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VMCE_V9.exam.

104q

Number: VMCE_V9
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min

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VMCE_V9

Veeam Certified Engineer (VMCE) Certification v9

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Exam A

QUESTION 1
When is the full backup created in a backup copy job for each GFS retention point?

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A. Never. Backup copy jobs do not use full backups.


B. After the simple retention policy is met and the .vbk has been updated to the scheduled date
C. On the day that the full backupis scheduled
D. Each GFS point is made when an active full is run on the backup.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 2
When should SQL Server Standard (or higher) be deployed for the instance used by Veeam Backup & Replication instead of the SQL Server Express instance
installed by default?

A. Veeam Backup Administrator chooses to keep the database remote


B. Enterprise Plus version is used
C. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager is installed
D. For the large-scale environments

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job. A Windows-based server is used as a repository. Which placement of the Veeam Data Mover
Service(s) would result in the most optimal configuration?

A. One - at the remote target site


B. One - at the production site
C. At least two - one at the production site and one at the remote site
D. Veeam Data Mover services are not required to transfer data offsite

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which backup method is described below? “After a full VM backup is created, subsequent backups are incremental. Only data blocks that have changed since the
last job run are backed up. All the changes are injected into the created .vbk file to rebuild it to the most recent state of a VM.”

A. Forever forward incremental backup


B. Reverse incremental backup
C. Forward incremental backup with synthetic fulls with transform to rollbacks
D. Forward incremental backup

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 5
During the SureBackup job execution, redo logs are created for each verified VM. Where are the redo logs for the job located?

A. In a special folder of the Backup & Replication server


B. In the backup file itself
C. On the datastore specified in SureBackup job settings

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D. On the backup repository
E. On the datastore specified in Virtual Lab settings

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 6
Extreme compression produces the smallest backup file, but it may also reduce:

A. Backup performance
B. Time needed to perform a backup
C. Blocks of free space
D. Identical blocks of data

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Extreme compression provides the smallest size of the backup file but reduces the backup performance
References:

QUESTION 7
Which editions of Veeam Backup & Replication include Backup from Storage Snapshots?

A. All Enterprise Plus Editions


B. Enterprise Plus Edition for Hyper-V only
C. Standard, Enterprise and Enterprise Plus Edition for Hyper-V
D. Standard, Enterprise and Enterprise Plus Edition for VMware
E. Enterprise Plus Edition for VMware only

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 8
From within which of the following software products can the Veeam Backup & Replication Infrastructure be remotely monitored when plug-ins/add-ons are
installed? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

A. Continuum
B. GFI MAX
C. Kaseya
D. LabTech
E. N-Able

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path of a backup job?

A. Warnings
B. “Action”log
C. Processing rate
D. Bottleneck statistics

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 10
Which of the following Veeam products can estimate the required free space needed on target backup repositories?

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A. Veeam ONE
B. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager
C. Veeam Backup & Replication
D. Veeam plug-in for vSphere Web Client

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Is it possible to switch between backup modes when creating regular backup files?

A. Yes, the new mode will transform all existing backups in the appropriate way and continue creating backups in the same backup repository.
B. Yes, in this case you will have to specify a new backup repository.
C. Yes, the new mode leaves existing backups as they are and continues creating backups in the same backup repository.
D. No, if you want to create backups using another mode, you have to create another backup job.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 12
Which Veeam Backup & Replication component or service should be added to the scenario below in order to optimize backups to an off-site CIFS share?

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A. In additional backup repository in the remote site
B. A WAN Accelerator service in the remote location
C. An additional Data Mover service on the Veeam Backup & Replication server
D. A Windows-based gateway server in the remote site

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the function of the guest integration proxy component?

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A. Deploys a Veeam persistent agent on every Windows VM to be processed
B. Mounts the VM file system for browsing purposes when performing a restore to remote site
C. Deploys a temporary runtime coordination process on every Windows VM to be processed
D. Processes VM data, taking the load off the Veeam backup server

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/vsphere/guest_interaction_proxy.html

QUESTION 14
Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again.
How many restore points will this replica from backup job create?

A. None
B. One
C. Three

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Although replica from backup might resemble replica seeding, there is difference between these options:
Replica seeding uses the backup file only during the first run of a replication job. To further build VM replica restore points, the replication job addresses the
production environment and reads VM data from the source storage.
Remote replica from backup uses a backup chain on the backup repository as the only source of data. When building a new VM replica restore point,
Veeam Backup & Replication always reads data from the latest restore point in the backup chain, either full or incremental. The backup chain on the backup
repository may be created with a backup job or a backup copy job.

QUESTION 15
What is replica metadata used for?

A. Storinga set of VM configuration files


B. Storing replica temporary cache

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C. Detecting changed blocks of data between two replica states

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Replica metadata used to store replica checksums. Veeam Backup & Replication uses this file to quickly detect changed blocks of data between two replica states.
A metadata file is written to the backup repository.

References:

QUESTION 16
Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recovery? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

A. VMware Storage vMotion


B. Failback
C. Permanent failover
D. FileCopy
E. Quick Migration

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 17
Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing?

A. Backup copy job


B. Replication job
C. Backup job
D. All of the above are affected by parallel processing

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Backup copy jobs do not support parallel processing.
References:

QUESTION 18
Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)

A. Export an object/container to a local folder or network drive


B. Search for an object/container
C. Restore an object/container to a location which is different from original
D. Send an object/container as an attachment via email
E. Export an object/container as a Personal Folder File (.pst)

Correct Answer: ABC


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 19
When configuring an On-Demand Sandbox, when should the Backup Administrator indicate that the Application Group should keep running once the job
completes?

A. When running a SureBackup job


B. When configuring a SureBackup job
C. When configuring a Virtual Lab
D. When creating an Application Group

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 20
What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose the 2
appropriate options)

A. Lower impact on WAN link


B. Lower impact on production storage
C. Lower RPO
D. Lower RTO
E. Higher transfer speed

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 21
Which job type cannot be set to use job-level encryption? (Choose two).

A. Backup copy job


B. Configuration backup
C. Backup to tape
D. Replication job
E. Backup job

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/encrypted_jobs.html?ver=95

QUESTION 22
Which of the following are true regarding a synthetic full backup as compared to an active full backup? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

A. In terms of content and retention,the synthetic full backup file is identical to an active full backup file.

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B. Synthetic full backups consume more of network bandwidth.


C. If the backup repository performance is weak, creating synthetic fulls is the best choice.
D. The synthetic full backup file has a .vsb extension whereas the active full has a .vbk extension
E. Synthetic fulls impose less load on the production environment.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 23
How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?

A. Install the Veeam Backup ReplicationRemote Console on a workstation


B. Create a Business View categoryin Veeam ONE
C. Use Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager roles
D. Create an Active Directory Universal Group

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 24
When VMware vSphere CBT is not available, Veeam Backup & Replication:

A. Uses Veeam’s proprietary

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B. Sends an e-mail alert that VMware vSphere CBT is disabled
C. Resets VMware vSphere CBT which requires to power the VM off
D. Runs a new active full backup

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 25
Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

A. Analyzes the system, installs and upgrades necessary components and services depending on the role selected for the server
B. Deploys and coordinates executable modules that perform main job activities on behalf of Veeam Backup & Replication
C. Performs data compression, deduplication and data transfer
D. Communicates with the VSS framework during backup, replication and other jobs, and performing recovery tasks

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 26
It was decided to set up Veeam Backup & Replication to ensure parallel tasks do not impact production storage availability. Which parameters should be adjusted in
the I/O Control section of the menu to do this? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

A. Throttle I/O of existing tasks at:


B. Turn off parallel processing at:
C. Stop assigning new tasks to datastore at:
D. Stop processing until the latencyis lower than:

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 27
A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery
process?

A. Unmount the Instant Recovery VM


B. Stop publishing
C. Migrate to production
D. Delete the Instant Recovery VM

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 28
Is it possible to create an active full backup manually?

A. Yes, but only via PowerShell.


B. Yes, but only using the Active Full option from the shortcut menu of a corresponding job.
C. No, active full backups can be created only according to the schedule.
D. Yes, but only if the forward incremental backup mode is used.
E. Yes, using the Active Full option from the shortcut menu of a corresponding job or through PowerShell.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/hyperv/active_full_backup.html

QUESTION 29
Which types of data are included in a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

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A. Backup infrastructure configuration data
B. Full backup of Veeam Backup & Replication Oracle database
C. Full backup of Veeam Backup & Replication SQL database
D. Replication job configuration
E. SMTP settings

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore
point on the target backup repository?

A. Backup repository type


B. Encryption key
C. Data block size
D. Creation frequency

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The data block size for restore points on the target backup repository is set at the first synchronization cycle of the backup copy job.
References:

QUESTION 31
Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups?

A. Speeds up the backup process.


B. Decreases the amount of time the VM is running on a VMware snapshot.
C. Helps you avoid creating a VMware snapshot.

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D. Saves space in the repository.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 32
Which Virtual Lab configurations are available when configuring recovery verification for replicas? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)

A. Basic multi-host
B. Advanced multi-host
C. Advanced single-host
D. Basic single-host
E. Basic single-network
F. Advanced multi-network

Correct Answer: BCD


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 33
Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched?

A. Replica seeding
B. SureReplica
C. Failback of the Replica VM
D. Planned Failover of the Replica VM

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:

QUESTION 34
Which HPE SAN storage systems are supported by the Backup from Storage Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose the 3 appropriate
options)

A. HPE StoreVirtual
B. HPE EVA Р6000
C. HPE MSA
D. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
E. HPE StoreServ

Correct Answer: ADE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 35
Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can leverage storage snapshots? (Choose two.)

A. Backup
B. Replication
C. Backup Copy
D. VM Copy

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.)

A. Remote access
B. A mount server in remote restore scenarios

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C. A configuration backup repository
D. Remote PowerShell capabilities
E. A default backup proxy

Correct Answer: BCD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

A. Backup jobs are performed on a regular basis


B. Backup jobs run continuously
C. Each backup job serves as a source for an appropriate replication job
D. Backup jobs can be started manually at any time

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Continuous replication is more reasonable if you want to get minimal RPO (in this case each subsequent job run will start on completion of the previous job run, so
the RPO will be equal to the time required to complete a job).

QUESTION 38
Veeam Backup & Replication supports which of the following NetApp Data ONTAP modes?

A. Clustered Data ONTAP only


B. 7-mode only
C. Both 7-mode and Clustered Data ONTAP

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
vPower technology is used to enable which of the following features? (Choose three.)

A. Replica Failback
B. SureBackup
C. Veeam Explorer for Active Directory
D. Instant VM Recovery
E. Multi-OS File-Level Recovery

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.vladan.fr/use-veeam-backup-nfs-used-storing-isos-vmware-vsphere-infrastructure/

QUESTION 40
Which of the following conditions require Microsoft VSS rather than VMware quiescence? (Choose two.)

A. You want to enable point-in-time restore for a Microsoft SQL server


B. The VM in question is a Linux VM
C. You want Veeam to truncate backup logs for your Exchange server
D. You want to use reverse incremental backup mode
E. The backup data is to be encrypted

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Which of the following are true regarding Quick Backup? (Choose two.)

A. Quick Backup can be run for both incremental and reverse incremental backup chains.

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B. A full backup file will be created by Quick Backup if one does not already exist.
C. Quick Backup is supported for separate vCloud Director VMs as well as for vApps.
D. From the retention policy perspective, a partial restore point created by Quick Backup is grouped with a regular restore point neighboring it.

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Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/quick_backup.html?ver=95

QUESTION 42
Which data is NOT included in a configuration backup?

A. SMTP settings
B. Backup infrastructure configuration data
C. Replication job configuration
D. All of the above is included

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Where is the Veeam CBT filter driver installed?

A. On every managed backup proxy


B. On every managed server
C. On every managed VMware server

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D. On every managed Hyper-V or SMB 3.0 server

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/changed_block_tracking.html?ver=95

QUESTION 44
Which of the following is correct regarding Direct NFS Access transport mode? (Choose two.)

A. The SCSI hot-add capability of ESXi hosts to attach disks of the backed up VM to the backup proxy VM is used
B. VM data is transferred over the LAN
C. You can select to failover to this mode, if primary transport modes fail or are unavailable
D. Direct NFS mode can be used for restores

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is the extension of a configuration backup file?

A. The file extension is specified in the configuration backup settings.


B. .bco
C. .vbm
D. .cbo
E. .vbk

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 46
Which of the following best describes the Snapshot Hunter feature?

A. Veeam ONE dashboard used to detect orphaned VMware vSphere snapshots that may remain after backup or replication job sessions
B. A part of Veeam Explorer for Storage Snapshots responsible for locating the required snapshot for restore
C. A Veeam technology used to detect and remove orphaned VMware vSphere snapshots that may remain after backup or replication job sessions
D. A Veeam CBT filter driver, used for Instant Recovery in the Microsoft Hyper-V environments

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/snapshot_hunter.html?ver=95

QUESTION 47
Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

A. Veeam ONE is a prerequisite for Veeam Backup & Replication installation


B. Veeam ONE can access the infrastructure for potential issues prior to performing backup
C. It is recommended to add all of the servers involved in the backup process to Veeam ONE first, and then import the configuration to Veeam Backup &
Replication
D. Veeam ONE can verify the server you’re going to install Veeam Backup and Replication on meets all system requirements

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup?

A. A new .vib file is created, no transform operation is involved.


B. A transform operation re-builds the oldest full backup file in the chain to include changes of the incremental backup following the full backup.
C. Veeam Backup & Replication immediately deletes the earliest increment, no transform operation is involved.
D. Veeam Backup & Replication deletes the oldest full backup file with the following chain of increments.

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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
After the Failover Now option is chosen and a Replica VM is started up on the DR side, which options are available? (Choose three.)

A. VMware Storage vMotion


B. Failback
C. Planned Failover
D. Permanent Failover
E. Undo failover
F. Quick Migration

Correct Answer: BDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.veeam.com/blog/replicating-vmware-vms-with-veeam-everything-you-need-to-know-about-replica-failover.html

QUESTION 50
A virtual machine has been permanently deleted in production but a replica is running in the Disaster Recovery data center. Which strategy would failback the virtual
machine to production while saving both recovery time and network utilization?

A. Perform failback through WAN accelerators


B. Manually enable parallel processing for failback operation
C. Restore this VM up-front from a backup and then perform a failback

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 51
If the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, the disruptions to the backup process can be avoided by:

A. Adjusting the compression and deduplication settings for this job


B. Making a direct backup using WAN Accelerators
C. Making a backup locally and utilizing WAN Accelerators for the backup copy job

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
When performing SureBackup recovery verification, Veeam Backup & Replication powers VMs from the Application Group according to what order?

A. No order. VMs are started in parallel


B. The order of priority as specified in the Application Group settings
C. The order as they appear in the schedule
D. The order specified in the Virtual Lab settings

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Which of the following editions introduces the Scale-Out Backup Repository feature?

A. Standard
B. VeeamZIP (free)
C. Enterprise
D. Enterprise Plus

Correct Answer: C

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.veeam.com/blog/introducing-scale-out-backup-repository-coming-in-availability-suite-v9.html

QUESTION 54
Choose the correct statements about Veeam Backup & Replication. (Choose two.)

A. Performs deep real-time VM monitoring


B. Allows cross-hypervisor restores.
C. Allows restoring VMs to new locations.
D. Delivers zero downtime in case of disaster or disruption.
E. Can restore several VMs at once.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Veeam Explorer for Oracle offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

A. Browsing Oracle system hierarchy


B. Sending Oracle tables as attachments via email
C. Restoring an Oracle database to the state before the selected transaction
D. Restoring Oracle databases to the original server or different server

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/explorers/veo_before_start.html?ver=95

QUESTION 56
Which component is used by Veeam Backup & Replication to transfer data from the Veeam Backup Proxy to an HPE StoreOnce deduplication appliance?

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A. Proxy appliance
B. HPE Catalyst
C. Gateway server
D. VeeamZIP
E. Backup repository

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/deduplicating_appliance_storeonce.html?ver=95

QUESTION 57
What is the lowest interval at which a replication job can be scheduled?

A. Every hour
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 5 minutes
D. Every 20 seconds
E. Continuously

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 58
HOTSPOT
In the VeeamWAN folder created by the Veeam Backup & Replication WAN accelerator, select the correct type of source and target data stored in the VeeamWAN
folder:

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Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Which of the following is the optimal mechanism to provide multiple users with access to a VM running in a Virual Lab?

A. Deploy multiple Proxy Appliances


B. Configure Static IP Mapping in the Virtual Lab configuration
C. Add a static routing table to the user’s PC
D. Register an alias record in the verified DNS server for the production IP address of the Veeam Backup Server

Correct Answer: B

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 60
A Backup Administrator must perform a backup of a VM running a highly-transactional Microsoft SQL Server. Point-in-time database recovery is a requirement.
Which options must the Backup Administrator select in order for the Backup Job to provide the proper level of recovery? (Choose two.)

A. Enable guest file system indexing


B. Schedule the job to run every 15 minutes
C. Backup SQL transaction logs
D. Enable application-aware processing
E. Require successful script execution

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/evaluation/backup/vsphere/en/sql_backup_and_restore.html

QUESTION 61
Once it has been deployed and data has been collected, which Veeam product can estimate when Backup Repositories will run out of disk space and will tell you
how much more disk space you will need if you continue doing backups the same way?

A. Veeam Deployment Analyzer


B. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager
C. Veeam ONE
D. Veeam Backup & Replication

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 62
Which Dell EMC SAN storage systems are compatible with the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

A. Dell EMC ISILON


B. Dell EMC Data Domain
C. Dell EMC VNX, VNXe and VNX2
D. Dell EMC Unity

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.veeam.com/backup-from-storage-snapshots.html

QUESTION 63
What is the name of the process Veeam creates for each remote console session?

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A. Satellite
B. Transport
C. Gateway
D. Data Mover

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 64
Which of the following built-in predefined tests can be performed to verify that a VM replica started in a Virtual Lab? (Choose three.)

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A. Memory test
B. Ping test
C. Application test
D. CRC check
E. Heartbeat test
F. Hard drive test

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/surebackup_tests.html?ver=95

QUESTION 65
Which of the following are benefits of using DD Boost integration with Dell EMC Data Domain in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose three.)

A. Lowernetwork usage
B. Enhanced synthetic full backup creation
C. Support for Reverse Incremental Backup Mode
D. Lower Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
E. Managed File Replication leveraged by Backup & Replication for Backup Copy Jobs

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 66
Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature or component is able to utilize SQL transaction log backups for point-in-time restore?

A. U-AIR Microsoft SQL Recovery wizard


B. Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL
C. Full VM Restore

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D. Instant Recovery

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 67
Which is a prerequisite in order for the CRC check to be executed during a SureBackup Job?

A. The .vbm file is corrupt


B. The repository the backup is stored at is an SMB share
C. One or more of the SureBackup recovery verification tests failed
D. The Backup file integrity check option was enabled in the SureBackup job settings

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 68
Your Veeam Backup & Replication environment currently has three Backup Jobs, each containing a single virtual machine with three restore points. You configure a
new Backup Copy Job, add all three virtual machines and wait for the first initial copy to complete. Depending on the Simple Backup Repository configuration, how
many VBK files will be created on the Simple Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

A. One VBK file per virtual machine, in total three VBK files. Additionally, one VIB file per existing restore points, in total 6 VIB files
B. One VBK file per virtual machine, in total three VBK files
C. One VBK file in total. Additionally, one VIB file per existing restore points, in total 6 VIB files
D. One VBK file in total

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:

QUESTION 69
Which of the following is a limitation imposed on Native Tape Support in Veeam Backup & Replication Standard Edition?

A. There are no limitations regarding Native Tape Support in Standard edition compared to Enterprise edition
B. Only File-to-Tape jobs are allowed
C. You can only perform backups via VeeamZIP
D. Jobs are launched manually only

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 70
In a Veeam Backup & Replication simple deployment scenario, the Veeam Backup Server performs the following roles:
-It functions as a management point, coordinates all jobs, controls their scheduling and performs other administrative activities.
-It is used as the default backup repository.
-It is used as a mount server and guest interaction proxy.

On which drive is the Default Backup Repository stored?

A. The drive of the Veeam Backup Server with the greatest amount of free disk space at the moment of installation
B. The largest capacity drive of the Veeam Backup Server
C. Always the C:\ drive of the Veeam Backup Server
D. The setup wizard prompts on which drive to place the Default Backup Repository during installation of Veeam Backup & Replication
E. The datastore where the source VM is located

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 71

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Which of the following can be restored from tape using Veeam backup& Replication? (Choose two.)

A. Full virtual machine directly back to the production hypervisor


B. Application Items, using Veeam Explorers, directly back to the production virtual machine
C. Guest OS files directly back to the production virtual machine
D. Full virtual machine via a staging area back to the hypervisor
E. Host IP Configuration

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 72
Which of the following are benefits utilizing the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vSphere environment?
(Choose two.)

A. Lower Recovery PointObjective (RPO)


B. Lower impact on WAN link during off-site backups
C. Lower impact on production datastores
D. Higher transfer speed from production datastores
E. Lower Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 73
What would be the primary benefit of replication from backup files compared to a regular replication process?

A. Higher speed of transfer over the WAN link


B. Lower RTO
C. Lower RPO

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D. Lower impact on production storage

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.veeam.com/backup-version-standard-enterprise-editions-comparison.html

QUESTION 74
After selecting Incremental mode in the job settings, which setting is required to ensure Forever Forward Incremental Backup Mode is configured?

A. Disable synthetic full backups and active full backups


B. Enable the “Transform previous backup chains into rollbacks” box
C. Enable synthetic full backups and/or active full backups
D. Enable the “Use Forever Forward Incremental” box

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/incremental_forever_backup.html?ver=95

QUESTION 75
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Cloud Connect feature?

A. Veeam Backup& Replication creates its own cloud for storing VM data
B. Both service providers and tenants have to own a special type of Veeam Cloud Connect license
C. Veeam Backup & Replication offers data encryption capabilities to protect data stored in the cloud
D. Backup Copy Jobs, utilizing a Cloud Repository as a source Backup Repository, are supported

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:

QUESTION 76
Which of the following statements are true when backing up a Microsoft Exchange 2016 server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

A. The Microsoft VSS is unable to quiesce/ freeze Microsoft Exchange for more than 20 seconds
B. It is important to utilize native hypervisor quiescence instead of Microsoft VSS
C. The Microsoft Exchange VSS Writer will need to be manually installed, otherwise the backup will not be in a consistent state. This can result in data loss during
restores
D. If Microsoft Exchange has to be kept frozen for more than 20 seconds, the Veeam VSS writer holds the freeze operation for the necessary amount of time

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/persistent_snapshots.html?ver=95

QUESTION 77
When is it NOT possible to use the single-host configuration for SureReplica verification?

A. When static IP Mapping will be used to verify at least some of the VM replicas
B. When the VM replicas being verified are on separate ESXi hosts
C. When the Virtual Lab is created on the same ESXi host where VMs replicas are located
D. When all the VM replicas being verified are connected to different networks

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/surereplica_vlab_limitations.html?ver=95

QUESTION 78
Which mechanism allows network traffic to flow into the virtual lab while protecting the production environment from the contents of the virtual lab?

A. Configured alias record in the production DNS server

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B. Configured alias record at the proxy appliance
C. A routing table configured in VirtualLab settings
D. Veeam’s proprietary filtering mechanism
E. IP Masquerading

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/surebackup_ip_masquerading.html?ver=95

QUESTION 79
A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job and wants to store the backups on a NFS share at the remote site. Which of the following actions
would result in the most optimal configuration?

A. The scenario is not supported


B. Place on Veeam Data Mover Service at the production site
C. Place one Veeam Data Mover Service at the remote site
D. Mount the NFS share on a Linux server at the remote site, then add the server as a Veeam Backup Repository
E. Mount the NFS share on a Linux server at the production site, then add the server as a Veeam Backup Repository

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 80
Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

A. Automatically deleting a VeeamZIP backup after a certain time interval is not possible if created through VMware vSphere Web Client
B. To open Veeam ONE reports, accounts must also be included in the Veeam ONE Users or Veeam ONE Administrators groups
C. Encrypted backups are not possible if created through VMware vSphere Web Client
D. The Backup sub-menu offers three options: VeeamZIP, VeeamZIP to …, and QuickBackup

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Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/em/em_vmware_web_veeamzip.html?ver=95

QUESTION 81
Veeam Backup & Replication provides specific integration with which the following deduplicating storage appliances? (Choose three.)

A. FalconStor
B. HPE StoreOnce
C. ExaGrid
D. NEC HYDRAstor
E. EMC Data Domain

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://bp.veeam.expert/resource_planning/repository_type_dedupe.html

QUESTION 82
Which of the following is leveraged as part of the “Network Mode” transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vSphere environments?

A. VMware VIX API


B. VMware VADP
C. SCSI hot-add capability
D. NFS client

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/transport_modes.html?ver=95

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QUESTION 83
Which of the following is the extension of a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup file?

A. .bco
B. .vbk
C. .vbm
D. .cbo
E. The file extension is specified in the configuration backup settings.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/export_vbr_config.html?ver=95

QUESTION 84
Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered?

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A. When it is necessary to limit the maximum throughput of traffic going from source to target data mover services
B. When it is required to keep production storage availability from being impacted by the load from backup tasks
C. When the network capacity is not sufficient to support multiple data transfer connections
D. When the backup traffic must be routed to a specific network

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/select_backup_network.html?ver=95

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QUESTION 85
When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

A. If the original backup file is not encrypted


B. If the “Tape protection” option is selected by the user
C. If the hardware encryption is disabled at the tape device level or not supported
D. By default for all of the tape jobs

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/encryption_tape.html?ver=95

QUESTION 86
If the deduplication settings are changed for an existing job, when will the new settings be applied?

A. Only when a new active full backup is created


B. At the next run of the job
C. Only when you rescan the repository that stores the backup files
D. Only when any kind of full backup is created

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/backup_copy_settings_storage.html?ver=95 (see note)

QUESTION 87
When a Windows server is added to Veeam Backup & Replication using the Add Server Wizard, which components are always installed to the server?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

A. Veeam Installer Service


B. Veeam Data Mover Service
C. Veeam Backup Restful API Service
D. Veeam Backup Shell

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Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/windows_server_before_begin.html?ver=95

QUESTION 88
Which of the following is required to enable Tape Parallel Processing?

A. The source repository for the tape job is a Scale-Out Backup Repository
B. The tape library has multiple drives
C. Two tape jobs are processes at the same time
D. The tape drive has multiple tapes

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/free/parallel_processing.html

QUESTION 89
Which of the following object types can be added to the “Add Objects” option when creating a backup job?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

A. VMs grouped by vApp


B. VMs grouped by vSwitch
C. VMs grouped by SMB3 file share
D. VMs grouped by vSphere tag
E. VMs grouped by Folder
F. VMs grouped by Veeam ONE business view category

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 90
Which of the following best describes VMware Tools quiescence?

A. Optimizing the data size of the VM backup files


B. Quiescing the VM but no application-specific will be performed
C. Creating a file index for the VM guest OS during backup
D. Truncating the application logs upon successful backup

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/quiescence_choice.html?ver=95

QUESTION 91
When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting?

A. If LabTech is installed in the infrastructure


B. If Microsoft System Center Operations Manager is installed in the infrastructure
C. If the infrastructure contains Microsoft Hyper-V hosts
D. If more than 6 sockets need to be protected

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 92
Which permission roles can be assigned in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager for delegation of responsibilities?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

A. Restore Operator
B. db_owner
C. Portal Administrator

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D. Power User
E. Portal User

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/em/veeam_backup_em_roles.html?ver=95

QUESTION 93
Which prerequisites are necessary in order to complete a configuration restore on a Veeam Backup & Replication v9.5 Backup Server?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

A. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager is installed


B. All Veeam Backup & Replication jobs are stopped
C. All of the servers added to the Veeam Backup & Replication infrastructure are online
D. None of the jobs are targeting the repository where the configuration backup is located
E. Configuration Backup was created using version 8.0 Update 3 or newer

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 94
Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

A. Exagrid deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server


B. EMC DataDomain deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server
C. Veeam vPower NFS Service is only supported on Linux based Backup Repositories
D. HPE StoreOnce deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server
E. Veeam vPower NFS Service is supported on both Windows based and Linux based Backup Repositories

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95
Which of the following suggestions is considered best practices for the Veeam Backup & Replication integration with Dell EMC Data Domain?

A. Ensure parallel processing is disabled for jobs targeting Dell EMC Data Domain backup repository
B. Locate the gateway server close to the deduplication appliance
C. Ensure the reverse incremental backup method is utilized
D. Ensure the high compression level is utilized

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 96
Which can be used if the user key for an encrypted backup is forgotten or lost?

A. Veeam Support can supply a metakey after employee and company identity has been verified
B. There is no way to restore the data in this case
C. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager can decrypt using a master key – also called Enterprise Manager key
D. Veeam ONE Encryption Key report will provide all required password(s)
E. Veeam Search Server can scan all credentials and report if any saved credential will decrypt the data

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/em/em_manage_keys.html?ver=95

QUESTION 97
A Backup Administrator has setup a Backup Job, utilizing Reverse Incremental backup mode. After the first successful backup, an On-Demand Sandbox is
deployed and started. How will the On-Demand Sandbox be affected if the Backup Job is started?

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A. The On-Demand Sandbox will not be affected and the Backup Job will start as scheduled
B. Veeam Backup & Replication automatically powers off virtual machines in the On-Demand Sandbox/Virtual Lab and stops the SureBackup job immediately
C. The SureBackup job will fail immediately
D. The backup job will fail immediately

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 98
What is the purpose of scheduling a virtual synthesized full backup for tape jobs? (Choose two.)

A. To avoid copying a full VBK file to tape from the source Reverse Incremental Backup Job
B. To be able to offload forever forward incremental backups to tape
C. To be able to restore files and folders from tape
D. To be able to create the synthetic full backup directly on tape

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99
Is it possible to disable parallel processing for only one replication job configured to use the Direct Data Transfer mode?

A. Yes, it is possible
B. No, parallel processing is only applicable to backup jobs
C. No, parallel processing is a global setting
D. Yes, it is possible – but only if you configure replica seeding

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/data_processing_modes.html?ver=95

QUESTION 100
How are VMware replica restoring points stored at the target host?

A. As virtual machine snapshot(s)


B. As incremental .vib files
C. As incremental .vrb files
D. As full .vbk files

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/replica_settings_vm.html?ver=95

QUESTION 101
Which predefined test performed on the Application Group during verification differs between SureReplica and SureBackup jobs?

A. The application test is different for SureBackup and SureReplica


B. There is no heartbeat test for SureReplica
C. There is no difference
D. There is no ping test for SureReplica

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 102
What advantage would be served by using Backup from Storage Snapshots on NetApp SnapMirror or SnapVault?

A. To minimize the space that the resulting backup chain occupies on the backup storage

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B. To maximize deduplication
C. To minimize the load on the backup storage during the backup process
D. To minimize the load on the production storage during the backup process

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103
Does the Planned Failover feature shut down the production VM?

A. A pop-up window prompts the user to choose whether the production VM should shut down
B. No, but the production VM is temporarily suspended
C. No, the production VM will keep running
D. Yes

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.veeam.com/vm-advanced-replication.html

QUESTION 104
Choose the correct statements about the Failover Plan functionality: (Choose two.)

A. Undo failover can be performed for the entire Failover Plan group
B. The whole Failover Plan group can be failed back using the Commit failback option
C. Failover Plans must be created in advance of a disaster situation
D. A Failover Plan is permanent recovery solution that doesn’t need to be finalized

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/cloud/cloud_failover_plan_overview.html?ver=95

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