January 2008

AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS TEST

DC-10

Air Conditioning / Pressurization

1. - How do you control the A/C pack 1 discharge temperature?

A) Aft cabin temperature controller.
B) Center cabin temperature controller.
C) Forward cabin temperature controller.
D) Flight deck temperature controller.

2. - What happens if the manual pressurization AUTO / MAN selector lever is positioned to MAN?
A) Pressurization is controlled automatically.
B) Pressurization is controlled manually.
C) Pressurization is controlled with the semi-automatic mode of the automatic controller.
D) Stand-By and Manual controller are operative.

3. - Where does the Trim Air System derive its air?

A) Pneumatic system 1 and 2.
B) Pneumatic system 2 and 3.
C) Pneumatic system 1 and 3.
D) Pneumatic system 1, 2 and 3.

4. - What can cause the Duct Avionics Comp Overheat light ON?
A) Overheat in the center accessory compartment.
B) A loss of airflow in the fly deck inlet duct.
C) Overheat in the flight deck and cabin inlet ducts.
D) A loss of airflow in the avionics compartment.

5. - Which of the following is TRUE concerning the A/C packs when ground air conditioning
units are used to cool the flight deck and cabin?
A) The A/C packs may be operated.
B) The A/C packs must be OFF.
C) The A/C packs may be operated but without the trim air.
D) Only the A/C pack 1 may be operated.

6. - Normally the flight deck instrument is cooling by:

A) An overboard venturi when cabin/ambient differential pressure is sufficient.
B) A fan during low altitude flight.
C) A fan air during all flight profiles.
D) Both A and B.

1
7. - What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?
A) 0 psi.
B) 0.5 psi.
C) 1.0 psi.
D) 1.5 psi.

8. - What is the purpose of the A/C pack thermal switches?

A) Control the temperature through the pack compressor.
B) Control the temperature through the pack turbine.
C) Pack overheat protection.
D) Pack discharge temperature control.

9. - What happens to the A/C discharge temperature when the Ram Air Inlet and exit doors
are moved to a more open position?
A) Increase due the less flow through the turbine.
B) Increase due to more flow through the turbine.
C) Decrease due to less flow through the turbine.
D) Decrease due to more flow through the turbine.

10. - With the Semi-Auto mode, what do you set in the controller prior to T/O?
A) Desired cruise altitude.
B) Nothing.
C) Departure field elevation.
D) Destination field elevation.

11. - What happens if an A/C pack fuses plug melts?

A) Pack operation continues at a reduced airflow.
B) The pack remains fully operational.
C) The pack shut down for the remainder of the flight.
D) The pack shut down but can be reset by the second officer.

12. - How are the flight deck and cabin zone temperature requirements adjusted?
A) Electrically heating the recycled cabin air.
B) Mixing hot trim air to the ram air manifold.
C) Mixing hot trim air to the conditioned air manifold.
D) Mixing cold trim air to the conditioned air manifold.

13. - How are controlled the A/C packs 2 and 3 temperature discharge?
A) Flight deck temperature controller.
B) Cabin controller demanding the coldest air.
C) Forward cabin temperature controller.
D) Aft cabin temperature controller.

14. - What is the maximum differential pressure at T/O?

A) 0 psi.
B) 0.5 psi.
C) 1.0 psi.
D) 1.5 psi.

2
Answers: Air Conditioning/ Pressurization

1 D 8 C
2 B 9 D
3 C 10 A
4 B 11 C
5 B 12 C
6 D 13 B
7 B 14 B

Electrical System

1. - Which of the following is TRUE concerning DC Bus 3, when the ADG is deployed and the ADG
switch in R EMER ELEC position?
A) It is powered by the ADG.
B) It is powered by TR3.
C) IT cannot power.
D) It can be powered by closing the appropriate DC Tie switch if power is available from TR1, TR2A
or TR2B.

2. -The Preferential Generator check is used to verify the operation of the...

A) Generators.
B) Master generator.
C) AC Tie Bus relays.
D) Auto paralleling circuitry.

3. - What does the RESET position of the generator switch?

A) Unlocks the Generator Relay (GR) and Bus Tie Relay (BTR).
B) Reset the Generator Relay (GR).
C) Reset the Bus Tie Relay (BTR).
D) Reset the Generator Control Relay (GCR).

4. - The AC Ground Service Bus is normally powered by?

A) AC Bus 1.
B) AC Bus 2.
C) AC Gen Bus 1.
D) AC Gen Bus 2.

5. - When the External Power switch is positioned to EXT PWR, where is the power is applied to?
A) Generators buses.
B) AC Tie Bus.
C) External Power Bus
D) AC Ground Service Bus.

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6. - The Preferential Generator Check procedure is used, if the generators will not:
A) Isolate.
B) Excite.
C) Parallel.
D) Unparalleled.

7. - What means a GENERATOR FAIL light ON?

A) An electrical generator failure.
B) A mechanical generator failure.
C) A mechanical CSD failure.
D) An electrical CSD failure.

8. - What is the AC TIE BUS priority power?

A) Engine generator, external power, APU generator.
B) External power, engine generator preferential generator.
C) Preferential generator, external power.
D) External generator, APU generator, engine power.

9. - What powers the LEAC bus in emergency?

A) Battery Bus.
B) Battery.
C) ADG.
D) All the above.

10. - What prevents the ADG power the DC3 Bus?

A) Left emergency power relay.
B) DC3 Tie Bus.
C) Right emergency isolation relay.
D) Right emergency transfer relay.

11. - Which bus is powered by the ADG?

A) LEAC Bus.
B) LEDC Bus.
C) REDC Bus.
D) REAC Bus.

12. - How is powered the Battery Bus during normal operation?

A) T/R1 through the DC 1 Tie Bus
B) T/R2A and T/R2B.
C) The Battery Direct Bus.
D) AC Ground Service Bus.

Answers: Electrical System

1 D 8 B
2 C 9 B
3 D 10 C
4 D 11 D
5 B 12 B
6 C
7 B

4
 Flight Controls

1. – At touchdown, when the ground spoilers will extend?

A) The reverses 1 and 3 are actuated at the same time.
B) The reverse 2 is actuated.
C) Main wheel spin up.
D) A and B are correct.

2. - When the SLAT LAND blue light comes ON?

A) The Slat handle and the Slats are in Landing range.
B) One slat is not in position for landing.
C) Two or more slats are not in position for landing.
D) All the above.

3. - What means the FLAP DISAGREE flag?

A) The flaps disagree with the slats by 5°.
B) The inboard flaps disagree with each other by 5°.
C) The outboard flaps disagree with the inboard flaps by 5°.
D) The outboard flaps disagree with each other by 5°.

4. - When the spoiler handle is ARMED...

A) A red placard labeled ARM in white letters can be seen on both sides of the spoiler handle.
B) A red light is ON in the pilot flight instrument panel and goes off after landing.
C) No lights are ON before T/O and landing.
D) A and C are correct

5. - How is the horizontal stabilizer trimmed with a complete electrical failure?

A) The longitudinal trim handles.
B) Captain and F/O trim switches.
C) Trim is inoperative.
D) Alternate trim switches.

6. - If normal hydraulic pressure to the stabilizer trim is lost, backup hydraulic pressure may be
available from...
A) Hydraulic systems 1 and 2.
B) Hydraulic systems 2 and 3.
C) Non-reversible motor pump 3-2.
D) Non-reversible motor pump 2-1

7. - Which is true concerning spoiler operations when the AUTO SPOILER DO NOT USE light is
illuminated?
A) Do not use spoilers.
B) Auto spoilers may be used for landing.
C) Auto spoilers may be used for take off.
D) Manually deploy the spoilers during an aborted T/O or for landing.

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8. - The blue SLAT TAKEOFF light indicates…
A) The Slats are not in correct position for T/O.
B) The Slat handle is not in correct position for T/O.
C) The Slat handle and Slats are in T/O range.
D) A and B are correct.

9. – The amber SLAT DISAGREE light indicates…

A) The Slats are in transit.
B) The Slat handle and the Slats position disagree.
C) The Slats have been extended automatically.
D) All above are correct.

Answers: Flight Controls

1 C
2 A
3 B
4 D
5 A
6 D
7 D
8 C
9 D

Fuel System

1. - Once the aircraft attitude is know, how do you determine which fuel measuring sticks will yield
the most accurate information?
A) Call maintenance.
B) Enters the volume of tabular data published by McDonnell Douglas.
C) By comparing it to the quantity indicated and using a Laplace transform to calculate the
variance.
D) A and B

2. - The normal sequence of transfer fuel used is...

A) Aux. tank to main tanks until Aux. tank is empty.
B) Tank 2 fuel transfer to 1 and 3 tanks, until all three main tanks are equal.
C) A then B.
D) B then A.

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3. - When the FUEL SCHED light illuminates and 15,000 lbs. of fuel are indicated in
tanks 1 or 3, the reason is...
A) Fuel transfer has occurred early.
B) Transfer fuel from outboard compartment associated tank to the inboard compartment.
C) Fuel transfer has not occurred.
D) A and B.

4. - During fuel dumping, if both the L and R FUEL DUMP VALVE OPEN light fail to come on, the
situation is...
A) The dump valve are closed.
B) The dump valves may be open.
C) The fuel dump auto shutoff may be inoperative.
D) B and C.

5. - The FUEL SCHED light for the aux. tanks can be inhibited when ballast fuel is carried in:
A) The aft aux. tank.
B) Main tank 2.
C) The upper aux. tank.
D) The lower aux. tank.

6. - What is the maximum lateral fuel unbalance?

A) 2,000 lbs.
B) 4,000 lbs.
C) 6,000 lbs.
D) 9,000 lbs.

7. - With a electrical power loss, engine 1 and 3 will gravity feed, the engine 2...
A) Engine 2 will suction feed.
B) Engine 2 may use the APU battery operated fuel pump.
C) Engine 2 will use the N°2 main tank left aft boost pump if the right emergency AC bus is powered by the
ADG.
D) Engine 2 will flame out and can not be restored until normal power is reestablish.

8. - Actuation of the FUEL DUMP valve switch will...

A) Close the main fill valve if open.
B) Arm the dump low-level shutoff.
C) Open the dump valves.
D) All the above.

9. - When operating with inoperative fuel quantity indicators, acceptable pitch and roll reading are
obtained by...
A) Looking at the ADI.
B) Observing the pitch and roll readings on the pitch and roll grid.
C) Reading the pitch and roll information on the INS.
D) Eye balling a plumb line.

10. - If a FUEL SCHED light illuminates for either tank 1 or 3 and the tank quantity is less than 11,000
lbs. The situation is...
A) Transfer of fuel to the main compartment is taking place late.
B) Fuel being used from tanks 1 or 3 on schedule.
C) 5,800 lbs. of fuel in the respective tank may be unusable.
D) Transfer of fuel to the main compartment is taking place early.

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Answers: Fuel System

1 B
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 D
9 B
10 C

Hydraulic System

1. - If a procedure calls for placing a RPM switch to ON, the RPM will operate...
A) If one engine driven pump fails.
B) Continuously, because the ON position is a positive controlling position.
C) If a difference in pressure of 150 psi exists between respective hydraulic systems.
D) When landing gear is down.

2. - The engine driven hydraulic pumps should provide enough pressure to operate an RPM to
provide another system with _______to_______ psi of pressure.
A) 2,000 to 2,200 psi.
B) 2,200 to 2,700 psi.
C) 2,300 to 2,500 psi.
D) 2,400 to 2,700 psi.

3. - The Hydraulic power system consist of three separate, parallel, continuously pressurized to...
A) 2,000 psi.
B) 2,400 psi.
C) 3,000 psi.
D) 3,500 psi.

4. - On those aircraft that incorporate AUTO positions for the right hydraulic pump the right pump will
operate...
A) If any N2 drops below 45%.
B) When hydraulic system pressure loss is sensed (approximately 2,400 psi).
C) If an auto slat extension signal is detected.
D) When the landing gear handle is placed down.

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5. - Each hydraulic system is powered by...
A) One engine driven pump
B) Two engine driven pumps.
C) One engine driven pump and one hydraulic driven pump.
D) Two engine driven pumps and one hydraulic driven pump.

6. - The RPM valves work...

A) In pairs
B) Individually for input and output.
C) All four at once.
D) In isolation.

7. - The auxiliary pumps in the Hydraulic System 3 provide ____% of the output of the engine driven
pumps.
A) 20%.
B) 40%.
C) 60%.
D) 80%.

8. - If both engine driven hydraulic pumps on engine 1 fail and all other system are working normally
the RMP 1-3 will pressurize system 1 from system 3 if...
A) The 1-3 RMP control switch is ON.
B) The 1-3 RMP control switch is in ARM.
C) The 1-3 RMP control switch is OFF.
D) The 1-3 RMP control switch is in ARM and N1 rpm drops less than 45%.

9. - The reversible motor pumps (RMP) transfer...

A) Fluid if fluid loss has occurred.
B) Pressure if fluid loss has occurred.
C) Pressure if fluid loss has not occurred.
D) Fluid and pressure.

10. - Which of the following procedures is/are recommended if one hydraulic pump TEMP HI light
illuminates prior to takeoff...
A) Turn off the affected pump and cycle the flight controls to cool the system.
B) Turn off the non-affected pump.
C) Turn off the affected pump.
D) Cycle the flight controls to cool the system.

11. - If electrical control power to any pump is interrupted the pump will...
A) Stop.
B) Continue to run but at lower pressure.
C) Continue to run or will start automatically if previously OFF.
D) Continue to run but will not start if previously OFF.

12. - The pump PRESS LO light illuminates if it’s respective pump pressure decrease to...
A) 1,800 psi.
B) 2,000 psi.
C) 2,400 psi.
D) 2,700 psi.

9
Answers: Hydraulic System

1 C
2 D
3 C
4 B
5 B
6 A
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 C
12 A

Ice and Rain Protection

1. - The window defog system provides...

A) Electrical heat to all flight deck windows.
B) Outer panel heat to the aft clearview sliding windows.
C) Inner panel heat to the clearview sliding and forward windows.
D) Air blowing across all flight deck windows.

2. - The PITOT HEAT INOP light will illuminate if there is a heating element failure in the...
A) TAT probe and static ports.
B) TAT probe and angle of attack vanes.
C) Pitot pressure probes.
D) Pitot pressure and TAT probes.

3. - If the ANT ANTI-ICE DISAGREE light is illuminated on the ground...

A) The upper VHF antenna anti-ice valve is closed.
B) The lower VHF antenna anti-ice valve is closed.
C) The upper VHF antenna anti-ice valve is open.
D) The lower VHF antenna anti-ice valve is open.

4. - When you test the wing anti-ice system, DO NOT hold the test switch in TEST position for more
than...
A) 5 seconds.
B) 10 seconds.
C) 15 seconds.
D) 20seconds.

5. - Turning the Pitot heat to any position except OFF...

A) Activates all the heaters on the ground except the TAT.
B) Activates only the heater in the position selected.
C) Activates maximum Pitot tube heating on the ground only.
D) Activates all the heaters in flight except static ports.

6. - APU screen anti-ice pneumatics is supplied from...

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A) Pneumatic system 1.
B) Pneumatic system 2.
C) Pneumatic system 3.
D) The APU.

7. - If the PITOT HEAT INOP light illuminates during flight...

A) The TAT probe has insufficient power.
B) Pitot heat power may restore by using the heater-selected switch on the F/E equipment panel.
C) All three Pitot tube heaters have failed.
D) TAT probe power may be restored from the TAT probe heater selected switch on the F/E equipment
panel.

8. - The engine anti-ice system consist of...

A) Stator anti-ice (9th stage bleed air) and cowl anti-ice (10th stage bleed air).
B) Stator anti-ice (9th stage bleed air) and cowl anti-ice (15th stage bleed air).
C) Stator anti-ice only.
D) Cowl anti-ice only.

9. - Rain repellent is applied....

A) To one windshield at a time.
B) Cielos del Peru doesn’t use it any more.
C) On the ground by maintenance prior to flight.
D) To wet windshield but without the use of the wipers.

Answers: Ice and Rain Protection

1 C
2 D
3 C
4 C
5 A
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 A

11
 Landing Gear and Brakes

1. - How are the brakes cooled after retraction?

A) With electric fans controlled by overheat sensors.
B) With air-conditioned from the packs.
C) With ram air.
D) They are not cooled; brake cooling is not necessary on the DC-10.

2. - Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear?

A) Hydraulic System 1.
B) Hydraulic System 2.
C) Hydraulic System 3.
D) Hydraulic System 1 is primary and Hydraulic System 3 is secondary.

3. - How is cooled down the brakes after aborted T/O?

A) Placing fans in front of the brake assemblies, this is a maintenance action.
B) Leave the parking brake set.
C) Delay the next T/O and check the appropriate chart in the manual.
D) Cooling is not required.

4. - How many brake applications will provide with fully charge brake accumulators?
A) Approximately 4.
B) Approximately 6.
C) Approximately 8.
D) Approximately 3.

5. - How is main landing gear can be checked down and locked?

A) With the orange alignment markers on the main landing gear door.
B) With the viewing window in the main cabin.
C) With the yellow button on top of each wing.
D) With a amber light in the cockpit with a legend DOWN.

6. - Which of the following is TRUE in the event of brake System 2 lost?

A) Full brake will exist on main gear brakes but the center gear brakes will be inoperative.
B) Less than full brake effectiveness exists.
C) Full brake effectiveness exists on all brakes.
D) Full braking exists only if failed system accumulators are fully charged.

7. - What read the brake pressure indicator?

A) Associated Hydraulic System pressure.
B) Trapped pressure in the associated accumulator.
C) Associated accumulator pre-charge pressure.
D) A and B.

8. - What is the purpose of the Center Gear isolation switch?

A) In the UP position will retract the center gear.
B) In the UP position will prevent the center gear to extend.
C) Is used to operate the center gear during normal operation.
D) Is used to extend the center gear in emergency.

Answers: Landing gear and Brakes

12
 1 C
2 C
3 C
4 B
5 C
6 C
7 D
8 B

Pneumatic System

1. - Which Pneumatic System is supply it by the APU pneumatic directly?

A) Pneumatic System 1.
B) Pneumatic System 2.
C) Pneumatic System 3.
D) All of the above.

2. - Which of the following is FALSE concerning the operation of the isolation valves 1-2
and 1-3?
A) Each valve operates independently if their control switch is moved to OPEN or CLOSE.
B) The isolation valves will operate together if their control switch is in NORM and the APU
ISOL is moved to OPEN.
C) The isolation valves will operate automatically if the APU is running and START A or START
B is selected on the engine ignition switch.
D) They are manually operated by maintenance.

3. - A failure of a pneumatic duct in the left forward tunnel will illuminate the…
A) N°1 MANFLD FAIL light.
B) N°2 TEMP HI light.
C) N° 1 and N°2 MANFLD FAIL light.
D) N°3 TEMP HIGH light.

4. - A failure of a pneumatic duct in the left wing will illuminate the…

A) N°1 and N°2 MANFLD FAIL light.
B) N°1 MANFLD FAIL light.
C) N°2 MANFLD FAIL light.
D) N°3 MANFLD FAIL light.

5. - The ISOL VALVE SELECT switch on the F/E panel, selects the…
A) Primary and secondary isolation valves power.
B) Primary and secondary isolation valves.
C) Primary and secondary drive motors.
D) All the above.

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6. - Only the Low Stage Pneumatic (8th stage) is supplied to the Pneumatic System if…?
A) LO is selected on the pneumatic supply selector.
B) Electrical power lost.
C) AUTO is selected on the pneumatic supply selector.
D) Wing anti-ice is turned ON.

7. - The PNEU ABNORMAL light will illuminate for abnormal temperature and/or pressure and…
A) Will always illuminate the TEMP HI light.
B) Will always display a high temperature on the temperature indicator.
C) Will always display a high pressure on the system pressure indicator.
D) At times the abnormal condition may not be detectable from any other lights or
temperature/pressure indicators.

8. - Which Pneumatic System do the ground pneumatics supply directly?

A) Pneumatic System 1 and 2.
B) Pneumatic System 1 and 3.
C) Pneumatic System 2 and 3.
D) All the above.

9. - Which Pneumatic System do the APU pneumatics supply directly?

A) Pneumatic System 1.
B) Pneumatic System 2.
C) Pneumatic System 3.
D) All the above.

10. - A failure of a pneumatic duct aft of the accessory compartment will illuminate the…
A) N°1 and 3 MANFLD FAIL light.
B) N°1 MANFLD FAIL light.
C) N°2 MANFLD FAIL light.
D) N°3 MANFLD FAIL light.

11. - If the N°1 MANFLD FAIL light illuminates…

A) System 2 is locked out.
B) System 3 is locked out.
C) System 2 and 3 are locked out.
D) N°3 MANFLD FAIL light could illuminate due to bleed over.

Answers: Pneumatic System

1 B 7 D
2 C 8 A
3 C 9 B
4 B 10 C
5 C 11 B
6 B

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 Auxiliar Power Unit (APU)

1. - The APU can be used…

A) On the ground for electrical power only.
B) For electrical and pneumatic power up to 25,000’.
C) In flight for electrical power up to 30,000’.
D) In flight for wing anti-ice.

2. - The APU normal control mode will vary the variable vanes to module the…
A) N2 RPM at various speeds depending on electrical demand.
B) N1 RPM at various speed depending on pneumatic system demand.
C) N2 RPM at various speed depending on either electrical or pneumatic system demand.
D) N1 RPM at various speeds depending on electrical demand.

3. - The APU exhaust door is…

A) Operated simultaneously from the inlet door from the door switch.
B) Operated independently from the inlet door by the door switch.
C) Operated independently from the inlet door by the APU master switch.
D) Operated simultaneously with the inlet door from the APU master switch.

4. - APU electrical system is rated at:

A) 50 Kva, 115/200 volt, 400 cycle, 3-phase system.
B) 50 Kva, 115/200 volt, 300 cycle, 3-phase system.
C) 90 Kva, 115/200 volt, 400 cycle, 3-phase system.
D) 90 Kva, 115/200 volt, 300 cycle, 3-phase system.

5. - Normal APU shutdown

A) Is accomplish by a false overheat sign.
B) Provides for automatic door closing sequence.
C) Provides for automatic door closing but is delayed for 90 seconds after the master switch is OFF.
D) Is accomplishing with or without normal electrical power even when the battery switch is OFF.

6. - What is the maximum in flight altitude at which you can start the APU?
A) 10,000’
B) 15,000’
C) 20,000’
D) 25,000’

7. - The APU oil system is…

A) A dependent, self-contained system, it requires 1 quart prior to starting.
B) An independent, self-contained system, it requires 1 quart prior to starting.
C) A dependent, self-contained system, it requires 4 quarts prior to starting.
D) An independent, self-contained system, it requires 4 quarts prior to starting.

15
Answers: APU
1 C
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 B
6 D
7 D

Fire Protection

1. - How is the APU fire bottle discharged from the flight deck or the APU ground control panel?
A) Selecting APU OFF AGENT ARM, then DISCHARGE on the fire agent switch.
B) Selecting DISCHARGE on the fire agent switch only.
C) Selecting the APU fire handle and pressing the agent discharge button.
D) Selecting APU OFF AGENT ARM.

2. - What happens if there is an engine fire and loop A fails with the loop in BOTH?
A) Loop A will illuminate without a fire bell.
B) Loop B will illuminate without a fire bell.
C) Loop A and B will illuminate with a fire bell.
D) Loop A and B will illuminate a fire bell.

3. - An APU fire will cause…

A) The Captain’s ENG FIRE light to illuminate.
B) The fire bell to sound.
C) The MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate.
D) The MASTER WARN lights to illuminate.

4. - What is the function of the HORN switch on the APU Ground Control Panel? It…
A) Silence the APU fire-warning horn on the flight deck
B) Silence the APU fire-warning bell on the flight deck during the fire detection test.
C) Silence the APU fire-warning horn during the fire detection test.
D) Silence the exterior APU fire warning horn.

5. - How can you confirm a bottle discharge after discharging a fire bottle for an APU fire? Bottle
discharge is confirmed by…
A) AGENT LOW light(s) ON for engine # 2
B) AGENT LOW light(s) ON for APU.
C) AGENT LOW light(s) ON for CARGO FIRE system.
D) There is no indication that the fire bottle has discharged.

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6. - What are the flight deck indications of an APU fire?
A) 2 loop lights; APU FIRE light; 3 master warning; APU FIRE summary light; fire bell.
B) 2 loop lights; APU FIRE light; 3 master warning; APU FIRE summary light.
C) 2 loop lights; APU FIRE light; 3 master caution lights.
D) 2 loop lights; APU FIRE light; 3 master caution lights; APU FIRE summary light.

7. - In the event of a false fire warning from one of the APU detector loops, the indication is…
A) 1 loop light, bell, master caution lights.
B) 1 loop light, master warning lights.
C) 1 loop light.
D) 1 loop light, bell, ENG FIRE master light.

Answers: Fire Protection

1 A
2 B
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 B
7 C

Oxygen System

1. - The NORMAL/EMERGENCY selector is positioned to EMERGENCY on a flight deck crew oxygen

regulator. Which of the following is TRUE?
A) Diluted oxygen will flow at all altitudes with positive pressure.
B) 100% oxygen will flow only at high altitudes with positive pressure.
C) 100% oxygen will flow, but only on demand.
D) 100% oxygen will flow at all altitudes with positive pressure.

2. - What should you do when smoke goggles are required?

A) Donned first; purge the goggles; then don the oxygen mask.
B) Purge the oxygen mask; don the goggles; then don the oxygen mask.
C) Don the oxygen mask; don the goggles; then purge the goggles.
D) Purge the goggles; don the oxygen mask; then don the goggles.

3. – The minimum PSI for the oxygen pressure crew system is…
A) 1,450 psi.
B) 1,600 psi.
C) 1,750 psi.
D) 1,300 psi.

Answers: Oxygen System

17
 1 D
2 C
3 A

Engines

1. - How is the ignition activated during a normal start?

A) Position the ignition switch to START A or START B.
B) Push the start switch in
C) Move the start lever out of the OFF position
D) All of the above.

2. - The ignition exciter power transfer switch for engine 1 is in the TRANSFER position,
What is the electrical power source for the “B” igniter?
A) Right Emergency AC bus.
B) Left Emergency AC bus.
C) Battery bus.
D) Battery Direct bus.

3. - Illumination of the engine start switch means that the…

A) Start valve is open.
B) Start valve is close.
C) Button is magnetically held in.
D) Ignition is being supplied to the igniters.

4. - During a normal start cycle, the start button is held in electrically. When does it pop out?
A) At 40% N1 RPM
B) At 45% N1 RPM
C) At 40% N2 RPM
D) At 45% N2 RPM

5. - Where you can find the ignition exciter power transfer switch?
A) Above the F/E’s main circuit breaker panel
B) On the F/E’s equipment panel.
C) On the F/E’s instrument panel.
D) On the Captain’s overhead control panel.

Answers: Engines

1 D
2 B
3 A
4 D
5 B

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 Communications

1. - The usable frequency range of the HF radio is….

A) 2 to 30 Mhz and requires approximately 10 seconds of warm up time.
B) 2 to 30 Mhz and requires approximately 2 minutes of warm up time.
C) 2.8 to 26.999 Mhz and requires approximately 12 minutes of warm up time.
D) 2.8 to 26.999 Mhz and requires approximately 15 seconds of warm up time.

2. - To erase the Voice Recorder, AC power available and…

A) The aircraft must be on the ground.
B) The parking brake must be set.
C) Push ERASE button and held for 7 seconds.
D) All above are correct.

Answers: Communications

1 D
2 D

Flight Instruments / Auto Flight

1. - The pitot/static system consist of…

A) 2 pitot / 2 static pressure sensing sources.
B) 2 pitot / 3 static pressure sensing sources.
C) 3 pitot / 3 static pressure sensing sources.
D) 3 pitot / 4static pressure sensing sources.

2. - The Flight Data Recorder records all of the following flight control surfaces positions,
except for the…
A) Flaps and slats.
B) Ailerons, Rudder and Elevators.
C) Spoilers.
D) Stabilizer.

3. - Which of the following is not a function of the FAST/SLOW indicator on the ADI?
A) The indicator references AutoThrottle speed readout on the Flight Guidance Panel.

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B) The indicator references Alpha Speed.
C) Full scale deflection is 15 knots.
D) The indicator is removed from view in the EPR (N1) or RETD modes.

4. - The Heading Control knob will provide heading select when…

A) Pulled out.
B) Pushed in to the first detent.
C) Pushed full in.
D) None of the above.

5. - Which of the following is TRUE concerning the DC-10 Autopilot / Flight Directors?
A) They can’t be operated together due the electrical interlocks.
B) They may be operated together.
C) They must be operated independently to prevent mode mismatches.
D) They must be operated together.

6. - Do not engage A/P to CMD and /or a F/D when the aircraft rate of climb/descend exceeds…
A) 4,000 feet per minute / 8,000 feet per minute.
B) 2,500 feet per minute / 4,000 feet per minute.
C) 3,000 feet per minute / 4,500 feet per minute.
D) 1,500 feet per minute / 2,500 feet per minute.

7. – Do not automatically capture G/S above ____ kts.

A) 230 kts.
B) 250 kts.
C) 220 kts.
D) None of the above.

Answers: Flight Instruments / Auto Flight

1 C
2 C
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 A
7 B

Navigation

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1. - The TCAS system incorporates
A) A single “Mode S” transponder.
B) A single “Mode C” transponder.
C) A dual transponder system, one mode C and one mode S.
D) Dual mode S transponder.

2. - The letters TAWS means…

A) Traffic Avoidance Warning System.
B) Terrain Awareness and Warning System.
C) Tactical Alert Watch System.
D) Track Aerial Warning by Satellite.

3. – Minimum required for Class II navigation is…

A) 2 operating GPS’s or 1 operating INS and 1 operating GPS.
B) 1 operating GPS or 1 operating 1 VOR and 1 ADF.
C) 2 operating INS and 2 operating VOR.
D) 1 operating INS and 1 operating Satellite telephone.

Answer: Navigation
1 D
2 B
3 A

Doors

1. - The doors are operated electrically when…

A) The slide arming lever is ARMED and the door emergency control handle is moved to the
EMERGENCY position.
B) The slide-arming lever is DISARMING and the slide-arming lever is moved to the EMERGENCY
position.
C) The slide-arming lever is armed and the door control switch is pressed.
D) The slide arming is DISARMED and the door control switch is pressed.

Answer: Doors
1 D

END

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