29/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 03 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )
Topics Covered :
Physics : Electrostatics, Current Electricity, Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Chemistry : Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, General Principles and
Processes of Isolation of Elements, p-Block Elements, d and f Block Elements, Coordination Compounds
Biology : Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Heredity and variation: Principles of
Inheritance and variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Human Reproduction: Male and female reproductive
systems; Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; Gametogenesis-spermatogenesis & oogenesis;
Menstrual cycle; Fertilisation, Human Reproduction: Embryo development upto blastocyst formation,
implantation; Pregnancy and placenta formation (Elementary idea); Parturition (Elementary idea); Lactation
(Elementary idea); Reproductive Health, Evolution
English and Comprehension :
Logical and Quantitative Reasoning :

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
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(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each answer with correct response shall be awarded ONE mark. Zero mark will be given for the question NOT answered.
There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A parallel plate capacitor is filled with two dielectrics 20 A  K1K 2 
0 A
of dielectric constants K1 and K2 as shown in figure. (3)  K1  K 2  (4)  
d  K1  K 2 
2d
Area of each plate is A (in m2) and separation
between the plates is d (in metre). Its capacitance
will be 2. A charge 2q is placed at one of the corners of a
cube of side a. The electric flux through the face not
touching the charge is
K1
q q
(1) (2)
K2 120 240

q q
20 A  1 1   A (3) 2 (4)
(1)  
d  K1 K2 
 (2) 0  K1  K 2  0 80
d
(1)
Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
3. Four capacitors of capacitances 1 F, 2 F, 3 F 10. A charge q = 2 C at rest placed in magnetic field
and 4 F are connected first in series combination of 10 T experiences a force
and then in a parallel combination. The ratio of their (1) 20 N (2) Zero
equivalent capacitances will be
(3) 10 N (4) 5 N
(1) 25 : 16 (2) 16 : 25
11. Three equal resistors, each equal to R, are
(3) 125 : 6 (4) 6 : 125 connected as shown in figure, then the equivalent
4. Aluminium has free electron density of 2.7 × 1029 m–3 resistance between points A and B is
at room temperature. An aluminium conductor of
cross-sectional area of 10–3 m2 and carrying current A B
of 1.8 A. The drift velocity of free electrons will be.
(1) 4.2 × 10–7 m/s (2) 4.2 × 10–8 m/s R
(1) R (2)
(3) 4.2 × 10–9 m/s (4) 4.2 × 10–10 m/s 3
5. The equivalent resistance across X and Y is 2R
(3) 3R (4)
8 2 3
12. Two concentric coils of radius R and 2R carrying
2 current I and 3I respectively in anticlockwise
X 2 Y
direction. The resultant magnetic field induction at
4 1
the centre will be.
16

5
 50I ˆ 50I ˆ
(1) (2) (1) ( k ) (2) ( k )
5 16 4R 4R
16

3
 0 I ˆ 30I ˆ
(3) (4) (3)  j (4) i
3 16 4 R 2R
6. A galvanometer acting as an ammeter should have 13. A bar-magnet of magnetic moment M placed in a
(1) High resistance in parallel with its coil magnetic field B at an angle 60° with direction of
(2) Low resistance in parallel with its coil magnetic field. The torque experienced by bar-
magnet is
(3) High resistance in series with its coil
(4) Low resistance in series with its coil MB
(1) MB (2)
2
7. A wire of resistance R, length L and uniform cross-
sectional area A stretches to n times its original MB 3MB
(3) (4)
length. The stretched wire is then cut into n equal 3 2
parts and connected in parallel combination. The 14. Electric potential at any point an equatorial line of
equivalent resistance will be electric dipole
(1) 2R (2) 3R (1) Directly proportional to r
R (2) Inversely proportional to r
(3) R (4)
2 (3) Inversely proportional to r2
8. An electron is moving in a circular path of radius
(4) Zero
10 cm at right angle to uniform magnetic field B. If
the speed of electron remains same and the 15. The electric flux coming out and entering a closed
magnetic-field gets halved, then radius of circular surface are 8 × 103 and 2 × 103 Vm respectively.
path would be The charge enclosed by the surface is

(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (1) 0.053 C (2) 0.110 C

(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm (3) 0.070 C (4) Zero
9. The sensitivity of a potentiometer can be increased 16. The effective resistance between points X and Y is
by 10 
X Y
(1) Increasing the length of potentiometer wire 10  10 
(2) Decreasing the length of potentiometer wire
(3) Increasing the value of current using rheostat 10 
(4) Decreasing the area of cross-section of wire (1) 4  (2) 5 
keeping the length constant (3) 10  (4) 25 
(2)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
17. The potential difference between points A and B is
4 V, 1 
4 V, 1 
A B
Test-03 (Code A)
21. Three charges each of +2 C are placed at the
corners of an isosceles triangle as shown. The work
done in taking a charge +1 C from X to Y is
+ 2 C

2a
2a
6 V, 1  X Y

a
(1) 2 V
(2) 3 V +2 C +2 C
(3) 4 V
(1) Zero (2)
1 2 × 10
12
 
(4) 6 V 40 a
18. Two infinitely long conductors A and B carrying
current I and 3I as shown in figure. The position of (3)

1 1 × 10
12
 (4)
4 × 108
the point lying between AB on straight line where 80 a 40a
magnetic field is zero is 22. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole
I 3I moment M is bent as shown in figure. The new
x x magnetic dipole moment will be
A 10 cm B
l
(1) 1.5 cm from A
(2) 2.5 cm from A l

(3) 5.0 cm from A /3

(4) 7.5 cm from A O

19. The minimum number of capacitors of rating 3M

(1) M (2)
20 F/200 V required to design a 20F/800 V 
capacitor is 2M 4M
(3) (4)
(1) 10 (2) 12  
23. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry
(3) 14 (4) 16
currents I1 and I2 respectively. Both wire and circular
20. Four electric charges + 10 C, + 10 C, – 10 C loop are placed in same plane. The value of H for
and – 10 C are placed at the corners of a square which the magnetic field will be zero at centre of
of side 2a. The electric potential at a point A is circular loop is

+10 C –10 C R
I2
a
A
H

+10 C –10 C I1
(1) Zero I1I2R I2 
(1) (2)

 20 × 10  1 
6
I1R
(2) K 1 
  R I1R
a  5 (3) (4)
I1I2 I2 

(3) K
10 × 10  1 
6
1  24. A 1 m long wire of resistance 3  is connected in
  series with a resistor of 9  and a battery of e.m.f.
a  5
12 V. The potential gradient along the wire is

(4) K
 20 × 10  1 
6
1  (1) 3 Vm–1 (2) 4 Vm–1
 
a  5 (3) 5 Vm–1 (4) 6 Vm–1
(3)
Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
25. A uniform wire of resistance 27  is joined end-to- 31. The total electric flux through a closed surface
end to form a circle. Then the resistance of the enclosing an  - particle is
circular wire between two diametrically opposite
4e 3e
points is (1) (2)
0 0
4
(1)  (2) 27 
27 2e
(3) (4) Zero
27 27 0
(3)  (4) 
2 4 32. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with
26. The current through a wire depends on time as time according to relation Q = 2t – 3t2. The heat
I = 6t 2 + 6t. The charge flowing through cross- produced in R from time t = 0 to t = 0.5 s is
section of wire from t = 0 to t = 3 second is
1
(1) 60 C (2) 22 C (1) 4R (2) R
4
(3) 82 C (4) 81 C
1 1
27. The equivalent resistance between points A and B. (3) R (4) R
3 2
3
33. Two identical heaters rated 220 volt–2000 watt are
placed in series with each other across 220 volt line.
3
The total power is
6
A B (1) 500 W (2) 1000 W

6 3 (3) 2000 W (4) 4000 W

34. A current flows in a cylindrical conductor from west
6 to east. (in x-y plane) The direction of the magnetic
(1) 2  (2) 3  field at a point P above the conductor in the same
3 plane is along
(3)  (4) 4 
4 (1) + x axis (2) + y axis
28. Two wires with currents 8 A and 2 A are enclosed in (3) + z axis (4) – y axis
a circular loop. Two wires with current 8 A and 2 A
  35. Two parallel conductors are carrying same current of
are situated outside the loop as shown. The  B  dl
2 A in the upwards direction. Force experienced per
around the loop is
unit length by each conductor would be (d is the
8A 2A distance between conductors)
20 0
(1) (2)
2A 8A d 2 d
70 0
(3) (4)
4 d d
36. An electron moves with a constant speed v along a
(1) Zero (2) 8 0 circle of radius 3 cm. Its magnetic moment would be
(3) 2 0 (4) 10 0
5 200
29. A spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q. The (1) eV (2) eV
147 7
potential at a point P which is at distance r (r < R)
from centre of shell is 4 3
(3) eV (4) eV
1 Q 170 200
(1) Zero (2) 4 r 37. The line integral of magnetic field around a closed
0
1
1 Q 1 Q2 path enclosing a conductor carrying current of
(3) (4) 2
40 R 40 R ampere is
30. Two conducting spheres of radii r1 = 10 cm and (1) 10–7 weber per metre
r2 = 20 cm have equal surface charge density. The
ratio of their charges is (2) 2 × 10–7 weber per metre
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 4 weber per metre
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2 (4) 2 × 10–7 weber per metre
(4)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-03 (Code A)
38. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is 43. In the figure, two identical cells of e.m.f. 20 V and
connected to an external resistance R. The power internal resistance 2  are connected to resistors R.
transfer will be maximum when The maximum power developed across resistance R
(1) r = R (2) r < R would be
20 V, 2 
1
(3) r  (4) r > R
R
20 V, 2 
39. In the circuit given, the voltmeter reads 50 V. The
resistance of the voltmeter is
v
R
500  600 
(1) 20 W (2) 50 W
(3) 75 W (4) 100 W
44. The magnitude of magnetic field induction at the
centre of circular loop in which current I flows in two
100 V segments as shown in figure, would be
(1) 6000  (2) 5000 
I
(3) 4000  (4) 3000  A B
40. Four plates of area A at distance d from each other /4
are arranged as shown. The net capacitance of r
arrangement would be O

d
I
A B 40I 0 I
(1) (2)
r 2 r

40 A 20 A 30I

(3) (4) Zero
(1) (2) 8r
d d
45. The magnetic field induction at point O would be
30 A  A
(3) (4) 0
d d
41. Two particles of masses 2 g and 4 g with charges
I = 2A
2e and 2e are placed in a uniform electric field E and
A
2

allowed to move for the same time t. The ratio of

I=

their kinetic energy will be O

R
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 I = 2A
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 0  1
1 
2R 
(1)
42. Six equal resistance each of resistance 20  are 
connected between point A, B and C as shown in
0
figure. The net resistance will be maximum between (2) 1  
4R
A
0  1
(3)  1 
8R   
20


(4) Zero
20


20


46. A charged particle carrying a charge q is moving in

20 
20

a uniform magnetic field and loses 4% of its kinetic

B C energy. The radius of curvature r of its circular path
20  changes by
(1) A and C (2) C and A (1) 1% (2) 3%
(3) A and B (4) Any two points (3) 2% (4) 4%
(5)
Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
47. Two cells E1 and E2 are connected as shown in 52. The electric flux through a cube of side 10 cm is .
figure. The potential difference across the terminals If the side of cube is made 20 cm and charge
A and B is. enclosed remains same, then value of flux will be
10 V, 2  4 V, 2  (1) /2 (2) 
A B
(3) 2 (4) 4
E1 E2
53. In a metre bridge, 2  resistance is connected in
left gap and the balancing length from left end is
(1) 4 V (2) 6 V found to be 20 cm. The value of unknown resistance
is
(3) 7 V (4) 9 V
(1) 2  (2) 4 
48. A cell of e.m.f. 10 V and internal resistance 2  is (3) 8  (4) 14 
connected in series with external resistance of 10 .
54. How many lamps each of 10 watt and 20 V can be
The ratio of terminal potential difference to e.m.f. of
connected in parallel across a 40 V battery of
cell is
internal resistance 2 , so that each lamp glows to
(1) 6 : 5 (2) 6 : 6 full power?
(3) 5 : 6 (4) 2 : 5 (1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 25
49. The value of current I in the circuit diagram will be
55. The potential difference between X and Y is
10 V
10 V, 1  20 V, 1  10 V, 1  20 V, 1 
X Y
1A 2 1 2 1 1A
I (1) 35 V (2) 40 V
4 4
(3) 45 V (4) 50 V
2
2 2 56. The ratio of electric field due to short dipole at
distance r from its centre at axial position and
2 equatorial position is
4 4
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A
57. 27 small identical liquid drops of radius r and charge
(3) 5 A (4) 6 A q coalesce to form a big drop. If the potential on the
50. Six resistors each of resistance R = 3  are surface of small drop is V, then potential on the
connected as shown. The potential difference surface of big drop would be
VA – VB is (1) 3V (2) 9V
3 3 (3) 2V (4) V
3
58. A long straight wire carries a current of 1 A. The ratio
1A 3 1A
A B r
3 of the magnetic field at distance r and is
3 2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 1 V (2) 2 V (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(3) 3 V (4) 4 V 59. In a galvanometer 20% of the total current passes
51. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and having through it. If the resistance of the galvanometer is
separation x between its plates. The plates are 2 , the shunt resistance connected to the
pulled apart with a uniform speed v and it is galvanometer is
connected to a cell of emf E and negligible internal (1) 0.02  (2) 0.05 
rensistance r. The time rate of change of electrostatic (3) 0.2  (4) 0.5 
energy of capacitor would be 60. A deutron and an -particle enters a magnetic field
with a velocity v perpendicular to the direction of
0 A2Ev 0 AEv 3/2
(1) (2) magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of their circular
3x 2x 2 path would be
0 A3/2Ev 0 AE 2v (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) (4) 2
3x 2x (3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
(6)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-03 (Code A)

CHEMISTRY
61. In a closed packed lattice containing ‘n’ particles, 72. A crystal is made up of particles X, Y and Z. X forms
the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids are a fcc lattice with Y atoms occupying one-fourth of
(1) n, 2n (2) n, n tetrahedral voids and Z atoms occupying half of the
octahedral voids. The formula of the solid would be
(3) 2n, n (4) 2n, n/2
(1) X4Y2Z2 (2) X4Y2Z4
62. The electrolyte having minimum flocculation value for
arsenic sulphide sol is (3) X4Y4Z2 (4) XY2Z4

(1) NaCl (2) AlCl3 73. Which of the following metal oxide cannot be
reduced by excess of carbon at high temperatures?
(3) BaCl2 (4) Na3PO4
(1) Fe2O3 (2) ZnO
63. Charge required for the reduction of one mole of
Cr2O72– to Cr3+ is (F = Faraday constant) (3) Al2O3 (4) PbO

(1) 6 F (2) 3 F 74. Maximum number of unpaired electrons is present in

(3) 2 F (4) 4 F (1) Mn2+ (2) Fe2+

64. The most unsymmetrical crystal system out of the (3) Cr2+ (4) Ni2+
following is 75. For physisorption, the extent of adscrption (x/m) is
(1) Triclinic (2) Monoclinic plotted against pressure (P) at various temperatures
as shown below. The correct order of temperatures
(3) Orthorhombic (4) Tetragonal is (where x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on
65. Which inorganic precipitate acts as semipermeable mass, m of the adsorbent)
membrane?
(1) Calcium sulphate (2) Nickel phosphate
T1
(3) Barium oxalate (4) Copper ferrocyanide
x/m T2
66. Rate constant of a reaction depends upon T3
(1) Catalyst (2) Concentration
(3) Pressure (4) Volume
P
67. Copper reacts with dilute HNO3 to give (1) T3 > T2 > T1
(1) Cu(NO3)2, NO (2) Cu(NO3)2, NO2 (2) T1 > T2 > T3
(3) Cu(NO3)2, N2O (4) Cu(NO3)2, NO, NO2 (3) T3 > T1 > T2
68. Which of the following is not true for ideal solutions? (4) T1 > T3 > T2
(1) Vmix = 0 (2) Hmix = 0 76. In a first order reaction, the initial concentration of
(3) Smix = 0 (4) Gmix < 0 the reactant was M/10. After 10 minutes, the
concentration of the reactant becomes M/100. The
69. Cheese is an example of
value of rate constant is
(1) Emulsion (2) Gel (1) 2.303 min–1 (2) 4.4 × 10–3 s–1
(3) Foam (4) Aerosol (3) 3.8 × 10–3 s–1 (4) 23.03 min–1
70. Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium
77. The two ions A+ and B– have radii 60 pm and 240
chloride produces
pm respectively. In the closed packed crystal of
(1) H2(g) at cathode, Cl2(g) at anode compound AB, the coordination number of A+ would
(2) H2(g) at cathode, O2(g) at anode be

(3) Na(s) at cathode, Cl2(g) at anode (1) 6 (2) 12

(4) Na(s) at cathode, O2(g) at anode (3) 8 (4) 4

71. The ratio of number of atoms present in ccp unit cell 78. Assuming complete ionisation, the osmotic pressure
to that in bcc unit cell of a monoatomic substance of which of the following 0.01 M aqueous solution will
is be highest?

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (1) BaCl2 (2) Al2(SO4)3

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2 (3) Na3PO4 (4) C6H12O6

(7)
Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
79. The correct graph showing the variation of 84. Sphalerite is the ore of
concentration of reactant ([R]) with time(t) for a zero (1) Silver (2) Copper
order reaction is
(3) Zinc (4) Aluminium
85. The rate constant for a zero order reaction (AP) is
6 mol L–1s –1. If the initial concentration of the
(1) [R] reaction is 1.2 × 103 mol L–1, time required (in s) for
the completion of the reaction would be
(1) 200 (2) 100
t (3) 300 (4) 400
86. Among the following, the solution which shows
negative deviation from Raoult’s law is
[R]
(1) Acetone in ethanol
(2) (2) Acetone in benzene
(3) Chloroform in acetone
t
(4) Ethanol in water
87. Ba(NO3)2 is 87% dissociated in aqueous solution.
[R] The Van’t Hoff factor (i) would be
(3) (1) 2.74 (2) 1.87
(3) 2.61 (4) 1.74
t 88. The method which is used for preparation of colloidal
solutions is
(1) Dialysis (2) Electrophoresis
[R] (3) Peptisation (4) Electrodialysis
(4) 89. Metallic gold crystallises in a face-centered cubic
crystal with edge length of 4.07 Å. Closest distance
t between gold atoms is
80. When crystals of NaCl are heated in an atmosphere (1) 2.88 Å (2) 3.52 Å
of sodium vapour, they become yellow in colour due (3) 1.44 Å (4) 1.76 Å
to
90. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid ‘A’ is 40 mm Hg
(1) Metal deficiency defect
at 25°C. It forms an ideal solution with another liquid
(2) Metal excess defect B. The mole fraction of B is 0.4 and total vapour
(3) Frenkel defect pressure of the solution is 70 mm Hg.So, the vapour
pressure of pure liquid, B at the same temperature
(4) Schottky defect is
81. The gas produced on thermal decomposition of (1) 115 mm Hg (2) 80 mm Hg
ammonium dichromate is
(3) 90 mm Hg (4) 125 mm Hg
(1) O2 (2) NO2
91. Van Arkel method is used to purify
(3) N2O (4) N2
(1) Ti (2) Ni
82. Which of the following is not the characteristic of (3) Si (4) Sn
chemisorption?
92. The common oxidation state exhibited by all
(1) Enthalpy of adsorption is high lanthanoids is
(2) Irreversible (1) + 1 (2) + 2
(3) Highly specific (3) + 3 (4) + 4
(4) Independent of nature of the gas 93. For a reaction, threshold energy would be equal to
83. The freezing point of aqueous solution containing (1) Activation energy
1.71 g of cane sugar (C12H22O11) in 10 g of water is
(2) Activation energy + Normal energy of reactants
(Kf = 1.86 K mol–1 kg)
(3) Normal energy of reactants
(1) – 0.93°C (2) + 0.93°C
(4) Activation energy – Normal energy of reactants
(3) – 0.79°C (4) + 0.79°C
(8)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-03 (Code A)
94. Odd electron molecule among the following is 104. The rate constant for a reaction is given by
(1) NO (2) NO2 –2000
ln k =  20.14
(3) N2O (4) Both (1) and (2) T
95. Which of the following pair has nearly the same Activation energy, Ea for this reaction will be
size? (1) 1.67 kJ mol–1 (2) 4 kcal mol–1
(1) Zn2+, Hf4+ (2) Zr4+, Hf4+ (3) 38.3 kJ mol–1 (4) 9 kcal mol–1
(3) Zr4+, Ti4+ (4) Fe2+, Ni2+ 105. Number of P-OH bonds in orthophosphoric acid is
96. The EMF of the cell, Ag l Ag+ (1M) || Fe2+ (1M) | Fe (1) 3 (2) 2
is – 1.24 V at 25°C. If EAg+/Ag = 0.80 V, then (3) 1 (4) 4
E will be 106. When potassium dichromate is heated with conc.
Fe2  /Fe
H2SO4 in the presence of a soluble chloride salt, the
(1) 0.24 V (2) – 0.22 V
orange-red vapours are formed due to
(3) 0.36 (4) – 0.44 V
(1) CrO3 (2) K2CrO4
97. Brass is an alloy of
(3) Cr2(SO4)3 (4) CrO2Cl2
(1) Cu and Zn (2) Cu and Sn
107. The correct order of boiling point of the hydrides of
(3) Fe and Ni (4) Al and Cu group 16 elements is
98. In the formation of sulphur trioxide by contact (1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
process, 2SO2 + O2  2SO3, the rate of reaction (2) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
was found to be 3 × 10 –3 mol L–1s–1, the rate of
reaction when expressed in terms of SO3 will be (3) H2S > H2O > H2Se > H2Te

(1) 6 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1 (4) H2S > H2Se > H2O > H2Te

(2) 0.4 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1 108. Red hot carbon will remove oxygen from the oxide
AO and BO but not from MO, while B will remove
(3) 1.5 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1 oxygen from AO. The activity of metals A, B and M
(4) 3 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1 in decreasing order is
99. The product formed on reaction of XeF4 with SbF5 is (1) A > B > M (2) B > A > M
(1) [XeF]+ [SbF8]– (2) Sb+ [XeF5]– (3) M > B > A (4) M > A > B
(3) Sb2+ [XeF7]2– (4) [XeF3]+ [SbF6]– 109. Correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of the
100. Which of the following complex is an outer orbital following molecules is
complex? (1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) [CoF6]3– (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (3) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
101. Which of the following complex will show linkage (4) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br
isomerism?
110. The spin only magnetic moment for a transition metal
(1) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] ion was observed to be 3.87 B.M. The ion can be
(2) [Cr(H2O)6] Cl3 (1) Cr3+ (2) Cu2+
(3) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 (3) Ti2+ (4) Fe3+
(4) [PtCl4]2– 111. The number of ions produced in an aqueous solution
102. High spin complex of d7 cation in an octahedral field of K4[Fe(CN)6] are
will have the following energy (0 = crystal field (1) 11 (2) 5
spliting energy in an octahedral field, neglect pairing
energies and electron-electron effects) (3) 10 (4) 8

(1) –0.60 (2) –1.80 112. Cyanide process is used for the extraction of
(3) –0.80 (4) –1.20 (1) Au (2) Al
103. The oxidation state of cobalt in Na4[Co(S2O3)3] is (3) Ni (4) Sn
equal to 113. Radioactive disintegration is a reaction of
(1) + 1 (2) + 2 (1) First order (2) Second order
(3) + 3 (4) + 4 (3) Third order (4) Zero order
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Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
114. Total number of isomers possible for [Co(NH3)4Cl2] 118. The concentration term(s) that are independent of
are temperature is/are
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) Molarity
(3) 1 (4) 4
(2) Molality
115. The specific conductance of a N/10 KCl solution at
(3) Mole fraction
18°C is 1.12 × 10–2 –1 cm–1. The resistance of the
solution contained in the cell was found to be 65 . (4) Both (2) and (3)
The cell constant would be
119. Which of the following statement is correct for an
(1) 1.37 cm–1 (2) 5.8 cm–1
electrochemical cell that functions as a voltaic cell?
(3) 0.728 cm–1 (4) 2.34 cm–1
(1) Electrons move from cathode to anode
116. The correct relationship between edge length of unit
cell, a and radius of sphere, r in bcc unit cell is (2) Electrons move through a salt bridge

4r (3) Electrons can move either from the cathode to

(1) a  2 2 r (2) a  the anode or from the anode to the cathode
3
(4) Reduction occurs at the cathode
1
(3) a = 2r (4) a  r
2 120. The geometry of [Ni(CN) 4 ] 2– and [NiCl 4 ] 2– is
respectively
117. IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)5Br] SO4 is
(1) Pentaamminebromocobalt (III) sulphate (1) Tetrahedral, Tetrahedral
(2) Bromopentaamminecobalt (III) sulphate (2) Tetrahedral, Square planar
(3) Pentaamminbromocobalt (II) sulphate (3) Square planar, Tetrahedral
(4) Bromopentaamminecobalt (II) sulphate (4) Square planar, Square planar

BIOLOGY
121. Life spans of organisms are 125. In Blackberry and Raspberry, new plants are
(1) Correlated with their size propagated through
(2) Not correlated with their complexity (1) Cutting (2) Layering
(3) Not correlated with their chromosomal number (3) Grafting (4) Micropropagation
(4) More than one option is correct 126. Select odd one w.r.t. polycarpic plants.
122. Match the following columns.
Mango, Apple, Jackfruit, Grapevine,
Column A Column B
Neelakuranji, Bamboo, Orange
(Organism) (Life Span)
a. Rose (i) 25 years (1) 5 (2) 6
b. Crow (ii) 20 years (3) 2 (4) 3
c. Cow (iii) 15 years 127. Select the mismatched.
d. Banana tree (iv) 7 years
Chromosome
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) Organisms
number in meiocyte
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Rice 24
123. ‘Terror of Bengal’ was introduced because of
(1) Its beautiful flowers (2) Apple 17
(2) Its shape of leaves
(3) Its tasty fruits (3) Potato 48
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Adder's tongue fern 1260
124. Adventitious buds arise from the notches present at
margins of leaves are found in 128. -cellulosic fibrous bands are found in
(1) Adiantum (2) Begonia (1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium
(3) Kalanchoe (4) All of these (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-03 (Code A)
129. Increase in DNA content of tapetum may be achieved 139. Skin colour in human beings is controlled by _____
by genes.
(1) Endomitosis (1) 3 pairs (2) 4 pairs
(2) Restitution nucleus (3) 5 pairs (4) 6 pairs
(3) Polyteny 140. Which one is mismatched?
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Recessive epistasis – 12 : 3 : 1
130. Pollen viability periods is several months in (2) Inhibitory gene – 13 : 3
(1) Fabaceae (2) Ranunculaceae (3) Duplicate gene – 15 : 1
(3) Malvaceae (4) All of these (4) Complementary gene – 9 : 7
131. Ovules are bitegmic in 141. Who discovered ‘Y-chromosome’?
(1) Gymnosperms (1) Stevens (2) Wilson
(2) Members of polypetalae (3) Henking (4) Morgan
(3) Members of gamopetalae 142. The sex index of chromosome constitution AAA +
XXY will be
(4) More than one option is correct
(1) Super
132. Ovule is curved more or less at right angle to funicle
in (2) Intersex
(1) Anatropous (2) Campylotropous (3) Normal
(3) Amphitropous (4) Hemi-anatropous (4) More than one option is correct
133. All the four megaspore nuclei take part in development 143. Best example for environmental mechanism of sex
of embryo in determination is
(1) Polygonum (2) Oenothera (1) Bonnelia (2) Crepedula
(3) Fritillaria (4) Allium (3) Ophryotrochoa (4) All of these
134. Dioecious plants prevent 144. Short index finger in male is a
(1) Autogamy but not geitonogamy (1) Sex limited trait (2) Sex influenced trait
(2) Autogamy and geitonogamy (3) Holandric trait (4) Hologynic trait
(3) Allogamy and xenogamy 145. Substitution of a purine base with a pyrimidine base
(4) Allogamy but not geitonogamy or vice-versa is called
(1) Transition (2) Transversion
135. Pollen tube was first observed by _____ in _____.
(3) Insertion (4) Deletion
(1) Strasburger, Monotrapa
146. 2-aminopurine is base analogue of _____ and can
(2) Amici, Portulaca
pair with ________.
(3) Nawaschin, Lilium (1) C, A (2) A, T
(4) Nemec, Phoenix (3) T, A (4) A, C
136. Which one is mismatched? 147. Select odd characters w.r.t. Down’s syndrome.
(1) Albuminous seeds - Castor
Short stature, Furrowed tongue, Big and wrinkled
(2) Ex-albuminous seeds - Bean tongue, Testicular atrophy, Gynaecomastia,
(3) Perispermic seeds - Coconut Partially open mouth, Broad flat face.
(4) Non-endospermic seeds - Pea (1) 7 (2) 2
137. Initially Mendel took______varieties of pea plants, (3) 5 (4) 1
then_______but ultimately worked with only______
148. Which type of DNA polymerase will show
pairs of varieties.
polymerase activity in 5’  3’ direction with
(1) 44, 22, 14 (2) 34, 22, 14 polymerisation rate of 2000 bp per second?
(3) 34, 22, 7 (4) 42, 34, 7 (1) DNAP I
138. Mark odd one out w.r.t. recessive trait in garden pea. (2) DNAP II
(1) White flower (2) Green seed (3) DNAP III
(3) Green pod (4) Constricted pod (4) More than one option is correct
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Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
149. How many types of DNA polymerase are found in 160. Among the following hormone, which is present in
eukaryotes? lowest concentration during ovulation?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) LH (2) FSH
(3) 5 (4) 4 (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
150. In mitochondrial genetic code, UGA codes for 161. Saheli an contraceptive pill is used in family planning
(1) Arginine (2) Tryptophan because it
(3) Stop codon (4) Valine (1) Inhibits maturation of follicle
151. Spermatogenesis occurs in (2) Inhibits ovulation at 14th day of menstrual cycle
(1) Rete testis (2) Seminiferous tubule (3) It retards movement of fertilised zygote in
(3) Vas deferens (4) Ejaculatory duct fallopian tube and as a result of this implantation
is inhibited
152. Sperm maturation occurs in
(4) It speed up the movement of fertilised zygote in
(1) Epididymis (2) Ejaculatory duct fallopian tube and also inhibits the estrogen
(3) Efferent ductule (4) Seminiferous tubule binding with its receptor, thus inhibiting
implantation
153. Oogenesis in human starts
162. Tubectomy is a sterilisation method used in family
(1) During embryonic development
planning in human. As a result of this sterilising
(2) At the age of 10 year method
(3) At the age of 15 year (1) Sperm production inhibited
(4) At the age of 20 year (2) Ovum production inhibited
154. Estrogen during menstrual cycle is produced by (3) Sperm does not reach fertilisation site after
(1) Developing follicle (2) Endometrium copulation
(3) Corpus albicans (4) Uterus (4) Estrogen, FSH, LH production decreases so
follicle maturation and ovulation inhibited
155. Testosterone in human male is produced by
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Leydig cell 163. hCG is detected in urine in pregnancy test. In early
pregnancy it is produced by
(3) Seminiferous tubule (4) Epididymis
(1) Morula
156. Choose the correct statement.
(2) Blastocyst
(1) Identical twins are produced when two ova are
fertilised by two sperm (3) Syncytiotrophoblast

(2) Fraternal twins are also known as identical twins (4) Endometrium of uterus after implantation
(3) Inhibin is secreted by developing follicle which 164. Which of the following is not a contraceptive
inhibit FSH mechanical barrier method?
(4) hCG maintain corpus luteum in non-pregnant (1) Condom (2) Vault
woman during luteal phase
(3) Femshield (4) Implanon
157. During gastrulation in human
165. Choose the correct sequence of structure of ovum
(1) Morphogenetic movement of cells occur from outside to inside.
(2) Three primary germ layer ectoderm, mesoderm (1) Corona radiata  Zona pellucida  Vitelline
and endoderm are formed which have totipotent membrane  Perivitelline space
cell
(2) Zona pellucida  Corona radiata  Vitelline
(3) Formation of blastocoel occurs
membrane  Perivitelline space
(4) All of these
(3) Corona radiata  Zona pellucida  Perivitelline
158. Mature sperm acquires fertilising capacity in space  Vitelline membrane
(1) Seminiferous tubule (2) Epididymis (4) Corona radiata  Perivitelline space  Vitelline
(3) Efferent ductule (4) Female genital tract membrane  Zona pellucida
159. Ootid formation occurs in 166. Germ theory of disease was given by
(1) Graafian follicle (2) Secondary follicle (1) Ivanovsky (2) Oparin
(3) Uterus (4) Fallopian tube (3) Louis Pasteur (4) Spallanzani
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-03 (Code A)
167. Consider the following statements. 173. Similarity between marsupial mammal and placental
(a) Theory of biogenesis explains how new cell mammal is the result of
arose from pre-existing cell (1) Adaptive radiation
(b) Darwin and Wallace visited same island at (2) Convergent evolution
different time and gave natural selection theory
(3) Punctuated equilibrium
(c) During evolution atmosphere become oxidising
after the origin of blue green algae (4) Different habitat
(d) First autotrophic organism were anaerobic and 174. In which epoch human appear?
synthesize food with the help of CO2, H2S and
(1) Oligocene (2) Miocene
sunlight
Which statement(s) is are correct? (3) Pliocene (4) Pleistocene
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (c) 175. Hardy-Weinberg principle can not be affected by
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) (1) Gene flow
168. Which of the following was not a component of (2) Genetic drift
reaction mixture of Urey and Miller experiment? (3) Natural selection
(1) Carbon dioxide (4) Random mating
(2) Methane
176. First bipedal human was
(3) Ammonia
(1) Australopithecus afarensis
(4) Hydrogen and water vapour
(2) Homo habilis
169. Founder effect
(3) Homo erectus
(1) Is an outcome of small isolated population, by
chance separated from large parental population (4) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
and migrated to new unoccupied region 177. Human is more close or have more resemblance with
(2) Increases genetic variability among the chimpanzee than other ape because of
population
(1) Similar banding pattern of human chromosome
(3) Always result in increased allele frequency of
three and chromosome six with particular
particular allele in comparison with parental
autosome in the chimpanzee
population
(4) All of these (2) Evolution in same part of earth

170. Which of the following pair is an example of
Homologous organ?
(1) Pectoral fin of Scoliodon and flipper of whale
(2) Eyes of Octopus and eyes of human
(3) Trunk of elephant and hand of human
(4) Fore limb of human and whale
171. Evolution of horse can be explained by
(1) Punctuated equilibrium
(2) Cladogenesis
(3) Phyletic speciation
(4) Stasigenesis
172. After industrial revolution in England dark colour
moth flourished and this condition was reversed of
before industrialisation. More number of dark colour
moth after industrial revolution is due to
(1) Absence of predator of dark coloured moth
(2) Natural selection which only select beneficial
character
(3) Genetic drift because by chance only dark
colour moth got high potential of reproduction in
comparison with white colour moth
(4) Large random mutation
(13)
(3) Presence of foramen magnum at the same place
of skull
(4) Orthognathous face
178. Organic evolution of organisms can be related with
(1) Urey and Miller experiment
(2) Darwin and Wallace theory
(3) Mutation theory of Hugo de Vries
(4) Both (2) and (3)
179. Which of the following is not true w.r.t to GIFT?
(1) Fertilisation takes place in uterus
(2) Ovum is transferred in fallopian tube from donor
(3) This method is adopted by women who cannot
produce ovum
(4) Both ovum (Donor) and sperm (Donor/Husband)
are transferred in fallopian tube
180. Amniocentesis is based on
(1) Karyotyping of foetal cell chromosome
(2) Gene sequencing of foetal cell DNA
(3) Gene linkage analysis of mother DNA
(4) Blood analysis of fetus
Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

LOGICAL AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING

181. In a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F, there 186. Sachin walks 20 km towards North. He turns left
are two married couples. and walks 40 km. He again took left and walks 20
(a) D is grandmother of A and mother of B km finally he moves 20 km after turning to the left.
How far is he from his starting position?
(b) C is wife of B and mother of F
(1) 20 KM (2) 30 KM
(c) F is granddaughter of E
(3) 50 KM (4) 60 KM
How is C related to A?
187. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures
(1) Daughter which will continue the same series as established
(2) Grandmother by the five problem figures.
(3) Mother Problem Figure
(4) Can’t be determined N C P T V
182. Study the following figure and answer the questions S N C P T
given below. A B C D E
Answer Figure
Employed People W
8 V T V
W W W V
11 3
6 Backward People 1 2 3 4
17 5 7 (1) 1 (2) 2
Educated People
(3) 3 (4) 4
How many educated people are employed? 188. If in a certain language ENTRY is coded as 12345
(1) 9 (2) 18 and STEADY is coded as 931785, then which is the
correct code for word “ENDEAR”?
(3) 20 (4) 15
(1) 524 519
183. Total age of A and B is 12 years more than the total
age of B and C. C is how many years younger than (2) 174 189
A? (3) 128 174
(1) 12 (2) 13 (4) 124 179
(3) 14 (4) 15 189. In a row of trees, one tree is 6th from either end of
184. Which number replaces the question mark? the row. How many trees are there in the row?
(1) 9 (2) 11
3 7
(3) 10 (4) 12
5 0 190. Find the missing number in the following sequence.
6 5 11, 24, 50, 102, ____
8 ? (1) 206 (2) 204
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 208 (4) 202

(3) 3 (4) 4
185. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face
with symbol * ?

@ @
* +
–
*

* $
+ +
$ 8

(1) @ (2) $
(3) 8 (4) +
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-03 (Code A)

ENGLISH AND COMPREHENSION

Directions (Q191 to Q193): Read the given passage and
answer the questions that follow.
In the wild, it often comes down to the predator
and the prey, the hunter and the hunted. As you can
imagine, the preoccupation of most of the organisms is to
stay alive. In order to meet this concern they have
developed ways of adapting to severe habitats, and hiding
or escaping from those who would like to eat them. The
most intriguing question is how do they do it?
(3) A prey can also camouflage itself to trap a
predator
(4) Some animals have learnt the art of camouflage
in order to survive
192. Raccoons were able to survive the loss of their
woodland homes by
(1) Evolving survivor’s instincts
(2) Helping themselves to any leftover food

To their rescue, comes one very helpful adaptation –
camouflage. You may have been surprised by
Chameleon– an animal that has been using camouflage
since long. It always blends into its surroundings so well
that you nearly miss seeing it at all. Its colouring,
markings, or other physical features resemble its habitat
so much that you can look directly at it without seeing it at
first. This is often good enough to fool a predator that is
scanning an area to look for food. This helps prey to hide
from its predator. But did you know that it often works the
other way around, too? Predators can also use camou-
flage to trap their prey. If a predator wants to eat a certain
animal, and that animal cannot see it lying in wait, it can
pounce on its prey unexpectedly, devouring it before it even
knows what is happening.
(3) Living off anything they could grab
(4) Adapting to the residential areas
193. A suitable title for the above passage can be
(1) Animals and their habitat
(2) Adaptation and its features
(3) Camouflage and Mimicry- ways for organisms to
survive
(4) Adaptation is the key to Survival
Directions (Q194 to Q196): Identify the meaning of the
given idiom/phrase.
194. Take stock

Another popular adaptation is mimicry. Mimicry is when (1) Heed (2) Listen
an animal has markings or other physical characteristics (3) Mark (4) Survey
that allow it to look like some other kind of animal or plant. 195. Stand to reason
If it can make its predators believe that it is something that
(1) Question facts (2) Being assertive
preys on them, or would at least be difficult or painful to
catch, its predator will often go off in search of an easier (3) Being quite clear (4) Very active
target. Sometimes animals are also able to survive when 196. With open arms
their habitat changes because they adapt to the new
(1) With a question in mind
conditions. For example, birds that were accustomed to
nesting on high cliffs or in tall trees have survived (2) With a warm welcome
industrialisation by learning to nest in the crevices of tall (3) With an applause
buildings. Raccoons easily adapt to residential areas that (4) With much appreciation
have taken over their woodland homes. They often help
Directions (Q197 & Q198): Fill in the blanks with the most
themselves to any food they can grab, whether it is in
appropriate preposition.
trashcans, or inside people’s homes! This characteristic of
adaptability makes them a survivor in the true sense of the 197. It’s always hard to part ____________ one’s dearest
word. possessions.

191. According to the passage, which of the following (1) up (2) away
statements is false? (3) with (4) within
(1) An animal camouflages to suit its surroundings 198. The magazine exercises editorial control _________
to kill its kin what is printed.

(2) Some animals mimic their surroundings a lot to (1) in (2) at

resemble their habitat (3) on (4) over

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Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
Directions (Q199 & Q200): The following paragraphs have 200. S1: Like other forms of pollution,
been divided into parts. The first part of the paragraph is P: ___________________________
given to you as (S1) and the last part of the paragraph is Q: ___________________________
given as (S5). The remaining parts (P, Q and R) are given
R: ___________________________
in a jumbled order. Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a
meaningful paragraph that is logically correct. Choose the S5: One now sees little more than the yellow glare
of urban sky glow.
option that gives the correct sequence of the jumbled parts.
199. S1: A metaphor is a poetic device that deals with
comparison P: Where once it was possible to look up at the
night sky
P: ___________________________
Q: And see thousands of twinkling stars in the inky
Q: ___________________________
blackness,
R: ___________________________
R: Light pollution degrades the quality of the
S5: One object becomes the other. environment

P: It compares similar qualities Choose the correct option.

Q: With a simple metaphor, (1) PQR
R: Of two dissimilar objects (2) PRQ
Choose the correct option. (3) RQP
(1) QRP (2) PRQ (4) RPQ
(3) PQR (4) QPR



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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-03 (Code A)

29/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 03 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )
ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (4) 161. (4)
2. (1) 42. (4) 82. (4) 122. (3) 162. (3)
3. (4) 43. (4) 83. (1) 123. (4) 163. (3)
4. (2) 44. (3) 84. (3) 124. (4) 164. (4)
5. (3) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (1) 165. (3)
6. (2) 46. (3) 86. (3) 126. (3) 166. (3)
7. (3) 47. (3) 87. (1) 127. (2) 167. (2)
8. (2) 48. (3) 88. (3) 128. (2) 168. (1)
9. (1) 49. (3) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (1)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (1) 130. (1) 170. (4)
11. (2) 51. (4) 91. (1) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (1) 52. (2) 92. (3) 132. (2) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (3) 93. (2) 133. (3) 173. (2)
14. (4) 54. (3) 94. (4) 134. (2) 174. (4)
15. (1) 55. (4) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (4)
16. (1) 56. (3) 96. (4) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (2) 57. (2) 97. (1) 137. (3) 177. (1)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (1) 138. (3) 178. (4)
19. (4) 59. (4) 99. (4) 139. (1) 179. (1)
20. (2) 60. (1) 100. (2) 140. (1) 180. (1)
21. (1) 61. (3) 101. (3) 141. (1) 181. (3)
22. (2) 62. (2) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182. (1)
23. (4) 63. (1) 103. (2) 143. (4) 183. (1)
24. (1) 64. (1) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (2)
25. (4) 65. (4) 105. (1) 145. (2) 185. (3)
26. (4) 66. (1) 106. (4) 146. (4) 186. (1)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (2) 187. (4)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (3) 188. (3)
29. (3) 69. (2) 109. (1) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (1) 70. (1) 110. (1) 150. (2) 190. (1)
31. (3) 71. (3) 111. (2) 151. (2) 191. (1)
32. (4) 72. (1) 112. (1) 152. (1) 192. (4)
33. (2) 73. (3) 113. (1) 153. (1) 193. (3)
34. (3) 74. (1) 114. (1) 154. (1) 194. (4)
35. (1) 75. (1) 115. (3) 155. (2) 195. (3)
36. (4) 76. (3) 116. (2) 156. (3) 196. (2)
37. (2) 77. (4) 117. (1) 157. (1) 197. (3)
38. (1) 78. (2) 118. (4) 158. (4) 198. (4)
39. (4) 79. (1) 119. (4) 159. (4) 199. (2)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (3) 160. (4) 200. (4)

(17)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A)

29/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 03 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (3) 1  2q  q

Therefore,   
4  60  120
K1 3. Answer (4)

1 F 2 F 3 F 4 F
K2
A B

Capacitance of capacitor filled with dielectric of 1 1 1 1 1 12

      CAB  F
dielectric constant K1 is, CAB 1 2 3 4 25

K10 ( A / 2)
C1 
d 1 F

K2 0 ( A / 2)
Similarly, C2  2 F
d  CAB
'

10 F
As C1 and C2 are in parallel combination
 Cnet = C1 + C2 3 F

0 A
= (K1  K 2 ) 4 F
2d
2. Answer (1)
To enclose the charge 2q within a cube, 7 more CAB 12 6
cubes are required.  
CAB ' 25 × 10 125
Therefore, total flux through cube of side ‘2a’ is 4. Answer (2)

2q Electron density, n = 2.7 × 1029 m–3

T  ...(i)
0 Cross-sectional area, A = 10–3 m2
Current, I = 1.8 A
1
Flux through one face of big cube, T I = neAVd
6

1  2q  Vd =
I
i.e. 6    ...(ii) neA
 0
1.8
1 =
Now, one face of small cube is th part of one face 2.7 × 1029 × 1.6 × 10 –19 × 10 –3
4
of big cube. Vd = 4.2 × 10–8 m/s
(1)
Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
5. Answer (3) 9. Answer (1)
10. Answer (2)
10 
As, F = qvB sin
2
X Y If v = 0, then F = 0.
11. Answer (2)
5 R
A B

10/3  2 R
X Y
R
16/3 
 X Y
1 1 1 1
  
6. Answer (2) Requ. R R R
7. Answer (3)
R
As the volume of stretched wire and unstretched  Requ. 
3
wire remains same.
12. Answer (1)
 L × A = (nL) × A’
A 3I
A' 
n
I
So, length of one part after cutting. R
L´ = L
Resistance of each part R ’ = 2R

 
 L ' L  L  
   n   nR 
 A'
A  A  0 I  3I
 n  B   2  kˆ  0   2  kˆ
4 R 4  2R 
nR
0 I  3
=   2  1   kˆ
nR 4 R  2
50I ˆ
Now, nR = k
4R
13. Answer (4)

Torque,  MB sin 
1 1 1 1
    ........ (n times)   MB sin 60
Requ. nR nR nR 

n 3
= = MB
nR 2
1 1 14. Answer (4)

Requ. R 15. Answer (1)
 Requ.  R Net flux,  = 8 × 103 – 2 × 103
8. Answer (2) = 6 × 103
mv
As, r  qenclosed
qB Now, T 
0
mv  qenclosed = 0 × T
r'  2r
B
q  = 8.85 × 10–12 × 6 × 103
2
 r ’ = 20 cm qenclosed = 0.053 C
(2)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A)
16. Answer (1) 20. Answer (2)
X 5 Y Total potential at A :
V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4
10  10 
kq k ( q ) k ( q ) kq
=   
a 5a 5a a
X 5 Y
kq  1 1 
=  1   1
a  5 5 

kq  1 
= × 2 1  
20 
a  5

k × 20 × 10 6  1 
4 =  1 
 X Y a  5
17. Answer (2) 21. Answer (1)
1 V, 0.5  4 V, 1  As, potential at X = potential at Y
A B
Therefore work done in taking a charge + 1 C from
1r2   2r1 X to Y is zero.
Using : equ r  r for parallel combination.
1 2 22. Answer (2)

equ.  1  2 for series combination.

A B
18. Answer (2)
Let, at distance x from A, the magnetic field is zero. /3
r
r

0 I O
 B 
2 x
A
Distance between A and B = AB = 2r sin30° = r
0 3I
B  New magnetic moment,
2 (10  x )
B

AS, BA – BB = 0 M´ = m × r

0 I 0 3I M 3l
 = ×
2 x 2(10  x ) l 
1 3 3M
 M´ =
x 10  x 
10 – x = 3x
23. Answer (4)
x = 2.5 cm
19. Answer (4) Magnetic field at centre of circular loop, due to

Number of capacitors to be connected in series,  I

current (I2), B2  0  2 (2)
4 R
Voltage rating required
=
Voltage rating of given capacitor Magnetic field at centre of circular loop, due to
800 0 2I1
= 4 
current (I1), B1 
200 4 H
20
 Cequ. =  5 F Net magnetic field = 0
4
Number of rows required, 0 2I2 0 2I1
  
Capacity required 20 4 R 4 H
=   4
Capacity of each row 5 I1R
H
 Total number of capacitors required = 16. I2 
(3)
Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
24. Answer (1) 28. Answer (4)

12 According to Ampere’s circuital law

Current, I 
93
= 1A  B  dl 
 0 (Ienclosed )

 Voltage across wire = IR

= 1×3
  B  dl 
 0 (8  2)

= 3V = 10 0

V 3 29. Answer (3)

Potential gradient, k   3 Vm1
L 1
25. Answer (4)

r
A B

27
Resistance of upper part, R
1 
2 Potential at P,
27
Resistance of lower part, R2  P 

2 VP =   E  dr
Both connected in parallel combination. 

1 1 1
   R 
 r 
RAB R1 R2 =   E  dr   E  dr
 R
2 2 4
=  
27 27 27 R
KQ
27 =  2
dr  0 [ Einside = 0]

RAB   r
4
26. Answer (4)  1
R

dq = KQ   
I  r 
dt
Q   dq KQ 1 Q

VP 
R 40 R
3

 Idt
   6t 
 6t dt
2
= 30. Answer (1)
0
3 1 2
 6t 3 6t 2 
=   
 3 2 
0
Q1

Q2
3 4r12 4r22
= 2t  3t 
3 2
0
= 54 + 27 Q1 r12 1
 
= 81 C Q2 r22 4
27. Answer (1) 31. Answer (3)
6
According to Gauss’s law :
6
A B qenclosed
Total 
0

6 As charge on -particle = 2e
1 1 1 1 3
   
Requ. 6 6 6 6 2e
 T 
Requ. 2  0
(4)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A)
32. Answer (4) 37. Answer (2)

 2t  3t 2
Q According to Ampere’s law

dQ  B  dl 
0 (I )
I  2  6t
dt  1 
= 0  
Heat produced, dH = I 2Rdt  2 

H   I 2Rdt 7
= 4 × 10 ×
1
2
0.5 
=  (2  6t ) Rdt
2
 B  dl 2 × 107

0
38. Answer (1)
0.5

 (4  36t  24t )dt

2
= R 39. Answer (4)
0
The combination of 600  resistor and voltmeter
0.5
 36t 3 24t 2  should have net resistance of 500 
= R 4t   
 3 2 
0 1 1 1
  
2  0.5 500 R 600
= R  4t  12t  12t 
3
0
1 1 1
1  
= R[4 × (0.5) + 12(0.5)3 – 12(0.5)2] = R. R 500 600
2
R = 3000 
33. Answer (2)
40. Answer (2)
RS = R1 + R2
1
V2 V2 V2
  2
PS P1 P2 3
A B
1 1 1
   4
PS P1 P2 5
6
P1P2 2000 × 2000
PS  A B
P1  P2 4000
PS = 1000 W
34. Answer (3)
35. Answer (1)
0 A 0 A 20 A
Force between two straight long current carrying Cnet =  
conductors is given by d d d

0 I1I2

F  l 41. Answer (3)
2 d
F  (2)(2) 1
mv 2
  0 Kinetic energy =
l 2 d 2
F 20
Force per unit length,  1
m v2
l d E1 2 1 1 m1v12
 
36. Answer (4) E2 1 m v 2 m2v 22
Magnetic moment = current × area 2 2 2
= I × (r2) Now, As force on both particles is same
e
= ( r ) As v = u + at
2
T
q1E (2e )E
eV
( r 2 ) v1 
0 t t
= m1 m1
2r
3 q2E (2e )E
M eV V2 
0 t t
200 m2 m2
(5)
Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

 2eE 
2 0 I
m1 ×  t =     1
4 R

E1
  m1 
E2  2eE 
2
0 2
m2 ×  t =     1
 m2  4 R

0  1
E1 m2 4
  
Bnet  1 
E2 m1 2 2R  
46. Answer (3)
E1 2
 
E2 1
mv 2Km
42. Answer (4) Radius of curvature,r 
qB qB
43. Answer (4)
2m 1
20 V  
r   k
qB 2 k

r k
 
r 2k

r 1 k
 × 100 = × 100
r 2 k
R
1

Current, I
20
 10 A  × 4%
1 1 2
[ Power developed is maximum when r = R] = 2%
 Power, P = I2R 47. Answer (3)
= (10)2 × 1
10  4
= 100 W Current, I 
4
44. Answer (3)
6
Net magnetic field at O = B1 – B2 =  1.5 A
4
Where B1  Magnetic field due to large segment
Terminal voltage of the 4 volt cell,
B2  Magnetic field due to upper segment
VAB =  + Ir
0 I    0 I 
 
Bnet   2  4   4  r 4
4 r     = 4 + (1.5 × 2)

0 I  7   =7V
 
4 r  4 4 
=
48. Answer (3)
0 I  6 
=  ×  10 10
4 r  4  
Current, I  A
2  10 12
30I
= Terminal potential difference.
8r
45. Answer (1) V E  Ir
Bnet = B1 + B2 10
= 10 – ×2
B1  Magnetic field due to semi-circular loop. 12

B2  Magnetic field due to horizontal wire carrying V 

50
current. 6

0 I  I V 5

Bnet  ()  0   sin90  sin0  
4 R 4 R E 6
(6)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A)
49. Answer (3) 54. Answer (3)
10 V
20 × 20
Resistance of lamp, 
R  40 
10

4 4 Current in each lamp,I

10 1
 A
20 2
4 4 If n lamps are connected in parallel to 40 V battery,
2 2 1 40
then total current, IT = n ×  40
2
2
n
10 V
On solving, n = 20

4 55. Answer (4)


Using Kirchoff’s voltage law
– Vx + (10 + 20 + 10 + 20) – 1(1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1
4 + 2 + 1 + 1) + Vy = 0
10 V – Vx + 60 – 10 + Vy = 0
Vx – Vy = 50 V

56. Answer (3)

Eaxial 2
2 
Eequatorial 1 for short dipole
V 10
 Current, 
I   5A
R 2 2KP KP
As Eaxial  3
, and E equatorial
50. Answer (3) r r3
1A 57. Answer (2)
A B
1 2 Radius of big drop, R = 3r

1A Charge of big drop = 27q

A B
3 K (27q )
 Potential, V´ =
 VAB = IR 3r
=1×3=3V = qv
51. Answer (4)
58. Answer (2)
1
Potential energy, U  CE 2 Magnetic field at distance r due to long straight wire.
2
1 0 A 2 0 I
= E B1 [sin90  sin90]
2 x 4 r
dU 1 dx
 0 AE 2 ( 1)x 2 0 2I
dt 2 dt = 
4 r
1 v
=  0 AE 2
2
2 x r
Magnetic field at distance ,
52. Answer (2) 2
Total flux depends on the charge enclosed in closed 0 I
B
2  [2]
surface only 4 r
53. Answer (3) 2

P Q  0 2I 
 = 2  4 r 
l (100  l )  
2 Q B1 1
 
20 80  B2 2
Q=8
(7)
Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
59. Answer (4) 60. Answer (1)
S mv
r 
Bq
0.8I
m
G r
I A 0.2I B I q
Potential difference across point A and B is given by rd md q

VAB = (0.2I) × G ...(i) r qd ma
Also, VAB = (0.8I) × S ...(ii) 2mp × 2qp
= q × 4m
 0.2I × G = 0.8I × S p p

 S = 0.5  =1

CHEMISTRY
61. Answer (3) 72. Answer (1)
62. Answer (2) No. of atoms of X = 4
Arsenic sulphide sol is negatively charged sol.
1
Greater the charge on the positively charged cation, No. of atoms of Y = ×8=2
greater is the coagulation power and minimum is the 4
flocculation value. 1
No. of atoms of Z = ×4=2
63. Answer (1) 2
nf = 3 × 2 = 6  X4 Y2 Z2
73. Answer (3)
+6 2
Cr2O7 2Cr 3  Enthalpy of formation of Al2O3 is very high.
Charge, Q = 6 F 74. Answer (1)
64. Answer (1) Mn2+ : [Ar]3d5
For triclinic system, a  b  c and  90°
75. Answer (1)
65. Answer (4)
The extent of physisorption decreases with
66. Answer (1) temperature.
67. Answer (1)
76. Answer (3)
3Cu + 8HNO3 (dilute)  3Cu(NO 3)2 + 2NO + A0 kt
log 
4H2O A 2.303
68. Answer (3) M / 10 k  10
log 
Smix > 0 M / 100 2.303
69. Answer (2)  K = 0.2303 min–1 = 3.8 × 10–3 s–1
70. Answer (1) 77. Answer (4)
 1 
At cathode : H2O(l)  e  H2 (g)  OH (aq) r 60 1
2    0.25
r – 240 4
 1 
At anode : Cl (aq)  Cl2 (g)  e  Cation is present in tetrahedral void. The
2
coordination number would be four.
71. Answer (3)
No. of atoms present in ccp = 4 78. Answer (2)

No. of atoms present in bcc = 2  = iCRT

4 If i increases, osmotic pressure increases. i for
Ratio = =2:1
2 Al2(SO4)3 is 5
(8)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A)
79. Answer (1) 92. Answer (3)
For a zero order reaction, 93. Answer (2)
[R0] – [R] = kt 94. Answer (4)
[R] = [R0] – kt
NO : :N O: :N = O:
Slope = – k, Intercept = [R0]
NO2 : N N
80. Answer (2) O O O O
81. Answer (4) 95. Answer (2)

(NH4 )2 Cr2O7  N2  4H2O  Cr2O3 Due to lanthanoid contraction
82. Answer (4) 96. Answer (4)
83. Answer (1) Ecell
 ER  EL
T°f – Tf = Kf × m
1.24 ER  0.80
1.86  1.71 1000
=
342  10 ER
1.24  0.80 
 Tf = – 0.93°C ER  0.44 V
84. Answer (3)
E  0.44 V
Fe2  /Fe
85. Answer (1)
97. Answer (1)
A0 – A = kt
98. Answer (1)
A 0  A 1.2  103  0
t  1 d[SO3 ]
k 6  3  10 3
= 200 s 2 dt
86. Answer (3) d[SO3 ]
 6  10 3 mol L1s 1
87. Answer (1) dt
99. Answer (4)
Ba(NO3 )2  Ba2  2NO3
1 XeF4  SbF5  [XeF3 ] [SbF6 ]
1–  2 100. Answer (2)
Total no. of moles after dissociation = 1 + 2 [CoF6]3– has sp3d2 hybridisation.
i = 1 + 2 = 1 + 0.87 × 2 101. Answer (3)
= 2.74
NO2 is an ambidentate ligand.
88. Answer (3)
102. Answer (3)
89. Answer (1)
  eg
2a + 0.6 0
Closest distance =     
2 d7
– 0.4 0
 
2
= × 4.07 = 2.88 Å t2g
2
CFSE = – 5 × 0.4 0 + 2 × 0.6 0
90. Answer (1)
= – 0.8 0
P  PA0  XA  PB0  XB
103. Answer (2)

PB0 
P  PA0  XA  x–6=–4
XB x=+2
70   40  0.6  104. Answer (2)

0.4 Ea
= 115 mm Hg  2000
R
91. Answer (1) Ea = 2000 × 2 = 4 kcal
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Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
105. Answer (1) Cis isomer is optically active
O 115. Answer (3)
P
HO OH OH 
 G 
Orthophosphoric acid, H3PO4 a
106. Answer (4)

K 2Cr2O7  4NaCl  6H2SO 4   2KHSO4 
 1.12  102  1cm1  65 
4NaHSO4  2CrO2Cl2  2H2O a
(Orange  red
vapours) = 0.728 cm–1
107. Answer (2)
116. Answer (2)
108. Answer (2)
117. Answer (1)
109. Answer (1)
118. Answer (4)
110. Answer (1)
Cr3+ : [Ar]3d3 119. Answer (4)
 3(3  2)  3.87B.M.
15 120. Answer (3)
111. Answer (2) [Ni(CN)4]2– :
K4[Fe(CN)6]  4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–
       
112. Answer (1) 3d 4s 4p
113. Answer (1) dsp2
114. Answer (1)
CN– is a strong field ligand. So, the complex is
Cl Cl square planar.
H3N Cl H3N NH3
Co Co [NiCl 4 ] 2– :
NH3 NH3
H3N H3N         
NH3 Cl
3d 4s 4p
(Cis) (Trans) sp3
Cl Cl Cl – is a weak field ligand. So, the complex is
H3N Cl Cl NH3 tetrahedral.
Co Co
H3N NH3 H3N NH3
NH3 NH3

BIOLOGY
121. Answer (4) 129. Answer (4)
Not correlated with size, complexity and All three options are correct.
chromosomal number.
130. Answer (1)
122. Answer (3)
Several months in - Fabaceae, Rosaceae &
123. Answer (4) Solanaceae.
124. Answer (4) 131. Answer (2)
125. Answer (1) Bitegmic ovules - Monocots and members of
polypetalae.
126. Answer (3)
Neelakuranji and Bamboo are monocarpic. 132. Answer (2)

127. Answer (2) 133. Answer (3)

Apple - 34(2n), 17(n) Tetrasporic embryo sac - Fritillaria.

128. Answer (2) 134. Answer (2)

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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A)
135. Answer (2) Ootid formation or mature ovum formation occurs
136. Answer (3) after the fusion of sperm with secondary oocyte.

Coconut - Albuminous seed. Black pepper and beet 160. Answer (4)
- Perispermic seed. 161. Answer (4)
137. Answer (3) 162. Answer (3)
138. Answer (3) 163. Answer (3)
139. Answer (1) When the implantation begin trophoblast divide and
differentiate into syncytiotrophoblast and
140. Answer (1)
cytiotrophoblast.
Recessive epistasis = 9 : 3 : 4
164. Answer (4)
141. Answer (1)
165. Answer (3)
142. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3)

Genic balance  
X 2 167. Answer (2)
  0.67 (Intersex)
A 3 Darwin and Wallace visited different island and first
143. Answer (4) autotrophs was chemoautotrophs which obtain or
synthesize food breaking down of chemical.
144. Answer (2)
168. Answer (1)
145. Answer (2)
169. Answer (1)
146. Answer (4)
Founder effect may result into increased or
147. Answer (2) decreased frequency of particular allele. It does not
Gynaecomastia and testicular atrophy - Klinefelter’s always result into increased frequency of particular
syndrome. allele.
148. Answer (3) 170. Answer (4)
149. Answer (3) 171. Answer (3)
Five DNA polymerase (, , ,  & ) – Eukaryotic 172. Answer (2)
cells.
173. Answer (2)
150. Answer (2)
174. Answer (4)
151. Answer (2)
175. Answer (4)
152. Answer (1)
176. Answer (2)
153. Answer (1)
177. Answer (1)
154. Answer (1) 178. Answer (4)
155. Answer (2) Organic evolution is change of simple organism into
156. Answer (3) complex organism over the time. Urey and Miller
theory only explain chemical origin of life.
157. Answer (1)
179. Answer (1)
158. Answer (4)
159. Answer (4) 180. Answer (1)

LOGICAL AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING

181. Answer (3) 184. Answer (2)

182. Answer (1) 37 = 62 + 1
50 = 72 + 1
183. Answer (1)
65 = 82 + 1
(A + B) – (B + C) = 12
82 = 92 + 1
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Answers & Hints of Test-03 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
185. Answer (3) 188. Answer (3)
186. Answer (1) 189. Answer (2)
187. Answer (4) 190. Answer (1)

ENGLISH AND COMPREHENSION

191. Answer (1) 196. Answer (2)

192. Answer (4) 197. Answer (3)
193. Answer (3) 198. Answer (4)
194. Answer (4) 199. Answer (2)
195. Answer (3) 200. Answer (4)

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