Performance

Total 917
Questions
performance
PERFORMANCE CLASS B – SINGLE ENGINE - Definitions of terms and speeds used
Question 4mm of rain is covering a runway. The runway is:
Choices Answers Correct

A Contaminated A
B Damp
C Wet
D Flooded
Ref CPL A AND ATPL A
Question VLO is defined as:

A Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground
B Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground
C The maximum speed for landing gear operation C
D The long range cruise speed
Question The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is:

A The point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve A
B The lowest point of the drag curve
C At stalling speed (VS)
D On the 'back side' of the drag curve
Question The speed VS is defined as

A speed for best specific range
B safety speed for take off in case of a contaminated runway
C design stress speed
D stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable D
Question The rate of climb:

A Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100 A
performance
Question The rate of climb:
B Is the downhill component of the true airspeed

C Is angle of climb times true airspeed
D Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
Question The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing
configuration is abbreviated as
A VSO A
B VS1
C VS
D VMC
Question The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of:

A The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage
B The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage B
C True airspeed to rate of climb
D Rate of climb to true airspeed
Question The Density Altitude:

A is used to establish minimum clearance of 2,000 feet over mountains
B is equal to the pressure altitude
C is used to determine the aeroplane performance C
D is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude
Question The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by

A increasing the CAS
B increasing the TAS
C decreasing the 'nose up' elevator trim setting
performance
Question The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
D increasing the angle of attack D

Question Gross performance is:

A The minimum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained
and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual
B The average performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained B
C The maximum performance which a flet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained
D 65 percent of net performance
Question Which of the equations below expresses approximately the un-accelerated percentage climb gradient for small
climb angles?
A Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100 A
B Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
C Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
D Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
Question Density altitude is the:

A Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature A
B Altitude reference to the standard datum plane
C Altitude read directly from the altimeter
D Height above the surface
Question Pressure altitude is:

A The altimeter indication when QNH is set on the sub-scale
B The altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scal
C The altitude above sea level
performance
PERFORMANCE CLASS B – SINGLE ENGINE - Take-off and landing performance
Question Pressure altitude is:
D The altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub-scale D

Question Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

A Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure Speed)
B Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue B
or discontinue the take-off
C Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to
have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take off
D Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take off surface
Question The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:

A the true airspeed and the bank angle
B the radius of the turn and the bank angle
C the bank angle only C
D the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane
Question Density altitude is

A The height above mean sea level corrected for the prevailing atmospheric density
B The pressure altitude corrected for the prevailing atmospheric density B
C The height above mean sea level corrected for the ISA atmospheric density
D The pressure altitude corrected for ISA atmospheric density
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft.Given:OAT: 27oCPressure Altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane
Choices Mass: 2900 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down)Runway: Tarred and Dry
Answers Correct
A 1370 feet
B 1700 feet
C 1120 feet
performance
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft.Given:OAT: 27oCPressure Altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane
Mass: 2900 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down)Runway: Tarred and Dry
D 1850 feet D
Ref ATPL AND H
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft.Given:OAT: ISA+15oCPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane
Choices Mass: 2940 lbsHeadwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down)Runway: short and wet grass firm
soilCorrection factor (wet grass): 1.38
Answers Correct
A 1450 feet
B 2000 feet
C 1300 feet
D 1794 feet D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft. Given:OAT: ISA+15oCPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lb
Choices sTailwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down)Runway: Tarred and Dry
Answers Correct
A approximately: 1300 feet A
B approximately: 950 feet
C approximately: 1400 feet
D approximately: 750 feet
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the maximum allowable take off mass.
Choices Given:
OAT: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
Factored runway length: 2000 ft
Obstacle height: 50 ft
Answers Correct
A 2900 lbs
B > 3650 lbs
C 3240 lbs C
D 3000 lbs
performance
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the maximum allowable take off mass.
Given:
OAT: ISA
Flaps: up
Factored runway length: 2000 ft
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 2.1)An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in
the diagram.Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runwayActual conditions are:Pressure Altitude:
Choices 1500 ftOutside Temperature: +18oCWind component: 4 knots tailwindFor a take-off mass of 1270 kg the take-off
distance will be:
Answers Correct
A 440 m
B 615 m
C 525 m C
D 415 m
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2.2)With regard to the SOCATA TB 20 take-off performance chart, determine the
maximum allowed take off weight:Given:OAT: ISAPressure Altitude: 4000 ftWeight: 2640 lbsHeadwind Component:
Choices 5 ktFlaps: 10oRunway: 2000 ft length; tarred and dryObstacle Height: 50 ft
Answers Correct
A > 3500 lbs
B 2860 lbs B
C 2400 lbs
D 3240 lbs
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.4)
Using the Landing diagram, for single engine aeroplane determine the landing
Choices distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions.
Given:
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
OAT: 5oC
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down
performance
Question (For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.4)
Using the Landing diagram, for single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions.
Given:
OAT: 5oC
Landing gear: down
Answers Correct
A 1020 ft
B 1550 ft
C 1400 ft C
D 880 ft
Question (Refer to CAP 698 - figure 2-4)Accounting for the following, wht would be the minimum required head wind
component for landing? Use the attached chart.Factored landing distance: 1300 ftTemperature at MSL:
Choices ISALanding mass: 3200 lbs
Answers Correct
A 10 kts A
B 5 kts
C 0 kts
D 15 kts
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2-2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single
engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft
Choices Given:
OAT: 30oC
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up
Answers Correct
A 2470 feet A
B 1440 feet
C 2200 feet
D 2800 feet
performance
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2-2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single
engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft
Given:
OAT: 30oC
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up
Question The effect of a decrease in air density is to:

A increase the take off distance and reduce the rate of climb A
B decrease the take off distance and reduce the rate of climb
C decrease the take off distance and increase the rate of climb
D increase the take off distance and increase the rate of climb
Question An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing
performance:
A A reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
B An increased landing distance and degraded go around performance
C An increased landing distance and improved go around performance
D A reduced landing distance and improved go around performance D
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2.4)
With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum
Choices headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?
Given:
Runway length: 1300 ft
Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: assume ISA conditions
Mass: 3200 lbs
Answers Correct
A 10 kts A
B No wind
C 5 kt
performance
With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum
headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?
Given:
Runway length: 1300 ft
Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: assume ISA conditions
Mass: 3200 lbs
D 15 kts
Question If there is an increase in atmospheric pressure and all other factors remain constant, it should result in:

A decreased take off distance and increasedclimb performance A
B increased take off distance and increasedclimb performance
C decreased take off distance and decreasedclimb performance
D increased take off distance and decreasedclimb performance
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
Choices determine the take of distance to a height of 50 ft.
Given:
OAT: -7oC
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Answers Correct
A 2050 ft A
B 2450 ft
C 1150 ft
D 1250 ft
Question What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope?

A It increases with a downhill slope A
performance
Question What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope?
B It is unaffected by runway slope

C It decreases with a downhill slope
D It increases with an uphill slope
Question An upward runway slope:

A decreases the accelerated-stop-distance available
B increases the accelerated-stop-distance available
C increases the take-off distance required C
D decreases the take-off distance required
Question An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
A a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance A
B an increased take off distance and degraded initial climb performance
C an increased take off distance and improved initial climb performance
D a reduced take off distance and degraded initial climb performance
Choices determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.
Given:
OAT: 38oC
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Runway: Dry Grass
Correction factor: 1.2
Answers Correct
A 3960 ft A
B 4200 ft
C 3680 ft
D 5040 ft
performance
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.
Given:
OAT: 38oC
Runway: Dry Grass
Correction factor: 1.2
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off
Choices distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.
Given:
OAT: 30oC
Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)
Answers Correct
A 1600 ft
B 1900 ft
C 2375 ft C
D 2000 ft
Question Take off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following
limitations with flap 10o selected:
Choices Runway limit: 5270 kg
Obstacle limit: 4630 kg
Estimated take off mass is 5000 kg
Considering a take-off with flaps at:
Answers Correct
A 20o both limitations are increased
B 5o both limitations are increased
C 20o the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
performance
Question Take off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following
limitations with flap 10o selected:
Runway limit: 5270 kg
Obstacle limit: 4630 kg
Estimated take off mass is 5000 kg
Considering a take-off with flaps at:
D 5o the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases D
Choices determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.
Given:
OAT: ISA+10oC
Flaps: up
Answers Correct
A 71 and 82 KIAS A
B 68 and 78 KIAS
C 73 and 84 KIAS
D 65 and 75 KIAS
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
Choices landing distance from a height of 50 ft.
Given:
OAT: 0oC
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Answers Correct
A 1650 feet A
B 1480 feet
C 1150 feet
D 940 feet
performance
Question The landing distance required will be increased as a result of all of the following:

A increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope
B increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope B
C decreased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope
D increased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope
Question How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run? The thrust

A has no change during take off and climb
B increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up
C varies with mass changes only
D decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up D
Question What percentages of the headwind and tailwind components are taken into account when calculating the take
off field length required?
A 100% headwind and 100% tailwind
B 50% headwind and 150% tailwind B
C 150% headwind and 50% tailwind
D 50% headwind and 100% tailwind
Choices landing distance from a height of 50 ft.
Given:
OAT: ISA
Answers Correct
A 1700 feet A
B 1500 feet
performance
landing distance from a height of 50 ft.
Given:
OAT: ISA
C 1150 feet
D 920 feet
Question A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
A A reduced take off distance and improved initial climb performance
B An increased take off distance and degraded initial climb performance B
C An increased take off distance and improved initial climb performance
D A reduced take off distance and degraded initial climb performance
Question For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the following factors must be applied in determining the take off
distance from dry grass and wet pavement respectively:
A 1.3 & 1.2
B 1.3 & 1.15
C 1.2 & 1.15
D 1.2 & 1.0 D
Question Which of the following will probably result in the greatest increase in take-off distance?

A Headwind; downslope; high surface temperature
B Headwind; downslope; low surface temperature
C Tailwind; downslope; high surface temperature
D Tailwind; upslope; high surface temperature D
performance
Question Decreasing take off flap from 15o to 0o will probably result in a ___ Vlof.

A increased A
B reduced
C greatly reduced
D unchanged
Question If for aeroplane in Performance Class B the intended take-off flight path requires track changes of more
than 15o, with the pilot unable to maintain visual navigation accuracy , the clearance of obstacles within
Choices ___ of track need be considered.
Answers Correct
A 300 m
B 500 m
C 600 m
D 900 m D
Question For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the net take off flight path begins at a height of ___ and ends at a
height of ___
A 35 feet; 1000 feet
B 35 feet; 1500 feet
C 50 feet; 1000 feet
D 50 feet; 1500 feet D
Question The maximum angle of bank permitted after take off below 50 feet for an aeroplane in Performance Class B is:

A 0o A
B 5o
C 10o
D 15o
Question How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take off run, assuming un-stalled flow conditions at the
propeller blades? The thrust
performance
Question How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take off run, assuming un-stalled flow conditions at the
propeller blades? The thrust
A varies with mass changes only
B increases while the aeroplane speed builds up
C decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up C
D has no change during take off and climb
Question If a TOD of 800m is calculated at sea level, on a level, dry runway, with
standard conditions and with no wind, what would the TOD be for the conditions listed below?
Choices Airfield elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013.25 mb
Temperature: 21oC
Wind: 5 kts tailwind
Dry runway with a 2% up slope
(Assuming: ±20m/100 ft elevation, +10m/1 kt of reported tailwind, ±5m/1oC
ISA deviation and the standard slope adjustments)
Answers Correct
A 836 m
B 940 m
C 1034 m C
D 1095 m
Question An aircraft is scheduled for take-off, and requires 800m (TODR) under normal
conditions at ISA sea level. The following airfield characteristics need to be taken into account:
Choices Pressure Altitude 2000 ft, QNH 1013 hPa, Temperature +21oC, 5 kt tailwind, 2% upslope. Adjust the TODR
accordingly using thefollowing factors:
Pressure altitude: ±20m/1000 ft

Runway slope: ±15m/1% slope
Headwind: -5m/1 kt
Tailwind: +10m/1 kt
Temperature: ±5m/1o ISA Deviation
Answers Correct
A 810 m
B 870 m
C 920 m
D 970 m D
performance
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero in the
Choices following conditions:Given:OAT at take off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3300
lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 5 kts tailwind
Answers Correct
A 16665 ft A
B 18073 ft
C 18909 ft
D 20109 ft
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2.3)With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min)Given:OAT: ISA+15oCPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400
Choices lbsFlaps: upSpeed: 100 KIAS
Answers Correct
A 1150 ft/min
B 1210 ft/min
C 1290 ft/min C
D 1370 ft/min
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2-.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:Given:OAT at
Choices take off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane mass: 3450 lbsSpeed: 100 KIAS
Answers Correct
A 1310 ft/min and 11.3%
B 1170 ft/min and 9.9%
C 1120 ft/min and 9.3% C
D 1030 ft/min and 8.4%
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Regarding the best angle and best rate of descent speeds, which of the following statements is true:

A A heavier aircraft must descend at a slower airspeed in order to maintain the same slope as a
similar lighter aircraft
B A heavier aircraft must descend at a faster airspeed in order to maintain the same slope as a B
similar lighter aircraft
C Weight has no effect on the rate of descent only on the descent slope angle
D Weight has no effect on the descent slope angle or descent rate
performance
Question When does THRUST = DRAG?

A Climbing at a constant IAS
B Decreasing at a constant IAS
C Flying level at a constant IAS C
D All of the above
Question Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane¿s angle of climb?

A Weight and drag only
B Weight, drag and thrust B
C Thrust and drag only
D Weight and thrust only
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
Choices the ground distance to reach a height of 000 ft above the reference zero in the following conditions.
Given:
OAT, at take off: 25oC
Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 15 kts headwind
Answers Correct
A 18347 ft A
B 24637 ft
C 21505 ft
D 18832 ft
Question With which conditions would the aircraft need to be flown, in order to achieve maximum speed in horizontal
flight?
A Thrust set for minimum drag
B Best lift - drag ratio
C Maximum thrust and maximum drag C
performance
Question With which conditions would the aircraft need to be flown, in order to achieve maximum speed in horizontal
flight?
D Maximum thrust and minimum drag
Question How does an increase in aircraft mass affect the gliding range?

A has no effect on range A
B decreases range
C increases range
D none of the above
Question In a power-off glide, an increase in aircraft mass will:

A Increase the glide angle and increase the speed for minimum glide angle
B Not affect the glide angle, but increase the speed for minimum glide angle B
C Increase the glide angle, but not affect the speed for minimum glide angle
D Not affect the glide angle, and not affect the speed for minimum glide angle
Question Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:

A decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb
B improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX
C improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY
D decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb D
Question Which force compensates the weight in un-accelerated straight and level flight?

A the resultant from lift and drag
B the thrust
C the drag
D the lift D
performance
Question An aircraft is operating at the optimum glide speed. When mass decreases what happens to the glide angle
and rate of descent?
A The glide angle decreases and the rate of descent is unchanged
B The glide angle is unchanged and the rate of descent decreases B
C The glide angle decreases and the rate of descent decreases
D Both the glide angle and rate of descent are unchanged
Question When comparing Vx to Vy:

A Vx will always be greater than Vy
B Vy will always be greater than or equal to Vx B
C Vy will always be greater than Vx
D Vx will sometimes be greater than Vy, but sometimes be less than Vy
Question With increasing altitude, the rate of climb:

A decreases because power available decreases and power required is constant
B increases because density and drag decreases
C decreases because power available decreases and power required increases C
D decreases because power available is constant and power required increases
Question In straight and level flight the lift is opposed by the:

A drag and weight
B weight B
C thrust
D drag
Question A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition (assuming IAS is
constant):
A improves angle and rate of climb
performance
Question A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition (assuming IAS is
constant):
B does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb
C has no effect on rate of climb C
D decreases angle and rate of climb
Question For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient:

A increases with increasing flap angle and decreasing temperature
B decreases with increasing flap angle and decreasing temperature
C increases with increasing flap angle and increasing temperature
D decreases with increasing flap angle and increasing temperature D
Question In a power off glide in still air, to obtain the maximum glide range, the aircraft should be flown:

A at a speed corresponding to the maximum lift-to-drag ratio A
B at a speed close to the stall
C at a speed corresponding to the minimum drag coefficient
D at a speed close to Vne
Question On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle to attack, configuration and altitude at
higher gross mass:
A The lift/drag ratio must be increased
B The airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased
C The airspeed and the drag will be increased C
D The airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change
Question What factors affect the descent angle in a glide?

A Configuration and angle of attack A
B Configuration and altitude
C Mass and altitude
performance
Question What factors affect the descent angle in a glide?
D Mass and configuration

Question The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached:

A at the practical ceiling
B at the optimum cruise altitude
C at the service ceiling
D at the lowest possible altitude D
Question (For this question use figure 032_6.2)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow
Choices (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:
Given:
OAT: 13oC
RPM: 2300
Answers Correct
A 159 kt and 71.7 lbs/hr
B 160 kt and 71.1 lbs/hr
C 158 kt and 74.4 lbs/hr
D 160 kt and 69.3 lbs/hr D
Question In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?

A In a descent with constant TAS
B In accelerated level flight
C In a climb with constant IAS
D In level flight with constant IAS D
Question (For this question use figure 032_6.4)Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given:OAT: ISA+16oCPressure
Choices altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle (25.0 in/Hg. & 2100 RPM)
Answers Correct
performance
determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given:OAT: ISA+16oCPressure
altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle (25.0 in/Hg. & 2100 RPM)
A 911 NM
B 739 NM
C 851 NM
D 865 NM D
Question A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires

A more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift
B less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift
C a higher coefficient of lift C
D more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag
Question To maintain the same angle of attack and altitude at a higher gross weight an aeroplane needs:

A less airspeed and same power
B same airspeed
C more airspeed and less power
D more airspeed and more power D
Question How does a headwind affect the speed to fly at in a descent?

A The speed is not affected
B The TAS should be decreased B
C The TAS should be increased C
D The speed only increases with weight
Question The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at:

A VA (design manoeuvring speed)
performance
Question The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at:
B VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)

C VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
D VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration) D
Question When flying an aircraft on the back of the drag curve, maintaining a slower speed (but still faster than VS)
would require:
A more flap
B less thrust due to less parasite drag
C more thrust C
D no change
Question (For this question use figure 032_6.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following
Choices conditions: Given:OAT: 3oC Pressure altitude: 6000 ft Power: full throttle (21.0 in/Hg & 2100 RPM)
Answers Correct
A 134 kt and 55.7 lbs/hr A
B 136 kt and 56.9 lbs/hr
C 131 kt and 56.9 lbs/hr
D 125 kt and 55.7 lbs/hr
Question A higher outside air temperature

A does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance
B increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb
C reduces the angle and the rate of climb C
D reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb
Question How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?

A Both decrease A
B Both increase
performance
Question How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?
C Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases

D Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases
determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:Given:OAT: ISA -15oCPressure
Choices altitude: 12000 ftPower: Full throttle (23.0 in/Hg & 2300 RPM)
Answers Correct
A 875 NM
B 902 NM B
C 860 NM
D 908 NM
Question Which of the following statements is correct? If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal un-accelerated flight,
decreases
A the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases
B the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases
C the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases C
D the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases
Question In un-accelerated climb

A lift is greater than the gross weight
B thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction B
C lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag
D thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction
Question What will happen to VX and VY if the landing gear is extended?

A VX decreases and VY increases
B VX and VY decrease B
C VX and VY increase
performance
Question What will happen to VX and VY if the landing gear is extended?
D VX increases, VY decreases
Question On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and
configuration the power required:
A increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage A
B increases but TAS remains constant
C decreases slightly because of the lower air density
D remains unchanged but the TAS increases
Question If the aircraft mass increases, how does the (i) rate of climb, an (ii) rate of climb speed change?

A decrease; increase A
B increase; decrease
C decrease; decrease
D increase; increase
Question What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?

A Tailwind only effects holding speed
B No affect B
C The IAS will be increased
D The IAS will be decreased
Question What is the most important aspect of the ¿backside of the power curve¿?

A The aeroplane will not stall
B The speed is unstable B
C The altitude cannot be maintained
D The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose
performance
Question The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional
passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
A Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
B Improved
C Unchanged
D Degraded D
Question Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy:

A Both will increase A
B Both will remain the same
C Both will decrease
D Vx will decrease and Vy will increase
Question (refer to figure 032_8.2)Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required
curve with increasing altitude (H1<H2)?
A Figure B
B Figure A
C Figure D C
D Figure C
Question (Refer to figure 032_8.3)Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed
(TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the
Choices point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
Answers Correct
A maximum thrust
B critical angle of attack
C maximum specific range C
D maximum endurance
Question On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at
higher gross mass:
performance
Question On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at
higher gross mass:
A an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change
B requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed
C an increase in airspeed and power is required C
D a higher coefficient of drag is required
Question On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and
configuration the drag:
A remains unchanged but the CAS increases
B increases at constant TAS
C decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density
D remains unchanged but the TAS increases D
Question As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:

A VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude
B VX is always above VY
C VY is always above VMO C
D VX is always below VY
Question In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends on:

A speed, mass and fuel on board
B altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board B
C altitude, speed and mass
D speed and mass
Question (Refer to figure 032_6-2)With regard to the cruise performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the cruise TAS:Given:OAT: ISA -10oC Cruising Pressure Altitude: 8000 ft Power Setting: 75%
Choices Mixture: best performance Flaps: up Gear: retracted
Answers Correct
A 163 kts
performance
Question (Refer to figure 032_6-2)With regard to the cruise performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the cruise TAS:Given:OAT: ISA -10oC Cruising Pressure Altitude: 8000 ft Power Setting: 75%
Mixture: best performance Flaps: up Gear: retracted
B 158 kts
C 156 kts
D 161 kts D
Question Compared to Vx and Vy in clean configuration, Vx and Vy in configuration with flaps extended will be:

A Lower A
B Same
C Higher
D Vx higher and Vy lower
Question An aeroplane is climbing at a speed 10 kts lower than the speed for best rate of climb:

A Angle of climb will decrease
B Angle of climb will increase B
C Angle of climb will not change
D Rate of climb will not change
Question For a piston engine aircraft the service ceiling corresponds to:

A The altitudefor which the power required and power available curves are tangential
B The greatestaltitude at which more than one speed is available
C The altitudeat which the aircraft is capable of a climb rate of 100 feet per minute C
D The altitudeat which the aircraft is capable of a climb rate of 500 feet per minute
Question As speed is reduced from Vmd to Vmp:

A power required decreases, drag increases A
B power required decreases, drag decreases
performance
PERFORMANCED CLASS B – MULTI ENGINE - Definitions of terms and speeds
Question As speed is reduced from Vmd to Vmp:
C power required increases, drag increases

D power required increases, drag decreases
Question The absolute ceiling:

A can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed
B is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb is zero B
C is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min
D is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
Question A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be
maintainable after engine failure?
A Straight failure A
B Straight flight and altitude
C Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
D Altitude
Question The speed VLO is defined as

A design low operating speed A
B landing gear operating speed
C long distance operating speed
D lift off speed
Question For a multi engined aircraft not certified under Performance Class B, the absolute ceiling is defined as:

A the altitude at which the rate of climb of an aircraft is 100 ft per minute at maximum power
B the altitude at which the rate of climb of an aircraft is 500 ft per minute at maximum power
C the altitude at which the rate of climb of an aircraft is equal to 0 ft per minute at maximum C
power
performance
Question For a multi engined aircraft not certified under Performance Class B, the absolute ceiling is defined as:
D the altitude at which the rate of climb of an aircraft is 100 ft per minute at maximum cruise
setting
Question What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition?

A A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between net and gross take off flight paths
B A balanced take off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation
C For a balanced field length the required take off runway length always equals the available
runway length
D A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine D
failure
Question Which denotes the stall speed in the landing configuration?

A VSO A
B VS1
C VS
D VS1G
Question The speed for best rate of climb is called

A Vy A
B Vx
C V2
D Vcl
Question The draft down is a procedure applied:

A after aircraft depressurisation
B for a visual approach to a VASI
C for an instrument approach at an airfield without an ILS
performance
Question The draft down is a procedure applied:
D when the engine fails above the operating altitude for one engine inoperative D
Question The critical engine inoperative:

A decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the Wind milling engine
B does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant
C increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the wind milling engine and C
the compensation for the yaw effect
D increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the wind milling engine
Question ASDA is defined as:

A the same as TODA
B TODA plus stop way
C TORA plus stop way C
D TORA plus clear way
Question Field length is balanced when

A take off distance equals accelerate stop distance A
B calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG
C all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take off are equal
D one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal
Question For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:

A that which gives the maximum value of lift
B that which gives the minimum value of drag
C that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio C
D 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration
performance
Question For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:

Question In climb limited mass calculations, the climb gradient is a ratio of:

A height gained over distance travelled through the air A
B height gained over distance travelled across the ground
C TAS over rate of climb
D TGS over rate of climb
Question VX is defined as:

A the speed for best angle of climb A
B the speed for best rate of climb
C the speed for best specific range
D the speed for best angle of flight path
Question The take off decision speed V1 is:

A not less than V2 min, the minimum take off safety speed
B a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognised after reaching V1 the take off must be
aborted
C sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR
D a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognised before reaching V1 the take off must be D
aborted
Question Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:

A nose wheel steering only
B primary aerodynamic control only B
C primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel
D primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking
performance
Question Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:

Question Which statement is correct?

A VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated A
B VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure
C In case of engine failure below VR the take off should be aborted
D VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure
Question . Given that:
VEF = Critical engine failure speed
Choices VMCG = Ground minimum control speed
VMCA = Air minimum control speed
VMU = Minimum unstick speed
V1 = Take off decision speed
VR = Rotation speed
V2 min. = Minimum take off safety speed
The correct formula is:
Answers Correct
A V2 min < = VED < = VMU
B VMCG < = VEF < V1 B
C 1.05 VMCA < = VEF < = V1
D 1.05 VMCG < VEF < = VR
Question Given:
VS = Stalling speed
Choices VMCA = Air minimum control speed
VMU = Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)
VR = Rotation speed
VLOF = Lift off speed
Answers Correct
A VS < VMCA < V2 min A
B VR < VMCA < VLOF
C VMU < = VMCA < V1
performance
Question Given:
VS = Stalling speed
VMCA = Air minimum control speed
VMU = Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)
VR = Rotation speed
VLOF = Lift off speed
D V2 min < VMCA < VMU
Question Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The speeds for:

A maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range
B holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle B
C maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle
D maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle
Question Which of the following statements is correct?

A VR is thespeed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane A
B VR shouldnot be higher than V1
C VR shouldnot be higher than 1.05 VMCG
D VR is thespeed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway
Question Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

A When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the
remaining symmetric engines
B The V1 correction for up slope is negative
C V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR C
D V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG
Question The minimum value of V2 must exceed air minimum control speed by:
performance
Question The minimum value of V2 must exceed air minimum control speed by:

A 15%
B 20%
C 30%
D 10% D
Question Which of the following will decrease V1?

A Increased take off mass
B Inoperative flight management system
C Increased outside air temperature
D Inoperative anti-skid D
Question The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following margins
above stall speed in landing configuration:
A 15%
B 205
C 10%
D 30% D
Question The stop way is an area which allows an increase only in:

A the take off run available
B the take off distance available
C the landing distance available
D the accelerate-stop distance available D
Question The speed V2 is:

A the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in
performance
Question The speed V2 is:
B the take off safety speed B

C that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take off in the case of an
engine failure
D the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems
Question Which take off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stop way and/or clearway?

A VMCA
B V1 B
C V2
D VMCG
Question The speed V1 is defined as:

A take off decision speed A
B take off climb speed
C speed for best angle of climb
D engine failure speed
Question The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:

A take off climb speed or speed at 35 ft A
B lift off speed
C take off decision speed
D critical engine failure speed
Question The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin:

A is only certified for four engine aeroplanes
B is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation B
performance
Question The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin:
C is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling

D is dependent on the OAT
Question The take off distance available is:

A the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists
B the length of the take off run available plus the length of the clearway available B
C the runway length minus stop way
D the runway length plus half of the clearway
Question A BALANCED FIELD LENGTH is said to exist where:

A The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take off distance available A
B The clearway does not equal the stop way
C The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take off distance
D The one engine out take off distance is equal to the all engine take off distance
Question V2 has to be equal to or higher than:

A 1.15 VMCG
B 1.1 VSO
C 1.15 VR
D 1.1 VMCA D
Question V1 has to be:

A higher than VR
B equal to or higher than V2
C equal to or higher than VMCG C
D equal to or higher than VMCA
performance
Question V1 has to be:

Question The estimated braking action for a runway having a friction coefficient of 0.35 would be:

A Good
B Medium B
C Poor
D Unreliable
Question A clearway:

A Provides an area over which an aeroplane can safely transit from lift off to the required height
B Need not have the same weight bearing qualities as the runway with which it is associated
C May be water
D All of the above D
Question Given:
RW17 touchdown elevation = 146 feet
Choices TORA = 1400 m
ASDA = 1600 m
TODA = 1800 m
RW 35 touchdown elevation 34 feet
TORA = 1500 m
ASDA = 1700 m
TODA = 1900 m
The slope of RW 35 is:
Answers Correct
A 2.28% up A
B 2.28% down
C 2.44% up
D 2.44% down
Question Propeller driven aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of ___ or less and a
maximum take off mass of ___ or less must comply with the requirements of Performance Class B.
performance
Question Propeller driven aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of ___ or less and a
maximum take off mass of ___ or less must comply with the requirements of Performance Class B.
A 18; 5700 kg
B 18; 12500 kg
C 9; 5700 kg C
D 9; 12500 kg
Question The speed VSR is defined as

A design stress speed
B safe rotation speed for take-off
C as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed C
D speed for best specific range
Question The correct sequence of speeds is:

A Vs, Vx, Vy A
B Vx, Vs, Vy
C Vs, max range speed, max endurance speed
D Max endurance speed, Vs, Max range speed
Question VREF for a Class B aircraft is defined by:

A 1.3 Vs A
B 1.2 Vs
C 1.3 Vmc
D 1.2 Vmc
Question What does density altitude signify?

A Pressure altitude
performance
PERFORMANCED CLASS B – MULTI ENGINE - Importance of performance calculations
Question What does density altitude signify?
B Flight levels
C ISA altitude
D An accurate indication of aircraft and engine performance D
Question Optimum altitude can be defined as:

A the highest permissible altitude for an aeroplane type
B the altitude at which an aeroplane attains the maximum specific air range B
C the altitude at which the ground speed is greatest
D the altitude at which specific fuel consumption is highest
Question VMCG is determined during flight testing using aerodynamic controls¿

A nose wheel steering and no crosswind
B no nose wheel steering and no crosswind B
C no nose wheel steering and 7 kt of adverse crosswind
D nose wheel steering and 7 kt of adverse crosswind
Question SFC will:

A increase if C of G is moved further forward of the C of P A
B decrease if C of G is moved further forward of the C of P
C not be affected by C of G position
D only be affected by C of G position, if it is behind the C of P
Question When the outside air temperature increases, then

A the field length limited take off mass and the climb limited take off mass increases
B the field length limited take off mass and the climb limited take off mass decreases B
C the field length limited take off mass decreases but the climb limited take off mass increases
performance
Question When the outside air temperature increases, then
D the field length limited take off mass increases but the climb limited take off mass decreases
Question An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept
constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent ___ glide angle ___ CL/CD ratio ___
A increases; constant; increases
B decreases; constant; decreases
C increases; increases; constant
D increases; increases; decreases D
Question What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?

A The speed for best angle of descent increases A
B there is no effect
C The gliding angle decreases
D The lift/drag ratio decreases
Question A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature

A increases the climb limited take off mass
B decreases the take off distance
C decreases the field length limited take off mass C
D has no influence on the allowed take off mass
Question What effect has a downhill slope on the take off speeds? The slope¿

A decreases the take off speed V1 A
B decreases the TAS for take off
C increases the IAS for take off
D has no effect on the take off speed V1
performance
Question Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be:

A lower A
B higher
C unaffected
D only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes
Question If other factor are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:

A higher with a forward centre of gravity position
B independent from the centre of gravity position
C lower with an aft centre of gravity position
D lower with a forward centre of gravity position D
Question A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorised by a light-
twin's flight manual. The take off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
A very significantly decreased
B unchanged
C decreased
D increased D
Question In a glide (power off descent) if pitch angle is increased, glide distance will:

A increase
B decrease B
C remain constant
D depend on the aircraft
Question The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take off is:

A a longer take off run
performance
Question The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take off is:
B an increased acceleration
C a higher V1
D a shorter ground roll D
Question On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased

A by headwind
B by uphill slope B
C by low outside air temperature
D by a lower take off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1
Question Changing the take off flap setting from flap 15o to flap 5o will normally result in:

A a shorter take off distance and an equal climb
B a longer take off distance and a better climb B
C a better climb and an equal take off distance
D a shorter take off distance and a better climb
Question Which conditions are most suited to a selection of low flap for take off?

A Low airfield elevation, close obstacles, long runway, high temperature A
B Low airfield elevation, no obstacles, short runway, low temperature
C High elevation, no obstacles short runway, low temperature
D High airfield elevations, distant obstacles, long runway, high ambient temperature
Question What landing distance requirements must be met at an alternate airfield compared to a destination airfield
for a turbo prop?
A Less than destination
B More than destination
C Same as destination C
performance
Question What landing distance requirements must be met at an alternate airfield compared to a destination airfield
for a turbo prop?
D None applicable
Question A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises
a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
A increased A
B unchanged
C reduced
D substantially decreased
Question Which of the following speeds can be limited by the maximum tyre speed?

A Lift off IAS
B Lift off groundspeed B
C Lift off TAS
D Lift off EAS
Question For take off performance calculations, what is taken into account?

A OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight A
B Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight
C Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight
D Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight
Question Which of the following combination adversely affects take off and initial climb performance?

A Low temperature and low relative humidity
B Low temperature and high relative humidity
C High temperature and low relative humidity
D High temperature and high relative humidity D
performance
Question What is the effect of increased weight on (i) ROC and (ii) best ROC speed?

A (i) reduces (ii) increases A
B (i) reduces (ii) reduces
C (i) increases (ii) reduces
D (i) increases (ii) increases
Question Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant

A TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will
decrease with increased altitude
B both will decrease with increasing altitude
C both will stay constant regardless of altitude
D both will increase with increasing altitude D
Question The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:

A The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag A
B The thrust is equal to the maximum drag
C The thrust is equal to minimum drag
D The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed
Question What is the effect of extending flaps on VX and VY?

A VX increases and VY decreases
B VX increases and VY increases
C VX decreases and VY increases
D VX decreases and VY decreases D
Question What is the effect of increasing the flap setting on (i) gradient and (ii) rate of climb?

performance
Question What is the effect of increasing the flap setting on (i) gradient and (ii) rate of climb?
A (i) decreases (i) does not change

B (i) increases (ii) increases
C (i) does not change (ii) decreases
D (i) decreases (ii) decreases D
Question What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain
constant?
A The ROC speed increases with increasing mass A
B The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass
C The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed
D The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass
Question An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide
distance:
A decreases A
B increases
C remains the same
D may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane
Question The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:

A No change
B Larger
C Smaller C
D Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting
Question An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25o and 35o. If a pilot chooses 35o instead of 25o,
the aircraft will have:
A a reduced landing distance and better go around performance
B a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance B
performance
Question An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25o and 35o. If a pilot chooses 35o instead of 25o,
the aircraft will have:
C an increased landing distance and degraded go around performance
D an increased landing distance and better go around performance
Question Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

A The speed for maximum climb angle Vx A
B 1.2 Vs
C The speed for maximum rate of climb
D The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP
Question To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be

A reduced to the gust penetration speed
B equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind
C lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind
D higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind D
Question Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take off?

A High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb out path, low ambient temperature and short
runway
B Low field elevation, close in obstacles in the climb out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature
C High field elevation, distance obstacles in the climb out path, long runway and a high ambient C
temperature
D Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb out path, short runway and a low ambient
temperature
Question If there is a tailwind:

A the minimum drag speed is decreased by the same velocity as the wind
performance
Question If there is a tailwind:
B the minimum drag speed is decreased

C the minimum drag speed is increased
D the minimum drag speed is not affected D
Question On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum
drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The best rate of climb
Choices speed will be obtained for a speed:
Answers Correct
A < 95 kts
B equal to 95 kts B
C is between 95 and 125 kts
D equal to 1125 kts
Question What happens to VX and VY as altitude increases?

A VY remains constant and VX decreases
B VY remains constant and VX increases
C Both will increase C
D Both remain constant
Question The optimum altitude

A decreases as mass decreases
B increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum B
C is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum
D is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8000 ft can be maintained
Question The co-efficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or by:

A increase CAS
B reducing nose up elevator trim
performance
Question The co-efficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or by:
C increase angle of attack C

D increase TAS
Question The take off distance of an aircraft is 600 m in standard atmosphere, no wind at
0 ft pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections:
Choices
±20m/1000 ft field elevation
-5m/kt headwind
+10m/kt tail wind
±15m/% runway slope
±5m/oC deviation from standard temperature
the take off distance from an airport at 1000 ft elevation, temperature 17oC,
QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up slope, 10 kt tail wind is:
Answers Correct
A 685 m
B 715 m
C 555 m
D 755 m D
Question Following a take off limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will
clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5000m from the 50 ft point with
Choices an obstacle clearance margin of:
Answers Correct
A 90 m
B 105 m B
C 75 m
D it will not clear the obstacle
Question Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?

A The traffic load can be limited by the desired range A
B The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel
C The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass
D The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity
performance
Question What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the
speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
A Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases
B Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases
C Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases
D Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant D
Question In a level turn at constant indicated speed the load factor depends on:

A radius of turn and aircraft weight
B angle of bank only B
C angle of bank and TAS
D altitude
Question The take off distance of an aircraft is 800 m in standard atmosphere, no wind at
0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections:
Choices
±20m / 1000 ft field elevation
-m5 / kt head wind
+10m / kt tail wind
±15m / % runway slope
±5m / oC deviation from standard temperature
The take off distance from an airport at 2000 ft elevation, temperature 21oC,
QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up slope, 5 kt tail wind is:
Answers Correct
A 970 m A
B 890 m
C 870 m
D 810 m
Question Ignoring the effect of compressibility, what would CL do with an increase in altitude?

A Increase
B Decrease
performance
Question Ignoring the effect of compressibility, what would CL do with an increase in altitude?
C Remain the same C

D Increase, then decrease
Question When flying in a headwind, the speed for max range should be:

A slightly decreased
B slightly increased B
C unchanged
D should be increased, or decreased depending on the strength of the wind
Question For a turbo prob powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be wet.
The dry runway landing distance, should not exceed:
A 1771 m
B 1339 m B
C 1540 m
D 1147 m
Question Climbing to cruise altitude with a head wind will:

A increase time to climb
B decrease ground distance covered to climb B
C decreased time to climb
D increased ground distance covered to climb
Question You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft performance has been calculated but
before departure another passenger is taken on board. What will be the effect of the extra passenger on
Choices board?
Answers Correct
A The performance will be degraded but the performance calculations need not be performed again as
the safety factors are so large
B The performance will be improved
performance
Question You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft performance has been calculated but
before departure another passenger is taken on board. What will be the effect of the extra passenger on
board?
C No effect
D The performance will be degraded, the performance calculations should be performed again D
Question Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following
statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?
A At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier A
aeroplane
B There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes
C At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane
D At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
aeroplane
Question How does the power required graph move with an increase in altitude?

A Straight up
B Straight down
C Up and to the right C
D Straight across to the right
Question An aircraft is climbing at VX. If the speed is increased, maintaining the power setting

A the climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb increase
B the climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb decrease
C the climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb increase C
D the climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb decrease
Question The climb gradient of an aircraft after take off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no
wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections:
Choices
±0.2% / 1000 ft field elevation
±0.1% / oC from standard temperature
performance
Question The climb gradient of an aircraft after take off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no
wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections:
±0.2% / 1000 ft field elevation

±0.1% / oC from standard temperature
-1% with wing anti-ice
-0.5% with engine anti-ice
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000 ft, 17oC QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and
engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
Answers Correct
A 4.7%
B 4.3%
C 3.9% C
D 4.9%
Question Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining
the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
A Decrease of aircraft mass
B Increase of aircraft mass
C Tailwind C
D Head wind
Question Landing on a runway with 5mm wet snow will:

A increase landing distance A
B decrease landing distance
C not affect the landing distance
D give a slightly reduced landing distance, due to increased impingement Drag
Question Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an aeroplane in level flight?

A The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the minimum power required equals the power
available from the engine
B The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the minimum power
performance
Question Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an aeroplane in level flight?
C The minimum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum power
D The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum power D
Question Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load are in an idle power descent, from
the same height. Both experiencing the exact same atmospheric conditions. The heavy aircraft will:
A descend steeper, at a faster speed and with a greater rate of descent
B have the same descent range and endurance but using a faster speed
C need to use a faster speed in order to achieve the same descent angle as the light aircraft C
D have a reduced descent range, and will have to use a faster speed in order to minimise the lost
in range
Question During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:

A Absolute ceiling
B Service ceiling B
C Thrust ceiling
D Maximum transfer ceiling
Question The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:

A The maximumendurance for a propeller driven aeroplane
B The maximumrange for a jet aeroplane
C The maximumrange for a propeller driven aeroplane C
D The maximumangle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane
Question Increased ambient temperature allows:

A increased climb limited mass
B decreased maximum brake energy limited mass B
performance
Question Increased ambient temperature allows:
C increased field length limited mass

D decreased take off distance
Question For a multi engined aircraft in Performance Class B, service ceiling is defined as:

A the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 100 ft per
minute for a piston engine and 500 ft per minute for a jet aircraft
B the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 0 ft per
minute
C the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 100 ft per C
minute
D the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 500 ft per
minute
Question When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt?

A Positive touch down, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible A
B Smoothest possible touch down, full reverse and only brakes below VP
C Positive touch down full reverse and only brakes below VP
D Normal landing, full reverse and brakes at VP
Question Why is there a requirement for an approach climb gradient?

A So that an aircraft falling below the glide path will be able to re-intercept it
B Adequate performance for a go around in the event of an engine failure B
C So that the aircraft will not stall when full flap is selected
D To maintain minimum altitude on the approach
Question The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4000m service ceiling, based on the forecast
general conditions for the flight and a take off mass of 3250 kg. If the take off mass is 3000 kg, the
Choices service ceiling will be:
Answers Correct
A higher than 4000m A
performance
Question The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4000m service ceiling, based on the forecast
general conditions for the flight and a take off mass of 3250 kg. If the take off mass is 3000 kg, the
service ceiling will be:
B less than 4000m
C unchanged, equal to 4000m
D only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling I higher or lower than
4000m
Question When flying the Backside of Thrust curve means

A the thrust required is independent of the airspeed
B a lower airspeed requires more thrust B
C a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane
D a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased
Question Following a take off determined by the 50 ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-
ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally) situated
Choices at 10000m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
Answers Correct
A 85m
B 100m
C 115m C
D It will not clear the obstacle
Question How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects)

A the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude
B the lift coefficient is independent of altitude B
C the lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude
D only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude
Question During climb to the cruising level, a head wind component

A decreases the climb time
performance
Question During climb to the cruising level, a head wind component
B increases the amount of fuel for the climb

C increases the climb time
D decreases the ground distance flown during that climb D
Question If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance
must be increased by:
A 20%
B 5%
C 105
D 15% D
Question A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order
to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
A the speed at the maximum lift
B the long range speed
C the speed corresponding to the minimum value of lift/drag ratio
D the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift/drag ratio D
Question Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore
compressibility effects).
A Configuration and angle of attack A
B Mass and altitude
C Altitude and configuration
D Configuration and mass
Question Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:

A The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed A
B The speed for maximum lift coefficient
C The speed for minimum drag
performance
Question Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:
D The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle
Question A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed, no wind, this climb
gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
A 330 ft/min A
B 3300 ft/min
C 3.30 m/s
D 33.0 m/s
Question With a true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about:

A 3o A
B 3%
C 5o
D 8%
Question The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:

A 125 ft/min
B 0 ft/min B
C 500 ft/min
D 100 ft/min
Question What will be the influence of the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?

A It will increase the accelerate stop distance available
B It will increase the take off distance B
C It will decrease the take off distance
D It will increase the take off distance available
performance
Question How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?

A VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude
B VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude
C VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude C
D It will increase the take off distance available

A Induced drag is independent of the speed
B Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack
C Induced drag decreases with increasing speed C
D Induced drag increases with increasing speed
Question The induced drag of an aeroplane:

A is independent of the airspeed
B increases with increasing airspeed
C decreases with increasing airspeed C
D decreases with increasing gross weight
Question Which of the following light twins will get more control difficulties if the left engine stops when airborne
from the runway 36 and there is reported wind from 270/10 kt?
A Counter rotation propellers
B All have same control problems
C Counter clockwise rotation propellers
D Clockwise rotation propellers D
Question What is the effect of increased mass on the maximum rate of climb speed (all other factors considered
unchanged)?
A Speed for maximum rate of climb increases with increasing mass A
performance
Question What is the effect of increased mass on the maximum rate of climb speed (all other factors considered
unchanged)?
B Maximum rate of climb is dependent of mass, but not the speed for maximum rate of climb
C Speed for maximum rate of climb decreases with increasing mass
D Maximum rate of climb and the corresponding speed are dependent of mass
Question The speed instability region is:

A region where the aeroplane can not be flow manually
B the same as the region of negative gradient of the thrust or power required curve B
C area above the intersection of power required curve and drag curve
D located in the area below the low speed buffet
Question How does a decreased pressure altitude at an airport affect aeroplane performance?

A Increased accelerate-stop distance
B Increased take off distance required
C Decreased take off distance required C
D Increased take off run
Question For normally aspirated reciprocating engines the brake horsepower delivered:

A Increases with decreasing air density
B Decreases wild increases air density
C Decreases with decreasing air density C
D None of the above
Question Where the ambient temperature is -34oC at a pressure altitude of 33000 feet the ISA deviation is:

A -17oC
B -16oC
C +16oC
performance
Question Where the ambient temperature is -34oC at a pressure altitude of 33000 feet the ISA deviation is:
D +17oC D
Question Heavy rain may temporarily cause:

A Increased weight
B Increased stalling speed
C Reduced forward speed
Question Induced drag is caused by:

A Movement of the aerofoil through the air A
B The shape of the aerofoil
C Boundary layer effects
D Increased zero-lift drag
Question Large flap settings:

A Reduced stalling speed considerably and increase drag
B Reduce stalling speed slightly but increase drag consideration B
C Increase both drag and stalling speed
D Affect neither drag nor stalling speed
Question Deployment of flaps ___ CL/CD.

A increases
B reduces B
C only slightly increases
D does not affect
performance
Question A higher temperature causes ___ in air density and ___ in lift.

A increase; decrease
B decrease; increase
C increase; increase
D decrease; decrease D
Question In the drift down for an aeroplane in Performance Class B the net gradient of descent is assumed to be gross
gradient of descent ___ by ___.
A increased; 0.77%
B decreased; 0.77%
C increased; 0.5% C
D decreased; 0.5%
Question The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve:

A is the maximum drag speed
B is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum B
C is the point where rag coefficient is a minimum
D is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum
Question Which one of the following statements is true concerning the effect of changes of ambient temperature on an
aeroplane's performance, assuming al other performance parameters remain constant?
A An increase will cause a decrease in the landing distance required
B An increase will cause a decrease in take off distance required
C A decrease will cause an increase of the climb gradient C
D A decrease will cause an increase in the take off ground run
Question With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed
corresponding to:
A the minimum power required A
performance
corresponding to:
B the critical Mach number
C the minimum angle of descent
D the maximum lift
Question If the actual landing mass is higher than planned:

A the landing distance will be longer A
B the landing distance will be unaffected
C the approach path will be steeper
D the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher
Question A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take off distance in relation to a dry runway
will be:
A increased A
B unchanged
C decreased
D very significantly decreased
Question A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take off thrust on both engines. The
critical engine suddenly falls. After stabilising the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be
Choices maintainable?
Answers Correct
A Straight flight A
B Straight flight and altitude
C Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
D Altitude
Question for turbo prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:

A more than that required at an alternate airport
B less than that required at an alternate airport
performance
Question for turbo prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
C the same as that required at an alternate airport C

D 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport
Question Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires

A no change
B an increase in VREF
C a steeper approach path
D an increase in approach speed D
Question As long as an aeroplane is in a steady climb:

A VX is always less than VY A
B VX may be greater or less that VY depending on altitude
C VX is always greater than VY
D VY is always greater than VMO
Question The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:

A manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating
B obstacle clearance in the approach area
C manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative
D minimum climb gradient in case of a go around with one engine inoperative D
Question The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:

A engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
B obstacle clearance after engine failure B
C climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
D weight during landing at the alternate
performance

Question The following parameters positively affect the take off ground run:
Choices 1) decreasing take off mass

2) increasing take off mass
3) increasing density
4) decreasing density
5) increasing flap setting
6) decreasing flap setting
7) increasing pressure altitude
8) decreasing pressure altitude
Answers Correct
A 2, 3, 6 and 7
B 1, 4, 6 and 8
C 2, 4, 5 and 7
D 1, 3, 5 and 8 D
Question The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is greatest at:

A the lowest achievable speed in a given configuration A
B VS1
C VMO
D VA
Question The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve

A is the maximum drag speed
B is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum
C is the point where the Lift to Drag ration is a minimum
D is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum D
Question What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required
Take off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take off Mass (TOM)?
performance
Question What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required
Take off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take off Mass (TOM)?
A Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM
B Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM
C Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM
D Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM D
Question If the C of G moves aft from the most forward position:

A The range and the fuel consumption will increase
B The range and the fuel consumption will decrease
C The range will increase and the fuel consumption will decrease C
D The range will decrease and the fuel consumption will increased
Question An aircraft with a mass of 110000 kg is capable of maintaining a grad of 2.6%. With all the atmospheric
variables remaining the same, with what mass would it be able to achieve a gradient of 2.4?
A 119167 kg A
B 101530 kg
C 110000 kg
D 121167 kg
Question An aircraft is certified to land with flaps at either 25 or 35 degrees of flap. If the pilot selects the
higher setting there will be:
A Increased landing distance and reduced go around performance
B Increased landing distance and improved go around performance
C Reduced landing distance and improved go around performance
D Reduced landing distance and reduced go around performance D
Question In a balanced turn load factor is dependent on:

A radius of turn and aircraft weight
performance
Question In a balanced turn load factor is dependent on:
B TAS and bank angle

C radius of turn and bank angle
D bank angle only D
Question What condition is found at the intersection of the thrust available and the drag curve?

A Un-accelerated flight in a climb
B Accelerated climb
C Un-accelerated level flight C
D Accelerated level flight
Question Out of the four forces acting on the aircraft in flight, what balances thrust in the climb?

A Drag
B Weight
C W Sin
D Drag + W Sin D
Question Rate of Climb 1000 ft/minTAS 198 ktsWhat is the climb gradient?

A 5.08%
B 3%
C 4%
D 4.98% D
Question What happens to the speeds, VX and VY, when lowering the aircraft¿s landing gear?

A VX increases, VY decreases
B VX decreases, VY decreases B
C VX increases, VY increases
performance
Question What happens to the speeds, VX and VY, when lowering the aircraft¿s landing gear?
D VX decreases, VY increases
Question Maximum Endurance:

A can be achieved in level un-accelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption A
B can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight
C can be achieved in a steady climb
D can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling
Question For a piston-engined aeroplane at a constant altitude, angle of attack and configuration, an increased
weight will require:
A more power but less speed
B more power and the same speed
C more power and more speed C
D the same power but more speed
Question In the climb an aircraft has a thrust to weight ratio of 1:4 and a lift to drag ratio of 12:1. While
ignoring the slight difference between lift and weight in the climb, the climb gradient will be:
A 3.0%
B 8.3%
C 16.7% C
D 3.3%
Question Which of the following will not decrease the value of VS?

A The C of G in an aft position within the C of G envelope
B Increased altitude B
C Decreased weight
D Increased flap setting
performance
Question The region of speed instability is:

A the region above the thrust available and drag curve intersection
B the region in which manual control is not possible
C at speeds below the low-speed buffet
D the same as the region of reversed command D
Question The maximum induced drag occurs at a speed of:

A VMD
B VMP
C VSO C
D VATO
Question Profile drag is:

A inversely proportional to the square root of the EAS
B directly proportional to the square of the EAS B
C inversely proportional to the square of the EAS
D directly proportional to the square root of the EAS
Question VMD for a jet aeroplane is approximately equal to:

A 1.3 VS
B 1.7 VS
C 1.6 VS C
D 2.1 VS
Question The best EAST/Drag ratio is approximately:

A 1.3 VMD
performance
Question The best EAST/Drag ratio is approximately:
B 1.32 VMD B
C 1.6 VMD
D 1.8 VMD
Question The effect an increase of weight has on the value of stalling speed (IAS) is that VS.

A increases A
B decreases
C remains constant
D increases or decreases, depending on the amount of weight increase
Question An aircraft is climbing at a constant power setting and a speed of VX. If the speed is reduced and the
power setting maintained the:
A Climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb will increase
B Climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb will decrease B
C Climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb will increase
D Climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb will decrease
Question Which of the following would give the greatest gliding endurance?

A Flight at VMD
B Flight at 1.32 VMD
C Flight at the best CL/CD ratio
D Flight close to CL MAX D
Question What gives one the greatest gliding time?

A Lower mass A
B A head wind
C A tail wind
performance
Question What gives one the greatest gliding time?
D Higher mass
Question Which 3 speeds are effectively the same for a jet aircraft?

A ROC, Range, minimum Drag
B Range, Best angle of climb, minimum Drag
C Best angle of climb, minimum Drag, Endurance C
D Best angle of climb, Range, Endurance
Question The long range cruise speed is a speed that gives:

A 1 1% increase in range and a decrease in IAS
B a 1% increase in TAS
C a 1% increase in IAS
D gives 99% of best cruise range, with an increase in IAS D
Question Which of the following speeds give the maximum obstacle clearance in the climb?

A VY
B 1.2 VS1
C VX C
D VFE
Question The tangent, from the origin t the Power required curve gives?

A Minimum Drag coefficient
B L/D Minimum
C D/L Maximum
D L/D Maximum D
performance
Question For an aircraft gliding at its best glide range speed, if AoA is reduced:

A glide distance will increase
B glide distance will remain unaffected
C glide distance will decrease C
D glide distance will remain constant, if speed is increased
Question The take off performance for a turbo jet aircraft using 10o flap results in the following limitations:
Choices Obstacle clearance limited mass: 4630 kg

Field length limited mass: 5270 kg
Given that it is intended to take off with a mass of 5000 kg, which of the following statements is true?
Answers Correct
A With 5o flap the clearance limit will increase and the field limit will decrease A
B With 15o flap both will increase
C With 5o flap both will increase
D With 15o flap the clearance limit will increase and the field limit will decrease
Question For a given power setting in the climb, if the speed is increased:

A the ROC will decrease if the speed is below Vy
B the ROC will increase if the speed is below Vy B
C the gradient of climb will increase if the speed is above Vx
D the gradient of climb will decrease if the speed is below Vx
Question If the TAS is 100 kts on the glide slope of 3o, what is the Rate of Descent?

A 500 ft/min A
B 1000 ft/min
C 300 ft/min
D 250 ft/min
performance
Question If an aircraft commander elects to land with flap 25 instead of the normal procedure of landing with flap
35, what change in landing performance can be expected?
A LDR increases, go around performance improved A
B LDR increases, go around performance degraded
C LDR decreases, go around performance degraded
D LDR decreases, go around performance improved
Question Still air gradient of climb: 3.8%TAS: 100 ktsGS: 130 ktsThe wind effective climb gradient is:

A 4.9%
B 4.2%
C 3.8%
D 2.9% D
Question An aircraft with a Centre of Gravity towards the aft limit will experience:

A an increased range and increased stalling speed
B a decreased range and increased stalling speed
C an increased range and decreased stalling speed C
D an decreased range and decreased stalling speed
Question What rate of climb will be achieved with a climb gradient of 3.3% and a ground speed of 100 knots?

A 305 ft/min
B 335 ft/min B
C 370 ft/min
D 400 ft/min
Question An obstacle is 5000m from the end of the TODR and is 160m high. The screen height is 50 ft and the climb
gradient is 5%. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The obstacle will be cleared by 710 ft
performance
PERFORMANCED CLASS B – MULTI ENGINE - Use of performance graphs and tabulated dat
Question An obstacle is 5000m from the end of the TODR and is 160m high. The screen height is 50 ft and the climb
gradient is 5%. Which of the following statements is correct?
B The obstacle will be cleared by 345 ft B
C The obstacle will be cleared by 295 ft
D The obstacle will not be cleared
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 3.4)With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the
accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power
Choices is set?
Answers Correct
A Performance will be better than in the chart
B No, the performance will be worse that in the chart B
C Yes, the chart has been made for this situation
D It does not matter which take-off technique is being used
Question (Refer to figure 032_8.4)Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of
the diagrams shows the correct curves for FLAPS DOWN compared to CLEAN configuration?
A A A
B B
C D
D D
Question The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75%. The 75% power
setting in relation to the 65% results in:
A same speed andfuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour
B an increase inspeed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance B
C same speed andan increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel- burn/distance
D an increase inspeed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour
Question Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. In which direction does the curve
for FLAPS DOWN move when compared to the CLEAN configuration curve?
A Left and horizontally
B Left and Down B
performance
Question Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. In which direction does the curve
for FLAPS DOWN move when compared to the CLEAN configuration curve?
C Right and Up
D Left and Up
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 2-1)Given: Flaps: UP Aerodrome pressure altitude: 6000 ft Ambient
temperature: +20oC Take off weight: 3400 lb Headwind component: 10 kt Runway: 1% downhill; wet grass What is
Choices the TOD?
Answers Correct
A 1700 feet
B 2210 feet B
C 1615 feet
D 3120 feet
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 3-9)Given:Flaps: 40o Aerodrome pressure altitude: sea level Ambient temperature:
+15oC Landing weight: 4000 lb Wind: calm Runway: wet grass What is the Landing Distance?
A 1240 feet
B 1400 feet
C 2040 feet
D 2345 feet D
Question (Refer to CAP 598 or figure 032_ 3-2)Given:OAT: 25oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 26L Wind: 310o/20 kts
Take off mass: 4400 lbs Heavy duty brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the
Choices chart Find the Accelerate-Stop distance:
Answers Correct
A 3550 ft A
B 3800 ft
C 3350 ft
D 4300 ft
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-2) Given:OAT: 25oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24L Wind: 310o/20 kts
Take off mass: 4400 lbs Heavy duty brakes installed: Other conditions as associated in the header of the
Answers Correct
A 3750 ft A
B 4000 ft
performance
Take off mass: 4400 lbs Heavy duty brakes installed: Other conditions as associated in the header of the
chart Find the Accelerate-Stop distance:
C 3350 ft
D 4300 ft
Take off Mass: 4500 lbs Heavy duty brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the
Answers Correct
A 3400 ft
B 4500 ft
C 3600 ft
D 4200 ft D
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-2)Given:OAT: 20oC Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft RWY: 07R Wind: 120o/15 kts
Answers Correct
A 3400 ft A
B 3650 ft
C 3250 ft
D 3800 ft
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-2)Given: OAT: -10oC Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 30L Wind: 180o/10 kts
Choices chart.Find the Accelerate-Stop distance:
Answers Correct
A 3550 ft
B 4600 ft
C 4300 ft C
D 3800 ft
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or Figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: 24oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080o/12 kts
Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph What is the take off
Choices distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
Answers Correct
A 1440 ft
performance
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or Figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: 24oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080o/12 kts
distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
B 1650 ft
C 1750 ft C
D 1950 ft
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: 24oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 080o/12 kts Take off
Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the ground roll?
A 1050 ft
B 1700 ft
C 1350 ft C
D 1150 ft
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: 24oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind: 060o/4 kts
Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the take off
Answers Correct
A 2150 ft
B 1670 ft
C 1550 ft
D 2000 ft D
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: 24oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30 R Wind: 060o/4 kts
Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph What is the ground roll?
A 2150 ft
B 2000 ft
C 1780 ft
D 1670 ft D
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: -15oC Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 080o/12 kts
Answers Correct
A 1550 ft A
performance
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: -15oC Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 080o/12 kts
distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
B 1270 ft
C 1220 ft
D 1830 ft
Question (Refer to to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1) Given:OAT: -15oC Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind:
080o/12kts Take off Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph What is the
Choices ground roll?
Answers Correct
A 1600 ft
B 1270 ft B
C 1500 ft
D 1830 ft
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7) Given:OAT: -20oC Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs
Mixture: full rich Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of
Choices climb?
Answers Correct
A 1300 ft/min A
B 170 ft/min
C 970 ft/min
D 1550 ft/min
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7) Given:OAT: -20oC Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs
Mixture: leaned to 25oF G rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph What is
Choices the rate of climb?
Answers Correct
A 870 ft/min
B 1370 ft/min
C 1050 ft/min C
D 550 ft/min
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7) Given:OAT: -20oC Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Other
conditions as associated in the header of the graph What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb?
A 1250 ft/min
performance
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7) Given:OAT: -20oC Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Other
B 175 ft/min B
C 375 ft/min
D 625 ft/min
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7)Given:OAT: 10oC Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture:
full rich Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph What is the two engine rate of climb?
A 430 ft/min
B 1570 ft/min
C 1970 ft/min
D 1770 ft/min D
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7)Given:OAT: 0o CPressure Altitude: 16000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture:
leaned to 25oF rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph What is the two-
Choices engine rate of climb?
Answers Correct
A 500 ft/min
B 870 ft/min
C 1200 ft/min
D 1050 ft/min D
Question (Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7) Given:OAT: 10oC Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Other
A 430 ft/min A
B 500 ft/min
C 890 ft/min
D 200 ft/min
Question According to the information in a light aircraft manual, which gives two power settings for cruise, 65% and
75%. If you fly at 75% instead of 65%:
A Cruise speed will be higher, fuel consumption will be higher A
B Cruise speed will be the same, fuel consumption will be the same
performance
Question According to the information in a light aircraft manual, which gives two power settings for cruise, 65% and
75%. If you fly at 75% instead of 65%:
C Cruise speed will be higher, fuel consumption will be lower
D Cruise speed will be higher, fuel consumption will be the same
Question If a turbo prop aircraft has a wet LDA of 2200m, what would the equivalent dry landing distance allowed be?

A 1540 m
B 1148 m
C 1913 m
D 1339 m D
Question Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?

A 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass
B On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited
C The climb limited take off mass decreases with increasing OAT C
D The climb limited take off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb
Ref ATPL A
Question The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified
turbojet aeroplane with 5o, 15o and 25o flaps angles on take off, leads to the
Choices following values, with wind:
Flap angle: 5o/15o/25o
Runway limitation (kg): 66000/69500/71500
Second segment slope limitation: 72200/69000/61800
Wind corrections:
Head wind: +120 kg/kt
Tail wind: -360 kg/kt
Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on
brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
Answers Correct
A 69000 kg/15 deg
B 67700 kg/15 deg B
C 72200 kg/5 deg
D 69700 kg/25 deg
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question If the flap setting is changed from 10 degrees to 20 degrees, V2MIN will:

A remain the same
B decrease if not limited by VMCA B
C increase
D increase or decrease depending on weight
Ref ATPL A
Question Increase in ambient temperature will result in:

A increased field length limited mass
B decrease of maximum brake energy limited mass B
C increase of climb limited mass
D increased obstacle limited mass
Ref ATPL A
Question If the aircraft takes off at the wet V1 instead of the dry V1, what is the effect on (i) TODR (ii) climb
performance?
A (i) TODR increases; (ii) Climb performance degraded A
B (i) TODR increases; (ii) Climb performance improved
C (i) TODR decreases; (ii) Climb performance degraded
D (i) TODR decreases; (ii) Climb performance improved
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed VR:

A must be equal to or lower than V1
B must be higher than V2
C must be higher than VLOF
D is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated D
Ref ATPL A
Question What are the minimum and maximum values of V1?

A VMCG, VS
performance
Question What are the minimum and maximum values of V1?
B VMCA, V3
C VS, V2
D VMCG, VR D
Ref ATPL A
Question The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:

A 1.15 Vs for four engine turbo prop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turbo prop A
aeroplanes
B 1.20 Vs for
all turbojet aeroplanes
C 1.15 Vs for
all turbojet aeroplanes
D None of the
above
Ref ATPL A
Question Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m3, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on the load sheet will
result in:
A TOD increasing and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast
B TOD and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast B
C TOD and ASD remaining constant, if the calculated speeds are used
D TOD and ASD increasing, if the calculated speeds are used
Ref ATPL A
Question Taking into account the values given below what would be the maximum
authorised takeoff weight?
Choices
Flap setting: 5o/10o/15o
Field length limited mass: 49650 kg/ 52600kg/ 56950 kg
WAT limited mass: 51250 kg/ 49100 kg/ 45500 kg
Answers Correct
A 49650 kg A
B 49100 kg
C 45500 kg
D 56950 kg
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question Reference point zero refers to:

A point where the aircraft lifts off the ground
B point where the aircraft reaches V2
C point where the aircraft reaches 35 ft C
D point where gear is selected up
Ref ATPL A
Question The take off mass could be limited by:

A the maximum brake energy only
B the take of distance available (TODA) the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one B
engine inoperative
C the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only
D the take off distance available (TODA) only
Ref ATPL A
Question What will be the effect on an aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?

A It will increase the accelerate stop distance
B It will increase the take off distance required
C It will increase the take off ground run
D It will decrease the take off distance required D
Ref ATPL A
Question During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the
field length limited TOM using 5o flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are
Choices no limiting obstacles.
Answers Correct
A By selecting a higher V2
B By selecting a higher flap setting B
C By selecting a lower V2
D By selecting a lower flap setting
Ref ATPL A
Question Take off run required for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is:
performance
Question Take off run required for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is:

A brake release point to midpoint between VLOF and 35 ft A
B brake release point to 35 ft
C brake release point to 15 ft
D the same as for all engines
Ref ATPL A
Question The definition of V3 is:

A The all engines target speed for the climb to flap retraction height
B The aircraft speed on all engines as it passes through the screen height B
C 1.15 x VS
D 1.3 x VS
Ref ATPL A
Question VR cannot be lower than:

A 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane
B 105% of V1 and VMCA
C V1 and 105% of VMCA C
D 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following sequences represents the correct order on take off?

A V1, VMCA, VR, V2
B VMCG, V1, VR, V2 B
C VMCG, VR, V1, V2
D VMCG, V1, VMCA, VR
Ref ATPL A
Question Regarding the obstacle limited take off mass, which of the following statements is correct?

A Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass
performance
Question Regarding the obstacle limited take off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
B A take off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition B
C The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take off mass
D The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10o
Ref ATPL A
Question If the take off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would

A increase the maximum mass for take off
B decrease the maximum mass for take off
C have no effect on the maximum mass for take off C
D increase the required take off distance
Ref ATPL A
Question An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the
calculation of the maximum allowed take off mass, the take off distance available cannot be greater than:
A 4000 metres
B 6000 metres
C 4500 metres C
D 5000 metres
Ref ATPL A
Question The length of a clearway may be included in:

A the take off distance available A
B the accelerate stop distance available
C the take off run available
D the distance to reach V1
Ref ATPL A
Question At the same aircraft mass if a higher V1 was used then

A TODR will be unaffected and ASDR will increase
B TODR will increase and ASDR decrease
C TODR will decrease and ASDR increase C
performance
Question At the same aircraft mass if a higher V1 was used then
D TODR and ASDR will increase

Ref ATPL A
Question During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured
take off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at
Choices which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above
the take off surface are:
- 1747 m all engines operating

- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognised at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.
Considering both possibilities to determine the take off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
Answers Correct
A 2009 m A
B 2243 m
C 2096 m
D 1950 m
Ref ATPL A
Question With regard to a take off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?

A Screen height cannot be reduced
B When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the
runway length
C In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
D The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties D
Ref ATPL A
Question Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by:

A V2 and VMCG
B V2 and VMCA
C VR and VMCA
D VR and VMCG D
Ref ATPL A
Question What procedure is likely to require V1 to be reduced?
performance
Question What procedure is likely to require V1 to be reduced?

A When ASDA is greater than TODA
B Take off with anti-skid inoperative B
C Reduced thrust take off
D The improved climb procedure
Ref ATPL A
Question When take off mass is limited by VMBE, an increase in the uphill slope will:

A have no effect
B require a decrease in the mass
C allow an increase in the mass C
D decrease the TODR
Ref ATPL A
Question When operating with anti-skid inoperative:

A only take off performance will be affected
B only landing performance will be affected
C neither take off nor landing performance will be affected
D both take off and landing performance will be affected D
Ref ATPL A
Question During aircraft certification, the value of VMCG is found with nose wheel steering inoperative. This is
because:
A nose wheel steering does not affect VMCG
B VMCG must be valid in both wet and dry conditions B
C nose wheel steering does not work after an engine failure
D the aircraft may be operated even if the nose wheel steering in inoperative
Ref ATPL A
Question Reduced take off thrust should normally not be used when:

A it is dark
performance
B the runway is contaminated B

C the runway is wet
D obstacles are present close to the end of the runway
Ref ATPL A
Question The decision speed at takeoff (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:

A below which take off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognised, above which take off A
must be continued
B at which the take off must be rejected
C below which the take off must be continued
D at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur
Ref ATPL A
Question The maximum tyre speed limits:

A VR or VMU if this is lower than VR
B V1 in kt TAS
C VLOF in terms of ground speed C
D V1 in kt ground speed
Ref ATPL A
Question When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:

A the balanced take off distance equals 115% of the all engine takeoff distance
B the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point
C the actual take off mass equals the field length limited take off mass C
D the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 032_5-2)In the following figure, the curves B and A represent:

A the climb limited take off weight and the field length limited take off weight A
B the obstacle limited take off weight and the fuel limited take off weight
performance
Question (Refer to figure 032_5-2)In the following figure, the curves B and A represent:
C the field length limited take off weight and the MZFW limitation
D the maximum tyre speed limitations and the MTOW limitation
Ref ATPL A
Question Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take off?

A VMCG, V1, VR, V2 A
B V1, VMCG, VR, V2
C V1, VR, VMCG, V2
D V1, VR, V2, VMCA
Ref ATPL A
Question If the field length limited takeoff mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the
use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow:
A the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1
B a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
C the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
D a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1 D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?

A The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
B Straight flight cannot be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed B
C The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
D VMCA only applies to four engine aeroplanes
Ref ATPL A
Question It is recommended that the maximum crosswind for takeoff on a contaminated runway surface is:

A 20 kts
B 15 kts
C 10 kts C
D 5 kts
performance
Question It is recommended that the maximum crosswind for takeoff on a contaminated runway surface is:
Ref ATPL A
Question Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take off
ground run?
A Decreased take off mass, increased density, increased flap setting A
B Decreased take off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature
C Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take off mass
D Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting
Ref ATPL A
Question A higher outside air temperature (OAT):

A increases the field length limited take off mass
B decreases the brake energy limited take off mass B
C increases the climb limited take off mass
D decreases the take off distance
Ref ATPL A
Question How does runway slope affect allowable take off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not
limiting?
A A downhill slope increases allowable take off mass A
B An uphill slope increases take off mass
C Allowable take off mass is not affected by runway slope
D A downhill slope decreases allowable take off mass
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:

A 1.3 V1
B 1.2 VMCG
C 1.05 VLOF
D 1.2 Vs D
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?

A the field limited take off mass
B the climb limited take off mass B
C the obstacle limited take off mass
D the take off run
Ref ATPL A
Question Can take off be scheduled if V1 < VMCG?

A Only if VMCG is decreased to equal V1
B Yes
C No C
D Only if V1 is decreased to equal VMCG
Ref ATPL A
Question Give the correct order for the following speeds:

A Vmcg, VR, V1, V2
B Vmcg, V1, VR, V2 B
C V1, Vmcg, VR, V2
D Vmcg, V1, Vmca, V2, VR
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the effect of a negative runway slope?

A V1 decreases A
B V1 increases
C VR decreases
D VR increases
Ref ATPL A
Question Which factors might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?
Choices (i) large flap angles

(ii) small flap angles
performance
Question Which factors might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?
(i) large flap angles

(ii) small flap angles
(iii) high air pressure
(iv) low air pressure
(v) high aircraft weights
(vi) low aircraft weights
Answers Correct
A (ii), (iii) and (v)
B (ii)m (iv) and (vi)
C (i), (iii) and (vi) C
D (i), (iii) and (v)
Ref ATPL A
Question VR must be:

A between 1.05 VMCA and V1
B greater than VMCA and greater than 1.1 V1
C greater than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1 C
D no greater than 0.95 VMU
Ref ATPL A
Question The effects of a contaminated runway on the field limit mass are:

A decreased weight, increased V1, increased VR
B decreased weight, same V1, increased VR
C decreased weight, same V1, same VR
D decreased weight, decreased V1, decreased VR D
Ref ATPL A
Question At an airfield which has a high absolute humidity compared to an airfield with low absolute humidity:

A the aircraft will produce more thrust because the water vapour cools the engines
B the aircraft will produce less thrust because the density is reduced B
C the thrust will not be affected
D the aircraft will produce more thrust because mass flow is increased
performance
Question At an airfield which has a high absolute humidity compared to an airfield with low absolute humidity:
Ref ATPL A
Question If not VMBE or Vmcg limited, what would V1 be limited by:

A V2
B Vmca
C VR C
D VMU
Ref ATPL A
Question Can the length of a stop way be added to the runway length to determine the take off distance available?

A Yes, but the stop way must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane
B No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway
C No C
D Yes, but the stop way must have the same width as the runway
Ref ATPL A
Question How does the slush thickness affect the V1 reduction required?

A Greater reduction if thicker
B Smaller reduction if thicker B
C No affect if mass is reduced
D No affect at all
Ref ATPL A
Question The operational regulations regarding scheduled performance are contained in the following document:

A Joint Airworthiness Requirements ¿ Operations (JAR-OPS) A
B Joint Airworthiness Requirements (JAR 23)
C Joint Airworthiness Requirements (JAR 25)
D Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR 25)
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question Water equivalent depth is:

A the depth of water in the contaminant
B the contaminant depth x 0.5
C the contaminant depth x specific gravity C
D the measured depth of the contaminant
Ref ATPL A

A A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take off
B An under-run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take off
C A stop way means an area beyond the take off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an C
aborted take off
D If a clearway or a stop way is used, the lift off point must be attainable at least at the end
of the permanent runway surface
Ref ATPL A
Question The take off safety speed V2 min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not
be less than:
A 1.2 Vs
B 1.3 Vs
C 1.15 Vs C
D 1.2 Vs1
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?

A VLOF
B VMCG B
C VMU
D VR
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following represents the maximum value forV1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed
are not limiting?
performance
Question Which of the following represents the maximum value forV1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed
are not limiting?
A V2
B VMCA
C VR C
D VREF
Ref ATPL A
Question The effect of a runway contaminated with 0.5 cm of slush on take off calculations would be to decrease the
TOM
A decrease V1 and decrease VR A
B with the same V1 and increase VR
C increase the V1 and increase VR
D decrease V1 with the same VR
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 032_5-1)The distances X, Y, Z and W are defined as:

A LDA, TORA, ASDA, TODA A
B LAD, ASDA, TORA, TODA
C ADSA, TODA, TORA, LDA
D TODA, TORA, ASDA, LDA
Ref ATPL A
Question Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take off?

A A low runway elevation and a cross wind
B A high runway elevation and tail wind B
C A high runway elevation and a head wind
D A low runway elevation and a head wind
Ref ATPL A
Question If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct?

A The take off is not permitted A
performance
B The one engine out take off distance will become greater than the ASDR
C The VMCG will be lowered to V1
D The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take off distance
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following answers is true?

A V1 < VMCG
B V1 < VR
C V1 < VR C
D V1 < Vlof
Ref ATPL A
Question A balanced field length occurs when:

A the take off distance and half the clearway equals ASDA
B the distance to accelerate to V1 and the distance to stop are identical
C VGO = VSTOP = V1
D ASDA equals TODA D
Ref ATPL A
Question Reduced take off thrust:

A can be used if the actual take off mass is higher than the performance limited take off mass
B has the benefit of improving engine life B
C is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT)
D can be used if the headwind component during take off is at least 10 kt
Ref ATPL A
Question May anti-skid be considered to determine the take off and landing data?

A Only for take off
B No
C Yes C
performance
Question May anti-skid be considered to determine the take off and landing data?
D Only for landing

Ref ATPL A
Question Before take off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason?

A Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take off A
B To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive
C To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly
D To ensure that the thermal blow out plugs are not melted
Ref ATPL A
Question If the take off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:

A increase the maximum mass for take off A
B decrease the maximum mass for take off
C have no effect on the maximum mass for take off
D decrease the required take off distance
Ref ATPL A
Question The TODA is:

A declared runway length plus clearway and stop way
B declared runway length plus stop way
C declared runway length plus clearway C
D declared runway length only
Ref ATPL A
Question Take off run is defined as the:

A distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet
B distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1
C horizontal distance along the take off path from the start of the take off to a point C
equidistance between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is
35 ft above the take off surface
performance
Question Take off run is defined as the:
D Distance from brake release to V2

Ref ATPL A
Question In which of the following distances can the length of a stop way be included?

A In the take off run available
B In the one engine failure case, take off distance
C In the all engine take off distance
D In the accelerate stop distance available D
Ref ATPL A

A VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1
B VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1
C VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1
D VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1 D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?

A Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take off mass is less than the field length limited A
take off mass
B Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure
C Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel
D In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased
Ref ATPL A
Question The required Take off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take off Mass (TOM) are different for the
zero flap case and take off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take off position
Choices compared to zero flap position?
Answers Correct
A Increased TOD required an increased field length limited TOM
B Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM
C Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM C
performance
Question The required Take off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take off Mass (TOM) are different for the
zero flap case and take off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take off position
compared to zero flap position?
D Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM
Ref ATPL A
Question The one engine out take off run is the distance between the brake release point and:

A the lift off point
B the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point B
C the point where V2 is reached
D the point half way between V1 and V2
Ref ATPL A
Question Uphill slope:

A increases the take off distance more than the accelerate stop distance A
B decreases the accelerate stop distance only
C decreases the take off distance only
D increases the allowed take off mass
Ref ATPL A
Question Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable
take off mass?
A Allowable take off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA
B Allowable take off mass increases
C There is not effect on allowable take off mass
D Allowable take off mass decreases D
Ref ATPL A
Question Considering the undercarriage assembly, the factors that limit aircraft performance are

A brake energy only
B wheel rotation speed and brake energy B
C wheel rotation speed only
D tyre pressure only
performance
Question Considering the undercarriage assembly, the factors that limit aircraft performance are
Ref ATPL A
Question VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than the greater of:

A 1.05 Vmca and V1 A
B Vmca and 1.1 V1
C VMBE and V1
D V1 and 1.1 Vmca
Ref ATPL A
Question A balanced field exists if:

A TORA = EDA
B TORA = TODA
C TODA is greater than EDA
D TODA = ASDA D
Ref ATPL A
Question The use of reduced take off thrust is permitted, only if:

A The actual take off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM
B The take off distance available is lower than the takeoff distance required one engine out at V1
C The actual take off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM C
D The actual take off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM
Ref ATPL A
Question The take off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon :

A only one engine operating
B all engines operating
C failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off C
distance
D failure of critical engine
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take off?

A The take off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest
B The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest B
C The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest
D The climb limited take off mass is the highest
Ref ATPL A
Question . During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distance measured from brake release to
the 35 feet point are equal to:
Choices
- 1547 m with all engines running
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged
The take off distance adopted for the certification file is:
Answers Correct
A 1547 m
B 1720 m
C 1779 m C
D 1978 m
Ref ATPL A
Question During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take off distances
measured are:
Choices
3050m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1
2555m with all engines operating and all other things being equal
The take off distance adopted for the certification file is:
Answers Correct
A 2398 m
B 3050 m B
C 3513 m
D 2655 m
Ref ATPL A

A wind shear is reported on the take off path A
performance
B it is dark
C the runway is dry
D the runway is wet
Ref ATPL A

A the runway is wet
B the OAT is ISA + 10oC
C anti skid is not usable C
D it is dark
Ref ATPL A
Question Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the take off mass?

A Nitrogen pressure in the strut, and brake temperature
B Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy B
C Tyre pressure and brake temperature
D Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure
Ref ATPL A
Question How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20o is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10o?

A V2 has the same value in both cases
B V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set
C V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only
D V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA D
Ref ATPL A
Question During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which
problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1?
A The one engine out take off distance required may exceed the take off distance available
B V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases
C It may lead to over-rotation
performance
Question During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which
problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1?
D The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available D
Ref ATPL A

A The performance limited takeoff mass is the highest of: - field length limited take off mass
climb limited take off mass obstacle limited take off mass
B The climb limited take off mass will increase if the headwind component increases
C The climb limited take off mass increases when a larger take off flap setting is used
D The climb limited take off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature D
Ref ATPL A
Question For a take off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?

A The greater the depth of contamination at constant take off mass, the more V1 has to be
decreased to compensate for decreasing friction
B Dry snow is not considered to affect the take off performance
C A slush covered runway must be cleared before take off, even if the performance data for
contaminated runway is available
D The performance data for take of must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a D
few values are verified by flight tests
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take off?

A Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components A
B Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components
C Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components
D Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components
Ref ATPL A
Question The effect of a higher take off flap setting up to the optimum is:

A a decrease of both the field length limited take off mass and the climb limited take off mass
B an increase of both the field length limited take off mass and the climb limited take off mass
performance
Question The effect of a higher take off flap setting up to the optimum is:
C an increase of the field length limited take off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take C
off mass
D a decrease of the field length limited take off mass but an increase of the climb limited take
off mass
Ref ATPL A
Question In case of an engine failure recognised below V1:

A the take off must be rejected A
B the take off may be continued if a clearway is available
C the take off should only be rejected if a stop way is available
D the take off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1
Ref ATPL A
Question In case of an engine failure which is recognised at or above V1:

A the take off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF
B a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take off distance
C the take off should be rejected in the speed is still below VR
D the take off must be continued D
Ref ATPL A
Question The take off distance required increases:

A due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack
B due to head wind because of the drag augmentation
C due to lower gross mass at take off
D due to slush on the runway D
Ref ATPL A
Question Balanced V1 is selected:

A if it is equal to V2
B if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take off distance B
performance
Question Balanced V1 is selected:
C for a runway length limited take off with a stop way to give the highest mass
D for a runway length limited take off with a clearway to give the highest mass
Ref ATPL A
Question The climb limited take off mass can be increased by:

A selecting a lower V1
B selecting a lower V2
C selecting a lower VR
D a lower flap setting for take off and selecting a higher V2 D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which statement related to a take off from a wet runway is correct?

A A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties A
B The use of a reduced VR is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway
C In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
D Screen height reduction cannot be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance
Ref ATPL A
Question Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down slope is correct for a balanced take off? Down
slope
A Increases V1 and increases the take off distance required (TODR)
B reduces V1 and reduces take off distance required (TODR) B
C increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR)
D reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR)
Ref ATPL A

A When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines
B The correction for up slope on the balanced V1 is negative
C VR may not be lower than V1 C
D V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
performance
Ref ATPL A
Question Which are the two most important parameters to determine the value of VMCG?

A Engine thrust and rudder deflection A
B Engine thrust and air density
C Air density and rudder deflection
D Engine thrust and flap setting
Ref ATPL A
Question During the certification of a jet aeroplane the following maximum take off
masses are determined for flap settings 5o/15o/25o with accounting for the wind:
Choices
Flaps: 5o/15o/25o
Field length limited TOM: 66/69.5/71.5 t
Second segment limited TOM: 72.2/69/61.8 t
Head wind correction: +120 kg/kt
Tail wind correction: -360 kg/kt
Under the conditions of a 5 kt tailwind, the maximum brake release TOM and corresponding flap setting will
be:
Answers Correct
A 69 t / 15o
B 67.7 t / 15o B
C 69.7 t / 25o
D 72.2 t / 5o
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the advantage of balanced V1 selection even in case when the take off mass is climb limited?

A Lowest take off distance required after an engine failure at V1
B Highest performance limited take off mass
C Grater safety margin with regard to the runway length available for take off C
D Lowest accelerate stop distance required
Ref ATPL A
Question Clearway may not exceed:
performance
Question Clearway may not exceed:

A 50% TODA
B 50% ASDA
C 150% ASDA
D 50% TORA D
Ref ATPL A
Question A reduction in air density causes:

A An increase in CL
B An increase in take off distance B
C A decrease in take off distance
D A decrease in CL
Ref ATPL A
Question During take off the third segment begins:

A when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2
B when flap retraction is completed
C when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started C
D when landing gear is fully retracted
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?

A VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR
B VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2
C VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR C
D V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG
Ref ATPL A
Question Considering the take off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?

A If an engine failure is recognised after reaching V1, the take off must be aborted
performance
Question Considering the take off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
B V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take off safety speed
C If an engine failure is recognised before reaching V1, the take off must be aborted C
D V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR
Ref ATPL A

A The ASDR will become grater than the one engine out take off distance
B The one engine out take off distance will become greater than the ASDR
C The VMCG will be lowered to V1
D V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG D
Ref ATPL A
Question Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this
limitation?
A ESS
B IAS
C TAS
D Ground speed D
Ref ATPL A
Question Take off on a runway with standing water, with a depth of 0.5 cm. Compared to a dry runway, field length
limited mass will:
A Increase, with a reduced V1
B Remain the same, with a reduced V1
C Decrease, with an increased V1
D Decrease, with a decreased V1 D
Ref ATPL A
Question A balanced field length is:

A Distance taken to accelerate to V1 and distance to stop are identical
B TORA X 1.5
C V1 = VR
performance
Question A balanced field length is:
D ASDA equals TODA D

Ref ATPL A
Question Taking into account the values given below, what would be the maximum authorised brake release mass?
Choices Flaps: 5o / 10o / 15o

Field limited mass: 49850 kg/ 52500 kg/ 58850 kg
Climb limited mass: 51250 kg/ 49300 kg/ 45500 kg
Answers Correct
A 56850 kg
B 49300 kg
C 49850 kg C
D 51250 kg
Ref ATPL A
Question A tailwind on take off will not affect:

A climb limit mass A
B obstacle clearance
C field limit mass
D VMBE
Ref ATPL A
Question Concerning landing gear, which factors limit take off performance?

A Brake temperature
B Wheel rate of rotation, brake energy B
C Tyre temperature
D Brake wear
Ref ATPL A
Question With a downward sloping runway:

A V1 will increase
B V1 will decrease B
performance
Question With a downward sloping runway:
C VR will increase
D VR will decrease
Ref ATPL A
Question The reduced thrust take off procedure may not be used when:

A Runway wet
B After dark
C Temperature varies by more than 10oC from ISA
D Anti-skid is inoperative D
Ref ATPL A
Question If the maximum take off mass is limited by tyre speed, what effect would a down sloping runway have?

A No effect A
B Always increase the mass
C Only increase the mass if not limited by any other limitation
D Decrease the mass
Ref ATPL A
Question Prior to take off the brake temperature needs to be checked, because:

A they indicate the state of the fusible plugs
B if the brakes are already hot, they may fade/overheat during a RTO B
C they would work better if they are warm
D they may need to be warmed up to prevent them from cracking during a RTO
Ref ATPL A
Question What is meant by balanced field available?

A TORA = TODA
B ASDA = ASDR and TODA = TODR
C TODA = ASDA C
D TORA = ASDA
performance
Question What is meant by balanced field available?
Ref ATPL A
Question What effect does an increase in weight have on V1?

A V1 will increase A
B V1 will decrease
C no effect
D it will cause V1 to decrease by the same percentage as the weight increase
Ref ATPL A
Question An aerodrome has a clearway of 500m and a stop way of 200m. If the stop way is extended to 500m the effect
will be:
A the maximum take off mass will increase, and V1 will decrease
B the maximum take off mass will increase and V1 will remain the same
C the maximum take off mass will remain the same and V1 will increase
D the maximum take off mass will increase and V1 will increase D
Ref ATPL A
Question The tyre speed limit is:

A V1 in TAS
B Max VLOF in TAS
C Max VLOF in ground speed C
D V1 in ground speed
Ref ATPL A
Question During certification of a light twin jet aircraft, a distance is measured of 1747m from brake release to a
point equidistant between VLOF and 35 ft. A further distance is measured of 1950m from brake release point
Choices to a point equidistant between VLOF and 35 ft, having simulated an engine failure at V1. The distance
specified as being the aircraft's TORR would be:
Answers Correct
A 1747 m
B 2243 m
C 1950 m
D 2009 m D
performance
Question During certification of a light twin jet aircraft, a distance is measured of 1747m from brake release to a
point equidistant between VLOF and 35 ft. A further distance is measured of 1950m from brake release point
to a point equidistant between VLOF and 35 ft, having simulated an engine failure at V1. The distance
specified as being the aircraft's TORR would be:
Ref ATPL A
Question Which is true regarding a balanced field:

A Provides largest gap between net and gross margins
B Provides minimum field length required in the case of an engine failure B
C Take off distance will always be more than stopping distance
D Distances will remain equal, even if engine failure speed is changed
Ref ATPL A
Question If the value of V1 is less than Vmcg:

A V1 is made equal to Vmcg A
B Vmcg is made equal to V1
C The take off is permitted anyway
D V1 is made equal to Vmca
Ref ATPL A
Question Vr for a class A aeroplane must not be less than:

A 10% above Vmu
B 5% above Vmca B
C 5% above Vmcg
D 10% above Vmca
Ref ATPL A
Question Which procedure is likely to involve V1 being reduced?

A Take off with inoperative anti-skid A
B Increased V2 technique
C Reduced thrust take off
D When ASDA > TODA
performance
Question Which procedure is likely to involve V1 being reduced?
Ref ATPL A
Question If the weight during take off was higher than expected which speed would be noticeable as being higher than
expected?
A Vlof A
B V1
C Vr
D V2
Ref ATPL A
Question With contamination of the aircraft's wings and fuselage:

A The TODR is unaffected
B ASDR will decrease
C stalling speed is unaffected
D the lift off speed will be increased D
Ref ATPL A
Question During a take off from a runway contaminated by slush the drag caused by the slush will:

A increase then decrease A
B increase then remain constant
C increase with increasing speed
D increase up to VP then increase at a greater rate
Ref ATPL A
Question What will increase the TODR?

A A runway down slope
B 5mm of slush on the runway surface B
C A decreased pressure altitude
D A decreased air temperature
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question The correct order to speeds is:

A VMU < VMCA < V1
B VS < VMCA < V2MIN B
C VR < VMCA < VLOF
D V2MIN < VMCA < VMU
Ref ATPL A
Question Can a stop way be used in take off calculations?

A yes A
B no
C only if the clearway is shorter than the stop way
D only if the stop way is shorter than the clearway
Ref ATPL A

A The maximum clearway that can be used is limited to 50% of the TORA making the TODA 150% of the A
TORA
B The TORA is 50% of the TODA as a declared distance making the TORA 1.5 times the TODA
C The TODA is always longer than the TORA
D If any clearway is present it must be reduced to no greater distance than the stop way
Ref ATPL A
Question If the aircraft rotates earlier and higher than expected what is the likely
reason?
Choices
1) The
rotate speed, VR, has been miscalculated
2) The
stabiliser trim setting has been miscalculated
3) The
centre of gravity is too far forward
4) The
centre of gravity is too far aft
5) The
decision speed V1, has been miscalculated
Answers Correct
A 1, 2 or 3
B 1, 2 or 4
C 4 or 5
performance
Question If the aircraft rotates earlier and higher than expected what is the likely
reason?
1) The rotate speed, VR, has been miscalculated

2) The stabiliser trim setting has been miscalculated
3) The centre of gravity is too far forward
4) The centre of gravity is too far aft
5) The decision speed V1, has been miscalculated
D 2 or 4 D
Ref ATPL A

A The TOD required with engine failure on a wet runway is to a screen height of 35 ft
B The TOD required with engine failure on a wet runway includes half of the airborne distance
C The ASD required only considers an engine failure case
D The ASD required must consider an aborted take off for both engine failure and all engine cases D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take off calculation is correct?

A The usable length of the clearway is not limited
B The field length limited take off mass will increase B
C V1 is increased
D V1 remains constant
Ref ATPL A
Question Up to which height in NADP 1 noise abatement procedure must V2 + 10-20 kts be maintained?

A 500 ft
B 3000 ft B
C 1000 ft
D 500 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question Fill in the blanks in the following statement which relates to field length limit requirements:
The distance to accelerate to ___ at which point an engine fails, followed by a reaction time of ___ and the
Choices ensuing deceleration to full stop must be completed within the ___
Answers Correct
performance
Question Fill in the blanks in the following statement which relates to field length limit requirements:
The distance to accelerate to ___ at which point an engine fails, followed by a reaction time of ___ and the
ensuing deceleration to full stop must be completed within the ___
A V1; 4 seconds; TODA
B V2; 4 seconds; ASDA
C V2; 2 seconds; TODA
D V1; 2 seconds; ASDA D
Ref ATPL A
Question With respect to field length limit fill in the blanks in the following statement:
The distance to accelerate to ___ at which point an engine fails, followed by the reaction time of ___ and
Choices the ensuring deceleration to full stop must be complete with the ___
Answers Correct
A VR, 2 sec, TORA
B V1, 2 sec, ASDA B
C VEF, 2 sec, TORA
D VGO, 2 sec, ASDA
Ref ATPL A
Question In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate
the aeroplane is to:
A deploy airbrakes or spoilers
B reverse engine thrust
C apply wheel brakes
D reduce the engine thrust D
Ref ATPL A
Question If a jet engine fails during take off, before V1:

A the take off can be continued or aborted
B the take off should be aborted B
C the take off should be continued
D the take off may be continued if aircraft speed is, above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP
Ref ATPL A
Question Maximum abandonment speed is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can:

A Safely continue or abandon take off in the event of an engine failure
performance
Question Maximum abandonment speed is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can:
B Safely abandon the take off in the event of an engine failure or with all engines operating B
C Safely abandon take off in the event of an engine failure
D Safely abandon take off with all engines operating
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?

A Take off run
B Accelerate Stop Distance B
C Take off distance
D All Engine Take off distance
Ref ATPL A
Question If the anti skid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?

A The accelerate stop distance increases A
B The accelerate stop distance decreases
C It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance
D Take off with anti skid inoperative is not permitted D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd
climb segment?
A The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take off thrust may be applied A
B The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft
C There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height
D The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines
operating
Ref ATPL A
Question The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is:

A larger
B smaller B
performance
Question The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is:
C equal
D depends on type of aircraft
Ref ATPL A
Question The take off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit
of an increase in the headwind component?
A None A
B The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take off flight
path
C The climb limited take off mass would increase
D The climb limited take off mass would decrease
Ref ATPL A
Question When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance/climb performance:

A decreases/decreases
B increases/increases
C remains constant/remains constant
D decreases/remains constant D
Ref ATPL A
Question The first segment of the take off flight path ends:

A at 35 ft above the runway
B at completion of flap retraction
C at reaching V2
D at completion of gear retraction D
Ref ATPL A
Question For take off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided:

A by banking not more than 15o between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation A
B by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is ore than 50 ft above runway elevation
C only by using standard turns
performance
Question For take off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided:
D by standard turns but only after passing 1500 ft

Ref ATPL A
Question In a turbojet aircraft, if an engine fails in the second segment of the climb at a speed of V2 + 10 kts the
correct action would be to:
A increase speed to V2 + 20 kt
B maintain V2 + 10 kt B
C reduce speed to V2
D level off immediately and commence flap retraction
Ref ATPL A
Question For a turbojet aeroplane the third segment of climb begins when:

A acceleration to flap retraction speed begins (min 400 ft) A
B landing gear is fully retracted
C acceleration from VLOF to V2 begins
D flaps are fully retracted
Ref ATPL A
Question The requirements with regard to take off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:

A 2 engined aeroplane
B the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane
C the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engined aeroplane C
D the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane
Ref ATPL A
Question For a Class A aircraft the net take-off flight path is sub-divided into various segments. Which of the
following statements is correct?
A The third segment is completed at the normal flap retraction height and is flown at max
continuous thrust
B The second segment is flow at V3 up to a height of 400 ft (Flap retraction height)
C The final segment starts at the end of segment 3 with the aircraft in a clean configuration, at C
the final segment climb speed with maximum continuous power set, ending at 1500 ft or higher if
there are distant obstacles to clear
performance
Question For a Class A aircraft the net take-off flight path is sub-divided into various segments. Which of the
following statements is correct?
D The first segment starts at the end of TODA where the aircraft should be at 50 ft and V2. This
segment is flown at V2 whilst the landing gear is retracted
Ref ATPL A
Question Vx and Vy with take off flaps will be:

A same as that for clean configuration
B higher than that for clean configuration
C lower than that for clean configuration C
D changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration
Ref ATPL A
Question A turbo prop aircraft with a maximum all up mass in excess of 5700 kg is limited to:

A 10o angle of bank up to 400 ft
B 15o angle of bank up to 400 ft B
C 20o angle of bank up to 400 ft
D 25o angle of bank up to 400 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following is not affected by a wind component on take off?

A Field length limited TOM
B Obstacle limited TOM
C Climb limited TOM C
D Tyre speed limited TOM
Ref ATPL A
Question If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:

A increase
B not be affected B
C decrease
D increase in the flaps extended case
performance
Question If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
Ref ATPL A
Question The second segment begins:

A when landing gear is fully retracted A
B when flap retraction begins
C when flaps are selected up
D when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?

A High take off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation
B Low take off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation
C High take off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation
D Low take off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation D
Ref ATPL A
Question For a turbo jet aeroplane the second segment of the climb begins when:

A Accelerating from V2 to flap retraction speed begins
B Landing gear is fully retracted B
C Flap retraction begins
D Flaps are fully retracted
Ref ATPL A
Question What factors would cause V2 to be limited by Vmca?

A Flaps at high settings
B With high pressure
C With low temperature
D Combination of the above D
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question Which of the following statements is true regarding the increased V2 procedure?

A The take off mass can always be increased by increasing the V2 speed
B Increasing the V2 speed has the effect of increasing the TODR and increasing the climb gradient B
for a given TOM
C The take off mass can only be increased by increasing the V2 speed if the field length mass
limit is less than the climb limit
D The TOM can always be increased by increasing the V2
Ref ATPL A
Question Requirements for the third segment of climb are:

A minimum acceleration altitude for one engine inoperative should be used
B there is no climb gradient requirement during acceleration phase
C level acceleration with an equivalent gradient of 1.2% C
D legal minimum altitude for acceleration is 1500
Ref ATPL A
Question In relation to the net take off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is

A the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed
B based on pressure altitudes
C the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within C
the obstacle corridor
D the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust
Ref ATPL A
Question At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?

A When gear retraction is completed
B 35 ft above ground
C 400 ft above field elevation C
D 1500 ft above field elevation
Ref ATPL A
Question The take off safety speed V2 for two engined or three engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be
less than:
performance
Question The take off safety speed V2 for two engined or three engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be
less than:
A 1.15 Vs
B 1.3 Vs
C 1.2 Vs C
D 1.15 Vs1
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the
third climb segment is correct?
A a lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances eg. noise abatement
B The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft B
C The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft
D There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the
calculation of the net flight path
Ref ATPL A
Question If the flap selection is changed from 5o to 15o then V2 will:

A stay the same
B decrease B
C increase
D none of the above
Ref ATPL A
Question V2 MIN may not be less than:

A 1.08 VSR for 4 engine turbo props and 1.13 VSR for 2 and 3 engined turbo props A
B 1.2 VS for all turbojets
C 1.2 VSR for all turbo props and 1.15 VSR for all turbojets
D 1.15 VS for all aeroplanes
Ref ATPL A
Question Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
Choices Thrust = 50000 Newton/Engine

g = 10 m/s2
performance
Question Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust = 50000 Newton/Engine

g = 10 m/s2
Drag = 72569 N
Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust – Drag)/Weight
The maximum take-off mass under second segment conditions is:

Answers Correct
A 286781 kg
B 74064 kg
C 209064 kg
D 101596 kg D
Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum climb gradient required on the second flight path segment after
the take off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:
Choices
1) Gear up
2) Gear down
3) Wing flaps retracted
4) Wing flaps in take off position
5) N engines at the take off thrust
6) (n-1) engines at the take off thrust
7) Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt
8) Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS
9) Speed over the path equal to V2
10) At a height of 35 ft above the runway
The correct statements are:

Answers Correct
A 1, 5, 8, 10
B 1, 4, 6, 9 B
C 2, 3, 6, 9
D 1, 4, 5, 10
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?

A Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT
performance
Question Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?
B Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT

C Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT C
D High flap setting, low PA, low OAT
Ref ATPL A
Question An operator shall ensure that the net take off flight path clears all obstacles. The half width of the
obstacle corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
A -90m + 1.125D
B 90m + D/0 125
C 90m + 0.125D C
D 0.125 D
Ref ATPL A

A The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition
B The take off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component
C The climb limited take off mass is independent of the wind component C
D The performance limited take off mass is independent of the wind component
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following statements concerning the obstacle limited take off mass for performance class A
aeroplane, is correct?
A It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the net
take of flight path
B it cannot be lower that the corresponding climb limited take off mass
C it should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with respect to the net take C
off flight path
D It should not be corrected for 30o bank turns in the take off path
Ref ATPL A
Question In the event that the take off mass is obstacle limited and the take off flight path includes a turn, the
bank angle should not exceed:
A 15 degrees up to a height of 400 ft A
performance
Question In the event that the take off mass is obstacle limited and the take off flight path includes a turn, the
bank angle should not exceed:
B 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft
C 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft
D 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft
Ref ATPL A
Question How does the maximum climb limited take off mass change under tailwind conditions:

A Decreases
B Increases with flaps extended for take off
C Increases
D Does not change D
Ref ATPL A
Question If a turn is commenced during the take off flight path, the load factor (i), the induced drag (ii), and the
climb gradient (iii), will:
A (i) increase (ii) decrease (iii) decrease
B (i) decrease (ii) increase (iii) increase
C (i) increase (ii) increase (iii) decrease C
D (i) decrease (ii) decrease (iii) increase
Ref ATPL A
Question During take off the third segment begins:

A when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started A
B when landing gear is fully retracted
C when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2
D when flap retraction is completed
Ref ATPL A
Question the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:

A VSR, VMCA A
B VMCG, V2
C Vso, VMCA
performance
Question the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
D V1, VR
Ref ATPL A
Question the take off safety speed V2min for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not
be less than:
A 1.2 VSR
B 1.08 VSR B
C 1.13 VSR
D VSR
Ref ATPL A
Question The lowest take off safety speed (V2 min) is:

A 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes
B 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes
C 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo propeller aeroplanes
D 1.13 VSR for two and three engine turbo propeller and turbojet aeroplanes D
Ref ATPL A
Question The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by:

A 25%
B 15%
C 0.1 C
D 30%
Ref ATPL A
Question With an obstacle which is 160m above the airfield elevation and 5000m away from the end of the take off
distance (Screen height 50 ft). What would the obstacle clearance be with a gradient of 5%?
A 105m A
B 90m
C 250m
D 265m
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?

A 30%
B 10% B
C 20%
D 15%
Ref ATPL A
Question An operator shall ensure that the aircraft clears all obstacles in the net take off flight path. The half
width of the Obstacle Accountability Area (Domain) at distance D from the end of the TODA is:
A 90m + (D/0.125)
B 90m + (1.125 x D)
C 90m + (0.125 x D) C
D (0.125 x D)
Ref ATPL A
Question Of the four forces acting on an aircraft what balances thrust in a climb?

A Drag + W sin ¿ A
B Weight
C Drag
D Drag + W cos ¿
Ref ATPL A
Question Given a jet aircraft, which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?

A Vs Maximum range speed Vx
B Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed
C Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed C
D Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
Ref ATPL A
Question What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is
maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
A The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter
performance
Question What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is
maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
B The drag increases considerably
C The drag decreases
D The drag remains almost constant D
Ref ATPL A
Question The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass

A decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air A
density
B increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density
C increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed
D is independent of altitude
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?

A The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type
B The time to climb increases
C The time to climb decreases
D The time to climb does not change D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

A V2
B V2 + 10 kt
C The speed for maximum rate of climb
D The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum D
Ref ATPL A
Question When climbing at a constant Mach number in the troposphere, what is the effect on (i) IAS and (ii) TAS?

A (i) increases (ii) decreases
B (i) remains constant (ii) decreases
performance
Question When climbing at a constant Mach number in the troposphere, what is the effect on (i) IAS and (ii) TAS?
C (i) decreases (ii) increases

D (i) decreases (ii) decreases D
Ref ATPL A
Question Compared to the gross gradient of climb the net climb gradient will be:

A the same
B less B
C greater
D either greater or less depending on type
Ref ATPL A
Question As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of (i) IAS (ii) TAS and (iii) Mach number
will
A remain constant, increase, decrease
B increase, increase, increase
C remain constant, increase, increase C
D increase, decrease, increase
Ref ATPL A
Question For a given aircraft mass as altitude increases the effect on the margins to the low speed and high sped
buffet is to:
A decrease the low speed margin and increase the high speed margin
B increase the low speed margin but decrease the high speed margin
C increase both margins
D decrease both margins D
Ref ATPL A
Question In a constant Mach number climb, how does True Airspeed vary?

A Remains constant
B Decreases B
C Increases
D Increases then decreases
performance
Question In a constant Mach number climb, how does True Airspeed vary?
Ref ATPL A
Question When climbing at a constant MNo through the troposphere, TAS:

A increases
B decreases B
C remains constant
D increases then decreases
Ref ATPL A
Question In a climb, at a constant IAS/Mach No. 300 kts/0.78 M., what happens at the change over point (29500 ft,
ISA)?
A Accelerate from the IAS to the Mach number, and therefore rate of climb will decrease
B No change in rate of climb since TAS remains constant
C Find that rate of climb would start to increase C
D Find that rate of climb would start to decrease
Ref ATPL A
Question You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29200 ft (OAT =
ISA)?
A During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero
B The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced
as compared to constant IAS
C The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS climb is replaced by the constant Mach climb C
D No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA
temperature TAS = 460 kt)
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft with a climb gradient of 3.3%, flying at an IAS of 85 kts. At a pressure ALT of 8500 ft with a
temperature of +15o C will have a ROC of:
A 284 ft/min
B 623 ft/min
C 1117 ft/min
D 334 ft/min D
performance
Question An aircraft with a climb gradient of 3.3%, flying at an IAS of 85 kts. At a pressure ALT of 8500 ft with a
temperature of +15o C will have a ROC of:
Ref ATPL A
Question Climbing to cruise altitude in a headwind will:

A decrease the time taken
B decrease the ground distance covered B
C increase the time taken
D increase the fuel flow rate
Ref ATPL A
Question A four jet engined aeroplane (mass = 150000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The
lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75000 Newtons. The gradient climb is: (given:
Choices g=10m/s?):
Answers Correct
A 1.286%
B 12.86% B
C 27%
D 7.86%
Ref ATPL A
Question At MSL, in ISA conditions, climb gradient = 6%. What would the climb
gradient be if:
Choices
Temperature: 17oC
Engine anti-ice: on
Wing anti-ice: on
(-0.2% engine anti-ice, -0.1% wing anti-ice, +-0.2% per 1000 ft pressure altitude, +-0.1% per 1oC ISA
deviation)
Answers Correct
A 5.1% A
B 6.3%
C 3.8%
D 5.5%
Ref ATPL A
Question The diminishment to be applied to the gross gradient to obtain the net gradient for a twin engined Class A
aeroplane is:
performance
Question The diminishment to be applied to the gross gradient to obtain the net gradient for a twin engined Class A
aeroplane is:
A 1.0%
B 0.9%
C 0.8% C
D 0.7%
Ref ATPL A
Question If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is:

A higher
B lower B
C unchanged
D only affected by the aeroplane gross mass
Ref ATPL A
Question How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?

A TAS is not related to Mach Number
B TAS increases
C TAS is constant
D TAS decreases D
Ref ATPL A
Question At mean sea level in ISA conditions the aircraft climb gradient is 6%. Use the
corrections below to determine the climb gradient for a pressure altitude of
Choices 1000 ft and an air temperature of 17oC with engine and wing anti-icing on.
Engine anti-ice: -0.2%

Wing anti-ice: -0.1%
1000 ft pressure altitude: +/- 0.2%
1s ISA deviation: +/- 0.1%
Answers Correct
A 5.5%
B 3.8%
C 6.3%
D 5.1% D
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for:

A maximum specific range
B minimum drag B
C maximum endurance
D minimum specific range
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements
is correct?
A IAS increases and TAS decreases
B IAS increases and TAS increases
C IAS decreases and TAS increases
D IAS decreases and TAS decreases D
Ref ATPL A
Question A head wind will:

A increase the climb flight path angle A
B increase the angle of climb
C increase the rate of climb
D shorten the time of climb
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct? (From low to high speeds)

A Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed
B Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed
C Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed C
D Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed
Ref ATPL A
Question The main reason for using the stepped climb technique is to:

A decrease sector times
performance
Question The main reason for using the stepped climb technique is to:
B increase endurance
C adhere to ATC procedures
D increase range D
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?

A The Maximum operating Mach number A
B The Stalling speed
C The Minimum control speed air
D The Mach limit for the Mach trim system
Ref ATPL A
Question With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:

A 1.1 Vs
B The lowest CL/CD ratio
C 1.2 Vs
D The highest CL/CD ratio D
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle/the pitch
angle change?
A Reduce/decrease A
B Reduce/remain constant
C Remain constant/decrease
D Remain constant/become larger
Ref ATPL A
Question Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?

A A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb
B In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum
altitude
performance
C A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan
D Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3g buffet onset requirements D
Ref ATPL A
Question What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?

A The '1.3G' altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately
B The lift co-efficient increases B
C The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems
D IAS stays constant so there will be no problems
Ref ATPL A
Question A constant headwind component:

A increases the best rate of climb
B decreases the angle of climb
C increases the maximum endurance
D increases the angle of flight path during climb D
Ref ATPL A
Question On a segment of the take off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order
to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For
Choices the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum
mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient.
Answers Correct
A 106425 kg
B 118455 kg B
C 102150 kg
D 121310 kg
Ref ATPL A
Question When the climb speed plan changes from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new changeover altitude will be:

A Influenced only by the aeroplane gross mass
B Unchanged
performance
Question When the climb speed plan changes from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new changeover altitude will be:
C Higher
D Lower D
Ref ATPL A
Question How does an increased altitude affect the indicated stalling speed (when compressibility effects have to be
accounted for)?
A Indicated stalling speed will increase A
B Indicated stalling speed will not change up to 25000 ft, then decreases at higher altitudes
C Indicated stalling speed will not change up to 25000 ft, then increases at higher altitudes
D Indicated stalling speed will not change
Ref ATPL A
Question Relative to the ground a headwind ___ the effective climb angle and a tailwind __ the effective climb angle

A increases; decreases A
B decreases; increases
C increases; increases
D decreases; decreases
Ref ATPL A
Question To maintain climb airspeed following an increase in temperature the rate of climb is:

A reduced A
B increased
C zero
D unaffected
Ref ATPL A
Question An increase in ambient temperature causes the absolute ceiling to:

A decrease A
B increase
C remain unchanged
D increase subject to its relation to ISA
performance
Question An increase in ambient temperature causes the absolute ceiling to:
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 032_8-9)What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbo jet aeroplane with one
engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75000 kg? Using the following:G = 10 m/s21 kt = 100 ft/minSIN (Angle
Choices of climb) = (Thrust - Drag)/Weight
Answers Correct
A -1267 ft/min
B 0 ft/min
C +3293 ft/min
D +1267 ft/min D
Ref ATPL A
Question For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:

A 1.15 Vs
B the maximum CL/CD^2 ratio
C 1.2 Vs
D the maximum CL/CD ratio D
Ref ATPL A
Question Climbing in the troposphere at a constant TAS:

A Mach no. increases A
B Mach no. decreases
C CAS increases
D IAS increases
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number:

A the IAS decreases and TAS remain constant A
B the IAS and TAS remain constant
C the IAS decreases and TAS decreases
D the IAS remains constant and TAS increases
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question An aircraft is climbing at a constant IAS, below the Mach limit. As height increases:

A drag decreases, because density decreases
B drag remains constant, but the climb gradient decreases B
C drag increases, because TAS increases
D drag remains constant and the climb gradient remains constant
Ref ATPL A
Question If an aircraft's climb schedule was changed from 280/0.74M to 290/0.74M, what would happen to the change
over altitude?
A it would remain unchanged
B It could move up or down, depending on the aircraft
C It will move down C
D It will move up
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following formula provides a rough expression of climb gradient for small gradients?

A (L + W) x 100/weight
B (L - M) x 100/weight
C (T - D) x 100/weight C
D (T + D) x 100/weight
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft's maximum altitude is limited by:its certificated maximum altitudeits pressurisation limited
maximum altitudethe cruise buffet boundary
A 1 only
B 1 and 2
C 2 and 3
D 1, 2 and 3 D
Ref ATPL A
Question Long range cruise is selected as:

A the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind A
performance
Question Long range cruise is selected as:
B the speed for best economy

C the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative
D specific range with tailwind
Ref ATPL A
Question What is the effect of the centre of gravity on fuel consumption?

A The centre of gravity has no effect on fuel consumption
B The further the distance of the centre of gravity from the centre of pressure the greater the
fuel consumption
C The further forward the centre of gravity the greater the fuel consumption compared to an C
aircraft with an aft centre of gravity
D The further aft the centre of gravity the greater the fuel consumption compared to an aircraft
with a forward centre of gravity
Ref ATPL A
Question With respect to en-route diversions (using drift down graph), if you believe that you will not clear an
obstacle do you must:
A drift down to clearance height and then start to jettison fuel
B jettison fuel from the beginning of the drift down
C assess remaining fuel requirements, then jettison fuel as soon as possible C
D fly slightly faster
Ref ATPL A
Question A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires

A a lower coefficient of drag
B a lower coefficient of lift
C a higher angle of attack C
D a lower angle of attack
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the Buffet Onset Boundary graph?

A Aerodynamics A
performance
Question Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the Buffet Onset Boundary graph?
B Theoretical ceiling
C Service ceiling
D Economy
Ref ATPL A
Question Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:

A a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed
B a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range
C an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range
D a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed D
Ref ATPL A
Question A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, an has to overfly a high terrain area. In
order to allow the greatest clearanced height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
A giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio
B giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio
C of greatest lift-to-drag ratio C
D for long-range cruise
Ref ATPL A
Question Which is true about flight on the back end of the power curve/drag curve?

A A stall is impossible
B The aircraft is speed unstable B
C The aircraft cannot maintain altitude
D Less thrust is required
Ref ATPL A
Question Absolute ceiling occurs

A on a jet aircraft when the rate of climb falls to 750 ft/min
B when the achievable rate of climb is zero B
C on a jet aircraft when the rate of climb falls to 100 ft/min
performance
Question Absolute ceiling occurs
D on a jet aircraft when the rate of climb falls to 300 ft/min

Ref ATPL A
Question During a drift-down following engine failure, what would be the correct procedure to follow:

A Descent in the approach configuration
B Disregard the flight manual and descend at Vs + 10 kts to the destination
C Do not commence fuel jettison until en-route obstacles have been cleared
D Begin fuel jettison immediately, commensurate with having required reserves at destination D
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet

A decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude
B narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude B
C is only limiting at low altitudes
D increases with increasing mass
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?

A SR = Ground speed/Total fuel flow
B SR = Indicated airspeed/Total fuel flow
C SR = Mach number/Total fuel flow
D SR = True airspeed/Total fuel flow D
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range/fuel flow change?

A Increase/decrease A
B Increase/increase
C Decrease/increase
D Decrease/decrease
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question The optimum altitude for a turbojet is:

A when the stall speed equals VPmin
B when the TAS at the buffet boundary is greatest
C where fuel consumption is highest
D when specific range is a maximum D
Ref ATPL A
Question With a constant weight and Mach number, a higher altitude will require:

A Lower CL
B Lower CD
C Higher AoA C
D No change
Ref ATPL A
Question The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane,
determines the speed for:
A minimum power
B maximum endurance B
C maximum range
D maximum speed
Ref ATPL A
Question During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the
IAS/the drag will:
A decrease/decrease A
B increase/decrease
C increase/increase
D decrease/increase
Ref ATPL A
Question The buffet onset boundary chart tells the pilot:

A critical mach number for various masses and altitudes
performance
Question The buffet onset boundary chart tells the pilot:
B values for low speed stall and mach buffet onset for various masses and altitudes
C Mach number for low speed stall and shock stall for various masses and altitudes C
D maximum operating MMO for various masses and altitudes
Ref ATPL A
Question For a turbojet flying at maximum range speed the angle of attack¿

A will be more than that for the maximum L/D ratio
B will be less than that for the maximum L/D ratio B
C will be that for the maximum L/D ratio
D will be that for CLMAX
Ref ATPL A
Question ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is
within an area of:
A 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed
B 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed B
C 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed
D 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed
Ref ATPL A
Question Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?

A The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings
B The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and B
altitudes
C The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes
D The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shock stall occur at various weights and
altitudes
Ref ATPL A

A obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude A
performance
B engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs

C climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
D weight during landing at the alternate
Ref ATPL A
Question The optimum long range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:

A increases when the aeroplane mass decreases A
B is always equal to the power plant ceiling
C is independent of the aeroplane mass
D is only dependent on the outside air temperature
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed''?

A It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed A
B In order to achieve speed stability
C The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed
D In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under
Ref ATPL A
Question If the calculations for an aeroplane of 3250 lb indicate a service ceiling of 4000m. What will the service
ceiling bee for an aircraft with a weight of 3000 lb?
A higher or lower, more information is needed
B lower
C higher C
D the same
Ref ATPL A
Question The drift down requirements are based on:

A the landing mass limit at the alternate
B the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure
C the maximum flight path gradient during the descent
performance
Question The drift down requirements are based on:
D the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed D
Ref ATPL A
Question For a given flight level the speed range determined by the buffet onset boundary will decrease with:

A reduced weight
B reduced bank angle
C with a more forward centre of gravity C
D with increased temperature
Ref ATPL A
Question On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption.
The result is:
A The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases
B The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass
C The specific range and the optimum altitude increases C
D The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft with 180 minutes ETOPS approval must be:

A no more than 90 minutes from departure and 90n minutes from a suitable alternate, still air, at
the one engine inoperative TAS
B no more than 180 minutes from a suitable alternate in the prevailing conditions and using the
one engine inoperative TAS
C no more than 180 minutes from a suitable alternate, still air, at the all engine TAS
D no more than 180 minutes from a suitable alternate, still air, at the one engine inoperative TAS D
Ref ATPL A
Question As speed is reduced below VMD:

A drag decreases and speed stability increases
B drag decreases and speed stability decreases
C drag increases and speed stability increases
performance
Question As speed is reduced below VMD:
D drag increases and speed stability decreases D

Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?

A Maximum Continuous Thrust
B Maximum Cruise Thrust B
C Go Around Thrust
D Maximum Take off Thrust
Ref ATPL A
Question The aerodynamic ceiling:

A is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same A
B depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust
C is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero
D is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min
Ref ATPL A
Question With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees
K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach
Choices number and zero headwind, is as follows:
Answers Correct
A independent from T
B proportional to 1/T^2
C proportional to 1/T
D proportional to T D
Ref ATPL A
Question Under which conditions would VMC be lowest?

A High temperatures, high pressure altitudes, high humidity A
B Low temperatures, high pressure altitudes, low humidity
C High temperatures, low pressure altitudes, high humidity
D Low temperatures, low pressure altitudes, low humidity
performance
Question Under which conditions would VMC be lowest?
Ref ATPL A
Question After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which
should be applied?
A Drift Down procedure A
B Emergency Descent Procedure
C ETOPS
D Long Range Cruise Descent
Ref ATPL A
Question The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet:

A has to be considered at take off and landing
B can be reduced by increasing the load factor
C exists only above MMO
D limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes D
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-24)Why does the curve for an equivalent weight of 35000 kg, only start 4 mins
after engine failure?
A All the curves start at the same point higher up
B At that altitude the engine takes longer to spool down after failure
C At that weight the aircraft has a higher TAS and therefore more momentum
D At that weight the aircraft takes longer to slowdown to the optimum drift down speed D
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft is flying straight and level at height. If the mass were increased what actions would be
necessary to maintain a constant angle of attack and altitude?
A Decrease speed, increase power
B Decrease speed, decrease power
C Increase speed, decrease power
D Increase speed, increase power D
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.

A Depending on the OAT and net mass
B Lower
C Higher C
D Depending on density altitude and mass
Ref ATPL A
Question The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum:

A is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the
descent
B is always higher than the minimum drag speed
C is always lower than the minimum drag speed C
D is the same as the minimum drag speed
Ref ATPL A
Question Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a
holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption
Choices is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
Answers Correct
A 3426 kg/h
B 3602 kg/h
C 3787 kg/h
D 3259 kg/h D
Ref ATPL A
Question If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?

A A better maximum range
B A lower cruise mach number
C A higher cruise mach number C
D A better long range
Ref ATPL A
Question An ETOPS aircraft is a twin engined aircraft which en-route is allowed to operate further from an adequate
aerodrome which is:
performance
Question An ETOPS aircraft is a twin engined aircraft which en-route is allowed to operate further from an adequate
aerodrome which is:
A within 30 minutes on all engines
B within 75 minutes at single engine cruise speed
C within 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed C
D within 60 minutes on all engines
Ref ATPL A
Question When in a gliding manoeuvre, in order to achieve maximum endurance the aircraft should be flown at:

A the speed for max. lift
B the speed for min. drag
C the speed for max. lift/drag
D the speed for min. power D
Ref ATPL A
Question With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:

A equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance
B equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag
C equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio
D lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?

A The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft
B The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising
altitude
C When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into C
account
D An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift- down, because it is
not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating
Ref ATPL A
Question The tangent from the origin to the power required curve for a jet aircraft gives:
performance
Question The tangent from the origin to the power required curve for a jet aircraft gives:

A VMD A
B the max range speed
C the minimum power speed
D the long range cruise speed
Ref ATPL A
Question The pilots of a jet aircraft wish to reach the destination with minimum use of fuel. They should fly at:

A Best L/D Speed
B Max Range Cruise Speed B
C Long Range Cruise Speed
D Minimum Power Speed
Ref ATPL A
Question An engine fails at height. The subsequent drift down should be flown at:

A the best Long Range Cruise speed
B the worst L/D ratio
C the best L/D ratio C
D the best range speed
Ref ATPL A
Question For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed?

A Minimum specific fuel consumption A
B Minimum fuel flow
C Longest flight duration
D Minimum drag
Ref ATPL A
Question Maximum endurance:

A can be flown in a steady climb only
performance
Question Maximum endurance:
B is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction

C is achieved in un-accelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption C
D can be reached with the best rate of climb speed in level flight
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed for minimum power in a turbojet will be:

A slower in a climb and faster in a descent
B the same as the speed for minimum drag
C faster than the speed for minimum drag
D slower than the speed for minimum drag D
Ref ATPL A
Question In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with:

A the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve
B the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve
C the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve
D the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve D
Ref ATPL A
Question The drift down procedure is used:

A when an engine fails above the one engine inoperative stabilising height A
B for an instrument approach at an alternate
C for a visual approach using VASIs or PAPIs
D after a decompression at height
Ref ATPL A
Question The drift down procedure is applied

A during an instrument approach at an airfield with no ILS
B after an engine failure above the one-engine inoperative stabilising height B
C during a visual approach
performance
Question The drift down procedure is applied
D following a pressurisation failure

Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 4.3 in CAP 698) Given:Pressure Altitude: 33000 ftI ndicated Mach Number: 0.87 Indicated
TAT: -20oC What is the Temperature Deviation from Standard?
A +3.5oC
B -3.5oC B
C -16.5oC
D +16.5oC
Ref ATPL A
Question The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:

A improves the maximum range A
B increases the stalling speed
C improves the longitudinal stability
D decreases the maximum range
Ref ATPL A
Question All other factors being equal minimum drag speed is

A proportional to weight A
B a function of pressure altitude
C a function of density altitude
D proportional to temperature
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed for long range cruise is:

A equal to maximum range speed
B less than maximum range speed
C greater than maximum range speed C
D less than or equal to endurance speed
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question For a given aircraft mass, flying with a cost index set at greater than zero will result in:

A a cruise at a slower MNo than the best range MNo for a given altitude
B a cruise at the maximum endurance speed
C climb at the slowest safe speed, taking into account stall and speed stability
D a cruise at a faster MNo than the MNo giving best ANM/kg ratio for a given altitude D
Ref ATPL A
Question If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight:

A the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained
B the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained
C the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command
D the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained D
Ref ATPL A
Question At maximum range speed in a turbojet the angle of attack is:

A same as L/D max
B less than L/D max B
C maximum
D more than L/D max
Ref ATPL A
Question Drift down is the procedure to be applied:

A after cabin depressurisation
B after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude B
C to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate
D to conduct a visual approach is VASI is available
Ref ATPL A
Question Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain
unchanged):
A increases the power required
performance
Question Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain
unchanged):
B decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required
C affects neither drag nor power required
D increases the induced drag D
Ref ATPL A
Question If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure:

A the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed
plus 10 kt
B fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down B
C fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached
D the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration
Ref ATPL A
Question How does the long range cruise speed change?

A LRC True airspeed decreases with increasing altitude
B LRC Indicated airspeed increases with increasing altitude
C LRC Mach number decreases with increasing altitude
D LRC Mach number decreases with decreasing altitude D
Ref ATPL A
Question Flying at an altitude close to coffin corner gives:

A Max speed
B Less manoeuvrability B
C Greater 1 engine inoperative range
D Greater 1 engine inoperative endurance
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aircraft's maximum altitude is usually limited by:

A its certification maximum altitude
B its pressurisation maximum altitude
performance
Question A jet aircraft's maximum altitude is usually limited by:
C the altitude at which low and high speed buffet will occur C
D thrust limits
Ref ATPL A
Question With regards to the optimum altitude during the cruise, the aircraft is:

A always flown at the optimum altitude
B always flows 2000 ft below the optimum altitude
C may be flown above or below the optimum altitude, but never at the optimum altitude
D flown as close to the optimum altitude as ATC will allow D
Ref ATPL A
Question An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to:

A 90 minutes flying time from the first en-route airport and another 90 minutes from the second
en-route airport in still air with one engine inoperative
B 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing condition with one engine
inoperative
C 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
D 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative D
Ref ATPL A
Question As you accelerate in level flight from the speed at CLMax to maximum speed the total drag:

A decreases
B increases then decreases
C increases
D decreases then increases D
Ref ATPL A
Question At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific
consumption remains unchanged, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:
A 7.5%
B 10%
performance
Question At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific
consumption remains unchanged, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:
C 2.5%
D 5% D
Ref ATPL A
Question For jet engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?

A Decreases
B Does not change
C Increases only if there is no wind
D Increases D
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to figure 032_8-1)Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the
movement of the THRUST REQUIRED CURVE? Mass M1 is higher than mass M2.
A A
B B
C C C
D D
Ref ATPL A
Question Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at
holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel
Choices consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
Answers Correct
A 3365 kg/h
B 3578 kg/h
C 3804 kg/h C
D 4044 kg/h
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust
and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same
Choices flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035
kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
Answers Correct
A 14 kg/NM
B 11.7 kg/NM
performance
Question A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust
and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same
flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035
kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
C 10.7 kg/NM
D 8.17 kg/NM D
Ref ATPL A

A Executive a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads larger A
than 1
B A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude
C A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude
D A step climb is executed in principle when, just after levelling off, the 1.3g altitude is
reached
Ref ATPL A
Question With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct?

A An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most
attractive altitude
B An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most
economic result
C An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude C
increases continuously during flight
D An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur
Ref ATPL A
Question Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane
with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines the speed
Choices of:
Answers Correct
A maximum endurance A
B minimum power
C maximum specific range
D critical angle of attack
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. The speed corresponds to:
performance
Question A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. The speed corresponds to:

A the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve A
B the minimum drag
C the minimum required power
D the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the power required (Pr) versus TAS curve
Ref ATPL A
Question The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight
procedure should the pilot fly?
A Maximum endurance
B Holding
C Long range
D Maximum range D
Ref ATPL A
Question Why are STEP CLIMBS used on long distance flights?

A Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes; they are used for piston engine
aeroplanes only
B To respect ATC flight level constraints
C To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces C
D Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less head wind or more tail wind can be
expected
Ref ATPL A
Question At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine:

A increases with decreasing OAT
B increases slightly with increasing airspeed B
C is independent of the airspeed
D decreases slightly with increasing airspeed
Ref ATPL A
Question At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine:
performance
Question At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine:

A increases with increasing altitude
B are independent of outside air temperature (OAT)
C increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature
D decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature D
Ref ATPL A
Question The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM:

A is inversely proportional to the airspeed
B increases in proportion to the airspeed B
C does not change with changing altitude
D is independent of the airspeed
Ref ATPL A
Question The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane:

A in descent with constant IAS
B in accelerated level flight
C in un-accelerated climb
D in un-accelerated level flight D
Ref ATPL A
Question At speeds below minimum drag:

A the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight
B a lower speed requires a higher thrust B
C a higher speed requires a higher thrust
D the aeroplane cannot be controlled manually
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed for maximum endurance:

A is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range
performance
B can either be lower or higher than the speed for maximum specific range
C is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range
D is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range D
Ref ATPL A
Question The optimum cruise altitude is:

A the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved A
B the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum
C the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained
D the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum
Ref ATPL A
Question The optimum cruise altitude increases:

A if the temperature (OAT) is increased
B if the tail wind component is decreased
C if the aeroplane mass is increased
D if the aeroplane mass is decreased D
Ref ATPL A
Question Below the optimum cruise altitude:

A the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
B the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
C the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude C
D the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
Ref ATPL A
Question Under which condition should you fly considerably lower 94000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?

A if at the lower altitude either more head wind or less tail wind can be expected
B If at the lower altitude either considerably less head wind or considerably more tail wind can B
be expected
performance
Question Under which condition should you fly considerably lower 94000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?
C If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude

D if the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion)
Ref ATPL A
Question With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is:

A reduced A
B improved
C not affected
D first improved and later reduced
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best, fuel mileage) is
correct?
A An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest
specific range
B An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not B
allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude
C An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur
D An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from
an economy point of view
Ref ATPL A
Question Region of REVERSED COMMAND means:

A a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane
B a lower airspeed requires more thrust B
C the thrust required is independent of the airspeed
D a momentary increase of airspeed has no influence on the thrust required
Ref ATPL A
Question Aft centre of gravity (within the approved limits):

A Increases maximum range A
B Improves longitudinal stability
performance
Question Aft centre of gravity (within the approved limits):
C Decreases maximum range

D Increases stalling speed
Ref ATPL A
Question Given a constant cruising altitude and constant angle of attack (assuming no compressibility effects) higher
gross mass:
A Requires increased thrust and increased corresponding speeds
B No increase in thrust is required, but increases corresponding speeds
C Requires increased thrust and decreased corresponding speeds
D Leads to increased coefficient of drag D
Ref ATPL A
Question What is a COST INDEX?

A a number denoting the cost per nautical mile
B A number denoting the ratio of direct operating costs to speed
C Requires increased thrust and decreased corresponding speeds C
D Leads to increased coefficient of drag
Ref ATPL A
Question Compared to the maximum range cruise speed, the long range cruise speed is:

A It depends on the outside air temperature and gross mass
B Higher B
C It depends on the pressure altitude and gross mass
D Lower
Ref ATPL A
Question For an aircraft in a level flight cruise at Vmd, if the mass is decreased:

A the minimum drag decreases and IAS decreases A
B the minimum drag decreases and IAS increases
C the minimum drag remains the same and IAS decreases
D the minimum drag remains the same and IAS remains the same
performance
Question For an aircraft in a level flight cruise at Vmd, if the mass is decreased:
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following variables will not affect the shape or position of the drag vs. IAS curve, for speeds
below Mcrit:
A configuration
B weight
C aspect ratio
D altitude D
Ref ATPL A
Question For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:

A that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required
versus TAS curve
B that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve
C that corresponding to the point o the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS curve
D that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS D
curve
Ref ATPL A
Question How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for
maximum range?
A Increases only if there is not wind
B Decreases
C Does not change
D First increases then decreases D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent?
(still air, no turbulence)?
A Long range
B Max endurance
C Holding
D Maximum range D
performance
Question Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent?
(still air, no turbulence)?
Ref ATPL A
Question In a twin engined jet aircraft with six passenger seats, and a maximum certified take off mass of 5650 kg.
What is the required en-route obstacle clearance, with one engine inoperative during drift down towards the
Choices alternate airport?
Answers Correct
A 2000 ft A
B 1500 ft
C 1000 ft
D 50 ft or half the wingspan
Ref ATPL A
Question Two identical turbojets are at the same altitude and same speed and have the same specific fuel consumption.
Plane 1 weighs 130000 kg and fuel flow is 4300 kg/hr. If plane 2 weighs 115000 kg what is the fuel flow:
A 3804 kg/hr A
B 4044 kg/hr
C 3364 kg/hr
D 3530 kg/hr
Ref ATPL A
Question When flying at the optimum range altitude, over time the:

A Fuel consumption gradually decreases A
B Fuel consumption gradually increases
C Fuel consumption initially decreases then gradually increases
D Fuel consumption remains constant
Ref ATPL A
Question Cruising with 1 or 2 engines inoperative at high altitude, compared to all engines operative cruise, range
will:
A increase
B decrease B
C not change
D decrease with 1 engine inoperative, and increase with 2 engines inoperative
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question How is fuel consumption affected by the CG positin, in terms of ANM/kg?

A Increases with a forward C of G
B Decreases with an aft C of G
C Decreases with a forward C of G C
D Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position
Ref ATPL A
Question What happens to the cost index when flying above the optimum Long Range cruise speed?

A Cost index is not affected by speed
B Cost index will increase with increased speed B
C Cost index will decrease with increased speed
D It all depends on how much the speed is changed by
Ref ATPL A
Question For an aircraft flying at the Long Range cruise speed, (i) Specific Range and (ii) Fuel to time ratio:

A (i) Decreases (ii) Increases A
B (i) Increases (ii) Increases
C (i) Decreases (ii) Decreases
D (i) Increases (ii) Decreases
Ref ATPL A
Question When operating a jet aircraft at the long range cruise speed:

A a speed equal to 1.32 Vmd is used
B a speed slightly faster than the best range speed is used, this reduces sector times B
C a speed equal to minimum total drag to give minimum fuel consumption
D the longest possible range will be achieved
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed found at the point where a tangent line from the origin touches the drag curve for a turbo jet
aircraft, is used:
A to achieve the best ANM/kg A
performance
Question The speed found at the point where a tangent line from the origin touches the drag curve for a turbo jet
aircraft, is used:
B for long range cruise
C for holding procedures
D to attain the steepest possible gradient for a given mass, altitude and temperature
Ref ATPL A
Question Flying at an altitude close to where the low and high buffet speeds are the same gives:

A max speed
B less manoeuvrability B
C greater 1 engine inoperative range
D greater 1 engine inoperative endurance
Ref ATPL A
Question At maximum range speed in a jet the AOA is:

A same as L/D max
B less than L/D max B
C speed for minimum drag
D minimum flight speed
Ref ATPL A
Question When would an aircraft fly considerably below the optimum altitude?

A When there is a marked decrease in head wind or increase in tail wind A
B When there is a marked increase in head wind or decrease in tail wind
C When there is a high level inversion
D In the later stages of a flight when fuel has been consumed
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following statements about the optimum flight level is true?

A ATC never allow you to fly at it continuously A
B You should always fly at this level because it is the most economically viable
C You should always fly above it
performance
Question Which of the following statements about the optimum flight level is true?
D You should always fly below it

Ref ATPL A
Question Aircraft mass is reduced by 5% in level flight. Assuming the specific fuel consumption is unchanged the
fuel flow over a one hour period will be reduced by:
A nothing
B 5% B
C 10%
D 15%
Ref ATPL A
Question If an aircraft with an FMS is operated at a cost index greater than zero the result will be:

A a cruise at a slower Mach number than the Mach number for best range at that altitude
B a cruise at a faster Mach number than the Mach number for best range at that altitude B
C a cruise at the maximum endurance speed
D a climb at the slowest safe speed
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following is true for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?

A Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0.95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available)
B Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0.7 x B
LDA (Landing Distance Available)
C Maximum use of clearway is 1.5 x runway
D Maximum Take-off Run is 0.5 x runway
Ref ATPL A
Question An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at
the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the
Choices descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
Answers Correct
A Increases in the first part; is constant in the second A
B Increases in the first part; decreases in the second
C Is constant in the first part; decreases in the second
performance
Question An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at
the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the
descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
D Decreases in the first part; increases in the second
Ref ATPL A
Question For an aircraft powered by turbo prop engines the landing distance required at an alternate will be:

A either less than that required at a destination aerodrome or the same depending on whether or
not an alternate aerodrome has been designated in the flight plan
B more than that required at a destination aerodrome
C less than that required at a destination aerodrome
D the same as that required at a destination aerodrome D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which wind component are you allowed to use when determining the required runway length for landing?

A 100% head wind and 100% tail wind
B 50% head wind and 10% tail wind
C 150% head wind and 50% tail wind
D 50% head wind and 150% tail wind D
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following is not affected by a tail wind:

A Landing climb limit mass A
B Obstacle limit mass
C VMBE
D Tyre speed limit mass
Ref ATPL A
Question The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated
landing distance plus
A 43%
B 92% B
C 70%
performance
Question The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated
landing distance plus
D 67%
Ref ATPL A
Question The speed VLO is defined as:

A the minimum speed in the landing configuration with one engine inoperative at which it is
possible to maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits whilst applying varying
power
B the stall speed in the landing configuration
C the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground, not more than V2 and not less than VR
D the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear D
Ref ATPL A
Question In a constant Mach descent which one of the following speeds will be exceeded first?

A VNE
B VD
C VMO C
D MMO
Ref ATPL A
Question (For this Question use CAP 698 figure 4.28)
What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation,
Choices landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Given:
Elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing mass: 50000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Wind:
Maximum allowable tail wind: 15 kt
Maximum allowable head wind: 50 kt
Answers Correct
A 2700 m
B 2600 m
C 3100 m C
D 2900 m
performance
Question (For this Question use CAP 698 figure 4.28)
What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation,
landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Given:
Elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing mass: 50000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Wind:
Maximum allowable tail wind: 15 kt
Maximum allowable head wind: 50 kt
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft with a stalling speed of 100 kt TAS on the approach should cross the threshold at:

A 110 kts
B 100 kts
C 115 kts
D 130 kts D
Ref ATPL A
Question During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:

A increase, because the lift coefficient decreases A
B remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant
C increase, because the lift coefficient increases
D decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases
Ref ATPL A
Question The landing distance required will be decreased as a result of:

A higher aircraft mass, higher air density, uphill runway slope
B higher aircraft mass, higher air density, downhill runway slope
C low aircraft mass, lower air density, uphill runway slope
D low aircraft mass, high air density, uphill runway slope D
Ref ATPL A
Question Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load, are in a glide descent from
the same height in the same atmospheric conditions. The heavy aircraft will:
performance
Question Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load, are in a glide descent from
the same height in the same atmospheric conditions. The heavy aircraft will:
A require a faster speed to achieve the same descent angle as the lighter aircraft A
B descend at the same angle with the same time in the descent but at a faster speed
C descend steeper, at a faster speed with a greater rate of descent
D descend at a steeper angle at a faster speed at the same rate of descent
Ref ATPL A
Question In wet conditions what extra percentage over the calculated (gross) landing distance must be available for a
turbojet?
A 15%
B 67%
C 92% C
D 43%
Ref ATPL A
Question The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:

A manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative
B obstacle clearance in the approach area
C minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative C
D manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating
Ref ATPL A
Question If the anti-skid system is inoperatived:

A the landing distance required will be unchanged because anti-skid is not taken account of in
determining landing performance
B the landing distance required will increase B
C the landing distance required will decrease
D the landing distance required will only increase on runways that are wet or precipitation
covered
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft is descending at 193 kt TAS in still air with a vertical speed fo 1000 ft/min. The descent
gradient is :
performance
Question An aircraft is descending at 193 kt TAS in still air with a vertical speed fo 1000 ft/min. The descent
gradient is :
A 6.5%
B 5.4%
C 5.1% C
D 4.8%
Ref ATPL A
Question Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanes:

A is 60% longer than at an alternate airport
B is less than at an alternate airport
C is more than at an alternate airport
D is the same as at an alternate airport D
Ref ATPL A
Question When gliding into a headwind airspeed should be:

A reduced to gust penetration speed
B the same as themax. Range glide speed in still air
C lower than the max. range glide speed in still air
D higher than the max. range glide speed in still air D
Ref ATPL A
Question A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to
be exceeded first?
A Maximum Operational Mach Number
B Never Exceed Speed
C High Speed Buffet Limit
D Maximum Operating Speed D
Ref ATPL A
Question A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m.
Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?
A 1440 m A
performance
Question A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m.
Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?
B 1250 m
C 1090 m
D 1655 m
Ref ATPL A
Question What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?

A 1.05 VSO
B 1.30 VSO B
C 1.10 VSO
D VMCA x 1.2
Ref ATPL A
Question Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?

A A tailwind component decreases the ground distance
B A headwind component increases the ground distance
C A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent
D A tailwind component increases the ground distance D
Ref ATPL A
Question The maximum mass for landing could be limited by:

A the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration
B the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration B
C the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration
D the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up
Ref ATPL A
Question In dry conditions, when landing at an alternate airport in a turbojet by what factor should the landing
distance available changed to gie landing distance?
A 0.6 A
B 1.0
C 1.67
performance
Question In dry conditions, when landing at an alternate airport in a turbojet by what factor should the landing
distance available changed to gie landing distance?
D 1.43
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft is descending in the troposphere from FL 350 to FL 250 at a constant Mach number, then from FL
250 to FL 100 at a constant CAS. What happens to the descent angle in each phase of the descent?
A constant; constant
B decreases; decreases
C increases; increases
D increases; constant D
Ref ATPL A
Question Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed (VREF):

A Lowering VREF
B Increasing VREF B
C Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS
D Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers
Ref ATPL A
Question The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the:

A glide angle increases
B aircraft mass decreases
C TAS decreases
D IAS increases D
Ref ATPL A
Question During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:

A increase at first and decrease later on
B increase
C decrease C
D remain constant
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question Pitch angle during descent at a constant Mach number will:

A increase
B decrease B
C increase at first then decrease
D stay constant
Ref ATPL A
corresponding to:
A the minimum angle of descent
B the critical Mach number
C the minimum drag C
D the maximum lift
Ref ATPL A
Question For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways when the landing distance
available at an aerodrome is 3000m?
A 2070m
B 1565m B
C 1800m
D 2609m
Ref ATPL A
Question In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given
by:T = Thrust D = Drag W = Weight
A T + W sin GAMMA = D A
B T ¿ W sin GAMMA = D
C T ¿ D sin GAMMA
D T + D = -W sin GAMMA
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?

A High mass
performance
Question Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
B Headwind
C Tailwind
D Low mass D
Ref ATPL A
Question For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?

A The required landing fieldlength is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point
B When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available B
distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry
C In any case runway slope is one of the factors takeninto account when determining the required
landing field length
D An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length
Ref ATPL A
Question To minimise the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:

A use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed
B use normal landing, braking and reverse technique
C postpone the landing until, the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists
D make a positive landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible D
Ref ATPL A
Question A constant head wind:

A increases the angle of the descent flight path A
B increases the angle of descent
C increases the rate of descent
D increases the descent distance over ground
Ref ATPL A

A The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent A
performance
B The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent
C The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent
D The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent
Ref ATPL A
Question The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the
demonstrated landing distance plus:
A 43%
B 92% B
C 67%
D 70%
Ref ATPL A
Question Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes
having different masses? (assume zero thrust and wind)
A Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of A
the heavier aeroplane will be larger
B No difference
C Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance
D Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance
Ref ATPL A
Question By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be
multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination)
A 60/115
B 0.60 B
C 115/100
D 1.67
Ref ATPL A
Question which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?

A Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length
B The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop
performance
Question which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
C When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing C
runway length should be taken into account
D Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing
distance required
Ref ATPL A
Question An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25o and 35o. If a pilot
chooses 25o instead of 35o, the aircraft will have:
A an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
B a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
C an increased landing distance and better go-around performance C
D a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
Ref ATPL A
Question In addition to other requirements, the approach climb requirement is based on:

A all engines, flaps APPROACH and gear UP
B one engine out, flaps APPROACH and gear UP B
C one engine out, flaps LAND and gear UP
D one engine out, flaps APPROACH and gear DOWN
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the approach to landing climb requirements?

A These requirements are based on the following configuration; flaps in landing position and
landing gear retracted
B These requirements are more easily accomplished with two engine aeroplane than with a four
engine aeroplane
C These requirements cannot be accomplished with masses higher than maximum approved landing
masses
D Fuel dumping may be necessary in emergency situation D
Ref ATPL A
Question The force exactly opposing and balancing lift in a glide descent is:

A Thrust x SINE angle of descent
performance
Question The force exactly opposing and balancing lift in a glide descent is:
B Thrust x COSINE angle of descent

C Weight x SINE angle of descent
D Weight x COSINE angle of descent D
Ref ATPL A
Question A change in aeroplane weight affects:

A Glide angle
B Glide speed B
C Glide angle and glide speed
D Neither glide angle nor glide speed
Ref ATPL A
Question Which of the following will not increase the minimum glide angle relative to the ground:

A lowering the landing gear
B increased weight B
C increased flap angle
D increased headwind
Ref ATPL A
Question For a turbo jet aircraft planning to land on a wet runway, the landing distance available:

A must always be at least 15% greater than the dry landing distance
B may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if the flight manual gives specific B
data for a wet runway
C may beless than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if permission is obtained from the
relevant aerodrome authority
D may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if all reverse thrust systems are
operative
Ref ATPL A
Question A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available
of 2400m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within:
A 1090m
performance
Question A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available
of 2400m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within:
B 1250m
C 1440m C
D 1655m
Ref ATPL A
Question the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than

A 1.2 VMCA
B VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height
C 1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes
D 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height D
Ref ATPL A
Question At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 kt in the landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
A 125 kt
B 115 kt
C 123 kt C
D 120 kt
Ref ATPL A
Question The landing reference speed VREF has, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing
configuration:
A 0.23 A
B 15%
C 20%
D 10%
Ref ATPL A
Question When descending bellow the optimum altitude at the long range cruise speed:

A Mach No. decreases A
B TAS increases
C Mach No. remains constant
performance
Question When descending bellow the optimum altitude at the long range cruise speed:
D Mach No. increases

Ref ATPL A
Question When a jet aircraft descends at the maximum range speed:

A IAS increases
B CAS increases
C Mach No. decreases C
D Mach No. increases
Ref ATPL A
Question When descending at a constant M number, which speed is most likely to be exceeded first?

A Max operating speed
B MMO
C High speed buffet limit
D VMO D
Ref ATPL A
Question If an aircraft is descending at a constant Mach number:

A the IAS will increase and the margin to low speed buffet will decrease
B the IAS will increase and the margin to low speed buffet will increase B
C the IAS will decrease and themargin to low speed buffet will decrease
D the IAS will decrease and the margin to low speed buffet will increase
Ref ATPL A
Question The approach climb limit guarantees

A Obstacle clearance on the approach
B Obstacle clearance in the go-around
C Minimum climb gradients with one engine inoperative are satisfied in the go-around C
D That the aircraft will not stall when full flap is selected
Ref ATPL A
performance
Question (Figure 4.4 in CAP 698)What is the maximum brake release weight, given there is no slope and no wind? Flap
settting: 15o OAT: +25o C Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 2300 ft Field length available: 8000 ft
A 58,500 kg
B 59,500 kg
C 61,000 kg C
D 62,000 kg
Ref ATPL A
Question How is wind considered in the take off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals?

A Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered
B Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind B
C Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used
D Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind
Ref ATPL A
Question Thinking on human reliability is changing

A The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety
B Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend ones knowledge
C Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are C
generally inescapable
D It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future
Ref All
Question Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?

A Gravity stone
B Gravity and linear acceleration B
C Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
D Angular acceleration
Ref All
Question When a pilot is staring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark, he might get the
illusion that:
performance
Question When a pilot is staring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark, he might get the
illusion that:
A the colour of the light is varying
B the size of the light is varying
C the intensity of the light is varying
D the light is moving D
Ref All
Question Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in:

A noise induced hearing loss A
B conductive hearing loss
C presbycusis (effects of aging)
D a ruptured ear drum
Ref All
Question How can a pilot prevent pilot's vertigo?

A Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as possible and rely upon the senses
of balance
B Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off-centre vision
C Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments
D Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight manoeuvres and maintain an effective instrument cross check D
Ref All
Question Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:
Choices 1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to
2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors have made in the past
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the expectations
4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on rational information
Answers Correct
A 2, 4
B 2, 3
C 1, 4
D 1, 3 D
Ref All
performance
Question . In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends:
Choices 1. on objective and subjective criteria

2. on the objective to be achieved
3. on the risks associated with each solution
4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4 B
C 1, 3
D 4
Ref All
Question Of the following statements, select those which apply to information
Choices 1. It is said to be random when it is not intended for receivers

2. It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver
3. it is measured in bits
4. Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a quarter
The correct statement(s) is (are):
Answers Correct
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B 2 and 3 are correct B
C 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D only 1 is correct
Ref All
Question Given:
GS – 95 kt
Choices Distance from A to B =- 480 NM
What is the time from A to B?
Answers Correct
A 4 HR 59 MIN
B 5 HR 03 MIN B
C 05 HR 00 MIN
D 5 HR 08 MIN
performance
performance figs
Question Given:
GS – 95 kt
Distance from A to B =- 480 NM
What is the time from A to B?
Ref CPL A AND H

What is meant by ¿Equivalent Weight¿ in figure 4.27 of CAP 698?
A A – The weight compensated for temperature greater than ISA+10 degrees A
B B – The weight compensated for fuel density at different heights
C C – The weight compensated for the fuel reduction before engine failure
D D – The weight compensated for temperature of ISA+10 degrees and below
Ref ATPL A
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 4.5)With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane,
why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30oC and pressure altitude 0 ft?
A The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are A
temperature limited
B At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass
C At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account
D At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass
Ref ATPL A
Question (For this question use CAP 698 figure 4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet
aeroplanes, what is meant by equivalent gross weight at engine failure?
A The increment represents fuel used before engine failure
B The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT B
higher than ISA + 10oC
C This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures
D The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.4)For a twin engined aircraft, which can use either 5 or 15 degrees flap
setting, using the attached chart, what is the maximum field limited take off mass, given the following
Choices conditions:Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft OAT: -10oC Length available: 2400m Slope: Level Wind: Calm
Answers Correct
A 55000 kg
B 56000 kg B
performance
performance figs
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.4)For a twin engined aircraft, which can use either 5 or 15 degrees flap
setting, using the attached chart, what is the maximum field limited take off mass, given the following
conditions:Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft OAT: -10oC Length available: 2400m Slope: Level Wind: Calm
C 44000 kg
D 52000 kg
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-5) Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit
chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?
A There is a built-in safety measure
B The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air B
C The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart
D There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does
the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3
Choices minutes at FL 370?
Answers Correct
A All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart
B Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to theoptimum speed for drift down B
at the original cruising level
C Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some
thrust left during three minutes
D Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent,
because of the inertia involved
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer to CAP 699 figure 4.4)For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5o and 15o)
are certified. Given:Field length available = 2400 m Outside air temperature = -10oC Airport pressure
Choices altitude = 7000 ft The maximum allowed take off mass is:
Answers Correct
A 52500 kg
B 56000 kg B
C 55000 kg
D 70000 kg
Ref ATPL A
Question (Refer To figure 034_9-1)Which letter indicates the speed for maximum endurance?

performance
performance figs
Question (Refer To figure 034_9-1)Which letter indicates the speed for maximum endurance?
A D
B C
C B C
D A
Ref CPL H AND ATPL H
Question (Refer to figure 034_9-1)Which letter indicates the speed for the best rate of climb?

A C
B A
C B C
D D
Question (Refer to figure 034_9-1)Which letter indicates the speed for best range?

A A
B C B
C B
D D
Question A helicopter in Performance Class 3 must be certified in:

A category B
B category A
C category A or B C
D no category
Question A helicopter of Performance Class 1 must achieve, on take-off, a rate of climb of:

A 150 ft/min at 60m
B 100 ft/min at 200 ft B
performance
performance figs
Question A helicopter of Performance Class 1 must achieve, on take-off, a rate of climb of:
C 1000 ft/min at 1000 ft

D 100 ft/min at 300m
Question A helicopter which has no guaranteed stay-up ability in the event of an engine failure is certified in:

A Category B A
B Category A
C Category C
D Category D
Question At night, operations in Performance Class 3 helicopters are:

A Never carried out A
B Only allowed in good moonlight
C Only allowed with a good power margin
D Routinely carried out
Question Helicopters operated in Performance Class 2 are certified in:

A Category A A
B Category B
C Any of Category A, B or C
D Category C
Question Large rotorcraft are those of maximum weight of:

A 20,000 kgs
B 20,000 lbs B
C 9072 klbs
D 9071 kgs
performance
performance figs
Question Large rotorcraft are those of maximum weight of:

Question Performance Class 2 helicopters shall have a maximum approved seating configuration of:

A 29 ormore
B 19 or more
C 19 or less but more than 9 C
D More than 19
Question Performance Class 3 helicopters are certified in:

A They need not be certified in Category A or B
B Category B
C Category A
D Category A or B D
Question Performance Class 3 operations to or from helidecks are:

A Never made A
B Made in daylight only
C Made as a matter of routine
D Not carried out by some operators
Question Small rotorcraft are those of maximum weight of:

A 3175 kg (or 7000 lbs) A
B 2750 kg
C 10,000 lbs
D 2570 lbs
performance
performance figs
Question The responsibility for ensuring that the performance claimed for a helicopter can be achieved belongs to:

A The despatcher
B The commander
C The manufacturer
D The operator D
Question Helicopters operated in Performance Class 2 are certificated in:

A CAT B
B CAT A or B
C CAT A only C
D CAT C only
Question Operation in Performance Class 3 requires specific WX min. Under what conditions are operations prohibited?

A Ceiling is better than 600 MSL. Visibility more than 700m
B Ceiling is less than 600 above the local surface. Visibility is less than 800m B
C Ceiling is not required. Visibility better than 800 m
D Ceiling is better than 600 above the local surface. Visibility is more than 800m
Question What is the correct statement concerning Performance Class 3:

A OPS are not conducted from/to helidecks during daytime
B OPS are only conducted during night time to/from heliports
C OPS are not conducted at night and to/from helidecks at all times C
D OPS are only conducted at daytimne to/from helidecks and elevated heliports
Question A helicopter with a MAPSC of 7 can be operated in Performance Class 2 if:

A in case a CPUI performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight, A
performance
performance figs
Question A helicopter with a MAPSC of 7 can be operated in Performance Class 2 if:
B in case of a CPUI performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the
flight without exposure time
C the helicopter with AEO is not able to continue flight and has to make a safe forced landing
D None of the above
Question Are operations allowed at night in Performance Class 3?

A Yes, but only overland with surface in sight at all times
B No, never B
C Not always, certain exceptions exist
D Yes, in local areas
Question What is one of the important differences between CAT A and CAT B helicopters?

A CAT A = >7000 kg, CAT = <7000 kg
B CAT A = multi engine, CAT B = single engine
C CAT A has guaranteed stay up capability, CAT B has not C
D CAT A has > 19 MAPSC, CAT B has <10 MAPSC
Question What are the requirements in Performance Class 3?

A Ceiling is 600 or greater above local surface
B Visibility is 800m or greater
C Flight has to be conducted in sight of surface
Question VTOSS is the Take-off Safety Speed for:

A class 2 helicopters
B category A helicopters B
performance
performance figs
Question VTOSS is the Take-off Safety Speed for:
C single-engine and multi-engine helicopters

D single-engine helicopters
Question A hostile sea area is defined as being:

A South of 45oS A
B South of 45oN
C Where Search and Rescue response is too quick
D Where there are few shipping lanes
Question A platform is a heliport situated:

A 3m above the surface on a fixed structure at sea
B at lest 35 ft above the surrounding surface
C at least 2m above the surrounding surface C
D on a floating or fixed structure at sea
Question A precautionary forced landing is a landing:

A or ditching which is unavoidable and in which it can be reasonably hoped that no injuries will A
be suffered by the helicopter's occupants nor by people on the ground
B which is unavoidable and in which it can be reasonably hoped there will be no injuries
C in which it can be reasonably hoped there will be no injuries
D or ditching which is unavoidable and in which it can be reasonably hoped there will be no
injuries to the occupants of the helicopter
Question AEO means:

A All engines operating A
B All engines inoperative
performance
performance figs
Question AEO means:
C All exits open

D Aft electrical by overchanged
Question An elevated heliport or helideck is defined as one which is above the surrounding level by:

A 3m A
B 10m
C 3 ft
D 11m
Question Define the term Climb gradient

A The gradient, calculated by Rate of climb divided by Time
B The ratio, in the same units, and expressed as a percentage of Change in height divided by B
Horizontal distance travelled
C Rate of climb in ft/min or m/s
D The ratio calculated by Change in height multiplied by Time (in seconds)
Question Define the term Performance Class 1.

A Performance Class 1 helicopters means multi-engine helicopters based on a critical engine
failure concept which assures performance capability for continued safe flight in the event of
an engine failure
B Performance Class 1 operations are those operations such that, in the event of critical power
unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight,
except when the failure occurs early during the take off manoeuvre
C Performance Class 1 operations are those with performance such that, in the event of failure of C
the critical power unit, the helicopter is able to land within the rejected take off distance
available or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing
D Performance Class 1 operations are those operations such that, in the event of a power unit
failure at any time during the flight, a forced landing may be required in a multi-engine
helicopter but will be required in a single engine helicopter
performance
performance figs

A Performance Class 2 operations are those operations such that, in the event of a critical power A
unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight,
except when the failure occurs early during the take off manoeuvre
B Performance Class 2 operations are those with performance such that, in the event of failure of
C Performance Class 2 helicopters means multi-engine helicopters based on a critical engine
an engine failure
D Performance Class 2 operations are those operations such that, in the event of a power unit

A Performance Class 3 helicopters means multi-engine helicopters based on a critical engine
an engine failure
B Performance Class 3 operations are those with performance such that, in the event of failure of
C Performance Class 3 operations are those operations such that, in the event of a power unit C
D Performance Class 3 helicopters means single-engine or multi-engine helicopters which do not
fully meet all class 2 standards. Class 3 helicopters have no guaranteed stay up ability in the
event of engine failure and unscheduled landing is assumed
Question Density altitude is:

A height above the surface
B altitude referenced to the standard datum
C altitude read directly from the altimeter
D pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature D
performance
performance figs
Question For a helicopter the distance DR is:

A the horizontal distance travelled since entering hovering flight
B the rotor's diameter
C the horizontal distance travelled from the beginning of the take off
D the horizontal distance travelled from the end of the available runway length D
Question In the context of performance planning, DR means:

A The horizontal distance travelled from the end of the take off distance available A
B The horizontal distance remaining to the end of the TODAH
C The horizontal distance to the first significant obstacle
D The range to the first waypoint
Question Landing distance required means:

A The distance from a specified point on the approach until the helicopter comes to rest A
B The distance required for a running landing
C The distance required to accelerate to Vtoss
D The distance required to accelerate from rest to a specified point on the take off path
Question R means:

A Rotor diameter
B Rotor radius B
C Rotor area
D Rotor speed
Question The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of

A the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage A
performance
performance figs
Question The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of
B the height in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs
C the altitude obtained by setting the sub-scale of an altimeter to QNH
D the height obtained by setting the sub-scale of an altimeter to QNE
Question The Density altitude is:

A the altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs A
B the height in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs
C the altitude obtained by setting the sub-scale of an altimeter to QNH
D the height obtained by setting the sub-scale of an altimeter to QNE
Question The abbreviation VLE means:

A maximum speed to operate the landing gear
B maximum landing gear extended speed B
C maximum speed to retract the landing gear
D maximum speed to extend the landing gear
Question The abbreviation VLO means:

A maximum operating limit speed
B maximum speed with landing gear extended
C maximum landing gear operating speed C
D maximum lift-off speed
Question The abbreviation VNE means:

A normal extension speed
B normal speed with landing gear extended
C maximum speed in level flight
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Question The abbreviation VNE means:
D never exceed speed D

Question The abbreciation VTOSS means:

A threshold operating safety speed
B steady flight speed
C stall speed
D take off safety speed for a Category A rotorcraft D
Question The abbreviation Vy means:

A steady initial climb speed
B speed for best angle of climb
C speed for best rate of climb C
D take off safety speed
Question The absolute ceiling of a helicopter as specified in its performance data, is the altitude at which the
helicopter is:
A no longer able to climb at all A
B still able to climb at a rate of 0.5m/sec
C still able to climb at a rate of 500 ft/min
D just able to climb
Question The altitude, calculated by Pressure altitude +/- 118.8x Temperature Deviation from ISA is:

A density altitude A
B standard altitude
C equivalent altitude
D elevation
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Question The maritime zone located North of latitude 50 N is considered hostile:

A only if the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected
B only if a safe emergency landing cannot be carried out
C at the pilot's initiative, the notion of hostile not being explicitly defined
D even if a safe emergency landing can be carried out D
Question The never exceed speed (VNE) of a helicopter, as specified in the flight manual:

A only applies at Maximum Certificated Mass
B may not be exceeded under any circumstances B
C is not attainable during a dive without engine power
D is attainable with full engine power in level flight
Question The ratio, in the same units, and expressed as a percentage of Change in height divided by Horizontal
distance travelled means:
A Climb gradient A
B Rate of climb
C Ratio of climb or descend
D Climb ratio
Question The take off weight is the weight of the helicopter:

A at the start of the take off A
B at the time the doors are closed
C at the moment when the engine or engines are started
D at the start of taxi if applicable
Question The TODRH is the horizontal distance required between the start of the take off and the point where the take
off safety speed is reached as well as a height of:
A 50 ft above the take off surface and a positive or zero climb gradient in case of failure of the
performance
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Question The TODRH is the horizontal distance required between the start of the take off and the point where the take
off safety speed is reached as well as a height of:
B 15 ft above the take off surface and a positive climb gradient in case of failure of the
critical engine
C 35 ft above the take off surface and a positive or zero climb gradient in case of failure of the
critical engine
D 35 ft above the take off surface and a positive climb gradient in case of failure of the D
critical engine
Question TLOF means:

A The person in charge of take offs and landings
B The length of an operational runway (in feet)
C An area for touch down and lift off C
D The speed for translational lift
Question VNE means the speed:

A Never to be used
B Not achievable
C Never to be exceeded C
D For normal operating
Question Vx means the speed for:

A Best angle of glide
B Best angle of climb B
C Best rate of climb
D Best approach speed
Question What does the abbreviation VNE mean?

A Normal endurance speed
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Question What does the abbreviation VNE mean?
B Maximum landing gear operating speed

C Never exceed speed C
D Minimum operating speed
Question What does the abbreciation AEO mean?

A All engines off
B All engines operating B
C Advised emergency operations
D All electrical consumers off
Question What does the abbreviation OEI mean?

A Outboard electrical circuit
B One engine inoperative B
C Override electrical inverter
D Out of engine limits
Question What does the abbrevication VLE mean?

A Minimum level speed
B Maximum landing gear operating speed B
C Maximum landing gear extended speed C
D Maximum level speed
Question What does the abbreviation VY mean?

A Speed for best angle of climb
B Speed for best rate of climb B
C Take off decision speed
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Question What does the abbreviation VY mean?
D Best approach speed

Question What is the abbreviation for the term Maximum landing gear extended speed?

A VA
B VLO
C VNE
D VLE D
Question What is the abbreviation for the term Maximum landing gear operating speed?

A VGO
B VLE
C VLO C
D VLG
Question What is the abbreviation for the term Never exceed speed?

A VLE
B VNO
C VNE C
D VNX
Question What is the abbreviation for the term Speed for best rate of climb?

A Vy A
B Vx
C VLO
D V2
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Question What is the abbreviation for the term ¿Take-off safety speed¿?

A VY
B VX
C VTOSS C
D VTO
Question When allowing a helicopter to descend to a level, which can be maintained, on the remaining power units,
this technique is called:
A Auto level
B Self-levelling
C Controlled descent
D Drift down D
Question How do you define VNE?

A Velocity not expired
B Velocity never expected
C Velocity never exceeded C
D Max structural speed
Question How do you define VX?

A Best rate of climb
B Max. Range
C Critical decision speed
D Best angle of climb D
Question What is VTOSS?

A Velocity to overhead safe surface
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Question What is VTOSS?
B Vertical take off safety speed B

C Vertical take off security spot
D Velocity take off surface speed
Question What is VLE?

A Speed for landing gear extension A
B Speed for low equilibrium
C Speed for landing gear operation
D Speed for landing gear elevated
Question Which statement is correct concerning Holtile environment?

A A safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface is inadequate
B Search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent with anticipated exposure
C There is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground
Question Touch down and lift off area (TLOF) is defined as:

A A load bearing area on which a helicopter can take off and land
B A load bearing area on which a helicopter may touch down or lift off B
C A load bearing area with touch down and lift off capability
D None of the above
Question What is distance, DR?

A The horizontal distance travelled from the end of the take off distance available A
B The distance from the end of the clearway to TOC
C The distance from the heliport to the end of the STAR
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Question What is distance, DR?
D The horizontal distance travelled from rotation point (RP) to a point when clear of obstacles
Question Over water OPS over open sea areas south of 45 N and north of 45 S is considered as:

A OPS in a hostile environment
B OPS without SAR response/capability
C OPS without inadequate surface and therefore a hostile environment
D None of the above D
Question An elevated heliport is a:

A Platform raised from the surface
B Heliport which is at least 3m above the surrounding surface B
C Heliport which is 3m above the surrounding surface
D Platform 3m above mean sea level
Question At what point during start and take off is the take off mass said to be valid?

A From the beginning of taxi
B From RP
C From the commencement of the take off C
D From hove OGE
Question A helideck is a/an:

A Heliport located on top of a building
B Heliport along the coastline
C Elevated heliport at sea
D Heliport located on a floating or fixed off shore structure D
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Question (For this question use annex 034_8-4_A)According to the flight manual diagram, the never-exceed speed VNE at
pressure altitude 10000 ft with an outside air temperature (OAT) of +10oC and an inflight mass of 2050 kg
Choices is:
Answers Correct
A 125 kts
B 110 kts
C 115 kts C
D 105 kts
Question (For this question use annex 034_8-4_A)According to the flight manual diagram, the never-exceed speed VNE at
pressure altitude 10000 ft with an outside air temperature (OAT) of +10oC and an inflight mass of 2400 kg
Choices is:
Answers Correct
A 115
B 110
C 105 C
D 125
Question Assuming an engine failure has occurred during take off, a Performance Class 1 helicopter which plans a turn
in the climb of more than 15o must be capable of clearing vertical obstructions by an extra:
A 15 ft A
B 35 ft
C 5R
D 3m
Question Assuming one engine inoperative in a helicopter with Performance Class 1, during an approach to land, the
following minimum rate of climb must be achievable:
A At 200 ft 60m/sec
B At 150 ft 300 ft/min
C At 60m 100 ft/min C
D At 150 ft 1000 ft/min
Question Assuming that an engine fails at some point during take off, a helicopter of Performance Class 1 must be
able to clear all obstacles, vertically, by:
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Question Assuming that an engine fails at some point during take off, a helicopter of Performance Class 1 must be
able to clear all obstacles, vertically, by:
A 35m in IFR
B 10.7 ft in VFR
C 10.7m + .01 DR in IFR C
D 35m in VFR
Question For a Performance Class 2 helicopter with one engine inoperative, on take off the rate of climb at 1000 ft
above the heliport must be at least:
A 100 ft/min
B 150 ft/min B
C 50 ft/min
D 300 ft/min
Question For take off with a tail wind component in class 1 performance an operator must take account of at least:

A 120% of the reported tail wind component
B 50% of the reported tail wind component
C 80% of the reported tail wind component
D 150% of the reported tail wind component D
Question For take off with a tail wind component in class 2 performance an operator must take account of at least:

A 120% of the reported tail wind component
B 50% of the reported tail wind component
C 80% of the reported tail wind component
D 150% of the reported tail wind component D
Question For the calculation of MTOW for a Performance Class 1 helicopter, the following factoring of reported tail
wind is used:
A 150% A
B 50%
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Question For the calculation of MTOW for a Performance Class 1 helicopter, the following factoring of reported tail
wind is used:
C 100%
D 80%
Question In a descent, with one engine inoperative, a helicopter with Performance Class 1 must follow a flight path
which clears all obstacles vertically by:
A 1000m
B 300m B
C 600m
D 10 nm
Question In class 1 performance, for a multi-engine helicopter of a length less than 15 metres, it is not necessary
to take into account obstacles whose lateral margin relative to the helicopter's flight path with the
Choices critical engine failed is greater than a certain distance.
Answers Correct
A This distance in visual flight is: 22.5 metres + 0.30 DR
B This distance in visual flight is: 22.5 metres + 0.15 DR
C This distance in visual flight is: 30 metres + 0.30 DR
D This distance in visual flight is 30 metres + 0.15 DR D
Question In class 1 performance with one engine failed and theothers operating, a helicopter's weight at the
estimated landing time must allow it to climb at least at:
A 100 ft/mn at 200 ft above the destination and the alternate heliports
B 150 ft/mn at 1000 ft above the destination and the alternate heliports
C 150 ft/mn at 1000 ft and 100 ft/mn at 200 ft above the destination and the alternate heliports C
D 150 ft/mn at 1000 ft and 100 ft/mn at 200 ft above the destination heliport
Choices critical engine failed is greater than a certain distance.
Answers Correct
A 22.5 metres + 0.15 DR
B 30 metres + 0.15 DR B
C 22.5 metres + 0.30 DR
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critical engine failed is greater than a certain distance.
D 30 metres + 0.30 DR
Question In class 2 performance, with ne engine failed and the others operating, a helicopter's weight at the
estimated landing time must allow it to climb at least at:
A 150 ft/mn at 1000 ft above the destination heliport
B 150 ft/mn at 1000 ft above the destination and the alternate heliports B
C 150 ft/mn at 200 ft above the destination heliport
D 150 ft/mn at 200 ft above the destination and the alternate heliports
Question In flight level, in class 2 performance, with one engine failed and the others operating, at 1000 ft above
any obstacle along his road, the weight of the helicopter must allow it to climb:
A at least 50 ft/mn A
B at least 100 ft/mn
C at least 150 ft/mn
D at a no definite value by the authority
Question In performance class 1 when there is a head wind component, an operator, when calculating take off
performance may take into account not:
A more than 50% of the reported headwind component A
B less than 50% of the reported headwind component
C more than 80% of the reported headwind component
D more than 150% of the reported headwind component
Question In performance class 1, having cleared the elevated heliport or heliplatform's edge, in case of an engine
failure after the take off decision point, the helicopter can clear any obstacle until the end of the take
Choices off required distance with a margin of:
Answers Correct
A at least 15 ft vertically
B 35 ft
C at least 35 ft
D at least 35 ft vertically D
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Question In performance class 1, having cleared the elevated heliport or heliplatform's edge, in case of an engine
failure after the take off decision point, the helicopter can clear any obstacle until the end of the take
off required distance with a margin of:
Question In performance class 1 with one engine failed and the others operating normally, the helicopter's weight at
the estimated time of landing must be such that a rate of climb of at least 100 ft/mn at 200 ft above the
Choices altitude of:
Answers Correct
A the takeoff heliport
B the destination heliport
C the alternate heliport
D the destination or alternate/diversion heliport D
Question In performance class 1, with one engine failed and the others operating normally, the helicopter's weight at
the estimated time of landing must be such that a rate of climb of at least 150 ft/mn at 1000 ft above the
Choices altitude of:
Answers Correct
A the destination heliport
B the alternate heliport
C the destination or alternate/diversion heliport C
D the take off heliport
Question In performance class 2, when the wind measuring equipment has not received official approval, and there is a
head wind component, to determine landing performance an operator may take account of at:
A most, 50% of the reported headwind component A
B least, 50% of the reported headwind component
C most, 80% of the reported headwind component
D most, 40% of the reported headwind component
Question In the cruise, a helicopter with Performance Class 3, must be able to fly at:

A The normal range speed
B The minimum flight altitude B
C VNE
D Minimum power speed
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Question In the cruise, a helicopter with Performance Class 3, must be able to fly at:

Question In which document is an official Power required chart to be found?

A In the Type Certificate
B In the Maintenance Manual
C In the Operators Manual
D In the Helicopter Flight Manual D
Question Minimum weather limits are applied to Helicopter Class 3 operations. These are:

A Visibility is 800m
B Cloud ceiling is 600 ft above local surface
C Cloud ceiling is less than 600 ft above local surface C
D Visibility is less than 600 m
Question On the take off of a Performance Class 2 helicopter from an elevated heliport, the take off weight must be
such that if one engine becomes inoperative at or after DPATO:
A There is sufficient power to accelerate to Vno
B A safe rejected landing may be made
C The helicopter can come to the hover
D The helicopter may continue its flight D
Question Performance Class 3 may be defined, for a single engined helicopter such that if an engine becomes
inoperative:
A The aircraft is in Category A and B
B A forced landing may result
C A forced landing will result C
D A forced landing is at the commander's discretion
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Question Performance such that in the event of failure of a critical power unit, enables a helicopter to land within
the rejected take off distance available is:
A Performance Class 1
B Performance Class 2
C Performance Class 3 C
D Performance Class 4
Question The Maximum operating altitudes of a certain Helicopter are laind down in:

A the Helicopter Flight Manual A
B the Operators Manual
C the AIP
D the ICAO Annex 2
Question The distance necessary for a landing is the horizontal distance required to land:

A and come to a full stop from a point 50 ft above the landing surface
B and come to a full stop from a point 35 ft above the landing surface B
C and come to a full stop from a point 15 ft above the landing surface
D land from a point 50 ft above the landing surface
Question The distance required for an aborted take off is the horizontal distance required between the start of the
take off and the point where the helicopter stops following the failure of:
A the critical engine and the interruption of the take off at the moment the failure occurred
B the critical engine and the interruption of the take off at the take off decision point B
C the critical engine and the interruption of the take off one second after the failure
D an engine and the interruption of the take off at the moment the failure occurred
Question The part of the take off path during which, in a helicopter of Performance Class 2, an engine failure would
result in a forced landing must be flown in:
A VMC
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Question The part of the take off path during which, in a helicopter of Performance Class 2, an engine failure would
result in a forced landing must be flown in:
B Conditions of weather and light in which a safe landing is possible B
C IMC
D A headwind
Question The take off path of a helicopter, from the start of take off, extends to a point above the take off
surface, which is:
A 1000 ft A
B 500 ft
C 1500 ft
D 150 ft
Question When calculating the landing weight of a Performance Class 2 helicopter with one engine inoperative, the
following must be considered:
A 50% of the forecast headwind A
B The headwind
C The tailwind
D The passengers and freight to be uplifted
Question When considering the take off path for a helicopter with Performance Class 2, the aircraft must clear all
obstacles vertically by:
A 10.7m + 0.01 DR in VFR
B 35 ft + 0.001 DR in IFR
C 35 ft in VFR C
D 35 ft in IFR
Question When en-route in a Performance Class 1 helicopter which has had an engine failure, the mass of the aircraft
must be such that a rate of climb may be achieved and maintained. When not visual with the surface, that
Choices rate of climb is:
Answers Correct
A 150 ft/min at an altitude of 1000 ft
B 100 ft/min at an altitude of 300m
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Question When en-route in a Performance Class 1 helicopter which has had an engine failure, the mass of the aircraft
must be such that a rate of climb may be achieved and maintained. When not visual with the surface, that
rate of climb is:
C 50 ft/min at an altitude of 2000 ft in mountainous areas C
D 50 ft/min at an altitude of 300 ft
Question When landing a Performance Class 2 helicopter with one engine inoperative, the aircraft must be able to
carry out a baulked landing, and clear all osbstacles vertically by:
A 35 ft
B 35m
C 10.7m
D A safe margin D
Question When landing, a helicopter with Performance Class 1 and one engine inoperative must be able to land within
the LDAH, or, if carrying out a baulked approach, must clear, vertically, all obstructions by:
A 4.5m A
B 15m
C 35 ft
D 35m
Question When planning forone engine inoperative in the cruise, a helicopter of Performance Class 2 must be able to
maintain a rate of climb of at least:
A 50 ft/min at 2000 ft in mountainous areas A
B 100 ft/min
C 100 ft/min at 1000 ft
D 150 ft/min at 300m
Question When planning obstacle avoidance on the take-off path of a Performance Class 1 helicopter which has suffered
an engine failure, consideration need not be given to obstacles which are nearer than:
A 2 x length of helicopter
B 30 ft
C 30m + .15 DR for VFR C
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Question When planning obstacle avoidance on the take-off path of a Performance Class 1 helicopter which has suffered
an engine failure, consideration need not be given to obstacles which are nearer than:
D 1.5 x length of the helicopter + .15 DR for IFR
Question Where is an official fuel flow chart found?

A In the Maintenance Manual
B In the Helicopter Flight Manual B
C In the Operators Manual
D In the Type Certificate
Question With one engine inoperative, a helicopter with Performance Class 1, when landing at an elevated heliport,
must be able to clear all obstructions vertically by:
A 4.5 m
B 15m
C 35 ft C
D A safe margin
Question When calculating the take off flight path (CPUI) in Performance Class 1 and 2, the Commaner is allowed to
use a certain amount of the reported headwind component. How much?
A 150%
B Not less than 50%
C =<50% C
D <50%
Question In Performance Class 1 and 2, when calculating Take Off Mass an operator shall ensure that account shall be
taken of?
A Not less than 150% of the reported tailwind component A
B Not less than 50% of the reported headwind component
C Temperature inversions above 1000 AGL
D None of the above
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Question Elevated heliports and helidecks:
If CPUI all obstacles must be cleared during take off until end of take off distance required by:
A 15
B 50
C 35 C
D 35 (day-VFR), 50 (night-IFR)
Question The take off flight path extends up to:

A 1200 AMSL
B 1000 above the take off surface B
C 500 above the take off surface
D 1500 AGL
Question Operations to/from elevated heliports in non-hostile environment in Performance Class 3:

A May be conducted without exposure time
B May be conducted with an exposure time to a power unit failure during take off and landing B
C May not be performed
D May be performed without restrictions until 31 December 2006
Question Along the take off flight path obstacles may be disregarded if they are situated beyond:

A 7 R for DAY-OPS (10R, Night - OPS) if NAV accuracy is achieved by ref. to suitable visual cues
B 300m if NAV accuracy is achieved by NAVAIDS
C 900m in other cases than mentioned in A and B
Question What DR shall be used when calculating obstacle clearance with CPUI along the take off flight path (IFR)?

A 0.15 DR
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Question What DR shall be used when calculating obstacle clearance with CPUI along the take off flight path (IFR)?
B 0.30 DR
C 0.01 DR C
D None of the above
Question What is the obstacle clearance required in connection with a baulked landing after DPBL (Performance Class
2)?
A 35
B 35 VFR/50 IFR
C A safe margin C
D 15
Question Obstacle clearance during the take off flight path on magnetic track 205o in Performance Class 1 VFR flight
with a left turn at 250 AGL to a new track of 175o, is:
A 35
B 35 + 0.01 DR + 15
C 50 C
D 35 + 0.01 DR
Question The part of the take off in both Performance Class 1 and 2 up to and including the TDP/DPATO shall be
conducted in sight of the surface.
A True A
B False
Question Obstacles beyond 10R may be disregarded in Performance Class 1:

A For day operations with suitable visual cues during the climb
B For all operations IFR/VMC
C For night operations if navigational accuracy can be achieved by reference to suitable visual C
cues during the climb
D None of the above
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Question Obstacles beyond 10R may be disregarded in Performance Class 1:

Question A headwind will:

A increase the angle of climb
B increase the climb flight path angle B
C increase the rate of climb
D shorten the time to a given altitude
Question A helicopter will obtain a maximum flight distance at the speed:

A for maximum range A
B for minimum hourly fuel flow
C for maximum endurance
D the speed for minimum power required
Question An increase in ambient temperature:

A generally reduces performance in performance class 1 and especially the take off weight A
B increases performance in performance class 1 and especially the take off weight
C does not influence performance in performance class 1 and especially the take off weight
D increases or does not influence takeoff weight depending on the aircraft type
Question An increase in density altitude:

A does not influence performance in performance class 1 and especially the take off weight
B increases performance in performance class 1 and especially the take off weight
C generally reduces performance in performance class 1 and decreases especially the take off C
weight
D increases or does not influence take off weight depending on the aircraft type
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Question An increase in pressure altitude:

A increases performance in class 1 and especially the take off weight
B generally reduces performance in class 1 and especially the take off weight B
C does not influence performance in class 1 and especially not on the take off weight
D increases or does not influence take off weight depending on aircraft type
Question Flying in a straight line at constant airspeed, a headwind:

A increases the climb gradient A
B decreases the climb gradient
C increases the distance required to descent 100m
D has no effect on the climb gradient
Question How do the best angle of climb speed and best rate of climb speed vary with increasing altitude?

A Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases
B Both increase
C Both decrease C
D Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases
Question If a helicopter is flying horizontally at its service ceiling:

A Its speed has to be maintained in a small range (Vmin is close to Vmax) A
B The helicopter must be flown at Vmax
C The helicopter must be flown at Vmin
D Vmin will coincide with Vmax
Question If, during descent in a Performance Class 1 helicopter which has one engine inoperative, fuel is to be
jettisoned, the fuel contents should be kept to a figure which enables the aircraft to carry out:
A A safe forced landing
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Question If, during descent in a Performance Class 1 helicopter which has one engine inoperative, fuel is to be
jettisoned, the fuel contents should be kept to a figure which enables the aircraft to carry out:
B A safe let down procedure
C A diversion C
D A hold
Question In a given configuration, mass and fuel on board, the endurance of a helicopter:

A depends on Ground speed and Altitude
B depends on Altitude and wind conditions
C depends on Altitude and True Air Speed C
D depends on Altitude only
Question In a power off autorotation in still air, to obtain the maximum glide range, the helicopter should be flown:

A at a speed close to the VNE power on
B at a speed close to the VNE
C at a speed close to the best range speed and with minimum rotor speed without exceeding the VNE C
power off
D at a speed close to maximum endurance speed
Question In a power off autorotation in still air, to obtain the minimum rate of descent, the helicopter should be
flown:
A at a speed close to Zero
B at a speed close to the VY and with minimum rotor speed B
C at a speed close to the VNE
D at a speed close to maximum range speed
Question In performance class 2 when there is a headwind component, an operator, when calculating take off
A less than 50% of the reported headwind component
B more than 50% of the reported headwind component B
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Question In performance class 2 when there is a headwind component, an operator, when calculating take off
C more than 80% of the reported headwind component
D more than 150% of the reported headwind component
Question In performance class 1, when the wind measuring equipment has not received official approval and there is a
headwind component, to determine landing performance an operator may take account of at:
A least, 50% of the reported headwind component
B most, 50% of the reported headwind component B
C most, 80% of the reported headwind component
D most, 40% of the reported headwind component
Question In straight and level flight at constant indicated airspeed, a reduction in pressure altitude:

A reduces the power required A
B increases the power required
C increases or reduces the power required depending on the airspeed
D does not affect the power required
Question Maximum endurance

A will be achieved flying with minimum fuel consumption (kg/NM)
B is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction
C will be achieved by flying with minimum fuel flow (kg/h) C
D is the same as maximum specific range
Question Maximum range for a helicopter:

A will be obtained at the optimum altitude A
B will be obtaind at sea level
C will be obtained at the absolute ceiling
D is independent of altitude
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Question Maximum range for a helicopter:

Question Performance planning is required to ensure that:

A The aircraft and crew are capable of making the flight
B The space required for a manoeuvre is less than the space available B
C The fuel is sufficient for the flight
D The helicopter is landed correctly
Question The rate of climb will be negatively affected by:

A high pressure altitude, turning flight, low temperature
B high gross mass of helicopter, low temperature, high humidity
C high temperature, high pressure altitude, contaminated rotor blades C
D low pressure altitude, high mass, high temperature
Question The density altitude:

A is always equal to the pressure altitude
B is used to determine a helicopter's performance B
C is used to establish a minimum clearance of 2000 feet over mountains
D is used to calculate the transition level
Question The effect of wind on Angle of Climb Path will be:

A Nil
B Head and Tailwind will decrease the Angle of Climb Path
C The wind effect on Angle of Climb Path is unpredictable
D Headwind will increase the Angle of Climb Path D
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Question The effect of wind on Rate of Climb (ROC) will be:

A Nil A
B Headwind will increase the ROC
C Tailwind will increase the ROC
D The wind effect on ROC is unpredictable
Question The main end-product of performance planning is:

A A flight plan fuel
B A range of speeds and heights
C The maximum mass of the aircraft at different phases of flight C
D An ETA for the destination
Question The mass of a helicopter with Performance Class 3 must be such that the following is always possible:

A A vertical climb > 200 ft per min
B A hover
C A hover IGE C
D A hover OGE
Question The minimum rate of descent in autorotation will occur:

A at VY and rotor speed within limits A
B at VTOS and maximum rotor speed
C at VNE power off and minimum rotor speed
D at best range speed and minimum rotor speed

A is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range A
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B B – is in any case identical with the speed for maximum specific range
C C – can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range
D D – is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range
Question The speed for maximum rate of climb:

A may be higher or lower than the speed for best angle of climb depending on helicopter type
B will be the same as the speed for best angle of climb under any circumstances
C will be higher than the speed for best angle of climb C
D lower than the speed for the best angle of climb
Question The speed to fly for maximum endurance is:

A the speed, whichever the maximum endurance obtained for a given quantity of fuel at the lowest A
rate of fuel consumption ie. thelowest fuel flow per unit of time
B the speed, whichever achieve the maximum endurance using a given quantity of fuel, an aircraft
must consume the lowest possible amount of fuel for each nautical mile travelled over the ground
C the speed, whichever achieve the maximum endurance using given quantity of fuel, an aircraft
must consume the optimum fuel flow for each nautical mile travelled over the ground
D to fly for maximum endurance is in helicopter operations not used
Question The speed to fly for maximum range is:

A the speed, whichever achieve the maximum range using a given quantity of fuel, an aircraft must A
consume the lowest possible amount of fuel for each nautical mile travelled over the ground
B the speed, whichever the maximum range obtained for a given quantity of fuel at the lowest rate
of fuel consumption, ie the lowest fuel flow per unit of time
C the speed, whichever achieve the maximum range using a given quantity of fuel, an aircraft must
consume the optimum fuel flow per unit of time
D to fly for maximum range is in helicopter operations not used
Question What effect does temperature have on the performance limited take off mass?
performance
performance figs
Question What effect does temperature have on the performance limited take off mass?

A A change in temperature does not affect the performance limited take off mass
B Rising temperatures will permit a higher performance limited take off mass
C Failing temperatures will require a lower performance limited take off mass
D Rising temperatures will lower the performance limited take off mass D
Question What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?

A The time to climb does not change A
B The time to climb increases
C The time to climb decreases
D The effect on the time to climb will depend on the helicopter type
Question When calculating the performance of a Class 2 helicopter with one engine inoperative on the approach to
land, the following must be considered:
A the pressure altitude A
B the ETA
C the surface of the landing site
D the height of obstructions on the go round
Question When planning for landing a Performance Class 1 helicopter, the following information must be considered:

A The expected ambient pressure at the heliport
B Take off technique
C Not more than 75% of forecast headwind
D Any expected change in mass during flight D
Question Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on take off power?

A Airfield elevation
performance
performance figs
Question Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on take off power?
B Light precipitation
C Humidity
D Density Altitude D
Question Which of the following groups of conditions are the most favourable for take off?

A High airfield elevation, low humidity, high temperature, low atmospheric pressure
B High airfield elevation, low temperature, high atmospheric pressure
C Low airfield elevation, high temperature, low air density
D Low airfield elevation, low humidity, low temperature, high atmospheric pressure D
Question Why is VNE stated as an operating limitation?
1.Aerodynamic limitation
Choices 2.Engine performance limitation
3.Noise level related limitation
4.Structural limitation
5.ATC limitation
Which of the following groups all the correct answers?
Answers Correct
A 2 only
B 1 and 4 B
C 3 and 5
D 2 and 4
Question Performance Class 1 and 2:An Operator shall ensure thatif the flight will be conducted at any time out of
sight with the surface (CPUI):
A The mass of the helicopter permits a climb rate of 00 ft/min
B The mass of the helicopter permits a climb of 50 ft/min at an altitude of at least 200 ft AGL
(600m) in mountainous areas
C The mass of the helicopter permits obstacle clearance within 10 NM on either sideof the intended
track (IMC)
D B and C D
performance
practical application of an airplanes performance manual
Question The helicopter operating in Performance Class 1, 2 or 3 has to comply with the performance demdns in JAR OPS
3. Who has the initial responsibility for this compliance?
A Commander
B Operator B
C Manufacturer
D State of the Operator
Question What is the correct statement concerning the performance classes?

A Class 1 is only helicopters with MPASC>19 PAX
B Class 2 is only helicopters with MPASC =< 19 PAX but = >9 PAX
C Class 3 isonly helicopters with MPASC <9 PAX
D Class 1 is only helicopters with MPASC>19 PAX or helicopters operating to/from heliports located D
in a congested, hostile environment
Question What reduces the performance of a helicopter?

A Low temp/high press. altitude
B Low temp/low press. altitude
C High temp/high press. altitude C
D High temp/low press. altitude
Question What is meant by Equivalent weight on the drift down profile graph?

A Weight compensated for fuel reduction prior to engine failure
B Weight compensated for temperature of ISA +10 degrees and above B
C Weight compensated for density at different heights
D Weight compensated for temperature at different heights
Ref ATPL A
Question In relation to runway strength, the CAN:

performance
practical application of an airplanes performance manual
Question In relation to runway strength, the CAN:
A may not exceed 90% of the PCN

B may exceed the PCN by up to 10% B
C may never exceed the PCN
D may exceed the PCN by a factor of 2
Ref ATPL A

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B Is the downhill component of the true airspeed

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D increasing the angle of attack D

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D The altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub-scale D

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B It is unaffected by runway slope

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Pressure altitude: ±20m/1000 ft

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D Mass and configuration

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B VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)

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C Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases

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