MOCK SNAP 2010 – SET 3

Time: 120 Minutes

Instructions:

1. For every wrong answer you will score 25% negative marks.
2. All questions carry equal marks.
3. The sequence of the sections may differ but the weightage remains the same as mentioned
in the SNAP bulletin.
4.
Sections Total Marks No. Of Questions
General English 40 40
Quantitative, Data Interpretation, Data Sufficiency 40 40
General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs 40 40
Analytical & Logical Reasoning 60 30
Total Marks 180 150

Please note, this is just a mock paper and in no way predicts the exact nature of the actual paper
on 19th December, 2010. Use this as a means to prepare and test yourself.

!! ALL THE BEST!!

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 GENERAL ENGLISH SECTION

Q1-4 Choose the correct word to fill in the blanks.

1. It __________________ since the afternoon

a. Rained
b. Has been raining
c. Raining
d. Had rained
2. Make hay ___________ the sun shines
a. Before
b. After
c. While
d. During
3. The flight from Leipzig to London was ______ Frankfurt
a. Through
b. By
c. Via
d. Across
4. From the option below, choose the word with the incorrect spelling:
a. Foreign
b. Beleive
c. Receive
d. Receipt
5. From the option below, choose the word with the incorrect spelling:
a. Inoculate
b. Noticeable
c. Pastime
d. Privilage
6. “Thy kingdom come, thy will be done.” Is an example of :
a. Alliteration
b. Assonance
c. Archaism
d. Apostrophe
7. None of them is worth a hill of beans. The underlined phrase means :
a. Very precious
b. Useless
c. Agricultural value

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 d. Magical value

For questions 8-14, read the passage below and answer with reference to it.

Species interdependence in nature confers many benefits on the species involved, but it can
also become a point of weakness when one species involved in the relationship is affected
by a catastrophe. Thus, flowering plant species dependent on insect pollination, as opposed
to self-pollination or wind pollination could be endangered when the population of insect-
pollinators is depleted by the use of pesticides.

In the forests of New Brunswick, for example, various pesticides have been sprayed in
the past 25 years in efforts to control the spruce budworm, an economically significant pest.
Scientists have now investigated the effects of the spraying of Matacil, one of the anti-
budworm agents that is least toxic to insect-pollinators. They studied Matacil’s effects on
insect mortality in a wide variety of wild insect species and on plant fecundity, expressed as
the percentage of the total flowers on an individual plant that actually developed fruit and
bore seeds. They found that the most pronounced mortality after the spraying of Matacil
occurred among the smaller bees and one family of flies, insects that were all important
pollinators of numerous species of plants growing beneath the tree canopy of forests. The
fecundity of plants in one common indigenous species, the red-osier dogwood, was
significantly reduced in the sprayed areas as compared to that of plants in control plots
where Matacil was not sprayed. This species is highly dependent on the insect-pollinators
most vulnerable to Matacil. The creeping dogwood, a species similar to the red-osier
dogwood, but which is pollinated by large bees, such as bumblebees, showed no significant
decline in fecundity. Since large bees are not affected by the spraying of Matacil, these
results add weight to the argument that spraying where the pollinators are sensitive to the
pesticide used decreases plant fecundity.

The question of whether the decrease in plant fecundity caused by the spraying of
pesticides actually causes a decline in the overall population of flowering plant species still
remains unanswered. Plant species dependent solely on seeds for survival or dispersal are
obviously more vulnerable to any decrease in plant fecundity that occurs, whatever its
cause. If, on the other hand, vegetative growth and dispersal (by means of shoots or
runners) are available as alternative reproductive strategies for a species, then decreases in
plant fecundity may be of little consequence. The fecundity effects described here are likely
to have the most profound impact on plant species with all four of the following
characteristics: a short life span, a narrow geographic range, an incapacity for vegetative

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propagation, and a dependence on a small number of insect-pollinator species. Perhaps we
should give special attention to the conservation of such plant species since they lack key
factors in their defences against the environmental disruption caused by pesticide use.
8. Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
a. Species interdependence is a point of weakness for some plants, but is
generally beneficial to insects involved in pollination.
b. Efforts to control the spruce budworm have had deleterious effects on the
red-osier dogwood.
c. The use of pesticides may be endangering certain plant species dependent on
insects for pollination.
d. The spraying of pesticides can reduce the fecundity of a plant species, but
probably does not affect its overall population stability.
e. Plant species lacking key factors in their defences against human
environmental disruption will probably become extinct.

9. According to the author, a flowering plant species whose fecundity has declined due to
pesticide spraying may not experience an overall population decline if the plant species
can do which of the following?
a. Reproduce itself by means of shoots and runners.
b. Survive to the end of the growing season.
c. Survive in harsh climates.
d. Respond to the fecundity decline by producing more flowers.
e. Attract large insects as pollinators.

10. The passage suggests that the lack of an observed decline in the fecundity of the
creeping dogwood strengthens the researchers conclusions regarding pesticide use
because the
a. creeping dogwood is a species that does not resemble other forest plants
b. creeping dogwood is a species pollinated by a broader range of insect species
than are most dogwood species
c. creeping dogwood grows primarily in regions that were not sprayed with
pesticide, and so served as a control for the experiment
d. creeping dogwood is similar to the red-osier dogwood, but its insect
pollinators are known to be insensitive to the pesticide used in the study
e. geographical range of the creeping dogwood is similar to that of the red-osier
dogwood, but the latter species relies less on seeds for reproduction

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11. The passage suggests that which of the following is true of the forest regions in New
Brunswick sprayed with most anti-budworm pesticides other than Matacil?
a. The fecundity of some flowering plants in those regions may have decreased
to an even greater degree than in the regions where Matacil is used.
b. Insect mortality in those regions occurs mostly among the larger species of
insects, such as bumblebees.
c. The number of seeds produced by common plant species in those regions is
probably comparable to the number produced where Matacil is sprayed.
d. Many more plant species have become extinct in those regions than in the
regions where Matacil is used.
e. The spruce budworm is under better control in those regions than in the
regions where Matacil is sprayed.

12. It can be inferred that which of the following is true of plant fecundity as it is defined in
the passage?
a. A plant’s fecundity decreases as the percentage of un-pollinated flowers on
the plant increases.
b. A plant’s fecundity decreases as the number of flowers produced by the plant
decreases.
c. A plant’s fecundity increases as the number of flowers produced by the plant
increases.
d. A plant’s fecundity is usually low if the plant relies on a small number of
insect species for pollination.
e. A plant’s fecundity is high if the plant can reproduce quickly by means of
vegetative growth as well as by the production of seeds.

13. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following plant species would be
LEAST likely to experience a decrease in fecundity as a result of the spraying of a
pesticide not directly toxic to plants?
a. A flowering tree pollinated by only a few insect species
b. A kind of insect-pollinated vine producing few flowers
c. A wind-pollinated flowering tree that is short-lived
d. A flowering shrub pollinated by a large number of insect species
e. A type of wildflower typically pollinated by larger insects

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14. Which of the following assumptions most probably underlies the author’s tentative
recommendation in lines 51-54?
a. Human activities that result in environmental disruption should be
abandoned.
b. The use of pesticides is likely to continue into the future.
c. It is economically beneficial to preserve endangered plant species.
d. Preventing the endangerment of a species is less costly than trying to save an
already endangered one.
e. Conservation efforts aimed at preserving a few well-chosen species are more
cost-effective than are broader-based efforts to improve the environment.

Choose the right word

15. It is highly _______________ that he will not make it.

a. Likely
b. Apt
c. Considerable
d. Able

16. She cleaned the room, _________________ she?

a. Didn’t
b. Hadn’t
c. Did
d. Had

Four statements with blanks have been given. These statements are followed by four
alternatives. Choose the one that fits into the set of statements the maximum number of
times.

17. A. The men there have fought _____ and emotional withdrawal, and were more
capable of helping Jim.

B. But _____ does occasionally inflict all the adults.

C. A person who is deeply hurt can fall easily into ______.

D. It is hard to survive this feeling of _______.

a) dejection b) lonely c) trouble d) depression

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18. A. Communism states that every individual must live for the _____.

B. The ______ of the affairs of the nation is deplorable.

C. Arms have been laid down by the United States, ______ The Statesman.

D. No _________ has succeeded in gaining complete autonomy from the Federal

government.

a) state b) nation c) government d) condition

19. Answer the question on basis of a short statement preceding it.

I have been studying it, consciously and subconsciously, for forty years and I still find men
unaccountable; people I know intimately can surprise me by some action of which I never
thought them capable of, or by the discovery of some trait exhibit a side of themselves that I
never even suspected.

The idea in this sentence can be best summarized as

a) Men are inconsistent and therefore one should not be confident even about one’s closest
friends.

b) Men are unpredictable, one can never tell what do next, hence one should be very
careful in one’s dealings.

c) No matter how closely you know somebody there still exists an unknown facet of his
personality.

d) None of these

20. Answer the question on basis of a short statement preceding it.

Now the audience is a very curious animal. It is shrewd rather than intelligent. Its mental
capacity is less than that of its most intellectual members. If these were graded from A to Z,
decreasing with succeeding letters to the zero of the hysterical shop girl, I should say its
mental capacity would come around about the letter O.

According to the above statements,

a) Some members in the audience are more intelligent than any of its other members.

b) The net intelligence of the audience is a little less than average.

c) a only.

d) a and b both.

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21. In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each
sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best
alternative from among the four.

It was us who had left before he arrived.

a) we who had left before time he had arrived

b) us who had went before he arrived.

c) us who had went before had arrived

d) we who had left before he arrived.

22. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to
construct a coherent paragraph.

A. I sat there frowning at the chequered tablecloth, chewing the bitter cud of insight.

B. That wintry afternoon in Manhattan, waiting in the little French restaurant, I was feeling
frustrated and depressed.

C. Even the prospect of seeing a dear friend failed to cheer me as it usually did.

D. Because of certain miscalculations on my part, a project of considerable importance in

my life had fallen through.

a) ADBC b) BCDA c) BDCA d) ABCD

23. From the given alternatives, select the one in which the pairs of words have a
relationship similar to the one between the bold words.

ANTERIOR : POSTERIOR

a) in : out b) top : bottom c) head : tail d) front : rear

24. From the given alternatives, select the one in which the pairs of words have a
relationship similar to the one between the bold words.

ACTION : REACTION

a) introvert : extrovert b) assail : defend c) diseased : treatment d) death : rebirth

In each of the following questions, statements 1 to 6 are respectively the first and last
sentences of a paragraph. Statements A ,B ,C and D come in between them. Rearrange A,
B, C and D in such a manner that they make a coherent paragraph together with
statements 1 and 6. Select the correct order from the given choices and mark its number
as your answer.

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25.
1. The ethnographic composition and history of the Himalayan regions of Kumaon, Garwal
and Himachal Pradesh form a fascinating field of study.
A. Besides, the indepth study of place names offers interesting insights.
B. ‘Himachal’ has been explained as ‘the land of snow’.
C. The author has endeavoured to trace the roots of the Himalayan culture and discuss the
cultural components of the ancient inhabitants of that society.
D. More than a dozen communities which have played an important part in the formation of
history and culture of this region are studied in the book called “The Ancient Communities
of India”.
6. Similarly, ‘Kumaon’ has been derived from the name of Kurmavana.
(a) CADB (b) ACBD (c) DCBA (d) DCAB

26.
1. Green Revolution refers to a significant improvement in agricultural production in a short
period and the sustenance of higher level of agricultural production over a fairly long period
of time.
A. This new strategy envisaged raising farm output through the use of High-Yielding
Varieties (HYV) pr seeds, chemical fertilizers, implements and machinery, etc.
B. It was sponsored by the Ford Foundation which was invited by the
Government of India to suggest means to increase agricultural production.
C. The necessity for such increase arose due to the continued stagnation of production and
the rapidly increasing demands.
D. This type of green revolution has occurred in India as a result of adopting the ‘new
agricultural strategy’ in 1964-65.
6. As one of the results, the increase in the demand for some cereals has been met with to
some extent.
(a) BADC (b) DABC (c) CDBA (d) BCAD

A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced , form a
coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four
choices given to construct a coherent paragraph.

27.

A. By releasing an ultraviolet photon, the atom falls back to the original energy level.
B. From this high energy level, the atom will almost always release an electron, whereby the
energy of the ultraviolet photon is dissipated.
C. In the absence of green light, when a strontium atom absorbs a photon of ultraviolet
radiations, its energy increases by a discrete amount.
D. But, ever so often, the high -energy atom will emit a photon of other ultraviolet or green
light.
(a)CBDA (b) CBAD (c) CADB (d) CABD

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28.
A. Yet, paradoxically, there is greater mass discontent in nearly the whole of Latin America,
the Caribbean, the Middle East and parts of Asia.
B. Commodity prices have been at levels yielding much better terms of trade than they were
before the war.
C. Real income has risen faster than ever before, social services have improved.
D. The decade and a half since the end of the war, has over-all been a good period for the
underdeveloped countries.
(a) CADB (b) DCBA (c) DBCA (d) CDBA

Select the correct word/words from the choices that complete the given sentence as your
answer. Please note that more than once choice may fit in to make syntactically correct
sentence but select the choice that is logical in the context of the sentence

29. To seek ____ from the ____ summer of the plains many people prefer going to cooler
climes during the summer months.

(a) refuge ……. scalding (b) shelter………. boiling

(c) respite…….. scorching (d) solace ………..blazing

Each pair of CAPITALIZED words given below is followed by four pairs of words. Choose
the pair which exhibits the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair

30. ROTATE: GYRATE

(a) Putrefy: Reject (b) Anachronism: Cubism

(c) Accolade: Criticism (d) Absolve: Exonerate

31. WOOL: ACRYLIC

(a) Minutes: Day (b) Cotton: Polyester

(c) India: Assam (d) Nylon Rayon

32. FISH: MERMAID

(a) Unicom: Tapestry (b) Horse: Centaur

(c) Pegasus: Fly (d) Cat: Lion

Q33 and Q34- find the meaning of the underlines phrase

33. It's a lovely house and very big but nobody uses it so it's a bit of a white elephant.

(a) something very beautiful and useful

(c) something very cheap and useless

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(b) something very big and useful

(d) something very expensive and useless

34. She never stops talking about herself and is full of herself.

(a) is very fat (b) is too fat (c) is very full (d) is very conceit

Q 35-37 Identify the incorrect part in the statement.

35. After they had finished their meal, they asked the waiter the bill.

(a) had (b) their (c) the (d) the bill

36. Most banks do not mind to lend money to young entrepreneurs.

(a) Most (b) do (c) to lend (d) to

37. Whenever they would need additional supplies, they used to contact the main
warehouse.

(a) would need (b) supplies (c) used to (d) warehouse

Q38-40 Choose the right word to fill in the blanks

38. Marian was very exhausted at the end of the day so she ....... slowly along the beach on
her way back home.

(a) paced (b) stalked (c) walked (d) strode

39. When they were younger, they used to ....... in the park with their kids every weekend.

(a) stagger (b) stroll (c) meander (d) halt

40. As Brian has his summer vacation now, he is ....... about the village all day long.

(a) striding (b) staggering (c) walking (d) sauntering

<< END OF SECTION >>

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 ANALYTICAL AND LOGICAL REASONING SECTION

DIRECTIONS: Q. 41 to 44: are based on the table and information given below.

Bankatal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week,
with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he
has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice of
what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.

The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13:

1st week 5th week 9th week 13th

week

Rest 2 3 4 -

Work 5 7 6 8

A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.

41. What is his salary for first month?

(a) 1440 (b) 2040 (c) 1320 (d) 1680

42. Referring to the data given in Q. 187, Bankatlal’s average monthly salary at the end of
the first four months will be:

(a) 1760 (b) 2040 (c) 1830 (d) 1680

43. The new manager Kushaldas stipulated that Rs.5 be deducted for every hour of rest and
Rs.25 be paid per hour starting the 9th week, then what will be the change in Bankatlal’s
salary for the 3rd month? (Hourly deductions and salaries are constant for all weeks starting
9th week).

(a) 540 (b) 480 (c) 240 (d) 0

44. Using the data in the previous questions, what will be the total earning of Bankatlal at
the end of sixteen weeks.

(a) 7320 (b) 7800 (c) 8400 (d) 7680

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DIRECTIONS: Q 45 to 49 is based on the table given below:

Machine M1 as well as Machine M2 can independently produce either Product P or Product

Q. The times taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P
and Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hours per day).

Product M1 M2

P 10 8

Q 6 6

45. What is the maximum number of units that can be manufactured in one day?

(a) 140 (b) 160 (c) 120 (d) 180

46. If the number of units of P is to be 3 times that of Q, what is the minimum idle time for
maximum total units manufactured?

(a) 0 minutes (b) 24 minutes (c) 1 hour (d) 2 hours

47. If equal quantities of both are to be produced, then out of the four choices given below,
the least efficient way would be:

(a) 48 of each with 3 minutes idle (b) 64 of each with 12 minutes idle

(c) 53 of each with 10 minutes idle (d) 71 of each with 9 minutes idle.

48. If M1 works at half its normal efficiency, what is the maximum number of units
produced, if at least one unit of each must be produced?

(a) 96 (b) 89 (c) 100 (d) 119

49. What is the least number of machine hours required to produce 30 pieces of P and 25
pieces of Q?

(a) 6 hours 30 minutes (b) 7 hours 24 minutes (c) 5 hours 48 minutes (d) 4 hours 6 minutes

DIRECTIONS for questions 50 to 53: Refer to the data and answer the questions that follow.

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Three leading drug manufacturers, Ajit Pharma, Bittu Pharma and Chinku Pharma each
launch an atipyretic drug. Each company uses all or some of the 5 components A, B, C,D and
E. the table below gives the composition of these components in their drug.

A B C D E

Ajit Pharma 12 15 20 28 25

Bittu 37 15 13 15 20
Pharma

Chinku 26 15 10 34 15
Pharam

Above value are in percentage of composition. All manufactures produce their drug as a
tablet of 300 mg.

50. The effectiveness of components A, B, C, D are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 4 : 3, while E is just a

sweetener and does not have any therapeutic. Which of the following company’s tablet is
most effective?

(a) Ajit Pharma (b) Bittu Pharma (c) ChinkuPharma (d) Data Insufficient

51. If the side effects caused by drugs are proportional to the ratio of ‘s composition to the
sum of B’s and E’s composition, which drug has least side effect.

(a) Ajit Pharma (b) Bittu Pharma (c) ChinkuPharma (d) Data Insufficient

52. Ajit Pharma finds that its sales are dipping, because it drug’s taste is too sweet. So, it
decides to decrease the composition of E and increase that C, keeping other composition
unchanged. It also wants to make sure that the side effect is not more than double its
previous value. What could be the maximum percentage of C’s composition in Ajit’s Drug?
(Use data from the previous questions if necessary).

(a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 34% (d) 37%

53. If in all, million tables are produced by these 3 companies, per annum, the consumption
of component C annually would be:

(a) 60 kg (b) 90 kg (c) 105 kg (d) Data Insufficient

54. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?

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(a) Y17O (b) X17M (c) X17O (d) X16O

55. A, G, L, P, S,?

(a) X (b) Y (c) W (d) U

Directions for Qs. 56 to 58: Refer to the following information and answer the following
questions.

Shyam Kumar multiplier is a smart mathematician. While negotiating has salary with his
prospective employer he worked out and proposed a novel salary plan, which his employer
accepted as he was one of the smartest salesmen around. According to the plan, his salary
would increase every day of his employment such that on any day his income would be two
rupees more than the square of the number of the days he has been employed for with the
company. Back home his wife Renu congratulated him on working out an excellent deal and
then together they planned their expenses in tune with the new salary plan. As they
expected their income to be increasing on a daily basis — they planned their expenses in a
way that the expenses of any day would be met by the day’s income itself, moreover they
planned to make a net saving (which would be the difference of income and the expenses of
the day) out of the day’s income. Thus they expected their expenses to be one rupee more
than twice the number of days Shyam Kumar would have been employed for on that day,
with the company.

56. On which day of his employment did Shyam Kumar Multiplier’s savings of a day exceed
Rs.100?

(a) 10th (b) 11th (c) 12th (d) 13th

57. Shyam Kumar Multiplier wanted to get into Limca Book of Records. He eyed the
category which listed the person holding the record for the maximum salary increase in a
single day. The person currently holding the record is Salim Khan who was given a raise of
Rs. 12,000 in a single day. If Shyam Kumar were to beat his record he will have to remain in
this job for a minimum of,

(a) 5999 days (b) 6000 days (c) 6001 days (d) 6002 days

58. Shyam and Renu planned to put each day’s savings into their savings bank account. They
also decided that they would regularly purchase Fixed Deposits in multiples of Rs.300 from
their savings in the account. They would purchase their first Fixed Deposit on

(a) 11th day (b) 12th day (c) 13th day (d) 14th day

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Directions for Qs. 59 – 63: Refer to the following information and answer following
questions.

Alord received a large order for stitching school uniforms from Mayflower school and Little
Flower School. He has two cutters who will cut the fabric, five tailors who will do the
stitching, and two assistants to stitch the buttons and button holes. Each of these nine
persons will work for exactly 10 hours a day. Each of the May-flower uniforms requires 20
min. for cutting the fabric, one hour for stitching, and 15 min. for stitching buttons and
button holes, whereas the Little Flower uniform requires 30 min., 1 hour, and 30 min.
respectively for these activities.

59. What is the maximum number of little Flower uniforms that A lord can complete in a
day?

(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 30

60. On particular day, Alord decided to complete 20 Little Flower uniforms. How many
Mayflower uniforms can he complete on that day?

(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 0

61. If Alord decides to complete 30 Little Flower uniforms only and no other on a particular
day, how many total man-hours will be idle?

(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 5 (d) 25

62. If he hires one more assistant, what is the maximum number of Mayflower uniforms
that he can complete in a day?

(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 30

63. A lord has the option to hire one more employee of any category. Which category
should he hire to get maximum increase in production capacity, assuming that he needs to
stitch only Mayflower uniforms on that day?

(a) Tailor (b) Cutter (c) Assistant (d) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 64 to 67:

Ghosh Babu’s new interest is psychology. He has identified various personality

patterns and given them names. These personality patterns are inter-related as
follows:

- All Alessandras, Belissimas, Cassandras, Desdemonas, Elissimas and Firdauses are Queens.

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- All Alessandras are Belissimas.
- No Belissima that is not an Alessandra is a Firdaus.
- Some Cassandras are Alessandras.
- All Desdemonas are Cassandras.
- Some Cassandras are not Belissimas.
- No Desdemona is an Alessandra.
- All Queens and only Queens that are neither Belissimas nor Cassandras are Elissimas.

64. Which of the following is true?

(1) All Firdauses are Alessandras.
(2) Some Firdauses are Alessandras.
(3) All Firdauses are either Alessandras, Cassandras or Elissimas.
(4) Some Firdauses are Cassandras.

65. Which of the following is not true?

(1) No Desdemonas are Belissimas.
(2) Some Belissimas are Desdemonas.
(3) Some Firdauses are both Belissimas and Cassandras.
(4) Some Queens are neither Belissimas nor Elissimas.

66. Which of the following cannot be said to be true or false?

I. No Belissima or Cassandra is an Elissima.
II. Some Cassandras are Belissimas but not Alessandras.
III. No Belissima is both an Alessandra and a Desdemona.
(1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I & II

67. Peter is not a Belissima, therefore,

(1) Peter is an Elissima
(2) If Peter is a Queen, he is an Elissima or Cassandra.
(3) If Peter is not an Elissima, he is a Cassandra.
(4) None of the above

DIRECTIONS for questions 68 to 70:

Answer the following questions based on the passage below.

A group of three or four has to be selected from seven persons. Among the seven are two
women, Fiza and Kavita, and five men: Ram, Shyam, David, Peter and Rahim. Ram would not
like to be in the group if Shyam is also selected. Shyam and Rahim want to be selected
together in the group. Kavita would like to be in the group only if David is also there. David,
if selected, would not like Peter in the group. Ram would like to be in the group only if Peter
is also there. David insists that Fiza be selected in case he is there in the group.

68. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Kavita and Ram can be part of a group of four.
b. A group of four can have two women.

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c. A group of four can have all four men.
d. None of the above

69. Which of the following is a feasible group of four?

a. Ram, Peter, Fiza, Rahim
b. Shyam, Rahim, Kavita, David
c. Shyam, Rahim, Fiza, David
d. Fiza, David, Ram, Peter

70. Which of the following is a feasible group of three?

a. David, Ram, Rahim
b. Peter, Shyam, Rahim
c. Kavita, David, Shyam
d. Fiza, David, Ram

DIRECTIONS for questions 71 to 73:

Mr Doubt fire has a unique way of attempting the question paper having 50 Qs. He starts
from question 1 and attempts all questions which are terms of the A. P with a common
difference of 3 in the forward direction and 3 in the reverse direction. If he reaches a stage
when he cannot attempt any more question he starts in the reverse direction with the first
unanswered question. He repeats the same process and when he reaches a stage when he
cannot process any further, he reverses his direction again
starting with the first unanswered question.

71. Which is the 20th question he answers?

(A) 50
(b) 48
(c) 47
(d) 44

72. Which is the last question that he answers if he attempts all the 50 questions?
(a) 50
(b) 49
(c) 48
(d) 3

73. How many times does he reverse his direction?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

DIRECTIONS for questions 74 and 75:

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Seeing the huge popularity of the IPL, the All India Football Federation started an IFL, to give
an impetus to the sport in the country. Eight clubs representing eight cities of the country
participate in the inaugural tournament, which comprises three stages. The first stage called
the group stage is a double round-robin stage, i.e. a stage in which every team plays exactly
two matches against each of the other teams. If any match at this stage ends as a draw,
both the teams get one point each. Otherwise the winning team gets three points and the
losing team gets no points. If, at the end of the group stage, two or more teams end up with
the same number of points, goal differences (goals scored – gaols conceded) will be applied
to determine the placings. Assume that no team end up with the same gaol difference. At
the end of this stage, the top four teams, in terms of the points scored, would advance to
the second stage, i.e. the semi-finals.

In the tournament, at the end of the group stage, it was found that no two teams finished
with the same number of points.

74. The number of draws in the group stage is at the most

(a) 52
(b) 50
(c) 48
(d) 46

75. The points scored by the team which finished with the highest points in the group stage
is at least

(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21

76. Is it wrong for doctors to lie about their patients' illnesses? Aren't doctors just like any
other people we hire to do a job for us? Surely, we would not tolerate not being told the
truth about the condition of our automobile from the mechanic we hired to fix it, or the
condition of our roof from the carpenter we employed to repair it. Just as these workers
would be guilty of violating their good faith contracts with us if they were to do this, doctors
who lie to their patients about their illnesses violate these contracts as well, and this is
clearly wrong.

The conclusion of the argument is best expressed by which of the following?

A. Doctors who lie to their patients about their illnesses ...........violate their good faith
contracts with their patients.
B. Doctors often lie to their patients about their illnesses.
C. Doctors are just hired workers like mechanics and ...........carpenters.
D. It is wrong for doctors to lie about their patients' ...........illnesses.

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 E. Doctors, like mechanics and carpenters, enter into good ...........faith contracts with
us when we hire them.

77. As any economist knows, healthy people pose less of an economic burden to society
than unhealthy people. Not surprisingly, then, every dollar our state government spends on
prenatal care for undocumented immigrants will save taxpayers of this state three dollars.

Which of the following, if true, would best explain why the statistics cited above are not
surprising?

A. The state's taxpayers pay for prenatal care of all...........immigrants.

B. Babies born in this state to undocumented immigrant...........parents are entitled to
infant care benefits from ...........the state.
C. State benefits for prenatal care serve to promote...........undocumented immigration.
D. Babies whose mothers did not receive prenatal care...........are just as healthy as
other babies.
E. Pregnant women who do not receive prenatal care are...........more likely to
experience health problems than...........other pregnant women.

78. Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about it. Just look at this city's beautiful
beaches, which are among the most overcrowded beaches in the state.

Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to the one exhibited in
the argument above?

A. Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking...........hole at the same time of
day. Therefore, moose and...........bear must grow thirsty at about the same time.
B. Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave...........more often than other
children. Hence if a child is...........not scolded severely that child is less likely to
...........misbehave.
C. This software program helps increase the work...........efficiency of its users. As a
result, these users...........have more free time for other activities.
D. During warm weather my dog suffers from fleas...........more so than during cooler
weather. Therefore, ...........fleas must thrive in a warm environment.
E. Pesticides are known to cause anaemia in some people. ...........However, most
anaemic people live in regions where...........pesticides are not commonly used.

79. Our school district should not spend its money on the new Verbal Advantage reading
program. After all, our students get all the reading practice they need by studying history
and science.

The argument above depends on which the following assumptions?

A. The Verbal Advantage program would not help the ...........students learn history and
science.

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 B. Other reading programs are just as effective but ...........less expensive than the
Verbal Advantage program.
C. The Verbal Advantage program involves only reading ...........practice.
D. Teaching students history and science is more ...........important than teaching them
reading skills.
E. The students can already read well enough to ...........study history and science

80. A study of native born residents in Newland found that two-thirds of the children
developed considerable levels of near-sightedness after starting school, while their illiterate
parents and grandparents, who had no opportunity for formal schooling, showed no signs of
this disability.

If the above statements are true, which of the following conclusions is most strongly
supported by them?

A. Only people who have the opportunity for formal ...........schooling develop near-
sightedness.
B. People who are illiterate do not suffer from ...........near-sightedness.
C. The near-sightedness in the children is caused by the ...........visual stress required by
reading and other class work.
D. Only literate people are near-sighted.
E. One-third of the children are illiterate.

<<END OF SECTION>>

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 QUANTITATIVE, DATA INTERPRETATION AND SUFFICIENCY
SECTION
DIRECTIONS for Q. 81 to 87: The table below provides the data for production of ferrous
and nonferrous metals in million dollars for the year 1990 and % change for the three
periods for the entire world and region wise.

Value1 Non-Ferrous Metals Region Metals Value Ferrous

990

Annual %change 1990 Annual %change

1980 1989 1990 1980-90 1989 1990

-90

8660 6 4 11 World 11350 6 4 12

2308 8 7 15 Asia 2590 8 10 23

670 5 8 14 Japan 665 5 11 20

348 15 6 18 China + HK + 393 15 18 28

Taiwan

908 9 8 19 Asian 1075 8 11 25

1408 7 5 11 North America 2632 9 11 17

502 9 7 18 Latin America 678 12 -3 15

3415 4 0 3 Western Europe 4490 4 1 5

3151 4 0 2 European Union 4133 4 2 5

(15)

378 7 0 24 C./E Europe/ Baltic 423 5 -12 13

States/USSR

162 8 1 14 Central Europe 255 10 -1 13

147 - 1 34 USSR 80 - -23 12

203 3 10 27 Africa 297 4 -3 7

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368 7 28 46 Middle East 300 6 1 14

81. In which of the following regions production of Non-ferrous metals exceeded that of
ferrous metals in 1989?

(a) ASEAN (b) China + HK + Taiwan (c) Japan (d) Middle East

82. What was the following regions production of Ferrous metals in million dollars by
developing economies of Asia in 1990 (In Asia Japan is the only developed economy)?

(a) 1256 (b) 1568 (c) 1925 (d) 1638

83. Which of the following values is closest to world production of ferrous metals in the year
1988 (million dollars)?

(a) 13200 (b) 9000 (c) 7500 (d) 9750

84. What percentage of the world production of non-ferrous metals was contributed by
non-EU countries of Western European in 1980?

(a) 6% (b) 36% (c) 3% (d) Indeterminate

85. What was the CAGR of ferrous metals production between the year 1988-90 in USSR,
Central/East Central/East Europe, European Union, Batlic States and non-EU-Western
Europe economies?

(a) 2% (b) 4.1% (c) 3% (d) 0.40%

86. Which of the following is not true?

(a) None ferrous metals production as a percentage of ferrous metals production in the year
1990 was highest for USSR.

(b) China accounted for less than 4 percent of all metals production in 1990.

(c) Africa contributed to less than 2 percent of all metals production in 1990.

(d) USSR witnessed the second highest annual rate of growth on non-ferrous metals
production in 1990.

87. What is value of total metals production of Western of Western Europe in 1988 (million
dollars)?

(a) 7730 (b) 7550 (c) 7900 (d) 8300

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DIRECTIONS for questions 88 to 92: Each of the following questions is followed by two
statements.

Mark [a], if the question can be answered by using any of the statements alone but not by
using the other statement alone.

Mark [b], if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

Mark [c], if the question can be answered by using both the statements together.

Mark [d], if the question cannot be answered.

88. Is y a perfect square where x and y are natural numbers?

I. y is divisible by (x+1) and (x+2)

II. y <200

89. Is a bag there are less than 40 marbles which are red, blue and black in colour. What is
the probability of picking a black marble?

I The probability of drawing a blue marble is 1/3.

II. The probability of drawing a red marble is 1/24.

90. If 102 is perfectly divisible by a natural number x, what is the value of x?

I. x + 17 is divisible 3. II. X + 2is divisible by 4

91. The sum of the prices of 2 shares X and Y is Rs.160. what is the price of Y?

III. When there is an increase of 10% in one of these of the shares and a decrease of 55 in
the other, there is a change of Rs.6 in Y.

IV. 50 < x < 130

92. In ΔABC. ∠A =700. What is the value of ∠C?

I. ∠A -∠C < ∠B - ∠C II. B2 + C2 = 7300

Directions for questions 93 to 98: The following table gives the enrolment in Higher
Secondary Schools in 1978. Study the table carefully and answer these questions.

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 Enrolment No. of Schools

20-39 526

40-59 620

60-79 674

80-99 717

100-119 681

120-139 612

140-159 540

160-179 517

180-199 522

Total 5439

93. What is the approximate percentage of schools, where the enrolment was below 120?

(a) 59.16 (b) 59.27 (c) 60 (d) 61

94. What is the approximate percentage of schools, where the enrolment was above 79 but
below 180?

(a) 56 (b) 56.39 (c) 57 (d) 55

95. Under which class does the maximum number of schools fall?

(a) 100-119 (b) 80-99 (c) 60-79 (d) None of these

96. What is the approximate percentage of the least number of schools for the classes of
enrolment?

(a) 8 (b) 9.5 (c) 9 (d) 10

97. What is the number of schools where the enrolment is above 99 but below 160?

(a) 2550 (b) 2033 (c) 1833 (d) 1316

98. What is the average enrolment per H.S. School?

(a) 107.87 (b) 217.60 (c) 109.5 (d) 106.33

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99. A group of workers was put on a job. From the second day onwards one worker was
withdrawn each day. The work was finished when the last worker was withdrawn. If no
worker was withdrawn at any stage, the group would have finished the job in two-thirds
time. How many workers were there in the group?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 12

100. A can is full of paint. Out of this 5 litres are removed and thinning liquid substituted.
The process is repeated. Now the ratio of paint to thinner is 49:15. What is the full capacity
of the can?

(a) 20 litres
(b) 60 litres
(c) 40 litres
(d) 50 litres

101. The ratio of sum of squares of first n natural numbers with square of sum of first n
natural numbers is 17: 325, the value of n is

(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 35
(d) None of these

102. A is greater than B by 15%. B is greater than C by 7 1/2 %. Find the value of A when C =
92.

(a) 112.53
(b) 113.73
(c) 114.33
(d) 115.15

103. If 1 man or 2 women or 3 boys can do a piece of work in 44 days, then the same work
will be done by 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy in:

(a) 21 days
(b) 24 days
(c) 26 days
(d) 33 days

104. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and in container 2, they are in
the ratio 1 : 3. In what ratio should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to
obtain a mixture of A and B in the ratio 1: 1?

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(a) 2 : 3
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 : 4

105. If a carton containing a dozen mirrors is dropped, which of the following cannot be the
ratio of broken mirrors to unbroken mirrors?

(a) 2: 1
(b) 3: 1
(c) 3: 2
(d) 7: 5

106. A can complete a job in 9 days, B in 10 days and C in 15 days. B and C start the work
and are forced to leave after 2 days. The time taken to complete the remaining work is:

(a) 6 days
(b) 9 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 13 days

107. How many consecutive zeros would be there at the end of 626! - 625!?

(a) 156
(b) 160
(c) 5
(d) None of these

108. In a 500 metres race, the ratio of speeds of two contestants A and B is 3: 4. A has a
start of 140 metres. Then, A wins by :

(a) 60 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 20 metres
(d) 10 metres

109. A vessel contains 40 litres of milk; the milkman delivers 10 litres to the first house, and
adds an equal quantity of water. He does exactly the same at the 2nd and 3rd houses. What
is the ratio of milk and water when he has finished delivering at the third house?

(a) 27:37
(b) 26:38
(c) 1:4
(d) None of these

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110. About the number of pairs which have 16 as their H.C.F. and 136 as their
L.C.M., we can definitely say that:

(a) Only one such pair exists

(b) Only two such pairs exist
(c) Many such pairs exist
(d) No such pairs exist

<< END OF SECTION >>

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 GENERAL AWARENESS SECTION
111. Which car manufacture makes the engine for the Force India F1 team?

a. Renault

b. Ferrari

c. Cosworth

d. Mercedes Benz

112. Which from the following rivers does not originate in Indian territory?

a. Mahanadi

b. Brahmaputra

c. Ravi

d. Chenab

113. Which of the following uses non-conventional Source of Energy?

a. Kerosene lamp

b. Wax candle

c. Solar lantern

d. Torch

114. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of

a. Tin

b. Lead

c. Zinc

d. Chromium

115. The Abbreviation NAEP stands for

a. National Atomic Energy Planning

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b. National Adult education Programme

c. National Authority on Engineering Projects

d. Nuclear and Atomic Energy Project

116. The Abbreviations PSLV stands for

a. Polar Survey Landing Vehicle

b. Polarised Source Laser Viewing

c. Precise Source Locating Vision

d. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle

117. In banking ATM stands for

a. Automated Tallying Machine

b. Automatic Teller Machine

c. Automated Totalling Machine

d. Automated Transaction of Money

118. Who is the chairman of senior selection committee in BCCI?

a. Sunil Gavaskar

b. Dilip Vengasarkar

c. Kiran More

d. K Srikkanth

119. Which of the following keys of personal computer is not available in the key board of
traditional typewriters?

a. Tab

b. Spacebar

c. Enter

d. Backspace

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120. Indian Broadcasting Service was renamed in 1936 as
a. Doordarshan

b. All India Radio

c. MTNL

d. None of the above

121. My Country My Life is the book authored by which India politician?

a. Jairam Ramesh

b. Abdul Kalam

c. L K Advani

d. Manmohan Singh

122. June 5th is celebrated as

a. International Women's Day

b. World Environment Day

c. World Literacy Day

d. World Tourism Day

123. September 8th is celebrated as

a. International Women's Day

b. World Environment Day

c. World Literacy Day

d. World Tourism Day

124. Which country is also referred to as the "Country of Copper"?

a. Pakistan

b. India

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c. Zambia

d. United States of America

125. The name given to the border which separates Pakistan and Afghanistan is:

a. Palk Strait

b. Khyber Pass

c. Durand Line

d. Afghan Pass

126. The country which is the largest producer of rubber in the world:

a. India

b. USA

c. Malaysia

d. Indonesia

127. In which year did Mahatma Gandhi launch The Dandi March?

a. 1924

b. 1930

c. 1941

d. 1942

128. Which is the second highest peak in India?

a. Kanchenjunga

b. Nanda Devi

c. Gasher Brum

d. Dunagiri

129. Which is the largest airport in the world?

a. Singapore airport

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b. International airport at Kaula Lumpur

c. Heathrow at London

d. King Khalid at Saudi Arabia

130. Who was the first Prime Minister of Great Britain?

a. Richard Travithick

b. Robert Walpole

c. Sir George Cayley

d. Robert Peary

131. Iodex brand of pain balm is owned by

a. Glaxo Smithkline Beecham

b. P&G

c. HUL

d. Dr. Reddy’s Laboratories

132. Who is the author who created the character Dilbert?

a. David Scott

b. Scott Robert

c. Robert Williams

d. Scott Adams

133. Who is the first known man to have designed a Parachute?

a. Leonardo da Vinci

b. Scanderberg

c. Sigismund

d. Van Gogh

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134. Cash Reserve Ratio ( CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR ) are terms most closely
related to which of the following industries/markets:

a. Stock Exchange

b. Banking

c. Mutual Fund

d. Income Tax

135. Which group owns Crompton Greaves?

a. Mittals

b. Ruias

c. Thapars

d. Ranas

136. Henry Ford revolutionised the car market with the first mass- produced car, the Ford
Model T. In which year was it launched?

a. 1924

b. 1912

c. 1908

d. 1897

137. Which organisation is the world’s largest employer?

a. General Motors

b. General Electric

c. China Electric Company

d. Indian Railways

138. Which industrial family owns the majority stake in the successful Hero group, a
leader in the motorcycle segment in the country?

a. Hinduja

b. Munjal

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c. Firodia

d. Singhania

139. Which company launched the first mobile phone operation in India?

a. Bharti Airtel

b. Essar

c. Max Touch

d. Modi Telstra

140. Starbucks, the coffee chain retailer's name is inspired from which book
a. Mobydick

b. Tom Sawyer

c. Oliver Twist

d. Charles Dickens

141. Name the country which shares the independence day on same day as that of India

a. Pakistan

b. Bangladesh

c. South Korea

d. Japan

142. The country known as the land of the midnight sun is:

a. Japan

b. Finland

c. Norway

d. Sweden

143. In the world of sports, the sobriquet ‘Indo-Pak Express' is applied to

a. Rohan Bopanna and Aisam –UI-Haq Quareshi

b. Shoaib Akthar and Zaheer Khan

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c. Sania Mirza and Shoaib Malik

d. None of the above

144. Lord Dalhousie introduced the first telegraph line in 1853, which ran between

a. Mumbai and Calcutta

b. Calcutta and Agra

c. Mumbai and Thana

d. Mumbai and Chennai

145. When there is one buyer and many sellers in a market – what is this situation called?

a. Monopoly

b. Monopsony

c. Monotony

d. Oligopoly

146. Which automobile major has made a debut in the Formula One racing circuit in 2002
with its team led by the drivers Allan McNish and Mike Salo?

a. Honda

b. Jaguar

c. Saab

d. Toyota

147. What does a Phillumenist collect?

a. Old coins

b. Flags of various nations

c. Match box labels

d. Empty cigarette boxes

148. What famous car brand, originally from the former Czechoslovakia, was taken over
by Volkswagen in the 1990s?

a. Skoda

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b. Saab

c. Piaggio

d. Volvo

149. What famous brand name is derived from a combination of two words, which mean
‘dead’ in French and ‘one’ in German?

a. Dettol

b. Mortein

c. Martini

d. Ritter

150. Which is the longest running stage play in the world?

a. The Cats

b. The Mouse Trap

c. Fiddler on the roof

d. Romeo & Juliet

<< END OF SECTION >>

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 SOLUTION
1 (b) 41 (a) 81 (c) 121 (c)
2 (c) 42 (c) 82 (c) 122 (b)
3 (c) 43 (b) 83 (d) 123 (c)
4 (b) 44 (b) 84 (c) 124 (c)
5 (d) 45 (b) 85 (c) 125 (c)
6 (b) 46 (a) 86 (c) 126 (c)
7 (a) 47 (c) 87 (b) 127 (b)
8 (c) 48 (d) 88 (d) 128 (b)
9 (a) 49 (a) 89 (c) 129 (d)
10 (d) 50 (b) 90 (c) 130 (b)
11 (a) 51 (c) 91 (c) 131 (a)
12 (a) 52 (b) 92 (c) 132 (d)
13 (c) 53 (d) 93 (a) 133 (a)
14 (b) 54 (c) 94 (b) 134 (b)
15 (a) 55 (d) 95 (b) 135 (c)
16 (a) 56 (c) 96 (b) 136 (c)
17 (d) 57 (c) 97 (c) 137 (d)
18 (a) 58 (a) 98 (d) 138 (b)
19 (c) 59 (c) 99 (b) 139 (d)
20 (d) 60 (a) 100 (c) 140 (a)
21 (d) 61 (b) 101 (b) 141 (c)
22 (c) 62 (b) 102 (b) 142 (c)
23 (d) 63 (a) 103 (b) 143 (a)
24 (d) 64 (c) 104 (d) 144 (b)
25 (d) 65 (a) 105 (c) 145 (b)
26 (b) 66 (b) 106 (a) 146 (d)
27 (b) 67 (b) 107 (b) 147 (c)
28 (c) 68 (d) 108 (c) 148 (a)
29 (c) 69 (c) 109 (a) 149 (b)
30 (d) 70 (b) 110 (d) 150 (b)
31 (d) 71 (d) 111 (d)
32 (b) 72 (b) 112 (c)
33 (d) 73 (a) 113 (c)
34 (d) 74 (c) 114 (c)
35 (d) 75 (b) 115 (b)
36 (c) 76 (d) 116 (d)
37 (a) 77 (e) 117 (b)
38 (d) 78 (d) 118 (d)
39 (b) 79 (c) 119 (c)
40 (d) 80 (c) 120 (b)

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 FOR MORE QUESTIONS PLEASE VISIT,

www.sibmpune.edu.in/iaspire/

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