CLASS

CLASS: X (ICSE)
VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
PHYSICS
Daily Practice Problems
DPP NO. 01TOPIC : FORCE1.
Fill in the blanks(a) Force is an agent whose action either produces __________ in a body or changes the
shape of a body.(b) Non-contact forces are __________, central forces. They are always action-reaction
forces.(c) Non-contact forces arise due to the _____________ of some particle between the two
interacting bodies.(d) A push or a pull is always a _________ ; the _________ is the change produced in
the body.(e) Application of brakes _________ the speed of a car.
2.
Multiple choice Questions
(a)
A force can be completely described by(A) its magnitude(B) its direction(C) its magnitude and
direction(D) neither magnitude nor direction
(b)
The Sl unit of force is(A) newton(B) newton per second(C) newton-metre(D) newton per square metre.
(c)
Friction between two flat surface can be reduced by(A) greasing(B) painting(C) using ball bearing(D)
decreasing the area.
(d)
The one which has the least magnitude is(A) static friction(B) rolling friction(C) sliding friction(D) limiting
friction
3.
Why is it difficult to balance our body, when we accidentally step on a peel of banana ?
4.
Explain why the sole of our shoe wears out.
5.
Quick sand consists of very smooth and tiny grains of sand. What would happen, if a man or a heavy
animalsteps over a patch of such sand in a desert ?
6.
Wet surface are more slippery. Give reason.
7.
Explain the following :(i) Why is the surface of automobile tyres made rough ?(ii) Why does a badminton
player shuffle his shoes in resin ?(iii) Why does a hovercraft travel faster than the speed boat in sea
water ?(iv) Why is the surface of conveyor belt made rough ?
8.
Why is it easier to tie a jute knot than silk knot ?
9.
What is the weight of a body of mass 12 kg? What is the force acting on it ? (g = 10 ms
–2
10.
If ‘m’ is the mass of the body, ‘v’ its velocity and ‘p’ the momentum then write a relationship between
changein momentum, mass and velocity of the body then(i) v is almost equal to c, the velocity of
light.(ii) v is very - very less as compared to c, the velocity of light.
DPP NO. 02TOPIC : FORCE1.
Fill in the blanks :(a) Applying a deforming force changes the ____________ of a non-rigid object.(b)
Force = mass × _____________ (c) Newton is the unit of ____________ .(d) 1 newton = ____________
dyne.(e) In Sl force is measured in ____________
2.
Multiple Choice Question:
(a)
Force of friction does not depend upon(A) nature of surface(B) weight of the body(C) are of contact(D)
nature of bodies
(b)
Which is not a non-contact force(A) Gravitational(B) Electrostatic(C) Magnetic(D) Frictional.
(c)
1 N is equal to(A) 1000 dyne(B) 10
dyne(C) 10 dyne(D) 10
dyne
(d)
1 Newton is a force which produces(A) an acceleration of 1 ms
–2
in a body of mass 1 g.(B) an acceleration of 1 ms
–2
in a body of mass 1 kg.(C) an acceleration of 1 cms
–2
in a body of mass 1 kg.(D) an acceleration of 1 ms
–2
in a body of mass 10 g.
3.
A horse has to pull the cart harder during first few steps of motion. Explain why.
4.
Carts with rubber tyres are easier to ply than those with iron tyre. Explain.
5.
What is meant by non-contact forces ? Give three examples.
6.
One what factor does the maximum or limiting value of contact forces depend ? What happens if this
limit isexceeded ?
7.
What is meant by :(i) a rigid body and(ii) a non-rigid body.
8.
(i) Define the term momentum(ii) How is force related to the momentum of a body ?(iii) State the
condition when the change in momentum of body depends only on the change in its velocity.
9.
A body of mass 50 kg has a momentum of 3000 kg ms
–1
Calculate :(i) the kinetic energy of the body(ii) the velocity of the body
10.
(i) Define one newton.(ii) Write the relation between Sl and cgs unit of force.
DPP NO. 03TOPIC : SOUND1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The audible range of frequencies for a normal human being is______to________.(b)
________have frequencies less than 20hertz(c) ________have frequencies more than 20,000hertz.(d)
Speed of sound is________in solid, liquids and gases.(e) Echo is produced if the distance between the
source of sound and the listener is more than________ (f) SONAR uses________waves.
2.
Multiple choice Questions:
(a)
The minimum distance between the source of sound and reflector, so that an echo is heard for simple
sound is(A) 10m(B) 17m(C) 34m(D) 50m
(b)
The minimum distance between the source of sound and reflector, so that an echo is heard for
particulatesound is(A) 10m(B) 17m(C) 34m(D) 50m
(c)
The audible range for a normal human being is(A) 10Hz to 20,000 Hz(B) 20Hz to 20 kHz(C) 10Hz to 50
kHz(D) 20Hz to 1000 Hz
3.
Explain why echoes can’t be heard in a small room.
4.
Why can we hear echoes in long galleries and big halls?
5.
Briefly explain the working of SONAR
6.
Differentiate between forced vibration and resonance.
7.
A vibrating turning fork is placed on a sonometer box and the distance between the bridges is adjusted
untilthe paper rider in the middle of the wire (between the bridges) files off. Identify the forced
vibration andresonance. Explain briefly.
8.
Calculate the minimum distance between a source and a large obstacle, for a distinct echo to be
heard.(Take velocity of sound to be 340ms
–1
9.
A boy stands at a distance of 30m in front of a large cave and shouts. Is he likely to hear an echo? Why
doyou think so?
10.
A laser is a source of very intense, monochromatic and unidirectional beam of light. Calculate the time
takenby a laser beam from the earth to return to the earth after reflection from the moon’s surface.
Take thedistance of the moon from the earth to be 3.84 × 10
m and the speed of light 3.00 x 10
ms
–1
DPP NO. 04TOPIC : SOUND1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The phenomenon of________is utilised by bats and dolphins(b) When a stretched
string is plucked, it executes________ (c) The vibrations which takes place under the influence of
external periodic forces are called________.(d) The phenomenon of setting a body into oscillations with
its natural frequency by another body vibrating with the same frequency is called________ (e) Loudness
is the________of sensation of sound produced.
2.
(a)
Ultrasonic’s are not used in(A) SONAR(B) sonography(C) CUSA(D) radio waves
(b)
Bats detect their prey by receiving the reflected(A) radio wave(B) ultrasonic(C) infrasonic(D) sound
waves
(c)
The frequency of vibrating string depends upon(A) length of string(B) tension in string(C) mass per unit
length of string(D) all of these
(d)
Intensity of sound does not depend upon(A) amplitude(B) frequency(C) density(D) mass of body
3.
Bats have no eyes, still they can ascertain distances, directions, nature and size of the objects. Explain
why?
4.
Sound in produced due to a vibratory motion, then why does a vibrating pendulum not produce sound?
5.
Distinguish between(a) intensity and loudness,(b) frequency and pitch,(c) timbre and wave form of
sound.
6.
What is noise? What are its bad effects?
7.
A sonar signal (high frequency sound wave) sent down from a ship, is reflected from the ocean floor
anddetected by a microphone on the keel (of the ship) after transmission in 0.6s. The speed of sound in
seawater is 1500ms
–1
. Calculate the depth of the ocean.
8.
A loudspeaker is directed a large building 105m from it. What is the interval between a sharp sound
from thespeaker and its echo if any? (v = 350ms
–1
).
9.
A man standing in a gorge between two large cliffs gives a short sharp shout. He hears two echoes, the
firstafter 1 second and the next after 1.5 seconds (after his shout). The speed of sound is 340ms
–1
. Calculate(a) the distance of the man from each cliff and(b) the distance between the cliffs.
10.
A man standing between two cliffs fires a gun and hears an echo every second. The distance of the man
fromthe nearer cliff is 175m. Calculate(a) the speed of sound and(b) the distance between the cliffs.
DPP NO. 05TOPIC : WORK POWER ENERGY1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The main constituent of petroleum gas is__________ (b) The dams constructed to
store water, help in controlling__________and in__________ (c) Biogas is primarily a mixture
of__________and__________ (d) During fission or fusion mass of the product nucleus and particle
is__________than the mass of thereactants.(e) The amount of energy produced by burning a unit mass
of fuel completely is known as its__________value.
2.
Multiple Choice Question:(a) The nuclear fuel in the sun in(A) helium(B) uranium(C) hydrogen(D)
radium(b) Minimum velocity of wind required for a windmill is about(A) 15 kmh
–1
(B) 25 kmh
–1
(C) 30 kmh
–1
(D) any velocity will do(c) Which of the following is not a fossil fuel(A) coal(B) petroleum(C) biogas(C)
wood(d) The average amount of energy released during the fission of uranium atom is(A) 100 MeV(B)
150 MeV(C) 20 MeV(D) 200 MeV(e) Fission of U-235 is caused by(A) fast neutrons(B) slow neutrons(C)
both (A) & (B)(D) niether (A) nor (B)
3.
Why is it no possible to make use of solar cells to meet all our energy needs? State at least two reasons
tosupport your answer.
4.
Mention any four areas where solar cells are being used as a source of energy.
5.
Why wind energy farms can be established only at specific locations. Give reasons to support your
answer.
6.
Why are fossil classified as non-renewable sources of energy? What steps should be taken to
conservethese sources?
7.
What is a wind energy power station? How does it work?
8.
What is energy degradation? Give some examples form daily life.
9.
What is the composition of liquefied petroleum gas?
10.
What is the fuel used in a nuclear reactor?
Fill in the blanks(a) The kinetic energy of a body is by virtue of its ____________.(b) The potential energy
of a body is by virtue of its _________ (c) Work is said to be done if a force_______a body through a
certain distance in the direction of
displacement.(d) Work done is said to be positive if the applied force has a_______in the direction of
displacement.(e) Work done is said to be negative it the applied force has a_____in the direction
opposite to
displacement.
2.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(a)
When a coil spring is compressed, the work is done on the spring. The elastic potential energy(A)
increases(B) decreases(C) disappears(D) remains unchanged
(b)
Potential energy of a person is minimum when(A) person is standing(B) person is sitting in a chair (C)
person is sitting on the ground(D) person is lying on the ground
(c)
No work is done when(A) nail is hammered into a wooden box(B) a box is pushed along horizontal
floor.(C) there is no component of force, parallel to the direction of motion(D) none of these
(d)
When the speed of a moving object is double, its(A) acceleration is doubled(B) weight is doubled(C)
kinetic energy is doubled(D) kinetic energy increases 4 times
(e)
A weight-lifter lifts 240 kg from the ground to a height of 2.5 m in 3 seconds. His average power is(A)
1960 W(B) 19.6 KW(C) 1.96 KW(D) 196 W
3.
Justify giving proper reasoning whether the work done in the following cases is positive or negative:(a)
working done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.(b) work
done by gravitational force in the above case.(c) work done by friction on a body sliding down an
inclined plane.(d) work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with
uniform velocity.(e) work done by resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
4.
What is the work done by a coolie walking on a horizontal platform with a load on his hand?
5.
The work done in lifting a box on to a platform does not depend upon how fast it is lifted up. Explain
your answer giving proper reasoning.
6.
A body moves along a circular path. How much work is done in doing so? Explain.
7.
A force F while acting on a body displaces it by a distance d in a direction different from the direction of
force.Write the expression for the work done by the force.
8.
State the work energy theorem.
9.
A light and a heavy mass have equal momentum. Which will have more kinetic energy and why?
10.
In how much time can a water pump of 500W, lift 1000kg of water to an overhead tank situated at a
height of 7m?
Fill in the blanks:(a) Work done is said to be zero if the applied force is______to the direction of
displacement.(b) Work done is said to be one joule if a force of one______displaces a body through a
distance of
one______inthe direction of force.(c) The______of a body to do work is called energy.(d) The rate of
doing work is called______.(e) Instantaneous power is the product of force and______.
2.
(a)
An object of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 5 m above the ground. The loss of potential energy of
the mass is(A) 250 J(B) 25 J(C) 2.5 J(D) 50 J
(b)
A boy throws a ball vertically upwards. As the ball rises its total energy (neglect friction)(A) decreases(B)
increases(C) remains same(D) none of these
(c)
When a force retards the motion of a body the work done is(A) positive(B) zero(C) negative(D) uncertain
(d)
A body at rest may have(A) potential energy(B) kinetic energy(C) velocity(D) momentum
(e)
The work done by a force on a body will be positive if the(A) body does not moves(B) body moves
perpendicular to the direction of motion(C) body moves along the direction of the applied force(D) body
moves opposite to the direction of the applied force.
3.
A spring which has been kept compressed by tying its ends together is allowed to be dissolved in an
acid.What happens to the potential energy of the spring?
4.
A light body and a heavy body have the same kinetic energy. Which one will have the greater
momentum?
5.
(a) Can a body have energy without having momentum? Explain.(b) Can a body have momentum
without having energy? Explain.
6.
What happens to the kinetic energy when(i) the mass of the body is doubled at constant velocity?(ii) the
velocity of the body is doubled at constant mass(iii) the mass of the body is doubled but the velocity is
reduced to half?
7.
What kinetic of energy is possessed by the following(i) A man climbing a hill(ii) Water stored in a dam(iii)
A compressed spring(iv) Running water(v) A stretched rubber band(vi) A stretched blow
8.
A dog of mass 25kg running after a cat of mass 4kg possesses the same kinetic energy as that of the
cat.Calculate the ratio of the velocities of the two.
9.
A pump is used to lift 500kg of water from a depth of 80m in 10s. Calculate the work done by the
pump.(g = 10ms
–2
10.
A machines raises a load of 750N through a height of 16m in 5second. Calculate the power at which
themachine works.
DPP NO. 08TOPIC : SIMPLE MACHINES1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The mechanical advantage of block and tackle combination is equal to the number
of_____________presentsin the combination.(b) A combination of a single fixed and single movable
pulleys has_____________pulleys in the combination.(c) If the pulley is not frictionless then the effort
is_____________than the load.(d) Gears are a set of toothed wheels working together to
transfer________motion from one gear to the other.(e) The ratio N
/N
, i.e., the ratio of the number of teeth on the driving wheel to that on the driven wheel,
iscalled_____________ratio.
2.
(a)
In an ideal following levers in order of the class to which they belong A knife, a nut a see saw(A) I, II,
III(B) III, I, II(C) III, II, I(D) I, III, II
(b)
In a single fixed pulley, if the effort is applied through a distance x, the load will be lifted through a
distance(A) 2x(B) x/2(C) x(D) none of these
(c)
If a system of pulley is not frictionless and the pulleys are not weightless, then(A) MA > VR(B) MA =
VR(C)VR > MA(D) none of these
(d)
In an actual machine, if w
and w
denote the input and the output of the machine, then(A) w
=w
(B) w
<w
1
(C) w
<w
(D) none of these
(e)
The speed of rotation of a gear is(A) proportional of the number of teeth(B) inversely proportional to the
number of teeth(C) proportional to the square of the number of teeth(D) inversely proportional to the
square of the number of teeth
3.
Derive expressions for MA and efficiency
of a single movable system of pulley, without neglecting frictionalforces (f) and the weight of the
movable pulley w.
4.
What is the principle of an inclined plant? Draw a labelled force diagram. Give one good reason why it
can beconsidered as a machine.
5.
What are gears? mention two functions.
6.
A singe fixed pulley is used to raise a load of 27 N from the ground to the first floor of a building. The
efficiencyof the system is found to be 90%.(a) Calculate the mechanical advantage(b) the effort applied,
and(c) the frictional force experienced.
7.
A lock and tackle with a VR of 5 is used to raise a mass of 20 kg through a vertical distance of 50 cm at
asteady rate. If the effort used is equal to 50 N determine(a) the distance moved by the effort,(b) the
work done by the effort in lifting the load,(c) the loss in energy involved in operating the machine.
8.
Draw a labelled diagram of a block and tackle pulley system which has three pulleys in all. The efficiency
of this machine is 75%(a) Calculate the load raised by an effort of 16 N(b) How far is the load raised, if
the effort moves by 81 cm?
9.
The length of ramp of walking on to a state is 1.5 m.The velocity ratio, treating the ramp as in inclined
plane,is 105(a) if the frictional force can be neglected, what is its MA?(b) what is the minimum effort
required to roll a drum of mass 150 kg upto the stage?(c) Calculate the height of the stage.
10.
A block and tackle with 5 pulleys is found to have a MA of 4 when a load of 5N is raised by it.
Calculate:(a) The effort applied(b) VR(c) efficiency(d) The total resistance (R) due to friction.
DPP NO. 09TOPIC : REFRACTION AT PLANE SURFACES1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) Light refracts because it has__________speeds in different media(b) The principles
of reversibility of light states that, when the final path of a ray of light after any number of reflections
and refractions is reversed, the ray__________its path.(c) The__________image formed by a thick glass
plate or mirror is the biggest.(d) Wavelength of green light is__________than that of violet light but
is__________than that of yellowcolour.(e) In a prism placed in the minimum deviation position D
= 38° and angle of prism is 60°, the angle of incidence is__________
2.
(a)
When a ray of light moves from an optically rarer to an optically denser medium it bends(A) towards the
normal(B) away from the normal(C) passes un-deviated(D) none of these
(b)
The deviation produced by a prism when light is incident on it does not depend upon(A) size of prism(B)
material of prism(C) angle of incidence(D) wavelength of light used
(c)
The wavelength of light decreases n times in a medium of refractive index n. A driver from inside water
looksat the object whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as(A) green(B) red(C) blue(D) yellow
(d)
The minimum value of refractive index is(A) zero(B) less than one but not zero(C) one(D) more than one
(e)
The velocity of lights is minimum in(A) water(B) glass(C) diamond(D) air

3.
For the same angles of incidence, the angles of refraction in three different media A, B, C are 25°, 35°,
150°,in which of these media is the velocity of light minimum?
4.
Refractive index of water w.r.t air is 4/3 while that of glass is 3/2. Find the refractive index of glass w.r.t
water?
5.
Watching the sunset on a beach, one can see the sun for several minutes after it has actually set.
Explain.
6.
Paraffin oil has greater refractive index than water. What does it mean? Answer briefly in two different
ways.
7.
Describe briefly how can verify Snell’s first law of refraction.
8.
A ray of light passes form air to glass (n = 1.5) at an angle of 30°. Calculate the angle of refraction. What
isthe speed of light in glass?
9.
Refractive indices of water and glass with respect to air are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. A ray of light
travellingfrom water in incident.
10.
The refractive index of diamond is 2.47 and that of glass is 1.51. How much faster does light travel in
glassthan in diamond.
DPP NO. 10TOPIC : REFRACTION THROUGH LENSES1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) When a concave lens is combined with a convex lens the focal length of the resulting
convex lens ___________.(b) Power of lens in dioptre is___________of the focal length of the lens in
meters.(c) A convex lens is___________whereas a concave is___________at the centre.(d) Both the
focal lengths of a lens are equal if medium is___________on both sides of the lens.(e) A ray of light
passes through a lens un-deviated when it passes through the___________.
2.
Multiple choice Question:

(a)
A concave lens always forms an image which is(A) virtual, erect and magnified(B) virtual, erect and
diminished(C) real, erect and diminished(D) real, inverted and diminished
(b)
A convex lens forms an image which is real, inverted and equal to the size of the object if the object is
placed(A) at infinity(B) between F and 2F(C) between optical centre and focus(D) at focus
(c)
The magnification produced by a convex lens.(A) is always greater than 1 and positive(B) is always
greater than 1 and -ve(C) May have any value +ve or -ve(D) is always equal to +1
(d)
The magnification of a concave lens is(A) always +1(B) always –1(C) always < + 1(D) none of these
(e)
For a combinations of a convex lens of focal length f
and concave lens of focal length f
to be converging.(A) f
>f
(B) f
<f
(C) f
and f
may have any values(D) convergent combination is not possible
3.
Is it possible for a lens to act as a convergent lens in one medium and a divergent lens in another?
4.
How will you decide whether a given piece of glass is a convex lens, concave lens or a plane glass plate?
5.
What is the difference between a double convex and a bi-convex lens?
6.
What will be the nature of the image if it is inverted?
7.
Diagram below shows an object AB placed on the principal axis of a convex lens placed in air. F
and F
arethe two foci of the lens. Copy the diagram(a) Draw a ray of light starting from B and passing through
O. show the same ray after refraction by the lens.(b) Draw another ray from B which passes through F
after refraction by the lens.
8.
What is a magnifying glass? Mention three uses. What are the characteristics of the image formed?
Whattype of lens is used? Why cannot we use the other type of lens?
9.
Prepare a Table of the positions of the image, nature of image and size of the image for various
typicalpositions (may be 6) of the object in front of a converging lens.
10.
State two difference between using a magnifying glass adjusted to view the image at the least distnace
of distinct vision and at very large distance.
DPP NO. 11TOPIC : DISPERSION OF LIGHT1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) When white light is passed through the prism red colour bends
the____________.(b) Recombination of seven colours of dispersed white light into white light again is
also called____________ (c) When white light passes through the prism____________.(d)
____________are produced by changes in the nucleus.(e) Energy of the order of a few MeV is possessed
by____________.
2.
Multiple choice Question
(a)
The colour of light which is deviated the least by a prism in the spectrum of white light is:(A) Red(B)
Green(C) Violet(D) Yellow
(b)
Which of the following is a source of ultraviolet light?(A) Electric bulb(B) Carbon arc(C) Red hot iron
bulb(D) Sodium vapour lamp
(c)
Which of the following is correct?(A)
blue
>
yellow
>
green
(B)
yellow
>
green
>
blue
(C)
yellow
>
blue
>
green
(D)
green
>
blue
>
yellow
(d)
Which of the following radiations are not absorbed by quartz(A) Infrared(B) Microwaves(C)
Ultraviolet(D) X-rays
3.
A prism causes dispersion of white light while a rectangular glass block does not. Explain.
4.
How will you investigate the existence of the radiation beyond the red and violet extremes of the
spectrum?
5.
What is cause of dispersion?
6.
Write approximate wavelengths for (i) blue and(ii) a red light.Which colour has the higher speed in
vacuum? Which colour has the higher speed in glass?
7.
Write the range of wavelength of (i) the visible spectrum,(ii) the ultraviolet spectrum, and(iii) the
infrared spectrum.
8.
Will any spectrum of light be observed when incident light is monochromatic?
9.
What is meant by:(a) dispersion in a prism(b) spectrum? Draw a ray diagram to illustrate these.
10.
Write down the colours of the spectrum produced when white light is passed through a prism. Which of
thesecolours is deviated most?
DPP NO. 12TOPIC : DISPERSION OF LIGHT1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) X-ray can pass through flesh but not through_____________.(b) _____________are
used for taking photograph in the dark.(c) _____________prism is required for obtaining spectrum of
the ultraviolet light.(d) A rock-salt prism is used instead of glass prism for obtaining the spectrum
of_____________.(e) A convex lens focuses the_____________radiations from sun a paper due to which
paper burns.
2.
(a)
The two colours of light which have wavelength greater than that of green are:(A) Yellow and blue(B) X-
rays and red(C) Yellow and yellow(D) Red and orange
(b)
Name two electromagnetic waves of frequency greater than that of violet light.(A) X-rays and
Ultraviolet(B) X-rays and red(C) Ultraviolet and yellow(D) Red and orange
(c)
The colour which travels fastest in any medium other than vacuum is(A) Red(B) Violet(C) Green(D)
Yellow
(d)
The relation between velocity c, wavelength
, and frequency n of an electromagnetic wave is(A) c =
/n(B) n =
c(C) c = n
(D) none of these
3.
Show the different colours when white light is incident on a prism. Also how they can be combined to
getback white light.
4.
Arrange the following in the decreasing order of velocity of light in the medium.
5.
Which of the following radiation is most energetic.
6.
Give two uses of each of the following radiations.
7.
Why are electromagnetic waves not affected by electric and magnetic fields?
8.
A wave has a wavelength of 0.01Å (or 0.001nm = 1 pm). Name the wave.
9.
State two important properties and two uses of :(a) gamma rays(b) x-rays(c) UV rays(d) IR radiations(e)
microwaves and(f) radio waves
10.
State three properties which are common to all types of electromagnetic radiation.
DPP NO. 13TOPIC : CURRENT ELECTRICITY1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The work done by an external force in bringing the charges from infinity to form the
system is called________.(b) The unit of potential difference is________.(c) The unit of Joule/Coulomb
is the same as________.(d) Battery converts________energy into________energy.(e) The charge
passing per unit time through a given area of cross section is called________
2.
(a)
The resistance of a 40cm long wire is 8ohm. The wire is stretched to a uniform wire of 60cm length.
Theresistance will now he(A) 18 ohm(B) 16ohm(C) 8 ohm(D) 2 ohm
(b)
The example of a non-ohmic resistance is(A) tungsten wire(B) carbon resistance(C) diode(D) copper wire
(c)
Resistors of values 1, 2 and 3 ohm are connected in the form of a triangle. If a 1.5V cell of negligible
internalresistance is connected across the 3 ohm resistor, the current flowing through it (3 Ohm resistor)
is(A) 1.5 ampere(B)1.0 ampere(C) 0.5 ampere(D) 0.25 ampere
(d)
A current of 4.8 ampere is flowing in a conductor. The number of electrons flowing per second through
theconductor is(A) 76.8 × 10
20
(B) 7.68 × 10
20
(C) 3 × 10
20
(D) 3 × 10
19
(e)
A uniform wire of resistance R ohm is divided into ten equal parts and all of them are connected in
parallel.Thenet conductor is(A) 0.01 R(B) 0.1 R(C) 10R(D)100R
3.
Electric current is due to the flow of electrons in a particular direction, but the direction of current in a
circuitis taken to be opposite to that of the flow of electrons. Why?
4.
Currents of the order of 0.1 A, through the human body are fatal. What causes the death: heating of the
bodydue to electric current or something else?
5.
There is an impression among many people that a person touching a high power line gets stuck with the
line.Is this true? Explain.
6.
What is the cause of resistance?
7.
Define one ampere.
8.
10
20
electrons each having a charge of 1.6 – 10
–19
coulomb, pass a point A towards a point B in 0.1s. Whatis the current in ampere?
9.
A uniform wire is cut into 10segments increasing in length in equal steps, the resistance of the
shortestsegment is R and the resistance of other segments increases in steps of 8ohm. If the resistance
of thelongest segment is 2R, find the value of R and the resistance of the original wire.
10.
A parallel combination of three resistors takes a current of 7.5 ampere from a 30V battery. If two of
theresistors have resistance of 10 ohm and 12 ohm, find the resistance of the third resistor.
DPP NO. 14TOPIC : CURRENT ELECTRICITY1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) Resistance of a conductor is measured in__________ (b) Materials having a very low
value of resistance are called__________ (c) Resistivity of a conductor__________with increase in the
temperature of the conductor.(d) If we want to increase the resistance, we can connect the resistors
in__________.(e) If we want to decrease the resistance, we can convert the resistors in__________.
2.
(a)
A certain piece of copper is to be shaped into a conductor of minimum resistance. Its length and
diametershouldbe(A) L, d(B) 2L, d(C) L/2,2d(D) 2L,d/2
(b)
The resultant resistance value of n resistance each of resistance r ohm when connected in parallel' x
Whenthese are connected in series, the resultant values is(A) nX(B) n
X(C) rnX(D) r
x/n
(c)
A wire is stretched to thrice its original length, its new resistance is(A) one-third(B) three-times(C) one-
ninth(D) nine-times
(d)
A wire is stretched to thrice its original length, its new resistance is(A) one-third(B) three-times(C) one-
ninth(D) nine times
(e)
The example of an an ohmic resistance is(A) diode(B) silicon(C) diamond(D) nichrome
3.
(i) Why there is an increase in the resistance, when two resistors are connected in series?(ii) Why there
is a decrease in the resistance, when two resistors are connected in parallel?
4.
Bends in a rubber pipe reduce the flow of water through it. How would the bends in a wire affect its
electricresistance?
5.
Explain what causes resistance?
6.
Derive an expression for equivalent resistance when two resistors are connected in parallel.
7.
What is meant by series combination of resistors? Deduce an expression for the equivalent resistance
whentwo resistors are connected in series.
8.
Find the equivalent resistance in the following circuits.
9.
Find the equivalent resistance if the value of R in the circuit figure is 11 ohm
10.
Find the equivalent resistance for the combination of resistors shown in figure.
DPP NO. 15TOPIC : ELECTRICAL POWER & HOUSEHOLD CIRCUITS1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The effect of electric current due to which heat is produced in a wire when current is
passed through it iscalled ____________ heating.(b) Electric power is defined as the rate at
which____________is consumed in a circuit.(c) In SI unit power is measured in____________ (d)
Electrical energy is defined as the total amount of____________to maintain current n a circuit in a
giventime.(e) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in parallel, then____________wattage bulb glows
with maximumbrightness.(f) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in series, then ____________
wattage bulb glows with maximumbrightness.
2.
(a)
Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. Which of the two has a larger
resistance?(A) the dim bulb(B) the brighter bulb(C) both have the same resistance(D) none of these
(b)
If R
and R
are the filament resistance of a 200W and a 100W bulb respectively both designed to run at thesame
voltage then,(A) R
2
is four times R
(B) R
is four times R
(C) R
is two times R
(D) R
is four times R
(c)
An electric fan and an heater are marked as 100W, 220V and 1000W, 220V respectively. The resistance
of the heater is(A) equal to that of the fan(B) less than that of the fan(C) greater than that of the fan(D)
zero
(d)
You are given three bulbs of 25W, 40w and 60W. Which one of them has lowest resistance?(A) 60W
bulb(B) 40W bulb(C) 25W bulb(D) no conclusion can be drawn
(e)
The largest number of 100W bulbs connected in parallel which can safety be run from a 230V supply
with a5A fuse is(A) 2(B) 5(C) 11(D) 12
3.
Most of the applications of electrical energy utilise its heating effect and electromagnetic effect. Give
threeexamples of each.
4.
Starting from the definition of electrical pd, (V), obtain the relation for the work done (W) or energy
produced(H)in terms of V, current I, resistance R and time t.
5.
What are SI units of electrical energy? Define the former.
6.
What is the commercial unit of electrical energy? Define it. Obtain its relation with SI unit.
7.
Describe briefly with a diagram the first part of a house wiring system - including main fuse, meter,
mainswitch and three outlet points?
8.
What are the essential requirements of a fuse wire? Why are these required?
9.
A night lamp of 5W is used for 10hour daily on an average, a table lamp of 60W for 5 hours daily an a
geyser of 1.5kW for 1hour daily. Calculate the energy consumed by each in the month of April (in
commercial units).
10.
Three 250W heaters are connected in parallel to a 100V supply. Calculate :(i) total current drawn from
the supply(ii) resistance of each heater and(iii) energy consumed by the three heater in five hours.
DPP NO. 16TOPIC : ELECTRICAL POWER & HOUSEHOLD CIRCUITS1.
Fill in the blanks:
(a)
The power rating of an electrical device is the value of ___________ consumed by the device under
standardconditions.
(b)
In the ring circuit all appliances are connected in___________.
(c)
The switches and fuses are all on the ___________ side of the appliance.
(d)
The plug pins are split at the end to provide ___________ so that they can fit tightly into the socket
andhence avoid.
(e)
In writing a three pin plug, the brown sleeved wire is connected to ___________ pin and the
___________ sleeved wire is connected to the metal body of the appliance.
2.
(a)
The electric energy consumed when a current of I ampere flows through a resistance R for time t is(A) I R
t(B) l t
R(C) I R t(D) I
Rt
(b)
When the double pole main switch in the house is put off, t disconnects(A) live wire(B) neutral wire(C)
both live and neutral(D) earth wire
(c)
A fuse is always connected in the circuit containing the(A) live wire(B) neutral wire(C) both live and
neutral(D) earth wire
(d)
In accordance with the new and old conventions the colours of the insulation of the live wire.(A) brown,
black(B) blue, red(C) green, red(D) brown, red
(e)
When a fuse is rated 15A it means(A) it works only at 15A current(B) it burns above 15A(C) it consume a
power of 15W(D) it will not work at 15A current
3.
State two reasons as two why fuses blow.
4.
Describe briefly, with diagram, two types of fuses and state one advantage of each type.
5.
What steps should be taken before replacing a blown fuse?

6.
What is an electric switch? What are its type?
7.
What is meant by earthing of an electric appliance? How does earthing offer protection?
8.
Which part of an electric appliance is earthed?
9.
An electric heater is marked 500kVA, 220V. If the heater is operated for 1hour, calculate the energy
consumedin kWh and in J.
10.
For what length of time (t) can we use a (i) 100W bulb, (ii) 1000W immersion rod, (iii) 2kW electric iron
and(iv) a 5kW electric stove so as to consume just one commercial unit of energy costing Rs.2? Calculate
for each item separately.
DPP NO. 17TOPIC : ELECTROMAGNETISM1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The phenomenon of production of a magnetic field around a current carrying
conductor is called__________.(b) Magnetic field produced around a current carrying conductor is in
the form of__________ (c) Magnetic field at a point due to a straight conductor is __________
proportional to the distance from theconductor.(d) The direction of magnetic field due to straight
conductor is given by __________ (e) At the centre of a current carrying coil (loop) the magnetic field
lines are __________ (f) A current carrying solenoid behaves as a __________ magnet.
2.
Multiple choice Question :
(a)
A current carrying wire produces(A) an electric field(B) a magnetic field(C) both electric and magnetic
fields(D) neither electric nor magnetic field
(b)
By increasing the number of turns 3 times in a solenoid, the magnetic field(A) will become three
times(B) will remain unchanged(C) will reduce to one-third(D) none of these
(c)
The induced emf produced in a coil when a magnet is inserted in it doesn’t depend upon(A) number of
turns of the coil(B) the resistance of the coil(C) the magnetic moment of the magnet(D) the speed of
approach of the magnet
(d)
In a step-up-transformer, the turn ratio is 1 : 2. A leclanche cell (dc source) of emf 1.2V is connected
acrossthe primary. The voltage across the secondary is(A) zero(B) 2.4V(C) 0.60V(D)1.2V
(e)
A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the
solenoid.(A) shows no change(B) will decrease(C) will increase(D) uncertain
(f)
Inside a current carrying solenoid the magnetic lines of forces are(A) circular and do not intersect(B)
along the axis of the solenoid and parallel to each other (C) perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid(D)
none of these
3.
What is the greatest disadvantage with a suspended-type moving coil galvanometer?
4.
If the length of the suspension wire is increased does the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
increaseor decrease?
5.
If a mirror of greater radius of curvature replaces the mirror of a moving coil galvanometer, does the
sensitivityof the galvanometer increase or decrease?
6.
Why are the pole pieces of galvanometer made concave?
7.
Why it is more economical to transmit electrical energy at high voltage and low current?
8.
A coil carrying current is shown in figure. Copy the figure and draw the field lines around the coil. Show
thepolarity of the field lines.
9.
Give two uses of an electromagnet.
10.
Figure shows a magnet being moved into a coil such that the deflection in the galvanometer is as
shown.Show the direction of deflection in the following cases (i) the magnet is at rest inside the coil
figure (ii) themagnet is moved out of coil figure. (i) (ii)
DPP NO. 18TOPIC : ELECTROMAGNETISM1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) Magnetic field is _______________ between the two limbs of a horse-shoe
electromagnet(b) The number of turns in the primary is _______________ than the number of turns in
the secondary of astep-down transformer.(c) An electric motor converts _______________ into
mechanical energy.(d) A transformer can be used only in an _______________ circuit.(e) An electric
generator converts _______________ into electrical energy.
2.
(a)
The material of the core of a strong electromagnet is(A) steel(B) soft iron(C) wrought iron(D) brass
(b)
In an electric motor (A) electrical energy is transformed into mechanical energy(B) chemical energy is
transformed into mechanical energy(C) mechanical energy is transformed into electrical energy(D)
mechanical energy is transformed into chemical energy
(c)
The direction of induced emf is given by(A) Cork screw rule(B) Right hand thumb rule(C) Fleming’s left
hand rule(D) Fleming’s right hand rule
(d)
The principle of which of these devices is electromagnetism(A) Galvanometer(B) motor(C)

transformer(D) all
(e)
The magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is(A) directly proportional to r(B) inversely
proportional to r (C) directly proportional to r
(D) inversely proportional to r
(f)
The speed of the motor does not depend upon(A) the strength of the magnetic field(B) the current in
the coil(C) the number of turns in the armature coil(D) none of these
3.
In a transformer there is no transfer of charge from the primary to the secondary. How then is the
power transfered?
4.
Why can't we use the ordinary moving coil galvanometer for measuring ac current and voltage?
5.
Why should the core of a transformer be laminated?
6.
What should be the characteristic of the material, which forms the core of a transformer?
7.
Can a transformer work when it is connected to a dc source?
8.
Two coils of wire A and B are placed near one another as shown in figure. Coil A is connected to a switch
anda battery. Coil B is connected to a centre reading moving coil galvanometer.(a) If the switch
connected to coil A were closed for a few seconds and then opened, the galvanometer connected to coil
B will be affected. Explain and describe what happens.(b) What changes would you expect if a soft iron
rod is inserted through the centres of the coil?(c) What would happen if more turns were wound on coil
B?
9.
What is a transformer? What are its types?
10.
What type of energy conversion takes place in a (i) dc motor and (ii) ac generator?
DPP NO. 19TOPIC : CALORIMETRY1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) Both heat flow and temperature are associated with the concept of______________
(b) Heat is a form of energy in ______________ which excites in us the sensation of warmth.(c) The
calorie (cal) is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one ______________
of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C.(d) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body by
unity is called ______________ body.(e) The ______________ of the substance does not change when it
undergoes a phase change.
2.
(a)
With the increase of pressure, the melting point of ice(A) increases(B) decreases(C) may increase or
decrease(D) depends upon the temperature on that day
(b)
The specific heat of a substance depends upon(A) mass of the body(B) nature of the substance(C) rise to
temperature of the substance(D) all of these
(c)
The thermal capacity of a body depends only(A) the mass of the body(B) rise in temperature of the
body(C) both mass and specific heat of the body(D) on the shape of the body
(d)
The specific heat of water is
(A) 4200 J kg
–1
–1
(B) 420 J kg
–1
–1
(C) 42 J kg
-1
–1
(D) it has no units
(e)
When ice melts into water, its density(A) increases(B) decreases(C) remains constant(D) density is same
for all substances
3.
Why steam causes more severe burns than boiling water?
4.
Explain the following :(i) Bottled drinks are cooled more effectively when surrounded by lumps of ice
than iced water.(ii) Why does atmospheric temperature fall after a hail storm?(iii) Why does the
weather become pleasant when it starts freezing in cold countries?(iv) Why is water used as a coolant in
motor car radiations?(v) Why is water sprayed on roads in the evening in hot summer?(vi) Why does the
temperature in hot summer, fall sharply after a sharp shower?(vii) Why do sandy soils get heated up
quickly as compared to wet soils?(viii) Why is water considered as the best liquid for quenching
thirst?(ix) Why is it advisable to pour cold water over burns, caused on human body by hot solids?(x)
Why does a wise farmer water his fields, if the weather forecast is frost?(xi) Why are big tubs of water
kept in underground cellars for storing fresh fruit and vegetables, in coldcountries?
5.
1kg of ice is heated at a constant rate and its temperature is recorded after every 30 second till steam
isformed at 100°C. Draw the temperature time graph to represent the change.
6.
Explain briefly why :(a) when a bucket of water is left outside during a winter night, the bucket cools
faster than the water eventhough both are exposed to the same low temperature of the air.(b) The low
specific heat of mercury is helpful in its use a thermometric liquid, compared to alcohol which hasmuch
higher specific heat.(c) On a bright summer day the land gets much hotter than the water in a lake and
during the cool night thelake water is warmer than the land.
7.
How much heat is required to raise the temperature of a copper vessel of mass 0.05kg through 40°C?
takespecific heat of copper 0.09 kcal kg
–1
°C
–1
.8.In North India, during winter months when nights are cold, a hot water bag is placed under the quilt
to warmup the bed before one uses it.(a) If 1kg hot water at 70°C is used, how much heat energy is
released when it cools to 30°C?(b) If one uses alcohol (instead of water) at 70°C and cools it to 30°C how
much energy is released?
9.
Equal volume of hot water at 30°C and cold water at 20°C are mixed in plastic bucket.(a) if the heat
absorbed by the bucket is negligible, what is the temperature of the mixture?(b) if it is not negligible,
will the temperature of the mixture be greater than, equal to or less than the valueobtained in (a)?
10.
A blacksmith cools a piece of iron of mass 1.4kg heated to a temperature of 430°C, by putting it into a
bucketcontaining 15kg water at 26°C. Find the final temperature of the water. Ignore the heat gained by
the bucketitself and any steam which may be emitted. Specific heat of water and iron are 4200 and 450
Jkg
–1
–1
DPP NO. 20TOPIC : CALORIMETRY1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The energy required by a substance to change phase is called energy
of_____________ (b) All night, the earth radiates energy mainly in the form of _____________
radiation.(c) The earth is being heated continuously by the sun, therefore the temperature of earth
is_____________thanthat of the sun.(d) Global warming is due to the reckless use of _____________
fuels.(e) The most important cause of the global warming is the excess presence of _____________ gas
in theatmosphere.
2.
(a)
The specific heat is maximum for (A) ice(B) steam(C) water(D) alcohol
(b)
Greenhouse effect is used in a(A) solar cell(B) solar cooker(C) solar water heater(D) gobar gas plant
(c)
The earth is heated by the sun during the day. During night the radiation prominently emitted by earth
are(A) ultraviolet rays(B) X-rays(C) infrared rays(D) y-rays
(d)
In the absence of the greenhouse effect, the temperature of the earth considerably at night will(A)
increase(B) remain the same(C) fall considerably(D) none of these
(e)
Global warming can be reduced by(A) choosing energy efficient(B) reduction of waste gas emissions(C)
planting trees(D) all of these
3.
During the change of state of a substance, the temperature remains unchanged, although the heat is
suppliedor withdrawn. Explain it on the basis of kinetic theory. Or explain the physical difference
between solids,liquids and gases on the basis of molecular force
4.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of temperature versus time, when a substance like naphthalene is
heatedfrom 0°C to 100°C. Also draw another curve when the molten substance cools to room
temperature. How willyou determine the melting point and freezing point from the graphs drawn?
5.
Why should we dry the ice in above experiment? If some of the ice is not dry how will it affect the final
result,value of L obtained?
6.
Explain why, with reference to high latent heat of fusion of ice:(i) rivers fed by water from snow covered
mountains are not likely to dry up in summer.(ii) weather may become chilly when snow in the
mountains starts melting at the end of the winter season.(iii) a barrel of water is kept in cellars (where
vegetable is stored) when a farmer suspects severse coldweather approaching.(iv) ice cubes are more
effective than ice cold water in cooling a glass of lemonade. Illustrate with somenumerical values.
7.
A 200g mass of copper is heated in an oven for some time and transferred to a copper calorimeter
(mass 75g)containing 125g of water at 25°C. The steady temperature reached is 50°C. Calculate the
temperature of thecopper piece before transfer and hence estimate the temperature of the oven.
(Assume C, for water = 4000Jkg
–1
–1
and C
for copper = 400 Jkg
–1
K
–1
).
8.
A copper calorimeter of mass 100g contains 150g of water and 10g of ice in thermal equilibrium at
atmosphericpressure. A piece of lead of mass 100g at 200°C is dropped into the calorimeter. Find the
final temperature(assume no heat is lost to the surroundings) and the amount of ice left. (Take L = 336
kJkg
–1
), if required.
9.
A molten metal weighing 150g is kept at its melting point 800°C. When it is allowed to solidify at the
sametemperature, it gives out 75000J of heat. What is the specific latent heat of the metal? If its specific
heatcapacity is 200Jkg
–1
–1
, how much additional heat will it give out in cooling to –50°C?
10.
A block of lead mass 250g at 27°C was heated in a furnace till it completely melted. Find the quantity of
heatrequired (i) to bring the block to melting point, (ii) to completely melt the block at its melting point,
(meltingpoint of lead = 327°C, specific heat capacity = 0.13Jg
–1
–1
specific latent heat of fusion = 26 Jg
–1
)
DPP NO. 21TOPIC : MODREN PHYSICS1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The minimum energy required to eject an electron from a metal surface is
called____________ (b) A nucleus consists of____________and____________.(c) The beta rays and
gamma rays emitted during radioactivity have energies of the order of and____________
respectively.(d) When an alpha particle is emitted, the atomic number decreases by____________ (e)
When a beta particle is emitted, the atomic number increases by____________
2.
Multiple choice questions:
(a)
The factor which does not effect the rate of thermionic emission is :(A) Material of the surface(B) the
temperature of the surface(C) Surface area of surface(D) none of these
(b)
Which one of the following is not an essential part of a cathode ray tube :(A) the electron gun(B) the
deflecting assembly(C) the fluorescent screen(D) none of these
(c)
The phenomenon of radioactivity is associated with :(A) decay of the nucleus(B) decay of the atom(C)
nuclear reactions caused by cosmic radiation(D) fusion of the nucleus
(d)
A magnetic field may be used to deflect :(A)
and
rays(B)
and
rays(C)
and
rays(D)
and
rays
(e)
The radioactive decay of an element X to element Y and K is represented by the equation
AAA–4A–4ZZ1Z–1Z–1
XYKK
. The sequence of emitted radiation is :(A)
(B)
(C)
,
(D)
3.
Why are gamma rays emitted only in nuclear processes and not in orbital electron transition?
4.
How is the radioactivity of an element affected when it form chemical compounds?
5.
In heavy nuclei number of neutrons is greater than the number of protons. Why?
6.
A mass of lead is embedded in a block of wood. Radiations from a radioactive source incident on the
side of the block produce a shadow on a fluorescent screen placed beyond the block. The shadow of the
wood isfaint but the shadow of lead is dark. Give reason for this difference.
7.
Why is the energy distribution of beta decay continuous?
8.
Why do we use oxide coated metals for the cathode of a thermionic tube? Give an example of one such
pair of metals used? Why does it lower the operating temperature?
9.
State briefly three uses of cathode ray tube.

10.
What are
and
radiations composed?
DPP NO. 22TOPIC : MODREN PHYSICS1.
Fill in the blanks:(a) The penetrating power of a
-particle is ___________ that of
-particle.(b) Nuclei of heavy atom contain more ___________ than___________ (c) When
-rays are emitted, there is neither a change in mass number nor a change in ___________ (d) When
-particle is emitted a ___________ inside the nucleus changes to___________ (e) A magnetic field can
be used to deflect ___________ but not ___________ rays.
2.
(a)
Isobar are the atoms of different elements whose nuclei have the(A) same A but different Z(B) same Z
but different A(C) both A and Z are the same(D) all the above
(b)
The minimum amount of energy required to eject an electron from a metal surface is called:(A) Cohesive
energy(B) ionisation energy(C) Work function(D) Excitation energy
(c)
The number of protons and neutrons in
23892
(A) 238,92(B) 92, 238(C) 92, 146(D) 146, 92
(d)
X-rays are:(A) Ultrasonic(B) X-rays(C) De-Broglie waves(D) Electromagnetic waves
(e)
Which one of the following has maximum energy:(A) visible light(B) X-rays(C) infrared waves(D)
microwaves
3.
A radioactive substance emits either an alpha or a beta particle only. Then why is radioactive
radiationsdivided into three parts by applying electric or magnetic fields?
4.
An isotopes of uranium has a mass number 235 and atomic number 92.(i) What is the number of
electrons in the neutral atom of this isotope?(ii) What is the number of protons and number of neutrons
in its nucleus?(iii) Do all isotopes have the same number of neutrons?
5.
A mixture of radioactive substances gives off three types of radiations.(i) Name the three types of
radiations(ii) Name the radiations which are charged(iii) Nam the radiation similar in nature to cathode
rays.(iv) Name the radiation similar in nature to X-rays.(v) Name the radiation which is deviated most in
a magnetic field.(vi) Name the radiation which is not affected by an electric field.(vii) Name the radiation
which has the maximum penetrating power.(viii) Name the radiation which has the highest ionising
power.(ix) Name the radiation which has the highest speed.(x) Name the radiation which when becomes
neutral, becomes the atom of a rare gas.
6.
A radioactive sample is kept at the centre of a large evacuated sphere. How safe will it be?
7.
A nucleus of an element P which has a symbol
20284
P
emits an alpha particle and then a beta particle. Thefinal nucleus is
ba
. Find the value of a and b.
8.
What is meant by background radiation? Mention four possible sources. How do we correct for these in
theexperiments involving measurements of radioactivity?
9.
What are X-rays?
10.
What is nuclear waste? How can it be disposed off ?
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VIBRANT ACADEMY
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CLASS – X (ICSE)
DPP NO. 01 TOPIC : PERIODIC TABLE 1.
The law of octaves was proposed by - (A) Newlands (B) Dobereiner (C) Lavoisier (D) Mendeleev
2.
The early attempt to classify elements as metals and non-metals was made by - (A) Mendeleev (B)
Newlands (C) Lavoisier (D) Henry Moseley
3.
The early attempts to classify elements were based on - (A) atomic number (B) atomic mass (C)
electronic configuration (D) None of these
4.
Cl, Br,
, if this is a Dobereiner’s triad and the atomic masses of Cl and
are 35.5 and 127 respectively, then the atomic mass of Br is - (A) 162.5 (B) 91.5 (C) 81.25 (D) 45.625
5.
According to Newlands’ law of octaves 3rd element will resemble in its properties to - (A) ninth element
(B) eighth element (C) tenth element (D) eleventh element
6.
Newland could classify elements only upto - (A) copper (B) chlorine (C) calcium (D) chromium
7.
According to Mendeleev’s periodic law which properties of the elements are the periodic function of
their atomic masses ? (A) Physical properties only (B) Chemical properties only (C) Physical and chemical
properties both (D) None of these
8.
Mendeleev classified elements in - (A) increasing order of atomic number. (B) increasing order of atomic
masses. (C) decreasing order of atomic masses. (D) decreasing order of atomic number.
9.
Mendeleev’s periodic table was divided into - (A) seven periods and seven groups. (B) eight periods and
eight groups. (C) seven periods and nine groups. (D) eight periods and seven groups.
10.
Noble gases were included in Mendeleev’s periodic table in the - (A) 1st group (B) 7th group (C) 8th
group (D) None of these
11.
Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in the periodic table ?
12.
What were the major defects of Mendeleev’s classification ?
13.
Why is the law proposed by Newlands called the Law of Octaves ?
14.
Among the halogens F, Cl, Br, and
which does not fit in the Dobereiner’s triad ?
15.
What is common in the musical notes and the elements arranged by Newlands ?
"
A-14(A)
PART-II
1.
Modern periodic law was proposed by- (A) Mendeleev (B) Henry Moseley (C) Werner (D) Bohr and Bury
2.
All the members in a group of long form of periodic table have the same - (A) valency (B) number of
valence electrons (C) chemical properties (D) All of these
3.
Which of the following pairs of elements belong to the same period of the periodic table ? (A) C, Mg (B)
N, Ar (C) Ca, Cl (D) K, Cu
4.
One important merit of modern periodic table is - (A) it explains why elements in the same group have
the same chemical properties. (B) hydrogen has been placed accurately. (C) isobars have not been
placed separately. (D) it is based on classifying elements according to their atomic masses.
5.
The difference between ions and atoms is of - (A) relative size (B) electronic configuration (C) presence
of charge (D) All of these
6.
Which of the following has the largest size ? (A) Na (B) Na+ (C) Mg (D) Mg+2
7.
An element M has an atomic number 9 and atomic mass 19. Its ion will be represented by- (A) M (B)
M+2 (C) M – (D) M –2
8.
In the third period of the periodic table, the element having smallest size is - (A) Na (B) Ar (C) Cl (D) Si
9.
Which of the following elements has maximum metallic character ? (A) Li (B) N (C) Na (D) P
10.
On moving left to right in a period, in the periodic table, metallic character - (A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains same (D) first increases, then decreases
11.
Boron, Aluminium, Gallium, Indium, Thallium are elements in the periodic table. [Boron is the first
member of the group & Thallium is the last.] Answer the following in relation to the above group of
elements:- (i) Which element has the most metallic character (ii) Which element would be expected to
have the highest electro-negativity (iii) If Aluminium is 2, 8, 3 [elec. conf.], how many electrons are there
in the outer shell of Thallium (iv) The at. no. of Boron is 5. Write the formula of the compound formed
when boron reacts with chlorine (v) Will the elements in the group to the right of this Boron group be
more metallic or less metallic in character? Justify you answer.
12.
In the activity series of metals-M is metal above hydrogen the activity series & its oxide has the formula
M
O. M
2
O when dissolved in water forms the corresponding hydroxide which is a good conductor of electricity.
(i) What kind of combination exists between M & O. (ii) State the no. of electrons in the outermost shell
of M. (iii) Name the group to which M belongs.
13.
Give a reason why (a) completion of each period is logical (b) period-2 elements are 'called bridge
elements'
14.
Explain the meaning of the following periodic properties :- (a) non-metallic and metallic (b) Ionisation
potential (c) electron affinity (d) electronegativity (e) non-metallic and metallic character.
15.
State the factors which affect the atomic size of elements in a periodic table. In period 2 from left to
right, state which element has the largest atomic size and which has the smallest, giving reasons.
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 02 TOPIC : CHEMICAL BONDING 1.
Which of the following contains both ionic and covalent bond ? (A) CCl
(B) NH
Cl (C) CaCl
(D) H
2.
How many electrons are shared between two atoms showing a triple bond ? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
3.
Expansion of octet rule is observed in . (A) BF
(B) PCl
(C) AlCl
(D) H
4.
Which one of the following has a coordinate bond ? (A) NaCl (B) Cl2 (C) NH4Cl (D) AlCl3
5.
The bonds present in N2O5 are : (A) only ionic (B) covalent and coordinate (C) only covalent (D) covalent
and ionic
6.
Which one is an electron deficient compound ? (A) ICl (B) BeCl2 (C) NH3 (D) PCl3
7.
The bond that exists between NH3 and BF3 is called – (A) electrovalent (B) covalent (C) coordinate (D)
hydrogen
8.
In which of the following the central atom has maximum number of lone pairs of electrons ? (A) IF7 (B)
PCl3 (C) AlCl3 (D) H2O
9.
The formula of a compound is A2B5.
The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of A and B respectively are - (A) 6 and 3 (B) 5 and 6 (C) 5
and 2 (D) 2 and 3
10.
Which of the following statements is true ? (A) HF is less polar than HBr. (B) Chemical bond formation
takes place when forces of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion. (C) In a covalent bond, transfer
of electron takes place. (D) All of the above.
11.
There are three elements E, F, G with atomic numbers 19, 8 & 17 respectively. Give the molecular
formula of the compound formed between E & G state the type of chemical bond in this compound.
12.
State the reasons for chemical bonding between two atoms and the methods involved for achieving the
same. State how 'duplet and octet' rules are involved for an atom to achieve stable electronic
configuration.
13.
Give two differences between the covalent compounds – methane [non-polar] and HCl [polar].
14.
Explain the terms (a) Lone pair of electrons (b) Coordinate bond. Explain diagrammatically the lone pair
effect of : (a) The nitrogen atom of the ammonia molecule leading to the formation of ammonium ions
[NH
(b) The oxygen atom of the H
O molecule leading to formation of hydronium [H
O]
& hydroxyl ions [OH]
15.
Give reasons for the following : Electrovalent compounds are soluble in water, insoluble in organic
solvents, good conductors of electricity in molten or aq. solution state, have high melting points and
undergo electrolytic dissociation on passage of electric current, while covalent compounds are soluble in
organic solvents, insoluble in water, non-conductors of electricity, have low melting points & undergo
ionisation on passage of electric current.
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 3-A TOPIC : ACID, BASES AND SALTS 1.
The acid used in making of vinegar is - (A) Formic acid (B) Acetic acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Nitric acid
2.
Common name of H
SO
is - (A) Oil of vitriol (B) Muriatic acid (C) Blue vitriol (D) Green vitriol
3.
CuO + (X)
CuSO
+H
O. Here (X) is - (A) CuSO
(B) HCl (C) H
SO
4
(D) HNO
4.
Which of the following is the weakest base ? (A) NaOH (B) NH
OH (C) KOH (D) Ca(OH)
5.
Reaction of an acid with a base is known as - (A) decomposition (B) combinatio (C) redox reaction (D)
neutralization
6.
When CO
is passed through lime water, it turns milky. The milkiness is due to the formation of - (A) CaCO
(B) Ca(OH)
(C) H
O (D) CO
7.
Caustic soda is the common name for - (A) Mg(OH)
(B) KOH (C) Ca(OH)
2
(D) NaOH
8.
Antacids contain - (A) Weak base (B) Weak acid (C) Strong base (D) Strong acid
9.
Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is used in - (A) Plastics and dyes (B) Fertilizers (C) Antacids (D) White
washing
10.
Acids gives - (A) H
in water (B) OH
in water (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
11.
Equal amounts of calcium are taken in test tubes (A) and (B). Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test
tube (A) while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube (B). In which case, fizzing occurs more
vigorously and why ?
12.
Give the name of two mineral acids and their uses.
13.
What effect does concentration of H+ (aq) have on acidic nature of the solution ?
14.
What do you understand by organic acids. Give the name of two organic acids and their sources.
15.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with metal ?
llustrate with an example. How will you test the presence of the gas ?

"
A-14(A)
PART-II
1.
H2CO3 is a - (A) strong acid (B) weak acid (C) strong base (D) weak base
2.
A salt derived from strong acid and weak base will dissolve in water to give a solution which is - (A)
acidic (B) basic (C) neutral (D) none of these
3.
Bleaching powder gives smell of chlorine because it - (A) is unstable (B) gives chlorine on exposure to
atmosphere (C) is a mixture of chlorine and slaked lime (D) contains excess of chlorine
4.
Chemical formula of baking soda is - (A) MgSO4 (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) MgCO3
5.
The chemical name of marble is - (A) calcium carbonate (B) magnesium carbonate (C) calcium chloride
(D) calcium sulphate
6.
Washing soda has the formula - (A) Na2CO3. 7H2O (B) Na2CO3. 10H2O (C) Na2CO3. H2O (D) Na2CO3
7.
The difference in number of water molecules in gypsum and plaster of paris is - (A) 5/2 (B) 2 (C) 1/2 (D)
3/2
8.
Which is a base and not an alkali ? (A) NaOH (B) KOH (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) none is true
9.
A solution has pH 9. On dilution the pH value (A) decreases (B) increases (C) remain same (D) none of
these
10.
Energy released in neutralisation reaction which occurs between strong acid and strong base is –
(A) 57.8 kJ (B) 57.1 kJ (C) 57.9 kJ (D) 56.1 kJ
11.
Solution A is a strong acid, Solution B is a weak acid, solution C is a strong alkali (i) Which solution
contains solute molecules in addition to water molecules (ii) Which solution will give a gelatinous white
precipitate with zinc sulphate solution The precipitate disappears when an excess of the solution in
added. (iii) Which solution could be glacial acetic acid solution (iv) Give example of a solution of a weak
alkali
12.
State how acids and bases are defined as per Arrhenius's and Lowery – Bronsted's theory.
13.
State how you would obtain (i) Sulphuric acid from and acidic oxide (ii) KOH from a basic oxide.
14.
State (i) the formation (ii) the components of – a basic salt. State which of following salts is an – acid,
normal or basic salt. (i) bleaching powder (ii) potassium mercuric iodide (iii) sodium sulphite (iv) sodium
hydrogen sulphite (v) sodium silver cyanide (vi) basic lead nitrate (vii) potassium zincate (viii) alum (ix)
calcium bicarbonate (x) basic copper chloride (xi) trisodium phosphate
15.
What is difference between dissociation and ionisation ?
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 3-B TOPIC : ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY 1.
Which of the following is not soluble in NaOH? (A) Fe(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Al(OH)3 (D) Sn(OH)2
2.
Which of the following is soluble in NaOH? (A) Fe(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Ca(OH)2 (D) Pb(OH)2
3.
Which of the following forms solution with excess of NH4OH solution ? (A) CuSO4 (B) Fe(OH)3 (C)
Cu(NO3)2 (D) (A) & (C) both
4.
Elements of which block generally impart colour ? (A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
5.
Colour of permanganate ion is (A) pink (B) yellow (C) red (D) black
6.
Reaction of lead nitrate with sodium hydroxide will give (A) dull white precipitate (B) gelatinous white
solution (C) white precipitate (D) chalky white solution
7.
Copper sulphate on reacting with ammonium hydroxide gives (A) dirty green colour (B) reddish brown
colour (C) pale blue colour (D) dull white colour
8.
What is formed when Ca(NO
reacts with NH
OH (A) HNO
(B) Ca(OH)
(C) NH
NO
(D) no reaction
9.
Correct formula for potassium plumbite is (A) K
2
PbO
(B) KPb
(C) K
Pb
(D) KPb
10.
Reaction between ferric chloride and sodium hydroxide results in (A) Fe(OH)
dirty green precipitate (B) Fe(OH)
reddish brown precipitate (C) FeOH dirty green precipitate (D) Fe(OH)
dirty green precipitate
11.
Give one test to distinguish between the following :- Iron (III) chloride solution and copper chloride
solution
12.
Find the odd one with reasons [valency is not a criterion]: Al(OH)
, Pb(OH)
, Mg(OH)
, Zn(OH)
13.
Identify the substance P based on the information given : The deliquescent salt P, turns yellow on
dissolving in water, and gives a reddish brown precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution.
14.
State two relevant observations for the reaction : Ammonium hydroxide solution is added to – copper
(II) nitrate solution in small quantities and then in excess.
15.
To a salt solution 'Y' a small quantity of NH
OH solution is added slowly & then in excess. A pale blue precipitate is formed which dissolves in excess
to form a clear inky blue solution. Identify the positive ion in the salt 'Y'.
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 04 TOPIC : MOLE CONCEPT AND STOICHIOMETRY 1.
The solubility of K
SO
4
in water is 16 g at 50ºC. The minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4 g K
SO
is - (A) 10 g (B) 25 g (C) 50 g (D) 75 g
2.
Molarity of H
SO
(density 1.8g/mL) is 18M. The molality of this solution is - (A) 36 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 18
3.
8g of sulphur are burnt to form SO
, which is oxidised by Cl
water. The solution is treated with BaCl
solution. The amount of BaSO
precipitated is – (A) 1.0 mole (B) 0.5 mole (C) 0.75 mole (D) 0.25 mole
4.
The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal labelled as 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of cereal is - (A)
11% (B) 1.10% (C) 0.110% (D) 110%
5.
The hydrated salt, Na2SO4. nH2O undergoes 55.9% loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of n will be - (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 10
6.
An oxide of metal have 20% oxygen, the eq. wt. of metal oxide is - (A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 48 (D) 52
7.
If 250 mL of a solution contains 24.5 g H2SO4 the molarity and normality respectively are - (A) 1 M, 2 N
(B) 1M,0.5 N (C) 0.5 M, 1N (D) 2M, 1N
8.
3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is - (A) 2.9732 (B) 3.05
(C) 3.64 (D) 3.0504
9.
Total mass of neutrons in 7mg of 14C is - (A) 3 × 1020 kg (B) 4 × 10 –6 kg (C) 5 × 10 –7 kg (D) 4 × 10 –7 kg
10.
Vapour density of a metal chloride is 66. Its oxide contains 53% metal. The atomic weight of metal is -
(A) 21 (B) 54 (C) 26.74 (D) 2.086
11.
200 ml. of C
is burnt in just sufficient air [containing 20% oxygen] as per the equation C
+ 3O
2CO
+ 2H
O[g]. Calculate the resultant mixture composition [at 100°C & constant press.]
12.
Calculate the weight of a substance X which in gaseous form occupies 10 litres at 27ºC and 700 mm
pressure. The molecular weight of X is 60.
13.
A gas occupies 700 ml at a pressure of 700 mm of Hg and a temperature of 57ºC. If at s.t.p. the mass of
the gas is 1.5 g find the vapour density and the molecular weight of the gas. (Given 1 litre of hydrogen
weighs 0.09 g at s.t.p.)
14.
A compound has the following percentage composition : Na = 18.60%, S = 25.80%, H = 4.03% and O =
51.58%. Calculate the molecular formula of the crystalline salt assuming that all the hydrogen in the
compound is in combination with the oxygen as water of crystallisation. Molecular weight of the
compound is 248. [Na = 23, S = 32, H = 1, O = 16]
15.
Copper on reacting with conc. H
SO
produces copper [II] sulphate. If 1.28 g. of copper is to be converted to copper sulphate. Find (i) the
weight o the copper sulphate formed and (ii) the weight of the acid required. [Cu = 64, S = 32, O = 16].
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 05 TOPIC : ELECTROLYSIS 1.
A covalent compound which in aqueous state conducts electricity is (A) CCl
(B) CS
2
(C) NH
(D) C
2.
The anion discharged at the anode with most difficulty is (A) SO
42–
(B) Br
(C) NO
3–
(D) OH
3.
Electrolysis is (A) oxidation reaction (B) reduction reaction (C) redox reaction (D) precipitation reaction
4.
Iron can be electroplated by - (A) Potassium (B) Silver (C) Mercury (D) Tin
5.
Which of the following solutions contains both molecules & ions ? (A) HNO
(B) NaOH (C) CH
COOH (D) None of these
6.
Which of the following are weak electrolyte ? (A) H

2
CO
(B) dil. H
SO
(C) NH
OH (D) Both (A) & (C)
7.
Which of the following is a non-electrolyte ? (A) KOH solution (B) glucose (C) CuSO
(aq.) (D) dil. HNO
8.
A compound which during electrolysis in its molten state, liberates a reddish brown gas at anode. (A)
sodium chloride (B) lead (II) bromide (C) cupric oxide (D) cupric sulphate
9.
Which of the following condition is correct for operation of electrolytic cell (A)
G = 0, E = 0 (B)
G < 0, E > 0 (C)
G > 0, E < 0 (D)

G > 0, E > 0
10.
The ratio of hydrogen & oxygen liberated at cathode & anode is (A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 4
11.
Name three organic compounds and one neutral liquid which are non-electrolytes.
12.
State giving reasons, in what state or medium does (i) NaCl (ii) HCl gas (iii) NH
gas conduct electricity.
13.
Give the electrode reactions for formation of (i) Lead metal and bromine vapours from molten PbBr
using inert electrodes (ii) H
and O
gas [2:1] from acidified water using inert Pt electrodes.
14.
'Iron is electroplated with silver' – (i) define the term in italics (ii) state two reasons for electroplating (ii)
state why the iron is not placed at the anode and silver at the cathode during electroplating.
15.
Give a reason why the metals – copper silver and lead are electrorefined but K, Na and Ca are not.
"
A-14(A)

DPP NO. 06 TOPIC : METALLURGY 1.
Which of the following properties is not a characteristic of metals ? (A) Metallic lusture (B) High density
(C) Hardness (D) Low melting and boiling point
2.
Which of the following metals generally occur in liquid state ? (A)Mercury (B) Bromine (C) Gallium (D) A
& C both
3.
Reactivity of zinc is _________ than that of hydrogen. (A) less (B) more (C) equal (D) sometimes more
sometimes less
4.
Zn + xHCl
ZnCl
+ A, In above equation A & x are (A) H
, 2 (B) Cl
, 1 (C) H
, 3 (D) H
,4
5.
When sodium reacts with cold water, then the product formed will be - (A) Na
O (B) NaOH (C) Na
CO
3
(D) All of these
6.
What is the decreasing order of reactivity of following metals ? Na, Al, K, Cu, Ag, Fe (A) Na > K > Al > Cu >
Ag > Fe (B) K > Na > Al > Cu > Fe > Ag (C) K > Na > Al > Fe > Cu > Ag (D) K > Na > Al > Fe > Ag > Cu
7.
When a metal is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no evolution of gas. Metal is - (A) K (B) Na (C)Ag
(D) Zn
8.
On addition of which metal, copper sulphate solution (blue colour) will be changed to colourless
solution? (A) Fe (B)Ag (C) Zn (D) Hg
9.
Zn + H2O (Steam)
A + B In the above equation (A) and (B) are (A) Zn & H
(B) ZnH
&O
(C) ZnO
&O
(D) ZnO & H
10.
Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen ? (A) Zinc (B) Magnesium (C) Sodium (D)
Copper
11.
Describe the physical properties of metals ?
12.
Write the chemical equation of chemical reaction of zinc metal with the following - (a) H2SO4 (b) H2O
(c) O2
13.
What is an activity series of metals ? Arrange the metals Zn, Mg, Al , Cu and Fe in the decreasing order
of reactivity.
14.
What would you observe when you put : (i) some zinc pieces in blue copper sulphate solution? (ii) some
copper pieces in green ferrous sulphate solution ?
15.
Identify the most reactive and least reactive metal from the following - Hg, Na, Fe, Ag
"
A-14(A)
PART-II
1.
Horn silver is a/an - (A) sulphate ore (B) halide ore (C) sulphide ore (D) oxide ore
2.
Carnallite is - (A) KCl. MgCl2 (B) KCl. MgCl2. 3H2O (C) KCl. MgCl2.6H2O (D) KCl. MgCl2. H2O
3.
Match column A with column B and select the correct option -
Column A Column B (Ore) (Nature of ore)
(a) Copper glance (i) Sulphate ore (b) Calamine (ii) Halide ore (c) Rock salt (iii) Sulphide ore (d) Epsom
salt (iv) Carbonate ore (A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (B) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (C) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (D) a(iv),
b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
4.
Which of the following methods is used in the concentration of haematite ore ? (A) Hydraulic washing
(B) Magnetic separation (C) Froth flotation process (D) None of these
5.
Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for conversion in oxide ore is known as - (A) roasting (B)
calcination (C) reduction (D) none of these
6.
Anode mud is obtained in which process ? (A) Roasting (B) Zone refining (C) Electrolytic refining (D)
Calcination
7.
In thermite process reducing agent is - (A) C (B) CO (C) Al (D) none of these
8.
Alloys are a homogeneous mixture of - (A) metals only (B) non -metals only (C) metals or a metal and
non-metal (D) None of these
9.
German silver is an alloy of - (A) Cu and Ni (B) Cu, Sn and Ag (C) Cu, Zn and Ni (D) Cu, Ni, Fe and Mn
10.
An alloy which does not contain copper is - (A) magnalium (B) bronze (C) brass (D) german silver
11.
Differentiate between _
(i) mineral & one (ii) matrix & flux.
12.
Give the (i) common (ii) chemical name (iii) formula of two common ores each of aluminium, zinc & iron.
13.
In the stages involved in the extraction of metals in general – give reasons for the following. (i) Dressing
of the ore is an essential process in the extraction of metal from its ore. (ii) An electromagnetic wheel is
used in the magnetic separation process of ore from gangue. (iii) In the froth flotation process, the ore
floats on the top & the gangue settles down. (iv) Roasting the ore generally results in evolution of
sulphur dioxide gas, while calcinations of the ore evolves carbon dioxide gas. (v) Oxides or halides of
highly electropositive metals e.g. K, Na, Ca, Al are reduced to metals by electrolysis and not by reduction
with coke.
14.
State the function of (i) Sodium hydroxide (ii) Cryolite (iii) Fluorspar – in the metallurgy of aluminium in
Hall Herault's process.
15.
Define – (a) alloy, (b) amalgam
16.
State (i) composition (ii) reason for alloying (iii) one use of each of the following alloys. (i) Brass (ii)
Bronze (iii) Duralumin (iv) Solder [fuse metal] (v) Stainless steel
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 07 TOPIC : STUDY OF COMPOUNDS 1.
Which of the following acid is known as muriatic acid. ? (A) HNO
(B) HCl (C) H
SO
(D) None of these
2.
Formation of HCl by the reaction of H
and Cl
is an example of - (A) Synthesis reaction (B) Combination reaction (C) Photochemical reaction (D) All of
the above
3.
___________ is obtained when ammonium dichromate is heated. (A) nitrogen (B) oxygen (C) ammonia
(D) none of these
4.
By mixing ammonium chloride with potassium nitrite, we get : (A) ammonium nitrate (B) KNH
(NO
(C) nitrogen (D) nitrogen dioxide
5.
Inorganic compounds react with dil. HNO
& produce (A) NO (B) N
O (C) NO
(D) All of these
6.
Tri-nitrotoluene is used as (A) explosive (B) Rocket fuel (C) Drug (D) Fertilizer
7.
Thermal decomposition of NH
NO
yields (A) NO (B) NO
(C) N
2
O (D) None of these
8.
Sulphuric acid initially was prepared by (A) FeSO
.5H
O (B) FeSO
(C) FeSO
.7H
O (D) CuSO
.5H
9.
Catalyst or oxidising agent which can be used to convert SO
to SO
is - (A) V
(B) O
3
(C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of these
10.
Formula of pyrosulphuric acid : (A) H
SO
(B) H
(C) H
(D) SO
11.
(i)
Give a balanced equation with all conditions to obtain NH
from N
and H
2
. (ii)
Name an industrial process which involves ammonia, oxygen and a catalyst as its starting reactants.
12.
(i)
State why the blue ppt. formed on addition of NH
OH to CuSO
solution dissolves to give a deep blue solution with excess of NH
OH. Give an equation for the reaction. State why Zn(OH)
is soluble in excess of NH
OH. (ii)
State why nitric acid (a) stains the skin (b) cannot be concentrated beyond 68% by boiling.
13.
State why nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent and yields varying products such as NO, NO
on reaction with metals, non-metals etc.
14.
(i)State how addition of nitric acid to acidified FeSO
serves as a test for the former. (ii)

Name three chemical products manufactured from nitric acid. Give two general uses of HNO
15.
(i)
State why sulphuric acid was called – 'oil of vitriol'. (ii) Give a reason why concentrated sulphuric acid is
kept in air tight bottles. (iii)
State the observation seen when conc. H
SO
is added to (a) sucrose (b) hydrated copper (II) sulphate.
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 08 TOPIC : ORGANIC CHEMISTRY 1.
Which of the following is an allotropic form of carbon ? (A) Diamond (B) Graphite (C) Fullerene (D) All of
these
2.
Diamond is not a good conductor of electricity because - (A) it is very hard. (B) its structure is very
compact. (C) it is not water soluble. (D) it has no free electrons to conduct electric current.
3.
Which of the following allotropes of carbon is used in making crucibles ? (A) Diamond (B) Graphite (C)
Fullerene (D) Coke
4.
Arrangement of carbon atoms in diamond is - (A) linear (B) tetrahedral (C) octahedral (D) hexagonal
5.
Which of the following is a crystalline allotrope of carbon (A) Charcoal (B) Coal (C) Fullerene (D) Lamp
black
6.
Diamond means : (A) Transparent (B) Hardness (C) Both A and B (D) Conductor
7.
Bond length between carbon-carbon atoms in diamond is : (A) 1.34A° (B) 1.40 A° (C) 1.54 A° (D) 1.7 A°
8.
Diamond crystals formed in the nature are : (A) Octahedral (B) Tetrahedral (C) Planar (D) Trigonal
9.
Density of graphite is : (A) 3.5 g/cm
(B) 2.26 g/cm
(C) 2.08 g/cm
(D) None
10.
Graphite is used in making electrodes because : (A) It has high melting point (B) It is soft and slippery (C)
It is a good conductor of electricity (D) None of these
11.
Define allotropy.
12.
Why graphite is used as lubricant ?
13.
Give names of two amorphous allotropes of carbon.
14.
Which crystalline allotrope of carbon is used in making high precision thermometers ?
15.
Why does diamond shine so bright ?
"
A-14(A)
PART-II
1.
The general formula for acyclic saturated hydrocarbons is - (A) CnH2n+2 (B) CnH2n (C) CnH2n–2 (D)
CnH2n–n
2.
Select the alkyne from the following - (A) C4H8 (B) C5H8 (C) C7H19 (D) None of these
3.
The first organic compound to be prepared in the laboratory was - (A) methane (B) ethyl alcohol (C)
acetic acid (D) urea
4.
In order to form branching, an organic compound must have a minimum of - (A) four carbon atoms (B)
three carbon atoms (C) five carbon atoms (D) any number of carbon atoms
5.
The number of C – H bonds in ethane (C2H6) molecule is - (A) four (B) six (C) eight (D) ten
6.
The main reasons for the huge number of organic compounds are - (A) catenation (B) tetravalency of
carbon (C) tendency to form multiple bonds (D) all of these
7.
Which of the following is/are saturated hydrocarbon ? (A) C2H6 (B) C2H4 (C) C2H5 (D) All of these
8.
Which of the following is not an open chain compound ? (A) methane (B) ethene (C) Toluene (D) Butyne
9.
Which of the following is an aromatic compound ? (A) Cyclohexane (B) Ethyne (C) Phenol (D) All of these
10.
Which of the following does not belong to alkane ? (A) C2H4 (B) CH4 (C) C2H6 (D) C4H10
11.
What is the common difference in two consecutive members in a homologous series ?
12.
What is catenation ? Why does carbon show maximum tendency to catenate ?
13.
What are saturated hydrocarbons ? Give one example.
14.
Give reason why the maximum number of bonds that can formed between two carbon atoms is three.
15.
Predict the state of alkanes having carbon atoms above ten. Can you think of a reason why is that so ?
"
A-14(A)
PART-III
1.
The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula (CH3)3 CCH = CH2 is - (A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-
propane (B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene (C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene (D) 1,1–Dimethyl -1,3-butene
2.
The IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHCH3 is - (A) 2-Methylpropane (B) 2,2-Dimethylethane (C)
Trimethylmethane (D) none of these
3.
The IUPAC name of the following compound is - CH2 = CH – CH (CH3)2 (A) 1,1-Dimethyl -2-propene (B)
3-Methyl -1-butene (C) 2-Vinyl propane (D) 1-Isopropyl ethylene
4.
IUPAC name of second member of homologous series of carboxylic acids is - (A) Methanoic acid (B)
Ethanoic acid (C) Propanoic acid (D) Butanoic acid
5.
The IUPAC name of CH3 – C(CH3) (OH) CH2 – CH(CH3) CH3 is - (A) 2,4-Dimethyl pentan -2-ol (B) 2,4-
Dimethyl pentan -4-ol (C) 2,2-Dimethyl butane (D) Butanol-2-one
6.
Which of the following will give a pleasant smell when heated with ethyl alcohol, in presence of
sulphuric acid - (A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2OH (C) CH3OH (D) CH3CHO
7.
Ethanol on oxidation gives - (A) CO2 and water (B) ethene (C) acetic acid (D) acetone
8.
When ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4 the product formed is - (A) C4H8 (B) C2H4 (C) C3H4 (D)
C2H2
9.
Power alcohol contains - (A) 50% petrol and 50% ethanol (B) 80 % petrol and 20% ethanol
(C) 25 % petrol and 75% ethanol (D) 70 % petrol and 30% ethanol
10.
Which of the following does not give a positive test with alkaline solution of potassium permanganate ?
(A) C10H22 (B) C6H12 (C) C10H18 (D) C10H20
11.
Write a balanced equation for (a) Reaction of ethane & oxygen in presence of molybdenum oxide. (b)
Preparation of CH
from anhydrous sodium ethanoate [sodium acetate]. (c) Reaction of heating ethanol at 170ºC in the
presence of conc. H
2
SO
. (d) Preparation of carbon tetrachloride from methane.
12.
Compound 'X' is bubbled through bromine dissolved in CCl
& the product formed is CH
Br – CH
Br. (a) Draw the structural formula of 'X' and state what type of reaction 'X' has undergone. (b) State
your observation for the above reaction. (c) Name the compound formed when steam reacts with 'X' in
the presence of an acid, eg. Phosphoric acid. (d) What is the procedure for converting the product
formed in (iii) above, back to 'X'
13.
Give reasons for the following (a) almost 90% of all known compounds are organic in nature. (b) it is
dangerous to burn methane in an insufficient supply of air.
14.
Give reasons for (a) alkanes are said to be saturated organic compound (b) alkenes are known as olefins
(c) alkenes are more reactive than alkanes (d) ethanoic acid is known as an aliphatic monocarboxylic
acid.
15.
Explain the terms (a) Denaturated alcohol (b) Glacial acetic acid (c) Esterification
"
A-14(A)

DPP NO. 09 TOPIC : PRACTICAL CHEMISTRY 1.
Brown ring in the test of NO
3–
is formed due to the formation of : (A) FeSO
.NO (B) [Fe(SO
. NO].H
O (C) Fe
(SO
NO (D) None of these
2.
Which of the following is not soluble in NaOH? (A) Fe(OH)
(B) Zn(OH)
(C) Al(OH)
(D) Sn(OH)
2
3.
Nessler's reagent is: (A) NaHgCl
(B) K
HgI
(C) Hg(NH
Cl (D)K
HgI
+ KOH
4.
The brown ring test for nitrates depends on : (A) the reduction of nitrate to nitric oxide (B) oxidation of
nitric oxide to nitrogen dioxide (C) reduction of ferrous sulphate to iron (D) oxidising action of sulphuric
acid
5.
MgSO
on reaction with NH
OH and Na
HPO
4
forms a white crystalline precipitate. What is its formula? (A) Mg(NH
)PO
(B) Mg
(PO
(C) MgCl
.MgSO
(D) MgSO
6.
Which of the following forms solution in dil. HCl ? (A) AgNO
(B) Pb(NO
(C) Hg
(NO
)
2
(D) Cu(NO
7.
Mercurous chloride turns black on treatment with ammonium hydroxide. This is due to the formation of
: (A) Hg(NH
)Cl (B) Hg
Cl
. NH
OH (C) Hg and HgNH
Cl (D) HgCl
.NH
OH
8.
A light yellow precipitate is formed in the second group of the qualitative analysis on passing H
S even when no radical of second group is present. This is due to the presence of --------------- in the
mixture. (A) phosphate (B) acetate (C) oxalate (D) nitrate
9.
Aprecipitate of which of the following would be obtained when HCl is added to a solution of stannous
sulphide (SnS) is yellow ammonium sulphide ? (A) SnS (B) SnS
(C) (NH
SnS
(D) Sn
10.
On heating a mixture of NaCl, K
Cr
and conc. H
SO
which of the following is formed ? (A) CrCl
(B) CrO
2
Cl
(C) Cl
(D) NaClO
11.
State the colour of the residue obtained on cooling when the following carbonates are heated : (i) zinc
carbonate (ii) lead carbonate (iii) copper carbonate
12.
From the list of substances given – Ammonium sulphate, Lead carbonate, Chlorine, Copper nitrate,
Ferrous sulphate – State : A substance that turns moist starch iodine paper blue.
13.
State what is observed when excess of ammonia passed through an aqueous solution of lead nitrate.
14.
Give one test each to distinguish between the following pairs of chemical solutions : (i) Zn(NO
& Ca(NO
(ii) NaNO
& NaCl (iii) Iron [III] chloride & copper chloride.
15.
Give a reason why carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide cannot be distinguished by using line water.
VIBRANT ACADEMY
BIOLOGY
CLASS – X (ICSE) DPP-1
TOPIC: BASIC BIOLOGY
1. The correct sequence of different phases of mitosis is (A) Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
Telophase
Interphase (B) Interphase
Telophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Prophase (C) Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Interphase
Telophase (D) Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase 2. In acrocentric chromosomes, position of centromere (A) terminal (B) middle (C)
subterminal (D) none of these 3. Chromosomes having equal or almost equal arms are called (A)
metacentric (C) polycentric (B) acrocentric (D) acentric 4. Chromosomes other than sex chromosomes
are called as (A) allosomes (B) autosomes (C) microsomes (D) none of the above 5. In humans, the
number of chromosomes in a diploid cell is (A) 23 (B) 46 (C) 44 (D) 30 6. Chromosome ends are called:
(A) Satellites (B) Telomeres (C) Centromeres (D) Kinetochores 7. Chromatid is : (A) One half of
chromosome (B) Haploid chromosome (C) Complete chromosome (D) Duplicate chromosome 8.
Centromere is the part of chromosome where: (A) Nucleoli are formed (B) Crossing over takes place (C)
Chromatids are attached (D) Nicking occurs 9. Mendel’s laws of heredity can be explained with the help
of : (A) Mutation (B) Meiosis (C) Cloning (D) Both A and B 10. A recessive trait in Garden Pea is : (A)
Wrinkled seeds (B) Tall stem (C) Round seeds (D) Coloured seed coat 11. What is the difference between
chromatin fibre and chromosome? 12. What are nucleosomes? 13. What are genes & where are these
located? 14. What is mutation? 15. What do you mean by sex determination? In human beings, which
type of sex determination is present?
VIBRANT ACADEMY
BIOLOGY
TOPIC : PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
1. Root pressure on a tree is typically about 2-6 atm. This is sufficient to raise the water level upto a few
feet. Tall trees get water at the top due to : (A) Capillary rise and suction pressure (B) A pump operating
in the growing tree (C) Fed by rain water (D) Water content in the atmosphere 2. Bast fibre in a woody
stem belongs to (A) cork (B) cortex (C) xylem (D) phloem 3. Companion cells are usually seen to be
associated with (A) fibres tissue (B) parenchyma tissue (C) xylem tissue (D) sieve tissue 4. Which of the
following process is responsible for guttation ? (A) Root pressure (B) Transpiration (C) Photosynthesis (D)
Imbibition 5. Loss of water from the tips of leaves is called (A) guttation (B) transpiration (C) respiration
(D) bleeding 6. Transpiration pull will be maximum in (A) Open stomata, dry atmosphere, moist soil (B)
Open stomata, humid atmosphere, moist soil (C) Open stomata, dry atmosphere, dry soil (D) Close
stomata, dry atmosphere, dry soil 7. The ultimate cause for the movement of water against the gravity
in a tree is (A) osmosis (B) transpiration (C) imbibition (D) photosynthesis 8. The raw materials for
photosynthesis are (A) CO
&O
(B) sunlight,O
& CO
2
(C) water and chlorophyll (D) CO
and water 9. Most of the photosynthesis (80%) which takes place on this earth is carried out by (A)
green plants on land (B) algae present in fresh water (C) algae found in ocean (D) algae present in ocean
and fresh water sources 10. Which of the following requires no enzyme? (A) Light reaction (B)
Combustion (C) Dark reaction (D) Carboxylation 11. Explain the following terms (i) Turgidity (ii)
Plasmolysis 12. What is osmosis ? Differentiate it from diffusion with the help of a suitable diagram. 13.
Explain the types of solution on the basis of movement of molecules / water in the cell. 14. Distinguish
between transpiration and translocation. 15. What is the product formed during C
cycle of dark reaction of photosynthesis?
VIBRANT ACADEMY
BIOLOGY
TOPIC : HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
1. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood will (A) result in clotting (B) prevent clotting (C)
prevent oxidation of haemoglobin (D) cause hemolysis 2. White blood cells engulf bacteria in a process
called (A) Diapedesis (B) Phagocytosis (C) Active transport (D) Passive transport 3. One of the difference
between blood and lymph is that (A) blood has RBCs and WBCs while lymph has lymphocytes (B) blood
has RBCs while lymph has no WBCs (C) blood has WBCs while lymph has RBCs (D) blood has dissolved
organic salts while lymph has no such inorganic salt 4. Blood vessel carrying blood from lung to heart
through (A) Pulmonary artery (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Coronary artery (D) None of these 5. The process of
tubular secretion in nephron takes place in (A) Glomerulus (B) Proximal convoluted tubule (C) Loop of
Henle (D) Distal convoluted tubule 6. Ammonia is converted into urea in (A) kidney (B) spleen (C) liver
(D) nephron 7. Function of loop of Henle is (A) conservation of water (B) formation of urine (C) filtration
of blood (D) passage of urine 8. The largest part of brain is (A) Corpora quadrigemia (B) Medulla
oblongata (C) Cerebellum (D) Cerebrum 9. The centre for the sense of smell in brain is (A) cerebellum (B)
cerebrum (C) midbrain (D) olfactory lobes 10. The pineal body is considered as (A) an endocrine gland
(B) an organ concerned with voluntary actions (C) an organ concerned with vision (D) a vestige of third
eye and endocrine gland 11. What is double circulation? 12. Distinguish between arteries and veins. 13.
Flame cells are excretory organs of which group of animals? 14. Name the major excretory product of
human beings. 15. What is the difference between sensory and motor neurons? Which parts of human
brain are responsible for auditory reception and sensation of smell?
VIBRANT ACADEMY
BIOLOGY
TOPIC : HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
1. Glucagon is secreted from which cells of Islet of Langerhans (A)
-Cells (B)
-Cells (C)
-Cells (D) Both

&
cells 2. The gland which is both exocrine as well as endocrine is (A) adrenal (B) pituitary (C) pancreas (D)
liver 3. What is the effect of thyroxine on BMR (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Uncertain (D) No effect 4.
Hormone that stimulates heart beat is (A) Thyroxine (B) Adrenaline (C) Glucagon (D) Gastrin 5. Endocrine
glands are those which put their secretions directly into (A) ducts (B) blood (C) both (D) none of the
above 6. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 spermatozoa? (A) 40 (B)100 (C)
200 (D) 400 7. Onset of menstruation is due to : (A) Decrease in level of progesterone (B) Increase in
oestrogen level (C) Increase in FSH level (D) Decrease in oxytocin level 8. Which one of the following is
haploid ? (A) Oogonia (B) Primary spermatocyte (C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte 9. The
population explosion in India is mainly due to (A) political instability (B) limited education (C) decreased
mortality (D) climate 10. July 11 is observed as (A) World Population Day (B) No Tobacco Day (C) World
Environment Day (D) World Health Day 11. Write a short note on chemical co-ordination in plants. 12.
Differentiate between endocrine and exocrine glands. Write the characteristics of hormones. 13.
Describe the stages in the development of human embryo. 14. What do you mean by cloning? 15. What
do you mean by population explosion?
VIBRANT ACADEMY
BIOLOGY
TOPIC : PHYSICAL HEALTH AND HYGIENE
1. Deficiency diseases are (A) communicable diseases (B) non communicable diseases (C) allergies (D)
none of these 2. If a person lives exclusively on a diet of milk, egg and bread, he is likely to suffer from
(A) scurvy (B) night blindness (C) rickets (D) beri beri 3. Immunization is induced in a body by (A)
Antibiotics (B) Vaccination (C) Sterlization (D) Blood transfusion 4. Diseases like dysentry and loose
motions are due to (A) Protozoans (B) Bacteria (C) Internal disturbance (D) All of above 5. Which of the
following pair of diseases is caused by virus? (A) Chicken pox and Polio (B) Polio and Malaria (C)
Tuberculosis and Chicken pox (D) Sleeping sickness and Tetanus 6. Sleeping sickness disease is caused by
(A) housefly (B) mosquito (C) sandfly (D) tsetse fly 7. Microbes that generally enter the body through
nose are likely to affect (A) gut (B) lungs (C) liver (D) lymph node 8. Which of the following disease
require use of antibiotics ? (A) Diptheria (B) Haemophilia (C) Goiter (D) Red-green blindness 9. Which of
the following is not true about preventive measures of tuberculosis? (A) Good nourishment & sanitary
surrounding (B) Isolation of T.B. patients (C) Use of insect repellants (D) Immunization of BCG vaccine 10.
Rabies is caused by (A) rabies virus (B) clostridium (C) giardia (D) HIV 11. Explain the artificial breathing.
Write the difference between active and personal immunity. 12. Define Antibiotics ? Against what type
of organisms they are used and how do they work ? 13. Explain immunity. 14. How is a cancerous cell
different from a normal cell? 15. Write an account about acute and chronic disease.
VIBRANT ACADEMY
BIOLOGY
TOPIC : POLLUTION 1.
Which gas plays a major role in global warming? (A) CO (B) Nitrous oxide (C) CO
(D) Sulphur dioxide
2.
Which of the following is also called ‘Marsh gas’? (A) Methane (B) CO
(C) Chlorofluro carbons (D) Sulphur dioxide
3.
The ozone blanket blocks (A) sunlight (B) U.V. radiations (C) dust particles (D) visible light
4.
If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of the earth will (A) increase (B) go on
decreasing (C) increase during day & decrease during night (D) be unaffected
5.
Which of the following is not a green house gas? (A) CH
(B) CO
(C) CFC (D) NH
6.
Thermal pollution is more prevalent near (A) hot water springs (B) coal based power plants (C)
temperate zones (D) tropical zones
7.
The major drawback of D.D.T as a pesticide is that (A) it is significantly less effective than other
pesticides (B) it's cost of production is high (C) it is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature (D)
organism at once develop resistant to it
8.
Noise pollution is measured in (A) hertz (B) fathoms (C) nanometers (D) decibels
9.
World climate is threatened by increase in concentration of (A) oxygen (B) carbon dioxide (C) nitrogen
(D) water vapors
10.
If the concentration of dissolved oxygen is reduced, than it would (A) adversely affect the aquatic flora
& fauna (B) not show any effect (C) both of them are possible (D) none of these is correct
11.
Explain ozone layer, its depletion and effects of ozone depletion.
12.
Describe sources and harmful effects of air pollution.
13.
Which radiation is absorbed by ozone?

14.
Give few examples of atmospheric gases responsible for causing acid rain.
15.
Why inhalation of carbon monoxide is dangerous?
"
A-14(A)
" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 (edge.vibrantacademy.com)10
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET
VIBRANT ACADEMY
MENTAL ABILITY
CLASS X - (ICSE)
DPP NO. 1TOPIC : NUMBER SERIESDirections (1-10) : In each of the following questions, one number is
missing in the series. You have tounderstand the pattern of the series and insert the number.1.
4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ?, 123, 199(A) 76(B) 70(C) 84(D) 95
2.
132, 138, 150, 156, 168, ?(A) 180(B) 183(C) 188(D) 191
3.
5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?(A) 1194(B) 1094(C) 1095(D) 1093
4.
12, 30, 56, 90, ?(A) 130(B) 125(C) 147(D) 132
5.
4, 8, 12, 24, 36, 72, ?(A) 108(B) 98(C) 92(D) 96
6.
4, 2, 5, 1, 6, ?(A) 5(B) 2(C) 4(D) 0
7.
2, 3, 10, 15, 26, 35, 50, 63, ?(A) 80(B) 82(C) 83(D) 84
8.
1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?(A) 48(B) 68(C) 82(D) 94
9.
389, 195, 97, 49, 24, ?(A) 16(B) 13(C) 12(D) None of these
10.
1, 3, 7, 25, 103, ?(A) 526(B) 521(C) 515(D) 509
Directions (11-15) : In each of the following questions one number is wrong in the series, find out the
wrongnumber.11.
3, 7, 14, 27, 53, 107, 213(A) 14(B) 7(C) 27(D) 53
12.
376, 188, 88, 40, 16, 4, – 2(A) 4(B) 16(C) 40(D) 188
13.
444, 300, 200, 136, 87,84, 80(A) 200(B) 136(C) 87(D) 80
"
A-14(A)
14.
2, 3, 12, 37, 86, 166, 288(A) 2(B) 166(C) 86(D) 37
15.
572, 284, 140, 72, 32, 14, 5(A) 14(B) 32(C) 72(D) 5
Directions (16 to 18): In each of the following questions, a number series is given. After the series, below
itin the next line, a number is given followed by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You have to complete theseries
starting with the number given following the sequence of the given series. Then answer thequestion
given below it.16.
288,140,66,29448(A)(B)(C)(D)(E)Which of the following numbers will come in place of (E) ?(A) 106(B)
18.5(C) 49(D) 6.25
17.
1115381267(A)(B)(C)(D)(E)Which number will come in place of (C) ?(A) 102(B) 30(C) 2140(D) 80
18.
238275(A)(B)(C)(D)(E)Which of the following numbers will come in place of (E) ?(A) 184(B) 6(C) 925(D)
45
Directions (19 to 20) : In each of the following number series, two terms have been put within
brackets.Mark in the answer sheet :
(A)If both the braket terms are right(B)If first bracket term is right and second is wrong(C)If first bracket
term is wrong and second is right(D)If both the bracket terms are wrong.
19.
3,10,29,(66),(127),218
20.
(2)5,(12),25,41,61
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 2TOPIC : ALPHABET SERIES AND LETTER REPEATING SERIESDirections (1-8) : In each of the
following questions, one number is missing in the series. You have tounderstand the pattern of the
series and insert the number.1.
AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?(A) SRQP(B) SRPQ(C) SQRP(D) RSQP
2.
FLP, INS, LPV, ?(A) ORX(B) PRY(C) ORY(D) OSY
3.
LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?(A) ELS(B) FMR(C) GKS(D) FLR
4.
KTE, SBM, AJU, IRC, ?(A) KZQ(B) ZRL(C) QZK(D) LYJ

5.
JN2827GPCE1245TULR??MS(A) 34, 36(B) 35, 35(C) 30, 32(D) 30, 41
6.
AD1739CFBP258108HJGN??LM(A) 203, 181(B) 179, 239(C) 18, 210(D) 9, 29
7.
CK169JROS2419TXKM??PV(A) 56, 84(B) 84, 56(C) 21, 14(D) 14, 21
8.
FJ2516NSLZ25196SXNQ??WY(A) 9, 4(B) 4, 9(C) 8, 27(D) 27, 8
Directions (9 to 12):
Find the wrong term?9.
PON, RQP, TSR, VVT, XWV, ZYX(A) VVT(B) TSR(C) XWV(D) RQP
10.
ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, ZKW(A) NTB(B) DGK(C) SBL(D) ZKW
11.
AIU, EOA, IUE, OAE, UEO(A) AIU(B) EOA(C) IUE(D) OAE
"
A-14(A)
12.
D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N(A) P90N(B) G10T(C) J20R(D) D4V
Directions (13 to 16):
Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will completethe given letter
series ?13.
cb _ ab _ cb _ a _ cc _ a(A) aacbb(B) acabb(C) abacb(D) ababc

14.
abc – d – bc – d – b – cda(A) bacdc(B) cdabc(C) dacab(D) dccbd
15.
– b c – – b b – a a b c(A) acac(B) babc(C) abab(D) aacc
16.
a – bc – a – bcda – ccd – bcd –(A) abddbd(B) acbdbb(C) adbbad(D) bbbddd
Directions (17 to 20): given below are based on the letter series, In each of these series, some letters
aremissing. Select the correct alternative. If more than five letters are missing, select the last fiveletters
of the series.17.
xyzu – yz – v – – uv – – – – – – –(A) uvxyz(B) vuzyx(C) uvzyx(D) vuxyz
18.
uvwxyuv – – au – – – a – – a – –(A) aaaaa(B) uvaaw(C) uvaaa(D) waaaa
19.
abxyzbx _ zyx _ _ y _ _ _ _ _ _ (A) baxyz(B) abxzy(C) abxyz(D) abzyx
20.
n –g f– t –f ht n– –t – b –f 1 3– 24 5 0– 4– –3 –– – – ––The last five terms of the number series are(A)

50123(B) 40321(C) 40231(D) 51302
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 3TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURE1.
72354120573?564
(A) 112(B) 145(C) 135(D) 102
2.
(A) 4(B) 5(C) 1(D) 3
3.
2359173865119?
(A) 228(B) 199(C) 257(D) 209
4.
51610926
2122531915
5117?4813
(A) 25(B) 129(C) 7(D) 49
5.
(A) 65, 36, 63(B) 53, 24, 63(C) 49, 32, 53(D) 51, 25, 61
6.
(A) 18(B) 16(C) 12(D) 10
7.
5119691388817?
(A) 225(B) 165(C) 185(D) 250
8.
3 ? 25 9 83 3 34 4 47 8 9
(A) 0(B) 1(C) 2(D) 5
"
A-14(A)
9.
30 86 781 3 43 5 22 4 ?4 6 3
(A) 6(B) 7(C) 8(D) 9
10.
1 7 ?4 8 85 6 53 7 64 5 5
(A) 3(B) 4(C) 5(D) 6
11.
19 17 ?16 64 936 100 251 49 425 81 16
(A) 6(B) 7(C) 8(D) 9
12.
7.50
11.25
?4 5 55 2 22 3 43 6 2
(A) 4.5(B) 5.0(C) 8.5(D) 7.0
13.
21 24 ?2 1 23 8 45 5 97 6 5
(A) 36(B) 38(C) 48(D) 42
14.
103914?810 39115
(A) 62(B) 102(C) 84(D) 74
15.
9 12 ?11 12 63 8 75 6 5
(A) 12(B) 9(C) 8(D) 6
16.
(A) 16(B) 9(C) 85(D) 112
"
A-14(A)
17.
123210122512101613121?1024
(A) 5(B) 11(C) 13(D) 8
18.
154
33
2272
36
832?189
2211
123
(A) 3(B) 4(C) 8(D) 12
19.
12 12
6 1152 4 24 2 33 39
(A) 27(B) 45(C) 120(D) 180
20.
(A) 7(B) 8(C) 9(D) 10
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 4TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS1

.
f 'x' means '÷' , '–' means 'x', '÷' means ' +' and '+' means '–' then what will be the value of (3 – 15 ÷ 19 ) ×
8 + 6 = ?(A) 8(B) 4(C) 2(D) –1
2.
If ÷ means +, – means ×, + means –, and × means ÷ then the value of 23 + 91 × 7 ÷ 10 = ?
&
(A) 20(B) 1(C) 0(D) None of these
3.
The value of 8 × 2 × 96 ÷ (12 × 4) is :(A) 32(B) 23(C) 12(D) 21
4.
If > denote +, < denotes –, + denotes
<
denotes ×, – denotes =, x denotes > and = denotes <, choose thecorrect statement in each of the
following questions.(A) 14 > 18 + 9 = 16 + 4 > 1(B) 4 > 3
<
8 < 1 – 6 + 2 > 24(C) 3 < 6
<
4 > 25 = 8 + 4 > 1(D) 12 < 9
<
3 < 6 × 25 + 5 > 6
Directions : (5 to 6) Choose and substitute the correct set of signs / signs and number in place of
sequentially, selecting from the given alternatives to make the equations meaningful.5.
10
10
10
100
10(A) +, =,
, +(B) ×,
,=,
(C) ×, +, =, ×(D) =, ×,
,+
6.
48 ÷
= 12
4(A) 6, –(B) 8, +(C) 12, ÷(D) 16, ×
Directions : (7 to 8) In the given equations find which of the following interchange of signs/numbers
wouldmake the equations correct.7.
9 + 7 × 1 = 5 – 3(A) = , –(B) + , ×(C) ×, –(D) + , –
8.
30 ÷ 5 + 10 = 6 × 3(A) 10, 5(B) 6, 10(C) 5, 3(D) 5, 6
Directions : (9) When the signs are changed as shown below, which one of the following equations
iscorrect ?
– to ++ to X× to
÷ to =
9.
(A) 40 + 5 ÷ 45 × 15 – 25(B) 40 ÷ 5 + 45 × 15 – 25(C) 40 × 5 – 45 ÷ 15 + 25(D) 40 + 5 – 45 × 15 ÷ 25
Directions : (10 to 12) Match the numbers in column-I with the rules in Column-II.Column-IColumn-II
1) 30a) n
+ n/22) 63b) 3n
+ 33) 66c) n
+ 44) 110d) n
– 2n5) 127e) n
– 3nf) 2n
–1
10.
Which rule the number 30 follows ?(A) b(B) c(C) d(D) e
"
A-14(A)
11.
Which rule the number 63 follows ?(A) c(B) d(C) e(D) f

12.
Which rule the number 66 follows ?(A) d(B) f(C) a(D) b
Direction
(13 to 14) In answering the questions below, use the following information :
Y means divide X by YX
Y means multiply X by YX # Y means subtract Y from XX
Y means add Y to X
13.
The simple interest of an amount is calculated by multiplying P and T and R and dividing the value by
100.This can be written as :(A) P
R 100(B) (P
T)
R 100(C) (P
R)
100(D) can't be determined
14.
A receives X number of balls. He gives 10% of his ball to B, 15% of his ball to C and 12% of his ball to D.
Howmany balls does he have with him now ?(A) X
(10
100)
(15
100) # X
(12
100)(B) X
(10
100)
X (15
100)
(1
100)(C) X # [X
(10
100)
(15
100)
(12
100)](D) None of these
Directions : (15 to 18) In the following questions the symbols $, @,
and
are used with the followingmeaning.
A $ B means A is greater than B A @ B means A is either greater than or equal to B A
B means is A is equal to B A
B means A is smaller than B A
B means A is either smaller than or equal to B
Now is each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of thetwo
conclusions I and II given below them is / are definitely true ? Give answer (A) if only conclusionsI is true,
(B) if only conclusion II is true (C) if neither I nor II is true (D) if both I and II are true.15.Statements:
P @ Q, M
N, N
Conclusions:
I. P $ MII. N
P
16.Statements:
X, F @ Y, D $ F
Conclusions:
I. X @ YII. Y
17.Statements:
P, S $ T, M @ TT
Conclusions:
I. T
PII. S
18.Statements:
V, X $ W, U
Conclusions:
I. W $ VII. U
X
"
A-14(A)
Directions (19 to 20) : Refer to the following addition. Each letter represent distinct single digit number
andno two letter represents the same digit.
If E is the largest single digit prime number and B = 2H then
A B C D EF H G H GF I I I H F+
19.
Find the value of A + H + F(A) 11(B) 12(C) 9(D) 13
20.
Find the value of C + D – E(A) 7(B) 6(C) 5(D) 3
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 5TOPIC : ARITHMETICAL REASONING1.
In a certain office,
31
of the workers are women,
21
of the women are married and
31
of the married womenhave children. If 43 of the men are married and
32
of the married men have children, what part of the workersare without children ?(A)
185
(B)
94
(C)
1811
(D)
3617
2.
A man has a certain number of small boxes to pack into parcels. If he packs 3, 4, 5 or 6 in a parcel, he is
leftwith one over; if he packs 7 in a parcel, none is left over. What is the number of boxes, he may have
to pack?(A) 106(B) 301(C) 309(D) 400
3.
From a number of apples, a man sells half the number of existing apples plus 1 to the first customer,
sells
31
rd of the remaining apples plus 1 to the second customer and
51
th of the remaining apples plus 1 to thethird customer. He then finds that he has 3 apples left. How
many apples did he have originally?(A) 15(B) 18(C) 20(D) 25
4.
First bunch of bananas has
41
as gain as many bananas as a second bunch. If the second bunch has 3bananas less than the first bunch,
then the number of bananas in the first bunch is –(A) 9(B) 10 (C) 12(D) 15
5.
A placed three sheets with two carbons to get two extra copies of the original. Then he decided to get
morecarbon copies and folded the paper in such a way that the upper half of the sheets were on top of
the lower half. Then he typed. How many carbon copies did he get?(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4
6.
In a family, the father took
41
of the cake and he had 3 times as much as each of the other members had.The total number of family
members is –(A) 3(B) 7(C) 10(D) 12
7.
At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a bowl of
dalbetween them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. There were altogether 65 dishes.
Howmany guests were present at the party?(A) 60(B) 65(C) 90(D) None of these
8.
A number consists of two digits whose sum is 11. If 27 is added to the number, then the digits change
their places. What is the number?(A) 47(B) 65(C) 83(D) 92
9.
In three coloured boxes – Red, Green and Blue, 108 balls are placed. There are twice as many balls in
thegreen and red boxes combined as there are in the blue box and twice as many in the blue box as
there arein the red box. How many balls are there in the green box?(A) 18(B) 36(C) 45(D) None of these
10.
Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from city
A toB and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities B and C from A?(A) Rs. 4,
Rs. 23(B) Rs. 13, Rs. 17(C) Rs. 15, Rs. 14(D) Rs. 17, Rs. 13
"
A-14(A)
Directions (11 to 15) : Read the following information to answer the given questions :
A bag contains coins of four different denominations, viz. 1 rupee, 50-paise, 25-paise and 10-paise.
There areas many 50-paise coins as the value of 25-paise coins in rupees. The value of 1-rupee coins is 5
times thevalue of 50-paise coins. The ratio of the number of 10-paise coins to that of 1-rupee coins is 4 :
3, while thetotal number of coins in the bag is 325.
11.
How many 10-paise coins are there?(A) 25(B) 50(C) 75(D) 100
12.
What is the value of 50-paise coins ?(A) Rs. 10(B) Rs. 15(C) Rs. 20(D) Rs. 30
13.
What is the ratio of 50-paise coins to 25-paise coins?(A) 1:4(B) 2:5(C) 2:3(D) 1:3
14.
How many 1-rupee coins are there?(A) 25(B) 50(C) 75(D) 100
15.
What is the total value of coins in the bag?(A) Rs. 130(B) Rs. 140(C) Rs. 150(D) Rs. 160
16.
A bowl of sweets was placed on a table to be distributed among three brothers - Rajan, Sajal and
Karan.Rajan arrived first and ate what he thought was his share of sweets and left. Then, Sajal arrived.
He thoughtthat he was the first one to arrive and ate the number of sweets, he thought was his share
and left. Lastly,Karan arrived. He again thought he was the first one to arrive and he took what he
thought was his share. If 16 sweets are left in the bowl finally, how many sweets did the bowl contain
initially?(A) 27(B) 36(C) 48(D) 54
17.
One night, three naughty boys stole a basketful of apples from the garden, hid the loot and went to
sleep.Before retiring they did some quick counting and found that the fruits were less than a hundred in
number.During the night one boy awoke, counted the apples and found that he could divide the apples
into threeequal parts if he first took one for himself. He then took one apple, ate it up and took
31
of the rest, hid themseparately and went back to sleep. Shortly thereafter, another boy awoke, counted
the apples and he againfound that if he took one for himself the loot could be divided into three equal
parts. He ate up one apple,bagged
31
of the remainder, hid them separately and went back to sleep. The third boy also awoke after
sometime, did the same and went back to sleep. In the morning, when all woke up, and counted apples,
theyfound that the remaining apples again totaled 1 more than could be divided into three equal parts.
How manyapples did the boy steal ?(A) 67(B) 79(C) 85(D) None of these
18.
The taxi charges in a city comprise of a fixed charge, together with the charge of the distance covered.
For a journey of 16 km, the charges paid are Rs. 156 and for a journey of 24 km, the charges paid are Rs.
204.What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 30 km ?(A) Rs. 236(B) Rs. 240(C) Rs.
248(D) Rs. 252
19.
Robin says, "If Jai gives me Rs. 40, he will have half as much as Atul, but if Atul gives me Rs. 40, then
thethree of us will all have the same amount." What is the total amount of money that Robin, Jai and
Atul havebetween them?(A) Rs. 240(B) Rs. 320(C) Rs. 360(D) Rs. 420
20.
In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total
number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, the number of keepers is –(A)
5(B) 8(C) 10(D) 15
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 6TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST1.
Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and choose the
correctsequence.
1. Precede2. Precision3. Precise4. Precept5. Preach6. Prelude
(A) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2, 6(B) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2, 6(C) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2, 6(D) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3, 6
2.
How many pair of letters are there in the word
'REPURCUSSION'
which have as many letters between themin the word as in the alphabet.(A) Three(B) One(C) Two(D)
More than three
3.
How many independent words can
'STAINLESS'
be divided into without changing the order of the letters andusing each letter only once ?(A) Nil(B)
One(C) Two(D) Three
4.
Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by one. Which of the
followingseries is observing the rule ?(A) BGKNPR(B) CINRTU(C) EJNQST(D) LQUXAP
5.
Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is in the order of 1
,2
,3
. Which of thefollowing series observes the rule given above ?(A) EGLV(B) GINQ(C) GINR(D) TVYB
6.
How many pairs of letters in the word
‘BRIGHTER’
have as many letters between them in the word as in thealphabet ?(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) more than 4
7.
How many pairs of letters in the word
‘CONTRACTOR’
have as many letters between them in the word as inthe alphabet ?(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) more than 4
8.
If the alphabet series is written in a reverse order, which of the following will be the seventh letter to
the left of eighth letter from your right ?(A) L(B) M(C) O(D) P
9.
If the last four letters for the word ‘CONCENTRATION’ are written in the reverse order followed by next
twoletters in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and then followed by the first four in
the reverseorder, counting from the end, which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement ?(A) T(B)
N(C) E(D) R
10.
If you count
21
letters in the English alphabet from the end and
20
letters from the beginning which letter willappear exactly in the middle of the sequence thus formed
?(A) M(B) N(C) L(D) O
11.
If every alternate letter starting from B of the alphabet series is written in small letters, rest all are
written incapital letters, how will the month of 'September' be written ?(A) SEpteMbeR(B)
SEptembER(C) SEptEMbEr(D) None of these
12.
If in the alphabet series the first and the second letters interchanges their positions and similarly the
thirdand the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter will be the seventeenth
from your right ?(A) F(B) H(C) J(D) None of these
"
A-14(A)
13.
Find which one word can not be made from the letters of the given word.
CORRESPONDING :
(A) DROPERS(B) SUPERIOR(C) GRINDER(D) DISCERN
14.
Choose the one word which can be formed from the letters of the given word.
RATIONALISATION
(A) NATIONALISTIC(B) NATIONALIST(C) SITUATION(D) REALISATION
Directions : (15 to 17) In each of the following questions, a group of letters is given which are numbered
1,2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Below are given four alternatives containing combinations of these numbers.Select
that combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word.15.G A N I M
E1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5(B) 6, 3, 4, 1, 5, 2(C) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3, 6(D) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3, 6
16.K A T C E L1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6(B) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3(C) 6, 5, 3, 2, 4, 1(D) 3, 2, 4, 1, 6, 5
17.C E L S M U1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 4, 6, 3, 5, 2, 1(B) 5, 6, 4, 1, 3, 2(C) 4, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1(D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 4
18.
If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth, the seventh and the
eleventhletters of the word
‘DISTRIBUTION’
which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no suchword can be formed give ‘X’ as
answer. If more than one such words can be formed, give ‘M’ as answer.(A) O(B)
(C) B(D) X
19.
If with the help of 2nd, 5th, 6th, 7th, 10th, 11th and 12th letter of the word
‘BRAINWASHING’
a word can beformed, then write first letter of word, other wise, write X.(A) X(B) R(C) W(D) G
20.
If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fourth and the eleventh letters of the word
CONTROVERSIAL
, which of the following will be the last letter of that word ? If more than one such wordscan be made,
give
as the answer and if no such word is there, give
as the answer.(A) S(B) I(C) X(D) M
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 7TOPIC : CODING-DECODING1.

If in any code language
NATIONAL
is written as
MZGRLMZO
than how is
JAIPUR
written in that language(A) QRZKFI(B) QZRKFI(C) QZRFKI(D) QZRIFK
2.
If in any code language
CLERK
is coded as
AHYJA
how is
JOB
coded in that language -(A) HKW(B) HKV(C) HKU(D) None
3.
If
CURVE
is written as 24, 6, 9, 5, 22, what digits does stands for
THEORY
?(A) 13, 21, 20, 16, 7, 11(B) 7, 19, 22, 12, 9, 2(C) 7, 11, 16, 17, 21, 13(D) 7, 11, 14, 19, 16, 6
4.
If
PERFECT
is written as 10, 20, 6, 17, 17, 18, 0 what digits does stands for
VERBAL
?(A) 6, 12, 20, 30, 21, 8(B) 19, 18, 16, 7, 3, 9(C) 11, 13, 21, 15, 17, 9(D) 4, 20, 6, 21, 21, 9
5.
BEAD = 6;JOIN = 24;CASE = 20;GIVE = ?(A) 31(B) 34(C) 14(D) 10

6.
TRACKS = 15;ADD = 24;GROUPS = 11;ABOVE = ?(A) 6(B) 14(C) 18(D) 8
7.
AEIOU = ?;OUIAE = 15;UEIOA = 21;EAOUI = 5(A) 5(B) 9(C) 15(D) 1
8.Student
is called
Saint
Saint
is called
Thief
Thief
is called
Politician
Politician
is called
Duffer
Duffer
is called
Head
, then tell who does the job of robbery during day and right ?(A) Saint(B)Thief(C) Duffer(D) Politician
9.
In a certain code language,
tim nac
means
blue shirt
,
pit mit tim
means
shirt and pant
and
nac pit
means
blue pant
. Which word in that language means
and
?(A) tim(B) pit(C) nac(D) mit
10.
In a certain code language,
kew xas huma deko
means
she is eating apples
kew tepo qua
means
shesells toys
and
sut time deko
means
I like apples
. Which words in the language mean
she
and
apples
inthat order ?(A) ‘xas’ and ‘deko’(B) ‘deko’ and ‘tepo’(C) ‘kew’ and ‘deko’(D) ‘xas’ and ‘kew’
Direction (11 to 12): A table of words and their codes is given below. Analyze the pattern of
transformationof code into words and answer questions based on them.
ETGPIGTTETIPKSYCANESKPPACETBETOPDPYHENCPYKEYHBGDOGDBTHOTSOAPYTABSENT
11.
How many alphabets have not been used a codes for each other ?(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 5
12.
Which of the following words can be successfully coded using the pattern based on the table?(A)
EXPLODE(B) DISASTER(C) HINTED(D) SOLITARY
"
A-14(A)
Directions : (13 to 15) According to a code language, words in column are written in capital letters. And
incolumn their codes are given. The codes in column are jumbled up. Decode the language andchoose
the correct code for word given in each question.Column IColumn II
(1) DELIBERATION(A) aemrqs(2) CONSIDERATE(B) ccehlmo(3) GHOSTLIKE(C) cfhmoqqrx(4) WORLDLY(D)

cdgmqrsxz(5) KNOWLEDGE(E) adefmopqqsz(6) ROCKET(F) cefkmopqqszz
13.
KNIGHT(A) ghrxyz(B) fhmpqr(C) gprsxz(D) fgrsxz
14.
BLOAT(A) ckmps(B) cmpqs(C) ikpqz(D) hmpqz
15.
NOTICE(A) efhpqs(B) fghpqr(C) afmqsz(D) acdeqs
Directions (16 to 20) In each Q. there is a word written in capital letters with one letter underlined. For
eachletter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B),(C),
(D) or (E) not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter inthe
word. The number of that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing inother word
(s) may be coded differently.16.LIGHT
(A) w(B) o(C) l(D) k(E) j
17.ACTED
(A) g(B) w(C) c(D) d(E) a
18.CLEAR
(A) a(B) e(C) c(D) r(E) l
19.BLAST
(A) i(B) e(C) w(D) p(E) d
20.BREAK
(A) z(B) y(C) p(D) c(E) i
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 8TOPIC : SEQUENTIAL OUTPUT TRACINGDirections : (1 to 5)
Read the following information and then find out the answers to the questions that follow. A word and
number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges
themfollowing a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input:
by now 25 72 sight 37 15 home
Step
sight by now 25 72 37 15 home
Step
II
sight 15 by now 25 72 37 home
Step
III
:
sight 15 now by 25 72 37 home
Step
IV
sight 15 now 25 by 72 37 home
Step
sight 15 now 25 home by 72 37
Step
VI
sight 15 now 25 home 37 by 72 And Step
VI
is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of
the following questions the appropriate stepfor the given input.
1.Input:
askforme4932 64and24Which of the following will be Step
III
for the above input?(A) me 24askfor493264and(B) me 24forask493264and(C) me 24for32ask4964and(D)

me 24for32ask49and64
2.Input:
gonowandcome72345725How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?(A) Four(B)

Five(C) Six(D) Seven
3.
Step
III
of an input is : yellow 12 tire 92 84 36 goal lifeHow many more steps will be required to complete the
rearrangement?(A) Three(B) Four(C) Five(D) Six
4.
Step
IV
of an input is : now 17 mother 23 can know 47 31How many more steps will be required to complete the
rearrangement?(A) Two(B) Three(C) Four(D) Five
5.
Step
II
of an input is : victory 19 22 34 age bear high 24Which of the following will be Step VII ?(A) There will be
no Step
VII
(B) victory 19 high 22 34 age bear 24(C) victory 19 high 22 bear 34 age 24(D) victory 19 high 22 bear 24
34 age
Directions (6 to 9) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges
themfollowing a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input:
quick fire152839war19yellow
"
A-14(A)
Step
yellow quickfire152839war19
Step
II
:
yellow 15quickfire2839war19
Step
III
yellow 15warquickfire283919
Step
IV
yellow 15war19quickfire2839
Step
yellow 15war19quick28fire39 And Step
is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the
following questions the appropriate stepfor the given input.
6.
Step
II
of an input is : zebra 12 bank carriage 46 31 29 duskWhich of the following steps will be the last but one
?(A) V(B) VI(C) VII(D) VIII
7.Input :
age die 72 53 35 hold goal 26How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?(A)
Four(B) Five(C) Six(D) Seven
8.
Step
II
of an input is : win 12 92 for 81 always 36 homeWhich of the following will be Step VII ?(A) win
12home3692for 81always(B) win12home36for92always 81(C) win12home92for81always 36(D) None of
these
9.
Step
III
of an input is : train 23 star 61 32fall hard53Which of the following is definitely the input?(A)
23star61train32fallhard53(B) star train612332fallhard53(C) 61star23train32fallhard53(D) Cannot be
determined
Directions (10 to 12) :
Study the following informDtion carefully and the questions given below :
Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as folIows :
Input:
these icons were taken out from the sea
Pass codesBatch
from sea the out taken were icons these
Batch
II
from icons these were taken out the sea
Batch
III
from icons out sea the taken were these
Batch
IV
:
from icons out sea these were taken the and so on.First batch starts at 10.00 a.m. and each batch is for
one hour. There is a rest period or hour after the end of the fourth batch.
10.
What will be the pass code for the batch at 3.00 p.m. if input is 'four of the following five form a group'
?(A) a five following form four group the of (B) a five following form group the of four (C) a five following
form four of the group(D) a five following form four gl'oup of the
"
A-14(A)
11.
If the pass code for the batch at 1.00 p.m. on a day was 'back go here people who sattle want to', what
wasthe pass code for the batcli at 3.00 p.m. on that day ?(A) back go here people settle who want to(B)
back go here people to want settle who(C) back go here people settle to want who(D) Cannot be
determined
12.
The pass code for the first batch on a day was 'he so used to sell the surplus items’. What was the input
onthat day ?(A) items surplus the sell to used so he(B) he items surplus the sell to used so(C) so used to
sell the surplus items he(D) Cannot be determined
Directions (13 to 15) : Study the following information to answer the given questions :
A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular
rule ineach step. The following is an illusfration of the input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input:
but going for crept te light sir
Step
crept but going for te light sir
Step
II
:
crept going but for light te sir
Step
III
crept going light but for te sir
Step
IV
crept going light but for sir teStep
IV
is the last step for this input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions
the appropriate step for the giveninput.
13.
If the input is 'true se veto be nuke my like', which of the following will be Step
IV
?(A) like nuke true veto be se my(B) be my like se true veto nuke(C) be my se like true veto nuke(D) veto
true nuke like so be my
14.Input :
more fight cats cough sough acts ideaWhich of the following steps would be the last step for this input
?(A)
III
(B)
IV
(C)
(D)
VI
15.
If the second step of an input is 'clever remand window sales batch tiger never', which of the following
will beits sixth step ?(A) window remand clever sales batch tiger never (B) clever remand window batch
sales tiger never (C) batch never sales tiger clever remand window(D) It cannot have sixth step.
Directions : (16 to 20) Study the following information and answer the questions given below it :
The admission ticket for an exhibition bears a password which is changed after every clock hour based
onset of words chosen for each day. The following is an illustration of the code and steps of
rearrangement for subsequent clock hours. The time is 9 a.m. to 3 P.M.
Batch I
(9 a.m. to 10 a.m.):
is not ready cloth simple harmony burning.
Batch II (10 a.m. to 11 a.m.) :
ready not is cloth burning harmony simple
Batch III (11 a.m. to 12 noon) :
cloth is not ready simple harmony burning
Batch IV (12 noon to 1 P.M.) :
not is cloth ready burning harmony simple
Batch V (1 P.M. to 2 P.M.) :
ready cloth is not simple harmony burning and so on.
"
A-14(A)
16.
If the password for Batch I was - ‘rate go long top we let have’, which batch will have the password -
‘gorate top long have let we’ ?(A) II(B) III(C) IV(D) V
17.
Day’s first password - “camel road no toy say me not”. What will be the password for fourth batch, i.e.,
12noon to 1 P.M. ?(A) road camel toy no not me say(B) no road camel toy not me say(C) toy no road
camel not me say(D) toy camel road no say me not
18.
If Batch II has the password - ‘came along net or else key lot’, what could be the password for Batch
IVi.e., 12 noon to 1 P.M. ?(A) net or came along else key lot(B) came or net along lot key else(C) or net
along came lot key else(D) along net or came else key lot
19.
If the password for 11 a.m. to 12 noon was -‘soap shy miss pen yet the she’, what was the password for
Batch I ?(A) pen miss shy soap she the yet(B) shy miss pen soap yet the she(C) soap pen miss shy she the
yet(D) miss shy soap pen she the yet
20.
If the password for Batch VI, i.e., 2 P.M.. to 3 P.M. is - ‘are trap cut he but say lap’, what will be
thepassword for Batch II, i.e., 10 to 11 a.m. ?(A) trap are he cut lap say but(B) he cut trap are lap say
but(C) cut he are trap but say lap(D) are he cut trap lap say but
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 9TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST1.
Kishen walks 10 km towards North. Form there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km
towardsEast. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point ?(A) 5 km, North(B)
5 km, North-East(C) 7 km, East(D) 7 km, West
2.
I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I turn left and
walk10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which direction am
I from thestarting point?(A) North(B) North-west(C) East(D) North-east
3.
Sanjay went 70 metres in the East before turning to his right. He went 10 metres before turning to his
rightagain and went 10 metres from this point.From here he went 90 metres to the North . How far was
he from thestarting point ?(A) 80 metres(B) 100 metres(C) 140 metres(D) 260 metres
4.
If I stand on my head with my face pointing Northwards, in what direction will my right-hand point ?(A)
East(B) West(C) North(D) South
5.
The time on the watch is quarter to three. If the minute-hand points to North-East, in which direction
does thehour hand point ?(A) South-West(B) South-East(C) North-West(D) North-East
6.
L is to South-West of K, M is to the East of L and South-East of K and N is to the North of M in line with
LK.In which direction of K is N located ?(A) North(B) East(C) South-East(D) North-East
7.
At my house I am facing West, then I turn left and go 10 m, then I turn 90º anticlockwise and go 5 m,
andthen I go 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to the West. In which direction am I from my house
?(A) East(B) West(C) North(D) South
8.
Shehnaz wants to go to the School.She starts from her home which is in North and comes to the
crossing.The road to her left ends in a park and straight ahead is the office complex. In which direction is
the School?(A) East(B) North(C) West(D) South
Directions : (9 to 13) A posse of four policemen A, B, C and D is combining a circular park, divided
intosixteen plots.P,Q,R and S are the offenders, whom they have to catch after given moves. Thefigure
below shows their positions :
9.
Who two are positioned North-East, South-West ?(A) P, A(B) B, R(C)
S, D(D) Q, C
10.
If A, B, C and D were to move clockwise three plots and P, Q, R and S were to move anti-clockwise three-
plots, then who two would be the North-East ?(A)
A, P(B) C, R(C) B, Q(D) D, S

"
A-14(A)
11.
If both A, B, C and D move clockwise three plots and P, Q, R and S move anti-clockwise three-plots
then,which policeman will be able to catch whom ?(A)
A, P(B) C, R(C) B, Q(D)
All of the above
12.
If A, B, C and D move clockwise two plots and P, Q, R and S move vertically up two plots then
whichpoliceman will able to catch whom ?(A) A, R(B) B, S(C)
C, P(D) D,Q
13.
If A, B, C and D were to move anti-clockwise four plots and P, Q, R, S were to move vertically up two
plots thenwho two would be North-South ?(A) P, A(B) Q, D(C)
R, A(D) S, D
14.
Ram is to the South-East of Mukesh, Shyam is to the East of Mukesh and North-East of Ram. If Sureshis
to the North of Ram and North-West of Shyam, in which direction of Mukesh is Suresh located ?(A)
North-West(B) South-West(C) North-East(D) South-East
15.
Sita and Ram both start from a point towards north and walk 10 km. Sita turns to her left and Ram turns
tohis right. Sita waits for some time and then walks another 5 km in the same directions in which she
turnedon the other hand Ram walks only 3 km. Sita then turns towards her left and Ram turns towards
his right.Both now walk 15 km forward How far is Sita from Ram now.(A) 15 km(B) 10 km(C) 8 km(D) 12
km
16.
One evening before sunset two friends Amit and Sunit were talking to each other face to face. If
Sunil'sshadow was exactly to his left side, which direction was Amit facing ?(A) North(B) South(C)
West(D) Data inadequate
Directions (17 to 19): The following questions are based on the diagram given below showing four
personsstationed at the four corners of a square piece of plot as shown.
EWN S ADCB
17.
A starts crossing the field diagonally. After walking half the distance, he turns right, walks some distance
andturns left. Which direction is A facing now ?(A) North-east(B) North-west(C) North(D) South-east
18.
From the original position given in the above figure. A and B move one arm length clockwise and then
crossover to the corner diagonally opposite ; C and D move one arm length anti-clockwise and cross over
thecorner diagonally opposite. The original configuration ADBC has now changed to(A) CBDA(B) BDAC(C)
DACB(D) ACBD
19.
From the original position, B and D move one and a half length of sides clockwise and anticlockwise
respectively.Which one of the following statements is true?(A)B and D are both at the midpoint
between A and C(B)D is at the midpoint between A and C, and B at the corner originally occupied by
C.(C)B is at the midpoint between A and C, and D at the corner originally occupied by A.(D)B and D are
both at the midpoint between A and D.
20.
A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the North. When the post office
was100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to deliver the last letter at
shantivilla.He then moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100
metres. Then howmany metres was he away from the post office ?(A) 0(B) 90(C) 150(D) 100
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 10TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENTDirections : (1 to 5) Study the following information to

answer the given questions.
(i)Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated in a circle facing centre.(ii)D is between B and G and F
is between A and H.(iii)E is second to the right of A.
1.
Which of the following is A’s position ?(A) left of F(B) Right of F(C) Between E and F(D) can’t be
determined
2.
Which of the following is C’s position ?(A) Between E and A(B) Between G and E(C) Second to the left of
B(D) Can’t be determined
3.
Who are the neighbours of D ?(A) B and C(B) C and E(C) B and G(D) B and G or B and H
4.
If the positions of B and G and D and A are interchanged then who is sitting between B and G in new
position.(A) D(B) A(C) H(D) E
5.
If B is sitting opposite to C and H is sitting opposite to E then find who is sitting opposite to F ?(A) B(B)
G(C) A(D) D
Directions : (6 to 10)
(i)Nine students P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting on a bench and are facing towards the sea.(ii)R is
next to the right of P and second to the left of W.(iii)Q is on any one end and second to the left of T.(iv)U
is the neighbour of Q and T, X is third to the right of S.(v)V is the neighbour of S and T.
6.
Which of the two students are on the two ends?(A) R and V(B) P and V(C) P and T(D) None of these
7.
Which of the following is true ?(A) R and W are neighbours of Q(B) U is just in the middle of all
students(C) Group of 8 friends is just left to W(D) W and U are neighbours of X.
8.
Which of the given five statements is unnecessary ?(A) (i)(B) (ii)(C) (iv)(D) None of these
9.
Who is just in the middle ?(A) P(B) U(C) S(D) V
10.
Which of the following group is just right to U ?(A) XWS(B) WSR(C) XWQ(D) SVT

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
I.Eight persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table- two on each side.II.There are
three lady members and they are not seated next to each other.III.J is between L and F.IV.G is between I
and F.V.H, a lady member, is second to the left of J.VI.L, a male member, is seated opposite of E, a lady
member,VII.There is a lady member between F and I.
"
A-14(A)
11.
Who among the following is seated between E and H ?(A) F(B) I(C) J(D) None of these
12.
How many persons are seated between K and F ?(A) One(B) Two(C) Three(D) Cannot be determined
13.
Who among the following are the three lady members ?(A) E, G and J(B) E, H and G(C) G, H and J(D)
Cannot be determined
14.
Who among the following is to the immediate left of F?(A) G(B) I(C) J(D) Cannot be determined
15.
Which of the following is true about J?(A) J is a male member(B) J is a female member (C) Sex of J cannot
be determined(D) Position of J cannot be determined
Directions (16 to 20) : Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Seven friends Kamla, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Gaurav, Pritam and Priya are sitting in a circle. Kamla,
Manish,Rohit, Amit, Pritam and Priya are sitting at equal distances from each other.Rohit is sitting three
places right of Pritam, who is sitting one place right of Amit. Kamla forms and angle of 90 degrees from
Gaurav and an angle of 120 degrees from Manish. Manish is just opposite Priya and issitting on the left
of Gaurav.
16.
Who is the only person sitting between Rohit and Manish ?(A) Pritam(B) Amit(C) Gaurav(D) Kamla
17.
Gaurav is not sitting at equal distances from(A) Rohit and Pritam(B) Amit and Kamla(C) Manish and
Pritam(D) All of the above
18.
Gaurav is sitting...... of Priya.(A) to the left(B) to the right(C) two places right(D) None of these
19.
The angle between Gaurav and Manish in the clockwise direction is(A) 150º(B) 180º(C) 210º(D) None of
these
20.
Which of the following statements is not correct?(A) Pritam is between Manish and Kamla(B) Manish is
two places away from Priya(C) Gaurav is sitting opposite Pritam(D) All of the above
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 11TOPIC : RANKING AND ORDERING -TEST1.
Nitin was counting down from
32
. Sumit was counting upwards, the numbers starting from
and he wascalling out only the odd numbers. What common number will they call out at the same time
if they werecalling out at the same speed ?(A) 19(B) 21(C) 22(D) They will not call out the same number
2.
Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car, there is one scooter.
After thesecond car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on.
Work out thenumber of scooters in the second half of the row.(A) 10(B) 12(C) 15(D) 17
3.
In a row at a bus stop,
A
is
7th
from the left and
is 9th from the right. They both interchange their positions.Now A becomes
11th
from the left. How many people are there in the row ?(A) 18(B) 19(C) 20(D) 21
4.
If the first and second digits in the sequence 5981327438 are interchanged, also the third and fourth
digits,the fifth and the sixth digits and so on, which digit would be the seventh counting to your right
?(A) 4(B) 8(C) 7(D) 1
5.
In a queue of boys Sohan is
9th
from the back. Ramesh's place is
8th
from the front. Radhey is standing inbetween the two. What could be the minimum number of boys
standing in the queue?(A) 8(B) 10(C) 12(D) 14
6.
In a row of girls, Rina and Mona occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth place from the left
end,respectively. If they interchanged their places, Rina and Mona occupy seventeenth place from the
right andeighteenth place from the left, respectively. How many girls are there in the row ?(A) 25(B)
26(C) 27(D) Data inadequate
Directions : (7 to 15) Study the following information to answer the given questions :
(1) In a class of boys and girls, Amar’s rank is 12th and Meeta’s rank is 8th.(2) Amar’s rank among the
boys is 6th and Meeta’s rank among girls is 3rd.(3) In the class Meeta’s rank is 52nd from the other
end.(4) From the other end, Amar’s rank among the boys is 26th.
7.
How many boys are there in the class ?(A) 31(B) 28(C) 29(D) Can’t be determined
8.
Which of the following is Meeta’s rank among the girls from the other end ?(A) 23rd(B) 28th(C) 26th(D)
Can’t be determined
9.
How many boys are there before Meeta ?(A) 4(B) 5(C) 3(D) Can’t be determined
10.
How many boys are there between Amar and last rank (assuming it is a girl) in the class ?(A) 25(B) 47(C)
22(D) Can’t be determined
"
A-14(A)
11.
How many boys are there between Amar and Meeta ?(A) One(B) Two(C) Three(D) None of these
12.
How many girls are there before Amar ?(A) 5(B) 6(C) 7(D) Can’t be determined
13.
How many students are there in the class ?(A) 60(B) 59(C) 58(D) Can’t be determined
14.
How many girls are there between Meeta and Amar ?(A) One(B) Two(C) Three(D) Can’t be determined
15.
How many girls are there between Meeta and last rank (assuming it is a boy) in the class ?(A) 24(B) 26(C)
28(D) None of these
16.
In the following list of numerals, how many 2’s are followed by 1 but not preceded by 4 ?4 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 1
2 4 4 4 1 2 2 1 2 1 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 4 6(A) Two(B) Three(C) Four(D) Five
17.
If the first and second digits in the sequence 5 9 8 1 3 2 7 4 3 8 are interchanged, also the third and
fourthdigits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on, which digit would be the seventh counting from your
right ?(A) 1(B) 4(C) 7(D) 8
18.
In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even number ?1
2 3 4 6 3 4 2 5 9 3 6 7 4 1 2 3 6 7 6 5 4 3(A) 3(B) 4(C) 5(D) None of these
19.
In the following number series, how many 8's are there which are immediately preceded by anumber
which does not divide it but followed by a number which divides it ?2 8 2 8 3 8 5 8 8 5 3 2 8 2 3 8 4 7 1 5
8 3 8 2 8 6(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4
20.
If the digits of the following numbers are reversed and then the number are arranged in ascending order
thenwhat will be the middle digit of the middle term ?375, 682, 315, 792, 865, 129, 875(A) 3(B) 6(C) 7(D)
8
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 12TOPIC : BLOOD RELATION-TEST1.
Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is the only daughter of my father". How that man was
related tothe woman ?(A) Brother(B) Father-in-law(C) Maternal Uncle(D) Husband
2.
If Anil is the brother of the son of Sunil’s son, what is the relationship between Anil and Sunil?(A)
Cousin(B) Brother(C) Nephew(D) Grandson
3.
Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only daughter of your father". How was
thewoman related to the person ?(A) Sister(B) Mother(C) Wife(D) Daughter
4.
Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Amit, "I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your
materialuncle." How is the speaker related to Amit's father ?(A) Sister-in-law(B) Wife(C) Either (A) or
(B)(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
5.
Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul. Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha
?(A) Son(B) Brother(C) Nephew(D) Father
6.
If P $ Q means P is the father of Q, P # Q means P is mother of Q, & P
Q means P is the sister of Q. Then how is Q related to N if N # L $ P
Q(A) grandson(B) granddaughter(C) nephew(D) data inadequate
Directions : (7 to 10) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A + Bmeans ‘A is father of B’ A – Bmeans ‘A is wife of B’ A × Bmeans ‘A is brother of B’ A
Bmeans ‘A is daughter of B’
7.
R + S + Q, which of the following is true ?(A) P is daughter of Q(B) Q is aunt of P(C) P is aunt of Q(D) P is
mother of Q
8.
If P – R + Q, which of the following is true(A) P is mother of Q(B) Q is daughter of P(C) P is aunt of Q(D) P
is sister of Q
9.
P×R
Q, which of the following is true ?(A) P is uncle of Q(B) P is father of Q(C) P is brother of Q(D) P is son of
Q
10.
If P × R – Q, which of the following is true.(A) P is brother in law of Q(B) P is brother of Q(C) P is uncle of
Q(D) P is father of Q
11.
If S × T means, S is brother of T, S + T means, S is father of T then, which means O is nephew of R.(A) R ×

T + O(B) R + T × O(C) R × O × T(D) T × O + R
12.
If P + Q means, P is Husband of Q, P ÷ Q means, P is sister of Q and P × Q means, P is son of Q then
whichmeans A is daughter of B(A) A + D × B(B) D × B ÷ A(C) B + C × A(D) A ÷ D × B
"
A-14(A)
13.
A is the brother of B, C is the brother of A. To establish a relationship between B & C, Which of the
followinginformation is required.
Sex of C
Sex of B(A) only
is required(B) only
is required(C) both
and
are required(D) Neither required
14.
Pointing towards a man in the photograph, lady said “ the father of his brother is the only son of my
mother “. How is the man related to lady ?(A) Brother(B) Son(C) Cousin(D) Nephew
15.
Soni, who is Dubey’s daughter,says to Preeti, “Your mother Shyama is the youngest sister of my
father,Dubey's Father's third child is Prabhat”. How is Prabhat related to Preeti ?(A) Uncle(B) Father(C)
grandmother(D) Father in law
16.
Pointing towards a man in the photograph, Archana said, “He is the son of the only son of my
grandmother “.How is man related to Archana ?(A) Cousin(B) Nephew(C) Brother(D) Son
17.
Pointing towards a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said “the only daughter of her
grandfather(Paternal) ismy wife”. How is Rajesh related to that woman.(A) Uncle (Fufa)(B) Father(C)
Maternal uncle(D) Brother
18.
Aakash said to Mohit, “That boy in blue shirt is younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my
father’swife”. How is the boy in blue shirt related to Aakash”.(A) Father(B) Uncle(C) Brother(D) Nephew
19.
Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, “His mother is the only daughter of your father. “How is Neha
relatedto that person ?(A) Aunt(B) Mother(C) Daughter(D) Wife
20.
Amit said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” How is Amit related to the girl ?(A)
Father(B) Father-in-law(C) Grandfather(D) Husband
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 13TOPIC : PUZZLE TESTDirections (1 to 3) : Read the following information carefully and give
the answer of following questions :
A vending machine has five switches which when operated give Coca-Cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and
Pepsidepending upon the switches that are turned on.The machine is such that each switch supplies two
different drinks and each drink is supplied by twodifferent switches. If two switches are turned on, the
common drinks if any, nullify each other and will notcome out at all. To get the drinks that one wants,
one has to turn on the right combination of switches, putin the money, press the delivery button, and
get the drink.Use the following information and answer the question that follow.Turning On Switches
:(i)1 and 3 gives 7-up and Mirinda.(ii)1 and 2 gives Coca-cola and Pepsi(iii)1 and 4 gives Limca, Coca-cola,
Mirinda and PepsiSwitches 1, 2 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi
respectively
1.
Which drinks are supplied by turning on switches 2 and 3 ?(A) Mirinda, Limca, 7-up(B) Pepsi, Limca, 7-
up(C) Coca-cola and Mirinda(D) Coca-cola, Mirinda, Pepsi and 7-up
2.
Which drink is supplied by turning on switches 2 and 4?(A) Coca-cola, Limca and Mirinda(B) Pepsi, Limca
and Mirinda.(C) Mirinda and Pepsi(D) None of these
3.
Coca-cola is one of the drinks which will be supplied by turning on switches.(A) 1 and 3(B) 1 and 5(C) 2
and 4(D) 2 and 5
Directions (4 to 8) : Study the following infirmation carefully and answer the given questions :
B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with
III
-tier sleeper berth. Each of them has adifferent profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist,
Lawyer, Journalist and Pathologist. Theyoccupied two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper
berths. B, the Engineer, is not on the upper berth. The Architect is the only other person who occupies
the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are noton the middle berth and their profession are
Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a Journalist nor an Architect. K
occupies the same type of berth as that of the Doctor.
4.
Who is the Architect ?(A) D(B) H(C) R(D) None of these
5.
What is D’s profession ?(A) Pharmacist(B) Lawyer(C) Doctor(D) Engineer
6.
Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth ?(A) BT(B) BD(C) BK(D) None of these
7.
Which of the following groups occupies the middle berth ?(A) DKT(B) HKT(C) DKR(D) DHT
8.
Which of the following combinations of person-berth-profession is correct ?(A) K – Upper – Lawyer(B) D

– Upper – Doctor (C) M – Lower – Journalist(D) R – Lower – Architect
"
A-14(A)
Directions : (9 to 13) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There is a group of six students - M, N, O, P, Q and R - in a class. Each of the six students opt for
twosubjects one compulsory and one optional. P’s optional subject was geography while three others
have it asa compulsory subject. Q and R have chemistry as one of their subjects. R’s compulsory subject
is physicswhich is an optional subject of both O and Q. Geography and English are M’s subjects, as
compulsory andoptional subjects respectively. Biology is an optional subject of only one of them. The
only female student inthe group is the one who has geography as the optional and English as the
compulsory one.
9.
Who is the female student in the group?(A) M(B) N(C) O(D) P
10.
What is the compulsory subject of O ?(A) Geography(B) Chemistry(C) Physics(D) English
11.
Which of the following has the same compulsory and optional set as that of R?(A) M(B) Q(C) O(D) None
of these
12.
Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same combination
asthat of P ?(A) M(B) N(C) O(D) Q
13.
Which of the following groups of students have geography as their compulsory subject ?(A) M, O and
P(B) O, N, and P(C) O, P and R(D) M, N and O
Directions : (14 to 15) Read the information carefully given below and answer the questions that follow.
A total of nine cards consisting of four kings, four queens and one Joker were there with Sujith, Ajay
areSanjay.I. Ajay had two cards, Sujith had three cards, and Sanjay had four cards.II. The man with the
most cards did not have the joker.III. Everyone has at least one king.
14.
Who had the Joker ?(A) Ajay(B) Sanjay(C) Sujith(D) Ajay or Sujith
15.
Who can have three queens ?(A) Ajay(B) Sanjay(C) Sujith(D) Sanjay of Sujith
Directions (16 to 20) : Read the following information given below to answer the questions that follow :
Sumeet, Philips, Wasim, Bishan and Chetan are five pleyers of the College Cricket Team and their
hometowns are Surat, Pune, Warangal, Bangalore and Chandigarh but not in that order. The five
specialists slotsof Spinner, Pace Bowler, Wicket Keeper, Batsman and Captain are held by them, again
not in the order of thier names stated above.
. Their names, home towns and specialities do not start with the same letter.
II
. Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain and they do not belong to either Surat or Bangalore.
III
. Sumeet is neither a wicket keeper nor a batsman.
IV
. Pune is not Bishan’s home town.
. The players who hails from Bangalore is a wicket keeper.
VI
. The captain’s home town is Pune while the batsman does not hail from Warangal.
16.
The spinner’s home town is(A) Chandigarh(B) Bangalore(C) Warangal(D) Pune
17.
Chandigarh is the home town of (A) Sumeet(B) Bishan(C) Wasim(D) Philips
18.
Who is the pace bowler ?(A) Chetan(B) Wasim(C) Sumeet(D) Bishan
19.
Who is the spinner ?(A) Philips(B) Chetan(C) Bishan(D) Wasim
20.
Chetan’s home town is(A) Pune(B) Surat(C) Warangal(D) Bangalore

"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 14TOPIC : VENN DIAGRAMDirections : (1 to 4) Each question below contains three groups of
things. You are to choose from thefollowing four numbered diagrams, the diagram that depicts the
correct relationship among thethree groups of things in each question.1.
Vegetable, Fruit, Brinjal
2.
Door, Window, House
3.
Honest, intelligent, Poor
4.
Car, Train, Automobile
Directions : (5 to 10) Select the diagram that best represents the given relationship.5.
Animals, Cows, Dogs(A) (B) (C) (D)
6.
Students, Children, Animals.(A) (B) (C) (D)
7.
Doctors, Nurse, Human being(A) (B) (C) (D)
8.
Musicians, Instrumentalists and Violinists ?(A) (B) (C) (D)
9.
Pigeons, Birds, Dogs(A) (B) (C) (D)
10.
Animals, Elephants and Lions(A) (B) (C) (D)

"
A-14(A)
The following questions are based on the diagram given below. In the diagram,circle represents tall
children, the square, obese children, rectangle, the energetic children andthe triangle, girl children.
Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.
EnergeticObeseGirlsTall815111094321657121314
11.
Which area represents girls who are tall and obese but not energetic ?(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 5
12.
Which of the following areas represents the tall, obese and energetic girls ?(A) Only 3(B) 3 and 4(C) 2
and 3(D) 2, 3 and 4
13.
Which of the following area represents children who are tall, obese and energetic but are not girls?(A)
3(B) 2(C) 4(D) 9
14.
Which areas represent energetic children who are not obese ?(A) 1, 13 and 15(B) 13 and 15(C) 1, 11 and
15(D) 6, 13 and 15
15.
Which of the following areas represent obese and energetic children, who are neither girls nor tall ?(A) 2
and 12(B) 3 and 10(C) 2 and 3(D) 11 and 12
Directions : (16 to 20) Study the figure below and answer the following questions.
305015154025201101810
8020
15
No. of familieshaving scootors No. of families having V.C.R.No. of families having marutiNo. of families
having T.V.
16.
Find out the number of families which have all the four things mentioned in the diagram.(A) 40(B) 30(C)
35(D) 20
17.
Find out the number of families which have scooters.(A) 145(B) 100(C) 188(D) 240
18.
Find out the number of families which have V.C.R. and T.V. both(A) 84(B) 24(C) 104(D) 100
19.
Find out the number of families which have only one thing, that is, either V.C.R. or T.V. or Scooter or
Maruti.(A) 160(B) 184(C) 225(D) 254
20.
Find out the number of families which have T.V. and scooter both but have neither V.C.R. nor Maruti.(A)
15(B) 30(C) 4(D) 50
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 15TOPIC : SYLLOGISMDirections (Questions 1 to 10) : In each question below are given two
statements followed by two conclu-sions numbered
and
II
. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem tobe at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of thegiven conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly knownfacts.Give answer (a) if only
conclusion
follows;(b) if only conclusion
II
follows;(c) if either conclusion
I
or
II
follows;(d) if neither conclusion
nor
II
follows;(e) if both conclusions
and
II
follow.1.Statements:
All men are dogs. All dogs are cats.
Conclusions:
. All men are cats.
II
. All cats are men.
2.Statements:
All roads are waters. Some waters are boats.
Conclusions:
. Some boats are roads.
II
. All waters are boats.
3.Statements:
All jungles are tigers. Some tigers are horses.
Conclusions:
. Some horses are jungles. .

II
. No horse is jungle.
4.Statements:
Some dedicated souls are angels. All social workers are angels.
Conclusions :
. Some dedicated souls are social workers.
II
. Some social workers are dedicated souls.
5.Statements:
All trucks fly. Some scooters fly.
Conclusions :
. All trucks are scooters.
II
. Some scooters do not fly.
6.Statements:
Some swords are sharp. All swords are rusty.
Conclusions :
. Some rusty things are sharp.
II
. Some rusty things are not sharp.
7.Statements:
Some adults are boys. Some boys are old.
Conclusions:
. Some adults are not old.
II
. Some boys are not old.
8.Statements:
Some books are tables. Some tables are mirrors.
Conclusions:
. Some mirrors are books.
II
. No book is mirror.
9.Statements:
No gentleman is poor. All gentlemen are rich.
Conclusions:
. No poor man is rich.
II
. No rich man is poor.
10.Statements:
No magazine is cap. All caps are cameras.
Conclusions:
. No camera is magazine.
II
. Some cameras are magazines.
Directions (11 to 20) : In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by three or
four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
theyseem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given con-
clusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.11.Statements:
All branches are flowers. All flowers are leaves.
Conclusions:
. All branches are leaves.

II
. All leaves are branches.
III
. All flowers are branches.
IV
. Some leaves are branches.(A) None follows(B) Only
and
IV
follow(C) Only
II
and
III
follow(D) All follow
12.Statements:
All politicians are honest. All honest are fair.
Conclusions:
. Some honest are politician.
II
. No honest is politician.
III
. Some fair are politician.
IV
. All fair are politician.(A) None follows(B) Only
follows(C) Only
and
II
follow(D) Only
and
III
follow
"
A-14(A)
13. Statements :
All terrorists are guilty. All terrorists are criminals.
Conclusions :
. Either all criminals are guilty or all guilty are criminals.
II.
Some guilty persons are criminals.
III.
Generally criminals are guilty.
IV.
Crime are guilt go together.(A) Only
follows(B)
Only
and
III
follows(C) Only
II
follows(D) Only
II
and
IV
follow
14. Statements :
All aeroplane are trains. Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions :
I.
Some aeroplane are chairs.
II.
Some chairs are aeroplane.
III.
Some chairs are trains.
IV.
Some trains are aeroplane.(A) None follows(B) Only
and
II
follow(C) Only
II
and
III
follow(D) Only
III
and
IV
follow
15. Statements :
Some bottles are drinks. All drinks are cups.
Conclusions :
I.
Some bottles are cups.
II.
Some cups are drinks.
III.
All drinks are bottles.
IV
. All cups are drinks.(A) Only
and
II
follow(B) Only
II
and
III
follow(C) Only
II
and
IV
follow(D) Only
III
and
IV
follow
16. Statements :
Some books are pens. No pen is pencil.
Conclusions :
I.
Some pens are books.
II.
Some pencils are books.
III.
Some books are not pencils.
IV.
All pencils are books.(A) Only
follows(B) Only
II
and
III
follow(C) Only
and
III
follow(D) Only
and
II
follow
17. Statements :
Some clothes are marbles. Some marbles are bags.
Conclusions :
I.
No cloth is a bag.
II.
All marbles are bags.
III.
Some bags are clothes.
IV.
No marbles is a cloth.(A) Only either
or
IV
follows(B) Only either
or
II
follows(C) None follows(D) Only either
or
III
follows
18. Statements :
All shares are debentures. No debenture is equity.
Conclusions :
I. No
equity is a share.
II.
Some debentures are shares.
III.
No share is equity.(A) Only
I
follows(B) Only
II
follows(C) Only
III
follows(D) All follows
19. Statements :
Some tables are TVs. Some TVs are radios.
Conclusions :
I.
Some tables are radios.
II.
Some radios are tables.
III.
All radios are TVs.
IV.
All TVs are tables.(A) None follows(B) All follows(C) Only
and
III
follow(D) Only
II
and
IV
follow
20. Statements :
Some bags are pockets. No pocket is a pouch.
Conclusions :
I.
No bag is a pouch.
II.
Some bags are not pouch.
III.
Some pockets are bags.
IV.
No pocket is a bag.(A) None follows(B) Only
and
III
follow(C) Only
II
and
III
follow(D) Only either
or
IV
follow
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 16TOPIC : ANALOGYDirection : (1 to 5) In the following questions, choose the words that show
the same relationship as givenin the each questions.1.Captain
is related to
Soldier
in the same way as

Leader
is related to(A) Follower(B) Party(C) Vote(D) Chair
2.‘Dog’
is related to
‘Puppy’
in the same way as
‘Donkey’
is related to(A) Foal(B) Colt(C) Calf(D) Filly
3.Bank
is related to
'Money'
in the same way as
'Transport'
is related(A) Goods(B) Road(C) Terrace(D) Floor
4.'Good'
is related to
'Bad'
in the same way as
'Roof'
is related to:(A) Wall(B) Pillar(C) Terrace(D) Floor
5.
What is related to
'Cube'
in the same way as
'Circle'
is related to square.(A) Circumference(B) Sphere(C) Solid(D) Cuboid
Directions : (6 to 10) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two
givenwords on one side of :: and one word is give on another side of :: while another word is to be
foundfrom the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair
bear. Choose the correct alternatives.6.
Ice : Water :: Solid : ?(A) Liquid(B) Solution(C) Matter(D) Substance
7.
Brass : Alloy : : ? : ?(A) Car : Road(B) Truck : Load(C) Pencil : Stationery(D) Police : Thief
8.
Tea : Leaves : : Coffee : ?(A)
Leaves(B) Beverage(C) Seeds(D) Plant
9.
Aeroplane : Hanger :: Train : ?(A) Platform(B) Yard(C) Station(D) Rail
10.
Fruit : Banana : : Mammal : ?(A) Snake(B) Whale(C) Sparrow(D) Shark
Directions : (11 to 15) In the following questions choose the missing word in place of sign ? On the basis
of the relationship between the words given on the left right side of sign ::11.
3 : 24 : : 5 : ?(A) 125(B) 122(C) 42(D) 27
"
A-14(A)
12.
3 : 24 :: 5 : ?(A) 120(B) 45(C) 124(D) 27
13.
225 : 257 : : 289 : ?(A) 301(B) 316(C) 320(D) 325
14.
121 : 12 : : 25 : ?(A) 1(B) 2(C) 6(D) 7
15.
6 : 18 : : 4 : ?(A) 2(B) 6(C) 8(D) 16

Directions : (16 to 20) In each of the following questions, there are two terms to the left of the sign ::
whichare related in some way. Obtain the same relationship between the term to the right of the sign
::from one of the four alternatives given under it.16.
MANTEL : NAMLET :: VANITY : ?(A) NAVYIT(B) NAVYTI(C) NAVIYI(D) AVNTIY
17.
TUESDAY : UUFSCAX :: SQUAREE : ?(A) TQUASED(B) TQVASED(C) TQVAQED(D) TQVARED
18.
AEZ : EIY :: IOX : ?(A) UYZ(B) AEX(C) EIX(D) OUW
19.
KLQM : CFMK :: NRPT : ?(A) FLLR(B) HIJH(C) FLTM(D) RLTM
20.
CEHG : XVST :: ? : OMJK(A) LMNO(B) LNQP(C) NLPQ(D) OPMN
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 17TOPIC : CLASSIFICATIONDirections : (1 to 20) In the following questions, three out of the four
alternatives are same in a certain wayand so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belong to the
group.1.
(A) Monkey(B) Rabbits(C) Whale(D) Shark
2.
(A) Wool(B) Nylon(C) Jute(D) Cotton
3.
(A)
July(B) May(C) June(D) March
4.
(A) Gold(B) Silver(C) Bronze(D) Zinc

5.
(A) Walk(B) Jump(C) Run(D) Look
6.
(A) Rickshaw(B) Taxi(C) Tonga(D) Cart
7.
(A) Huge(B) Tiny(C) Heavy(D) Small
8.
(A) Teeth(B) Tongue(C) Palate(D) Chin
9.
(A) Silk(B) Cotton(C) Nylon(D) Wool
10.
(A) Triangle(B) Tangent(C) Square(D) Rhombus
11.
(A) 2442(B) 3773(C) 4545(D) 6776
12.
(A) 27(B) 125(C) 1321(D) 729
13.
(A) 9 – 27(B) 15 – 45(C) 10 – 30(D) 20 – 60
14.
(A) 1441(B) 6996(C) 5775(D) 4848
15.
(A) 64(B) 96(C) 121(D) 144
16.
(A) 19(B) 7(C) 9(D) 13
17.
(A) 23-32(B) 45-54(C) 60-66(D) 57-75
18.
(A) 6 : 16(B) 7 : 19(C) 10 : 27(D) 11 : 31
19.
(A) 488(B) 299(C) 776(D) 667
20.
(A) 2685(B) 2600(C) 1223(D) 4310
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 18TOPIC : LOGICAL SEQUENCE OF WORDS1.
1. Rajasthan2. Universe3. Nathdwara4. World5. India(A) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4(B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4(C) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2(D) 5, 4,

2, 1, 3
2.
1. District2. Village3. State4. Town5. City(A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2(B) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3(C) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4(D) 2, 5, 3, 4,1
3.
1. Heel2. Shoulder3. Skull4. Neck5. Knee6. Chest7. Thigh8. Stomach9. Face10. Hand(A) 2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8,
9, 6, 3(B) 1, 5, 7, 8, 6, 10, 2, 4, 9, 3(B) 4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 3, 2, 5, 8(D) 3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1
4.
1. Furniture2. Forest3. Wood4. Trees(A) 1, 2, 3, 4(B) 3, 2, 1, 4(C) 2, 4, 1, 3(D) 2, 4, 3, 1
5.
1. Earn2. Study3. Baby4. Child5. Job6. Examination7. Foetus8. Apply(A) 8, 7, 5, 1, 4, 2, 3, 6(B) 7, 3, 4, 2, 8,

6, 1, 5(C) 7, 3, 4, 2, 8, 6, 5, 1(D) 5, 4, 7, 1, 3, 8, 2, 6
6.
1. Consultation 2. Illness3. Doctor4. Treatment5. Recovery(A) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5(D)

5, 1, 4, 3, 2
7.
1. Civil Disobedence Movement2. Ahmedabad Mill Movement3. Champaran Satyagrah4. Non-

cooperation Movement5. Quit India Movement6. Kheda Movement7. Khilafat Movement8. Mangel
Pandey participates in this revolt(A) 8, 3, 6, 2, 7, 4, 1, 5(B) 3, 8, 2, 6, 4, 7, 1, 5(C) 8, 3, 6, 4, 7, 2, 5, 1(D) 3,
6, 8, 4, 7, 2, 5, 1
8.
1. Shirt2. Shoes3. Cap4. Trouser 5. Spects–spectacles(A) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2(B) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2(C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2(D) 2, 1,
4, 3, 5
9.
1. Akbar2. Shahjahan3. Humayum4. Babar 5. Aurangjeb6. Jahangir (A) 4, 3, 1, 6, 2, 5(B) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2(C)

4, 3, 1, 5, 2, 6(D) 4, 1, 2, 6, 5, 3
10.
1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee2. Lal Bahadur Shastri3. Jawahar Lal Nehru4. Manmohan Singh5. Rajeev Gandhi6.
Indira Gandhi(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6(B) 3, 2, 6, 5, 1, 4(C) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2(D) 3, 2, 6,1, 5, 4
"
A-14(A)
11.
1. Blue2. Yellow3. Green4. Violet5. Indigo(A) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3(B) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2(C) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2(D) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
12.
1. Whole Numbers2. Real Numbers3. Natural Numbers4. Integers5. Rational Numbers(A) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2(B)
3, 4, 1, 5, 2(C) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5(D) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
13.
1. Multiplication2. Addition3. Bracket4. Division5. Subtraction(A) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5(B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5(C) 3, 5, 2, 4,

1(D) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
14.
1. Octagon2. Pentagon3. Triangle4. Square5. Hexagon(A) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5(B) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1(C) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2(D) 3, 4,

2, 5, 1
15.
1. Earth2. Jupiter3. Neptune4. Mars5. Uranus(A) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4(B) 1, 4, 5, 3, 2(C) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4(D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
16.
1. Atomic Age2. Metallic Age3. Stone Age4. Alloy Age(A) 1, 3, 4, 2(B) 2, 3, 1, 4(C) 3, 2, 4, 1(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
17.
1. Post-box2. Letter3. Envelope4. Delivery5. Clearance(A) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5(B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5(C) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4(D) 3,
2, 4, 5, 1
18.
1. Foetus2. Child3. Baby4. Adult5. Youth(A) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5(B) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4(C) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1(D) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
19.
1. Curd2. Grass3. Butter4. Milk5. Cow(A) 2, 5, 4, 3,1(B) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4(C) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1(D) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
20.
1. Birth2. Death3. Funeral4. Marriage5. Education(A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2(B) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3(C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1(D) 4, 5, 3,

1, 2
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 19TOPIC : PYRAMID TESTDirections : (1 to 10) Fill the blanks in the following questions from the
choice given below. Which arebased on pyramids.
12 3 49 8 7 6 510 11 12 13 14 15 1625 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 49 48
47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 6481 80 79 78 77 76 75 74
73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 6582 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
1.
20212223 : 23294555: : 20324258 : ?(A) 32425872(B) 20191817(C) 29455575(D) 58575655
2.
74564430 : 212019 : : 34406070 : ?(A) 705942(B) 707172(C) 939291(D) 706968
3.
757473 : 574331 : : 899091 : ?(A) 929394(B) 917357(C) 574331(D) 735743
4.
57433121 : 141516 : : 17353961 : ?(A) 614033(B) 605958(C) 707172(D) 706968
5.
194169 : 686766 : : ? : 798081(A) 275178(B) 244678(C) 777674(D) 254979

6.
474645 : 292311 : : 929394 : ?(A) 929394(B) 947060(C) 574331(D) 706040
7.
204270 : 696867 : : ? : 777879(A) 275178(B) 224476(C) 777674(D) 254979
8.
232945 : 303132 : : 324258 : (?)(A) 414039(B) 434445(C) 333435(D) 575655
9.
102232 : 233141 : : 252943 : (?)(A) 284752(B) 284556(C) 386366(D) 284458
10.
295557 : 234547 : : 335961 : (?)(A) 417173(B) 194143(C) 194139(D) 334142
"
A-14(A)
Directions (11 to 15):– Observe the pyramid of the numbers and answer the following question :11.
5, 26 ; 34, 31 ; 22, 19 ; ?(A) 7, 11(B) 3, 32(B) 10, 8(D) 26, 30
12.
18, 19 ; 13, 28 ; 32, 21 ; ?(A) 9,4(B) 8, 24(C)14, 18(D) 9, 24
13.
25, 8, 10 ; 36, 27, 29 ; 33, 34, 36 ; ?(A) 2, 3, 33(B) 21, 22, 33(C) 26, 9, 10(D) 30, 13, 16
14.
21, 33, 22, 2 ; 32, 36, 35, 33 ; 31, 29, 28, 36 ; ?(A) 34, 26, 25, 23(B) 34, 36, 28, 27(C) 25, 27, 11, 10(D) 29,
30, 14, 15
15.
4, 25, 34, 27 ; 3, 34, 33, 36 ; 18, 29, 36, 27 ; ?(A) 27, 10, 25, 8(B) 19, 36, 33, 34(C) 14, 29, 12, 27(D) 27, 36,
29, 18
Directions (16 to 20):– Observe the pyramid of the numbers and answer the following question :16.
BGN : NUB :: DGL : ?(A) LSZ(B) LUD(C) LMN(D) LTB
17.
ABD : OLN :: YPF : ?(A) QZJ(B) QRZ(C) QJZ(D) QRJ
18.
AGHB : EKJD :: KEFL : ?(A) OIHN(B) ONHI(C) IONH(D) IHNO
19.
AGUI : OIUG :: QSUW : ?(A) YXWV(B) YWVT(C) YWUT(D) YWUS
20.
ESGIK : IWKIG :: JLNDN :: ?(A) PNLBL(B) ZBDND(C) LBLNP(D) NDNLJ
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 20TOPIC : CALENDAR TEST1.
If 24th July, 1999 is Sunday, what day is 20th December, 1999 ?(A) Monday(B) Sunday(C) Tuesday(D)
Friday
2.
If 15th April 1988 is Friday, what day is 10th September, 1989 ?(A) Monday(B) Sunday(C) Tuesday(D)
Friday
3.
If 19th February, 1994 is Saturday, what day is 26th November, 1996 ?(A) Monday(B) Sunday(C)
Tuesday(D) Friday
4.
Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She goes to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the
weekis today ?(A) Thursday(B) Saturday(C) Sunday(D) Tuesday
5.
What was the day on 7th December, 1990 ?(A) Monday(B) Tuesday(C) Thursday(D) Friday
6.
What was the day on 24th October, 1984 ?(A) Monday(B) Wednesday(C) Thursday(D) Friday
7.
Find the day of the week on 16th January, 1969.(A) Monday(B) Thursday(C) Wednesday(D) Tuesday
8.
On what dates of October, 1985 did Thursday fall ?(A) 3
rd
, 10
th
, 17
th
, 24
th
, 31
th
(B) 7
th
, 14
th
, 21
st
, 28
th
(C) 6
th
, 13
th
, 20
th
, 27
th
(D) 2
nd
,9
th
, 16
th
, 23
rd
, 30
th
9.
Which two months in a year have the same calendar ?(A) June, October(B) April, November(C) April, July
(D) October, December
10.
Sangeeta remembers that her father's birthday was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of
December.Her sister Natasha remembers that their father's birthday was definitely after ninth but
before fourteenth of December. On which date of December was their father's birthday ?(A) 10th(B)
11th(C) 12th(D) Data inadequate
11.
If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth day
of themonth ?(A) Sunday(B) Monday(C) Wednesday(D) Friday
12.
A baby who was born on 29th Feb. 1896, when did he celebrate his first birthday.(A) 28th Feb. 1897(B)
29th Feb. 1900(C) 29th Feb. 1904(D) 20th Feb. 1908
"
A-14(A)

13.
Sonika is 10 weeks elder then Mala and Mala is 91 days younger than Jyoti. If Jyoti was born on
Mondaythen on what day of a week Sonika was born.(A) Saturday(B) Sunday(C) Monday(D) None of
these
14.
If in leap year it was Monday on 1 January than, the leap year can have the maximum Saturdays are.(A)
51(B) 52(C) 53(D) 54
15.
Monika is 20 weeks elder than Priyanka and Priyanka is 63 days younger than Jyoti. If Jyoti was born
onSunday then on what day of a week Monika was born.(A) Saturday(B) Sunday(C) Monday(D) None
16.
Maximum number of Thursdays are possible in a leap year is.(A) 51(B) 52(C) 53(D) 54
17.
The day after tomorrow will be X-mas day. What will be the day on New-year-day if today is Monday
?(A) Monday(B) Thursday(C) Sunday(D) Wednesday
18.
If the sixth day of a month is fourth day after Sunday then which day of the weak will be on 19th day of
thatmonth(A) Friday(B) Wednesday(C) Saturday(D) Tuesday
19.
If Sripal’s birthday falls on Thursday 20th March, 2000, then on which day of the week his birthday falls
in theyear 2001 ?(A) Wednesday(B) Friday(C) Saturday(D) Sunday
20.
If Saturday falls on 4 Jan 1997, what day of week will fall on 4 Jan 1998 ?(A) Monday(B) Friday(C)
Wednesday(D) Sunday
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 21TOPIC : CLOCK TEST1.
How many times are the hands of a clocks at right angle in a day ?(A) 22(B) 24(C) 44(D) 48
2.
Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the morning, reaches Kunal’s house in 25 minutes,
theyfinish their breakfast in another 15 minutes and leave for their office which takes another 35
minutes. At whattime do they leave Kunal’s house to reach their office ?(A) 7.40 am(B) 7.20 am(C) 7.45
am(D) 8.15 am
3.
Lalit wakes up in the early morning and looks at the clock. He realizes that he is late for his appointment
withthe dentist that is due half an hour from then. He gets ready hastily in 15 mins, and drives as quickly
aspossible to clinic. He drives all the way at a fixed speed , and he knows the distance between his home
andhospital. When he arrives, he figures out that he must be 25 minutes late for the appointment. He
gets out of his car and rushes to the clinic. However, when he looks at the clock, he is astonished. The
clock tells himthat he is an hour and five minutes early for the appointment. He checks the time with a
news channel on t.v.and finds that it is correct. Astonished for a while, he realizes afterwards that he
had foolishly looked at themirror image of the clock while leaving home.What was the actual time when
Lalit left home.(A) 6 : 45 am(B) 7 : 15 am(C) 6 : 15 am(D) 5 : 15 am
4.
Kanchan lives on planet Eureka , where 12 Earth hours are equivalent to 20 Eurekan hours. Besides ,
thereare 10 minutes in each hour. The Eurekan clock can be visualized as identical to the circular analog
clock onEarth, only with different increments. Can you find out what will be the smaller angle between
the minuteshand and hours hand when the Kanchan’s Eurekan clock reads 4 : 06 ?(A) 127.8º(B)
130.5º(C) 133.2º(D) 135.5º
5.
Muskan would like to complete all her homework before 10 p.m. in order to watch an important TV
programme.She has 40 minutes assignment in each of her five prepared subjects. What is the latest time
at which shecan start and still complete her homework in time for the programme ?(A) 6 : 30 p.m.(B) 6 :
40 p.m.(C) 7 : 10 p.m.(D) 7 : 20 p.m.
6.
There are twenty people working in an office. The first group of five works between 8.00 A.M. and 2.00
P.M.The second group of ten works between 10.00 P.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the third group of five works
between12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are three computers in the office which all the employees
frequently use. Duringwhich of the following hours the computers are likely to be used most ?(A) 10.00
A.M. – 12 noon(B) 12 noon – 2.00 P.M.(C) 1.00 P.M. – 3.00 P.M.(D) 2.00 P.M. – 4.00 P.M.
7.
If a clock shows 12 : 37 then its mirror image will be ?(A) 11 : 37(B) 11 : 23(C) 01 : 23(D) 21 : 23
8.
Find the angle between the hands of a clock at 20 minute past 7.(A) 100º(B) 210º(C) 260º(D) 140º
9.
At what time between 2 and 3 will the hands of a clock be in the straight line but not together (A) 45
minutes past 2(B) 35 minutes past 2(C) 42 minutes past 2(D) None of these
10.
At what time between 5 and 6 O’ clock the hands of a clock will make an angle of 18º ?(A) 20 minute
past 5(B) 24 minute past 5(C) 25 minute past 5(D) 22 minute past 5
"
A-14(A)
11.
A clock is set right at 8 am. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hrs. What time will the clock show when
thetrue time is 4 pm on the following day.(A) 4 : 15 pm(B) 4 : 10 pm(C) 3 : 50 pm(D) 4 : 12 pm
12.
A clock is set right at 10 am. The clock loses 18 minutes in 24 hours. What time will the clock show
whenthe true time is 6 p.m. on the following day ?(A) 5 : 34 p.m(B) 5 : 36 p.m.(C) 5 : 33 p.m.(D) 6 : 30
p.m.
13.
If the two incorrect watches are set at 12 : 00 noon at correct time, when will both the watches show
thecorrect time for the first time given that the first watch gains 1 min in 1 hour and second watch loses
4 minin 2 hours :(A) 6 pm, 25 days later(B) 12 : 00 noon, 30 days later (C) 12 noon, 15 days later(D) 6 am
45 days later
14.
Ramu purchased a second hand Swiss watch which is very costly. In this watch the minute-hand and
hour hand coincide after every
11365
minutes. How much time does the watch lose or gain per day ?(A) 4 min(B) 5 min(C) 4 min, 20 sec(D)
none of these
15.
My watch was 8 minutes behind at 8 pm on Sunday but within a week at 8 pm on Wednesday it was
7minutes ahead of time. During this period at which time this watch has shown the correct time :(A)
Tuesday 10 : 24 am(B) Wednesday 9 : 16 pm(C) It cannot show the correct time during this period(D)
None of the above
16.
At what time between 6 and 7 will the hands of a watch makes an angle of º2112 ?(A) 10 minutes past
6(B) 15 minutes past 6(C) 25 minutes past 6(D) 35 min. past 6
17.
A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes slow at noon on Sunday and is 3 minutes 48 seconds fast
at 2p.m. on the following Sunday. What time it was correct ?(A) 2 p.m. On Monday(B) 2 p.m. On
Tuesday(C) 3 p.m. On Wednesday(D) 1 p.m. On Thursday.
18.
A tired worker slept at 7.45 p
. If he rose at 12 noon, for how many hours did he sleep ?(A) 5 hours 15 min.(B) 16 hours 15 min.(C) 12
hours(D) 6 hours 45 min.
19.
A clock shows 30 minutes past 2, when both the hands of the clock are rotated by 90º in clockwise
direction.What time will the clock show ?(A) 04 : 45(B) 05: 45(C) 11 : 15(D) 11 : 16
20.
A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20 feet
beforehe again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent at 8.00 a.m., at
what timewill he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground ?(A) 4 p.m.(B) 5 p.m.(C) 6 p.m.(D) None of
these
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 22TOPIC : DATA SUFFICIENCY AND REDUNDANCYDirections (1 to 10) : Each of the questions
below consists of a question and two statemnets numbered Iand II given below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficientto answer the question.Read both the
statements and give answer (A) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question,
while the data in statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question;(B) if the data in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question,while the data in statementI alone are not sufficient to
answer the question;(C) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient ot
answer thequestion;(D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question;and(E) if the data given in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.1.
What is the colour of the fresh grass ?I. Blue is called green, red is called orange, orange is called
yellow.II. Yellow is called white, white is called black, green is called brown and brown is called purple.
2.
What is the code for 'is' in the code language ?I. In the code language, 'shi tu ke' means 'pen is blue'.II. In
the same code language, 'ke si re' means 'this is wonderful'.
3.
How is J related to P ?I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.II. P's mothe is married to J's husband who
has one son and two daughters.
4.
T studies in which of the school B, C, D, E and F ?I. T does not study in the same school as either R or J.II.
R and J study in school D and F respectively.
5.
In a row of five children A, B, C, D and E, who is standing in the middle ?I. D is to the immediate right of E
and B is to the immediate left of E.II. B is at the extreme left of the row.
6.
Madan is taller than Kamal and Sharad is younger than Arvind. Who among them is the youngest ?I.
Sharad is younger than Madan.II. Arvind is younger than Kamal.
7.
The Chairman of a big company visits one department on Monday of every week except for the Monday
of third week of every month. When did he visit the Purchase department ?I. He visited Accounts
department in the second week of September after having visited Purchase departmenton the earlier
occasion.II. He had visited Purchase department immediately after visiting Stores department but
before visiting Accountsdepartment.
8.
Which direction is Sunny facing now ?I. If Sunny turns to his right and again turns to his right, he will be
facing North.II. If Sunny walks some distance and turns left and again walks some distance, then his face
will be towardsleft of Dinesh who is facing South.
"
A-14(A)
9.
How many employees of Bank Z opted for VRS ?I. 18 % of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the
1100 other cadre employees opted for VRS.II. 28% of the employees in the age-group of 51 to 56 and
17% of the employees in all other age-groups optedfor VRS.
10.
There were 54 members of a cooperative society. How many members attended the recent Annual
GeneralMeeting (A.G.M.) ?I. Normally two - third members attend the meeting.II. One -sixth of the
members were out of the town on the AGM's day.
Direction : (11 to 15) : In each of the following problems, there is one question and three statements I, II
andIII given below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements
issufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and find which of the
statementsis/are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose the correct alternative in each
questions.11.
What does 'come' represent in a code language ?I. 'pit na tac' means 'come and go' in that code
language.II. 'ja ta da' means 'you are good' in that code language.III. 'na da rac' means ' you can come' in
that code language.(A) Only I and II(B) Only II and III(C) Only I and III(D) All I, II and III
12.
How is 'DATE' written in the code language ?I. DEAR is written as $#@? in that code.II. TREAT is written
as %?#@% in that code.III. TEAR is written as %#@? in that code.(A) Only I and II(B) Only II and III(C) Only
I and III(D) Only I and either II and III
13.
Pankaj is younger than Sunita and Rupali is older than Tom. Who among them is the oldest ?I. Rupali is
older than Pankaj.II. Sunita is older than Rupali.III. Tom is the youngest among all.(A) Only II(B) Only III(C)
Only I and II(D) All I, II and III
14.
Four subjects — Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology - were taught in four consecutive periods
of one hour each starting from 8.00 a.m. AT what time was the Chemistry period scheduled ?I.
Mathematics period ended at 10.00 a.m., which was preceded by Biology.II. Physics was scheduled in
the last period.III. Mathematics period was immediately followed by Chemistry.(A) Only I(B) Either I only
or II only(C) Only II and III(D) Only I and either II or III
15.
What is Suman's rank from the top in a class of forty students ?I. Suman is 3 ranks below Deepak from
the top.II. Deepak's rank from the bottom is 23.III. Suman is 3 ranks above Deepak fromthe bottom.(A)
Only II and either I or III(B) Only I and II(C) Only II and III(D) Only II
"
A-14(A)
Directions (16 to 20) : Each of the following questions consists of information in three statements. Study
thequestion and the statements and decide which of the statement/s is/are not required to answer
thequestion and hence can be dispensed with.16.
Ten years ago, the ratio of ages of father and son was 3 : 1. What are their present ages?I. The sum of
their present ages is 60 years.II. The ratio of their ages five years hence would be 9 : 5.III. Ten years ago,
the son's age was 1/3 of the father's age.(A) Only III(B) Both I and III(C) Both II and III(D) Either (B) or (C)
17.
There are three bags and their combined weight is 48 kg. What is the weight of the heaviest bag ?I. One
bag weighs 24 kg.II. The sum of the weight of two bags is 30 kg.III. The lightest bag is 6 kg.(A) Only I(B)
Both II and III(C) Either (A) or (B)(D) None of the three statements can be dispensed with
18.
What is the average age of the class that has 60 students?I. The average age of the boys in the class is 23
years.II. The average age of the girls in the class is 21 years.III. The ratio of the boys and girls in the class
is 2 : 1.(A) None of the three statements can be dispensed with(B) Only III(C) Both I and II(D) Either of
the three statements can be dispensed with
19.
What is the distance between Mumbai and Kolkata?I. Total time of travel is 5 hours 15 min.II. First half
of the distance is covered at a speed of 60 kmph while the rest at 40 kmph.III. It takes 10 hours to travel
from Mumbai to Delhi, which is a distance of 200 km.(A) Only II(B) Only III(C) Either (A) or (B)(D) The
question cannot be answered even using all the three statements
20.
What is the sum of all the numbers, which are divisible by 4 ?I. All the numbers have three digits only.II.
The number should be less than 4000.III. All the numbers are less than 200.(A) Either of the three
statements can be dispensed with(B) Any two of the three statements can be dispensed with(C) The
questions cannot be answered even by using all the three statements(D) None of the three statements
can be dispensed with
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 23TOPIC : CUBE TEST AND DICE TESTDirections : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured red on two opposite
faces, blue on two adjacent faces and yellowon two remaining faces. It is then cut into two halves
among the plane parallel to the red faces.One piece is then cut into four equal cubes and the other one
into 32 equal cubes.1.
How many cubes do not have any coloured face?(A) 0(B) 16(C) 4(D) 8
2.
How many cubes do not have any red face ?(A) 8(B) 16(C) 20(D) 24
3.
How many cubes have at least two coloured face ?(A) 20(B) 24(C) 28(D) 32
4.
How many cubes have each a yellow face with other faces without colour ?(A) 4(B) 14(C) 17(D) 20
5.
How many cubes have at least one face painted blue ?(A) 4(B) 14(C) 17(D) 20
Directions : (6 to 10) A cuboid of dimensions (12 cm 8 cm 2 cm) is painted black on both the surfaces of
dimensions (8 cm 2 cm), green on the surfaces of dimensions (12 cm 8 cm). and red on thesurfaces of
dimensions (12 cm 2 cm). Now the block is divided into various smaller cubes of side2 cm. each. The
smaller cubes so obtained are separated.6.
How many cubes will have all three colours black, green and red?(A) 4(B) 12(C) 10(D) 8
7.
How many cubes will be formed ?(A) 6(B) 12(C) 16(D) 24
8.
If cubes having only black as well as green colour are removed then how many cubes will be left ?(A)
4(B) 8(C) 16(D) 30
9.
How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and 2 sides without colour ?(A) 8(B) 4(C) 16(D) 10
10.
How many cubes will have two sides with green colour and remaining sides without any colour?(A) 12(B)
10(C) 8(D) 4
11.
A dice has been thrown four times and produces following results.Which number will appear opposite
to the number 3 ?(A) 4(B) 5(C) 6(D) 1
12.
What should be the number opposite 4 ?(A) 5(B) 1(C) 3(D) 2
13.
×=
=o(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Which symbol will come opposite to symbol
(A) 0(B) =(C) x(D)
"
A-14(A)
Directions : (14 to 15) In each of the following questions how does the figure look like when folded into
acube along the marked lines ?14.
(x)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) A and D(B) Only A(C) A and B(D) B and C
15.
(x)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) A and B(B) B and D(C) B and C(D) A and D
16.
The number opposite to 4 is :
21 554 6 265
(A) 1(B) 2(C) 5(D) 6
17.
Which of the following dices is identical to the unfolded figure as shown here ?
PTRSU Q
(A)
PS T
(B)
QT R
(C)
PS U
(D)
PT Q
18.
Three positions of the same dice are given below. Observe the figures carefully and tell which number
willcome in place of ?
5 4 52 1 ?6 2 4(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 1(B) 3(C) 2(D) 6
19.
(i) (ii) (iii)Which letter will come on the blank surface ?(A) C(B) A(C) D(D) E
20.
(i)156
(ii)524
(iii)?63
Which number is on the opposite face of 2 ?(A) 1(B) 3(C) 4(D) 6
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 24TOPIC : MIRROR AND WATER IMAGEDirections : (1 to 10) In each of the following questions,
choose the correct mirror image from alternativesA, B, C, and D of the figure (X).1.
CAR27aug(A) (B) (C) (D)
2.
REASONING(A)(B) (C)(D)
3.
A N S 4 3 Q 1 2(A)(B) (C) (D)
4.
N u 5 6 p 7 u R(A) (B) (C) (D)
5.
1956INDOPAK
(A)
I AO
(B)
PAKINDO1965
(C) KAODI569N1(D)
IAO
6.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
7.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8.
(A) (B) (C) (D)(X)
9.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
+ + ++
Directions : (11 to 20) Find the water-Image of the given term/figure :11.
ab45CD67(A) (B) (C) (D)
"
A-14(A)
12.
FAMILY(A) (B) (C) (D)

13.
U 4 P 1 5 B 7(A) (B) (C) (D)
14.
D 6 Z 7 F 4(A) (B) (C) (D)
15.
A 1 M 3 b(A) (B) (C) (D)
16.
(A) (B) (C) (D)(X)
17.18.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 25TOPIC : PAPER CUTTING & FOLDING AND FIGURE PARTITION & COUNTINGDirections : (1 to
7) A sheet has been folded in the manner as shown in X, Y and Z respectively andpunched. You have to
choose from the alternatives how it will look when unfolded.1.
2.
3.4.
X Y Z (A) (B) (C) (D)

5.
X Y Z (A) (B) (C) (D)
6.
X Y Z (A) (B) (C) (D)
7.
X Y Z (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions : (8 to 14) A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given in figure X. Find out from
amongstthe alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at
thedotted line.8.
"
A-14(A)
9.10.11.12.13.14.15.
How many parallelograms are there in the figure below ?(A) 14(B) 15(C) 16(D) 18
16.
How many squares and triangles are there in the following figure ? (A) 7 squares, 21 triangles(B) 7
squares, 19 triangles(C) 8 squares, 17 triangles(D) 7 squares, 17 triangles
"
A-14(A)
17.
How many triangles are there in the given figure(A) 12(B) 14(C) 16(D) 18

How many triangles are there in the following figures ?18.
(A) 14 or more(B) 12 to 13(C) 10 to 11(D) 7 to 9
19.
(A) 19(B) 21(C) 25(D) 23
20.
(A) 10(B) 16(C) 14(D) 12
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 26TOPIC : COMPLETION & FORMATION OF FIGURE AND EMBBEDED FIGUREDirections (1 to 7):
Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would
complete the pattern.1.
(A) (B) (C) (D)(X)
2.
(A) (B) (C) (D)(X)
3.
(A) (B) (C) (D)(X)
4.
(A)
(B) (C) (D)
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
"
A-14(A)
Directions : (8 to 14) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which
thequestion figure (X) is embedded.8.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10.11.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14.
(B) (C) (D)(A)
15.16.
"
A-14(A)
17.18.19.20.
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 27TOPIC : NON-VERBAL SERIESDirections : (1 to 20)
In the following questions, some figures are given in a sequence. Find out the figurefrom the
alternatives, which will come in place of the question mark to continue the sequence.Problem
FiguresAnswer Figure1.
1234
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2.
1234
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5.
(A)(B)(C)(D)
6.
x xxx
x xxx(A) (B) (C) (D)
7.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
"
A-14(A)
11.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12.
(1) (2) (3) (4)• •• •
(A) (B) (C) (D)• •• •
13.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16.
(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)
?
(A)(B)(C)(D)
17.
++
+++
(A) (B) (C) (D)
×++×++++×++++×+++
18.
(2) (3) (4) (5)(1)
(A)(B)(C)(D)
19.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 28TOPIC : NON-VERBAL ANALOGY, CLASSIFICATION AND DOT SITUATIONDirections : (1 to 8)

There is some relationship between the two figures/pair of letters/numbers on the leftof the sign (::).
The same relationship exists between the two terms on the right of which one ismissing. Find the
missing one from the given alternatives.1.
::
::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2.
::
::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3.
::
::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4.
::
::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5.
::
?
::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6.
?::::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
"
A-14(A)
7.
::::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8.
::?::
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions : (9 to 15) In each of the following questions four figures are given. One of these figures does
notcorrelate with the rest of the figures. Find the different figure.9.
(B) (C) (D)(A)
10.11.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13.14.
(A) (B) (C) (D)×× ××
+ + + + + + + +
×× ××
15.
(A) (B) (C) (D)S=
S=
S=S=
Directions (16 to 20): In each of the following questions, there is a diagram marked (X), with one or
moredots placed in it. The diagram is followed by four other figures, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
oneof which is such as to make possible the placement of the alternative in each case.
"
A-14(A)
16.
(x)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17.
(x)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19.
(X)(A) (B) (C) (D)

20.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
"
A-14(A)
IBRANT ACADEMY
PHYSICS
CLASS – X (ICSE)
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)Ans.
motion alwaysattractionor repulsionforce, effect decrease C A A B
shape a force N C D B B
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 1-(f) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c)Ans.
20 Hz, 20000Hz infasonic ultrasonic greater om ultrasonic B B B
Reflectionv ra oryoscillatory motionforced vibration Resonance amplitude D B D D
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)Ans.
hydrocarbonfloods, producing energyMethane, carbon dioxideless calorific C A D D B

Motion position displaces impact impact A D C D A
perpendicular 1N,1m capacity power velocity A C C A C
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)Ans.
greater relative gear C C B B A
different retraces second greater,lesser 49 A A B C C
Positive inverse thick, thin same optical centre B A C C B
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)Ans.
less recombinationdispersed into seven colours A C B B
Bones infrared cameras quartraze infrared light electromagnetic D A A C
DPP 11DPP 12DPP 9DPP 10DPP 8
ANSWER KEY
DPP 1DPP 2DPP 3DPP 4DPP 7DPP 5DPP 6
10
"
A-14(A)
potential energy volt volt chemecal, electricalelectrical current A C C D A

ohm good conductor remains same series parallel C B D D
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 1-(f) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)Ans.
Joule's Electrical energy watt Potential required larger smaller B C B C
Que. 2-(e)Ans.
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)Ans.
unit series same phase, black D B A D B
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 1-(f) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)Ans.
electromagnetism circle inversely right hand thum rule parallel bar C A C A
Que. 2-(e) 2-(f)Ans.
CB
uniform more electrical energy AC mechanical energy B A D D D
Que. 2-(f)Ans.
heat energy all bodies gmspecific heat capacity of temperature B B C A A
latent heat energy infrared lower fossil carbon dioxide C C C C D
horbital energy proton, nutron 2 1 A C A B B
less nutron, proton atomic number nutron, proton
a, b, g
BCCDB
DPP 13DPP 14DPP 15DPP 16DPP 17DPP 18DPP 21DPP 22DPP 19DPP 20
10
"
A-14(A)
VIBRANT ACADEMY
CHEMISTRY
CLASS – X (ICSE)
Que.12345678910Ans.
ACBCCCCBCD
Que.12345678910Ans.
BBCDDACCCA
Que.12345678910Ans.
BDBDBBCDBC
Que.12345678910Ans.
BACBDADADA
Que.12345678910Ans.
BABCABDCBB
Que.12345678910Ans.
ABDCADCBAB
Que.12345678910Ans.
BCDCDCAABC
Que.12345678910Ans.
CACBCDBBBB
Que.12345678910Ans.
DABABCCCDC
Que.12345678910Ans.
BCCBBCCCCA
Que.12345678910Ans.
BBACDACCCC
Que.12345678910Ans.
BDBBCCCBBC
Que.12345678910Ans.
ABDABDACAC
DPP 8 [Part-II]DPP 8DPP 6 [Part-II]DPP 7DPP 5DPP 6
ANSWER KEY
DPP 1DPP 1 [Part-II]DPP 2DPP 4DPP 3-A [Part-II]DPP 3-BDPP 3-A
"
A-14(A)
Que.12345678910Ans.
CABBAACBBA
Que.12345678910Ans.
AABAADCDBB
DPP 8 [Part-III]DPP 9
"
A-14(A)
IBRANT ACADEMY
BIOLOGY
CLASS – X (ICSE)
Que.12345678910Ans.
DCAABABCBA
Que.12345678910Ans.
ADDAAABDDB
Que.12345678910Ans.
BBABDCADDD
Que.12345678910Ans.
ACABBCADBA
Que.12345678910Ans.
BABDADBACA
Que.12345678910Ans.
CABCDACDBA
DPP 6
ANSWER KEY
DPP 1DPP 2DPP 3DPP 4DPP 5
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 1TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
B
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 2TOPIC : ALPHABET SERIES AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES1.
2.
3.
4.
C
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
B
20.
DPP NO. 3TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURE1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
A
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 4TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
D
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 5TOPIC : ARITHMETICAL REASONING1.
2.
B
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
11.
12.
B
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 6TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
B
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 7TOPIC : CODING-DECODING1.

B
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
C
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
CLASS: X (ICSE)
VIBRANT ACADEMY
MENTAL ABILITY
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 8TOPIC : SEQUENTIAL OUTPUT TRACING1.
2.
3.
4.
A
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
D
19.
20.
DPP NO. 9TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
C
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 10TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
C
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 11TOPIC : RANKING AND ORDERING -TEST1.
2.
C
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
C
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 12TOPIC : BLOOD RELATION-TEST1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
A
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 13TOPIC : PUZZLE TEST1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
C
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
D
DPP NO. 14TOPIC : VENN DIAGRAM1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
A
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 15TOPIC : SYLLOGISM1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
D
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
"
A-14(A)

DPP NO. 16TOPIC : ANALOGY1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
C
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 17TOPIC : CLASSIFICATION1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
C
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 18TOPIC : LOGICAL SEQUENCE OF WORDS1.
2.
3.
4.
D
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
B
19.
20.
DPP NO. 19TOPIC : PYRAMID TEST1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
A
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 20TOPIC : CALENDAR TEST1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
B
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 21TOPIC : CLOCK TEST1.
2.
B
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
D
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 22TOPIC : DATA SUFFICIENCY AND REDUNDANCY1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
C
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 23TOPIC : CUBE TEST AND DICE TEST1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
C
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
D
"
A-14(A)
DPP NO. 24TOPIC : MIRROR AND WATER IMAGE1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
B
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 25TOPIC : PAPER CUTTING & FOLDING AND FIGURE PARTITION & COUNTING1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
D
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
B
DPP NO. 26TOPIC : COMPLETION & FORMATION OF FIGURE AND EMBBEDED FIGURE1.
2.
3.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
B
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 27TOPIC : NON-VERBAL SERIES1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
C
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
DPP NO. 28TOPIC : NON-VERBAL ANALOGY, CLASSIFICATION AND DOT SITUATION1.
2.
3.
4.
B
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
D
19.
20.

CLASS

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Daily Practice Problems

DPP NO. 01TOPIC : FORCE1.

Multiple choice Questions

Explain why the sole of our shoe wears out.

Wet surface are more slippery. Give reason.

Why is it easier to tie a jute knot than silk knot ?

DPP NO. 02TOPIC : FORCE1.

Multiple Choice Question:

Which is not a non-contact force(A) Gravitational(B) Electrostatic(C) Magnetic(D) Frictional.

1 Newton is a force which produces(A) an acceleration of 1 ms

in a body of mass 1 g.(B) an acceleration of 1 ms

in a body of mass 1 kg.(C) an acceleration of 1 cms

in a body of mass 1 kg.(D) an acceleration of 1 ms

What is meant by non-contact forces ? Give three examples.

What is meant by :(i) a rigid body and(ii) a non-rigid body.

A body of mass 50 kg has a momentum of 3000 kg ms

DPP NO. 03TOPIC : SOUND1.

Multiple choice Questions:

Explain why echoes can’t be heard in a small room.

Why can we hear echoes in long galleries and big halls?

Briefly explain the working of SONAR

m and the speed of light 3.00 x 10

DPP NO. 04TOPIC : SOUND1.

What is noise? What are its bad effects?

. Calculate the depth of the ocean.

DPP NO. 05TOPIC : WORK POWER ENERGY1.

What is a wind energy power station? How does it work?

What is energy degradation? Give some examples form daily life.

What is the composition of liquefied petroleum gas?

What is the fuel used in a nuclear reactor?

DPP NO. 06TOPIC : WORK POWER ENERGY1.

Multiple Choice Questions:

State the work energy theorem.

DPP NO. 07TOPIC : WORK POWER ENERGY1.

Multiple Choice Question:

the mass is(A) 250 J(B) 25 J(C) 2.5 J(D) 50 J

DPP NO. 08TOPIC : SIMPLE MACHINES1.

Multiple Choice Question:

denote the input and the output of the machine, then(A) w

(D) none of these

Derive expressions for MA and efficiency

What are gears? mention two functions.

DPP NO. 09TOPIC : REFRACTION AT PLANE SURFACES1.

= 38° and angle of prism is 60°, the angle of incidence is__________

Multiple Choice Question:

The velocity of lights is minimum in(A) water(B) glass(C) diamond(D) air

Describe briefly how can verify Snell’s first law of refraction.

DPP NO. 10TOPIC : REFRACTION THROUGH LENSES1.

Multiple choice Question:

For a combinations of a convex lens of focal length f

and concave lens of focal length f

may have any values(D) convergent combination is not possible

What is the difference between a double convex and a bi-convex lens?

What will be the nature of the image if it is inverted?

after refraction by the lens.

DPP NO. 11TOPIC : DISPERSION OF LIGHT1.

Multiple choice Question

Which of the following is correct?(A)

Will any spectrum of light be observed when incident light is monochromatic?

DPP NO. 12TOPIC : DISPERSION OF LIGHT1.