Part – I

Test of Reasoning Logical Deduction

Directions (Qs. 1-5) : In each of the following questions four pairs of words are given. There is
some common relationship between the two words in each of the three pairs but the
relationship is different in case of the two words in one pair. This pair which has a different
relationship is your answer. Mark it on the answer-sheet as instructed.

Q1.
(a) High-low (b) Black-white
(c) Good-bad (d) Valley-depth

Q2.
(a) Iron-hard (b) Wool-soft
(c) Marble-smooth (d) Jar-water

Q3.
(a) Car-petrol (b) Bicycle-wheel
(c) Book-page (d) Election-voter

Q4.
(a) Sky-cloud (b) Chair-stool
(c) Cupboard-almirah (d) River-pond

Q5.
(a) Hawk-pigeon (b) Cow-hen
(c) Lion-deer (d) Cat-mouse

Directions (Qs. 6-10) Read the following statements carefully and then answer the questions
given below it:
From a batch of six boys a, b, c, d, e and f and four girls p, q, r and s a team of six is to
be selected. Some of the criteria are
b and d have to be together
c cannot go with q.
f cannot go with a or d.
p and r have to be together.
p cannot go with s.
a and e have to the together.

Unless otherwise mentioned the above criteria are application to all the following
questions.

Q6. If four of the members including e having to be boys and one of the girls has to be r,
the team consists of
(a) a, b, d, e, r, s (b) a, b, d, e, q, r
(c) b, d, e, f, p, r (d) a, d, e, f, p, r

Q7. If the least three members have to be girls and c agrees to team with q and q refuses
to team with a, the team consists of
(a) b, c, d, p, q, r (b) a, c, e, p, r, s
(c) b, d, e, p, q, s (d) b, c, d, p, r, s

Q8. If not more than one member has to be a girl, the team consists of
(a) a, b, c, e, f, r (b) a, b, c, d, e, p
 (c) a, b, c, d, e, q (d) a, b, c, d, e, s

Q9. If three members including c have to be boys and s agrees to team with p, while e
refuses to do so, the other members of the team are
(a) b, d, q (b) e, f, s
(c) b, d, r (d) a, e, q

Q10. If the team is to consist of two girls and f agrees to team with d, which one of the
following teams is not possible?
(a) a, b, d, e, p, r (b) a, b, d, e, q, r
(c) b, c, d, f, p, r (d) b, c, d, f, q, s

Directions (Qs. 11) Find the missing term in each of the following number series :

Q11. 4, 2, 6, 6, 3, 9, 8, 4, 12, 10, 5, ?

(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 25

Q12. 3, 5, 4, 7, 9, 8, 15, 17, 16 ?, 33, 32

(a) 30 (b) 42
(c) 32 (d) 33

Q13. 3, 4, 12, 4, 5, 20, 5, 6, 30, 6, 7, ?

(a) 36 (b) 42
(c) 45 (d) 49

Q14. 5, 25, 61, 113, 181, ?

(a) 262 (b) 264
(c) 265 (d) 269

Q15. 10, 5, 46, 23, 114, 57, 246, 123, ?, 237

(a) 437 (b) 460
(c) 474 (d) 480

Q16. My house is to the south of the market and the post-office is to the east of my house
which is as far away from the market as from the post-office. I first go to the market
and then start walking to the post-office. Just when I am half-way through I meet a
friend and then we decide to walk back house. In which direction are we walking now?
(a) North-west (b) South-west
(c) North-east (d) South-east

Q17. I am facing south. Now I turn in an anti clockwise direction through an angle of 1350.
Then I take an about turn and turn through an angle of 450 to my right. Which direction
an I facing now?
(a) East (b) West
(c) North (d) South

Q18. a is taller then b and c is taller than d. If d is taller than b, who is the tallest?
(a) c (b) b
(c) c (d) Cannot be found out.

Q19. Robin is sitting to the left and Latif. Mohan is between Rakesh and Latif. If Govid is
also to the left of Latif, who is in the extreme right?
(a) Rakesh (b) Mohan
(c) Latif (d) Cannot be found out
Q20. In a bag there are five-rupee, one-rupee, eight-anna coins and four anna coins. The
value of one-rupee, eight-anna and four-anna coins is separately the same while the
total value of all the small coins is twice the number of five rupee coins. If the bag
contains change worth Rs. 105, what is the total number of four-anna coins?
(a) 30 (b) 40
(c) 50 (d) 60

Q21. I am four years older than my sister while my brother who is the youngest amongst us is
7 years younger than myself. My father is three times the age of my brother. My sister
is 18 years of age and my father is 3 years older than my mother. What is the age of my
mother?
(a) 39 years (b) 40 years
(c) 41 years (d) 42 years

Q22. In a queue I am the last person while my friend is seventh from the front. If the person
exactly between me and my friend is on the 23rd position from the front, what is my
position in the queue?
(a) 36 (b) 37
(c) 38 (d) 39

Directions : (Qs. 23-25) : Fifty books belonging to different subjects viz. History (8), Geography
(7), Literature (13), Psychology (8), Science (14) are placed on a shelf. They are arranged in an
alphabetical order subject to the condition that no two books of the same subject are placed
together so long as books of other subjects are available. Unless other-wise mentioned all
counting is done from the left.

Q23. Which subject the 40th book belong to?

(a) History (b) Literature
(c) Psychology (d) Science

Q24. What is the position of the last book in Psychology?

(a) 36th (b) 37th
th
(c) 38 (d) 39th

Q25. Counted from the right to which subject does the 39th book belong?
(a) Geography (b) History
(c) Psychology (d) Science

Directions : (Qs. 26-35) : In column I below are given some words and in Column II their
equivalents in a code language. Neither the codes nor the letters in Column II are given the
same order as the words and their spelling are given in Column I. Study the two columns
carefully and identify the code-equivalents of the letters in the words in column I. Then answer
the questions given under the columns.

Column I Column II
HEAD hlonqsx
ROUTINE dhpqrs
ENOUGH efnqr
GHOST ehnox
MASTER adeh
NOSE hnor

Q26. D
(a) a (b) d
 (c) f (d) None of these

Q27. E
(a) d (b) f
(c) h (d) None of these

Q28. G
(a) e (b) f
(c) h (d) None of these

Q29. I
(a) n (b) o
(c) q (d) None of these

Q30. M
(a) I (b) n
(c) q (d) None of these

Q31. O
(a) h (b) n
(c) p (d) None of these

Q32. R
(a) p (b) q
(c) s (d) None of these

Q33. S
(a) r (b) x
(c) x (d) None of these

Q34. T
(a) I (b) n
(c) p (d) None of these

Q35. U
(a) p (b) r
(c) x (d) None of these

Directions (Qs. 36-40) : In these questions some logic has been followed in the placement of
points in each diagram. In two of the five diagrams (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) given in each
question the logic followed is the same. These two are given as on of the four alternatives in
each question under the diagrams. Find this alternative in each question and mark your answer
on the answer-sheet.

Q36.
(a) a, c (b) b, d
(c) a, d (d) b, e

Q37.
(a) a, b (b) b, c
(c) c, d (d) d, e

Q38.
(a) a, c (b) b, c
(c) a, d (d) b, e
Q39.
(a) a, b (b) b, c
(c) c, d (d) d, e

Q40.
(a) c, d (b) d, e
(c) b, c (d) a, b

Directions (Qs. 41-45) : There are 128 cubes with me which are coloured according to two
schemes, viz. (1) 64 cubes each having two red adjacent faces and one yellow and the other
blue on their opposite faces while green on the rest, (2) 64 cubes each having two adjacent
blue faces and one red and the other green on their opposite faces while red on the rest. They
are then mixed up

Now answer the following questions based on the above statements

Q41. How many cubes have only one red face each?
(a) 0 (b) 64
(c) 128 (d) 192

Q42. How many cubes atleast two blue faces each?

(a) 0 (b) 64
(c) 128 (d) 320

Q43. Which two colours have the same number of faces?

(a) Red, yellow (b) Red, blue
(c) Red, Green (d) Blue, green

Q44. How many cubes have at least two coloured red faces each?
(a) 0 (b) 64
(c) 128 (d) 320

Q45. What is the total number of red faces?

(a) 0 (b) 64
(c) 128 (d) 320.

Directions (Qs. 46-50) : In an examination six subjects were available for a candidate of which
only three had to be offered under the following conditions :
One who offered a had to offer b also and vice versa.
One who offered a could not offer e.
One who offered c or d could not offer f.

The distribution of the candidates over the subjects was as follows :

a. 70, b.70, c. 90, d. 85, e.70, f. 35

Q46. How many combinations were permitted?

(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7

Q47. How many candidates in all appeared for the examination?

(a) 120 (b) 130
(c) 140 (d) 380

Q48. How many candidates offered the combination a + b + c?

 (a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 35 (d) 70

Q49. How many candidates combined c with d?

(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 35 (d) 70.

Q50. How many candidates offered b with f?

(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 35 (d) 70

ANSWER

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b)

7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (c)

Part – II

Numerical Ability and Scientific Attitude

Section I – Numerical Ability

Q1. If a = 2, b = 4, c = 8, the value of (b-c)3 + (c-a)3 + (a+b)3 – 3(b-c)(c-a)(a-b) is equal to

(a) 0 (b) 12
(c) 36 (d) None of these

a c e
Q2. If = = , then all the following are true EXCEPT
b d f
a+c+e a 2 + c2 + e2
(a) = 2
b + d + f b + d2 + f 2
a 2 + c2 + e2 ac + ce + ea
(b) =
b +d +e
2 2 2
bd + df + bf
a 2 + c2 + e2 ace
(c) 2 =3
b +d + f
2 2 2
bdf
a 2 + c2 c2 + e2
(d) =
b2 + d 2 d 2 + f 2

Q3. If ax = by then
a x log a x
(a) log = (b) =
b y log b y
 log a x
(c) + (d) None of these
log b y

Q4. Mean of eight numbers is 38.4 and the mean of seven of them 39.2. What is the eighth
number?
(a) 0.8 (b) 32.8
(c) 34.8 (d) None of these

Q5. The roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 – 11x + 15 = 0 are

5 3
(a) 3, (b) 5,
2 2
5
(c) -3, (d) None of these
2

25 .64 .109
Q6. How many prime factors are there in the expression? 2 2 4
3 .4 .5
(a) 10 (b) 21
(c) 22 (d) None of these

Q7. 54(?) 3 + 543.0 + 5.430 = 603.26

(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) None of these

4335 7 289
Q8. +1 =
4(?)24 8 528
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None of these

Q9. 2 - [2 - {2 - 2(2 + 2}]=?

(a) -4 (b) +4
(c) -6 (d) None of these

F
G2 I F1 I
2 2

H3K H2 2 JK+ 3 3 − 2 2 = ?
3 J− G 2 1
Q10.
F
G 3 I F1I 4 3 − 3 1
2 2

H4 K H3 3JK 4 3
4 J− G

37 74
(a) (b)
97 97
23
(c) 1 (d) None of these
74

3 2 1
Q11. 2 2 ÷ 2 ÷1 = ?
4 3 12
169 39
(a) (b)
144 48
 1
(c) 1 (d) None of these
4

F
G IF IF IF IF I
H J
KG
H J
KG
H J
KG
H J
KG
H J
3 1 2 2 6 12
Q12. 1+ 1+ 1− 1+ 1− =?
4 3 3 K 5 7 13
1 1
(a) (b)
5 6
1
(c) (d) None of these
7

Q13. 0.3421 = ?
3421 3421
(a) (b)
10000 9999
6579
(c) (d) None of these
9999

Q14. 0169
. bg
× ? = 13
.
(a) 10 (b) 100
(c) 1000 (d) None of these

24.23 × 1423
. × 34.21
Q15. is the same as
. × 413.32 × 2.53
5213
2423 × 1423 × 3421
(a)
5213 × 41332 × 253
242.3 × 142.3 × 3421
(b)
5213 × 4133.2 × 2.52
2.423 × 14.23 × 342.1
(c)
5213. × 4133.2 × 2.53
(d) None of these

Q16. 60% of 264 is the same as

(a) 30% of 132 (b) 15% of 1056
(c) 10% of 44 (d) None of these

Q17. The average of six numbers is x and the average of three of these is y. If the average of
the remaining three is z, then
(a) x + y + z (b) x + 2y + 2z
(c) 2x = y + z (d) None of these

Q18. By what number should 1497375 be multiplied to make it a perfect cube?

(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 9 (d) None of these

Q19. A property dealer sells a house for Rs. 6,30,000 and in the bargain makes a profit of 5%.
Had he sold it for Rs. 5,00,000, what percentage of loss or gain he would have made?
(a) 15% loss (b) 15% gain
 2 2
(c) 16 %loss (d) 16 %gain
3 3
Q20. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is one-eighth of 34. What is the product of
number and its square root?
(a) 8 (b) 27
(c) 32 (d) None of these

Q21. The product of three consecutive even numbers when divided by 8 is 720. The product
of their square root is
(a) 12 10 (b) 24 10
(c) 120 (d) None of these

Q22. A shop-keeper allows a discount of 10% on a watch and still makes a profit of 12%. If
the cost price of the watch is Rs. 450, what is its marked price?
(a) Rs. 520 (b) Rs. 540
(c) Rs. 560 (d) None of these

Q23. In the given figure PA and PB are tangents drawn to a circle whose centre is at O and
whose radius is 8 cm. If ∠APO = 300, then area of ∆AOB is

(a) 8 3cm2 (b) 12 3cm2

2
(c) 16 3cm (d) None of these

Q24. In the given figure AB touches the circle at P. Also ∠BPS = 700 and ∠APQ =80 . If PR
bisects ∠QPS, then ∠PQR is equal to

(a) 700 (b) 850

 (c) 950 (d) None of these

Q25. What is the total surface of a right cone of height 14 cm and a circular base of radius 7
cm?
(a) 344.25 cm2 (b) 462 cm2
2
(c) 498.35 cm (d) None of these

ANSWERS

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b)

7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (c)

Part – III
General Knowledge

Q.1. The author of ‘Arthashastra’ was the contemporary of

(a) Ashoka
(b) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(c) Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
(d) Samudra Gupta

Q.2. In Column I below are given the names of some important institutes and in column II
the names of the cities where they are located. Match the two and mark your answer
as the alternative in which they are correctly matched.
Column I Column II
(a) B.A.R.C. 1. Ahmedabad
(b) B.I.S. 2. Chennai
(c) S.A.C. 3. Mumbai
(d) N.I.O. 4. New Delhi
5. Panaji

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 4 3 5 2
(b) 2 4 5 3
(c) 3 4 1 5
(d) 3 5 1 2

Q.3. How many countries participated in an international Fleet Review hosted by the Indian
Navy in Fabruary, 2001?
(a) 29 (b) 30
(c) 31 (d) 32

Q.4. On which river is Firozpur situated?

(a) Chinab (b) Jhelum
(c) Ravi (d) Sutlez

Q.5. ‘Kirti Stambha’ is located in

(a) Amber (b) Chittorgarh
(c) Madhavgarh (d) Nahargarh
Q.6. In Column I are listed some countries and in Column II their cities. Of the four
alternatives given under the columns mark the one that matches them correctly.
Column I Column II
(a) Argentina 1. Bairut
(b) Finland 2. Beunos Aires
(c) Lebanon 3. Helsinki
(d) Uganda 4. Kampala
5. Lusaka

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 1 2 3 5
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 3 1 4 2

Q.7. In Column I are given the names of some temples and in column II the names of the
states where they are located. Match the temples with the states select the correct
answer from the code given below the columns
Column I Column II
(a) Kailash 1. Karnataka
(b) Lingaraja 2. Kerala
(c) Nataraja 3. Maharashtra
(d) Padhmanabha 4. Orissa
5. Tamilnadu

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 3 4 5 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 5
(d) 5 3 1 4

Q.8. Among the following dynasties which was the first to rule over Delhi
(a) Khilji (b) Lodhi
(c) Suri (d) Tughlaqua

Q.9. In which country is the trail in the 1885 Air India jumbo jet bombing being held/was
held?
(a) Canada (b) India
(c) Japan (d) U.K.

Q.10. In Column I are given the names of some Trophies and in column II the sports for which
they are given Match the two columns and Mark the correct alternative from amongst
the four codes given under the columns.
Column I Column II
(a) Ryder Cup 1. Polo
(b) Thomas Cup 2. Golf
(c) Ezra 3. Billiards
(d) Jaya LAxmi 4. Table Tennis
5. Badminton

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 1 4 5 3
 (b) 4 2 1 5
(c) 2 5 1 4
(d) 2 1 5 4

Q.11. In which state s minister had to lose his job for making an intemperate remark about
the victims of the Gujarat earthquake?
(a) Gujarat (b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka (d) U.P.

Q.12. The editor-in-Chief of ‘Outlook’ is

(a) Bharat Bhushan
(b) H.V.Sharda Rao
(c) Vinod Mehta
(d) Inder Malhotra

Q.13. Who said about religion that “It is the opium of the people”?
(a) Hitler (b) Stalin
(c) Lenin (d) Marx

Q.14. George Walker Bush took over as the ……President of the U.S.A.
(a) 41st (b) 42nd
rd
(c) 43 (d) 44th

Q.15. Who won the Australian men and women singles tennis titles in 2001?
(a) Jennifer Capriyati, Andre Agassi
(b) Martina Hingis, Pete Sampras
(c) Venus Williams, Carlos Moya
(d) Virginie Razzano, Yevgeny Kafelnikov

Q.16. Who had floated the idea of a grand alliance called ‘Mahajot’ to fight election to the
State Assemblies?
(a) Abdul Ghanikhan Chowdhary
(b) Jyoti Basu
(c) Pranab Mukherjee
(d) Mamta Banerjee

Q.17. About 350 children were killed while parading through a narrow street when house an
either side collapsed on them due to earthquake shocks. Where did this tragedy occur?
(a) Anjar (b) Bachau
(c) Bhuj (d) Kutch

Q.18. Bismillah Khan, who has been honoured with ‘Bharat Ratna’ in 2001. Originally
belonged to the state of
(a) Bihar (b) Delhi
(c) Rajasthan (d) U.P.

Q.19. The 35th Jnanpith Award has been jointly shared by

(a) Bhai Vir Singh, Sitakant Mahapatra
(b) Amrita Pritam, Mahasweta Devi
(c) Nanak Singh, Narash Mehta
(d) Gurdail Singh, Nirmal Verma

Q.20. Who was the Chief Guest at the 52nd Republic Day Parade of India in 2001?
(a) The Prime Minister of Mauritius
(b) The President of Algeria
 (c) The Prime Minister of Bangladesh
(d) The President of Vietnam

Q.21. The Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is located near

(a) Ahmedabad (b) Bhavnagar
(c) Rajkot (d) Surat

Q.22. The last Indian Science Congress in January 2001 was held at
(a) Bangalore (b) Delhi
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kolkata

Q.23. Who among the following was crowned Miss World in year 2000?
(a) Diana Hayden (b) Diya Mirza
(c) Lara Datta (d) Priyanka Chopra

Q.24. An indigeneously developed Light Combat Aircraft (L.C.A.) has a maiden flight on ……
January, 2001.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (D) 4

Q.25. ‘Mohiniyatram’ is a traditional dance form of

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu

Q.26. Shri Anil Agarwal received the Norman E.Borlaugh Award, 2001 for his contribution to
(a) Environmental Awareness
(b) Pioneering work on developing a variety of wheat
(c) Discovering a high yielding variety of paddy
(d) Food security

Q.27. Vishwanathan Anand won the 75th World Championship in class. What was it organised?
(a) Dartmund (b) Frankfurt
(c) Tehran (d) Warsaw

Q.28. The recently commissioned Jamnagar-Loni L.P.G. pipeline is the longest in the world.
What is the length?
(a) 1100 km (b) 1150 km
(c) 1200 km (d) 1250 km

Q.29. In which sport has Tiger Woods specialized?

(a) Billiards (b) Golf
(c) Polo (d) Snooker

Q.30. What is ‘Lakshya’ an important addition to the Indian Defence Forces?

(a) A surface to surface missile
(b) A submarine
(c) A pilotless aircraft
(d) An anti-tank missile

Q.31. All the following are located in Goa except

(a) Basilica of Boun Jesus
(b) Dona Paula
(c) Kovalam
 (d) Mangueshi Siva Temple

Q.32. On the Repblic Day earthquake in 2001, of the following cities in Gujarat which one
was almost razed to the ground
(a) Ahemadabad (b) Bhuj
(c) Jamnagar (d) Rajkot

Q.33. All the following were setup during the same year except
(a) The National gallery of Moidern Art
(b) The Sahitya Academy
(c) The Lalit Kala Academi
(d) The National Museum

Q.34. All the following are the responsibilities of the ITDC except
(a) Provision of education in Tourism and Travel management
(b) Construction and hotel management
(c) Production and distribution of Tourist publicity
(d) Provisions of entertainment facilities such as light and sound shows

Q.35. India’s share in the word tourist market is

(a) Less than 1%
(b) Between 1% and 2%
(c) More than 2% but less than 3%
(d) Slightly more than 3%.

Q.36. Which is the southern-most place in the Indian Union?

(a) Gandhi Dham (b) Indira Point
(c) Rameshwaram (d) Vivekanand Rock

Q.37. The chemical name of Baking soda is

(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Sodium bicarbonate
(c) Sodium chloride (d) Sodium hydroxide

Q.38. Chief Ministers of which newly created states had to face the elections to get a seat in
the State Assembly?
(a) Uttarnachal, Chattisgarh
(b) Chattisgarh, Jharkhand
(c) Uttarachal, Jharkhand
(d) Uttaranchal, Chattisgarh, Jharkhand

Q.39. Which central minister is responsible to implement the disinvestment process of the
Central Government?
(a) Arun Shourie (b) Arun Jaitley
(c) Yashwant Sinha (d) Jaswant Singh

Q.40. In column I below are given the old names of some countries and in column II their
changed names. Match the two correctly selected the codes given under the columns
Column I Column II
(a) Abyssinia Ethopia
(b) Cango Namibia
(c) Formusa Taiwan
(d) S.Rhodesia Zaire
Zambia
Zimbabwe
 Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 2 4 6 5
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 3 6 5
(d) 1 4 3 6

Q.41. Which country won the Sahara Football Cup in January 2001?
(a) Bosnia (b) Chile
(c) Romania (d) Yugoslavia

Q.42. The author of the book ‘A brief History of Time’ is

(a) Albert Einstien
(b) Sir Issac Newton
(c) Stephen Hawking
(d) Charles Darwin

Q.43. The Hindustan Times conducted an opinion survey in which Prime Minister Atal Beharti
Vajpai was voted as the ‘Man of the Year’. Who came next?
(a) Amitabh Bacchan
(b) Hrithik Roshan
(c) Sachin Tendulker
(d) Viswanathan Anand

Q.44. Nawaz Sharif, The Ex.-Prime Minister of Pakistan in a way has been exiled from his
country. Where id he go from Pakistan?
(a) Qatar (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) U.A.R. (d) U.K.

Q.45. Which of the following forest types are economically most exploited
(a) Equatorial rain forest
(b) Deciduous mixed forests
(c) Tropical hard wood forests
(d) Coniferous forests

Q.46. Through which of the following groups of countries does the equator pass?
(a) Indonesia, Zaira, Brazil
(b) Malaysia, Kenya, Argentina
(c) Philippines, Libya, Venezuela
(d) Thailand, Egypt, Peru

Q.47. Who among the following Governor Generals of India was impeached by the British
Parliament?
(a) Hastings (b) Curzon
(c) Dalhousie (d) Bentinck

Q.48. Who was known as the Iron Man of Germany’?

(a) Otto Von Bismark (b) Adolf Hitler
(c) Napolean-II (d) William-II

Q.49. A person cannot be elected as the President of India if he/she is

(a) Not a citizen of india
(b) Nor more than 35 years of age
(c) Not a member of Lok Sabha
(d) Holding an office of profit under any Government.
 Which of the above is not true?

Q.50. When did the Indian National Congress adopt a resolution of complete independence of
the country?
(a) 1905 (b) 1921
(c) 1929 (d) 1942

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b)

7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a)
19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (d) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (c)

Part – IV
English Language

Directions (Q. 1. – 5) Each of the following sentences has been broken in three parts (A), (B)
and (C). If there is some grammatical error in any of these parts, that is your answer. If there is
no error, the answer is (D).

Q.1. The teacher punishment him (A)/and make him write (B)/it fifty times (C)/No error(D).

Q.5. I shall ask him (A)/ not to come on Monday (B)/as it is a working day(C)/No error(D).

Q.6. I have reached (A)/ the office before (B)/the rain started(C)/No error.(D).

Q.7. Homar was great(A)/than any other(B)/ Greek poet(C)/No error(D).

Q.8. She was(A)/on his way to the market(B)/when she met me(C). No error(D).

Q.9. The sensation it has causing(A)/in the press(B)/has never been equaled(C)/No error(D).

Q.10. A large(A)/consignment of books(B)/are expected(C)/No error(D).

Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of these questions a word has been written in four different
ways. Only one is correctly spelt.

Q.11. (a) Occured (b) Occurad

(c) Ocurred (d) Occurred

Q.12. (a) Rigerous (b) Rigourous

(c) Regerous (d) Rigorous

Q.13. (a) Indispensable (b) Indispansible

(c) Indespensable (d) Indispenseble
Q.14. (a) Palete (b) Palet
(c) Palate (d) Pelate

Q.15. (a) Chancelary (b) Chancellary

(c) Chancelery (d) Chancellery

Q.16. The nearest in meaning to ‘CALLOUS’ is

(a) Liberal (b) Ignorant
(c) Irresponsible (d) Insensitive

Q.17. The opposite of ‘ZENITH’ is

(a) Nadir (b) Bottom
(c) Base (d) Foot

Q.18. The opposite of ‘FRUGAL’ is

(a) Thrifty (b) Generous
(c) Lavish (d) Economical

Q.19. The nearest in meaning to ‘ENGROSSED’ is

(a) Absorbed (b) Occupied
(c) Devoted (d) Lost

Q.20. The nearest in meaning to ‘REDEMPTION’ is

(a) Bondage (b) Resumption
(c) Rescue (d) Escape

Directions : (Qs. 21-30) : In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. The numbers are printed below the passage and against each four words are
suggested, one of which fits into the blank approximately. Find out the appropriate word.

The world economy is in recession; the deepest and the widest …(23)… the 1930s.
There are …(22)… of …(23)… in the industrial countries, but most serious economic
…(24)…anticipate that rates of …(25)…and levels of economic activity will remain low. In all
that has been written about world …(26)… the …(27)… have been overwhelmingly and narrowly
economic. Few have …(28)… the human consequences in more than a superficial manner. Not a
single international study has …(29)… the recession’s …(30)… on the most vulnerable half of the
world’s population i.e., the children.

Q.21. (a) By (b) For

(c) In (d) Since

Q.22. (a) Glimmers (b) Risks

(c) Studies (d) Tips

Q.23. (a) Development (b) Downfall

(c) Recovery (d) Slackness

Q.24. (a) Analysts (b) Findings

(c) Journalists (d) Surveys

Q.25. (a) Growth (b) Inflation

(c) Interest (d) Progress

Q.26. (a) Development (b) Economy

(c) Recession (d) Wars
Q.27. (a) Aims (b) Emphasis
(c) Glimpses (d) Suppositions

Q.28. (a) Delved (b) Investigated

(c) Propagated (d) Taught

Q.29. (a) Analysed (b) Highlighted

(c) Prepared (d) Understood

Q.30. (a) Analysis (b) Impact

(c) Overtures (d) Undercurrents

Directions (Q. 31-40) : Find the one-word substitution in each of the following questions.

Q.31. A school boy who cuts classes frequently is a

(a) Defeatist (b) Sycophant
(c) Truant (d) Martinet

Q.32. The act of violating the sanctity of the church is

(a) Blasphemy (b) Heresy
(c) Sacrilege (d) Desecration

Q.33. A place where bees are kept is called

(a) An apiary (b) A mole
(c) A hive (d) A sanctuary

Q.34. Nemesis is a symbol of

(a) Low birth (b) Retribution
(c) Giant size (d) Treason

Q.35. A book in its original handwritten form is called

(a) Classic (b) Script
(c) Graphic (d) Manuscript

Q.36. A vehicle for carrying a dead body is called

(a) Ambulance (b) Cart
(c) Hearse (d) Lorry

Q.37. An imaginary name assumed by an author as disguise is

(a) Pseudonym (b) Nickname
(c) Petname (d) Homonym

Q.38. A child born after the death of its father is called

(a) Orphan (b) Postulant
(c) Pistilion (d) Posthumous

Q.39. Animals or birds living in groups

(a) Consolidated (b) Gregarious
(c) Herd (d) Sociable

Q.40. Animals that can live both on land and in water are called
(a) Amorphous (b) Amphibian
(c) Frog (d Versatile
Directions (Qs. 41-50) : Below are given two passages followed by questions based on each.
Read each passage carefully and answer the corresponding questions.

Passage - I

Everything that men do or think concerns either the satisfaction of the needs they feel or the
need to escape from pain. This must be kept in mind when we seek to understand spiritual or
intellectual movements and the way in which they develop, for feeling and longing are the
motive forces of all human striving and productivity – however nobly these latter may display
themselves to us.
What, then, are the feelings and the needs which have brought mankind to religious
through and to faith in the widest sense? A moment’s consideration shows that the most varied
emotions stand at the cradle of religious thought and experience.
In primitive peoples it is, first of all, fear that awakens religious ideas – fear of hunger,
of wild animals, of illness and of death. Since the understanding of causal connections is
usually limited on this level of existence, the human soul forges a being, more or less like
existence which it fears. One hopes to win the favour of this being by deeds and sacrifices,
which according to the tradition of the race are supposed to appease the being or to make him
well disposed to man. I call this the religion of fear. This religion is considerably stabilized,
though not caused, by the formation of priestly caste which claims to mediate between the
people and the being they fear and so attains a position of power. Often a leader or despot will
combine the function of the priesthood with its own temporal rule for the sake of greater
security; or an alliance may exist between the interests of the political power and the priestly
caste.

Q.41. What motivates man’s action for thinking?

(a) To satisfy his needs or to escape pain.
(b) His desire for progress or to rule.
(c) His spiritual urge.
(d) To carry out the dictates of his religious faith.

Q.42. What feeling promoted primitive man to create religion?

(a) Love (b) anger
(c) Fear (d) Spiritual revelation

Q.43. ‘Human soul forges a being’ means

(a) That ghosts and witches are a creation of human mind.
(b) That the concepts of God is a creation of human mind.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).

Q.44. How did religion become firmly established?

(a) Through the constant fear of death.
(b) Through the perpetuation of faith in God.
(c) Through the establishment of religious practices.
(d) Through the growth of a priestly class.

Q.45. How did priests come to acquire political power?

(a) By joining hand with the despotic rulers.
(b) By protecting the belivers against despotic rulers.
(c) By generating fear of the unknown in the minds of rulers.
(d) By giving religious blessing to political movements.

Passage - II
The battle that immediately took place was frightful. Most of the men used sticks of huge sizes
and strange shapes, with which they best each other’s heads. As they wore almost no clothes
and had to bound, leap and run in their terrible hand to hand fight, they looked more like
devils than human beings. I felt my heart grow sick at the sight of their bloody battle, and
would have liked to have turned away, but something seemed to hold me down and keep my
eyes upon the fighting men. I observed that the attacking party was led by a most strange
being, who, from his size and strangeness, a thought was a chief. His hair stood out, so that it
looked like a large hat. It was a light yellow colour, which surprised me much, for the man’s
body was as black as coal and I felt certain that the hair must have been coloured. He was
painted from head to toe. With his yellow colour hair, his huge black frame, his shining eyes
and white teeth, he seemed the most terrible monster I ever saw. He was very terrible in the
fight and had already killed four men.

Q.46. The narrator found that the battle was

(a) A rate and pleasing event.
(b) Being fought with different kinds of sticks.
(c) Being fought atop a hill.
(d) Confined to members of the same group.

Q.47. The nude fighters

(a) Looked vulgar and spineless.
(b) Leapt found a fire.
(c) Fought like ferocious devils.
(d) Slowly bled to death.

Q.48. The battle was nauseating but the narrator was

(a) Forced to watch it by the fighters.
(b) Inexplicably glued to the scene.
(c) Afraid to move away.
(d) Could not take the risk of being seen.

Q.49. The chief could be recognized because

(a) He was wearing a large hat.
(b) The colour of his hair was yellow.
(c) He uttered terrible war-cries.
(d) He was huge and unfamiliar.

Q.50. The chief

(a) Offered to make peace.
(b) Lead his men to victory.
(c) Fought like a huge animal.
(d) Remained fixed like a yellow pole.

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a)

7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (c)