Aeronautical Engineering Decree and its Implementing Rules and Regulations:

1. Which law regulates the practice of aeronautical engineering in the Philippines?

a. PD 1570
b. RA 9497
c. Civil Aviation Regulations
d. None of the above

2. Which government body implements the requirements under PD 1570?

a. The Civil Aeronautics Board
b. The Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines
c. The Board of Aeronautical Engineering of PRC
d. None of the above

3. According to PD 1570, how many members are there in the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

4. Who appoints the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?

a. The Chairperson of the Professional Regulations Commission
b. The Director General of the CAAP
c. The Secretary of DOTC
d. The President of the Philippines

5. What is the minimum age to be a qualified member of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. 18
b. 21
c. 31
d. 41

6. According to PD 1570, how long could a person serve as a member of the board?
a. Indefinitely
b. 3 years only
c. 2 years per term with a maximum of two successive terms
d. 3 years per term with a maximum of two successive terms

7. Does the board have power over those who have no certificate but practice the profession of
aeronautical engineering?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It is not defined in PD 1570
d. Yes, only if the person have a CAAP license

8. According to PD 1570, if a person is below 21 years old, can that person be allowed to take the
licensure examination for aeronautical engineers?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, only if permitted by the CAAP Board of Directors
d. Yes, only if permitted by the CAAP Director General
9. Are foreigners allowed to take the licensure exam for aeronautical engineers?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, only if permitted by the Director General of CAAP
d. Yes, only with proof of reciprocity from his State

10. Can an aerospace engineering graduate take the licensure exam for aeronautical engineers?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, only if permitted by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering
d. Yes, only if he also holds a CAAP license

11. How many times in a year are licensure exams for aeronautical engineers held?
a. Once a year
b. Twice a year
c. Once every two years
d. As many times as the Board of Aeronautical Engineering may require

12. Is there a specific date and place when and where the licensure exams are held?
a. No
b. Yes
c. The CAAP will determine the date and place
d. The Board of Aeronautical Engineering will determine the place but the date is fixed

13. If an examinee has a general weighted average of 90% but has a score of less than 50% in one of
his/her subject, did he/she pass?
a. No
b. Yes
c. The Board of Aeronautical Engineering will decide
d. The Chairman of the PRC will decide

14. Which document/s is/are issued by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering to a successful examinee
entitling him/her the rights and privileges of a registered aeronautical engineer?
a. The Aeronautical Engineer License
b. The Identification Card of an Aeronautical Engineer
c. The Certificate of Registration of an Aeronautical Engineer
d. None of the above

15. Is it legal for the professional organization to require all aeronautical engineers to remain a member in
good standing?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It is not defined in PD 1570
d. It is legal but is not being implemented

16. Which organization of aeronautical engineers is accredited by the government?

a. The Society of Aeronautical Engineers of the Philippines
b. The Philippine Technological Council
c. The Aeronautical Engineering Research Organization
d. The Philippine Society of Aeronautical Engineers
17. When a certificate of registration is revoked by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering, when can it be
reinstated?
a. After 1 year
b. After 2 years
c. After 3 years
d. Never

18. Is operating an aircraft considered a practice of aeronautical engineering?

a. Yes
b. No
c. It is not defined in PD 1570
d. Only when the Aeronautical Engineer is acting as Captain

19. Is it allowed by law to practice aeronautical engineering without a certificate of registration as an

aeronautical engineer?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It is not defined in PD 1570
d. Only when he has an identification card as an engineer

20. Who is allowed to enforce PD 1570?

a. Police officers
b. CAAP
c. Either CAAP or police officers or both
d. None of the above

21. According to PD 1570, which of the following is not considered an aircraft?

a. Missile
b. Airship
c. Kite
d. None of the above

22. Which of the following is not considered practice of aeronautical engineering?

a. Designing an aircraft structure
b. Teaching Aerodynamics
c. Flying an Airplane
d. None of the above

23. Which statement is true with regards to the seal of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. The design of the seal shows an airplane
b. The leading edge of the wing is on the left side
c. The leading edge of the wing is on the right side
d. The atom in the design has five electrons

24. Which of the following statement is true with regards to the scope of the examination?
a. There are five major subjects
b. The relative weight of the subject Aircraft Construction, Repair and Modification is 10%
c. Both choices are true
d. None of the above

25. Who are exempted from the examination?

a. No one is exempted
b. Those that have at least 3 years’ experience as a Practicing Aeronautical Engineer
c. Anyone who applies may be granted exemption if he/she pays for it
d. None of the above
Aircraft Weight and Balance:
26. What is meant by residual fuel or unusable fuel?
a. The fuel that remains in the lines and tanks after draining.
b. The deposits on the exhaust duct after combustion.
c. The fuel that remain with the products of combustion.
d. All of the above are correct.

27. The removal and/or installation of standard items may change the
a. Basic empty weight of the aircraft.
b. C.G. range
c. C.G. Limits
d. All of the above

28. When weighing aircraft for weight and balance check, it should be in
a. Normal ground attitude
b. Level flight attitude
c. Either a or b is correct
d. None of the above

29. What is the maximum payload under these conditions?

BOW 100,000 lb
Max. zero fuel weight 145,000 lb
Max. landing weight 155,000 lb
Max. takeoff weight 200,000 lb
Fuel tank load 75,000 lb
Est. fuel burn en route 55,000 lb
a. 35,000 lb
b. 45,000 lb
c. 55,000 lb
d. None of the above

30. A 120-cm wing has a LEMAC at STA. 1000. If CG is at 40% of MAC, in what station is it located?
a. STA 952
b. STA 1040
c. STA 1048
d. None of the above

31. When performing weight and balance computation for airplanes, which is more critical?
a. Longitudinal balance
b. Lateral balance
c. Directional balance
d. None of the above

32. Which statement is true with regards to the center of lift?

a. The center of lift does not move
b. The center of lift moves backward when the airplane pitches up
c. The center of lift moves forward when the airplane pitches up
d. The center of lift always moves back and forth

33. Which is not included as tare weight?

a. Weight of chocks
b. Weight of Ballast
c. Weight of a jack
d. None of the above
34. If the CG is located at 30% of MAC and the LEMAC is at station 1010, in what station would you find
the CG if the MAC is 100 inches?
a. Station 980
b. Station 1010
c. Station 1040
d. Station 1400

35. The point on the scale at which the weight of the aircraft is said to be concentrated
a. Center of gravity
b. Weighing point
c. Both options are correct
d. None of the above

36. What does it mean when you compute for the C.G. and the result is a negative number?
a. It means that the C.G. is located forward of the datum
b. It means that the C.G. is located aft of the datum
c. It means that the C.G. has exceeded the forward or aft C.G. limits
d. It means that the computation is wrong

37. Which of the following are considered part of the payload?

a. The weight of the fuel and oil
b. The weight of non-revenue passengers
c. The weight of the pilot and crewmembers
d. None of the above

38. Zero fuel weight is

a. Take-off weight minus Fuel load
b. Basic Operating weight plus payload
c. Both options are correct
d. None of the above

39. A nose heavy aircraft is balanced by adding weight at the ______ cargo compartment
a. Forward
b. Center
c. Aft
d. No additional weight will solve a nose heavy condition

40. What will be the weight condition of a modern aircraft if all seats are occupied, full baggage weight is
carried, and all fuel tanks are full?
a. It will be in excess of maximum takeoff weight
b. It will be at maximum basic operating weight (BOW)
c. It will be at maximum taxi or ramp weight
d. It will be in normal weight capacity

41. What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight?
a. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
b. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight
c. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir
d. None of the above

42. What determines whether the value of a moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in
aircraft weight and balance?
a. The location of the weight in reference to the datum
b. The result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum
c. The location of the datum in reference to the aircraft CG
d. The moment calculated will always be positive
43. The useful load of an aircraft consists of the
a. Crew, usable fuel, passengers, and cargo
b. Crew, usable fuel, oil, and fixed equipment
c. Crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and fixed equipment
d. Crew, Passengers, oil, cargo, fixed equipment, usable and unusable fuel

44. Zero fuel weight is the

a. Dry weight plus the weight of full crew, passengers, and cargo
b. Basic operating weight without crew, fuel, and cargo
c. Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, and cargo) without fuel
d. None of the above

45. An aircraft's LEMAC and TEMAC are defined in terms of distance

a. From the datum
b. From each other
c. Ahead of and behind the wing center of lift, respectively
d. Ahead of and behind the center of gravity, respectively

46. When computing the maximum forward loaded CG of an aircraft, minimum weights, arms, and
moments should be used for items of useful load that are located aft of the
a. Aft CG limit
b. Forward CG limit
c. Datum
d. LEMAC

47. A dead weight, usually sandbags, installed in the aircraft to maintain the desired balance is called
a. Gross weight
b. Tare weight
c. Ballast
d. Chocks

48. The aircraft condition wherein the center of gravity is located forward of the forward C.G. limit
a. Nose heavy
b. Tail heavy
c. Overloaded
d. Normal

49. How can you find the balance point of an aircraft?

a. Divide the total weight by the total moment.
b. Divide the total moment by the the total arm.
c. Divide the total moment by the total weight.
d. Multiply the total weight by the total arm.

50. The maximum weight as used in weight and balance control of a given aircraft can normally be found
a. By adding the of full fuel, oil, pilot, passengers, and maximum allowable baggage to the empty weight.
b. By adding the empty weight and payload.
c. In the Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet.
d. None of the above
Gas Turbine Engine:
51. “For every force, there’s an equal and opposite reaction”
a. Newton’s First Law of Motion
b. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
c. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
d. None of the choices are correct

52. In the P-V diagram of the Brayton Cycle, which parameter is constant?
a. Pressure
b. Volume
c. Temperature
d. Entropy

53. Provided the engine speed is kept constant, which condition would increase Thrust?
a. Increase in ambient Temperature
b. Increase in ambient Pressure
c. Decrease in air density
d. Increase in Altitude

54. Which of the following condition would produce the highest thrust?
a. high acceleration of a small amount of air
b. low acceleration of a large amount of air
c. high acceleration of a large amount of air
d. low acceleration of a small amount of air

55. Which Thrust rating is allowed for a limited time only?

a. Maximum Take-off Thrust
b. Maximum Climb Thrust
c. Maximum Cruise Thrust
d. Maximum Idle Thrust

56. On a twin spool engine, where would the air go next after the combustor?
a. LPC
b. HPC
c. LPT
d. HPT

57. On a twin-spool engine, which is commonly rotated by the last stage turbine?
a. The fan
b. LPC and the Fan
c. HPC and accessories
d. LPC and HPC

58. Which thermodynamic cycle explains how a turbojet engine operates?

a. Otto cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Brayton cycle
d. Diesel Cycle

59. Which parameter/s is/are used to represent thrust on most dual-spool gas turbine engines?
a. N1
b. N2
c. N1 or EPR
d. None of the above
60. It is the ratio of the mass of secondary air to the mass of primary air
a. Bypass ratio
b. Stoichiometric ratio
c. Aspect ratio
d. Relative wind ratio

61. What is the main advantage of centrifugal flow compressor over axial flow compressor?
a. The drag
b. The over-all pressure ratio
c. The number of stages
d. The increase in pressure per stage

62. Which compressor control system component protects the LPC by venting the air during low power
operation?
a. VSV
b. VBV
c. LP compressor bleed valve
d. All of the above

63. What happens to the air when it passes through a turbine nozzle guide vane?
a. It slows down due to the convergent shape
b. It speeds up due to the convergent shape
c. It slows down due to the divergent shape
d. It speeds up due to the divergent shape

64. Which statement is true with regards to thrust reversers?

a. Thrust reversers are used to fly in the reverse direction
b. Full Reverse thrust can be applied immediately after touchdown
c. Thrust reversers can be applied on just one engine for turning
d. Thrust reversers are used to assist the brakes in stopping the aircraft on ground

65. Which component of the lubrication system triggers a warning when system pressure drops below a
specified level?
a. The pressure transmitter
b. The pressure switch
c. The bypass filter
d. All of the above

66. Fuel with high flash point

a. Provides good ignition capabilities
b. Is safe for handling
c. Has low freezing point
d. None of the above

67. What prevents fuel from vaporizing inside the tanks when the aircraft is at high altitude?
a. Positive air pressure on the top surface of the fuel from the engine
b. Positive air pressure on the top surface of the fuel from ram air
c. Negative air pressure on the top surface of the fuel from the pneumatic system
d. Negative pressure on the top surface of the fuel from ram air
68. Which accessory is not found in an APU?
a. Fuel pump
b. Oil pump
c. Electric generator
d. Hydraulic pump

69. Which cooling method is used to protect the inner liner from the intense heat of the combustion
gases?
a. Impingement cooling
b. Splash cooling
c. Film cooling
d. None of the above

70. Which component prevents cavitation at the inlet of the high pressure fuel pump?
a. Fuel boost pumps in the tank
b. Low pressure fuel pump
c. LP fuel shut-off valve
d. None of the above

71. Which control lever is used to open the fuel valves and starts the ignition?
a. Forward thrust lever
b. Start lever
c. Reverse thrust lever
d. None of the above

72. Which group of engine indications helps detect problems at an early stage?
a. Performance indication
b. System indication
c. Engine trend monitoring
d. None of the above

73. What does the thrust reverser interlock system do?

a. It prevents deployment of the reverser if the opposite reverser does not deploy
b. It prevents the engine from increasing power until the reverser is fully deployed
c. It prevents the reverser from deploying while in flight
d. None of the above

74. Which statement is true with regards to heat exchangers?

a. Air is used to cool the oil
b. Fuel heats up while the oil cools down
c. Oil heats up while the fuel cools down
d. Fuel and oil mixes inside a heat exchanger then separates when it leaves
75. Which type of jet engine incorporates movable vanes that cause an intermittent entry of air inside
the engine?
a. Gas turbine engine
b. Rocket
c. Pulse jet
d. Ram jet

76. What happens to pressure of supersonic air when it flows through a convergent nozzle?
a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains constant
d. It fluctuates

77. When the engine is running on ground and the aircraft is not moving, what would be the pressure at
the inlet section?
a. Lower than ambient
b. Higher than ambient
c. Same as ambient
d. Inlet pressure is always higher than ambient

78. How is anti-ice performed on the air intake nose?

a. By electrical heaters
b. By pneumatic boots
c. By spraying anti-ice fluid
d. By spraying hot gas

79. How are compressor stages counted?

a. Counting a rotor followed by a stator is one compressor stage
b. Counting a stator followed by a rotor is one compressor stage
c. One blade whether it’s a rotor or a stator is one compressor stage
d. A pair of rotor and stator is one compressor stage no matter which one is counted first

80. What are the two main elements of a centrifugal flow compressor?
a. Rotor and stator
b. Impeller and diffuser
c. Rotor and diffuser
d. Impeller and rotor

81. What type of damage may happen on turbine rotor blades because of high temperature and high
centrifugal forces?
a. Elongation
b. Cavitation
c. Erosion
d. Creep

82. Which component experiences the highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine?
a. Combustor
b. Ignition Plug
c. Fuel Nozzle
d. Turbine Inlet Nozzle Guide Vane
83. During engine deceleration or shutdown, which would contract first, the rotors or the casing?
a. The rotors because of the reduction in centrifugal force
b. The rotors because of the thermal contraction
c. The casing because of the reduction in centrifugal force
d. The casing because of the thermal contraction

84. What type of air seals are usually used on turbofan engines?
a. Labyrinth seals
b. Carbon seals
c. Both a and b are correct
d. None of the above

85. What happens to viscosity when the temperature increases?

a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains the same
d. temperature change does not affect viscosity

86. Which statement is true with regards to mixing of fuel and water?
a. Water and fuel separates at low temperature
b. Water and fuel separates at high temperature
c. Water is always dissolved when mixed with fuel
d. Fuel is heavier than water

87. Which air-fuel ratio allows complete combustion?

a. 13:1
b. 15:1
c. 1:15
d. 1:13

88. What happens to the fuel coming from the HP pump of the fuel control unit?
a. It all goes to the combustion
b. Part of it goes to combustion while the excess goes back to the tank
c. Part of it goes to combustion while the excess goes back to the pump
d. None of the above

89. On a twin spool engine, which turbine usually has active clearance control system?
a. HPC
b. LPT
c. HPT
d. All of the above

90. A start that failed to produce combustion due to faulty ignition

a. Hung start
b. Hot start
c. Dry start
d. Wet start

91. Which statement is true with regards to the speed of a dual spool gas turbine engine?
a. Fan speed is represented by N2
b. Fan speed and core speed is the same
c. Fan speed is faster than core speed
d. Core speed is faster than fan speed
92. Which statement is true with regards to the accessory gear box?
a. Engine core rotor rotation is transferred to the horizontal driveshaft via the transfer gearbox
b. Radial drive shaft directly connects to the accessory gearbox
c. Horizontal drive shaft transfers the rotation to the radial drive shaft via the transfer gearbox
d. Engine core rotor rotation is transferred to the radial driveshaft via the transfer gearbox

93. The engine component that controls servo fuel pressure to the VBV actuator
a. The ECU
b. The servo motor
c. The servo valve
d. The HMU

94. Symbol used to represent the highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine
a. Ps12
b. Pt2
c. Ps3
d. Pt5

95. Pump used to suck the oil from the users in a dry sump lubricating system
a. Supply pump
b. Scavenge pump
c. Lubrication unit
d. None of the above

96. Which statement is true with regards to oil filters?

a. Supply filters have a bypass valve
b. Supply filters are located in the return line
c. Supply filters give a warning when the filter is clogged
d. Scavenge filter will allow unfiltered oil to pass thru if the filter is clogged

97. Which indication would show that the HP fuel valve is open?
a. The LP valve position is always the same as the HP valve position
b. The HP valve position is shown in the Primary display
c. The light on the controls
d. The fuel flow transmitter

98. Which statement is true with regards to the VSV?

a. All stators in the HPC are VSV
b. VSVs from different stages move at different angles
c. VSVs are located on the aft stages of the LPC
d. VSVs are located on the forward stages of the HPC

99. Which parameters are used for the Compressor Control System?
a. Rotor speed
b. Compressor Inlet Temperature
c. Both rotor speed and compressor inlet temperature
d. None of the above

100. Which thrust reverser is used by turbo prop engines?

a. Pivoting door
b. Translating Cowl
c. Bucket type
d. Reverse Pitch
Answers:

1. A 51. C
2. C 52. A
3. B 53. B
4. D 54. C
5. C 55. A
6. D 56. D
7. A 57. B
8. A 58. C
9. D 59. C
10. C 60. A
11. A 61. D
12. A 62. B
13. A 63. B
14. C 64. D
15. A 65. B
16. A 66. B
17. B 67. B
18. B 68. D
19. B 69. C
20. C 70. B
21. C 71. B
22. C 72. C
23. C 73. B
24. D 74. B
25. D 75. C
26. A 76. A
27. A 77. A
28. B 78. D
29. A 79. A
30. C 80. B
31. A 81. D
32. C 82. D
33. B 83. A
34. C 84. C
35. B 85. B
36. A 86. A
37. B 87. B
38. C 88. C
39. C 89. C
40. A 90. D
41. C 91. D
42. B 92. C
43. A 93. D
44. A 94. C
45. A 95. B
46. B 96. D
47. C 97. D
48. A 98. D
49. C 99. C
50. C 100. D