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DBMS
Q.2 what are the potential problems when a DBMS executes multiple transactions
concurrently?
The lost update problem
The dirty read problem
The unrepeatable read problem
The phantom problem
(a)3 and 4 only
(b)1,2 and 4 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)All of 1,2,3 and 4
Q.4 which of the following desired features are beyond the capability of relational
algebra?
(a) Aggregate computation
(b) Multiplication
(c) Finding transitive closure
(d) All of the above
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Q.5 Redundancy is dangerous as it is a potential threat to data
(a) Integrity
(b) Consistency
(c) Sufficiency
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Q.6 The employee salary should not be greater than Rs. 2000.This is
(a) Integrity constraint
(b) Referential constraint
(c) Over-defined constraint
(d) Feasible constraint
Q.7 Manager’s salary details are hidden from the employee. This is
(a) Conceptual level data hiding
(b) Physical level data hiding
(c) External level data hiding
(d) None of the above
Q.8 A trigger is
(a) A statement that enables to start any DBMS
(b) A statement that is executed by the user when debugging an application
program
(c) A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user
(d) A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of
a modification to the database
Q.10 The database environment has all of the following components except
(a) Users
(b) Separate files
(c) Database
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(d) Database administration
Q.11 The way a particular application views the data from the database that the
application uses is a
(a) Module
(b) Relational
(c) Schema
(d) Subschema
Q.14 which of the following best describes the internal level of the ANSI/SPARC
three level architecture?
(a)The internal level is concerned with the layout of records and their locations
within disk blocks.
(b) The internal level is concerned with the data as seen by individuals internal to
the enterprise.
(c) The internal level is concerned with the users view of the data.
(d) The internal level provides a conceptual view of the data structure.
Q.15 Select the correct statement from the following on referential integrity.
(a) Referential integrity constraints check whether the primary key values are
unique.
(b) Referential integrity constraints are specified between two relations in a
schema.
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(c) Referential integrity constraints check whether an attribute value lies in the
given range.
(d) Referential integrity constraints are specified between entities having
recursive relationships.
Q.17 Which of the following operations is not part of the five basic set operations
in relational algebra?
(a) Union
(b) Division
(c) Cartesian Product
(d) Set Difference
Q.19 If a system can enforce referential integrity, then this ensures that
(a) A record can never contain a null value for a foreign key attribute.
(b) A non-null foreign key attribute always refers to another record
(c) A foreign key attributes in a record always refers to another record which
contains nulls
(d) A foreign key attribute in a record always refers to another record which does
not contain nulls
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Q.20 3NF is preferred than BCNF because
(a) We normally choose to retain dependency preservation
(b) A high penalty in system performance is to be paid or risk the integrity of the
data in our database.
(c) There isn’t any problem of repletion of information
(d) Given statement is wrong.
(1) Only 4 is true
(2) Only 2 and 3 are true
(3) Only 1 and 2 are true
(4) Only 3 is true
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Q.25 Locking was introduced into database so that
(a) Keys can be provided to maintain security.
(b) All simultaneous transactions are prevented.
(c) Passwords can be provided to maintain security.
(d) Consistency can be enforced.
Q.26 Which level of locking provides the highest degree of concurrency flight in a
relational database?
(a) Page
(b) Table
(c) Row
(d) Page, table, and roe level locking allow the same degree of concurrency
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Q.31 A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates
(a) Parent child relationship between the tables that connect them
(b) Many to-many relationship between the tables that connect them
(c) Network model between the tables that connect them
(d) None of the above
Q.33 A given relation is known to be in third normal form. Select the statement
which can be inferred from this.
(a) All attributes contribute to the primary key
(b) Each non key attribute determine the primary key
(c) Each non-key attribute is determine by the primary key
(d) Every determinant is a candidate key
Q.34 Display all the information for everyone in the EMPLOYEE who is a clerk.
(a) SELECT*FROM employee
(b) SELECT*FROM employee. WHERE title =’-‘;
(c) SELECT*FROM employee WHERE title =’clerk’;
(d) None of the above
Q.36 When n transactions are run concurrently and in an interleaved manner, the
number of possible schedules are__________
(a)Much larger than n!
(b) Much lower than n!
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(c) Much larger than (n-1)!
(d) Much lower than (n-1)!
Q.37 Which allocation scheme would work best for a file system implemented on
a device that can only be accessed sequentially, a tape drive, for instance?
(a) Contiguous allocation
(b) Non contiguous allocation
(c) Indexed allocation
(d) None of the above
Q.38 Which of the following is correct?
(a) B trees are for storing data on disk and B+ trees are for main memory.
(b) Range queries are faster on B+ trees.
(c) B trees are for primary indexes and B+ trees are for secondary indexes.
(d) The height of B+ tree is independent of the number of records.
Q.39 A B tree used as an index for a large database table has four levels including
the root node. If a new key is inserted in this index, then the maximum number of
nodes that could be newly created in the process are
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Q.40 With respect to the B+ tree index method, select the true statements
(a) Records are physically stored in primary key order.
(b) B+ trees use a hashing algorithm.
(c) The index tree may become unbalanced as a result of updates.
(d) None of the above
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OPERATING SYSTEM
Q.1 Page fault occurs when
(a) The page is corrupted by application software
(b) The page is in main memory
(c) The page is not in main memory
(d) The tries to divide a number by 0
Q.2 Overlay is
(a) A part of an operating system
(b) A specific memory location
(c) A single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large
programs by swapping
(d) Overloading the system with many users files
Q.4 The page replacement policy that’s some time leads to more page faults when
the size of memory is increased is
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) No such policy exists
(d) None of the above
Q.5 Fragmentation is
(a) Dividing the secondary memory into equal size fragments
(b) Dividing the main memory into equal size fragments
(c) Fragments of the memory words used in a page
(d) Fragments of the memory words unused in a page
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Q.6 Critical region is
(a) A part of the operating system which is not allowed to be accessed by ay
process
(b) A set of instructions that access common shared resource which exclude one
another in time
(c) The portion of the main memory which can be accessed only by one process at
a time
(d) None of these
Q.7 Kernel is
(a) Considered as the critical part of the operating system
(b) The software which monitors the operating system
(c) The set of primitive functions upon which the rest of operating system
functions are built up
(d) None of the above
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(c) Among processes donot use the same resource
(d) None of the above
Q.13 The first- fit, best- fit and the worst –fit algorithm can be used for
(a) Contiguous allocation of memory
(b) Linked allocation of memory
(c) Indexed allocation of memory
(d) all of the above
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(b) Each segment is spread over a number of pages
(c) Segment tables point to page tables and not to the physical location of the
segment
(d) The processor’s description base registers points to a page table
Q.17 Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from belady‘s
anomaly?
(a) Shortest job first
(b) Round robin
(c) first-come first-serve
(d) Elevator
Q.18 Thrashing
(a) Reduces page I/O
(b) Decreases the degree of multiprogramming
(c) Implies excessive page I/O
(d) Improves the system performance
Q.21 When more than one processes are running concurrently on a system
(a) Batched system
(b) Real-time system
(c) Multi programming system
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(d) Multi processing system
Q.25 Process control block (PCB) of all running process reside in which of the
following
(a) RAM
(b) Hard disk
(c) Cache
(d) None of these
Q.26 If a system contain CPU bound processes then which of the following
scheduling algorithm produces maximum efficiency of the CPU
(a) FIFO
(b) Round robin
(c) SJF
(d) Priority
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Q.27 The time interval between the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion of a process is known as which of the following?
(a) Waiting time
(b) Response time
(c) Turn around time
(d) None of these
Q.29 Which of the following is NOT true of deadlock prevention and deadlock
avoidance schemes?
(a) In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if the
resulting state is safe
(b) In deadlock avoidance, the request for resources is always granted if the
resulting state is safe
(c) Deadlock avoidance is less restrictive than deadlock prevention
(d) Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of resource requirements a priori
Q.31 The data block of a very large file in the Unix file system are allocated using
(a) Contiguous allocation
(b) Linked allocation
(c) Indexed allocation
(d) An extension of indexed allocation
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Q.32 Consider an address of 16 bit, with 4 bit as segment number, then maximum
possible segment size is…..
(a) 16
(b) 65536
(c) 4096
(d) 12
Q33 The cylinder skew problem is concern with which of the following
(a) Semaphore
(b) Thrashing
(c) Interleaving
(d) Deadlock
Q.34 The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is
(a) Block
(b) Dispatch
(c) Wakeup
(d) None of the above
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(d) None of the above
Q.38 In Round Robin CPU scheduling, as the time quantum is increased, the
average turnaround time
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Varies irregularly
Q.39 The size of the virtual memory depends on the size of the
(a) Data base
(b) Main memory
(c) Address bus
(d) None of these
Q.40 In which of the following directory systems, is it possible to have multiple
complete paths for a files, starting from the root directory?
(a) Single level directory
(b) Two level directory
(c) Three structured directory
(d) Acyclic graph directory
Q.41 Which of the following is the most suitable scheduling scheme in a real- time
operating system
(a) Round – robin
(b) First – come – first- served
(c) Pre-emptive scheduling
(d) Random scheduling
Q.42 “Aging” is
(a) Keeping track of cache contents
(b) Keeping track of what pages are currently residing in the memory
(c) Keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
(d) Increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
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Q.43 Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting
time?
(a) FCFS
(b) SJF
(c) Round- Robin
(d) Priority
Q.44 A memory page containing a heavily used variable that was initialized very
early and is in constant use is removed, when the page replacement algorithm
used is
(a) LRU
(b) FIFO
(c) LFU
(d) None of these
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(d) Allows processes which are permanently assigned to a queue on the entry to
the system
Q.48 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running
process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
(a) The instruction set architecture
(b) Page size
(c) Physical memory size
(d) Number of process in memory
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Q.53 Where does the swap space residable?
(a) RAM
(b) Disk
(c) ROM
(d) On-chip cache
Q.55 The linker is given object modules for a set of programs that were compiled
separately. What information need not be include in an object modules?
(a) Object code
(b) Relocation bits
(c) Name and location of all external symbols defined in the object module
(d) Absolute addresses of internal symbols
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COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Q.1 Spatial locality refers to the problem that once a location is referenced
(a) It will not be referenced again
(b) It will be referenced again
(c) A nearby location will be referenced soon
(d) None of the above
Q.3 In a 16-bit instruction code format 3 bit operation code , 12 bit address and 1
bit is assigned for address mode designation. For indirect addressing, the mode bit
is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Pointer
(d) Off-set
Q.5 During DMA transfer, DMA controller takes over buses to manage the transfer
(a) Directly from CPU to memory
(b) Directly from memory to CPU
(c) Indirectly between the I/O device and memory
(d) Directly between the I/O device and memory
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Q.6 Booth’s algorithm is used in floating-point
(a) Addition
(b) Subtraction
(c) Multiplication
(d) Division
Q.9 Which of the following lists memory types from highest to lowest access
speed?
(a) Secondary storage, main memory, cache, registers
(b) Registers, cache, secondary storage, main memory
(c) Registers ,cache, main memory, secondary storage
(d) Cache, registers, main memory, secondary storage
Q.10 To prevent signal from colliding on the bus, ------------ prioritize access to
memory by I/O channels and processors.
(a) A register
(b) Interrupts
(c) The processor scheduler
(d) A controller
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(c) Buffers
(d) Registers
Q.12 According to temporal locality, processes are likely to reference pages that----
--
(a) Have been referenced recently
(b) Are located at address near recently referenced pages in memory
(c) Have been preloaded into memory
(d) None of the above
Q.13 In caching system, the memory reference made in any short time interval
tend to use only a small fraction of the total memory is called---
(a) Checker boarding
(b) Locality principle
(c) Memory interleaving
(d) None of the above
Q.14 The register which holds the address of the location to or from which data
are to be transferred is known as
(a) Index register
(b) Instruction registers
(c) Memory address register
(d) Memory data register
Q.15 Which one is required while establishing the communication link between
CPU and peripherals?
(a) Synchronization mechanism
(b) Conversion of signal values
(c) Operating modes
(d) All of the above
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(d) All of the above
Q.17 The minimum time delay between the initiations of two independent
memory operations is called
(a) Access time
(b) Cycle time
(c) Transfer rate
(d) Latency time
Q.20 Hardwired control units are faster than Micro-programmed control unit
because
(a) They do not consist of slower memory elements
(b) They do not have slower elements such as Gates and flip-flops
(c) They are made using faster VLSI design technology
(d) They contain high speed digital components
Q.21 The register which contain the data to be written into or read out of the
addressed location is known as
(a) Memory address register
(b) Memory data register
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(c) Program computer
(d) Index register
Q.22 In which addressing mode, the effective address of the operand is generated
by adding a constant value of the contents of a register?
(a) Absolute mode
(b) Indirect mode
(c) Immediate mode
(d) Index mode
Q.23 A CPU have 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address 300 (in decimal).
Which one of the following is a legal program counter (all values is decimal)?
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 600
(d) 700
Q.24 A processor that communicates with remote terminals over telephone and
other communication media in a serial fashion is called—
(a) I/O processor
(b) DMA controller
(c) Data communication processor
(d) USART
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Q.27 An interrupt that can be temporarily ignored by the counter is known as
(a) Vectored interrupt
(b) Non- maskable interrupt
(c) Maskable interrupt
(d) Low priority interrupt
Q.29 The process of fetching and executing instruction one at a time, in the order
of increasing addresses is known as
(a) Instruction execution
(b) Straight line screening
(c) Instruction fetch
(d) Random screening
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Q.33 Given below are some statements associated with the registers of a CPU.
Identify the false statements.
(a) The program counter holds the memory address of the instruction in
execution.
(b) Only opcode is transferred to the control units.
(c) An instruction in the instruction register consists of the opcode and the
operand.
(d) The value of the program counter is incremented by 1 once its value has been
read to the memory address register.
Q.34 Given below are some statements associated with cache memory. Identify
the correct statements.
(a) The level 1 cache is always faster than level 2 cache.
(b) The level 2 cache is used to mitigate the dynamic slowdown every time a level
1 cache miss occurs.
(c) Level 2 cache comes as on board only.
(d) In modern day computers, the level 2 cache is considered an internal cache.
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(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q.38 Which of the following holds data and processing instructions temporarily
until the CPU needs it?
(a) ROM
(b) Control unit
(c) Main memory
(d) Coprocessor chips
Q.41 In Flynn’s classification of computers, the vector and arry classes of machines
belong to
(a) Single instruction/ single data category
(b) Single instruction / multiple data category
(c) Multiple instruction / single data category
(d) Multiple instructions / multiple data category
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Q.42 The following are four statements regarding what a CPU with only a set of 32
bit registers can perform.
(1) Hold and operate on32 bit integers
(2) Hold and operate on 16 bit integers
(3) Hold and operate on 64 bit floating point arithmetic
(4) hold and operate on 16 bit UNICODE characters
Which of the following is true about such a CPU?
(a) All are true
(b)1,2 and 3 only
(c)1,2 and 4 only
(d)1,3 and 4 only
Q.43 Given below are some statements associated with computer memory.
Identify the correct statement.
(a) Dynamic random access memory is faster than static random access
memory.
(b) Main memory is used by the processor to store primary active programs and
data.
(c) The cache memory is of dynamic random access memory.
(d) The production cost of dynamic random access memory is higher than that of
static random access memory.
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Q.46 For interval arithmetic best rounding technique use is_______
(a) Rounding to plus and minus infinity
(b) Rounding to Zero
(c) Rounding to nearest
(d) None of these
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COMPUTER NETWORK
Q.1 Auto dialing allow
(a) You to dial a phone numbers by typing them on the keyboard
(b) A personal computer to answer incoming calls without human assistance
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Q.4 Contention is
(a) One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related
group of devices
(b) A continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a
second signal
(c) The condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at
the same time
(d) A collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data
communications service among stations attached to the network
Q.5 What is the default maximum packet size for 16 MB Token Ring Network?
(a) 576 bytes
(b) 1101 bytes
(c) 2202 bytes
(d) 4202 bytes
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Q.6 Which of the following has the smallest default maximum Physical Receive
Packet size?
(a) ARC net
(b) Ethernet
(c) Token Ring [4 Mbps]
(d) Token Ring [16 Mbps]
Q.9 How many digits of the network user Address are known as the DNIC (Data
Network Identification Code)?
(a) First three
(b) First four
(c) First five
(d) First seven
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Q.11 Non-polling system is
(a) TDMA
(b) Stop and wait
(c) Continuous ARQ
(d) None of these
Q.12 BSC is a
(a) Character-oriented protocol
(b) Bit-oriented protocol
(c) Full-duplex protocol
(d) None of these
Q.14 What is the maximum size of data that the application layer can pass on the
TCP layer below?
(a) Any size
(b) 116 byte
(c) 216 byte
(d) 1500 byte
Q.15 Packets of the same session may be round through different paths in
(a) TCP, but not UDP
(b) TCP and UDP
(c) UDP, but not TCP
(d) Neither TCP nor UDP
Q.16 The maximum window size for data transmission using selective reject
protocol with n bit frame sequence number is
(a) 2n
(b) 2n-1
(c) 2n-1
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(d) 2n-2
Q.18 Brouter-
(a) Is a type of bridge
(b) Works at all the layers of OSI model
(c) Is able to bridge those protocols that ate not routable
(d) None of the above
Q.19 Pick the system that can be used in both priority and non-priority modes.
(a) TDM
(b) Register insertion
(c) Carrier sense system
(d) Token passing
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 3 and 4
(3) 1 and 3
(4) None of these
Q.20 The parameter which gives the probability of the transport layer itself
spontaneously terminating a connection due to internal problems is called
(a) Protection
(b) Resilience
(c) Option negollation
(d) Transfer failure
Q.21 To prevent silly window syndrome created by a sender that is sending data at
a very slow rate________ can be used.
(a) Clark’s solution
(b) Nagle’s algorithm
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(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Delayed acknowledgement
Q.24 A subnet mask in class A can have __________ 1’s with remaining bits 0’s.
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 33
(d) 3
Q.26 If N is the maximum sequence number, then the window sizes in selective
reject and Go- Back-N protocols are respectively-
(a) n/2,n-1
(b) n,n+1
(c) (n+1)/2,n
(d)n-1,n+1
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Q.27 In a Go-back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence
numbers?
(a) 0 to 63
(b) 0 to 64
(c) 1 to 63
(d) 1 to 64
Q.28 For stop and wait ARQ, for n data packets sent, ___________
acknowledgments are needed.
(a) n
(b) 2n
(c) n-1
(d) n+1
Q.30 Which of the following indicates the increasing order of accuracy in error
detection?
(a) CRC, single Parity, Block Sum Check
(b) Block sum check, CRC, Single Parity
(c) Single parity, Block sum Check, CRC
(d) CRC, Block Sum Check, Single Parity
Q.31 Which error detection method consists of a parity bit for each data unit as
well as an entire data unit of parity bits?
(a) Simply parity check
(b) Two –dimensional parity check
(c) CRC
(d) Checksum
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SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Q.1 An independently deliverable piece of functionality providing access to its
services through interfaces is called
(a) Software measurement
(b) Software composition
(c) Software measure
(d) Software component
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(c) Interative enhancement model
(d) Any of the above
Q.7 If project is the enhancement of existing system, which model is best suited?
(a) Waterfall model
(b) Prototyping model
(c) Interative enhancement model
(d) Spiral model
Q.8 Most suitable model for new technology that is not well understood is
(a) Waterfall model
(b) RAD model
(c) Interative enhancement model
(d) Evolutionary development model
Q.9 Statistically, the maximum percentage of errors belong to the following phase
of SDLC
(a) Coding
(b) Design
(c) Specifications
(d) Installation and maintenance
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Q.12 Function point analysis (FPA) method decomposes the system into functional
units. The total number of functional units is
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1
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Q.18 Functional cohesion means
(a) Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in same
procedures
(b) Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in multiple
procedures
(c) Operations are part of multiple tasks
(d) None of the above
Q.19 The module in which instructions are related through flow of control is
(a) Temporal cohesion
(b) Logical cohesion
(c) Procedural cohesion
(d) Functional cohesion
Q.20 A system that does not interact with external environment is called
(a) Closed system
(b) Logical system
(c) Open system
(d) Hierarchal system
Q.21 Which one is not a phase of “bath tub curve” of hardware reliability
(a) Burn-in
(b) Useful life
(c) Wear-out
(d) Test-out
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(d) Comprehensive maintenance model
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(d) None of the above
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Q.35 The process by which existing processes and methods are replaced by new
techniques is
(a) Reverse engineering
(b) Business process re-engineering
(c) Software configuration management
(d) Technical feasibility
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Oracle MCQ:
1)In the DISPATCHERS Initialization Parameter Attributes which specify the service
names the dispatchers register with the listeners?
A) LISTENER
B) SERVICE
C) CONNECTIONS
D) MULTIPLEX
3)In Monitoring Shared Server which contains information for tuning shared
server?
A) V$SHARED_SERVER
B) V$CIRCUIT
C) V$SHARED_SERVER_MONITOR
D) V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED
4)To create a cluster index, one of the following conditions must be true?
A) Your schema contains the cluster
B) You have the CREATE ANY INDEX system privilege
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
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6)For even better resource management, shared server can be configured for
which that lets a dispatcher support more users by enabling the database server to
time-out protocol connections and to use those connections to service an active
session?
A) Connection pooling
B) Session multiplexing
C) Session
D) None of the above
7)In Displaying Control File Information which view lists the names of control files?
A) V$DATABASE
B) V$PARAMETER
C) V$CONTROLFILE
D) V$CONTROLFILE_RECORD_SECTION
8)To create an index in your own schema, give the following conditions which is
true?
A) The table or cluster to be indexed is in another schema
B) You don’t have INDEX privilege on the table to be indexed
C) You have CREATE ANY INDEX system privilege
D) None of the above
9)A transportable tablespace set consists of datafiles for the set of tablespaces
being transported and an export file containing structural information (metadata)
for the set of tablespaces we use?
A) Data Pump
B) EXP
C) IMP
D) Both A & B
10)Window groups provide an easy way to schedule jobs that must run during
multiple time periods throughout the day, week, and so on. In which schema does
this window group reside?
A) system
B) sysdba
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C) sys
D) both B and C
12)Every Oracle Database has a control file, which is a small binary file that records
the physical structure of the database; the control file does not include?
A) The database name
B) Names and locations of associated data files and redo log files
C) The timestamp of the database creation
D) The current log sequence number
E) None of the above
13)You can drop HASH cluster using which command from the following?
A) DROP CLUSTER
B) DROP HASH CLUSTER
C) DROP_CLUSTER_HASH
D) DROP ANY CLUSTER
14)Select the correct privilege which is required for manually committing an in-
doubt transaction.
A) System privilege
B) Force any transaction
C) Both a & b
D) None of the above
15)The job of the commit point site is to initiate a commit or roll back operation as
instructed by _____________
A) Global coordinator
B) Local coordinator
C) Database servers
D) Commit point site
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16)Which view shows all chains?
A) *_scheduler_chains
B) *_scheduler_chain_rules
C)*_scheduler_chain_steps
D) None of the above
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21)In a sorted hash cluster, the rows corresponding to each value of the hash
function are sorted on a specified set of columns in which order and that can
improve response time during subsequent operations on the clustered data?
A) Descending order
B) Ascending Order
C) Equal
D) None of the above
22)For maximum distribution of rows in a hash cluster, the database rounds the
HASHKEYS value up to the nearest?
A) Prime Number
B) ODD Number
C) Null
D) None of the above
23)In the scheduler event queue which attribute is currently not implemented?
A) run_count
B) failure_count
C) retry_count
D) spare1-spare8
25)In Schema Objects Data Dictionary Views which view List the name, type, and
owner (USER view does not display owner) for all tables, views, synonyms, and
sequences in the database?
A) DBA_OBJECTS, ALL_OBJECTS, USER_OBJECTS
B) DBA_DEPENDENCIES, ALL_DEPENDENCIES, USER_DEPENDENCIES
C) DBA_CATALOG, ALL_CATALOG, USER_CATALOG
D) None of the above
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26)In which all data in a database is stored in a table to include user data and the
Data Dictionary?
A) Tables
B) Temporary Segments
C) Schemas
D) Segments
30)When a node is told to prepare, it can respond in several ways, one of the ways
is “no data on the node has been or can be modified, so no preparation is
necessary”. This response is called as?
A) Prepared
B) Read-only
C) Abort
D) None of the above
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31)Database users interact with the database through applications or utilities. A
typical user's responsibilities include which of these tasks?
A) Entering, modifying, and deleting data
B) Generating reports from the data
C) Both A & B
D) None of the above
33)In Data Utilities several utilities are available to help you maintain the data in
your Oracle Database?
A) SQL*Loader
B) Export and Import Utilities
C) Both A & B
D) None of the above
34)To rename an object, it must be in your schema. You can rename schema
objects in either of the following ways?
A) Drop and re-create the object
B) Rename the object using the RENAME statement
C) Create the object
D) Both A & B
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C)Control files
D)SGA definition files
37)A cluster is a schema object that contains data from _____________ , all of
which have one or more columns in common.
A)one table
B)one or more tables
C)two or more tables
D)atleast two tables
39)The disks in a disk group are referred to as ASM disks, On Windows operating
systems, an ASM disk is always a partition, on all other platforms, an ASM disk can
be?
A) A partition of a logical unit number (LUN)
B) A network-attached file
C) Both A & B
D) None of the above
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DATA STRUCTURE & ALGORITHMS
Q.1 The order of a B-tree is defined as the
(a) Minimum no. of keys in a non root node
(b) Maximum no. of keys in non root node
(c) (n+1)/2
(d) Maximum no. of pointers in any node
Q.2 The depth of a complete binary tree with ‘n’ nodes is (log is to the base two)
(a) log(n+1)-1
(b) log(n)
(c) log(n-1)+1
(d) log(n)+1
Q.4 You want to check whether a given set of items is sorted. Which of the
following sorting methods will be the most efficient if it is already is sorted order?
(a) Bubble sort
(b) Selection sort
(c) Insertion sort
(d) Merge sort
Q.5 The information about an array that is used in a program will be stored in
(a) Symbol table
(b) Activation record
(c) System table
(d) Dope vector
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Q.6 Sparse matrices have
(a) Many zero entries
(b) Many non-zero entries
(c) Higher dimension
(d) None of the above
Q.7 Which of the following abstract data types can be used to represent a many
relation?
(a) Tree
(b) Stack
(c) Graph
(d) Queue
Q.8 The process of accessing data stored in tape is similar to manipulating data on
(a) Stack
(b) Set
(c) List
(d) Heap
Q.10 Which of the following algorithm design technique is used in the quick sort
algorithm?
(a) Dynamic programming
(b) Backtracking
(c) Divide and conquer
(d) Greedy method
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(d) Polynomial manipulation
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Q.17 Search tables used by compilers for efficient searching generally use
(a) Hash tables
(b) Lists of records
(c) Binary search tables
(d) Binary search trees
Q.18 High level languages are not concerned with the computers but with
(a) Problems
(b) Machine code
(c) Assembler
(d) Compiler
Q.19 Which sort will operate in quadratic time relative to the number of elements
in the array (on the average)?
(a) Quick sort
(b) Bubble sort
(c) Heap sort
(d) Merge sort
Q.21 The average search time of hashing, with linear probing will be less if the load
factor
(a) Is far less than one
(b) Equals one
(c) Is far greater than one
(d) None of the above
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(c) Circular doubly linked list
(d) Array implementation of list
Q.23 Which of the following is essential for converting an infix expression to the
postfix form efficiently?
(a) An operator stack
(b) An operand stack
(c) An operator stack and an operand stack
(d) A parse tree
Q.24 Quick sort gives O (nlogn) worst case performance if the pivot is selected as:
(a) First element of the array
(b) Median of first, last and middle element
(c) Arithmetic mean of the elements
(d) None of the above
Q.26 You are asked to sort 15 randomly generated numbers. You should prefer
(a)Bubble Sort
(b)Selection Sort
(c)Insertion Sort
(d)Quick Sort
Q.27 The average successful search time taken by binary search on a sorted array
of 10 items is
(a)2.6
(b)2.7
(c)2.9
(d)2.8
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C++ Questions:
1)Which of the following statements are true about Catch handler ?
1. It must be placed immediately after try block T
2. It can have multiple parameters
3. There must be only one catch handler for every try block
4. There can be multiple catch handler for a try block T
5. Generic catch handler can be placed anywhere after try block.
a. Only 1, 4, 5
b. Only 1, 2, 3
c. Only 1, 4
d. Only 1, 2
2)In nested try block, if inner catch handler gets executed, then______________
a. Program execution stops immediately
b. Outer catch handler will also get executed
c. Compiler will jump to the outer catch handler and then executes remaining
executable statements of main()
d. Compiler will execute remaining executable statements of outer try block and
then the main()
a. Only 1,4,5
b. Only 2,3,5
c. Only 1,3,4
d. All of these
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4)Assigning one or more function body to the same name is
called_______________
a. Function Overriding
b. Function Overloading
c. Both a and b
d. None
6)The explicit keyword is an optional decoration for the constructors that takes
exactly_____argument.
a. No argument
b. Two
c. Three
d. One
a. Only 1,3
b. Only 3, 6
c. Only 2 , 4 , 6
d. None of these
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8)If we have object from ofstream class, then default mode of opening the file
is________
a. ios::in
b. ios::out
c. ios::in|ios::trunc
d. ios::out|ios::trunk
12)In case of inheritance where both base and derived class are having
constructors, when an object of derived class is created then___________
a. constructor of derived class will be invoked first
b. constructor of base class will be invoked first
c. constructor of derived class will be executed first followed by base class
d. constructor of base class will be executed first followed by derived class
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13) In case of operator overloading, operator function must be______
1. Static member functions
2. Non- static member functions
3. Friend Functions
a. Only 2
b. Only 1, 3
c. Only 2 , 3
d. All 1 , 2, 3
a. Only 1, 6
b. Only 1,4,6
c. Only 1,3,6
d. Only 2,5
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17)If an argument to a function is declared as const, then
a. function can modify the argument
b. Function can’t modify the argument
c. const argment to a function is not possible
d. None of these
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