) CH4(g) + 2O2(g);
81. Sodium salt of an organic acid 'X' produces
rH° = 890.3 kJ mol–1 ...(iii)
effervescence with conc. H2SO4. 'X' reacts with the
By applying the operation acidified aqueous CaCl2 solution to give a white
precipitate which decolourises acidic solution of
(i) + 2 × (ii) + (iii), we get
KMnO4. 'X' is
C(graphite) + 2H2(g) CH4(g); (1) C6H5COONa
rH°= –393.5 –285.8 × 2 + 890.3 (2) HCOONa
= –74.8 kJ mol–1 (3) CH3COONa
78. Which of the following reactions is an example of a (4) Na2C2O4
redox reaction? Answer (4)
(1) XeF4 + O2F2 XeF6 + O2
Sol. Na2C2O4 H2SO4
Na2SO4 H2C2O4
(2) XeF2 + PF5 [XeF]+ PF6– ( X) Conc. oxalic acid
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JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
82. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic? 84. Which of the following molecules is least resonance
stabilized?
(1) NO
(2) CO
(1)
(3) O2
(4) B2
O
orbitals.
Answer (4)
83. The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.45ºC
when 0.2 g of acetic acid is added to 20 g of Sol. However, all molecules given in options are stabilised
benzene. If acetic acid associates to form a dimer by resonance but compound given in option (2) is
in benzene, percentage association of acetic acid in least resonance stabilised (other three are aromatic)
benzene will be
Answer (4)
85. On treatment of 100 mL of 0.1 M solution of
0.2 / 60 CoCl3 6H2O with excess AgNO3; 1.2 × 1022 ions are
Sol. 0.45 = i(5.12) 1000
20 precipitated. The complex is
i = 0.527 (1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl 2H2O
CH3COOH2
2CH3 COOH (2) [Co(H2O)3Cl3] 3H2O
1–
2 (3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
1.2 1022
0.527 = 1 – Sol. Millimoles of AgNO3 = 1000 = 20
2 6 1023
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JEE (MAIN)-2017 (Code-B)
86. The major product obtained in the following reaction Answer (3)
is –
Sol. Permissible limit of F in drinking water is upto
–
1 ppm. Excess concentration of F > 10 ppm
O
O causes decay of bones.
88. 1 gram of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with
DIBAL-H
excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of CO2. The
molar mass of M2CO3 in g mol–1 is
CHO 1
(2) MM2CO3 =
0.01186
CHO = 84.3 g/mol
89. Given
CHO
º º
(3) ECl – 1.36 V, ECr 3 –0.74 V
2 /Cl /Cr
COOH
º º
ECr O2– /Cr 3
1.33 V, EMnO –
/Mn2
1.51 V
2 7 4
CHO
(4) Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is
CHO (1) Cr (2) Mn2+
Answer (2) (3) Cr3+ (4) Cl–
Sol. DIBAL — H reduces esters and carboxylic acids Answer (1)
into aldehydes
Sol. For Cr3+ , E°Cr 3+ /Cr O2– = – 1.33 V
2 7
O O OH H O
For Cl–, E°Cl– /Cl = – 1.36 V
2
87. A water sample has ppm level concentration of Positive E° is for Cr, hence it is strongest reducing
following anions agent.
F– = 10; SO42– = 100; NO3– = 50 90. The group having isoelectronic species is
The anion/anions that make/makes the water sample (1) O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+
unsuitable for drinking is/are (2) O–, F–, Na, Mg+
(1) Only NO3– (3) O2–, F–, Na, Mg2+
(2) Both SO42– and NO3– (4) O–, F–, Na+, Mg2+
(3) Only F– Answer (1)
(4) Only SO42– Sol. Mg2+, Na+, O2– and F– all have 10 electrons each.
26