Alaminos City National High School

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL

EARTH & LIFE SCIENCE

DIRECTION. Multiple Choice: Write the letter of the correct answer in a separate answer sheet.
1. Which of the given theories below explains that the universe was formed from a cataclysmic expansion which
hurled all matter and space were created simultaneously?
a. Steady-state Theory b. Cosmic Inflationary Theory c. Big bang Theory d. Multiverse Theory
2. According to nebular hypothesis, the planets formed from material which was _____.
a. ejected from the sun by an explosion
b. captured by the sun from interstellar space
c. part of the collapsing cloud which formed the sun
d. pulled from the sun during a collision with another star
3. Why life is possible on Earth?
a. Earth is the only planet with a magnetic field.
b. Earth is just the right size to support both plant and animal life.
c. Earth has an atmosphere, liquid water, and a moderate temperature.
d. Earth is larger than Mercury and Mars but smaller than Jupiter and Saturn.
4. All living organisms of Earth, including those on the land and in the water and air, are considered part of which
subsystem? a. hydrosphere b. geosphere c. atmosphere d. biosphere
5. Which of the following US spacecrafts has enabled human to take samples and images of various celestial
bodies? a. Voyager I b. Apollo 11 c. Sputnik I d. Skylab
6. One of the theories that explains the origin of life on earth is the Primordial Soup Theory, which of the following
scientists proposed this theory?
a. Charles Darwin b. Inge Lehmann c. Alexander Oparin d. Stanley Miller
7. Which layer of the earth’s geosphere is composed mainly of iron and nickel?
a. crust b. mantle c. core d. lithosphere
8. How do you compare the densities of the Earth’s crust, mantle, and core?
a. The mantle is denser than both the core and the crust.
b. The mantle is less dense than both the core and the crust.
c. The mantle is denser than the core but less dense than the crust.
d. The mantle is less dense than the core but denser than the crust.
Refer to the diagram below to answer item 9.
Moh’s Scale of Hardness
Mineral Hardness Mineral Hardness
Talc 1 Feldspar 6
Gypsum 2 Quartz 7
Calcite 3 Topaz 8
Fluorite 4 Corundum 9
Apatite 5 Diamond 10
9. Based on the given diagram, which of the following statements is correct?
a. Talc is the hardest mineral. c. Topaz can scratch both quartz and corundum.
b. Diamond can scratch all the minerals. d. Apatite can scratch feldspar but not fluorite.
10. Juan wrote down some observations of four rock samples she was studying. Based on his observations,
which of the following rock samples is most likely a sedimentary rock?
a. b. c. d.

11. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between mechanical and chemical
weathering?
a. the length of time each takes to break up a rock
b. that each occurs only in certain parts of the world
c. the way they affect the composition of a rock
d. that only chemical weathering involves water
12. Refer to the diagram at the right side. Which numbers in the
diagram show the processes of weathering and erosion?
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 5, 6, 7
c. 2, 4, 8
d. 3, 5, 7
13. Which of the following situations is most likely to undergo mass wasting?
a. a dry, steep slope of unconsolidated material
b. a wet, steep slope of unconsolidated material
c. a dry moderate slope of unconsolidated material
d. a wet, moderate slope of unconsolidated material
14. Predict what is the possible cause of the tilting of the fences and electric posts based on the picture below.
a. due to salt intrusion
b. due to slow movement of weathered materials
c. due to strong winds brought by tornadoes
d. due to submersion of soil
15. Which of the following geological processes lead to the formation of magma beneath the earth’s surface?
a. crystallization b. subduction c. metamorphism d. volcanism
16. What do you think will happen to the mineral components of a rock when it metamorphosed?
a. ugly first, then beautiful c. transformed into solid state
b. shattered by mechanical processes d. melted first, then crystallized to form new rock
17. Look at the diagram below, based on their inter-grown crystals, which igneous rock cooled the fastest?

18. Which of the following causes sea-floor spreading and continental drift?
a. occurrence of tides c. changes in the Earth's magnetic field
b. convection currents in the mantle d. shrinkage of the crust as the Earth cools
19. Which of the following evidences was not used by Wegener as evidence of continental drift?
a. The geometric fit of the continents.
b. Magnetic anomalies on the seafloor.
c. Fossils that were common to many continents.
d. Evidence of glaciation on widely separated continents.
20. In the plate tectonic model of the Earth's crustal activity, where is most of the new crustal material formed?
a. where plates collide c. in mountain chains
b. in the centers of continents d. along mid ocean ridges
Use the information below to answer items 21 & 22.
In the following geological cross section, units A, B, and C are sedimentary rocks. Unit D is intrusion.

21. Which of the following happened most recently?

a. deposition of unit C c. deposition of unit A
b. deposition of unit B d. Intrusion of unit D
22. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Unit E is younger than unit A
b. Unit B is younger than the D
c. Unit D is younger than unit E.
d. Unit B and Unit c are the same age

23. Movement of tectonic plates creates faults, which of the following best describes a fault?
a. The place along a plate boundary where slipping occurs.
b. The type of seismic wave that travels underground.
c. The type of seismic wave that travels on the surface.
d. The place underground where the earthquake occurs.
24. Once the typhoon and flood have receded, which of the following precautions is NOT included?
a. Don’t enter buildings submerged in floodwaters c. Be an obstacle to rescuers
b. Pay attention to road closures d. Be alert for loose power lines
25. Landslides are very dangerous, it is not enough that we know if our area of location is in a landslide-prone area
or not. How could you help mitigate landslides?
 a. Explosive blasting of unhazardous target area c. Convert mountains to real state community
b. Construct protective covers over roadways d. Detach warning signs from hazardous area
26. Which of the following pieces of evidence can be used to support the theory that complex organic molecules,
such as amino acids and nucleic acids, could have originally formed in the Earth's oceans?
a. Earth's oceans contain a great diversity of living organisms.
b. Water and organic compounds have been identified in asteroids in the solar system
c. Non-photosynthetic ecosystems have been discovered near hydrothermal vents in the ocean floor.
d. Water is a known by-product of reactions that synthesize complex organic molecules from simpler ones.
27. What theory proposes that life began in an ocean as a product of the combination of chemicals from the
atmosphere and some form of energy to produce the building blocks of life?
a. primordial soup theory b. panspermia c. catastrophism d. spontaneous generation
28. This unifying theme explains the changes in organisms over long periods of time. It allows life forms to acquire
new characteristics in response to their environment.
a. Adaption and Evolution c. Heritable Information
b. Structure and Functions d. Feedback and Regulation
29. Cells carry out many functions required for life one of this is respiration, which of the following explains this
process?
a. It is a set of metabolic reactions and processes which take place in cells.
b. It Controls and coordinates different body activities through the nervous system.
c. It is responsible in the removal of wastes produced by different cellular processes.
d. Increases the size of organisms as a result of increase in number and size of cells.
30. Which of the following is NOT true about the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a. The light reactions occur at day time. c. The light reactions need chlorophyll molecules.
b. ATP is a product of the light reactions. d. Carbon dioxide is a raw material in the light reactions.
31. Below are the 3 major steps in cellular respiration.
I. Glycolysis II. Krebs Cycle III. Oxidative Phosphorylation
Which step produces ATP?
a. II only b. III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III
32. Which of the following comparisons between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is NOT CORRECT?
a. Carbon dioxide is used in photosynthesis while oxygen is used in cellular respiration.
b. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants while cellular respiration occurs only in animals.
c. Photosynthesis takes place in the chloroplasts while cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria.
d. Photosynthesis occurs only in the presence of light while cellular respiration occurs in both light and
darkness.
33. Which of the following is TRUE of asexual reproduction in plants?
a. Pollen is released c. Egg and sperm cells are produced
b. Seeds are produced d. The parent and progeny are identical
34. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about reproduction in flowering plants?
a. One sperm nucleus within the pollen tube will migrate to and fertilize the egg, forming a zygote.
b. The pollen grain, or male gametophyte, will contain two cells, the generative cell and the tube cell.
c. The female gametophyte, or embryo sac, consists of eight haploid nuclei, one of which is the egg and
two polar nuclei.
d. Another sperm nucleus within the pollen tube will migrate to and unite with the polar nuclei, producing
a diploid endosperm.
35. In binary fission as an asexual reproduction, how does the DNA of the daughter cell compare to the DNA of
the parent cell?
a. It is identical. c. It has some similarities and some differences.
b. It is a mix of the parent's DNA. d. It is only half of the amount of DNA found in the parent.
36. During transcription, an mRNA molecule is formed _____.
a. inside the nucleus. c. that is complementary to both strands of DNA
b. that it is double-stranded d. that is identical to part of a single strand of DNA
37. The following statements describes the process of genetic engineering, EXCEPT
a. The resulted organism is referred as genetically modified organism.
b. It aims to get a desired trait or characteristic of the source organism.
c. Ionizing radiation is use to take a DNA structure to a certain organism.
d. A piece or pieces of DNA are taken from an organism and inserted or introduced into the DNA of
another organism.
38. Which of the following is a product of genetic engineering?
a. golden rice b. synthetic rice c. fake rice d. organic rice
39. Which of the following is a benefit of GMOs to humans?
a. Increased crop yield c. Decreased risk for infection by insects
b. Increased farm costs d. Reduced farm profit and production of allergens
40. Which of the following metabolic processes is responsible in the breaking down of complex substances into
simpler form that can be absorbed by our body?
a. respiration b. digestion c. circulation d. homeostasis
41. Which of the following describes the function of the alveoli?
a. It warms the air that enters the lungs.
b. It provides a large surface area for gas exchange.
c. It filters bacteria out of the air that enters the lungs.
d. It moistens the air before it diffuses into the capillaries.
42. How does bile aid in digestion?
a. It digest fats into fatty acids in the gall bladder.
b. It digests fats into fatty acids in the small intestine.
c. It breaks fats into small droplets in the small intestine.
d. It beaks proteins into amino acids in the small intestine.
43. Which of the following are the functions of plant roots?
I. Anchorage III. Storage of food molecules
II. Absorption of water and minerals IV. Absorption of carbon dioxide and other gases
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I,II and III only d. I, II, III, and IV
44. Why do you think leaves are the most dominant part in plants?
a. It provides energy and food for the plant.
b. It gives off oxygen necessary for animals.
c. It is necessary for the growth and reproduction of plants.
d. All of the above
Study the table below to answer items 45-46
Characteristics BIRD 1 BIRD 2 BIRD 3 BIRD 4
Body length 20 cm 12 cm 10 cm 15 cm
Offspring that survives to 1 3 2 3
adulthood
Age of death 4 years 5 years 4 years 6 years
Other traits Very healthy, strong Mates with many Dark-colored and Occupies the
and clever birds moves very fast largest territory
45. Which bird might a biologist consider to be the “most fit”?
a. Bird 1 b. Bird 2 c. Bird 3 d. Bird 4
46. What could cause one species to evolve into 4 species over time?
a. There may be minor variations, but all birds are essentially alike and all are members of a single species.
b. Groups of birds encountered different island environments so they needed to become new species
with different traits to survive.
c. Groups of birds must been geographically isolated from other groups and random genetic changes must
have accumulated in these bird population.
d. In order to survive, 4 groups of birds needed to adapt to different islands, and so all organisms in each
group gradually evolved to become a new bird species with the same trait.
47. Which of the following is key feature of the theory of evolution?
a. Each species produces more offspring that can survive.
b. Offspring compete with one another for limited resources.
c. Organisms in populations are genetically unique.
d. Offspring with the most favorable traits are the most likely to survive and pass on their genes.
48. Which principle of the ecosystem explains that management should adapt to whatever changes because
change is inevitable part of the ecosystem?
a. Principle 1 b. Principle 3 c. Principle 6 d. Principle 9
49. Cocolisap infestation outbreak has been declared in some parts of the Philippines. The cocolisap feeds on the
sap of the coconut tree and injects toxic enzymes, resulting in discolored leaves and deformed plant tissues
that retard its growth of coconut tree. This results in a decrease of the survival rate of coconut trees. Which of
the following factors limit the population of coconut trees?
a. emigration b. predation c. diseases and parasites d. competition for resources
50. Why Riparian zones are important transition areas?
a. Influence the vegetation of aquatic and terrestrial biomes by directing the channel of a stream
b. Control the materials that pass the channel and provide immediate source of energy and nutrients
c. Affect the biotic element present in these areas and the waterways connected to these areas
d. All of the above