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01. One characteristic of attributes data is that it is always

a) Continuous
b) Discrete
c) Expensive to collect
d) Read from a scale of measurement

02. A measurement system analysis is designed to assess the statistical properties of?
a) Gage variation
b) Process performance
c) Process stability
d) Engineering tolerances

03. Which of the following activities is value

value-added?
a) Setup
b) Process
c) Storage
d) Inspection

04. In order forr a problem to be solved correctly, which of the following must occur first?
a) The problem must be defined
b) Relevant data must be gathered
c) The measurement system must be validated
d) The process must be mapped

05. Typically, which of the following actions is NOT used to reduce process cycle time?
a) Analyzing current processes
b) Reducing queue times
c) Setting scheduling priorities
d) Implementing activity-based
based costing

06. Which of the following tools is commonly used in the define phase of a pr
project?
oject?
a) Affinity diagram
b) Control chart
c) Failure mode and effects analysis
d) Data collection checklist

07. A tree diagram can be used to do which of the following?

a) Allow a team to identify root causes even when no credible data exist
b) Show a causality relationship
c) Present data from a check sheet
d) Reveal the true level of a problem’s complexity

08. Which of the following is a component of a visual factory?

a) Product specifications
b) Zero defect policies
c) Just-in-time policies
d) Equipment service manuals
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09. Which of the following best describes internal failure costs?

a) The economic costs associated with a catastrophic failure of an internal subsystem.
b) The unavoidable quality system costs associated with the production of any pproduct
roduct or service.
c) The opposite of external failure costs.
d) The costs resulting from a nonconformance detected before a product or service is provided.

10. A change agent is responsible for helping the organization do which of the following?
a) Overcome fear of the unknown
b) Reorganize departments
c) Determine performance criteria
d) Identify which group is responsible for failures

11. SWOT is an acronym for:

A. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
B. statistics without tables
C. sensory Weibull ordinal tools
D. success wields optimal team

12. The leader in the quality movement who recommended that organizations “eliminate numerical
quotas for the work force and numerical goals for management
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum

13. The word “champion” in the context of Six Sigma projects refers to:
A. The team that has had the most impact on the bottom line.
B. The
he person who has coordinated teams most effectively
C. The
he individual who has outpaced all oth
others in six sigma knowledge
D. None of the above

14. Customer segmentation refers to:

A. dividing a particular customer into parts that are more easily understood
B. grouping customers by one or more criteria
C. maintaining secure customer listings to minimize communication among them
D. eliminating or “cutting off” customers with poor credit history

15. If DPU = 0.022, the RTU is approximately:

A. 0.022
B. 0.078
C. 0.0022
D. 0.98
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16. The operators of a manufacturing cell work out a more orderly arrangement for tool storage
and establish a schedule to maintain cleanliness on a daily basis. These improvements are best
described by which approach to problem solving?
A. 5S
B. Poka yoke
C. Kaizen
D. PDCA
E. Re-engineering

17. Much of the Six Sigma methodology is used to identify and rremove
emove causes for _____________
a) Process Variation
b) Material Costs
c) Excess Inventory
d) Lost Sales

18. Control charts and their limits are the?

a) Voice of the employee
b) Voice of the process
c) Voice of the customer
d) Voice of the team

19. A kurtosis of -1,2754

1,2754 indicates?
a) Platykurtic (flat with a short tail)
b) Leptokurtic (peaked with long tails)
c) Multi-modal
modal (more than one distribution)
d) Kanban Model

20. In a Fishbone Diagram the 6M’s stand for Methods, ____________, Machine, Man, Mother
Nature and Materials.
a) Measurements
b) Merger
c) Management
d) Medical

21.. For a process having an average throughput of 7,200 units per hour, what is the average Cycle
Time per unit in seconds?
a) 2
b) 0.32
c) 0.34
d) 0.5

22.. Appropriate measures means that measurements are ______________.

a) Representative
b) Sufficient
c) Contextual
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d) Relevant
e) All of these answers are correct

23. Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?

a) Natural & Unnatural
b) Short Term & Long Term
c) Assignable & Pattern
d) Attribute & Discreet

24.. An operator is measuring the distance between two points. Which is most likely to be
influenced by the operator?
a) Precision of the measurement
b) Accuracy of the measurement
c) Calibration of the instrument
d) All of these answers are correct

25.. Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as Visible Costs and Hidden Costs. Which of
these items is a Visible Cost?
a) Lost Customer Loyalty
b) Time Value of Money
c) Returns
d) Late Delivery

26. A two-sample T-testtest does which of the following?

a) Compares the medians to determine if sample 1 is statistically difference from sample 2
b) Subtracts the mean n of sample 1 from sample 2 and compares the difference to zero to determine if
they are equal
c) Compares the means to determine if sample 1 is statistically difference from sample 2
d) Test of the difference between two population medians

27. Why is the term "Voice of the Customer" in Six Sigma methodology used?
a. To know the customers involved in the project
b. To get feedback from the customers
c. To know the stakeholders involved in the project
d. To define the needs of the customer

28. Who is responsible for setting up the vision for implementing Six Sigma?
a. Team managers
b. Executive leadership
c. Green belt
d. Process owner

29. Which of the following statements is false about SIPOC?

a. SIPOC stands for Supplier, Input, Process, Output, and Customer
b. SIPOC diagrams are used to define the sub
sub-processes in a business process
c. Various examples of SIPOC software tools are iGrafx, SigmaFlow, etc
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d. SIPOC does not define the customer's requirements

30. Achieving a 6σ or Six Sigma level in production means that the percentage of non-defective
non
output is?
a.99.9997%
b.50%
c.99%
d.99.5%

31. A null hypothesis requires several assumptions, a basic one of which is?
a. That the variables are significant
b. The variables are independent
c. That the sample size is adequate
d. That the confidence interval is ± 2 standard deviations

32. What tool is used to create a model of the effect on an output by the variati
variation
on in two or more of
the inputs?
a. Correlation Coefficient
b. Linear Regression
c. Multiple Regression
d. X-Y Diagram

33. As we calibrate our Measurement System to assure accurate data we frequently encounter
Bias which is the __________________ of a measured value from the ________________ value.
a. Spread, Mean of the population
b. Deviation, hoped for
c. Deviation, true
d. Spread, idea

34. Standard deviation is?

A. Degree of variation in a set of values calculated by measuring the average spread of the values around
the mean
B. The sum of the mean, median, mode and range of a set of values divided by ffour
C. A defective variation that has become accepted as inevitable
D.The usual workaround when data is unavailable for a process

35. When is the levene's test used?

A. For unequal variances
B. When n samples have unequal variances
C. When n sample le have equal variances
D. For equal variances
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36. What remains unaffected when data is skewed?

A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. All of them

37.Non-parametric
tric method is used to compare?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. All of them

38. Which is also called "goodness of fit test"?

A. Levene's test
B. mood's median test
C. Chi-square test
D. None of them

39. ________ are used to simultaneously compare more than two sample proportions with each
other.
A. Levene's test
B. Mood's median test
C. Chi-square test
D. Contingency tables

40. What is variation?

A. The fluctuation in the output of a process
B. Something that every repeatable process exhibits
C. Something that any improvement of any process should reduce
D. All of the above

41. Where do you start six sigma?

A. It's a bottom-up approach
B. From the quality director
C. Middle management
D. The CEO decides

42. Standard deviation is?

A. Degree of variation in a set of values calculated by measuring the average spread of the values around
the mean
B. The sum of the mean, median, mode and range of a set of values divided by four
C. A defective variation that has become accepted as inev
inevitable
D. The usual workaround when data is unavailable for a process
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43.First-time yield (FTY) is?

A. The gain achieved from applying six sigma to a project initially
B. The number of good units coming out of a process or a step divided by the numb
number
er of total units going
into it
C. The gain achieved by a project team new to six sigma
D. A concession by a project team in its initial efforts

44. Types of FMEA are:

A. Process, Design, Concept.
B. Equipment, Service.
C. System, Software.
D. All of the above.

45.. Which of the following is not included in the basic deliverables of the define phase?
A. Team members
B. Project plan
C. Verify financial impact
D. Stakeholder analysis

46.. In an FMEA, what is the RPN if P (OCC) =5, P (DET) =4 and P (SEV) =9?
A. '0
B. '9
C. '18
D. '180

47. Speciall Cause Variation is caused by:

A. Known factors.
B. Unknown factors.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.

48. Area under the curve

urve of normal distribution is:
A. '0
B. '0.5
C. '1
D. '1.5

49. X-Y Matrix is a:

A. Individual-based
based prioritization tool for the potential X’s.
B. Individual-based
based prioritization tool for the potential Y’s.
C. Team-based
based prioritization tool for the potential X’s.
D. Team-based
based prioritization tool for the potential Y’s.

50.. When should the test for equal variance be conducted?

A. When two or more samples are there
B. p value greater than 0.05
C. both b and c
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D. none of them

51. If the value of Cp is 1.0 then the sigma value is:

A. '1
B. '2
C. '3
D. '6

52.. How many runs does a 23 full factorial experiment consist of?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Eight
D. Nine

53. An experimental factor is:

A. The input variables for the experiment.
B. The metrics of the process.
C. A covariant.
D. The largest standard deviation.

54.. How many runs does a 23 full factorial experiment consist of?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Eight
D. Nine

55.. Linear correlation coefficient measures:

A. Strength of a linear relationship between two variables.
B. Direction of a linear relationship between two variables.
C. Both a & b.
D. None of the above.

56.. Kanban's primary focus is on the elimination of?

A. Idle Time
B. Waste
C. Man hour
D. Expenditure

57.. The Seiri or Sort stage of 5S plan means

A. Clearing out
B. Clean it
C. Organising
D. Standardising
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58.. Which stage of 5S principle uses "Keeping everything in place and a place for everything"
methodology?
A. Sort
B. Straighten
C. Shine
D. Standardize