PHYSICS

1. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic 7. Two wires A and B are stretched by the same load.
energies. The ratio of their momenta is If the area of cross-section of wire A' is double that
of 'B', then the stress on 'B' is
(A) m1 : m 2 (B) m 2 : m1
(A) Equal to that on A
(C) m1 : m 2 (D) m12 : m22 (B) Twice that on A
Ans. C (C) Halfthaton A
2. The pressure at the bottom of a liquid tank is not (D) Four times that on A
proportional to the Ans. B
(A) Acceleration due to gravity 8. The magnitude of point charge due to which the
(B) Density of the liquid electric field 30 cm away has the magnitude 2 NC-1
(C) Height of the liquid will be
(D) Area of the liquid surface (A) 2 10 11 C (B) 3 10 11 C
Ans. D (C) 5 10 11 C (D) 9 10 11 C
3. A Carnot engine takes 300 calories of heat from a Ans. A
source at 500 K and rejects 150 calories of heat to
the sink. The temperature of the sink is 9. A mass of 1 kg carrying a charge of 2 C is accelerated
through a potential of 1 V. The velocity acquired by it
(A) 125 K (B) 250 K is
(C) 750 K (D) 1000 K
1 1
(A) 2 ms (B) 2 ms
Ans. B
4. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping 1 1 1 1
temperature constant. The kinetic energy of molecules (C) ms (D) ms
2 2
(A) Decreases
Ans. B
(B) Increases
10. The force of repulsion between two identical positive
(C) Remains same charges when kept with a separation 'r' in air is 'F’.
(D) Increases or decreases depending on the nature Half the gap between the two charges is filled by a
of gas dielectric slab of dielectric constant = 4. Then the
Ans. C new force of repulsion between those two charges
5. A man weighing 60 kg is in a lift moving down with becomes
an acceleration of 1.8 ms-2. The force exerted by the F F
floor on him is (A) (B)
3 2
(A) 588 N (B) 480 N
(C) Zero (D) 696 N F 4F
(C) (D)
Ans. B 4 9
6. Moment of inertia of a body about two perpendicular Ans. D
axes X and Y in the plane of lamina are 20 kg m2 and
25 kg m2 respectively. Its moment of inertia about an
axis perpendicular to the plane of the lamina and
passing through the point of intersection of X and Y
axes is
(A) 5kg m2 (B) 45kg m2
(C) 12-5 kg m2 (D) 500 kg m2
Ans. B

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11. For the arrangement of capacitors as shown in the 16. The effective resistance between P and Q for the
circuit, the effective capacitance between the points following network is
A and B is (capacitance of each capacitor is 4 F )
R

4 F 4 F 3 3
4 F

4 F 4 F 6
4 5

(A) 4 F (B) 2 F Q
P
(C) 1 F (D) 8 F
Ans. A 1
(A) (B) 21
12. The work done to move a charge on an equipotential 12
surface is
1
(A) Infinity (B) Less than 1 (C) 12 (D)
21
(C) Greater than 1 (D) Zero
Ans. C
Ans. D
17. Five identical resistors each of resistance R = 1500
13. Two capacitors of 3 uF and 6 uF are connected in . are connected to a 300 V battery as shown in the
series and a potential difference of 900 V is applied circuit. The reading of the ideal ammeter A is
across the combination. They are then disconnected
and reconnected in parallel. The potential difference
across the combination is
(A) Zero (B) 100 V
300 V R R R R R
(C) 200 V (D) 400 V
Ans. D
14. Ohm's Law is applicable to A
(A) Diode (B) Transistor
(C) Electrolyte (D) Conductor 1 3
(A) A (B) A
5 5
Ans. D
15. If the last band on the carbon resistor is absent, then 2 4
(C) A (D) A
the tolerance is 5 5
(A) 5% (B) 20% Ans. B
(C) 10% (D) 15% 18. Two cells of internal resistances r1 and r2 and of same
Ans. B emf are connected in series, across a resistor of
resistance R. If the terminal potential difference
across the cells of internal resistance r1 is zero, then
the value of R is
(A) R 2 r1 r2 (B) R r2 r1

(C) R r1 r2 (D) R 2 r1 r2
Ans. C

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 23. A cyclotron's oscillator frequency is 10 MHz and the
19. The I - V graphs for two different electrical appliances
operating magnetic field is 0.66 T. If the radius of its
P and Q are shown in the diagram. If RP and RQ be
dees is 60 cm, then the kinetic energy of the proton
the resistances of the devices, then
beam produced by the accelerator is
Q (A) 9 MeV (B) 10 MeV
(C) 7 MeV (D) 11 MeV
P
Ans. C
I 24. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic,
a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance
O V respectively. A magnet when brought close to them
will
(A) RP = RQ (B) Rp > RQ
(A) Attract all three of them
RQ (B) Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3
(C) Rp < RQ (D) R P
2 weakly
Ans. B (C) Attract N1strongly but repel N2 and N3weakly
20. The correct Biot-Savart law in vector form is (D) Attract N1 and N2strongly but repel N3
Ans. B
I d r I d r
(A) d B 0
(B) d B 0 25. The strength of the Earth's magnetic field is
4 r2 4 r3 (A) Constant everywhere
(B) Zero everywhere
Id0 Id0
(C) d B (D) d B (C) Having very high value
4 r2 4 r3
(D) Varying from place to place on the Earth's surface
Ans. B
Ans. D
21. An electron is moving in a circle of radius r in a uniform
26. A jet plane having a wing-span of 25 m is travelling
B horizontally towards east with a speed of 3600 km/
magnetic field B. Suddenly the field is reduced to
2 hour. If the Earth's magnetic field at the location is
. The radius of the circular path now becomes
4 10 4 T and the angle of dip is 30°, then, the
r potential difference between the ends of the wing is
(A) (B) 2r
2 (A) 4V (B) 5V
(C) 2V (D) 2.5V
r
(C) (D) 4r Ans. B
4
27. Which of the following, represents the variation of
Ans. B inductive reactance (XL) with the frequency of voltage
22. A charge q is accelerated through a potential source (v) ?
difference V. It is then passed normally through a
uniform magnetic field, where it moves in a circle of XL XL
radius r. The potential difference required to move it
in a circle of radius 2r is
(A) (B)
(A) 2 V (B) 4 V
(C) 1 V (D) 3 V v v
Ans. B
XL XL

(C) (D)
v v
Ans. A

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 34. An object is placed at the principal focus of a convex
28. The magnetic flux linked with a coil varies as
mirror. The image will be at
3t 2 4t 9. The magnitude of the emf induced (A) Centre of curvature
at t = 2 seconds is (B) Principal focus
(A) 8V (B) 16V (C) Infinity
(C) 32V (D) 64V (D) No image will be formed
Ans. B Ans. D
29. A 100 W bulb is connected to an AC source of 220 V, 35. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the
50 Hz. Then the current flowing through the bulb is pole of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The
5 1 distance of the image formed is
(A) A (B) A (A) + 20 cm (B) + 10 cm
11 2
(C) -20 cm (D) -10 cm
3
(C) 2A (D) A Ans. C
4
36. A candle placed 25 cm from a lens forms an image
Ans. A on a screen placed 75 cm on the other side of the
30. In the series LCR circuit, the power dissipation is lens. The focal length and type of the lens should be
through (A) + 18.75 cm and convex lens
(A) R (B) L (B) - 18.75 cm and concave lens
(C) C (D) Both L and C (C) + 20.25 cm and convex lens
Ans. A (D) - 20.25 cm and concave lens
31. In Karnataka, the normal domestic power supply AC Ans. A
is 220 V, 50 Hz. Here 220 V and 50 Hz refer to
37. A plane wavefront of wavelength , is incident on a
(A) Peak value of voltage and frequency single slit of width a. The angular width of principal
(B) rms value of voltage and frequency maximum is
(C) Mean value of voltage and frequency
2
(D) Peak value of voltage and angular frequency (A) (B)
a a
Ans. B
32. A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and a a a
(C) (D)
load current of 2 A. The ratio of primary and 2
secondary windings is 1 : 25. Then the current in the Ans. B
primary is
38. In a Fraunhofer diffraction at a single slit, if yellow
(A) 25 A (B) 50 A light illuminating the slit is replaced by blue light, then
(C) 15 A (D) 12.5 A diffraction bands
Ans. B (A) Remain unchanged (B) Become wider
33. The number of photons falling per second on a (C) Disappear (D) Become narrower
completely darkened plate to produce a force of Ans. D
6.62 10 5 N is 'n'. If the wavelength of the light 39. In Young's double slit experiment, two wavelengths
falling is 5 10 7 m , then n ____ 1022 1 780nm and 2 520nm are used to obtain
(A) 1 (B) 5 interference fringes. If the nth bright band due to 1

(C) 0.2 (D) 3.3 coincides with (n + l)th bright band due to 2, tnen
Ans. B the value n is
(A) 4. (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 6
Ans. C

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40. In Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated
by 2 mm and the screen is placed at a distance of 47. I n a CE amplifier, the input ac signal to be amplified
is applied across
1.2 m from the slits. Light consisting of two
(A) Forward biased emitter-base junction
wavelengths 6500 A and 5200 A are used to (B) Reverse biased collector-base junction
obtain interference fringes. Then the separation (C) Reverse biased emitter-base junction
between the fourth bright fringes of two different (D) Forward biased collector-base junction
patterns produced by the two wavelengths is
Ans. A
(A) 0.312 mm (B) 0.123 mm
48. If A = 1 and B = 0, then in terms of Boolean algebra,
(C) 0.213 mm (D) 0.412 mm
Ans. A A B
41. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted (A) B (B) B
photoelectrons depends on (C) A (D) A
(A) Intensity of incident radiation
Ans. B /or C
(B) Frequency of incident radiation
49. The density of an electron-hole pair in a pure
(C) Speed of incident radiation
germanium is 3 1016 m 3 at room temperature. On
(D) Number of photons in the incident radiation
doping with aluminium, the hole density increases to
Ans. B
4.5 1022 m 3 . Now the electron density (in m-3) in
42. A proton and an particle are accelerated through doped germanium will be
the same potential difference V The ratio of their de
Broglie wavelengths is (A) 1 1010 (B) 2 1010

(A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 0.5 1010 (D) 4 1010

Ans. B
(C) 3 (D) 2 3
50. The dc common emitter current gain of a n-p-n
Ans. B transistor is 50. The potential difference applied across
43. The total energy of an electron revolving in the second the collector and emitter of a transistor used in CE
orbit of hydrogen atom is configuration is, VCE = 2 V. If the collector resistance,
(A) - 13-6 eV (B) - 1-51 eV R C 4 k , the base current (IB) and the collector
(C) - 3-4 eV (D) Zero current (IC) are
Ans. C (A) IB 10 A, IC 0.5mA
44. The period of revolution of an electron in the ground
state of hydrogen atom is T. The period of revolution (B) IB 0.5 A, I C 10mA
of the electron in the first excited state is (C) IB 5 A, I C 1mA
(A) 2T (B) 4T
(C) 6T (D) 8T (D) I B 1 A, I C 0.5mA
Ans. D Ans. A
45. The energy equivalent to a substance of mass 1g is 51. The radius of the Earth is 6400 km. If the height of
an antenna is 500 m, then its range is
(A) 18 1013 J (B) 9 1013 J
(A) 800 km (B) 100 km
(C) 18 106 J (D) 9 106 J (C) 80 km (D) 10 km
Ans. B Ans. C
46. The half-life of tritium is 12-5 years. What mass of
tritium of initial 64 mg will remain undecayed
50 years ?
(A) 32 mg (B) 8 mg
(C) 16 mg (D) 4 mg
Ans. D

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52. A space station is at a height equal to the radius of 56. The dimensions of the ratio of magnetic flux and
the Earth. If ' E ' is the escape velocity on the surface permeability are
of the Earth, the same on the space station is
(A) [M°L1T°A1] (B) [M°L-3T°A1]
times E , (C) [M°L1T1A-1] (D) [M°L2T°A1]
1 1 Ans. A
(A) (B) 57. A mass'm' on the surface of the Earth is shifted to a
2 4
target equal to the radius of the Earth. If 'R' is the
1 1 radius and 'M' is the mass of the Earth, then work
(C) (D) done in this process is
2 3
Ans. C mgR
(A) (B) mgR
53. A particle shows distance-time curve as shown in 2
the figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity of
the particle is around the point mgR
(C) 2mgR (D)
4
Ans. A
Distance

S 58. First overtone frequency of a closed pipe of length

R
‘ ' 1 ' ’ is equal to the 2nd harmonic frequency of an
P Q
1
Time open pipe of length ' ' . The ratio
2
2
(A) P (B) S
(C) R (D) Q 3 4
(A) (B)
Ans. C 4 3
54. Which of the following graphs correctly represents 3 2
the variation of 'g' on the Earth ? (C) (D)
2 3
g g Ans. A
V
59. The resistance R where V 100 5 and
I
(A) (B)
I 10 0.2 A. The percentage error in R is
r r
R R
(A) 5.2% (B) 4.8%
g g (C) 7% (D) 3%
Ans. C
60. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an
(C) (D) angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction between the block and the plane if 0.8.
r r
R R If the frictional force on the block is (g = 10 ms-2)
(A) 1 kg (B) 2kg
Ans. B
(C) 3 kg (D) 4 kg
55. A cup of tea cools from 65.5°C to 62.5°C in 1 minute
in a room at 22.5°C. How long will it take to cool Ans. B
from 46.5°C to 40.5°C in the same room ?
(A) 4 minutes (B) 2 minutes
(C) 1 minute (D) 3 minutes
Ans. A

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 CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide ? 7. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA
?
(A) V2 O5 , Cr2 O3 (B) Mn 2 O7 , Cr2 O3
(A) Adenine (B) Guanine
(C) CrO, V2 O5 (D) V2 O5 , V2 O 4 (C) Cytosine (D) Uracil
Ans. A Ans. D
8. Which one of the following is a polyamide polymer ?
2. The IUPAC name of Co NH3 4
Cl NO2 Cl is
(A) Terylene (B) Nylon-6,6
(A) Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-cobalt(III) (C) Buna-S (D) Bakelite
chloride
Ans. B
(B) Tetraamminechloronitrocobalt (II) chloride
9. In F.C.C the unit cell is shared equally by how many
(C) Tetraamminechloronitrocobalt (I) chloride unit cells ?
(D) Tetraamminechloronitrocobalt (III) chloride
(A) 10 (B) 8
Ans. A
(C) 6 (D) 2
3. Which of the following statements is true in case of
Ans. C
alkyl halides ?
10. At a particular temperature, the ratio of molar
(A) They are polar in nature
conductance to specific conductance of 0.01 M NaCl
(B) They can form hydrogen bonds solution is
(C) They are highly soluble in water
(A) 105 cm3 mol 1 (B) 103 cm3 mol 1
(D) They undergo addition reactions
Ans. A (C) 10cm3mol 1
(D) 105 cm2 mol 1

4. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the Ans. A

reagent 11. Isotonic solutions are solutions having the same
(A) Bromine water (B) Sodium metal (A) Surface tension (B) Vapour pressure
(C) Iron metal (D) Chlorine water (C) Osmotic pressure (D) Viscosity
Ans. A Ans. C
5. Which of the following compounds undergoes 12. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2. When
haloform reaction ? the temperature is increased from 30°C to 90°C, the
(A) CH3COCH3 (B) HCHO rate of reaction is increased by
(A) 150 times (B) 410 times
(C) CH3 CH 2 Br (D) CH3 O CH 3
(C) 72 times (D) 64 times
Ans. A Ans.D
6. Which of the following will be the most stable 13. Gild sol is not a
diazonium salt RN 2 X ? (A) Lyophobic sol (B) Negatively charged sol
(C) Macromolecular sol (D) Multimolecular colloid
(A) CH 3 N 2 X (B) C6 H 5 N 2 X
Ans. C
(C) CH3CH 2 N 2 X (D) C6 H5 CH 2 N 2 X 14. The common impurity present in bauxite is
(A) CuO (B) ZnO
Ans. B
(C) Fe 2 O3 (D) Cr2 O3
Ans. C

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15. Very pure N 2 can be obtained by 21. Which of the following is more basic than aniline ?
(A) Diphenylamine (B) Triphenylamine
(A) Thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate
(C) p-nitroaniline (D) Benzylamine
(B) Treating aqueous solution of NH 4 Cl and
Ans. D
NANO2
22. The two forms of D-Glucopyranose are called
(C) Liquifaction and fractional distillation of liquid air (A) Diastereomers (B) Anomers
(C) Epimers (D) Enantiomers
(D) Thermal decomposition of sodium azide
Ans. B
Ans. D
23. Among the following, the branched chain polymer is
16. Which of the following oxidation states is common
(A) Polyvinyl chloride
for all lanthanides ?
(B) Bakelite
(A) + 2 (B) + 3
(C) Low density polythene
(C) + 4 (D) + 5
(D) High density polythene
Ans. B
Ans. C
17. The electronic configuration of transition element “X”,
24. Edge length of a cube is 300 pm. Its body diagonal
is +3, oxidation state is Ar 3d 5 . What is its atomic would be
number ? (A) 600 pm (B) 423 pm
(A) 25 (B) 26 (C) 519-6 pm (D) 450.5 pm
(C) 27 (D) 24 Ans. C
Ans. B 25. Which of the following is not a conductor of
18. n-Propyl chloride reacts with sodium metal in dry ether electricity?
to give (A) Solid NaCl (B) Cu
(A) CH3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 (C) Fused NaCl (D) Brine solution
(B) CH3 Ans. A
CH 2 CH3
26. For a cell reaction involving two electron changes,
(C) CH3 CH 2 CH 2 CH3
E 0cell 0.3 V at 25°C. The cell equilibrium constant
(D) CH3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH3 of the reaction is
Ans. A (A) 10–10 (B) 3 10 2

19. When the vapours of tertiary butyl alcohol are passed (C) 10 (D) 1010
through heated copper at 573 K, the product formed
is Ans. D
(A) But-2-ene (B) 2-Butanone 27. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order
reaction
(C) 2-Methyl propene (D) Butanal
(A) Depends only on temperature
Ans. C
(B) Depends on the concentration of reactants
20. What is the increasing order of acidic strength among present in small amounts
the following ?
(C) Depends on the concentration of reactants
(i) p-methoxy phenol present in excess
(ii) p-methyl phenol (D) Is independent of the concentration of reactants
(iii) p-nitro phenol Ans. C
(A) ii < iii < i (B) iii < ii < i
(C) i < ii < iii (D) i < iii < ii
Ans. C

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28. (CH 3 ) 3SiCl is used during polymerization of Ans. A
organosilicons because 34. The appropriate reagent for the following
(A) The chain length of organosilicon polymers can transformation is
be controlled by adding (CH3)3SiCl
O
(B) (CH3)3SiCl improves the quality and yield of the
polymer
CH 3 CH 3
(C) (CH3)3SiCl does not block the end terminal of
silicone polymer
HO HO
(D) (CH 3 ) 3 SiCl acts as a catalyst during
polymerisation (A) Zn – Hg/HCl
Ans. A (B) H2N – NH2, KOH/ethylene glycol
29. When PbO2 reacts with concentrated HNO3, the gas (C) Ni/H2
evolved is (D) NaBH4
(A) NO2 (B) O2 Ans. B
(C) N2 (D) N2O 35. In the following reaction
Ans. B CH 3
30. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium.
When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI, iodide ion CrO2Cl2 H3O
X Z
is oxidised to CS2

(A) I2 (B) IO–

the compound Z is
(C) IO3 (D) IO 4 (A) Benzoic acid (B) Benzaldehyde
Ans. C (C) Acetophenone (D) Benzene
31. [Fe(NO2)3 Cl3] and [Fe(O – NO)3 Cl3] shows Ans. B
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Geometrical isomerism 36. The reaction of Benzenecliazonium chloride with
(C) Optical isomerism (D) Hydrate isomerism aniline yields yellow dye. The name of the yellow
dye is
Ans. A
(A) p-Hydroxyazobenzene
32. Tertiary alkyl halide is practically inert to substitution
(B) p-Aminoazobenzene
by SN 2 mechanism because of
(C) p-Nitroazobenzene
(A) Insolubility (B) Instability
(D) o-Nitroazobenzene
(C) Inductive effect (D) Steric hindrance
Ans. B
Ans. D
37. The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose
33. The products X and Z in the following reaction units in amylose part of starch is
sequence are
(A) C1 – C4 -linkage
AlCl3 / ether (B) C1 – C6 -linkage
CH 3 CH CH 2 Heat
X
(C) C1 – C6 -linkage
OH (D) C1 – C4 -linkage
Ans. D
O2 /130 C H / H2 O
Y Heat
+Z 38. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is used to prepare
(A) Low-density polythene
(A) Isopropylbenzene and acetone (B) Teflon
(B) Cumene peroxide and acetone (C) High density polythene
(C) Isopropylbenzene and isopropyl alcohol (D) Nylon-6
(D) Phenol and acetone Ans. C

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39. 1.0 g of Mg is burnt with 0.28 g of O2 in a closed Ans. C
vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how 47. For the redox reaction
much?
(A) Mg, 5.8 g (B) Mg, 0.58 g xMnO 4 yH 2 C 2 O4 zH
(C) O2, 0.24 g (D) O2, 2.4g m Mn 2 n CO 2 p H2 O
Ans. B The values of x, y, m and n are
40. The orbital nearest to the nucleus is (A) 10, 2, 5, 2 (B) 2, 5, 2, 10
(A) 4f (B) 5d (C) 6, 4, 2, 5 (D) 3, 5, 2, 10
(C) 4s (D) 7p Ans. B
Ans. C 48. H2O2 is
41. Which of the following is the correct order of radius (A) An oxidising agent
?
(B) A reducing agent
(A) H– > H > H+ (B) Na+ > F– > O2–
(C) Both oxidising and reducing agent
(C) F– > O2– > Na+ (D) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–
(D) Neither oxidising nor reducing agent.
Ans. A
Ans. C
42. The intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in
49. Dead burnt plaster is
(A) Phenol (B) o-Nitrophenol
(C) p-Nitrophenol (D) p-Cresol 1
(A) CaSO 4 (B) CaSO 4 . H 2 O
Ans. B 2

43. The state of hybrid orbitals of carbon in CO 2 , CH 4 (C) CaSO 4 .H 2 O (D) CaSO4 .2H 2 O

and CO32 respectively is Ans. A

50. Identify the following compound which exhibits
(A) sp3 ,sp 2 and sp (B) sp3 ,sp and sp2 geometrical isomerism :
(A) But-2-ene (B) But-l-ene
(C) sp,sp3 and sp2 (D) sp 2 ,sp3 and sp
(C) Butane (D) Isobutane
Ans. C
Ans. A
44. For an ideal gas, compressibility factor is
51. During the fusion of organic compound with sodium
(A) 0 (B) 1 metal, nitrogen present in the organic compound is
(C) –1 (D) +2 converted into
Ans. B (A) NaNO2 (B) NaNH2
45. The relationship between Kp and Kc is (C) NaCN (D) NaNC
Kp K c RT
n
. What would be the value of n Ans. C
52. The reagent ‘X' used for the following reaction is
for the reaction
R R'
NH 4 Cl s NH 3 g HCl g ? R C CR ' H 2 X
C=C
(A) 1 (B) 0.5 H
H
(C) 1.5 (D) 2 (A) Ni (B) Pd / C
Ans. D
(C) LiAlH 4 (D) Na / Liquid NH 3
46. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on which of the
following concepts ? Ans. B
(A) Arrhenius concept 53. Which of the following ions will cause hardness in
water ?
(B) Bronsted-Lowry concept
(A) Ca 2+ (B) Na +
(C) Lewis concept
(C) CI– (D) K +
(D) Bronsted-Lowry as well as Lewis concept
Ans. A

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54. Which of the following oxides shows electrical 58. Which of the following electrolytes will have
properties like metals ? maximum coagulating value for Agl/Ag+ sol ?
(A) SiO2 (B) MgO (A) Na2S (B) Na 3PO 4
(C) SO2(s) (D) CrO2 (C) Na2SO4 (D) NaCl
Ans. D Ans. D
55. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have 59. Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the
the highest boiling point ? following metals ?
(A) 1.0 M NaOH (B) 1.0 M Na2SO4 (A) Cu and Zn (B) Ge and Si
(C) 1.0 M NH4NO3 (D) 1.0 M KNO3 (C) Zr and Ti (D) Zn and Hg
Ans. B Ans. A
56. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mole of 60. Dry ice is
MnO4 to MnO2 is (A) Solid CO (B) Solid SO2
(C) Solid CO2 (D) Solid O2
(A) 1 F (B) 3 F
Ans. C
(C) 5 F (D) 7 F
Ans. B
57. For the reaction,
2SO 2 O2 2SO3 ,
the rate of disappearance of O2 is
2 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 . The rate of appearance of SO3
is
4
(A) 2 10 mol L 1 s 1
(B) 4 10 4
mol L 1 s 1

(C) 1 10 1 mol L 1 s 1
(D) 6 10 4
mol L 1 s 1

Ans. B

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 MATHEMATICS

1. The distance between the foci of a hypberbola is 16 7. The probability of happening of an event A is 0 5
and its eccentrticity is 2 . Its equation is and that of B is 0 3 . If A and B are mutually
exclusive events,then the prabability of neither A nor
x2 y2 B is
(A) x 2 y2 32 (B) 1
4 9 (A) 0 4 (B) 0 5
2 2 2 2
(C) 2x 3y 7 (D) y x 32 (C) 0 2 (D) 0 9
Ans. A,D Ans. C
2. The number of ways in which 5 girls and 3 boys can 8. In a simultaneous throw of a pair of dice, the probability
be seated in a row so that no two boys are together is of getting a total more than 7 is
(A) 14040 (B) 14440 7 5
(C) 14000 (D) 14400 (A) (B)
12 36
Ans. D
5 7
3. If a, b, c and three consecutive terms of an AP and x, (C) (D)
y , z are three consecutive terms of GP, then the value 12 36
of x b c , yc a ,z a b
is Ans. C
9. If A and B are mutually exclusive events, given that
(A) 0 (B) xyz
(C) –1 (D) 1 3 1
P A ,P B , then P(A or B) is
Ans. D 5 5
(A) 0 8 (B) 0 6
|x|
4. The value of lim
x 0 x
is (C) 0 4 (D) 0 2
Ans. A
(A) 1 (B) –1
10. Let f, g : R R be two functions defined as
(C) 0 (D) Does not exist
Ans. D f x | x | x and g x | x | x x R . The (fog)
(x) for x < 0 is
1
5. Let f x x then f ' 1 is (A) 0 (B) 4x
x
(C) –4x (D) 2x
(A) 0 (B) 2
Ans. C
(C) 1 (D)`–2
11. A is set haveing 6 distinct elements. The number of
Ans. B distinct functions from A to A which are not bijections
6. The negation of the statement “72 is divisible by 2 is
and 3” is
(A) 6! 6 (B) 66 6
(A) 72 is not divisible by 2 or 72 is not divisible by 3
(B) 72 is divisible by 2 or 72 is divisible by 3 (C) 66 6! (D) 6!
(C) 72 is divisible by 2 and 72 is divisible by 3 Ans. C
(D) 72 is not divisible by 2 and 3
Ans. A

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12. Let f : R R defined by Ans. D
18. If x, y, z R, then the value of determinant
2x ; x 3
f x x2 ; 1 x 3 5x 5 x
2
5x 5 x
2
1
3x ; x 1
x 2 x 2
6x 6 6x 6 1 is
Then f 1 f 2 f 4 is x 2 x 2
7x 7 7x 7 1
(A) 9 (B) 14
(C) 5 (D) 10 (A) 10 (B) 12
Ans. A (C) 1 (D) 0
2 1 1
Ans. D
13. If sin 1 x cos 1 y , then cos x sin y is
5 19. The value of determinant

2 3 a b b c a
(A) (B)
5 5 b a c a b is
c a a b c
4 3
(C) (D)
5 10 (A) a 3 (B) 3abc
b 3 c3
Ans. B
(C) a 3 b3 c3 3abc (D) a 3 b3 c3 3abc
1 1 2 Ans. Bonus
14. The value of the expression tan cos is
2 5
20. If x1 , y1 , x 2 , y 2 and x 3 , y3 are the vertices of
(A) 2 5 (B) 5 2 a triangle whose area is ‘k’ square units, then
2
5 2 x1 y1 4
(C) (D) 5 2
2 x2 y2 4 is
Ans. B x3 y3 4
2 2 (A) 32k 2 (B) 16k 2
15. If A , then An 2k A , where k =
2 2
(C) 64k 2 (D) 48k 2
(A) 2n 1 ` (B) n 1 Ans. C
(C) n 1 (D) 2 n 1 21. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 3 , then | 5A |
Ans. D (A) 5 | A | (B) 125 | A |
1 1 x 2 (C) 25 | A | (D) 15 | A |
16. If , then the values of of x and y
1 1 y 4 Ans. B
respectively are
(A) –3, –1 (B) 1, 3 1 kx 1 kx
if 1 x 0
` (C) 3, 1 (D) –1, 3 22. If f x x
2x 1
Ans. D if 0 x 1
x 1
cos sin
17. If A , then AA ' = is continuous at x = 0, then the vlaue of k
sin cos
(A) k = 1 (B) k = 1
(A) A (B) Zero matrix (C) k = 0 (D) k = 2
(C) A ' (D) I Ans. B

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 x
dy 1
23. If cos y x cos a y with cos 1 , then is 28. The maximum value of is
dx x
equal to
(A) e (B) ee
sin a 2
cos a y
(A) cos 2 a y (B) 1
1/ e
sin a
(C) e 1/ e (D)
e
cosa cos 2 a y
(C) sin 2 a y (D) Ans. C
cos a
29. f x x x has stationary point at
Ans. B
1
(A) x e (B) x
24. If f x cos x sin x , then f ' is equal to e
6
(C) x 1 (D) x e
1 1
(A) 1 3 (B) 1 3 Ans. B
2 2
30. The maximum area of rectangle inscribed in the circle
1 1 2 2
(C) 1 3 (D) 1 3 x 1 y 3 64 is
2 2
Ans. A (A) 64 sq. units (B) 72 sq. units
(C) 128 sq. units (D) 8 sq. units
dy
25. If y x x x ..... , then Ans. C
dx
1
1 1 31. dx is equal to
(A) y 2 1 (B) 2y 1 1 ex

ex 1 ex 1
2y 1 (A) log e ex
e (B) log e ex
e
(C) y 2 1 (D) 2y 1

Ans. D ex ex
(C) log e e (D) log e e
ex 1 ex 1
log e x
; x 1 Ans. C
26. If f x x 1 is continuous at x = 1,
k ; x 1 1
32. dx is equal to
then the value of k is 3 6x 9x 2
(A) e (B) 1
(C) –1 (D) 0 1 3x 1 1 3x 1
(A) sin c (B) sin c
Ans. B 2 6
27. Approximate change in the volume V of a cube of 1 3x 1 2x 1
1 1
side x metres caused by increasing the side by 3% is (C) sin c (D) sin c
3 2 3
(A) 0.09x 3 m3 (B) 0.03x 3 m3
Ans. C
(C) 0.06x 3 m3 (D) 0.04x 3 m3
Ans. A

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 Ans. B
sin x sin x 1
33. e . dx is equal to 39. The degree and the order of the differential equation
sec x
2
(A) sin x.esin x (B) cos x.esin x d2 y dy
c c 3 1 respectively are
dx 2 dx
sin x
(C) esin x c (D) e sin x 1 c
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 2
Ans. A (C) 2 and 2 (D) 3 and 3
3
Ans. B
34. | x cos x |dx is equal to
2 dy
40. The solutio of the differential equation x y 3
dx
8 4
(A) (B) represents a family of
(A) Straight lines (B) Circles
2 1 (C) Parabolas (D) Ellipses
(C) (D)
Ans. A
Ans. A
dy 1 y
1 41. The integrating factor of y is
dx dx x
35. x x is equal to
0 e e (A) xe x (B) xe1/ x

tan 1
e 1 ex x
(A) (B) tan e (C) (D)
4 4 x ex
Ans. C
1 1
(C) tan e (D) tan e
4 2 2
42. If a b ab 144 and a = 4, then the value of
Ans. B
1/ 2 b is
dx
36. 1 x2 1 x 2 is equal to (A) 1 (B) 2
0

(C) 3 (D) 4
1 1 2 2 1 3 Ans. C
(A) tan (B) tan
2 3 2 2 43. If a and b are mutually perpendicular unit vectors,

2 1 3 2 1 3 then 3a 2 b . 5a 6b =
(C) tan (D) 2 tan 2
2 2
(A) 5 (B) 3
Ans. A (C) 6 (D) 12
37. The area of region bounded by the curve y = cosx Ans. B
between x = 0 and x = is
44. If the vectors aiˆ ˆj kˆ , ˆi bjˆ kˆ and ˆi ˆj ckˆ are
(A) 1 sq. unit (B) 4 sq. units
(C) 2 sq. units (D) 3 sq. units coplanar a b c 1 , then the value of
Ans.C abc a b c =
38. The area bounded by the line y = x, x–axis and
ordinates x = –1 and x = 2 is (A) 2 (B) –2
(C) 0 (D) –1
3 5 Ans. B
(A) (B)
2 2
(C) 2 (D) 3

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 50. The feasible region of an LPP is shonw in the figure.
45. If a iˆ ˆj 2k;
ˆ b ˆi ˆj kˆ are orthogonal and
If z 3x 9y , then the minimum value of z occurs
a b then , at

1 7 7 1 y
(A) , (B) ,
4 4 4 4 (0, 20)

1 9 1 9 (15, 15)
(C) , (D) ,
4 4 4 4 (5, 5)
(0, 10)
x
Ans. A 0
46. The image of the point (1, 6, 3) in the line
x y 1 z 2 (A) (5, 5) (B) (0, 10)
is
1 2 3 (C) (0, 20) (D) (15, 15)
(A) (1, 0, 7) (B) (7, 0, 1) Ans. A
(C) (2, 7, 0) (D) (–1, –6, –3) 51. For the LPP; maximise z = x + 4y subject to the
Ans. A constraints x 2y 2 , x 2y 8 , x, y 0
47. The angle between the lines 2x 3y z and (A) z max 4
6x y 4z is
(B) z max 8
(A) 0 (B) 45
(C) z max 16
(C) 90 (D) 30
(D) Has no feasible solution
Ans. C
Ans. D
x 4 y 2 z k 52. For the probability distribution given by
48. The value of k such that the line
1 1 2
lies on the plane 2x 4y z 7 is
(A) 7 (B) 4 X=xi 0 1 2
(C) –4 (D) 7
25 5 1
Ans. D Pi
36 18 36
49. The locus represented by xy yz 0 is
(A) a pair of perpendicular lines
the standard deviation is
(B) a pair of parallell lines
(C) a pair of parallel planes 1 1 5
(D) a pair of perpendicular planes (A) (B)
3 3 2
Ans. D
5
(C) (D) None of these
36
Ans. B

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53. A bag contains 17 tickets numbered from 1 to 7. A 16
ticket is drawn at random, then another ticket is drawn 2 1
57. The constant term in the expansion of x is
without replacing the first one. The probability that x2
both the tickets may show even numbers by
(A) 16 C8 (B) 16
C7
7 8
(A) (B) (C) 16
C9 (D) 16 C10
34 17
Ans. A
7 7
(C) (D) 58. If P n :"22n 1 is divisible by k for all n N" is
16 17
Ans. A true, then the value of ‘k; is
54. A flashlight has 10 batteries out of which 4 are dead. (A) 6 (B) 3
If 3 batteries are selected without repalcement and (C) 7 (D) 2
tested, then the probability that all 3 are dead is Ans. B
1 2 59. The equation of the line parallel to the line
(A) (B)
30 8 3x 4y 2 0 and passing through 2,3 is

1 1 (A) 3x 4y 18 0 (B) 3x 4y 18 0
(C) (D)
15 10 (C) 3x 4y 18 0 (D) 3x 4y 18 0
Ans. A
Ans. A
55. If x 5 10 then 96
1 i
60. If a ib then (a, b) is
(A) x ( 15,5] 1 i
(B) x ( 5,5] (A) (1, 1) (B) (1, 0)
(C) x ( , 15] [5, ) (C) (0, 1) (D) (0, –1)
Ans. B
(D) x [ , 15] [5, )
Ans. C
56. Everybody in a room shakes hands with everybody
else. The total number of handshakes is 45. The total
number of perosons in the room is
(A) 9 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 15
Ans. B

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