FMS FLT 1 - Questions

FMS FLT – 1
Test Booklet No. 7 7 1 3 8 6
PLEASE DO NOT OPEN THE TEST BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.

Total number of pages: 36 Number of Questions: 175
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum marks: 700
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MBA
FLT-0011/10 Test Prep
Section I : Quantitative Ability
Directions for questions 1 and 2: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Central Government pays Rs.100,000 to the State Government for each victim of the floods that
occurred in the state. Normally, the number of victims of the floods is 20% of the total population of that
state in a year. It was observed that the State Government stated that the number of victims of the floods
in the state is up to 60% of the total population of the state in a year. The Central Government wants to
impose a penalty, if the number of victims of the flood in the state is more than 20% and decided that the
amount paid to the State Government in the situations A and B will be in the ratio 2 : 3.
Situation A: The number of victims of the floods is 20% of the total population on an average.
Situation B: The number of victims of the floods is more than 20% of the total population on an average.
1. What amount should the Central Government pay for each victim of the floods, if the State Government
has reported that the number of victims of the floods is 40% of the total population in a year?
(1) Rs. 100,000 (2) Rs. 75,000 (3) Rs. 60,000 (4) Rs. 80,000
2. What is the total amount to be paid to the State Government for each of the victims of the floods by
the Central Government, if the number of victims of the floods is 300,000 out of a total population of
800,000?
(1) Rs. 100,000 (2) Rs. 75,000 (3) Rs. 60,000 (4) Rs. 80,000
3. Godhan can complete a job in 5 days when working alone. He invites Liladhar and Ravinder to join
3
him in doing the job, each of whom can do the same job th as fast as him. He also invites Ketan
4
1
and Fateh to join him in doing the job, each of whom can do only th as fast as him. If these five
5
persons start working together to do the same job, then how long will it take for them to finish
the job?
(1) More than 2 days (2) More than 3 days (3) Less than 2 days (4) Less than 1 day
4. A merchant wants to sell his two items A and B. If item A is sold at 25% loss and item B at 20%
profit, then the merchant will neither lose nor gain in this transaction. If item A is sold at 20% loss
and item B at 10% profit, then the merchant will lose Rs. 2,000. What is the cost price of item A ?
(1) Rs. 26000.00 (2) Rs. 26666.66 (3) Rs. 28000.00 (4) Rs. 24333.33
5. It took Nico 0.25 seconds to stop an egg while ensuring it doesn’t break at the same time. What
was the average force applied by Nico to stop the egg? The mass of the egg is 64 grams and the egg
was moving with a vertical velocity of 8 m/s.
(1) 2.048 N (2) 1.024 N (3) 0.512 N (4) 5.12 N
FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 1

Test Prep
6. There are 500 students more in school-1 than in school-2.The ratio of the boys to that of the girls in
school-1 is 3:2 and that in school-2 is 4:1.The ratios of the number of students who belong to
Upper-class, Lower-class and Middle-class in school-1 and school-2 are 2:5:3 and 2:3:3 respectively.
The number of students who belong to Middle-class in both the given schools is the same. How
many students are there in school-1? (Assume that any student belongs to exactly one of the
classes).
(1) 2000 (2) 2500 (3) 3000 (4) 3500
7. Suresh, Ramesh and Rajesh, three college mates, jointly invested in a business project. As per
their share in the investment, Ramesh will receive two-fifths of the profits, whereas Suresh and
Rajesh will divide the remainder in the ratio 1: 2 in that order. It is estimated that the income of
Suresh will decrease by Rs. 20,000 when the rate of profit for the whole business project decreases
from 10% to 5%. What is the capital of Rajesh?
(1) Rs. 10 lakhs (2) Rs. 6 lakhs (3) Rs. 8 lakhs (4) Rs. 4 lakhs
8. The average wage per day of a per day labour for 15 consecutive working days was Rs.92. For the
first 7 days, his average wage was Rs.80 and the average wage per day during the last 7 days was
Rs.90. What was his wage on the 8th day?
(1) Rs.200 (2) Rs.250 (3) Rs.190 (4) Rs.350
9. Amir invested amounts A and B at 10% Simple Interest and Compound Interest respectively (both
rates applied annually). If after 2 years he received the same amount, i.e. Rs.3000 from both the
investments, then what is the absolute difference between the value of A and B?
(1) Rs. 25 (2) Rs. 20.66 (3) Rs. 15 (4) Rs. 26.66
10. In view of the present decline in the viewership of the TEST matches, the ICC decided to decrease
the price of the tickets. The price of every ticket was reduced by 25% to boost the number of people
viewing the TEST matches. What should be the percentage increase in the number of people
viewing the test matches so that the revenue generated through the sale of tickets for test matches
remains unchanged?
(1) 25% (2) 20% (3) 15% (4) 33.33%
11. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 20 m and that of the rear wheel is 40 m. What is the
distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear
wheel?
(1) 200 m (2) 500 m (3) 300 m (4) 150 m
Page 2 MBA FMS – FLT 1

Test Prep
12. A square is inscribed in a circle having radius 10 cm. Another circle is drawn such that it touches the
circle and one of the sides of the square as shown in the figure given below. What could be the
maximum possible radius of such a circle?
(1) 5 – 2.5 2 cm (2) 10 – 5 2 cm (3) 5 – 2 5 cm (4) None of these
13. If May1, 2008 was a Sunday, then which of the following dates was a Saturday?
(1) May 2, 2004 (2) May 3, 2004 (3) May 4, 2004 (4) May 5, 2004
14. A solid cube is placed in two different liquids X and Y one by one. When placed in liquid X, the cube
is 4 cm above the liquid level and when it is placed in liquid Y, it is 1 cm above the liquid level. If the
ratio of the densities of the liquids X and Y is 3 : 2, then the edge of the cube measures
(1) 8 cm (2) 9 cm (3) 12 cm (4) 10 cm
15. ( )
If log13 log11 x + 2x − 3 = log11 log13 2, then what is the value of ‘x’?
(1) 3 + 2 (2) 3 ± 2 (3) 3 − 2 (4) None of these
 0 2 –1
 
16. The matrix A =  –2 0 –4  is :
 1 4 0 
(1) singular (2) symmetric (3) skew-symmetric (4) zero
17. When a pistol fires four shots at the terrorist, the probabilities of the first, second, third and the last
shot hitting the terrorist are 0.7, 0.6, 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. What is the probability that at least
one of the four shots aimed at terrorist hits the terrorist? The probabilities of the shots hitting the
target are independent of each other.
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.712 (3) 0.964 (4) 0.35
18. Rita invests Rs.5000 for 3 years at 5% p.a. compound interest yearly. Income tax equal to 20% on
the interest earned is deducted at the end of each year. Find the amount received by Rita at the end
of the third year.
(1) Rs.5624.32 (2) Rs.2500 (3) Rs.7624.34 (4) Rs.6699.3

Test Prep
Directions for questions 19 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Given below are the runs scored by eleven cricket players named P1, P2, P3, P4, ... P11 in their respective
careers which lasted for 7 years.
8000
7215
7000
6000 5350
5000
3880
4000 3315
3000 2600 2400
2110
1840 1900
2000 1440
1070
1000
0
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 P6 P7 P8 P9 P10 P11
19. How many more runs scored by the player P3 would have made the ratio of the runs scored by the
players P3 and P7 as 6:5?
(1) 4024 (2) 1862 (3) 2478 (4) 3308
20. What is the approximate percentage contribution of the runs scored by P3 and P7 together in the
total runs scored by all the given players during their 7 year career?
(1) 43% (2) 38% (3) 35% (4) 40%
21. How many of the given players had a contribution of less than 10% in the total runs scored by all
these given players in their 7 year career?
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 5
22. Approximately by what percentage is the runs scored by the player P5 greater than that scored by
the player P2 in their 7 year career?
(1) 25% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 35%
23. If θ lies between 0° and 90°, then what can be the value of θ such that it satisfies
tan θ + cot θ = 4.
(1) 30° (2) 75° (3) 60° (4) Both (1) and (3)

Test Prep
24. KLMS offers its share at a premium of Rs 20, whereas its par value is Rs 80. Gautam invested
Rs.40,000 in this stock. After an year, KLMS declared a dividend of 10%. What rate of return did
Gautam receive on his investment? [Assume that rate of return is based on the dividend only.]
(1) 6% (2) 7.5% (3) 8% (4) 10%
25. Rohan, Mohan and Sohan when working alone can complete a work in 8 days, 12 days and 16 days
respectively. All of three worked together for 3 days. Sohan left after 3 days and the remaining work
was to be completed together by Rohan and Mohan. If a further of ‘t’ days is the time taken by them
to complete the work, then
1 3 3 7
(1) t = 1 (2) 1 < t < (3) <t< (4) None of these
2 2 2 4
26. Let the cost of production ‘c’ of ‘d’ bottles of a soft drink be:
2000 + 7d when 0 ≤ d ≤ 300

c=
1000 + 9d when 300 ≤ d ≤ 1000
(1) c is uniformly discontinuous.

(2) c is continuous at d = 300.
(3) c is discontinuous at d = 300.
(4) c is uniformly continuous.
27. If the logarithm of a number is – 6.326, then what are its characteristic and mantissa?
(1) Characteristic = – 7, Mantissa = 0.674
28. The expression 34 + 2 5 can be re-written as

1 568 224 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
34 − 2 5 17 − 5 17 − 5 17 − 5
29. If x, y and z are in G.P, then which of the following statements is/are true?
I. log x, log y and log z are in A.P.
II. log x, log y and log z are in H.P.
III. log x, log y and log z are in G.P.
(1) Only I (2) Both II & III (3) Only III (4) None of these

Test Prep
2
 1 1
How many real values of ‘x’ satisfy the equation  x +  + x + 2 = 16.
2
30.
 x  x
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) More than 2
31. The angle of elevation of the top of a wall 30 m high, from two different points on the level ground are
45° and 60°. What is the distance between the two points if the two points are on the either side of
the wall?
(1) 30 m (2) 51.96 m (3) 47.32 m (4) 81.96 m
32. What is the length of the tangent drawn from the point (– 1, 2) to the circle having equation
2x2 + 2y2 + 8x – 4y – 10 = 0?
(1) 10 units (2) 2 10 units (3) 2 5 units (4) No such tangent exists
33. Which of the following is the equation of a tangent to the parabola y2 – 4y – 8x + 20 = 0.

(1) x = 1 (2) x + 2 = 0 (3) x + 1 = 0 (4) x = 2
2x 2 − 11x + 15
34. lim is equal to
x →3 x−3
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 3 (4) Infinity
e2x − sin x
35. lim is equal to
x →0 2x
1 1 1 1
(1) – (2) (3) – (4)
2 2 4 4
36. The surface area (S) of a spherical balloon is a function of its radius ‘r’. If S = 2000 + 0.125r3, then
the ratio of change in the surface area (S) to the change in the radius (r) of the spherical balloon is
given by
(1) r2 (2) 0.375r2 (3) 0.03125r4 (4) 0.5r4
37. If the heights of two cylinders are in the ratio 3 : 7 and if their diameters are in the ratio 7 : 6, then
what would be the ratio of their volumes?
(1) 7 : 12 (2) 5 : 14 (3) 3 : 7 (4) None of these

Test Prep
The following chart represents the average salary drawn by a person per day India and US during the years
1999 to 2008 in US dollars. The line graph represents the average salary drawn by a person per day in US
and the histogram represents the same for India.
12 11 350
320
10 270 260 300
9
220 8 250 250
8
180 190 180
180 6 6 200
6
150
100 3.5
4 3 3
100
2 2
2 50
0 0
1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
38. What was the average annual percentage growth rate in the average salary drawn by a person per
day in India during the years 2003 to 2006?
(1) 12% (2) 65.33% (3) 55.55% (4) None of these
39. What was the percentage decline in the average salary drawn by a person per day in US during the
years 2005 to 2007?
(1) 10% (2) 15% (3) 20% (4) None of these
40. In which of the following pair of years, is the percentage change between the average salary drawn
by a person per day in US approximately equal to the percentage change in average salary drawn
by a person per day in India.
(1) 2001 and 2002 (2) 2003 and 2004 (3) 2006 and 2007 (4) None of these
41. What is the ratio of the average of the average salary drawn by a person per day in India to the
average of the average salary drawn by a person per day in US during 2002-2006?
(1) 3:112 (2) 5:224 (3) 7:224 (4) None of these
42. If B is 30 % of A, C is 20 % of B, D is 10 % of (C + A) and E is 5% of (B + C), then by what

percentage (C + D + E) is more/less than (B + C + D)?
(1) 32.33% (2) 0% (3) 78.12% (4) 60.5%

Test Prep
43. A, B and C each invested some amount each into a partnership based business and earned a profit
in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 respectively at the end of 1st year. The next year A withdrew his amount after
6 months while C doubled his amount invested. If B receives Rs. 2,000 as the annual profit at the
end of 2nd year, then find the difference between the annual profits earned by A and C at the end of
2nd year.
(1) Rs. 1,000 (2) Rs. 3,000 (3) Rs. 5,500 (4) Rs. 7,500
44. A class of 15 students went to a charity show. After the show they all decided to give some money
to the organizing trust. The standard deviation and the sum of squares of the amount found in their
pockets were Rs. 15 and Rs. 22500, respectively. If the total amount given by the students is equal
to the total amount found in their pockets and if the amount supposed to be given by each student
is the same, then what is the amount that each of the students would have to give?
(1) Rs. 35.707 (2) Rs. 25.505 (3) Rs. 70.707 (4) Rs. 50.404
45. Eight letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H need to be arranged in a row. In how many ways can this be
done, if B is always to the left of D and if G is always to the left of C?
8! (2 × 8!)
(1) 4 × 4! + 2 × 6! (2) (3) (4) 4 × 4!
4 4!
46. On day 1, a car goes from A to B covering a distance of 200 km such that half of the time its speed
was 40 km/hr and for the other half it was 60 km/hr. On day 2, the car again goes from A to B but was
stopped for 20 minutes between A and B. If the time taken to reach B from A on day 2 was the same
as that on day 1, then find the uniform speed at which the car must have been driven on day 2?
(1) 54.54 km/hr (2) 50.00 km/hr (3) 53.33 km/hr (4) 58.82 km/hr
47. A stone was dropped from the roof of a building having a height of 100 metres. What is the distance
covered by the stone in the final second before it reached the ground?
(Take acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 33.2 m (2) 39.8 m (3) 23.2 m (4) Data insufficient
48. Three distinct natural numbers a, b, c are in G.P. such that each of them is a perfect square.
If 3 < a < 10, then find the minimum possible value of the weighted harmonic mean of a and c using
weightage of a and c to be in the ratio 2:1.
64 81
(1) 1 (2) (3) 6 (4)
11 16
49. Box A contains 12 balls out of which 5 are red and rest are white. A man randomly picks a ball out
of it and puts it in Box B which already has 4 similar balls (2 red and 2 white). In addition to this, if
the ball picked was red, then he would add 2 white balls to the Box B and if the ball picked was
white, then he would add 3 red balls to the second Box B. Now, if he draws a ball from the
Box B, then what is the probability of this ball being red? (All balls are of same shape and size.)
(1) 0.418 (2) 0.582 (3) 0.543 (4) 0.667
Test Prep
Section II : Reasoning
There are eight persons, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W in a group. Q is the sister of W and W is the
father of T. S is the only son of W and V. R is mother in law of V. P is the father of only one son, who is the
brother in law of W. Q is unmarried.
50. How many female members are there in the group?

(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) Cannot be determined.
51. S is the nephew of which of the following persons?

(1) P (2) Q (3) U (4) Both (2) and (3)
52. Who is the father of V?

(1) P (2) S (3) W (4) Cannot be determined
A and B start moving in opposite directions from a common point P with A moving towards east. A walks for
2 kms, turns left, walks for 3 kms and finally turns right and walks 2 kms to reach a point Q. B walks for
4 kms, turns right, walks for 2 kms and finally turns left and walks 3 kms to reach point R.
53. What is the direct distance between the points Q and P?

(1) 5 kms (2) 3 kms (3) 4 kms (4) 6 kms
54. What is the direct distance between the points Q and R?

(1) 10 kms (2) 122 kms (3) 2 32 kms (4) 11 kms
The apex court on February 14 wrote to the ministry for ‘‘placement of five more type-VIII
bungalows, preferably in areas such as Akbar Road, Krishna Menon Marg, Tughlaq Road and Motilal
Nehru Marg, at the disposal of the Supreme Court judges pool’’ as the strength of judges
had been increased from 25 to 30.
The ministry wrote back recently. ‘‘In view of non-availability of any vacant accommodation in the above
said areas, it has not been found possible to place any such category house at the Supreme Court judges
pool immediately. However, efforts are being made to locate suitable accommodation on priority,’’ it said.
55. The exchange of letter between the two parties may be perceived as
(1) a polite exchange without any rancour
(2) an exchange that may blow out of proportion
(3) an exchange with seeds of discontent
(4) an exchange with the potential of turning into a dispute

Test Prep
56. The issue that may lead to a dispute between the apex court and the ministry is
(1) the location of bungalows in preferred areas and allotment of the same in other areas.
(2) the non availability of accommodation for judges
(3) requirement of accommodation for judges in particular areas and ministry’s inability to provide it
(4) the red tapism pertaining to allotment of bungalows
57. Complete the sequence of the numbers below 0, 6, 24, 60, ___.
(1) 120 (2) 125 (3) 60 (4) None of these
A computer program converts a two-digit number into another number in five steps. The following example
illustrates the operation on four two-digit numbers:
Input 11 23 32 28
Step 1 02 05 05 10
Step 2 15 48 57 128
Step 3 26 71 89 156
Step 4 07 07 16 11
Step 5 09 12 21 21
58. If the output in Step 1 of a given input is 03, then which of the following could be the possible input?
(1) 21 (2) 16 (3) 19 (4) None of these
59. If the input is 15, then what would be the output in Step 5?
(1) 25 (2) 17 (3) 27 (4) 29
60. Which of the following could be a possible input, if the output in Step 5 is 9?
(1) 10 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) None of these
Six scientists, each of a different origin viz. Indian, French, English, Danish, German and Italian were
having dinner. These six persons were seated on table with three persons on the either side. The Italian and
the French scientist were not seated on the same side of the table. The French scientist was seated
directly opposite to the English scientist but none of them occupied the middle seats. The German scientist
was seated to the left of the Indian scientist. The Danish and the English scientist were seated next to
each other.
61. Which scientist was seated directly opposite to the Indian scientist?
(1) Italian (2) English (3) Danish (4) Cannot be determined.
62. If the Indian scientist was seated at the middle, then who was seated directly opposite to the Italian
scientist?
(1) German (2) French (3) Indian (4) Cannot be determined

Test Prep
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Read the paragraphs given below and answer the following questions.
63. Aristotle argued that anger has a place in the good life. He asked how a soldier could face the
charge of the enemy unless he had anger in his blood. Anger is driven by pain, he said. And when
that pain stems from the consciousness of being wronged, it can be the midwife of virtue. Clearly
anger can boil over; the angry individual risks losing control. But that does not deny the value of
anger.
Which one of these can be inferred from the given paragraph?
(1) An angry young man risks losing everything whereas an older man does not have much at
stake, so he can bear the repercussions of his own anger.
(2) Pain drives anger that is bottled up inside a person and this anger leads to losing control over
one’s mind and actions.
(3) One needs to direct one’s anger in the appropriate direction only then one can truly comprehend
the value of anger.
(4) The true representation of a good life is where the individual is free from pain and anger.
64. Most of us don’t need to be taped to find which ice cream freezer we are circling. To identify
self-defeating actions think of a goal that you are having trouble in reaching. Then keep a note of the
behaviors that have to do with that goal. If you can’t stick to a budget, jot down every time you walk
past a store just to see what is on sale, then ask why you are making those detours. If you find that
you are unthinkingly tripping yourself up – whether by eating an ice-cream or making an impulse
buy – you maybe using these actions to find comfort. Once you are what you are really after, you
will be less likely to get in the way of your goals – psychologist Faith Bethelard.
Which of the following must have prompted Mr. Bethelard to suggest this course of action?
(1) On seeing a woman on diet who was circling an ice cream refrigerator.
(2) On observing that many people aren’t aware of how they sabotage their own goals.
(3) On observing the number of people who jump into a store and impulsively buy at a sale.
(4) On observing that people don’t realize or don’t know what their goals are.
65. Researchers have found that some of the children of light-drinking mothers appeared to be doing
better than the babies of those women who abstained from drinking during pregnancy. Boys born to
mothers who drank lightly were 40% less likely to have conduct problems and 30% less likely to be
hyperactive, even when the differences between social and economic circumstances were taken
into account. They also scored more highly in vocabulary tests and were better able to identify
shapes, colours, letters and numbers. The research has the authority of a large study - it involved
12,495 children.
Which of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubts on the validity of the findings of the
research?
(1) There is a possibility that children’s better performance may be linked to their family backgrounds
that have not been taken into account by the researchers.
(2) Girls born to lightly drinking women are 30% less likely to have emotional or peer problems.
(3) Health specialists and doctors are, however, hesitant to advise women to consume alcohol in
minute quantities.
(4) The study has been able to throw light on the fact that light drinking mothers tend to be more
relaxed which contributes to better behavior and cognitive response in their children.

Test Prep
66. Adult female rats that have never before encountered rat pups will start to show maternal behaviors
after being confined with a pup for about seven days. This period can be considerably shortened by
disabling the female’s sense of smell or by removing the scent-producing glands of the pup.
Which of the following theories best explains the contrast described above?
(1) The sense of smell in adult female rats is more acute than that of rat pups.
(2) Female rats that have given birth are more affected by olfactory signals than are female rats that
have never given birth.
(3) A female rat that has given birth shows maternal behavior towards rat pups that she did not bear
more quickly than does a female rat that has never given birth.
(4) The development of a female rat’s maternal interest in a rat pup that she did not bear is inhibited
by the odor of the pup.
Everyday Nick, Drake, Bob and Dylan go to a park for morning walk. They all walk only along the circular
track in the park. One day each of the four persons reach the park at the same time and immediately start
walking from the same point ‘P’ on the track. Dylan, Drake and Nick walk in the clockwise direction while
Bob walks in the anti-clockwise direction. Drake who is oldest among the four is also the slowest among
all the four persons. He could walk only one round taking the same time as others to complete their
morning walk at the point ‘P’ again. The length of the circular track is 600 m. While walking Nick overtook
Drake thrice, Bob and Dylan crossed Drake two times. Overtaking/crossing does not include the final
meeting.
67. What is the total distance covered by Dylan during his walk?
(1) 1200 m (2) 1800 m (3) 2400 m (4) 3000 m
68. What is the ratio of total distance covered by Bob and Dylan?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3: 2
69. How many times did Bob and Nick cross each other?
(1) 5 times (2) 7 times (3) 6 times (4) 3 times
70. In a particular code, the digits from 0 to 9 are each represented by a different letter of the alphabet,
the letter always representing the same digit. In case the following sum holds true when the letters
are expressed in digits, then which of the following cannot be correct?
I D H C
+ D C H
A E F E
(1) C + H must be greater than 9.

(2) I must be smaller than A.
(3) D must be greater than 4.
(4) E must be greater than F.

Test Prep
Directions for questions 71 to 73: Read the paragraphs given below and answer the following questions.
71. Bad reputation of most firms is caused due to lack of good quality products and complete disregard
for its existing customers. If companies wish to address the issue then they need to act quickly and
upgrade their products and customer service divisions. Therefore, it is essential for companies to
gain favour from existing customers in order to increase their overall customer base and consequently
make profits.
Which of the following statements considerably strengthens the above argument?

(1) Once a company’s goodwill is destroyed, it is impossible to gain any respect from the customers.
(2) It is advisable to study consumer behaviour and preferences prior to making alterations in the
products and services.
(3) It is easier to gain customers’ confidence when the company shows improvements and
rectifications in its products and services.
(4) Only upgrading product’s quality is enough to maintain the lost goodwill of the company.
72. An inaccurate and false reporting of scientific research results and discoveries can hamper the
society. Misreporting of science questions the credibility of the scientific, as well as, the media
community. Also, misinterpretations can lead to panic among people. There can also be a negative
impact on the researchers who may prefer to get back to the research rather than clarifying the
issue. Therefore, it is essential to control the media in order to maintain its credibility in the
public’s view.
Which of the following accurately projects the opinion of the author?

(1) Media should be completely banned from news reporting as they fail to report accurately on any
important issue
(2) Public should not try to understand the implications of scientific discoveries that are beyond its
understanding
(3) Reporting of scientific research should be done solely by the scientists as it bridges the gap
between the scientific community and the public
(4) Confusion and misinterpretation of scientific research can be minimized through accurate reporting.
73. A shopkeeper manufactures 2 types of articles using items of type A and B, each of these items
consisting of several units. Each unit of the ‘Article 1’ requires 2 A and 3 B items. Each unit of the
‘Article 2’ requires 3A and 1B items.
The shopkeeper has 9 A and 13 B items with him. An increment of 1 unit in ‘Article 1’ leads to a profit
of Rs. 5 while an increment of 1 unit in ‘Article 2’ leads to a profit of Rs. 7.
Which of the following options would result in maximum profit for him?
(1) Increase the number of ‘Article 1’ units by 4.
(2) Increase the number of ‘Article 2’ units by 3.
(3) Increase the number of ‘Article 1’ units by 1 and increase the number of ‘Article 2’ units by 2.
(4) None of these

Test Prep
Water extracted from sources like river, lake, canal etc. is purified for domestic supply at water treatment
plants. From treatment plants it is pumped to various destinations through pipelines. There are pumping
stations, at intermediate towns to maintain recommended pressure in the pipelines. The pumping stations
do not extract or process any domestic water. They pump out exactly the quantity they receive from
treatment plants or other pumping stations. The following figure depicts a network of pipelines. The circles
denote the location of treatment plants, pumping stations or towns with big domestic water demand. One
location can be only one of these three. The numbers on the arrows are the capacities
(in appropriate units) of the pipeline that carry water in the direction of the arrow. Currently the demand
supply situation is such that the capacity utilization of the pipelines is very close to 100%.
H
3
1
B 2
6 8
8 E
A 5
2
4
2 1 D G
8
C 7
3
4
F
74. What is the maximum quantity of domestic water G can receive ?

(1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17
75. For which two towns it can be safely concluded that they have pumping stations ?
(1) B and D (2) F and D (3) E and H (4) None of these
76. What is the maximum quantity of domestic water that can be transported from A to G ?
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 17 (4) 16
Five different watchmen were assigned duties on five different days of the week starting from Monday and
ending on Friday. On each of the days from Monday to Friday of any week, only one watchman was
assigned a duty. Parthav was not assigned a duty on Friday. Satendra was assigned a duty on Wednesday.
One who is the eldest among all the five watchmen was assigned a duty on Friday. Golu, who is not the
youngest was assigned a duty on Monday. Bhola, who is the second youngest among all the five watchmen
was assigned a duty just before the watchman who is the third youngest among all. Raju, who is the eldest
of all the five watchmen was assigned a duty on Friday.
77. Who is the youngest of all the five watchmen?

(1) Satendra (2) Golu (3) Parthav (4) Cannot be determined

Test Prep
78. Who was assigned a duty on Tuesday?
(1) Bhola (2) Satendra (3) Parthav (4) Cannot be determined
79. How many out of the given watchmen are elder than Bhola but younger than Satendra?
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) Cannot be determined.
There were five events scheduled in a cultural programme. The duration of each event was 30 minutes and
no two events took place simultaneously. The first event started at 10 pm and the last event ended at 12:30
am. Every event was either song based or instrumental based. The element present in each event was
either spiritual or comedy.
Further, it is known that:
1. All the events that are song based are scheduled one after another.
2. The event named "Bhulbhulaiya" was instrumental based and had a spiritual element. The event
named "Dharohar" was neither song based nor had a spiritual element.
3. The only two events that were instrumental based were scheduled one after another. The event
named "Gyandhara" was song based and had a spiritual element.
4. Exactly two of the song based events had spiritual element in them. There were exactly two events
that had a comedy element and they were scheduled to start at 11 pm and 12 am.
5. There was a event named "Spot the Pot" that was scheduled as the third event in the cultural
programme. The event named "Kanthkathor" was song based had a spiritual element and was
scheduled to start at 10:30 pm.
80. The event named "Dharohar" was scheduled to start at

(1) 11 pm (2) 11 : 30 pm (3) 12 am (4) Cannot be determined
81. Which of the following was the correct order of the sequence in which the events were scheduled?
(1) Gyandhara, Kanthkathor, Spot the Pot, Dharohar and Bhulbhulaiya.
(2) Kanthkathor, Gyandhara, Spot the Pot, Bhulbhulaiya and Dharohar.
(3) Gyandhara, Kanthkathor, Spot the Pot, Bhulbhulaiya and Dharohar.
(4) None of these.
82. Which of the following event was scheduled to end at 12 am?

(1) Dharohar (2) Bhulbhulaiya (3) Kanthkathor (4) None of these.

Test Prep
Directions for questions 83 and 84: Read the paragraphs given below and answer the following ques-
tions.
83. Indiscipline in the classroom is a consequence of lack of control on the part of a teacher and
insufficient knowledge of the subject. If indiscipline has to removed then this is possible only with
the presence of a strict teacher who is an expert in the subject matter. Therefore, schools should
appoint only those teachers who are experienced professionals and can redefine classroom
management.
The alternatives suggested (not necessarily all), if true, considerably weaken the argument. However,
one of them is most forceful. Identify the same.
(1) It is not redefining classroom management that is required, rather effectively implementing existing
principles of classroom management.
(2) A teacher who takes a class without any imposition of control manages best.
(3) It is possible to lessened indiscipline by providing value education lessons to students.
(4) Only debating freely in a classroom can remove indiscipline.
84. The existence of mandatory requirements for teaching such as a B.Ed degree is not responsible for
the acute shortage of teachers in schools. A major factor responsible for this is that the pay scale of
teachers are very low and this acts as a deterrent for those considering the teaching profession as
a career. Other options prove to be much more lucrative.
Which of the following, if true, strengthens the argument in the passage?

(1) Many teachers, already employed, would not have been employed by schools if the current
legal requirements were considered.
(2) Most of those entering the teaching profession are highly educated in comparison to standards
in the past.
(3) A recent survey has concluded that many teachers are leaving the profession because of the low
pay scales.
(4) Some teachers feel that compulsory qualifications like the B.Ed are responsible for shortage of
teaching staff.
There were four businessmen Anil, Aman, Anirudh and Arun. Out of these four businessmen, there is only
one who owned the same car in the year 2009 as he had owned in the year 2008. All the remaining three
businessmen owned different cars in the years 2008 and 2009. Anil used to own a "Maruti" in 2008. The
businessmen who owned a "Esteem" in 2009 used to own a "Honda" in 2008 but the one who used to own
a "Esteem" in 2008 did not own a "Honda" in 2009. Anirudh either owned a "Maruti" in 2008 or owned a
"Maruti" in 2009. Aman neither owned a "Honda" in 2008 nor did he own a "Honda" in 2009. Each
businessman owned exactly one car in each of the two years 2008 and 2009 and the cars were: "Maruti",
"Honda", "Esteem" and "Ford". In the year 2008, the cars owned by each businessman were different and
this holds true for the year 2009 as well.
85. Which out of the four businessmen owned the same car in the year 2008 as well as in the year 2009
and which car did he own in the year 2008?
(1) Aman - Esteem (2) Arun - Ford (3) Aman - Ford (4) Arun - Esteem

Test Prep
86. Which of the following is a list of businessmen who owned a "Honda" in the years 2008 and 2009 not
necessarily in that order?
(1) Anirudh and Arun (2) Anil and Anirudh (3) Arun and Aman (4) Arun and Anil.
A milkman delivers milk to five different houses H1, H2, H3, H4 and H5. The following table provides
information about the distances (in km) between these five houses. Every day in the morning, the milkman
starts from his home and returns home only after he has delivered milk to each house. Assume that the
milkman does not go out of his house for the remaining part of the day.
H1 H2 H3 H4 H5
H1 0 6 3 3 1
H2 0 2 7 8
H3 0 5 4
H4 0 3
H5 0
The distance between the house of the milkman and the houses H1, H2, H3, H4 and H5 are 4, 7, 5, 6 and
3 kms respectively.
87. What is the minimum possible distance that the milkman would have to cover on any particular
day?
(1) 23 kms (2) 22 kms (3) 21 kms (4) 20 kms
88. If the milkman delivers milk to the house H1 first and does not deliver milk to house H5 last, then the
minimum possible distance he would have to cover on any particular day is
(1) 23 kms (2) 22 kms (3) 21 kms (4) 20 kms
The management team of a company XYZ Ltd has a special budget of Rs. 75 lakhs that it wants to
distribute among its department for innovative projects. 14 proposals namely P1 through P14 have been
received by the management team, out of which some would be selected based on the funding requested
and money available from the budget. The management team has evaluated all the proposals and have
given them scores on a scale of 1 to 5 (higher score implies better). A proposal can either be selected for
full funding or dropped. The fund requests and expert committee scores for the 14 proposals are as follows:
Proposals Fund Requested Score Proposals Fund Requested Score

P1 10 lakhs 2 P8 5 lakhs 5
89. A maximum of how many proposals could be funded by the management team of XYZ Ltd.?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11

Test Prep
90. If the management team funds the proposals in order of their scores such that the proposals with
higher score are being funded first, then what amount (in Rs. lakhs) out of the special budget will be
left unutilised?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) More than 3
91. A minimum of how many proposals could be funded by the management team of XYZ Ltd.?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 5
92. In question 91, what is the total sum of the scores obtained by all the proposals?
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17
Directions for question 93: Read the paragraph given below and answer the following question.
93. The proposal to hire 10 new police officers in Gurgaon is quite foolish. It is sufficient to pay the
salaries of the new officers, but not the salaries of the additional staff required to process the
increased caseload of arrests and convictions that new officers usually generate.
Which of the following, if true, will most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn above?
(1) Gurgaon’s increased ratio of police officers to citizens will have a drastic effect on reducing the
crime in this area.
(2) Studies have shown that an increase in a city’s police force does not necessarily reduce crime.
(3) In most cities, not all arrests result in convictions, and not all convictions result in prison terms,
(4) If funding for the new police officers’ salaries is approved, support for other city services will have
to be reduced during the next economic year.
There are three different types of printers P, Q and R in a company. Each printer must be switched off for a
period of 5 minutes after it has printed 100 pages. The time taken by each printer to print 100 pages is 10
minutes. The following table provides the cost incurred when these three printers are used. There is no
other additional cost involved.
P Q R
Cost of printing each page, if the number of Rs. 1.4 Rs. 1.55 Rs. 1.5
pages printed is up to 100.
Additional cost of printing each page after Rs. 0.45 Rs. 0.5 Rs. 0.55
100 pages and up to 250 pages
Additional cost of printing each page after Rs. 0.4 Rs. 0.4 Rs. 0.3
250 pages
94. If each of these printers are used for exactly one hour, then which printer would incur the lowest cost
for the company?
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) Cannot be determined

Test Prep
95. If the company wants to use any one of these three printers for printing 1250 pages, then which
printer should they use to minimize the cost?
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) Cannot be determined
Pankaj would do six tasks named U, V, W, X, Y and Z starting at 8 am in the morning. U is the first task and
takes two hours. V can be done after U is complete and requires two hours as well. Work on W which
would take 1 hour can start only after U and V are complete. Pankaj can do task X along with V or W, and
would take 4 hours for that. Task Y can be done along with U or X, and would take 2 hours. Activity Z with
duration of 1 hour can start on completion of all the five tasks U, V, W, X and Y.
96. What is the earliest time when Pankaj would complete X ?

(1) 9 pm (2) 2 pm (3) 11 pm (4) 1 pm
97. If Pankaj takes 2 hours for completing W and if he completes other proceeding tasks without delay,
then when can Z start?
(1) 1 pm (2) 2 pm (3) 3 pm (4) 4 pm
98. What is the earliest time when Pankaj can complete all the tasks?
(1) 1 pm (2) 2 pm (3) 3 pm (4) 4 pm

Test Prep
Section III : Reading Comprehension
Directions for questions 99 to 133: Read the five passages that follow and answer the questions given at
the end of each passage.
Passage – 1
“In a study conducted by us, looking at the profile of 100 squint patients seeking treatment at Christian
Medical College and Hospital (CMC&H) over a two-year period, we found that more than 80 percent patients
were older than five years of age. About 41 percent patients came to the hospital more than five years after
noticing squint. One fifth of the patients had amblyopia,” says Dr Satish Thomas, associate professor, at
the CMC&H, adding, “This suggests awareness about squint and its complications, especially the need for
early intervention, is quite poor among the general public of Ludhiana and its neighbouring districts.”
“It is bothering to see that in this scientific age, “squint or ‘crooked eyes’ is considered by many superstitious
communities to be a sign of good luck.” says Dr Satish Thomas, who is a pediatric ophthalmologist. In
case of squint, one eye looks straight ahead while the other is deviated. Majority of the cases are determined
genetically even if all of them are not present at birth and even if no one in the family has an obvious squint.
One very common type of inward deviation develops because of not wearing spectacles when it is needed.
Some deviations occur because the vision in one eye is very poor.
“The most obvious problem due to squint is the cosmetic aspect. Apart from looking bad on a person’s
face, it can severely affect the patient psychologically. If it happens in case of a child, this can have far-
reaching consequences in the child’s whole outlook to self, society and life in general,” he said. While the
cosmetic aspect is the most troubling to the patient, it is the probably the least important one from the
ophthalmologist’s viewpoint. For, there are even more important considerations. One, the child with squint
can have loss of vision in one eye due to ‘lazy eye’. Secondly, any person with squint loses the ability to
appreciate objects in three dimensions. This ability to appreciate depth is because both eyes function
together. It is important that squint be treated as early as possible (ideally before two years of age); the
longer the delay, the worse will be the chances of vision, especially the ability to appreciate depth.
Amblyopia, commonly known as lazy eye, is the eye condition which may be caused by constant strabismus
(constant turn of one eye), anisometropia (different vision/prescriptions in each eye), and/or blockage of an
eye due to cataract, trauma, lid droop, etc. It is noted by reduced vision not correctable by glasses or
contact lenses and is not due to any eye disease. The brain, for some reason, does not fully acknowledge
the images seen by the amblyopic eye. This almost always affects only one eye but may manifest with
reduction of vision in both eyes. Amblyopia is a neurologically active process. In other words, the loss of
vision takes place in the brain. If one eye sees clearly and the other sees a blur, the brain can inhibit (block,
ignore, suppress) the eye with the blur. The brain can also suppress one eye to avoid double vision. The
inhibition process (suppression) can result in a permanent decrease in the vision in the blurry eye that can
not be corrected with glasses, lenses, or lasik surgery. It is estimated that three percent of children under
six have some form of amblyopia. Generally speaking, the younger the age at which amblyopia is treated;
the better is the chance of recovery of vision.
Page 20 MBA FMS - FLT 1

Test Prep
Many people make the mistake of saying that a person who has a crossed or turned eye has a “lazy eye,”
but amblyopia and strabismus are not the same condition. Some of the confusion may be due to the fact
that an eye turn can cause lazy eye. In other words, amblyopia can result from a constant unilateral
strabismus (i.e., an eye that turns or deviates all of the time). Alternating or intermittent strabismus (an eye
turn which occurs only some of the time) rarely causes amblyopia. While a deviating eye (strabismus) can
be easily spotted by the layman, amblyopia without strabismus or associated with a small deviation
usually can be not noticed by either you or your pediatrician. Only an eye doctor comfortable in examining
young children and infants can detect this type of amblyopia. This is why early infant and pre-school eye
examinations are so necessary. Remember that the child would never grow out of squint or amblyopia.
99. Which of the following can be inferred from the information given in above passage?
(1) Approximately 6% of children who are older than five years of age, have strabismus.
(2) General public of Ludhiana assumes that a baby born with a squint would have to undergo
several potentially dangerous operations from a young age.
(3) General public of Ludhiana assumes that even after an eye surgery, any person with squint will
have only marginal improvement and the person remains cosmetically imperfect.
(4) It is a mistake to wait till the child grows older for surgery, because by then child’s vision
might be lost, except a chance for cosmesis (the restoration, or bestowing of bodily beauty).
100. What can be inferred about considering ‘squint’ as a sign of good luck?
(1) It is an old heave-ho and has no basis.
(2) It is to believe in an old wives’ tale.
(3) It is to accept the complexity of the disease in a wise way.
(4) It is to snub the complexity of the disease in a foolish way.
101. Which of the following provides the best definition for Amblyopia ?
(1) Amblyopia is poor vision caused by abnormal growth of visual areas of the brain in response to
abnormal visual stimulation during early development.
(2) Amblyopia is dimness of sight only in one eye without apparent change in the eye structures —
also called lazy eye and is caused due to any eye disease.
(3) Amblyopia is opaqueness of sight in both eyes without apparent change in the eye structures
and three percent of children under six have some form of it.
(4) None of the above.
102. Which of the following can be safely concluded about ‘Strabismus’?

(1) Pseudo strabismus is associated with certain children who may appear to have strabismus
when, in fact, they do not.
(2) Strabismus can outgrow the rest of the face.
(3) Strabismus can improve by itself.
(4) Strabismus can be an isolated problem or it can be associated with certain other medical
and genetic problems.
FMS - FLT 1 MBA Page 21

Test Prep
103. As per passage, which of the following can be said true about Strabismus and Amblyopia ?
(1) Due to misunderstanding or misuse of the terms for different visual conditions (i.e., deviating
eyes vs. lazy eye), many eye patients might be inaccurately labelled as having a “deviating
eye.”
(2) Due to misunderstanding or misuse of the terms for different visual conditions (i.e., deviating
eyes vs. lazy eye), many eye patients might be inaccurately labelled as having a “lazy eye.”
(3) A lazy eye restores vision as the child grows, however, a deviating eyes does not restore t h e
same, so it has to be corrected with glasses, lenses, or lasik surgery.
(4) Strabismus should disappear as the child’s face grows; however in amblyopia there are n o
chances of recovery of vision.
104. The tone of the passage is:

(1) Informative.
(2) Inquisitive.
(3) Disappointed.
(4) Portending.
105. The above passage seems to be taken from:

(1) A Medical Journal of Epidemiology.
(2) A Medical Journal of Embryology.
(3) Archives of Paediatric Ophthalmology.
(4) Archives of Adolescent Medicine.
Passage – 2
While most people agree that the Golden Age of comic books began with the introduction of Superman in
1938 in Action Comics #1, there is less agreement about when exactly the Golden Age ended. There is a
general consensus, however, about the factors that brought the Golden Age to a close: the rise of the horror
comic book in the late 1940s, and the resulting backlash against comic books in the early 1950s.
Superhero comic books reached their peak of popularity in the early 1940s because of all the GIs (military
troops during World War II) in Europe and Japan who eagerly read about Superman, Batman, and The
Spirit. When these soldiers came home, they still wanted to read comic books, but they sought out more
adult content. William Gaines of EC Comics was happy to meet the market demand with such grim and
gritty titles as Weird Fantasy and The Crypt of Terror. The creators of superhero comic books, not wanting
to be left behind, responded by matching their protagonists against darker criminals in more violent
encounters. These darker comic books aroused the anger of child psychologist Fredric Wertham, who
believed that comic books were leading the nation’s youth into crime, violence, and drug abuse. Wertham’s
book, The Seduction of the Innocent, was a national best-seller that helped bring about congressional
investigations into the corrupting influence of comic books. The Senate committee that reviewed Wertham’s
charges decided to create the Comics Code Authority, a regulatory body that prohibited comic books from
mentioning sexuality, alcohol, drugs, criminal behavior, or any themes related to the horror genre.

Test Prep
These regulations had a numbing effect on the industry. EC Comics was nearly driven out of the comics
business, and the other major players canceled many of their most prominent titles. The comics business
did not recover until the Marvel revolution of the early 1960s ushered in the Silver Age.
106. The passage is primarily aiming at:

(1) Criticizing adult readers of comic book for their corrupting influence on the nation’s youth.
(2) Comparing and contrasting Golden Age of comic books with Silver Age of comic books.
(3) Criticizing comic books for their corrupting influence on the nation’s youth as well as adults.
(4) Discussing how the end of the Golden Age of comic books was brought in.
107. According to the passage, which of the following is true?

(1) The creators of superhero comic books in the postwar years responded to the competitive
pressure from horror comic books by increasing the amount of violence in their stories.
(2) The creators of superhero comic books in the postwar years voluntarily prohibited stories dealing
with sexuality, drugs, or criminal behavior.
(3) The creators of superhero comic books in the postwar years unintentionally laid the groundwork
for the transition from the Golden Age of comic books to the Silver Age.
(4) The creators of superhero comic books in the postwar years focused increasingly on well-
developed stories with flashy artwork.
108. The central message of Fredric Wertham’s The Seduction of the Innocent is:
(1) Comic books corrupted American youth as they lacked serious literary merit.
(2) Crime, violence, and drug abuse in the nation were introduced to nation’s youth by comic
books.
(3) The comic book industry must be censured to drive the worst offenders out of the business.
(4) Comic books were leading the nation’s youth into crime, violence, and drug abuse.
109. Which of the following is true about Silver Age?

(1) The comics business recovered due to the Marvel revolution of the early 1960s that ushered in
the Silver Age.
(2) They were no different from comic books of the Golden Age.
(3) Comics Code Authority regulations could not affect the comic books of Silver Age.
(4) Marvel Comics was the only major comic book company not to be affected by Comics Code
Authority regulations during Silver Age.
110. In what light does the passage depict the efforts by Fredric Wertham to bring about regulation of the
comic book industry?
(1) As a fanatical crusade brought about by Wertham’s inner demons.
(2) As a reasonable response to an industry that had gone too far.
(3) As an angry response to a trend in the subject matter of the comic book industry.
(4) As an inappropriate response to a phenomenon that was not actually hurting anyone.

Test Prep
Test Prep
How easy it is to say, “It’s your fault. You made me do it. It’s because of you that things are so bad between
us. You’re the reason I feel so miserable.” It’s so hard to look at ourselves and ask, “What’s my part in
creating the difficulties between us?” The problem with blaming is that it never solves anything and it nearly
always triggers a negative reaction.
When each of us blames, we deny our partner the opportunity to think seriously about our words and to
respond in a thoughtful manner. In addition, anyone who feels blamed usually responds in kind. The result
is either a skirmish or all out war. Your partner is now your enemy who you must disarm or even destroy at
all costs. All is fair in love and war— and marriage is both.
So what’s the antidote to blaming? The answer is simple: Take responsibility for yourself. Putting it into
practice is a challenge. It’s hard to give up that feeling of being right. It’s so difficult to let go of that need to
force a confession out of our partners. I’ll let you in on a marital truth: Being “right” in a relationship is the
booby prize. You win; the relationship loses. Don’t you want the relationship to win? You’ll win, too. Try
looking hard at your part what is creating the conflict. Ask yourself, “What am I doing to create distance
and hurt?” If you’re not sure, let me help you out. Most likely you are blaming.
One of you has to be honest about the marriage. In other words, be straight with yourself about what’s
missing. Write down what you would like to change in your relationship. Be honest with one another about
your preferences, likes, and dislikes, this includes the sexual part of your relationship. Do not take it
personally if your spouse does not like something; be open to feedback and try something different.
113. Why does author feel, being right by only one partner is harmful to a relation?
(1) One of the partners may not be honest about the marriage.
(2) Being right by one partner will lead to win of one but loss to the relationship.
(3) It comes out from the need to force a confession out of our partner.
(4) Both (2) & (3).
114. Which of the following underlines the main purpose of the passage?
(1) to show how the blame game renders a marital discord which develops into a danger for a
marital relationship and to suggest possible ways to overcome such danger.
(2) to show how one partner goes on to enforce his or her views on other.
(3) to discuss the possible downsides of the love marriage.
(4) to show that blame game is the main reason for breaking marriage.
115. According to the author, for sure, winning in a strained marital relation should not matter because
most of the married couples:
(1) always want to get even with our partner.
(2) feel that all is fair in love and war and marriage is no exception.
(3) are really not competing for anything in any kind of destructive battle.
(4) actually want to hurt each other.

Test Prep
116. Which of the following, according to author, may be the reason(s) for aggravating the marital discord?
(1) The blame game between the couple nearly always triggers a negative reaction.
(2) Frustration leads the partner to a point where one intentionally hurts the other and, this finally
results into violence.
(3) An aggrieved partner usually responds in kind and relationship can degenerate into a vicious
struggle between bitter enemies.
(4) All of the above.
117. Which of the steps taken by a feuding partner may, according to author, mitigate the marital discord?
(1) The husband forces the wife to agree to his point of view and he himself agrees to get even with
his wife.
(2) The husband and wife keep a respectable distance with each other till the discord automatically
wanes.
(3) They avoid all kind of violence, physical or verbal threats and amicably put forward each other’s
point of view.
(4) Both Husband and wife, take a hard look at the possible role each one of them is playing in
creating conflict between them and find what is missing in the relationship.
118. As per passage, the tone of the author is:

(1) Sympathetic and Wistful
(2) Flippant and Humorous
(3) Concerned and Conversational
(4) Nostalgic and Pensive
119. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken author’s answer to what’s the antidote to blaming?
(1) Blaming is a way of making other partner understand what mistake she or he has really done.
(2) It is often not possible to understand why one partner creates distance by blaming other partner.
(3) Many a time some charges like promiscuity or caviling are not just blames but true complaints.
(4) Blaming actually help to prove one right and win in a marital discord.
Passage – 4
The boom years of the early 21st century were good for many people, but perhaps no one enjoyed them
more than Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid al Maktoum, the ruler of Dubai. Stripped to its essentials, Dubai
is a sweltering strip of sand blessed with a natural harbour known as the creek, which has been an entry
point for merchants and smugglers for centuries. Building on his father’s vision, Sheikh Mohammed turned
Dubai into a 21st Century boomtown, luring western financiers and tourists with gleaming steel and glass
towers, vast beaches, and green golf resorts.
Now Sheikh Mohammed is calling for a standstill on debt repayments at one of his most important companies,
Dubai World, at least temporarily rocking world markets and raising huge questions about the future of

Test Prep
Dubai. The Standard & Poor’s 500 index of 500 stocks fell 1.7% in abbreviated trading Friday, to 1,091.49,
and the MSCI Emerging Markets Index had slipped 1.8% as of 2:12 p.m.
Dubai was always a momentum play. Unlike Saudi Arabia or Abu Dhabi, the hugely wealthy emirate to the
West, Sheikh Mohammed had scant oil production to fuel his grandiose ideas. Instead he sold the world
on his vision of Dubai as a hub for the Middle East, western Asia, and Africa, attracting investment from his
wealthier neighbors—both Arabs and Iranians—and increasingly, from the West and Russia.
For a while, it worked. Western bankers fell over each other to book space in his Dubai International
Financial Center, a handsome if somewhat over-the-top real estate project aimed at being the Wall Street
of the Gulf. The cream of technology companies and media companies, from Cisco Systems to Microsoft,
set up shop in Dubai’s Internet City. CEOs and politicians came to Dubai to pay court to the ruler, whom
they treated like a sage.
Sheikh Mohammed patronized a corps of young technocrats, who worshiped “The Boss” and raced to
enact his visions. He told them there was nothing they couldn’t do if they put enough imagination and
energy into it. When Mohammed Alabbar, the chairman of developer Emaar Properties, came to the
Sheikh with a plan to build a skyscraper in what was becoming the new downtown of Dubai, the ruler urged
him to build the tallest building in the world. That’s exactly what Alabbar did; today the Bourj Dubai is
nearly completed, soaring above an artificial lake that boasts an elaborate set of fountains that cost $250
million. For a relatively small place, Dubai has acquired an extraordinary collection of futuristic towers—
some of them unfinished or empty. The cityscape looks like something out of Buck Rogers.
A man in a hurry, Sheikh Mohammed created rival building arms and investment managers and spurred
them to compete with each other for land and capital. At one point he had at least three private-equity
operations going at once under his aegis. These units invested heavily outside of Dubai at the top of the
market, using borrowed money. Banks, too, bought into the Sheikh’s vision, or at least wanted to be
included in the charmed circle.
When the credit crunch came, Dubai was badly exposed to known debt of $80 billion to $90 billion, and
possibly even more. The Sheikh and his lieutenants, who had seemed masters at selling Dubai to the
world, suddenly seemed inept. That Dubai has a serious problem has been well known for more than a
year. Little progress has been made to resolve it.
It almost seems as if the ruler and those around him are in denial, not wanting to acknowledge the extent
of their troubles—even to themselves. Earlier this year the ruler appointed a frank-speaking young finance
minister, Nasser al Shaikh, who tried to force some of Dubai’s big companies to sort out their problems. He
was promptly fired.

Test Prep
120. Which of the following highlights the primary purpose of the passage ?
(1) To criticize western investors for failure of Dubai World.
(2) To expose Sheikh’s men and their ineptitude.
(3) To show that the ruler and those around him are in denial to acknowledge the extent of their
troubles.
(4) To discuss how Sheikh Mohammed’s grand plan to convert Dubai as a hub for the Middle East,
western Asia, and Africa has failed.
121. According to author, Dubai as a hub for the Middle East, western Asia, and Africa
(1) made Western and Russian customers swoon over each other.
(2) attracted whose who of technology companies and media companies.
(3) was made also by contribution of sage like CEOs and politicians.
(4) was a vision of Sheikh Mohammed and it was well accepted by western bankers.
122. As per passage, which of the following can be said true, about Dubai World ?
(1) It turned Dubai into a 21st century boomtown
(2) It lured western financiers and tourists with gleaming steel and glass towers, vast beaches, and
green golf resorts.
(3) It caused Western bankers fall over each other to book space in his Dubai International Financial
Center
(4) It is one of the most important companies of Sheikh Mohammed and the debt repayments at
Dubai World cast a shadow on the future of Dubai.
123. The dismissal of the finance minister, Nasser al Shaikh, depicts that:
(1) Confidence is a fragile commodity.
(2) Energy is a necessary commodity
(3) You cannot win by being candid, if the power game is being played.
(4) You cannot win by being evasive, if the dice of power is being played.
124. Which of the following author may agree to as one of the reasons for Dubai crisis?
(1) Young technocrats couldn’t put enough imagination and energy into it.
(2) For Dubai, a relatively small place, acquired an extraordinary collection of futuristic towers.
(3) Using borrowed money, Sheikh Mohammed’s men invested outside Dubai that made its debt
soar beyond control.
(4) Sheikh Mohammed’s finance minister could not deliver his master’s dream.
125. India may not be affected by Dubai crisis as

(1) Its banks and other financial institutes has not put in money over there
(2) Its CEOs did not treat Sheikh Mohammed like a sage
(3) India is not dependent on Dubai’s oil
(4) Cannot be determined

Test Prep
126. A suitable title to the passage could be:
(1) The Worried Backers of Dubai.
(2) Dubai’s Desert Dream Ends.
(3) What went wrong in Dubai.
(4) The Complex Web of Companies behind the Dubai Debt Crisis.
Passage – 5
MUMBAI: Very soon, the kirana shop and the PCO in your neighbourhood, your insurance agent, a retired
teacher and the nearby petrol pump, could provide you with a slew of banking services like deposits and
withdrawals, opening of accounts etc from their premises. On Monday, RBI permitted banks to appoint
these entities to act as their agents and carry out several of the bank’s operations. All these though, will
come for a fee, pre-decided by your bank.
RBI has allowed entities like individual kirana/medical/fair price shop owners, PCO operators, agents of
government-sponsored small savings schemes, insurance agents, petrol pumps owners and retired teachers
to act as ‘business correspondents’ (BCs) of banks. A notification by the RBI said that allowing banks to
appoint BCs (agents in common parlance) was part of its financial inclusion initiative.
In August, an RBI working group was of the view that since the traditional ‘brick and mortar’ banking model
had limitations penetrating remote areas of India, the BC model could give banks a workable solution to
provide banking services in inaccessible areas in a cost-effective manner. ‘‘Banks need to accept the BC
model as extremely vital for achieving the goals of financial inclusion,’’ the working group had recommended.
While appointing BCs, the RBI has looked at two aspects. One, BCs should have experience in handling
cash inflow and outflow as part of their normal activities, so that the issues relating to cash handling are
addressed. ‘‘For streamlining cash management, banks may consider adopting ‘cash routes’ linking various
BCs which are in close proximity to each other to a base branch, wherever warranted with suitable cash
transit insurance,’’ it said.
Secondly, to give the BC model a local touch, it said ‘‘banks may ensure that while appointing the above
entities as BCs, the principle that the individuals are residents of the area in which they propose to operate
as BCs, stands fulfilled.’’
On issues of charges, RBI said it is the bank which will charge the customer in a transparent manner. BCs
will not be allowed to charge customers directly. Recipients of BC services are mostly illiterate and unfamiliar
with technology rendering them susceptible to misguidance by the BCs.
Since the BCs’ staff operate individually without any line supervision, the risk of fraud and misappropriation
is higher. There have been instances noted of miscommunication by BCs. Failure to account for cash and
falsification of records have been noticed and dealt with by banks.

Test Prep
127. Why does accepting the BC model seem vital to the RBI working group?
(1) It is the only group strategy through which such financial inclusion of poorer people could be
achieved.
(2) It is the only group strategy through which charging the customer in a transparent manner could
be possible.
(3) It is the strategy through which making banking solutions available at the doorstep could be
possible.
(4) It is the strategy through which achieving the goals of financial inclusion could be possible.
128. Which of the following can be inferred as true, on basis of the information given in the passage?
(1) The banks do not trust BCs as they will not allow the BCs to charge customers directly.
(2) Empowering women by bring financial services to their door step would enable them to play
their role in the progress of the country.
(3) RBI permitted that BCs may be used not only for opening and servicing no-frills accounts but
also for the full range of banking services.
(4) The traditional ‘brick and mortar’ banking model had limitations penetrating transparency of the
bank’s operations.
129. Which of the following is the way in which the BC model could benefit the banks?
(1) The BC model could provide banking services to the unbanked.
(2) Without indulging in heavy infrastructure and overhead costs, the BC model could help banks
offer banking and financial services to the masses.
(3) In a cost-effective manner, the BC model could help banks offer banking and financial services
to the masses in inaccessible areas.
(4) The biggest beneficiaries of this move would be the poor who don’t have easy access to finances
and credit.
130. Which of the following can be accepted to be true, about the traditional banking model and the BC
banking model?
(1) The scale of outreach expected is far from what has been achieved through the traditional
banking model. However, the BC model is lucrative for both RBI and the banks.
(2) The scale of outreach needed and expected is far from what has been achieved through the
traditional banking model. However, the BC model seems more promising.
(3) The traditional banking model must outreach the BC model to win working-class population.
(4) Instead of bringing the common man to the door step of the bank, the bank is coming to his door
step. Hence the BC model must replace the traditional banking model.

Test Prep
131. As per passage, which of the following, is a drawback / difficulty with the BC banking model?
(1) Appointing various entities like individual kirana/medical/fair price shop owners, PCO operators,
etc to act as ‘business correspondents’ of banks, could be a difficulty as these people are not
acquainted with banking terms.
(2) The biggest drawback with the BC model is that there is no security in Kirana stores, Fair price
shops, PCOs etc.
(3) The possibility of fraud and misappropriation while dealing with ( the gullible profile) clients who
can be easily deceived, could hinder smooth execution of the model.
(4) We cannot determine how much beneficial the BC model could be, as it cannot be compared
with the traditional banking model.
132. An apt title for the passage could be:

(1) The Role Of Self Help In Promoting Financial Inclusion.
(2) Now, Open a Bank Account In a Grocery Shop.
(3) RBI and the Conflicting Banking Models.
(4) RBI- Battling the Corruption and Incompetence.
133. What in your opinion is the tone and style of writing of the author in the passage?
(1) Critical and Rambling
(2) Skeptical and Candid
(3) Narrative and Admonitory
(4) Descriptive and Factual

Test Prep
Section IV : English Usage
134. _________________ is a word which connotes material wealth seen as having a debasing influence.
(1) Numen (2) Omen (3) Mammon (4) Doyen
135. ________________ is a musical composition using repeated themes in increasingly complex

patterns.
(1) Dirge (2) Allegro (3) Libretto (4) Fugue
136. ___________ is a deep covered dish from which soup is served.

(1) Colander (2) Tureen (3) Cauldron (4) Scoop
137. Alcohol is to a Teetotaller as Truculence is to a/an

(1) Soldier (2) Pacifist (3) Politician (4) Ascetic
138. Slander is to Libel as Influence is to

(1) Irony (2) Death (3) Prestige (4) Sleep
139. Which word best refers to balk or defeat in an endeavour?

(1) Exasperate (2) Confront (3) Hamper (4) Frustrate
140. Which word refers to being natural and crude?

(1) Artless (2) Arty (3) Asinine (4) Gullible
141. Identify the odd pair from the options.

(1) Ribs: Chest (2) Femur: Thigh (3) Patella : Ankle (4) Lumbar: Back
142. Identify the odd pair from the options.

(1) Swarm: Insects (2) Pride: Lions (3) Pack: Wolves (4) Zeal: Pups
143. Identify the odd pair from the options:

(1) Church: Spire (2) Farce: Satire (3) Eye: Albumen (4) Funeral: Inter
144. Which option gives the correct meaning of the proverb “ A rising tide lifts all boats”.
(1) Work hard when the going is good.
(2) Seize the opportunity when it knocks.
(3) Describing the idea that when an economy is performing well, all people will benefit from it.
145. Which option gives the correct meaning of the proverb “ Fools rush in where angels fear to tread”.
(1) When you leave the good, then bad comes to you.
(2) When you lose faith, you become a fool.
(3) Inexperienced step into situations which the experienced avoid.
(4) Even God cannot make foolish people understand their folly.

Test Prep
146. In which cluster all the words are philosophies?
(1) Marxism, Euphemism, Paleontology
(2) Buddhism, Morphology, Hedonism
(3) Monotheism, Agnosticism, Fatalism
(4) Atheism, Modernism, Geology
147. Which set of words are only nouns:

(1) locus, practice , logical
(2) angry, didactic, thought
(3) hole, whole , hunger
(4) boisterous, criminal, deceive
148. Which set of words are only adjectives:

(1) laconic , grief, sultry
(2) mercurial, choleric, good
(3) cogitate, privacy, discordant
(4) lovable, sarcastic, rubble
149. What does the idiom "no love lost" expresses?

(1) Feeling of amicability.
(2) Feeling of animosity.
(3) Feeling of bemusement.
(4) Feeling of deceitfulness.
150. Choose the idiom from the options, which means: “to be engaged to too many enterprises at the
same time”.
(1) have too many irons in the fire
(2) strike too many irons in the fire
(3) heat irons in the sun
(4) melt iron in the sun
151. What is ’to make a clean breast of something’ ? Choose the option that is closest in the meaning to
the idiom ?
(1) To confess without reserve
(2) To do a task skillfully
(3) To understand something fully.
(4) To commit a crime without leaving a trace.
152. Words or phrases that signal the writer’s intention and make connections between ideas clear to
the reader are called ‘discourse markers’. Identify the cluster in which all the words/phrases convey
‘a conclusion or summary to a passage’.
(1) accordingly, in the same way, lastly
(2) accordingly, as a result, consequently
(3) therefore, finally, lastly
(4) for example, as a rule, accordingly.

Test Prep
153. In which cluster all the ‘discourse markers’ convey ‘support to a main idea’.
(1) for instance, on the other hand, in the same way
(2) for example, whereas, as a rule
(3) for instance, such that, moreover
(4) conversely, on the other hand, moreover
154. ‘Anti’ means ‘against’ or ‘opposite’. Identify the pair in which both the words mean ‘against’ or
‘opposite’.
(1) Anti-social, Antique
(2) Antique, Antics
(3) Antithesis, Anti-Social
(4) Antithesis, Antique
155. ‘Mal’ means evil . Identify the pair in which both the words mean evil.
(1) malevolent, malign
(2) malign, malapropism
(3) malapropism, malevolent
(4) maladroit, malevolent
156. In which cluster the words are in the order of the “blanks” as they appear in the sentence:
It was indeed a ______________ occasion marked by the ________ minister Lord Louis displaying
his loyalty towards the king through a _________ and other participants engaging in a ________
discussion.
(1) peripatetic, panegyric, polemic, plenary

(2) polemic, peripatetic, panegyric, plenary
(3) plenary, peripatetic, panegyric, polemic
(4) panegyric, peripatetic, polemic, plenary
157. Select the option which has the prepositions in order as they appear in the sentence.
Absorption __ Catholicism’s philosophy, then, is not only a problem ___ critics; it is also a problem
____ progress. This is the kind ____ dialogue _____our own time that Larcet sees as central to
understanding the ideological context and reception of past and present philosophy.
(1) in, for, for, of, in
(2) of, of, for, of, for
(3) in, for, in, of, in
158. In which cluster the words are in the order of the “blanks” as they appear in the sentence. Inspite of
your_____________ mannerisms, we cannot ______________ your wish to _________ our office
premises as the rules of the management are ___________.
(1) Sanctify, Sanguine, Sacrosanct, Sanction
(2) Sanction, Sanctify, Sanguine, Sacrosanct
(3) Sacrosanct, Sanction, Sanctify, Sanguine
(4) Sanguine, Sanction, Sanctify, Sacrosanct

Test Prep
159. He handed over the ________ to the teamleader of the marketing department as he could _________
the performance of each member with ___________.
(1) Certify, Certificate, Certify
(2) Certificate , Certitude, Certify
(3) Certitude, Certify, Certificate
(4) None of the above
160. In which cluster all the words belong to the headword: “blue”.
(1) colour, sky, temper, environment
(2) sky, temper, environment
(3) colour, environment, temper.
(4) None are correct.
161. In which cluster all the words belong to the headword “time”.
(1) Rhythm, Space, Clock
(2) Rhythm, Clock, Antiquity
(3) Chronological, Space, Antiquity
(4) None are correct.
162. The quote “The first man gets the oyster , the second man gets the shell”- (Andrew Carnegie) is
highlighting the importance of
(1) Destiny (2) Failure
(3) Immediate Action (4) Disparity
163. The quote “ You are leaping over the hedge before you come to the stile”(Cervantes) is talking about
(1) Humanity (2) Values
(3) Anticipation (4) Good Company
From the options in Qs. 164-167, select the word which is opposite in meaning to the word in capitals:
164. RECTITUDE
(1) Immoral (2) Moral (3) Gullible (4) Humility
165. PRODIGAL
(1) Genius (2) Innovative (3) Restrained (4) Immoderate.
166. HAPLESS
(1) Useful (2) Intelligent (3) Lucky (4) Rich
167. ALACRITY
(1) Laziness (2) Keen (3) Aggressive (4) Submissive

Test Prep
Q. 168-175 :
Read the statements and then answer the questions, by selecting the best option which follows each
question:
(a) Altabar seemed to have done exactly the right thing by suggesting that the company should cut
cost.
(b) Though Kanakavallabhamalini was an ugly woman she attracted relatives as she could entertain
her guests sumptuously.
(c) Manish claimed to have come into contact with a variety of people during his corporate assignment.
(d) Arvind has again done some surprising thing to the exasperation of his friends.
(e) Ritu seemed likely to take up law as a profession.
(f) Chander squandered whatever he had inherited from his parents.
(g) The minister’s speech on trade unions caused no interest and produced no effect on listeners.
168. Who could ‘keep a good table’?

(1) Altabar (2) Arvind (3) Manish (4) None of the above.
169. Who ‘hit the nail on the wall’ ?

(1) Altabar (2) Kanakavallabhamalini
(3) Manish (4) Arvind
170. Who ‘rubbed shoulders’?

(1) Altabar (2) Manish (3) Avind (4) Chander
171. Who made ‘ducks and drakes’?

(1) Minister (2) Ritu (3) Avind (4) Chander
172. Whose actions ‘fell flat’?

(1) Minister (2) Ritu (3) Avind (4) Chander
173. Who ‘bid fair’?

(1) Altabar (2) Ritu (3) Arvind (4) Chander
174. Who ‘created bad-blood’?

(1) Manish (2) Chander (3) Minister (4) None of the above.
175. Who ‘set the Thames on fire’ ?

(1) Ritu (2) Chander (3) Minister (4) Arvind.

Test Prep

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FMS FLT – 1

Test Booklet No. 7 7 1 3 8 6

PLEASE DO NOT OPEN THE TEST BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.

PLEASE FILL IN THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION:

Enrollment ID: _________________________________

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 1

Page 2 MBA FMS – FLT 1

(1) 5 – 2.5 2 cm (2) 10 – 5 2 cm (3) 5 – 2 5 cm (4) None of these

(1) 3 + 2 (2) 3 ± 2 (3) 3 − 2 (4) None of these

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 3

Page 4 MBA FMS – FLT 1

2000 + 7d when 0 ≤ d ≤ 300

(1) c is uniformly discontinuous.

28. The expression 34 + 2 5 can be re-written as

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 5

33. Which of the following is the equation of a tangent to the parabola y2 – 4y – 8x + 20 = 0.

Page 6 MBA FMS – FLT 1

42. If B is 30 % of A, C is 20 % of B, D is 10 % of (C + A) and E is 5% of (B + C), then by what

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 7

50. How many female members are there in the group?

51. S is the nephew of which of the following persons?

52. Who is the father of V?

53. What is the direct distance between the points Q and P?

54. What is the direct distance between the points Q and R?

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 9

Page 10 MBA FMS – FLT 1

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 11

(1) C + H must be greater than 9.

Page 12 MBA FMS – FLT 1

Which of the following statements considerably strengthens the above argument?

Which of the following accurately projects the opinion of the author?

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 13

74. What is the maximum quantity of domestic water G can receive ?

77. Who is the youngest of all the five watchmen?

Page 14 MBA FMS – FLT 1

80. The event named "Dharohar" was scheduled to start at

82. Which of the following event was scheduled to end at 12 am?

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 15

Which of the following, if true, strengthens the argument in the passage?

Page 16 MBA FMS – FLT 1

Proposals Fund Requested Score Proposals Fund Requested Score

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 17

Page 18 MBA FMS – FLT 1

96. What is the earliest time when Pankaj would complete X ?

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 19

Page 20 MBA FMS - FLT 1

102. Which of the following can be safely concluded about ‘Strabismus’?

FMS - FLT 1 MBA Page 21

104. The tone of the passage is:

105. The above passage seems to be taken from:

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106. The passage is primarily aiming at:

107. According to the passage, which of the following is true?

109. Which of the following is true about Silver Age?

FMS - FLT 1 MBA Page 23

FMS - FLT 1 MBA Page 25

118. As per passage, the tone of the author is:

Page 26 MBA FMS - FLT 1

FMS - FLT 1 MBA Page 27

125. India may not be affected by Dubai crisis as

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FMS - FLT 1 MBA Page 29