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40 Hour HAZWOPER
29 CFR 191 0. 120 ( e)
Course Description
2014
Notice: Any reproduction of this document and or images without permission is strictly prohibited.
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Group discounts available (3 or more people). Please In compliance with OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120
email or call us at 1.888.877.7130 for a quote. Price regulations, (40 hour HAZWOPER regulations) this
match guarantee! Must be OSHA compliant and same training is required for individuals who plan to work in
quality course. a area that is defined as a HAZWOPER Work Site.
Upon successful completion of the course, students
will receive a certificate of completion accepted by
Course Features regulatory agencies. Students will be allowed to
proceed at their own pace in this interactive program.
- Includes 14 full length videos Students must complete a minimum of 40 hours of
- HAZWOPER Hands-on Simulator® - (OSHA study time in order to satisfy part of the 40 hour
Accepted) HAZWOPER certification requirement.
- Over 75 interactive flash animations
- Approximately 81 modules Along the way there are self grading quizzes,
- Award winning content - CEU's interactive exercises, full length videos and a self
- Self grading quizzes and final exam grading final exam. The quizzes can be taken as
- OSHA Study Timer (tracks your study time login and many times as needed, and the final exam can be
logout at your convenience) taken a maximum of 3 times. Once a person
- Certificate of Completion (3 certificates) e-cert, 8x10 satisfactorily completes the course, an e-certificate is
and wallet card (instant download of e-certificate upon immediately sent to them via email. The original
course completion) certificates (8x10 and wallet card size) arrive in the
- HAZWOPER course access for 1 year from the time U.S. mail.
of registration
- Free registration into the National Repository® The 40 Hour HAZWOPER Course is taken online. As
(download your certificates at anytime in the future)
with any training (classroom or online) the employer is
required by regulations to train the employee(s) on
performance based standards for any applicable
equipment.
©Copyright
1996-‐2014
(All
Content
&
Images)
National
Environmental
Trainers,
Inc.,
All
Rights
Reserved
–
Any
Reproduction
Without
Permission
is
Strictly
Prohibited
1
General site workers (such as equipment operators, general laborers, and supervisory
personnel) engaged in hazardous substance clean up and removal of other activities which
expose or potentially expose workers to hazardous substances and health hazards shall
receive a minimum of 40 hours of instruction off the site, and a minimum of 3 days actual
field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
Course Overview
In compliance with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulation
29 CFR 1910.120, the 40-hour training is to certify individuals who have a role in Hazardous
Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) operations. This training
course offers 40 hours of on-line instruction. The course is a combination of: web-based
instruction interactive exercises, audio narration of text, videos, animations, self-grading
quizzes, and a final exam. Our OSHA Study Timer is also used to comply with the 40 Hour
HAZWOPER training requirement. A student cannot take the final exam until this time
requirement is met. Once a student successfully completes the training, an e-certificate will
be issued and the original certificates (8x10 and wallet card size) will be mailed. The 40
Hour HAZWOPER Course is taken online. As with any training (classroom or online) the
employer is required by regulations to train the employee(s) on performance based
standards for equipment.
This course features our exclusive OSHA accepted HAZWOPER Hands-on Simulator and
is divided into 81 modules.
While this training course is very comprehensive, additional site-specific training must be
taken for certain hazardous materials/environments that may be encountered at different
sites. This is an employer obligation. As with any 40 Hour HAZWOPER training (classroom
or online), a student must complete
3 days of site-specific training at their first HAZWOPER
site after successful completion
of the course. This requirement is for new employees.
©Copyright
1996-‐2014
(All
Content
&
Images)
National
Environmental
Trainers,
Inc.,
All
Rights
Reserved
–
Any
Reproduction
Without
Permission
is
Strictly
Prohibited
2
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3
Head Protection
Foot Protection
Module 64: Chemical Awareness Part 8 Module 70: Air Monitoring Part 6
Radiation Exposure and Protection Site Monitoring
Acute and Chronic Radiation Exposure Monitoring for Immediately Dangerous to Life and
Transferable Contamination Health (IDLH)
Radiation Protection Perimeter Monitoring
Sources of Exposure Variables of Hazardous Waste Site Exposures
Module 65: Air Monitoring Part 1 Module 71: Hazardous Materials Sampling Part 1
Requirements for Air Monitoring Devices Sampling Plan
Sampling Methods Hazardous Materials Sampling
Air Monitoring Equipment Characteristics Sample Collection and Documentation
Module 66: Air Monitoring Part 2 Module 72: Hazardous Materials Sampling Part 2
Types of Direct Reading Instruments Soil, Surface Water and Groundwater Sampling
Calibration Types of Sampling Equipment
Toxic Atmosphere Monitors
Module 73: Hazardous Materials Sampling Part 3
Module 67: Air Monitoring Part 3 Container Sampling
Types of Direct Reading Instruments Cont’d Drum Opening
Photoionization Detector (PID) Personal Protective Equipment
Flame Ionization Detector (FID) Selection of Sampling Equipment
Radiation Monitors
OSHA Action Levels
Module 74: Site Emergencies Part 1
Planning and Personnel
Site Emergencies
©Copyright
1996-‐2014
(All
Content
&
Images)
National
Environmental
Trainers,
Inc.,
All
Rights
Reserved
–
Any
Reproduction
Without
Permission
is
Strictly
Prohibited
2
Final Exam
©Copyright
1996-‐2014
(All
Content
&
Images)
National
Environmental
Trainers,
Inc.,
All
Rights
Reserved
–
Any
Reproduction
Without
Permission
is
Strictly
Prohibited
7/15/2013
40 Hour HAZWOPER
Module Navigation Instructions
Note:
Go forward to other sections of current module
For best results, leave the Pause/Play button
Go back to other sections of current module on play and advance through the sections of a
Pause/Play current section of module module using the Forward button.
Course Overview
40 Hour HAZWOPER
World Trade Center, New York, 2001
• This course is divided into modules that you can access from the
main menu or by continuing in the course. You must complete
the course in a sequential manner i.e., proceed from one
module to the next.
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• Logging In and Out – You can login to the course and logout
on your own schedule. Your course will resume where it left off
both in study time and your last module.
• Final Exam – You must pass the final exam with a grade of
70% or better to successfully complete the course and receive
your certificate. You have 3 attempts at taking the final exam
to achieve a passing score. If you do well on the quizzes, you
will pass the final exam. Again, the quizzes can be taken as
many times as you like. The final exam and quizzes are self
grading so you will know your score immediately.
• You must stay active in the course or you will be timed out by the OSHA study
timer. If you are inactive for more than 15 minutes e.g., not clicking, you will
see a notice that says “course timer has stopped.”
• If you see this message, please close all windows to our site including any
windows in your task bar (lower portion of your computer screen). This will log
you out of the course but all windows to our site must be closed. Then login
again and the course will continue where it left off both in content and study
time.
• If you finish the material prior to the regulatory required time limit, please go
back and review the quizzes or view one of the many videos.
Course Objectives
In compliance with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulation 29 CFR 1910.120, this training
is to certify individuals who will be engaged in Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER)
work. While this training course is very comprehensive, we highly recommend that additional site-specific
training be taken for certain hazardous materials that may be encountered at different sites.
Course Objectives:
• Describe training and other requirements for HAZWOPER workers.
• Describe various types of hazardous substances.
• Define toxicity and describe factors that affect it.
• Describe hazardous substance labeling requirements and standards.
• Describe factors associated with respiratory protection.
• Describe various types of and selection criteria for personnel protective equipment.
• Describe decontamination guidelines and methods.
• Describe proper handling of drums and other hazardous waste containers.
• Recognize results of mixing incompatible chemicals and list examples of various incompatible chemicals.
• Take the HAZWOPER Certification exam.
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Table of Contents
Module 1
Regulatory Overview
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HAZWOPER Standard
The major requirements are training for personnel engaged in the handling
or use of hazardous substances, a written site-specific health and safety
plan, use of personal protective equipment (PPE) when needed, and
development of an emergency response plan. Depending on the job
classification, a 40-hour (worker) or at least 24-hour (supervisor) initial
HAZWOPER training must be taken prior to working with hazardous
substances. Also, an annual 8-hour HAZWOPER refresher training is
required to maintain the initial training certification.
• Emergency response operations for releases of, or substantial threats of releases of,
hazardous substances without regard to the location of the hazard.
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Many work tasks at a HAZWOPER site will cross-over into other areas
regulated by OSHA. All of these related areas to HAZWOPER as listed
above will be discussed in later modules. This course was written based
on current OSHA regulations, guidance documents and enforcement
policies.
Module Quiz
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HAZWOPER regulations apply to emergency response operations only for releases and not for
threats of releases.
A) Yes, the statement is correct
B) No, the statement is not correct
C) Maybe
D) Sometimes, depending on the chemical contamination
B) ...incident commanders.
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The primary components of the OSHA regulation applicable to the proper management of
hazardous materials are...
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Module 2
Standard Requirements
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Training
• Change in process
• As deemed necessary by
supervision/management
o Heart ailments
o Burns/rashes
o Kidney/lung damage
o Sterility
o Cancer
o Central nervous system damage
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What is the GHS? The GHS is an acronym for The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of
Chemicals. The GHS is a system for standardizing and harmonizing the classification and labeling of chemicals.
It is a logical and comprehensive approach to: Defining health, physical and environmental hazards of chemicals;
Creating classification processes that use available data on chemicals for comparison with the defined hazard
criteria; and Communicating hazard information, as well as protective measures, on labels and Safety Data Sheets
(SDS).
GHS
Rationale:
The production and use of chemicals is fundamental to all economies. The global chemical business is more than a
$1.7 trillion per year enterprise. In the U.S., chemicals are more than a $450 billion business and exports are
greater than $80 billion per year.
Chemicals directly or indirectly affect our lives and are essential to our food, our health, and our lifestyle. The
widespread use of chemicals has resulted in the development of sector-specific regulations (transport, production,
workplace, agriculture, trade, and consumer products). Having readily available information on the hazardous
properties of chemicals, and recommended control measures, allows the production, transport, use and disposal of
chemicals to be managed safely. Thus, human health and the environment are protected.
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Updating GHS/HCS
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• Mixtures (GHS)
o Health hazards can be based on data for mixture
o If no data, extrapolate from ingredient data or other similar
mixtures to classify
o Pyrophoric gases
o Simple asphyxiants
o Combustible dusts
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Pyrophoric Gases:
Simple Asphyxiants:
• Signal Word: Warning
• Hazard Statement: “May displace oxygen and cause rapid suffocation”
Combustible Dusts:
• Signal Word: Warning
• Hazard Statement: “May form combustible dust concentrations in the air”
The GHS covers all hazardous chemicals. There are no complete exemptions from the scope of the GHS for a particular
type of chemical or product. The term "chemical" is used broadly to include substances, products, mixtures,
preparations, or any other terms that may be used by existing systems. The goal of the GHS is to identify the intrinsic
hazards of chemical substances and mixtures and to convey hazard information about these hazards.
The GHS is not intended to harmonize risk assessment procedures or risk management decisions, as described
above."Articles" as defined in the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (29 CFR 1910.1200), or by similar
definitions, are outside the scope of the GHS. Chemical inventory (e.g., TSCA, etc.) and chemical control requirements
in various countries are not harmonized by the GHS.
Classification in the GHS is criteria-based, not limiting coverage to a list that can become outdated. It is not anticipated
that the GHS will develop or maintain an international classification authority or international classification list. Several
countries currently maintain regulatory lists. GHS classification criteria can be used to reclassify chemicals on lists, if
desired. Existing lists, such as those provided by organizations that evaluate cancer hazards, could be used in
conjunction with the GHS to promote harmonization.
Effective
Completion Date Requirements Who
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Effective Dates
Effective
Completion Date Requirements Who
OSHA
Hazard Classification
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Hazard Classification
o Corrosive
o Reactive
o Flammable
o Explosive
o Oxidizing
o Inert
Chemical Safety
In many cases, the chemicals you may deal with at work are no more dangerous than those you use at home
But in the workplace exposure may be greater, concentrations higher, exposure time longer: potential danger could
be greater on the job
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Skin Absorption - skin contact with a substance can result in a possible reaction
Hazards
o Class-nature of hazard
o Category-degree of severity
Physical Hazards
Physical hazards are exhibited by certain chemicals
because of their physical properties (e.g. flammability,
reactivity, etc.)
• Combustible liquids
• Compressed gases
• Explosives
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Physical Hazards
• Unstable materials
Health Hazard
• Happen quickly
• Examples:
- Carbon monoxide
poisoning
- Cyanide inhalation
- Hydrogen sulfide
inhalation
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Keeping It Safe
Module Quiz
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Quiz 1
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Module 3
Container Labeling
Labeling
Chemical Labels
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Label Information
• Pictogram
DANGER
WARNING
Always read the label before you begin a job using a potentially hazardous chemical
Labels/Other Warnings
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Labeling
GHS Comparison
GHS classification ratings order of severity differ from NFPA and HMIS:
HMIS/NFPA
0 = Least Hazardous
4 = Most Hazardous
GHS
4 = Least Hazardous
1 = Most Hazardous
Pictograms
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Health Hazard
Used to describe:
o Carcinogen
o Mutagenicity
o Reproductive toxicity
o Respiratory sensitizer
o Aspiration toxicity
Flame
Describes:
o Flammables
o Pyrophorics
o Self-heating
o Self-reactives
o Organic peroxides
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Exclamation Mark
Describes:
o Skin sensitizer
o Narcotic effects
Gas Cylinder
Describes:
Corrosion
Describes:
o Skin corrosion/burns
o Eye damage
o Corrosive to metals
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Exploding Bomb
Describes:
o Explosives
o Self-reactives
o Organic peroxide
Describes:
o Oxidizers
Describes:
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Module Quiz
_________: Convey health, physical and environmental hazard information, assigned to a GHS
hazard class and category.
A) Written statements
C) Signal words
D) Hazard statements
A) container
B) vehicle
C) worker
D) item
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Quiz 3
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Module 4
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SDS
What a New ‘SDS’ May Look Like The old Non‐Mandatory ‘MSDS’
Information on a SDS
• Chemical names
Information on a SDS
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Information on a SDS
• Physical appearance
• Date of preparation
• Plus:
SDSs:
SDS Categories
Section 1: Identification
Section 2: Hazard identification
Section 3: Ingredients
Section 4: First-aid measures
Section 5: Fire fighting measure
Section 6: Accidental release measures
Section 7: Handling and storage
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SDS Categories
Module Quiz
A) 12
B) 15
C) 16
D) 13
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A) MSDS
B) SDS
C) Labeling book
D) Procedure
Quiz 5
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Module 5
Part 1
Roles and Responsibilities
Organizational Structure
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Project Manager
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• These responsibilities should include, but are not limited to, the
following:
• Setting up decontamination lines and the decontamination
solutions appropriate for the type of chemical contamination on
site
• Controlling the decontamination of all equipment, personnel, and
samples from the contaminated areas
• Assisting in the disposal of contaminated clothing and materials
• Ensuring all required equipment is available and in working order
• Providing for collection, storage and disposal of waste
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Module Quiz
The ______ should specifically identify the names and organizational relationships among key
personnel.
A) HASP
B) plan
C) WASP
D) Permit
A) Industrial Hygienist
B) Project Manager
C) SSHO
D) Field Engineer
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Module 6
Part 2
Roles and Responsibilities
Security Officer
Specialty Teams
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Logistics Officer
• The employee who oversees all logistics for the operation should be named. A general description should be provided
for the Logistics Officer (i.e., reports to the Project Manager, may be located on site or off site). The specific
responsibilities of the Logistics Officer should be stated. These responsibilities include, but are not limited to the
planning and mobilization of the facilities, materials, and personnel required for the response.
Photographer
• The employee who is responsible for all site photography should be named. A general description should be provided
for the Photographer (i.e., reports to the Project Manager, may be located on site or off site). The specific
responsibilities of the Photographer should be stated. These responsibilities include, but are not limited to, providing
photographs of site conditions and archiving photographs.
Recordkeeper
• The employee who oversees all recordkeeping for the
operation should be named. A general description
should be provided for the Recordkeeper (i.e, reports
to the Project Manager, may be located on site or off
site.) The specific responsibilities of the Recordkeeper
should be stated. These responsibilities include, but
are not limited to, maintaining the official records of
site activities.
Multidisciplinary Advisors
• The list and general description of multidisciplinary advisors should be
provided. This list includes representatives from upper level management
and onsite management, field team members, and technical experts.
Specific responsibilities should also be stated. These responsibilities
include, but are not limited to, providing advice on the design of the work
plan and the HASP.
Medical Support
• The general description of the types of medical support personnel required
should be provided, such as consulting physicians, medical personnel at
local hospitals and clinics, and ambulance personnel.
• The specific responsibilities of medical support personnel should be stated.
These include:
• Being familiar with the types of materials on site, the potential for worker
exposures and recommending the medical program for the site
• Providing emergency treatment and decontamination procedures for the
specific type of exposures that may occur at the site
• Providing emergency treatment procedures appropriate to the onsite
hazards
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Communications
• The site-specific HASP should identify the
location of and describe the use of all
communication equipment that could be utilized
in an emergency situation (e.g., telephones,
radios, PA systems). The HASP should identify
how key personnel and optional personnel can be
contacted including work phone, home phone,
radio, etc.
Module Quiz
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A) Security Officer
B) Logistics Officer
C) Project Manager
D) Project Scheduler
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Module 7
Introduction
• Site characteristics
• Site size
• Surrounding community
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Site Map
• Planning activities
• Assigning personnel
• Identifying access routes, evacuation routes, and problem
areas
• Identifying areas of the site that require use of personal
protective equipment
• Supplementing the daily safety and health briefings of the
field teams
• Accidents
• Changes in site activities
• Emergencies
• Hazards not previously identified
• New materials introduced on site
• Vandalism
• Weather conditions
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Site Preparation
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Module Quiz
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Module 8
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Exclusion Zone
Exclusion Zone
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• The personnel working in the Exclusion Zone may include the Field
Team Leader, the work parties, and specialized personnel such as
heavy equipment operators. All personnel within the Exclusion Zone
should wear the level of protection required by the Site Safety Plan.
Within the zone, different levels of protection may be justified based
on the degree of hazard presented. The level of personal protection
required in each sub area should be specified and marked.
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Module Quiz
A) Command Post
B) Exclusion Zone
C) Twilight Zone
D) Contamination Reduction Zone or Support Zone
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Module 9
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Site Security
• If the site is not fenced, post signs around the perimeter and use
guards to patrol the perimeter. Guards must be fully apprised of
the hazards involved and trained in emergency procedures.
• Have the Project Team Leader approve all visitors to the site. Make
sure they have a valid purpose for entering the site. Have trained
site personnel accompany visitors at all times and provide them
with the appropriate protective equipment.
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Communication Systems
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Module Quiz
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Site security is necessary to prevent the exposure of unauthorized, unprotected people to site
hazards.
A) True
B) False
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Module 10
Introduction
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Module Quiz
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The safety plan must be reviewed and implemented prior to entering a HAZWOPER site.
A) True
B) False
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Module 11
Part 1
Medical Surveillance Program
Introduction
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• Baseline or pre-assignment
examination
• Periodic monitoring
• Examination after illness or injury
• Termination examination
• Maintenance of medical records
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Examination Content
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Pre-employment Screening
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Module Quiz
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The integrity of the eardrum should be established since perforated eardrums can provide a
_______for chemicals into the body and may preclude respirator use.
A) route of entry
B) notice
C) toxicity
D) all of the above
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Any hazardous waste site worker that wears a respirator more than 30 days a year must enter
into the medical surveillance program.
A) True
B) False
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A) Surveillance
B) Treatment
C) Record Keeping
D) Program Review
Which of the following should an employer provide to the physician for medical surveillance?
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Module 12
Part 2
Medical Surveillance Program
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Electrocardiogram (EKG)
A "stress test" (graded exercise) may be
administered at the discretion of the examining
physician, particularly where heat stress may occur.
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Trichloroethene Liver, CNS, kidneys, Liver disease and kidney History for pre-existing liver disease
or decreased lung functions,
respiratory, skin injury, dermatitis, CNS,
measurement of liver enzymes and
depression, cancer, liver function, urine screen, physical
ventricular arrhythmias exam focusing on nervous system,
skin and respiratory system.
Lead Kidney, blood, CNS, GI tract Renal system disfunction, Urine screen, measurement of
kidney function where relevant,
general CNS impairment.
Complete Blood Count (CBC),
history and physical exam focusing
on CNS.
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- Physical examination
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Termination Examination
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Record Keeping
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Program Review
Regular evaluation of the medical program is important to ensure its effectiveness. Maintenance and review of medical
records and test results aid medical personnel, site officers, and the parent company and/or agency managers in
assessing the effectiveness of the health and safety program.
The Site Safety Officer, medical consultant, and/or management representative should, at least annually:
1. Ascertain that each accident or illness was promptly investigated to determine cause and to make necessary changes
in health and safety procedures
2. Evaluate the efficiency of specific medical testing in the context of potential site exposures
3. Add or delete medical tests as suggested by current industrial hygiene and environmental data
4. Review potential exposures and Site Safety Plans at all sites to determine if additional testing is required
5. Review emergency treatment procedures and update lists of emergency contacts. The effectiveness of a medical
program depends on active worker involvement. In addition, management should have a firm commitment to worker
health and safety.
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Module Quiz
Under the record-keeping requirements of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard, the employer
must maintain and preserve medical records of a worker's exposure to hazardous materials for
what period of time?
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Workers enrolled in medical surveillance programs must have medical examinations at the
following times:
A) The worker
B) The employer
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Periodic medical examinations should be developed and used in conjunction with pre-
employment screening examinations.
A) True
B) False
Wearing the types of PPE required on a hazardous waste site adds a lot of stress to the
workers.
A) True
B) False
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Module 13
Hazard Recognition
Injury Prevention
Overview
Aerosols
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Types of Aerosols
Boiling Point
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Vapor Pressure
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Flashpoint
Density
Specific Gravity
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Melting Point
Water Solubility
• Units of solubility:
– Weight of solute per weight of solvent (ppm, ppb, g/kg)
– Weight of solute per volume (mg/L, ug/L) of solvent
– Molarity (moles/L)
– Percent solution (g/100 mL x 100).
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Viscosity
pH
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pH (cont’d)
Acids
• Highly reactive with living tissues
• React with most all materials
• Toxic reaction products may be formed
• Reactions with metals (Mg, Al) may
generate hydrogen gas
• React with bases to produce salts – heat
Bases
• Strong affinity for water
• Slippery feeling
• Attacks mucous membranes
• Burn more seriously
Sulfuric Acid
• Oily liquid, twice as dense as water
• Reactive, moderately strong oxidizer
• Dehydrates skin
• Reacts with copper or lead, generating toxic sulfur
dioxide
• Releases heat with water - boiling, splattering
Sodium Hydroxide
• Caustic, caustic soda, caustic lye
• White flakes, pellets, beads
• Water - much heat released
• Dissolves fatty acids, severe burns
• Corrosive to aluminum, zinc, lead
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Vapor Density
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Oxidizers
Common Oxidizers
Flammability
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Flammability (cont’d)
The definitions of "flammable liquid" and "combustible liquid" in NFPA 30 differ from those used by the U.S.
Department of Transportation. Why?
• Definition and classification of flammable and combustible liquids are addressed in Subsection 3.3.33 and Chapter 4 of
NFPA 30. A flammable liquid is defined as a liquid whose flash point does not exceed 100°F, when tested by closed‐cup
test methods, while a combustible liquid is one whose flash point is 100°F or higher, also when tested by closed‐cup
methods. These broad groups are further classified as follows:
Class IA ‐ Flash Point less than 73°F; Boiling Point less than 100°F
Class IB ‐ Flash Point less than 73°F; Boiling Point equal to or greater than 100°F
Class IC ‐ Flash Point equal to or greater than 73°F, but less than 100°F
Class II ‐ Flash Point equal to or greater than 100°F, but less than 140°F
Class IIIA ‐ Flash Point equal to or greater than 140°F, but less than 200°F
Class IIIB ‐ Flash Point equal to or greater than 200°F
• Notice that boiling point is only used to distinguish between Class IA and Class IB. Class IA liquids are extremely
volatile, but there are few liquids that are so classed. Note also that, theoretically, there is no upper limit to Class IIIB.
Flammability (cont’d)
• These definitions and classifications were agreed to years ago by NFPA, the U. S. Department of Transportation (DOT),
and the U. S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) in an attempt to remove inconsistencies in the
definitions used at the time. Since then, DOT has changed its definition of "flammable liquid" by raising the upper limit
to 141°F (60.5°C). This was done because the United States is a partner to a world‐wide set of hazardous materials
regulations sponsored by the United Nations and must use the UN definitions, at least for international transportation.
Note, however, that DOT regulations include a so‐called "domestic exemption" that allows a shipper to redesignate as a
combustible liquid any liquid whose flash point is in the NFPA Class II range and which does not meet any other
hazardous material definition.
• Any material in a liquid phase with a flash point ≤ 37.8º C (100º F) that is intentionally heated and offered for transport
or transported at or above its flash point in bulk packaging.
• Combustible liquids are a liquid that does not meet the definition of any other hazard class and has a flash point of >
60.5º C (141º F) and ≤ 93º C (200º F).
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Module Quiz
Flammable gases with a wide flammable range, such as hydrogen or acetylene, are
____________ than a material with a narrow flammable range.
A) Easier to ignite
B) More difficult to ignite
C) Less toxic
D) More difficult to cool
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A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) tells us that a material has a pH of 1.2. This chemical data tells us
that the material is:
A) Flammable
B) A base
C) An acid
D) Neutral
A) Combustible liquid
B) Pyrophoric
C) Flammable liquid
D) Oxidizer
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Module 14
Respiratory Protection
Introduction
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Respirator Types
Atmosphere-Supplying Respirators
Atmosphere-supplying respirators are respirators with
an air source and consist of two types:
Air-Purifying Respirators
Air-purifying respirators (APRs), on the other hand,
do not have a separate air source. Instead, they
utilize ambient (i.e., surrounding) air which is
"purified" through a filter before inhalation.
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Positive-Pressure Airflow
Positive-pressure respirators maintain a
positive pressure in the face piece during both
inhalation and exhalation. The two main types
of positive-pressure respirators are pressure-
demand or continuous flow.
Pressure-Demand
In pressure-demand respirators, a pressure
regulator and an exhalation valve on the mask
maintain the mask's positive pressure, except
possibly during high breathing rates. If a leak
develops in a pressure-demand respirator, the
regulator sends a continuous flow of clean air
into the face piece, preventing penetration by
contaminated ambient air.
Continuous-Flow
Continuous-flow respirators including some
supplied air respirators (SARs) and all powered
air-purifying respirators (PAPR), send a
continuous stream of air into the face piece at all
times. With SARs the continuous flow of air
prevents infiltration (i.e., invasion) by ambient
air but uses the air supply much more rapidly
than with pressure demand respirators.
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Negative-pressure Airflow
Negative-pressure respirators draw air into the face piece
via the negative pressure created by user inhalation. The
main disadvantage of negative-pressure respirators is that
if any leaks develop in the system (i.e., a crack in the hose
or an ill fitting mask or face piece), the user draws
contaminated air into the face piece during inhalation.
When atmosphere-supplying respirators are used, only
those operated in the positive-pressure mode are
recommended for work at hazardous waste-sites.
Module Quiz
4
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What three variables must be identified before air-purifying respirators can be considered for
use?
B) Pose a hazard because they can displace air especially in low lying areas.
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6
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Module 15
1
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Cartridges
Cartridges usually attach directly to the respirator face piece. The larger volume canisters attach to the chin of the
face piece or are carried with a harness and attached to the face piece by a breathing tube. Cartridges have maximum
use concentrations (M.U.C.) specified on the cartridge or in the package in which the cartridge is sealed.
2
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3
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Different types of face pieces are available for use with the various
types of respirators. The types generally used at hazardous waste
sites are full face piece masks and half masks. Full face piece masks
cover the face from the hairline to below the chin, providing eye
protection. Half masks cover the face from below the chin to over
the nose and do not provide eye protection.
Module Quiz
4
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A) Asbestos removal
B) Confined spaces
C) IDLH (immediately dangerous to life and health) atmospheres.
D) ADLH (acutely dangerous to life and health) atmospheres.
The class of respiratory protection that is NOT recommended for use in hazardous atmosphere
containing less than 19.5% oxygen is the:
A) Air-purifying respirator.
B) Supplied-air respirator.
C) Closed-circuit SCBA.
D) Open-circuit SCBA.
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6
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Module 16
1
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- Will the bulk and weight of the SCBA interfere with task
performance or cause unnecessary stress? If yes, use of a
SAR may be more appropriate if conditions permit.
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3
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Combination SCBA/SAR
- In such situations, workers would enter the site using the SCBA mode,
connect to the air line during the work period, and shift back to the SCBA
mode to leave the site. The combination SCBA/SAR should not be
confused with an SAR with escape provisions. The primary difference is
the length of air time provided by the SCBA. The combination system
provides up to 60 minutes of self-contained air, whereas the escape
SCBA contains much less air, generally enough for only 5 minutes.
NIOSH certification of the combination unit allows up to 20 percent of
the available airtime to be used during entry, while the SAR with escape
provision is certified for escape only.
4
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Module Quiz
In an atmosphere which is immediately dangerous to life and health, your best respiratory
protection is:
A) Supplied air respirator, negative pressure.
5
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6
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Module 17
Chemical Concentration
After the oxygen content has been determined, and after the chemical
has been identified and the warning properties have been assessed, the
chemical concentration needs to be determined to decide if an air-
purifying respirator can be used.
Respirator Canisters
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(PF) (PEL or TLV) = Maximum Value Limit
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Module Quiz
3
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____________ is determined experimentally by measuring face piece seal and exhalation valve
leakage.
A) The OSHA PEL
An air purifying respirator provides more protection than a supplied air respirator.
A) True
B) False
4
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5
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Module 18
Respirator Fit
Facial hair and long hair interfere with respirator fit and wearer
vision. Any facial hair that passes between the face and the
sealing surface of the respirator is prohibited. Even a few days'
growth of facial hair will allow excessive contaminant
penetration. Long hair must be effectively contained within
protective hair coverings.
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The "fit" or integrity of the face piece to face seal of a respirator affects
its performance. A secure fit is important with positive-pressure
equipment and is essential to the safe functioning of negative-pressure
equipment, such as air-purifying respirators. Most face pieces fit only a
certain percentage of the population; thus, each face piece must be
tested on the potential wearer in order to ensure a tight seal.
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3
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4
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Respirator Limits
Respirator Limits
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Cleaning
Respirators are to be regularly cleaned and disinfected at a designated
respirator cleaning station located in an employee locker room.
Maintenance
Respirators are to be properly maintained at all times in order to ensure
that they function properly and adequately protect the employee.
Maintenance involves a thorough visual inspection for cleanliness and
defects. Worn or deteriorated parts must be replaced prior to use. No
components should be replaced or repairs made beyond those
recommended by the manufacturer. Repairs to regulators or alarms of
supplied air respirators should be conducted by the manufacturer.
• Head straps:
Breaks or rips
Broken buckles
• Valves:
Residue or dirt
Cracks or tears in valve material
• Filters/Cartridges:
Approval designation
Gaskets
Cracks or dents in housing
Proper cartridge for hazard
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Storage
Module Quiz
D) Methods include banana oil test, smoke test and saccharin test.
7
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A respirator fit check consisting of covering the cartridge openings and inhaling for 5 to 10
seconds to feel the mask pulling snuggly against the face is called a negative pressure fit
check.
A) True
B) False
A) Positive, negative.
B) Qualitative, quantitative.
C) Pressure, vacuum.
D) Subjective, objective.
The primary purpose of fit testing is to identify the specific model, make, and size respirator
best suited for each person.
A) True
B) False
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A) True
B) False
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Module 19
Introduction
Knowledge of the different levels and types of
personal protective equipment (PPE) is important
because of the many different types of hazards found
on a hazardous waste site. The worker needs to know
how to properly select their PPE, as well as
understand the limitations of the PPE they are using.
In addition, knowing the signs and symptoms of heat
stress and how to prevent it is important to the
worker because of the PPE they are required to wear.
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Training
Such training:
- Allows the user to become familiar with the equipment
in a non-hazardous situation
- Instills confidence of the user in his/her equipment
- Makes the user aware of the limitations and
capabilities of the equipment
- Increases the efficiency of operations performed by
workers wearing PPE
- May increase the protective efficiency of PPE use
- Reduces the expense of PPE maintenance
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Training (cont’d)
Training (cont’d)
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Module Quiz
Knowing the signs and symptoms of _________ and how to prevent it is important to the
worker because of the PPE they are required to wear.
A) breathing
B) discomfort
C) heat stress
D) sun stress
A) monthly
B) annually
C) bi-annually
D) quarterly
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5
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Module 20
Protection Provided:
The highest level of respiratory, skin, and eye protection
available.
Recommended:
Pressure-demand full-face piece SCBA or pressure-demand,
supplied-air respirator with escape SCBA. Fully encapsulating,
chemical-resistant suit, disposable coveralls to be used over
work clothes and under chemical resistant clothing. Inner and
outer chemical-resistant gloves. Chemical-resistant boots. Hard
hat.
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Optional:
Disposable boot covers, taped seams, cooling unit
Limiting Criteria:
Fully-encapsulating suit material must be compatible with
chemicals involved. Site conditions, such as temperature, may
require close observation of workers' comfort.
Level A
Protection Provided:
The highest level of respiratory protection but
limited skin protection from airborne hazards
(gases, vapors, dusts, mists).
Recommended:
Pressure-demand full-face piece SCBA or
pressure-demand supplied-air respirator with
escape SCBA. Chemical-resistant clothing: overalls
and long-sleeved jacket; hooded, one or two piece
chemical splash suit; limited use chemical-
resistant one piece suit. Disposable coveralls to be
used over work clothes and under chemical-
resistant clothing. Inner and outer chemical-
resistant gloves. Chemical-resistant boots. Hard
hat.
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Optional:
Disposable boot covers, taped seams
Limiting Criteria:
Use only when the vapor or gases are NOT suspected of
containing high concentrations of chemicals that are harmful
to skin or capable of being absorbed through intact skin. Use
only when it is highly unlikely that the work being done will
generate either high concentrations of vapors, gases,
particles, or splashes of material that will affect exposed skin.
Level B
Level B (cont’d)
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Protection Provided:
The limited level of respiratory
protection and skin protection from
airborne hazards (gases, vapors, dusts,
mists).
Recommended:
Full face, air-purifying respirator.
Chemical-resistant clothing: overalls
and long-sleeved jacket; hooded, one
or two piece chemical splash suit;
limited use chemical-resistant one piece
suit. Disposable coveralls to be used
over work clothes and under chemical
resistant clothing. Inner and outer
chemical-resistant gloves. Chemical-
resistant boots. Hard hat.
Optional:
Disposable boot covers, taped Seams,
escape mask
Limiting Criteria:
Atmospheric concentrations of chemicals
must not exceed IDLH (immediately
dangerous to life and health) levels must
contain at least 19.5 percent oxygen.
Level C
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Protection Provided:
No respiratory protection and limited skin protection from airborne hazards
(gases, vapors, dusts, mists).
Recommended:
Disposable coveralls to be used over work clothes, work gloves, chemical-
resistant boots or shoes, safety glasses or goggles, hard hat
Optional:
Escape mask
Limiting Criteria:
Atmospheric concentrations of chemicals must not exceed IDLH (immediately
dangerous to life and health) levels must contain at least 19.5 percent oxygen.
This level can be used only when all atmospheric contaminants have
been identified and concentrations measured, and when it has been
determined that there is no hazard to the respiratory system or to the
skin.
Level D
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Module Quiz
The EPA level of protection which provides the highest degree of respiratory and skin
protection against gases and vapors is _______.
A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D
A) Splash protection.
B) Respiratory protection.
D) Foot protection.
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The ensemble of equipment referred to as Level B protection is generally the minimum level
recommended for an initial entry until the site hazards have been further identified.
A) True
B) False
7
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8
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Module 21
Protective Clothing
1
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Protective Clothing
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3
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Permeation Rate
4
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The larger the clo value, the greater the insulating properties of
the garment and, consequently, the lower the heat transfer.
Given other equivalent protective properties, clothing with the
lowest clo value should be selected in hot environments or for
high work rates. Unfortunately, clo values for clothing have so
far rarely been available.
These include:
- Air-supply consumption
- Suit/ensemble permeation and penetration
by chemical contaminants
- Ambient temperature
- Coolant supply
Module Quiz
5
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All chemical protective suits should be inspected prior to their use and ideally on a _____
maintenance program.
A) bi-annually
B) annually
C) monthly
D) quarterly
_________ is the process by which a chemical dissolves in and/or moves through a protective
clothing material.
A) Degradation
B) Absorption
C) Permeation
________ is the loss of or change in the fabric's chemical resistance or physical properties.
A) Degradation
B) Penetration
C) Permeation
D) Activation
6
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The same chemical protective clothing can be used for all chemicals.
A) True
B) False
A) Temperature
B) Material thickness
C) Chemical composition
7
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8
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Module 22
Air-Supply Consumption
Work Rate
The actual in-use duration of SCBAs may be reduced by
one-third to one-half during strenuous work (e.g.,
considerable drum handling and lifting, or any task
requiring repetitive speed of motion).
Fitness
Well-conditioned individuals generally use oxygen more
efficiently and can extract more oxygen from a given
volume of air (particularly when performing strenuous
tasks) than do unfit individuals. This significantly increases
the SCBA operating time.
Body Size
Larger individuals generally consume air at a higher rate
than smaller individuals do, thereby decreasing the SCBA
operating time. Breathing patterns - quick, shallow, or
irregular breaths use air more rapidly than do deep,
regularly spaced breaths. Heat-induced anxiety and lack of
acclimatization (i.e., adjustment to the work climate) may
induce hyperventilation, resulting in decreased SCBA
operating time.
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Ambient Temperature
The ambient temperature has a major influence on work
mission duration as it affects both the worker and the
protectiveness of the ensemble. Heat stress, which can occur
even in relatively moderate temperatures, is the greatest
immediate danger to a worker in a totally encapsulating
ensemble.
Coolant Supply
Other Considerations
In addition to permeation, degradation,
penetration, and heat transfer, several other factors
must be considered during clothing selection. These
affect not only chemical resistance, but also the
worker's ability to perform the required task. The
following checklist summarizes these
considerations.
Durability:
- Does the material have sufficient strength to withstand the physical
stress of the task(s) at hand?
- Will the material resist tears, punctures, and abrasions?
- Will the material withstand repeated use after
contamination/decontamination?
Flexibility:
- Will the CPC interfere with a worker's ability to perform his or her
assigned tasks? (This is particularly important to consider for gloves).
Temperature effects:
- Will the material maintain its protective integrity and flexibility under
the extremes of heat and cold?
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Ease of decontamination:
- Are decontamination procedures available on
site?- Will the material pose any decontamination
problems?- Should disposable clothing be used?
Duration of use:
- Can the required task be accomplished before
contaminant breakthrough occurs, or before
degradation of the CPC becomes significant?
Special Conditions
Accessories
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Accessories (cont’d)
One must also consider the effect hearing protection has on the
ability to communicate with the worker. When using any
accessory, care must be taken to avoid compromising the
effectiveness of the PPE ensemble. In eliminating one hazard,
another may be created.
Module Quiz
When planning an SCBA-assisted work mission, the following variables should be considered,
and work actions and operating time should be adjusted accordingly:
A) work rate
B) fitness
C) body size
4
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Upon finishing shifts, workers must replace body fluids by drinking ample _____ to prevent
dehydration.
A) beer
B) water
C) cocktails
A) project manager
B) engineer
C) scientist
D) health physicist
5
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6
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Module 23
1
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PPE Considerations
An effective PPE inspection program will probably feature five different types
of inspection:
1. Inspection and operational testing of equipment received from the factory or
distributor.
2. Inspection of equipment as it is issued to workers.
3. Inspection after use or training and prior to maintenance.
4. Periodic inspection of stored equipment.
5. Periodic inspection when a question arises concerning the appropriateness of
the selected equipment, or when problems with similar equipment arise.
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Storage
Clothing
• Potentially contaminated clothing should be stored in an area
separate from street clothing
• Different types and materials of clothing and gloves should be
stored separately to prevent issuing the wrong material by
mistake
• Protective clothing should be folded or hung in accordance with
manufacturers' recommendations
Respirators
SCBAs, supplied-air respirators, and air-purifying respirators
should be dismantled, washed, and disinfected after each use.
Maintenance
Once the equipment has been donned, its fit should be evaluated. If
the clothing is too small, it will restrict movement. Restriction of
movement increases the likelihood of tearing the suit material and of
accelerating worker fatigue. If the clothing is too large, the possibility
of snagging the material is increased; furthermore, the dexterity and
coordination of the worker may be reduced. In either case, the worker
should not work in the suit until a better fit is provided.
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If the suit has been used previously, inspect inside and out for signs of
chemical attack:
• discoloration
• swelling
• stiffness
Gloves:
Pressurize the gloves to check for pinholes. Either
blow into the glove, and then roll gauntlet towards
fingers, or inflate the glove and hold under water.
In either case, no air should escape.
Module Quiz
4
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Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) prevents what route of exposure to hazardous
materials?
A) Skin/eye
B) Skin
C) Inhalation
D) Injection
A) inspected
B) photographed
C) new
D) colorful
5
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6
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Module 24
In-Use Monitoring
Doffing an Ensemble
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Clothing Reuse
Heat Stress
2
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3
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Heat Rash
Heat Cramps
Heat Exhaustion
4
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Heat Stroke
The color of your urine can help you tell if you are drinking enough water.
Module Quiz
5
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B) coffee
C) cold water
D) caffeinated beverages
If your urine output color is dark yellow what should you do?
B) walk slower
6
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7
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Module 25
Overview
Face, head, foot, and hand protection are
important PPE considerations because of the
many safety hazards associated with the type
of work required on hazardous waste sites.
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(6) Wearers of contact lenses must also wear appropriate eye and face
protection devices in a hazardous environment - (It should be
recognized that dusty and/or chemical environments may represent an
additional hazard to contact lens wearers)
(7) Caution should be exercised in the use of metal frame protective
devices in electrical hazard areas
(8) Atmospheric conditions and the restricted ventilation of the protector
can cause lenses to fog - frequent cleansing may be necessary
(9) Welding helmets or face shields should be used only over primary eye
protection (spectacles or goggles)
(10) Non-side shield spectacles are available for frontal protection only, but
are not acceptable eye protection for the sources and operations listed
for "impact“
(11) Ventilation should be adequate, but well protected from splash entry-
eye and face protection should be designed and used so that it
provides both adequate ventilation and protects the wearer from
splash entry
(12) Protection from light radiation is directly related to filter lens density.
See note (4). Select the darkest shade that allows task performance
Class A
Class A helmets provide impact and penetration resistance
as well as electrical protection from low-voltage conductors.
The helmets are proof-tested to 2,200 volts.
Class B
In addition to impact and penetration resistance, Class B
helmets provide electrical protection from high-voltage
conductors. The helmets are proof-tested to 20,000 volts.
Class C
Class C helmets provide impact and penetration resistance.
They are usually made of aluminum, which conducts
electricity, and therefore should NOT be used around
electrical hazards.
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Safety shoes and boots meeting the 1991 ANSI standards provide
both impact and compression protection. Impact injuries may result
from dropped or falling equipment and materials. Compression
injuries may result from heavy materials or equipment rolling over a
worker's feet (e.g., skid trucks or other material handling carts, bulk
rolls, heavy pipes, and drums).Special foot protection needs may be
necessary at a waste site; for example, especially designed shoes
that protect metatarsals (small foot bones) or that are insulated to
protect against electrical hazards. Safety shoes or boots are available
that provide puncture protection if a worker steps on a sharp object,
such as nails, wire, tacks, screws, large staples, and scrap metal.
5
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Module Quiz
Protective equipment must be provided, used, and maintained in sanitary and reliable
condition, as necessary, to protect employees from_________.
A) workers
B) workplace hazards
C) supervisors
D) heat
A) employer
B) employee
C) union
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7
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8
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Module 26
Decontamination Part 1
Decontamination Plan and Procedures
Introduction
Decontamination
Decontamination ("decon"), which is
critical to worker health and safety at
hazardous waste sites, is the process
of removing or neutralizing
contaminants that have accumulated
on personnel and equipment.
Decontamination procedures protect
workers from hazardous substances
that may contaminate and eventually
permeate the protective clothing,
respiratory equipment, tools, vehicles,
and other equipment used on site.
Introduction (cont’d)
These procedures:
- Protect all site personnel by reducing the transfer of
harmful materials into clean areas;
- Helps prevent mixing of incompatible chemicals;
- Protects the community by preventing uncontrolled
transportation of contaminants from the site
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Decontamination Plan
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Levels of Contamination
Preliminary Considerations
Initial Planning
3
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Module Quiz
4
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All personnel and equipment leaving the hazardous waste site must be ________ to prevent
the spread of hazardous materials off of the site.
A) uncontrolled
B) contaminated
C) decontaminated
D) heated
A) Decontamination Plan
B) Contamination Plan
C) Savings Plan
5
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6
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Module 27
Decontamination Part 2
Personal Decontamination Station
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Type of Contaminant
The extent of personnel decontamination depends on the
effects the contaminants have on the body. Contaminants
do not exhibit the same degree of toxicity (or other hazard).
Whenever it is known or suspected that personnel can
become contaminated with highly toxic or skin-destructive
substances, a full decontamination procedure should be
followed. If less hazardous materials are involved, the
procedure can be downgraded.
Amount of Contamination
The amount of contamination on protective clothing is
usually determined visually. If it is badly contaminated, a
thorough decontamination is generally required. Gross
material remaining on the protective clothing for any
extended period of time may degrade or permeate it. This
likelihood increases with higher air concentrations and
greater amounts of liquid contamination. Gross
contamination also increases the probability of personnel
contact. Swipe tests may help determine the type and
quantity of surface contaminants.
Level of Protection
The Level of Protection and specific pieces of clothing
worn determine on a preliminary basis the layout of the
decontamination line. Each Level of Protection
incorporates different problems in decontamination and
doffing of the equipment. For example: decontamination
of the harness straps and backpack assembly of the self-
contained breathing apparatus is difficult. A butyl rubber
apron worn over the harness makes decontamination
easier.
Work Function
The work each person does determines the
potential for contact with hazardous materials.
In turn, this dictates the layout of the
decontamination line. For example, observers,
photographers, operators of air samplers, or
others in the Exclusion Zone performing tasks
that will not bring them in contact with
contaminants may not need to have their
garments washed and rinsed.
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Location of Contamination
Contamination on the upper areas of protective clothing
poses a greater risk to the worker because volatile
compounds may generate a hazardous breathing
concentration both for the worker and for the
decontamination personnel. There is also an increased
probability of contact with skin when doffing the upper part
of clothing.
Effectiveness of Decontamination
Equipment
Decontamination equipment, materials, and
supplies are generally selected based on
availability. Other considerations are ease of
equipment decontamination or disposability. Most
equipment and supplies can be easily procured.
For example, soft-bristle scrub brushes or long-
handle brushes are used to remove
contaminants. Water in buckets or garden
sprayers is used for rinsing. Large galvanized
wash tubs or stock tanks can hold wash and rinse
solutions. Children's wading pools can also be
used. Large plastic garbage cans or other similar
containers lined with plastic bags store
contaminated clothing and equipment.
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Decontamination Solution
Establishment of Procedures
Module Quiz
4
7/15/2013
The _________controls access into and out of the Exclusion Zone and confines
decontamination activities to a limited area.
A) fence
A) swipe testing
B) wet testing
C) dry testing
5
7/15/2013
6
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Module 28
Decontamination Part 3
Decontamination of Personnel and Equipment During Emergencies
Decontamination
Decontamination (cont’d)
1
7/15/2013
Decontamination (cont’d)
Basic Considerations
2
7/15/2013
Physical Injury
3
7/15/2013
Heat Stress
Chemical Exposure
Exposure categories:
• Injuries from direct contact, such as acid burns or inhalation
of toxic chemicals
• Potential injury due to gross contamination on clothing or
equipment
Module Quiz
4
7/15/2013
A) caps
B) respirator
A) Life-saving care
B) Clocking out
5
7/15/2013
6
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Module 29
Decontamination Part 4
Decontamination of Personnel and Equipment
Decontamination Procedures
Sampling devices
Tools
1
7/15/2013
Heavy Equipment
Physical Removal
In many cases, gross contamination can be removed by
physical means involving dislodging/displacement,
rinsing, wiping off, and evaporation. Physical methods
involving high pressure and/or heat should be used only
as necessary and with caution since they can spread
contamination and cause burns.
2
7/15/2013
Chemical Removal
A wash/rinse process using cleaning solutions should follow physical
removal of gross contamination. These cleaning solutions normally
utilize one or more of the following methods:
3
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Disinfection/Sterilization: Chemical
disinfectants are a practical means of
inactivating infectious agents. Unfortunately,
standard sterilization techniques are generally
impractical for large equipment and for PPE.
For this reason, disposable PPE is
recommended for use with infectious agents.
Module Quiz
4
7/15/2013
B) base
C) solvent
5
7/15/2013
6
7/15/2013
Module 30
Decontamination Part 5
Persistent Contamination
Persistent Contamination
1
7/15/2013
Smear Tests
This process involves taking a cloth patch and
smearing the inside and outside of the article in
question. Then, following the proper chain of
custody procedure, submit the smear to an
analytical laboratory for analysis.
Permeation Analysis
A small portion of the protective clothing can be
removed and sent to an accredited laboratory for
analyses.
2
7/15/2013
Example 1
PPE and equipment are contaminated with
PCBs, oils, halogenated solvents e.g.,
Trichloroethylene, Toluene and Chloroform. A
solution containing 5 percent trisodium
phosphate can be used to decon the wide
range of contaminants from these articles.
Example 2
Contamination is present in the form of heavy
metals, pesticides, PCBs, dioxins, and
chlorinated phenols. To remove all
contamination simultaneously, a solution of 10
percent calcium hypochlorite can be used.
Example 3
A waste stream that consists of inorganic bases,
alkali, and caustic wastes can be
decontaminated with a diluted solution of acid
such as hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, etc.
3
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Radioactive Materials
For radioactive materials, prepare a
concentrated solution of detergent and water
mixed into a paste. Scrub with a brush and
rinse with water
Bloodborne Pathogens
For etiologic (bloodborne pathogens) materials,
mix 1 cup household bleach with 10 cups of
water or 1 cup hydrogen peroxide (3-4%) with
10 cups of water
Module Quiz
__________: the smaller the size of the contaminant molecule the greater it will absorb into
the protective clothing material.
B) Decontaminant Chemical
C) Chemical Plan
4
7/15/2013
_______________: contaminants present in a gaseous or liquid state will absorb faster into
protective clothing than those in a solid state.
A) Contaminant State
C) solvent
5
7/15/2013
Module 31
Decontamination Part 6
Disposal of Contaminated Equipment and Materials
1
7/15/2013
2
7/15/2013
- Emergencies
3
7/15/2013
4
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
What is the minimum level of protection depending upon the chemical contaminants that
decontamination personnel should wear?
A) Level C protection.
5
7/15/2013
A) Hot Zone
B) Support Zone
C) Exclusion Zone
6
7/15/2013
7
7/15/2013
Module 32
Handling Drums
No
Sampling Characterize Bulking
Inspection Handling Opening
Develop Characterize Transfer drum
Inspect drums Necessary? Open drums
sampling plan wastes contents
Yes
No
Planning Handling Shipment
Staging
Develop a Orient drums Ship to TSDF
Necessary?
handling plan for sampling
Yes
Planning Staging Move drums to Move drums to Move drums to Bulking
Develop a Move drums to opening/sampling second staging final staging Transfer drum
staging plan first storage area area area area contents
Sampling Characterize
Opening
Sample drums Characterize
Open drums
contents wastes
1
7/15/2013
Inspection
Inspection (cont’d)
Inspection (cont’d)
As a precautionary measure,
personnel should assume that
unlabelled drums contain hazardous
materials until their contents are
characterized. Also, they should bear
in mind that drums are frequently
mislabeled-particularly drums that are
reused. Thus, a drum's label may not
accurately describe its contents.
2
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Planning
Handling
Handling (cont’d)
3
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Handling (cont’d)
Handling (cont’d)
Handling (cont’d)
4
7/15/2013
Handling (cont’d)
Module Quiz
A) Hot pack
5
7/15/2013
B) hazardous materials
C) water
6
7/15/2013
Module 33
Opening
1
7/15/2013
Bulging Drums
2
7/15/2013
3
7/15/2013
Buried Drums
Incompatible Chemicals
4
7/15/2013
5
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Module Quiz
A) harmful
C) water
If ______ material is noted at the neck of any bottle, handle it as a shock-sensitive waste.
A) yellow
B) frozen
C) crystalline
6
7/15/2013
7
7/15/2013
Module 34
Drum Sampling
Characterization
The goal of characterization is to obtain the data
necessary to determine how to safely and
efficiently package and transport the wastes for
treatment and/or disposal. If wastes are bulked,
they must be sufficiently characterized to
determine which of them can be safely combined
(see Bulking later in this module).
1
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Staging
Staging (cont’d)
2
7/15/2013
Bulking
Shipment
Shipment (cont’d)
• Provide adequate area for onsite and hauling vehicles
to turn around. Where necessary, build or improve
onsite roads.
3
7/15/2013
Shipment (cont’d)
• Keep bulk solids several inches below the top of the truck
container. Cover loads with a layer of clean soil, foam, and/or
tarp. Secure the load to prevent shifting or release during
transport.
Module Quiz
4
7/15/2013
The goal of ________ is to obtain the data necessary to determine how to safely and efficiently
package and transport the wastes for treatment and/or disposal.
A) characterization
B) monitoring
C) checking
Shipment of materials to offsite treatment, storage, or disposal facilities involves the entry of
waste hauling vehicles into the site. Which government agency regulates transportation?
C) OSHA
5
7/15/2013
6
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Module 35
1
7/15/2013
Health Hazards are those that can affect the immediate or long
term health of an employee if exposed to a specific chemical.
Acute effects of exposure are those that present symptoms
when exposure occurs, such as when skin is exposed to an
acid. Delayed or long term health effects can also occur from
chemical exposure, such as cancer. Health effects for any given
chemical will depend on the toxicity, duration of exposure and
amount of exposure.
2
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The UN Hazard Class Number is located on the bottom of the diamond and tells the type or class of hazard. These
numbers and their corresponding hazards are listed in the table below. The symbols indicate a visual warning of the
particular type of hazard by the chemical and the color helps to identify the hazard.
3
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Module Quiz
The _______ are the two primary regulatory drivers governing the identification of hazardous
materials.
4
7/15/2013
A) Flammability
B) Reactivity
C) Corrosive
5
7/15/2013
Module 36
Excavations Part 1
Excavation Requirements
Excavations
1
7/15/2013
Surface Encumbrances
Before excavation work is begun, the site should be
inspected for conditions requiring precautionary
measures, i.e., active roadways, utility structures,
trees, etc. Structures must be supported to prevent
hazard to any employee on the project site (in or out of
the excavation).
Underground Installations
Underground installations require that utilities be
located and marked. It may also be necessary to
temporarily support underground utilities during
excavation. When excavations approach the estimated
location of underground installations, the exact location
of the underground installations shall be determined by
means that are safe to employees, i.e., hand dig, test
pits, etc.
2
7/15/2013
3
7/15/2013
4
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
A) 29 CFR 1926.650
B) 29 CFR 1926.150
C) 29 CFR 1965.260
D) 29 CFR 1910.120
5
7/15/2013
6
7/15/2013
Module 37
Excavations Part 2
OSHA Soil Classification
Stable Rock
• Stable rock is defined as "natural solid mineral matter that
can be excavated with vertical sides and remain intact while
exposed." The Competent Person must use his/her own
judgment to determine if rock is stable. There is no OSHA-
specified manual test for "stable rock.“
1
7/15/2013
2
7/15/2013
Visual Test
During the visual test, the competent person should check for
crack-line openings along the failure zone that would indicate
tension cracks, look for existing utilities that indicate that the soil
has been previously disturbed, and if so, what sort of backfill was
used and observe the open side of the excavation for indications
of layered geologic structuring.
3
7/15/2013
Manual Tests
Thumb Penetration Test
Attempt to press the thumb firmly into the soil in question. If the
thumb penetrates no further than the length of the nail, it is
probably Type B soil. If the thumb penetrates the full length of
the thumb, it is Type C. It should be noted that the thumb
penetration test is the least accurate testing method.
Module Quiz
The OSHA soil classification system outlined in the Excavations standard recognizes FOUR basic
soil types. What are they?
4
7/15/2013
It should be noted that the _________ test is the least accurate testing method.
B) core penetration
C) thumb penetration
5
7/15/2013
Module 38
Excavations Part 3
Requirements for Protective Systems
1
7/15/2013
Slope the excavation at an angle not steeper than one and one half horizontal
to one vertical (1 1/2h:1v).
Slope in accordance with specifications for soil types as specified in Appendices
A and B of the OSHA standard.
Determine appropriate sloping or benching system in accordance with
tabulated data such as tables and charts. The tabulated data must be in
written form and must include the limitations of use, identification of the
parameters that affect the selection of the sloping or benching system drawn
from the data and must include the name of the PE who approved the data.
Design by a registered Professional Engineer. Such designs must include the
magnitudes and configurations determined to be safe, and the identity of the
PE who approved the design. Slopes in accordance with Appendix A and
Appendix B of the excavations standard are generally used. The soil must first
be classified under the OSHA classification system (Type A, Type B, etc.)
before this system can be utilized.
2
7/15/2013
Distressed Soils
3
7/15/2013
Timber Shoring
4
7/15/2013
Excavation Policy
5
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
A) manager
B) engineer
A) True
B) False
6
7/15/2013
7
7/15/2013
Module 39
Confined Space
Key Occupational Roles
Purpose
1
7/15/2013
Safety Attendant
Authorized Entrant
2
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
The ___________ has overall responsibility for the safety of all persons involved with entry
operations into confined spaces under his or her control.
A) operator
B) supervisor
C) shift superintendent
D) OSHA
A) safety attendant
B) supervisor
C) regulator
D) safety manager
3
7/15/2013
4
7/15/2013
Module 40
1
7/15/2013
2
7/15/2013
3
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
From the list below, select which ones that could be confined spaces.
A) a 55 gallon drum
B) open air tanks that are 3 feet tall
C) tanks, hoppers, bins, vaults, silos, pits, vessels
D) all of the above
4
7/15/2013
5
7/15/2013
Module 41
Part 1
Confined Space Pre-Entry Procedure
1
7/15/2013
Pre-entry
2
7/15/2013
3
7/15/2013
• The oxygen content of the air in a confined space is the first and
most important constituent to measure before entry is made. The
acceptable range of oxygen is between 19.5 and 23.5 percent. This
content is measured before flammability is tested because rich
mixtures of flammable gases or vapors give erroneous
measurement results. For example, a mixture of 90 percent
methane and 10 percent air will test nonflammable because there
is not enough oxygen to support the combustion process in the
flammability meters. This mixture will not support life and will soon
become explosive if ventilation is provided to the space.
Flammability Meters
4
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5
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
One should never enter a permit-required confined space without a safety attendant on duty
and adequate air testing.
A) True
B) False
C) Entry depends on the temperature.
Sometimes you can enter a confined space without a safety
D)
attendant.
If the confined space has contained hazardous substances, it is important for the confined
space to be _______________ before entry
6
7/15/2013
7
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Module 42
Part 2
Confined Space Pre-Entry Procedure
1
7/15/2013
Communications
Rescue Operations
• An approved harness and an attached line must be used.
The free end must be secured outside the confined space.
The line should be at least 0.5 inches in diameter and able
to withstand a 2,000 pound test. Exception: A line may be
eliminated in situations where it would further endanger
the worker or not contribute to rescue.
2
7/15/2013
Rescue Operations
Module Quiz
A) CAA permit
B) Permit
C) Confined Space Entry Permit
D) RCRA Part B Permit
3
7/15/2013
Other than a confined space entry permit, what else must you have prior to entry?
4
7/15/2013
Module 43
• Once the entry has been planned and personnel have been trained
on conditions of the permit, the next step is to prepare the
confined space for entry.
1
7/15/2013
2
7/15/2013
Flammable/Combustible Atmosphere
Module Quiz
What should the oxygen content range be to allow entry into a confined space without the use
of a respirator.
3
7/15/2013
A) Metal friction
B) Unapproved electrical equipment
C) Lit cigarette
D) Static electricity
4
7/15/2013
Module 44
Part 1
Confined Space Protective Devices, Controls and Monitoring
Introduction
Fall-Protection Equipment
1
7/15/2013
Lockout/Tagout Devices
Safety Barriers
Fire Extinguishers
2
7/15/2013
Retrieval Equipment
3
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
________ and retrieval ropes must be worn by entrants unless they would increase hazards to
the entrants or impede their rescue.
A) PPE
B) Collars
C) Harnesses
D) Wristbands
___________ can remove some contaminants from the air, but they do not protect from
oxygen deficient atmospheres.
D) Z-95 masks
4
7/15/2013
5
7/15/2013
Module 45
Part 2
Confined Space Protective Devices, Controls and Monitoring
Monitoring
Oxygen-Consuming Devices
Fire-Suppression Systems
1
7/15/2013
Top Entry
Hot Work
Inert Atmospheres
2
7/15/2013
Electrical Equipment
Corrosives
Module Quiz
3
7/15/2013
Work using flames, arcs, sparks, or other sources of ignition is prohibited within a confined
space.
A) True
B) False
C) Sometimes
A) SCBA
B) ground interrupter
C) circuit interrupter
D) ground fault circuit interrupter
4
7/15/2013
5
7/15/2013
Module 46
Injury Prevention
Overview
1
7/15/2013
Causes of Fatalities
• Unsafe Conditions.
• Lack of training.
• Fall hazards.
• Oxygen deficient atmosphere.
• Oxygen enriched atmosphere.
• Poor lighting.
• Flammable atmosphere.
• Lack of a communication system when
entrants are out of sight.
• Toxic atmosphere.
• Electrical shock hazards.
• Presence of an engulfing or drowning medium.
• Entrapping mechanisms.
• Grinding, crushing, or mixing mechanisms.
• Contact with hazardous chemicals.
2
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
Many fatalities occur because victims do not fully understand the threat of airborne hazards
that they cannot ________.
One of the reasons for confined space injuries and fatalities is______.
A) no overhead
B) poor planning
C) bad designs
D) the supervisor
3
7/15/2013
4
7/15/2013
Module 47
Electrical/Mechanical Hazards
Engulfment/Drowning
1
7/15/2013
Fall Hazards
Toxic Atmosphere
2
7/15/2013
Safety Measures
Hazardous Atmosphere
3
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
4
7/15/2013
Working in a confined space has its own set of potential work problems such as:
5
7/15/2013
6
7/15/2013
Module 48
Site Characterization
1
7/15/2013
Off-site Characterization
Interview Records/Research
2
7/15/2013
Information Sources
Perimeter Reconnaissance
3
7/15/2013
On-site Survey
Module Quiz
4
7/15/2013
____________ provides the information needed to identify site hazards and to select worker
protection methods.
A) Site characterization
B) Site scoping
C) Surface water run off
D) Excessive heat or cold
_____________ should be carried out when site hazards are largely unknown or when there is
no need to go on site immediately.
A) Public meetings
B) Air reconnaissance
C) Perimeter reconnaissance
D) EPA visits
5
7/15/2013
6
7/15/2013
Module 49
Entry Team
1
7/15/2013
2
7/15/2013
3
7/15/2013
Documentation
Types of Documentation
Documentation can be accomplished by recording
information pertinent to field activities, sample
analysis, and site conditions in one of several ways.
These include:
- Logbooks
- Field data records
- Graphs- Photographs
- Sample labels
- Chain-of-custody forms
- Analytical records
- Samples to identify biologic, pathologic hazards
and radiological hazards
Document Control
Documentation of Photographs
Photographs can be an accurate, objective addition to a field
worker's written observations. For each photograph taken, the
following information should be recorded in the field logbook:
- Date, time, and name of site
- Name of the photographer
- Location of the subject within the site
- General compass direction of the orientation of the photograph
- General description of the subject
- Sequential number of the photograph and the film roll number
- Camera, lens, and film type used for photography
4
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
The design of built-in protection measures is vital to the health and safety of waste site
workers. In order to be effective, engineering controls not only must be part of the initial
design phase, but also must be continually evaluated and updated.
B) Proper engineering controls and PPE being selected based on the site characterization.
5
7/15/2013
A) Perimeter Reconnaissance
B) Interview Records/Research
C) Information Sources
6
7/15/2013
7
7/15/2013
Module 50
Toxicology Part 1
Chemical Classification
Introduction
Toxicology
Introduction (cont’d)
1
7/15/2013
Introduction (cont’d)
2
7/15/2013
Dusts
Dusts are tiny particles of solids (examples: cement
dust, metal dusts from grinding operations). The
route of entry is inhalation.
Fumes
Tiny particles produced from heating, volatilization
and condensation of metals (examples: zinc oxide
fumes from welding of galvanized metal). Routes of
entry are inhalation, ingestion (saliva), and skin
absorption. It is important to note that toxic fumes
may result from the burning of non-toxic
substances. Acids, organic solvents, chlorinated
organic solvents (examples: benzene, sulfuric acid,
1,1,1-trichloroethane). Routes of entry are
inhalation and skin absorption.
Vapors
Vapors are gases that result from the evaporation
of liquids or the sublimation of solids (examples:
gasoline, phosgene and iodine). Routes of entry are
inhalation and skin absorption.
Mists
Mists are liquid droplets suspended in the air
(examples: acid mists from electroplating processes
or solvent mists from paint spraying operations).
3
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Chemical Classifications
Asphyxiants
Asphyxiants are chemicals that deprive the victim's body
tissues of oxygen. An asphyxiant interferes with the body's
ability to transport or use the oxygen carried by the blood
stream. Any gas heavier than air can easily displace oxygen
and cause asphyxiation. Examples of chemical asphyxiants are
carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide.
Carcinogens
Chemicals in this category are known to cause cancer in
humans or in laboratory test animals. This is a chronic effect as
there is a time period that elapses before a malignant tumor
will appear. Examples of carcinogens are benzene,
benzo(a)pyrene, asbestos fibers, acrylonitrile, and DBCP
(dibromochloropropane).
Irritants
This group of chemicals will irritate various tissues causing
redness, rashes, swelling, coughing, or even hemorrhaging.
Chlorine and ammonia are two examples of irritants.
Sensitizers
Another name for sensitizers is allergens. These chemicals cause an allergic
type of reaction due to sensitivity from prior exposure. An acute response
may be swelling of the breathing tubes, which causes breathing difficulty.
Sensitizers can cause chronic lung disease. Some common examples are
epoxies, aromatic amines, formaldehyde, nickel metal, and maleic
anhydride.
Mutagens
Mutagens cause alterations in the genes of a person exposed. The result
may be malfunction of a specific organ or tissue, depending upon the type of
cell the mutation took place in. Gene damage can be passed on to children if
the mutation occurred in either the sperm or the egg of the parents.
Examples of mutagens are ethylene oxide, benzene, and hydrazine.
Teratogens
Teratogens cause damage or death to a developing fetus. This damage
cannot be passed on to further generations, as it does not affect the genetic
code. Examples of teratogens are thalidomide, dioxins, lead, and cadmium.
Corrosives
Corrosives produce a local effect or damage to the
body at the point of contact. Acids and bases are
examples and most common are sulfuric acid and
sodium hydroxide respectively.
4
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Module Quiz
A) Radiation
B) Toxicology
C) Toxicokinetics
D) none of the above
Humans and other living animals _______ in their response to any exposure to a chemical
substance.
A) vary
D) have no difference
5
7/15/2013
_______are tiny particles produced from heating, volatilization and condensation of metals.
A) Vapors
B) Dusts
C) Fumes
D) Hazes
____________ are chemicals that deprive the victim's body tissues of oxygen.
A) Irritants
B) Carcinogens
C) Asphyxiants
D) Mists
6
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7
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Module 51
Toxicology Part 2
Toxicokinetics
Toxicokinetics
Toxicokinetics (cont’d)
1
7/15/2013
Toxicokinetics (cont’d)
Toxicokinetics (cont’d)
2
7/15/2013
Liver
Kidneys
3
7/15/2013
Reproductive Organs
Blood
Routes of Exposure
Knowing how chemicals get into your body and how your body
reacts is critical to personal protection. Toxic chemicals can
enter the body in any one of, or a combination of, four ways.
4
7/15/2013
Inhalation
5
7/15/2013
Ingestion
Injection
6
7/15/2013
Module Quiz
A) Toxicokinetics
B) Toxicology
C) Xenobiotics
D) none of the above
7
7/15/2013
A) Indirectly
B) Acute
C) Chronic
D) Directly
The most common toxic dose in the work environment comes through_____________.
A) Injection
B) Noise
C) Ingestion
D) Inhalation
8
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9
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Module 52
Toxicology Part 3
Dose and Response
Chronic Response
1
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Chemical Dose
Highly Toxic
2
7/15/2013
Toxic
Chemical Interaction
Additive Effect (2 + 2 = 4)
Some toxic chemicals add their effects
together in producing a biological effect. In this
case the effect is the same as being exposed
to double the dose of either chemical alone.
Example: acetaminophen and ibuprofen.
Synergistic Effect (2 + 2 = 6)
Synergism is the exposure to two different
toxic chemicals that produce a more severe
effect than simply doubling the dose of either
one alone. An example is isopropyl alcohol and
chloroform. The alcohol ties up the enzymes
that would normally break down chloroform.
Potentiation (0 + 2 = 10)
In some cases a chemical without any known toxic
effect may act together with a known toxic substance
to make the toxic substance even more potent and
thus more dangerous. Ethanol (ethyl alcohol) and
chloroform together affect the liver in just such a
manner.
Antagonism (4 + 6 = 8)
The interaction of two toxic chemicals may be such
that the effect produced is actually less than would be
expected. Phenobarbital and benzopyrene together is
an example. The phenobarbital increases the enzyme
activity that detoxifies the benzopyrene. As a final
note, a prescription drug being taken by a worker may
interact with a hazardous chemical that is
encountered in the work place. Your doctor needs to
know that you may be exposed to toxic hazards on
the job.
3
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Dose Response
A chemical compound that is foreign to the body is reacting with biometabolism and causing an effect. This
effect may be slight or may be lethal. Most of the time when we interact with chemicals the dose is very
small. However, if the exposure is large and the body cannot metabolize the insult, an effect from the
exposure is observed. This is known as the dose response effect.
Depending on the form of the material, whether you have dose or concentration, refers to the test population
for a material.
- LDLO is the amount of the chemical at which the first of the test population died.
- LD50 or LC50 is the amount of the chemical at which 50% of the test population died.
- LD100 or LC100 is the amount of the chemical at which 100% of the test population died. These quantities
are best used to see how toxic chemicals compare to one another.
- NOEL - No Observed Effect Level - the highest concentration or dosage where no effect is observed
4
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Individual Response
The LD50 numbers are for an average population; there
is a great deal of genetic variability in chemical dose
response. In other words, given the same dose of a
material, different workers responses to the material may
be at opposite extremes of the chemical dose response
curve. Some individuals will experience less of a response
while others will experience a greater response. To afford
the greatest protection to the average worker, "exposure
limits" have been developed. An exposure limit is the
airborne concentration of a material to which nearly all
individuals may be repeatedly exposed without adverse
health effects.
Exposure Limits
5
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6
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7
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Module Quiz
A) (2 + 2 = 6)
B) (2 + 8 = 6)
C) (0 + 2 = 6)
D) none of the above
A) (2 + 2 = 6)
B) (2 + 2 = 4)
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A) Trans-World Airlines
B) Time-Weighted Average
C) Time-Weighted Anomaly
D) Tested-Weighted Average
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Module 53
Introduction
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1. Identify the site tasks that have the potential for injury
or illness. It might be necessary to focus on those with
the greatest potential hazards first.
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3 - Liquids and solids that can be ignited under almost all ambient
temperature conditions
1 - Materials that in themselves are normally stable but which can (1)
become unstable at elevated temperatures or (2) react with water with
some release of energy but not violently
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Question
The sign to the right bears a 2 rating for blue, a 2 rating for yellow and
the white diamond contains the word “OXY”. What does this mean?
Blue Hazard
2 - Materials that on intense or continued exposure could cause
temporary incapacitation or possible residual injury unless prompt
medical treatment was given.
Yellow Hazard
2 - Materials that (1) in themselves are normally unstable and readily
undergo violent chemical change but do not detonate or (2) may react
violently with water or (3) may form potentially explosive mixtures with
water.
DOT Labels
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DOT Labels
Hazards
These include:
- Ionizing Radiation
- Chemical Health Hazards
- Chemical Physical Hazards
- Site and Equipment Hazards
- Environmental Hazards
- Biological Hazards
Hazards (cont’d)
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Ionizing Radiation
Module Quiz
What is risk?
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The NFPA 704-M system ("hazard diamonds") identifies the hazards of materials in:
The white section ("home plate") of the NFPA 704-M Hazard Diamond provides information on:
A) Health
B) Reactivity
C) Special hazards
D) Flammability
A) Specific
B) Health
C) Fire
D) Special
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8
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Module 54
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Flammable Solids
A solid, other than a blasting agent or explosive, that is liable to cause
fire through friction, absorption of moisture, spontaneous chemical
change, or retained heat from manufacturing or processing. If ignited, a
flammable solid burns so vigorously that it creates a serious hazard.
Examples include some metals, naphthalene, dinitrotoluene, and methyl
parathion.
Explosives
An explosive is a chemical that causes a sudden, almost instantaneous
release of pressure, gas, and heat when subjected to sudden shock,
pressure, or high temperature. DOT recognizes six subcategories of
explosives, depending upon their specific behavior. Some examples of
explosives are initiating explosives or blasting agents, grenades, rocket
engine propellant, fuse igniters, and explosive cable cutters.
Organic Peroxides
Organic compounds that are considered a
structural derivative of hydrogen peroxide fall in
this category. They chemically contain both the
oxidizer and the fuel to support combustion and
under conditions such as contamination, elevated
temperatures, and friction, they can act as
contact explosives. Examples include benzoyl
peroxide, t-butyl peracetate, isopropyl
percarbonate, and t-amyl peroxypivalate.
Unstable/Reactives
Reactive chemicals will vigorously polymerize,
decompose, condense, or become self-reactive
under conditions of shock, pressure, or
temperature. This can cause a sudden release of
materials under pressure or chemical reactions
that produce explosions, fire, or heat. Examples
include acetylene and vinyl chloride.
Water Reactives
Chemicals in this group react with water to release
a gas that is flammable or presents a health
hazard. Water reactive chemicals can cause fire,
explosion, or excessive pressure leading to
container failure. Examples include sodium metal,
sulfuric acid, vinyl chloride, arsine, and
trifluorochloroethylene.
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Oxygen Deficiency
The oxygen content of normal air at sea level
is approximately 21 percent. Physiological
effects become readily apparent when the
oxygen concentration in the air decreases
toward 16 percent.
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Module Quiz
OSHA requires the use of supplied-air respirators at concentrations of ______ percent oxygen
or lower.
A) 21.5
B) 20.5
C) 19.5
_____________ are those that cause physical injury, such as by fire or explosion.
A) Physical hazards
B) Chemical hazards
C) Biological hazards
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Module 55
- Holes or ditches
- Precariously positioned objects, such as drums or
boards that may fall
- Sharp objects, such as nails, metal shards, and
broken glass
- Slippery surfaces
- Steep grades
- Uneven terrain
- Unstable surfaces, such as walls that may cave in or
flooring that may give way
- Overhead and underground utilities
- The presence of compressed gas cylinders
Electrical Hazards
Hazardous waste sites require an electrical supply for lighting,
cooling, equipment, and tools. Whenever electricity is used, proper
precautions and procedures are necessary to avoid electrocution
and shock. However, at a waste site other electrical hazards exist:
- Overhead power lines
- Downed electrical lines
- Unmarked buried cables
- Defective insulation on lines and equipment
- Charged capacitors
- Lightning
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Noise
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Environmental Hazards
Heat Stress
Heat stress is a major hazard, especially for workers
wearing protective clothing. The same protective materials
that shield the body from chemical exposure also limit the
body's ability to get rid of heat and moisture. Personal
protective clothing can therefore create a hazardous
condition. Depending on the ambient conditions and the
work being performed, heat stress can occur very rapidly,
within as little as 15 minutes. It can pose as great a danger
to worker health as chemical exposure.
Causal Factors
Heat Stroke
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Heat Exhaustion
Heat Cramps
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Cold Exposure
Treatment
Move the victim to a warm indoor area. If the
worker is conscious, provide warm beverages
containing NO caffeine or alcohol. Frost-damaged
areas should be treated as follows:
- Seek medical attention immediately
- Rewarm the frozen part quickly by immersing it in
water maintained at 102-105 degrees Fahrenheit
(comfortably warm to the inner surface of an
unchilled forearm). Discontinue warming when the
skin begins to look flushed, which is a sign of the
return of blood flow.
- Do NOT allow the victim to walk on frozen feet.
Instead, allow the victim to exercise the feet with
gentle movement
- Elevate the feet after warming
- Prevent contact between the injured part and any
surface except a sterile bandage
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Module Quiz
What occurs when the body's system of temperature regulation fails and body temperature
rises to critical levels.
A) Heat Stress
B) Heat Stroke
C) Cold Stress
Work around large equipment often creates excessive noise. The effects of noise can include:
A) distractions
B) getting startled
C) being annoyed
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Module 56
Bloodborne Pathogens
Hepatitis B (HBV)
When an infected person has this disease, their blood and body
fluids can transmit the virus to healthy people. This is why following
precautions for HBV are so important. HBV is far more easy to
contract than HIV. The primary way to transmit the virus is by blood
and body fluids having intimate contact with another persons blood
or body fluids. There are approximately 300,000 new reported cases
of HBV in the United States every year. While there are other types
of Hepatitis, HBV is the most prevalent form every year. While there
is no cure for HBV, a vaccine does exist that can prevent infection.
It is recommended that health care workers or other workers
dealing with blood and body fluids take the vaccination.
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• Open sores
• Cuts
• Abrasions
• Acne
• Any sort of damaged or broken skin such as sunburn or
blisters
Universal Precautions
While there are many ways to prevent exposure and infection, there
is one major fundamental that covers every work procedure. In the
OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens regulation, a term "Universal
Precautions" is introduced.
Universal Precautions means to treat all blood and most body fluids
as if they were contaminated with the HBV or HIV viruses. This is the
primary fundamental to reduce the chances of infection.
Universal Precautions means to treat all blood and most body fluids
as if they were contaminated with the HBV or HIV viruses.
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PPE Procedure
Remove PPE before leaving the work area, and wash your hands!
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Minimum Illumination
Here are the OSHA standards with respect to the minimum amount of light allowed at a HAZWOPER site.
Sanitation
Toilets
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Sanitation (cont’d)
Lockout/Tagout
Incidence of Injuries
Lockout/Tagout (cont’d)
Causes of Injuries
• Unsafe Acts
• Accidentally activating an energy source that should have
been locked or tagged out.
• Failing to lockout/tagout all energy sources before work
begins.
• Turning off the wrong source of energy.
• Not testing an energy source before work begins.
• Not relieving stored secondary energy.
Unsafe Conditions
• No written procedures.
• Improper labeling and identification of lockout/tagout
devices.
• Inadequate training/inspections.
• Energy isolation devices not identified.
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Lockout/Tagout (cont’d)
Module Quiz
A) HBV
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV
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___________ are a common unit of measurement used to calculate adequate lighting levels in
workspaces.
A) Foot-candles
B) Wax candles
C) Sight-candles
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Module 57
Chemical Awareness
Introduction
Hazardous chemicals, hazardous materials, or
hazardous substances, as they are variously
called, have long been used for many purposes
in homes, business and industry. Often the
people who use such materials become lax and
careless around chemicals. Working with the
same chemicals every day, brings on the
comfort of the commonplace.
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Labeling
Often the quickest source of information is through labeling
and placarding. The HCS requires that every container of
hazardous materials (with few exceptions) be labeled by the
manufacturer.
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Placarding
Placarding (cont’d)
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Module Quiz
There are two main types of materials that are capable of skin and metal destruction and they
are known as _____________.
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The _______________ requires employers to evaluate chemical hazards in their facilities and
to communicate the hazard information to employees.
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Module 58
pH
Acid-Base Neutralization
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When most people speak of strong acids (or bases) they are
actually referring to the concentration of the acidic or basic
solution. These two concepts are often confused. Strength
is defined as "the percentage of dissociation that occurs
when an acid or base is mixed with water". All this means is
how much the material (solid or liquid) molecules come
apart (dissociate) in water to form electrically charged
particles (positive or negative ions).
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Vapor Hazards
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Liquid Hazards
Solid Hazards
Dusts from some of the solid corrosives are also capable of
producing both severe internal and/or external injuries.
Massive exposures to some of the strong corrosives can be
fatal within a matter of minutes, with little or nothing able
to stop the fatality. The injuries are also extremely
disfiguring and require extensive healing times and medical
treatment.
Protective Measures
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Module Quiz
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Should you splash your eyes with a chemical, what should you do?
A) Call 911
Flushing must continue for a minimum of ________ to ensure that all the chemical that can
possibly be removed is in fact removed.
A) 5 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 10 minutes
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Module 59
Hazardous Mixtures
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Module Quiz
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The ___________ is a colorless, viscous fluid, is relatively insoluble in water, and can
withstand high temperatures without degradation.
A) acid mixture
B) hazardous mixture
C) PCB mixture
If _________ come in contact with poisons, such as cyanide or sulfide salts, the primary
concern is the possible toxic vapors that could be produced by the decomposition of the poison.
A) corrosives
B) physical wastes
C) solvents
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Module 60
Solvents
Halogen Solvents
Halogenated solvents are hydrocarbon solvents that
contain one or more halogen atoms (Cl, F, or Br)
attached to the hydrocarbon molecule. Halogenated
solvents, sometimes called safety solvents, have been
in wide use the last twenty years. They do not flash or
burn, they have few acute health hazards and their
cost has been reasonable.
Solvents (cont’d)
Solvent Hazards
The primary hazard of flammable liquid solvents is the physical
hazard of fire or explosion. Flammability refers to the ability of a
material to generate a high concentration of flammable vapors in
an unconfined area under normal circumstances.
Fire Triangle
- There must be an oxidizer to promote burning
- There must be fuel (something to burn)
- There must be an ignition source
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Solvents (cont’d)
Solvents (cont’d)
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Solvents (cont’d)
Solvents (cont’d)
Solvents (cont’d)
Health Effects
The secondary hazard of flammable solvents and the
primary hazard of other solvents are the health effects.
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Solvents (cont’d)
Solvents (cont’d)
1. DO read the container label and MSDS before you use the
chemical. There will not be time or it may be inconvenient to
read it during an accident.
2. DO keep the work area clean. Fewer spills happen in clean work
areas.
3. DO use protective clothing and equipment when operating
procedures call for them, when the MSDS recommends it, or
when over-exposures are detected or expected.
4. DO use only approved and labeled containers for storing and
transporting solvents.
5. DO make sure there is proper ventilation when using solvents.
6. DO keep flammable solvents away from heat and ignition
sources.
7. DO check that containers and hoses are in good working
condition.
8. DON'T leave containers open, when not in use.
9. DON'T siphon by mouth.
Solvents (cont’d)
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Solvents (cont’d)
Module Quiz
The primary hazard of flammable _________ is the physical hazard of fire or explosion.
A) acids
B) liquid solvents
C) bases
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Module 61
Oxidizers
Oxidizers (cont’d)
Inorganic Oxidizers
The inorganic compounds are primarily salts (ionic
bonded materials) that contain a certain amount of
oxygen (a few also contain chlorine) and some acids.
The basic inorganic oxidizer groups are oxygen,
fluorine, and chlorine.
Inorganic Peroxides
This group includes most of the alkali metal peroxides
(sodium, potassium, etc.) and is water reactive. When
they come in contact with water, they produce
sufficient heat to ignite nearby combustibles and
explosively rupture their containers, producing large
volumes of oxygen.
Certain Acids
This group includes concentrated "nitric," "chloric",
and many of the "per-" acids (perchloric). These
materials are also water reactive and may become
very unstable and explosive when heated.
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Oxidizers (cont’d)
Organic Peroxides
Organic peroxides are compounds that contain a
peroxide (O-O) functional group in their atomic
structure. Organic peroxides also contain an
organic (hydrocarbon) group. The hydrocarbon
group is the flammable component of the
molecule, while the peroxide group is the
oxidizing component. Thus, two sides of the fire
triangle are satisfied within an organic peroxide.
Oxidizers (cont’d)
Oxidizers (cont’d)
Hazards
The primary hazards associated with the oxidizing compounds
are similar to those of the oxidizing elements. They include the
intensification of combustion, spontaneous ignition, explosion,
and production of toxic fumes. Of these four hazards,
spontaneous ignition is a causative hazard (causing the
incident). Explosions, however, may be causative or they may be
subsequent, which means they follow the start of the incident.
Intensification of Combustion
The hazard most likely to be encountered in incidents involving
oxidizers is that the oxidizer intensifies combustion. The rate of
combustion increases as well as the heat of combustion. This is
because there is more fuel being oxidized than under normal
conditions. The oxygen produced by any of these oxidizing
compounds is greatly dependent on the amount of heat to which
it is exposed. The greater the heat exposure, the greater the
rate of oxygen production. This in turn leads to a greater rate of
combustion, and additional heat production.
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Oxidizers (cont’d)
Hazards (cont’d)
Spontaneous Ignition
In the presence of oxidizers, many standard rules relating
to combustion no longer apply. For instance, a material
that is normally difficult to ignite may flash into flame in an
oxidizer enriched atmosphere. In this situation, the
flammable range and flash points normally used to
measure the potential "flammability" of a flammable liquid
or material are greatly modified.
Oxidizers (cont’d)
Hazards (cont’d)
Explosion
We know what happens when oxygen is mixed with flammable materials such as
solvents or gasoline. There is a high potential for serious fire or explosion. As the
decomposition progresses, additional heat is generated, which further accelerates
the decomposition rate. The same is true for peroxides. Pure peroxides are often
explosive!
If they are so explosive, why are there so few injuries associated with them? The
answer is that the producers of organic peroxides generally select additives to
stabilize the peroxides during transport. Stabilization can be something as simple
as refrigeration, or the addition of the right amount of moisture, or the dilution of
the peroxide with an appropriate solvent. Peroxides are not only manufactured by
chemical companies but also are formed spontaneously in areas where solvent
vapors can react with air. As a result, peroxides often form along the threads of
solvent drums and the ground glass openings of laboratory bottles. The friction
caused by unscrewing the bung from a drum or the cap from a jar may explode
the container. Some peroxides will spontaneously explode if they warm up to
room temperature. Refrigeration should be taken seriously.
Oxidizers (cont’d)
Hazards (cont’d)
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Oxidizers (cont’d)
Oxidizers (cont’d)
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6
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Module Quiz
An ________ is, by chemical definition, "any material that will gain electrons during a chemical
reaction."
A) oxidizer
B) chemical
C) element
___________ not only mix oxides and flammable components but also readily decompose if
subjected to friction, heat, shock, or contamination.
A) Carbon
B) Organic peroxides
C) Gaseous bases
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Module 62
Some of the metals that are water reactive (e.g., lithium and
sodium) do not need fire conditions in order to react with
water or air. When they come in contact with water, they
replace the hydrogen in the water molecules. This also
releases hydrogen gas. The heat from the reactions between
water and these metals is enough to ignite the liberated
hydrogen and this also will produce a violent reaction. The
amount of violence produced by such reactions is dependent
on the amount of hydrogen that is given off by their reactions
and whether or not such reactions take place in a confined
space. Workers must be very cautious when such reactions
are taking place inside a container.
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Workers must also be aware that the water reactive metals which
have been discussed thus far are not the only materials that are
water reactive. Metals that are part of compounds containing
carbon (i.e., organometallic compounds) will produce flammable
gases when exposed to water.
Unstable Materials
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Explosives
Explosives (cont’d)
Explosives (cont’d)
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Module Quiz
_______ are chemical compounds or mixtures of various compounds that are capable of
undergoing rapid transformations with the simultaneous production of large quantities of heat
and gases.
A) Equalizers
B) Elements
C) Explosives
OSHA defines _______ as any substance that will spontaneously decompose, polymerize, or
self-react under conditions of shock, temperature, or pressure.
A) unstable
B) stable
C) volatile
D) hazardous
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6
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Module 63
Radiological Hazards
Introduction
Radiation hazards and monitoring is often the most neglected
and misunderstood type of monitoring on the hazardous waste
site. For this reason, waste site workers need to have an
understanding of radiation hazards and the different types of
radiation. This will allow the worker to decide the type of
protection necessary for the type of radiation hazard they
encounter.
Radiological Hazards
Unlike many of the other hazards present on a hazardous waste
site, detection of radiation is solely dependent on monitoring by
instrument. Although not commonly considered the primary
hazard on most waste sites, radioactive materials may be
present in drums, including lab packs (pre-packaged materials
that are being exposed of in a larger container), in either solid or
liquid form. Waste from hospitals and research facilities, in
particular, should be suspected of containing ionizing radiation.
In order to avoid exposure, it is important that workers realize
the precautions that must be taken when dealing with
radiological waste or sources.
Radiation Types
Radiation is classified as either ionizing or non-ionizing. Both are
energy waves (ionizing radiation can also exist as particles);
however, non-ionizing radiation contains less energy. The major
types of radiation emitted as a result of spontaneous decay are
alpha and beta particles, and gamma rays. X-rays, another
major type of radiation, arise from processes outside of the
nucleus.
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Alpha Radiation
Beta Radiation
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Gamma Radiation
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Dose Rates
Radiation Dosage
Chronic Dose
Chronic doses are small amounts of radiation
over a long period of time, such as our normal
daily exposures over our lifetimes. We know
that the body is able to tolerate a chronic dose
better than an acute dose.
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Dose Limits
Acute Dose
Module Quiz
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Which of the following forms of radiation will generally not penetrate intact skin, but can be a
serious hazard if ingested or inhaled?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Gamma
Chronic doses are ______ amounts of radiation over a long period of time, such as our normal
daily exposures over our lifetimes. We know that the body is able to tolerate a chronic dose
better than an acute dose.
A) Small
B) Large
C) Medium
D) Excessive
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Module 64
Radiation Exposure
Definitions:
• Ionizing Radiation (IR) - Any particles or
rays given off (radiate) from a source that
produces ionization
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The following table compares the estimated loss of life expectancy due to radiation as compared to other
health risks.
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This next table addresses the estimated days lost of life expectancy due to radiation exposure at
radiation-related facilities as compared to other industries.
Radioactive Contamination
Radioactive contamination can be in the form of
any of the three states of matter: solid, liquid, or
gas. Solid contamination is usually in the form of
very small particles such as dirt or dust. These
are most commonly found on the floor, ground,
and other surfaces. Liquids may be contaminated
with suspended or dissolved radioactive solids.
Radioactive gases produced in some processes
have the potential for leaking via ruptures or
failures in containment systems and storage
vessels. Radioactive contamination may be fixed
or transferable/smearable.
Fixed Contamination
Fixed is not easily transferred from one place to
another. It usually becomes fixed by physical or
chemical absorption or by entrapment in physical
irregularities of the surface material.
Transferable/Smearable Contamination
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Radiation Protection
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Time
Obviously, the less time spent exposed to a
radioactive source, the less exposure there is. Keep
in mind that exposures to radiation are additive in
their effect. Federal limits for radiation exposure are
expressed as the total dose received in a given unit
of time.
Distance
The farther away from the source, the smaller the
amount of exposure. Staying away from a radiation
source, even a number of feet, will greatly reduce
worker exposure.
Shielding
Shielding places protective materials between the
worker and the source; for example, walls, barriers,
or protective clothing. Recall that NO protective
clothing shields against gamma radiation.
Distance:
• Dose rate is inversely proportional to the
distance squared from the source.
• I1 = I2(D2/D1)2
• where: I1 = is the intensity at a distance D1,
and I2 = is the intensity at a distance D2
Sources of Exposure
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Sources of Exposure
Effects of Radiation
Module Quiz
6
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__________ is a term which describes how sensitive a given cell is to radiation damage.
A) Radioitis
B) Extrasensitivity
C) Radiosensitivity
_________ - Refers to the way particles & rays radiate from their source at speeds up to that
of light.
A) Ionization
B) Light Bursts
C) Radiation
D) Candle-Foot
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Module 65
Air Monitoring
Introduction
Waste site workers need to be familiar with the different
types of air monitoring they will be using on the work
site. They need to understand the advantages and
limitations of the equipment and how to interpret the
data they obtain. This information will be used to make
many important decisions concerning worker safety.
Sampling Methods
The atmosphere may be sampled in a potentially
contaminated work area to identify and quantify (i.e.,
measure) any gases, vapors, or particulates to which
workers may be exposed. Such information may be
obtained by two methods:
- Area sampling, which involves placing collection devices
within designated areas and operating them over specific
periods of time
- Personal sampling, which involves collecting samples
from within the breathing zone of an individual,
sometimes by the individual wearing a sampling device
Sampling Methods
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Sampling Methods
Air Monitoring
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Ease of Operation
Inherent Safety
Explosion-Proof
In an explosion-proof instrument, the ignition source is enclosed in
a rigidly built container. When the flammable atmosphere enters
the instrument during monitoring, both the arc and any small
explosion it generates are contained within the specially built
enclosure. Flames or hot gases in the enclosure are cooled before
they exit the instrument back into the ambient flammable
atmosphere. Thus, the explosion does not spread into the
environment.
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Intrinsically Safe
An intrinsically safe instrument reduces the
potential for arcing among components by encasing
the components in a solid insulating material. The
instrument's operational current and voltage may
also be reduced below the energy level necessary
for ignition of the flammable atmosphere. An
"intrinsically safe" device, as defined by the
National Electrical Code, is not capable of releasing
sufficient electrical or thermal energy under normal
or abnormal conditions to cause ignition of a
specific hazardous atmospheric mixture in its most
easily ignited concentration.
Purged
In a purged instrument, an inert gas buffers the arcing or flame-producing device from the flammable atmosphere. A
steady stream of nitrogen or helium, for example, is passed by the potential arcing device, keeping the flammable
atmosphere from the ignition source, This type of control, however, does not satisfactorily control analytical devices
that use flame or heat for analysis, such as a combustible gas indicator, (CGI). It also requires a source of gas, which
can reduce instrument portability.
Most portable instrumentation is designed as intrinsically safe as opposed to explosion-proof or purged. All certified
devices must be marked to show Class, Division, and Group. Certification means that a device is certified as explosion-
proof, intrinsically safe, or purged for a given Class, Division, and Group and that if the device is used, maintained, and
serviced according to the manufacturer's instructions, it will not contribute to ignition. A device is certified for use in a
particular atmosphere. To ensure personnel safety, it is recommended that only approved instruments be used on-site
and only in atmospheres for which they have been certified. When used to investigate incidents involving unknown
hazards, the monitoring instruments should be rated for use in the most hazardous locations. (Note: The mention of
"FM" or "UL" in the equipment manufacturer's literature does NOT guarantee certification.)
Response Time
Response time is the length of time the monitor takes from
when it "senses" a contaminant until it generates data. For
direct-reading instruments, response times may range from
a few seconds to several minutes. Short times, of course,
are preferred. The length of the response time depends on
the test(s) to be performed, dead time between sample
periods (the time for analysis, data generation, and data
display), and the sensitivity of the instrument. Response
time establishes the pace of an overall survey and its
individual tests.
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Sensitivity
Selectivity
Module Quiz
5
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_________ instruments utilize instantaneous or grab-type samples collected over brief periods
of time.
A) Indirect-reading
B) Direct-reading
D) Personal pumps
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Module 66
Calibration
Calibration (cont’d)
1
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Combustibility Monitoring
When one monitors with a CGI for a flammable gas, the read-out
actually relates to the device's calibration gas; generally, methane
is the gas to which CGIs are calibrated. Therefore, if a flammable
gas other than methane is detected by the CGI, then the reading
might be somewhat inaccurate for that other gas. For example, if
the gas being detected is known to be xylene, the meter might
show 32 percent of LEL, yet the actual xylene concentration could
be at 100 percent LEL, which is a significant and dangerous
difference.
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Considerations
Detector tubes have the disadvantage of poor accuracy and
precision. Manufacturers report error factors of up to 50% for
some tubes. An advantage that detector tubes have over some
other toxic instruments is that it is possible to select a tube that is
specific to a chemical. However, some tubes will respond to
interfering compounds. Fortunately, the manufacturers provide
information with the tubes on interfering gases and vapors.
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Module Quiz
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For an instrument to function properly in the field, it should be __________ prior to use.
A) in equilibrium
B) calibrated
C) reviewed
D) Oxygen Meter
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Module 67
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Considerations
Dust in the atmosphere can collect on the lamp and block the
transmission of UV light, causing a reduction in instrument
reading. This problem will be detected during calibration and the Bacteria glow from UV light
lamp should be cleaned on a regular basis. Humidity can cause
two problems. When a cold instrument is taken into a warm
moist atmosphere, the moisture can condense on the lamp. Like
dust this will reduce the available light.
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Moisture on window
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Considerations
Flame ionization detectors respond only to organic
compounds. Thus, they do not detect inorganic
compounds like chlorine, hydrogen cyanide, or ammonia.
As with all instruments, flame ionization detectors
respond differently to different compounds. Since most
instruments are factory calibrated to methane, all
responses are relative to methane. Thus with all survey-
type instruments, the identity of the chemical of interest
must be ascertained before its concentration can be
determined. Carbon as listed in Periodic Table of Elements
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Aerosol Monitors
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Module Quiz
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Module 68
Personal Monitors
Sampling Systems
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Active Samplers
General Considerations
Active sampling systems mechanically collect samples on or
into a selected medium (i.e., filtering or collection substance).
The medium is then analyzed in the laboratory to identify and
quantify the contaminant(s) collected. Such a system typically
consists of the following components:
• An electrically powered pump to move the contaminated air.
Such a pump should contain a flow regulator to control the
rate of movement and a flow monitor to indicate that flow.
• A sampler consisting of an appropriate sampling medium and
a container designed for that medium. The sampler used
depends largely upon the contaminant(s) to be sampled and
the selected sample method.
• Flexible, nonporous, inert tubing to link the sampler to the
pump
Sampling Pumps
Active sampling systems typically rely on
electrically powered pumps to mechanically produce
air movement. The most practical electrical
sampling pumps are powered by rechargeable
batteries and can operate continuously at constant
flow rates for at least eight hours. Generally, they
are compact, portable, and quiet enough to be worn
by individuals when monitoring personal exposures.
Calibration
Atmospheric sampling systems must be accurately calibrated
(i.e., adjusted) to a specific flow rate. Calibration ensures that
the measurement data can be correctly interpreted. For
example, it is important to calibrate the flow rate of an
electrically powered pump. This ensures that a constant flow
rate, which often is specified in standard analytical methods
(such as EPA-specified analytical methods), may be achieved.
Passive sampling systems, however, because of their
simplicity of design and operation, require no formal
calibration.
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Passive Samplers
The few passive samplers now available apply to gas and vapor
contaminants only. These devices primarily function as
personal exposure monitors, although they have some
usefulness in area monitoring.
Radiation Dosimeters
Thermoluminescent Dosimeter
The TLD (Thermoluminescent Dosimeter) badges provide a
permanent record of an individual's dose equivalent of beta,
gamma, and x-ray radiation. The Albedo TLD is a neutron
dose detection device worn when working in or around a
neutron radiation field. Such dosimeters must be sent to a
laboratory for analysis.
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Direct-Reading Dosimeters
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Module Quiz
A) Personal monitoring
B) Ambient monitoring
C) Area monitoring
Passive samplers are commonly divided into two groups. What are they?
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Module 69
Measuring Particles
• Weight in milligrams - mg
• Volume in cubic meters m3
• mg/m3 = milligrams per cubic meter
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OSHA PEL’s
Kinds of PEL’s
TWA Example
14
12
TWA Napthalene
Exposure in PPM
10
0
8:00 9:00 10:00 11:00 12:00 1:00 2:00 3:00 4:00
AM AM AM AM PM PM PM PM PM
Time
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Ceiling PEL
STEL
Compute TWA
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Module Quiz
mg/m3 = ?
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Module 70
Site Monitoring
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Perimeter Monitoring
Periodic Monitoring
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Module Quiz
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A) increases
B) decreases
C) influences
D) does nothing
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Module 72
Soil Sampling
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Auger
If the soil is not hard and rocky, an auger may be used
to bore a hole to a desired sampling depth. If
satisfactory, a sample can be collected directly from
the auger. If a core sample is needed, the auger tip is
replaced with a thin-wall tube sampler. The device is
then carefully lowered down the borehole and driven
into the soil. Once it is withdrawn, the core sample can
be collected. Several types of augers are available.
Bucket Augers
Bucket augers are better for direct sample recovery
since they provide a large volume of sample in a short
time.
Trier
Shallow soil samples can be taken using a trier. The
trier must be inserted at an angle to minimize sample
spillage. The trier is rotated once or twice to cut a core
of undisturbed soil. It is then slowly withdrawn with the
slot facing upward.
Backhoe
When a detailed examination of soil
characteristics is required, it may be necessary
to excavate a test pit or trench using a backhoe.
However, because of the relatively high cost of
the backhoe operation, this is the least cost
effective sampling method.
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Groundwater Sampling
Purging
It is important to realize that the water standing in a well, and
immediately surrounding a well, does not generally represent the
groundwater to be sampled. Therefore, the well must be purged
(i.e., removal of standing water) before sampling by pumping or
bailing. The purged water should be containerized and stored until
samples are analyzed. If the samples indicate that the purged water
is contaminated, the site-specific project plan should specify the
method of handling or disposal.
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Submersible Pumps
Submersible pumps are portable and have relatively high
pumping rates. However, they are heavy, awkward,
expensive, and difficult to decontaminate in the field.
Peristaltic Pumps
Peristaltic pumps are limited in their lifting capacity;
however, they have an advantage in that the same system
can be used not only for purging but also for sample
collection.
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Bailers
Bailers are useful when samples must
be taken from depths beyond a
pump's lifting capacity and when
volatile component stripping is a
concern. A bailer allows samples to be
recovered with a minimum of aeration
(i.e., mixing with air). This is
accomplished by slowly lowering the
bailer until it contacts the water and
then by allowing the bailer to sink as it
fills.
Module Quiz
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______ are useful when samples must be taken from depths beyond a pump's lifting capacity
and when volatile component stripping is a concern.
A) Lifts
B) Bailers
C) Railers
D) Drills
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Module 73
Container Sampling
Opening
Drums are usually opened and sampled in
place during site investigations. However,
remedial and emergency operations may
require a separate drum opening area.
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Remote-controlled Opening
Use the following remote-controlled
devices for opening drums:
I. Pneumatically operated impact wrench to
remove bungs
II. Hydraulically or pneumatically operated
drum piercers
III. Backhoes equipped with bronze spikes for
penetrating drum tops in large-scale
operations
Drum Opening
a) Do not use picks, chisels and firearms to open
drums
b) Hang or balance the drum opening equipment to
minimize worker exertion
c) If the drum shows signs of swelling or bulging,
perform all steps slowly. Relieve excess pressure
before opening and, if possible, from a remote
location using such devices as a pneumatic impact
wrench or hydraulic penetration device. If pressure
must be relieved manually, place a barrier such as
explosion-resistant plastic sheeting between the
worker and bung to deflect any gas, liquid, or solids
which may be expelled as the bung is loosened.
d) Open exotic metal drums and polyethylene or
polyvinyl chloride-lined (PVC-lined) drums through
the bung by removal or drilling. Exercise extreme
caution when manipulating these containers.
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Module Quiz
Do not ______ other drums to reach the drum being sampled, unless absolutely necessary.
A) sample
B) reach over
C) lean over
Protect personnel by keeping them at a ________ from the drums being opened.
A) safe distance
B) near distance
C) close distance
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Module 74
Site Emergencies
Worker-Related
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Waste-Related
• Fire
• Explosion
• Leak
• Release of toxic vapors
• Reaction of incompatible chemicals
• Collapse of containers
• Discovery of radioactive material
Waste-Related (cont’d)
Planning
Personnel: Site:
- Mapping
- Roles
- Security and control
- Lines of authority - Refuges
- Training - Evacuation routes
- Communication - Decontamination stations
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Planning (cont’d)
• Medical/first aid
• Equipment
• Emergency procedures
• Documentation
• Reporting
Personnel
Leader
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Rescue Team
• An emergency rescue team stands by, partially dressed
in protective gear, near the Exclusion Zone ready to
rescue any workers whose health or safety is
endangered.
• State emergency response personnel (varies among
states).
Communication Personnel
• Local emergency service networks provide
communication links for mutual aid.
• Civil Defense organizations and local radio and
television stations provide information to the public
during an emergency.
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Environmental Scientists
Firefighters
• Respond to fires that occur at a site; rescue victims.
Meteorologists
• Provide meteorological information needed by environmental scientists.
Teams
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Offsite Personnel
Module Quiz
A _________ is a written document that sets forth policies and procedures for responding to
site emergencies.
A) Rescue Plan
B) Contingency Plan
C) Do Plan
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A) Decontamination Experts
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Module 75
Communications
Internal Communications
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External Communications
Site Mapping
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Safe Distances
Public Evacuation
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Module Quiz
__________ systems and procedures should be clear and accessible to all workers.
A) Decontamination Experts
B) Procedures
C) External communication
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Module 76
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Decontamination
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Decontamination (cont’d)
Equipment
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Module Quiz
A) decontamination experts
C) all visitors
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Module 77
• What happened
• Where it happened
• Whom it happened to
• When it happened
• How it happened
• The extent of damage
• What aid is needed
Notification
Alert personnel to the emergency. Sound a site alarm to:
• Notify personnel
• Stop work activities if necessary
• Lower background noise in order to speed communication
• Begin emergency procedures
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Size-Up
· What happened:
- Type of incident
- Cause of incident
- Extent of chemical release and transport
- Extent of damage to structures, equipment, and
terrain
Size-Up (cont’d)
· Casualties:
Size-Up (cont’d)
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Size-Up (cont’d)
· Rescue/Response Action
Rescue/Response Action
· Survey casualties:
- Locate all victims and assess their condition.
- Determine resources needed for stabilization and
transport.
Determine:
- Whether and how to respond.
- The need for evacuation of site personnel and offsite
population.
- The resources needed for evacuation and response.
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Follow-Up
Follow-Up (cont’d)
Documentation
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Documentation (cont’d)
Module Quiz
Take measures to ______________ of the transport vehicle and ambulance and hospital
personnel.
C) undress people
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Module 78
Compressed Gases
Introduction
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Identification
Identification (cont’d)
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Identification (cont’d)
Module Quiz
A) label
B) color
C) weight
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A gas that is nonflammable but can support and vigorously accelerate combustion in the
presence of an ignition source and fuel is a _________.
A) Oxidizer Gas
B) Toxic Gas
C) Reactive Gas
D) Compressed Gas
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Module 79
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Module Quiz
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A) up
B) closed
C) accessible
D) inaccessible
A) at any pace
B) slowly
C) quickly
D) all of the above
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Module 80
Cylinder Leaks
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Module Quiz
If a cylinder is leaking, and if the cylinder contains a flammable, inert, or oxidizing gas,
_______ it to an isolated area, away from possible ______________.
A) remove it to an isolated area, away from possible visibility
B) remove it to an isolated area, away from possible ignition sources
remove it to an isolated area, away from possible OSHA
C)
inspection
D) none of the above
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A) rare
B) common
C) loud
D) none of the above
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Module 81
Transportation of Cylinders
Storage of Cylinders
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Empty Cylinders
Storage of Cylinders
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Segregation of Cylinders
Flammables
• Methane, Propane, Hydrogen
Reactive
• Acetylene, Vinyl Chloride, Tetrafluoroethylene
Oxidizers
• Hydrazine, Hydrogen
Corrosives
• Ammonia, Methylamine, Chlorine
Module Quiz
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To protect the valve during transportation, the______ should be screwed on hand tight and
remain on until the cylinder is in place and ready for use.
A) cover cap
B) end
C) bottom of cylinder
D) top of cylinder
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