Akash 2010

DATE : 25/04/2010
Code - A
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 hrs.
Solutions Max. Marks: 432
for
AIEEE 2010
(Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics)
Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet,
take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432.
5. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as
under for each correct response.
Part A – PHYSICS (144 marks) –Questions No. 1 to 20 and 23 to 26 consist of FOUR (4) marks
each and Questions No. 21 to 22 and 27 to 30 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each
correct response.
Part B – CHEMISTRY (144 marks) – Questions No. 31 to 39 and 43 to 57 consist of FOUR (4)
marks each and Questions No. 40 to 42 and 58 to 60 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for
each correct response.
Part C – MATHEMATICS (144 marks) – Questions No. 61 to 66, 70 to 83 and 87 to 90 consist of
FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 67 to 69 and 84 to 86 consist of EIGHT (8)
marks each for each correct response
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the
answer sheet.
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the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report
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AIEEE - 2010 (Code-A)
PART–A : PHYSICS
Directions : Questions number 1-3 are based on the following Directions : Questions number 4-5 are based on the following
paragraph. paragraph.
An initially parallel cylindrical beam travels in a A nucleus of mass M + Δm is at rest and decays
medium of refractive index μ(I) = μ0 + μ2I, where μ0
M
and μ2 are positive constants and I is the intensity into two daughter nuclei of equal mass each.
of the light beam. The intensity of the beam is 2
decreasing with increasing radius. Speed of light is c.
1. The initial shape of the wavefront of the beam is 4. The speed of daughter nuclei is
(1) Planar
Δm Δm
(2) Convex (1) c (2) c
M + Δm M + Δm
(3) Concave
(4) Convex near the axis and concave near the 2 Δm Δm
(3) c (4) c
periphery M M
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
Sol. As the beam is initially parallel, the shape of Sol. Energy released Q = Δmc2
wavefront is planar.
1⎛ M ⎞ 1⎛ M ⎞
2. The speed of light in the medium is Q = ⎜ ⎟ v2 + ⎜ ⎟ v2
2⎝ 2 ⎠ 2⎝ 2 ⎠
(1) Maximum on the axis of the beam
M 2
(2) Minimum on the axis of the beam Δmc 2 =
2
v
td .)
(3) The same everywhere in the beam
e sL
2 Δm rvic
(4) Directly proportional to the intensity I v= ec
aMl S
Ans. (2)
a t i on
Sol. Given μ = μ0 + μ2I 5. d ucThe binding energy per nucleon for the parent
h E nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is E2.
c
Also, μ = ⇒ v =
c
a k as Then
μ0 + μ2 I fA
no
v
As intensity is maximum at centre, so v isio minimum (1) E1 = 2 E2 (2) E2 = 2 E1
on the axis. i vi s
(D (3) E1 > E2 (4) E2 > E1
3. As the beam enters the medium, it will
Ans. (4)
(1) Travel as a cylindrical beam
Sol. As energy is released, binding energy per nucleon of
(2) Diverge products is more than that of reactants.
(3) Converge ⇒ E2 > E1.
(4) Diverge near the axis and converge near the
periphery Directions : Questions number 6-7 contain Statement-I and
Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
Ans. (3)
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Sol. As the beam enters the medium, axial ray will travel
slowest. So, it will lag behind. To compensate for the 6. Statement-1 : When ultraviolet light is incident on
path, the rays will bend towards axis. a photocell, its stopping potential is V0 and the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is
K max. When the ultraviolet light is replaced by
X-rays, both V0 and Kmax increase.
axial ray
Statement-2 : Photoelectrons are emitted with
speeds ranging from zero to a maximum value
because of the range of frequencies present in the
incident light.
Aakash IIT-JEE - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No. 4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-75 Ph.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472
(2)

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false Ans. (3)
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Sol. I = Δp = m|Δv| = 0.4 × (1 + 1) = 0.8 Ns
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1 9. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart.
They carry steady equal currents flowing out of the
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
plane of the paper as shown. The variation of the
Statement-2 is the not the correct explanation of
Statement-1 magnetic field B along the line XX′ is given by
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

B
Ans. (1)
Sol. X-rays frequency is more than that of UV rays. So,
(1) X X′
KEmax and stopping potential increase. Statement-2
is incorrect. Photoelectrons are emitted with a range
d d
of kinetic energies because different electrons have
different binding energies.
7. Statement-1 : Two particles moving in the same
direction do not lose all their energy in a completely B
inelastic collision.
Statement-2 : Principle of conservation of (2) X X′

momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.
d d
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false

Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
td .)B
Statement-1
e sL
e rvic
lS
(3) X a X′
Statement-2 is the not the correct explanation of
a t i on
Statement-1
d u c
hE
d d
k as
fA a
no
Ans. (2)
io
i vis all their
Sol. If the particle moving in same direction lose
D
B
energy, final momentum will become (zero, whereas
initial momentum is not zero. (4) X X′
8. The figure shows the position–time (x-t) graph of
d d
one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4 kg.
The magnitude of each impulse is Ans. (2)
Sol. Taking up as positive, in region 1, field will remain
negative, and as one moves from –∞ to A, field
x (m) increases in magnitude from zero to large value.
2
(1) A (2) B (3)
I I
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
t (s)
As one moves from A to B, field changes sign from
positive to negative, becoming zero at mid point. As
(1) 0.2 Ns (2) 0.4 Ns
one moves in region 3, from B to +∞, field decreases
(3) 0.8 Ns (4) 1.6 Ns from a large value to zero.
(3)

10. A ball is made of a material of density ρ where
dq
ρoil < ρ < ρwater with ρoil and ρwater representing the
densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and
water are immiscible. If the above ball is in θ + dθ
θ
equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water,
which of the following pictures represents its θ (0, 0)
equilibrium positions?
dE
q
Now, dq = dθ
π
Oil Water π
q –q
(1) (2) E= –∫ 2 2
sin θ dθ ˆj = ˆj
0 4π ε 0 r 2 π 2 ε0 r 2
Water Oil
12. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine as
the working substance. If during the adiabatic
expansion part of the cycle the volume of the gas
increases from V to 32 V, the efficiency of the
engine is
Oil Water (1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
(3) (4)
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.99
Water Oil Ans. (3)
Sol. For adiabatic expansion
Ans. (3) T1V1γ –1 = T2V2γ –1
td .)
Sol. ρ > ρoil , ball must sink in oil alone.
T1 ⎛ V2 ⎞ ice
γ –1 sL
= ⎜ e⎟ rv = ( 32 ) 5 – 1 = (32)2/5 = 4
7
As ρ < ρwater , ball must float in water.
T2 ⎝ lVS
1 ⎠
a
11. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive
a t i on
charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field d c
uη = 1–
T2 1
= 1 – = 0.75
s hE T1 4
E at the centre O is
a ka
o f A 13. The respective number of significant figures for the
n
^j
v i si o numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are
(D i (1) 4, 4, 2 (2) 5, 1, 2
(3) 5, 1, 5 (4) 5, 5, 2
^
i Ans. (2)
O
Sol. 23.023 → 5
q ˆj q
(1) (2) ˆj 0.0003 → 1
2 π2 ε 0 r 2 4 π2 ε 0 r 2
2.1 × 10–3 → 2
q q ˆj 14. The combination of gates shown below yields
(3) – ˆj (4) –
2
4 π ε0 r 2 2 π ε0 r 2
2
A
Ans. (4)
X
Sol. By symmetry, ∫ dE cos θ =0
B
E = – ∫ dE sin θ ˆj
(1) NAND gate (2) OR gate
⎡ dq ⎤ (3) NOT gate (4) XOR gate

E = – ⎢∫ 2
sin θ ⎥ ˆj
⎣ 4 πε 0 r ⎦ Ans. (2)
(4)

Sol. Charge enclosed by a Gaussian sphere of radius
A r(< R) is
A
A· B = A + B r
Sol. ⎛5 r ⎞
NOT =A+B Qin = ∫ ρ dV = ∫ ρ 0 ⎜ – ⎟ 4πr 2 dr
0 ⎝4 R⎠
B NAND r
B ⎡5 r 3 4 πr 4 ⎤
= ρ0 ⎢ × 4 π – ⎥
NOT ⎣4 3 4R ⎦0
15. If a source of power 4 kW produces 1020 photons/ ⎡5 πr 4 ⎤

= ρ0 ⎢ πr 3 – ⎥
second, the radiation belongs to a part of the ⎣3 R ⎦
spectrum called
Qin ρ r ⎡5 r ⎤
(1) γ-rays (2) X-rays E= = 0 ⎢ – ⎥
4 πε0 r 2
4ε 0 ⎣ 3 R ⎦
(3) Ultraviolet rays (4) Microwaves 18. In a series LCR circuit R = 200 Ω and the voltage
Ans. (2) and the frequency of the main supply is 220 V and
50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance
Sol. P = nhν from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage
4 × 103 = 1020 × 6.63 × 10–34 × ν by 30º. On taking out the inductor from the circuit
the current leads the voltage by 30º. The power
4 dissipated in the LCR circuit is
ν= × 10 17 Hz . This is range of X-rays.
6.63 (1) 242 W (2) 305 W
16. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A (3) 210 W (4) 0 W
and atomic number Z) emits 3 α-particles and Ans. (1)
2 positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that
Sol. The series LCR will be in resonance
of protons in the final nucleus will be
So, P = εvIvcosφ td .)
A–Z– 4 A–Z–8 e sL
(1) (2) ε 2vic
cos φ =Sevr
εv 2
Z–2 Z–4 =
Z al R
A–Z– 4 a t i on
uc(220)
A – Z – 12
(3) (4) d
2
48400
Z–8 Z–4
hE = = = 242 W
k as
200 200
f Aa
Ans. (3)
o
n are
19. In the circuit shown below, the key K is closed at
isisio lost, 1
Sol. For each α emission, 2 proton and 2 neutron t = 0. The current through the battery is
i
lost. For each position emission, 1 proton v
neutron is increased
(D V K
np = Z – 2 × 3 – 2 × 1 = Z – 8
nn = (A – Z) – 2 × 3 + 2 = A – Z – 4 L R1
17. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge R2

distribution with charge density varying as
⎛5 r ⎞ V ( R1 + R2 ) V
ρ( r ) = ρ0 ⎜ – ⎟ upto r = R, and ρ(r) = 0 for r > R, (1) at t = 0 and at t = ∞
⎝4 R⎠ R1 R2 R2
where r is the distance from the origin. The electric
field at a distance r(r < R) from the origin is given VR1 R2 V
by (2) at t = 0 and at t = ∞
R12 + R22 R2
ρ0 r ⎛ 5 r ⎞ 4 πρ0 r ⎛ 5 r ⎞
– – V V ( R1 + R2 )
3ε0 ⎜⎝ 4 R ⎟⎠ 3ε0 ⎜⎝ 3 R ⎟⎠
(1) (2)
(3) at t = 0 and at t = ∞
R2 R1 R2
ρ0 r ⎛5 r ⎞ 4ρ 0 r ⎛ 5 r ⎞ V VR1 R2
(3)
4 ε0 ⎜3– R⎟ (4) –
3ε0 ⎜⎝ 4 R ⎟⎠ (4) at t = 0 and at t = ∞
⎝ ⎠ R2 R12 + R22
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
(5)

Sol. At t = 0, no current flows through inductor 22. A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of
length l and resistance R Ω and it is moving with a
V speed v as shown. The set-up is placed in a uniform
So, I =
R2 magnetic field going into the plane of the paper.
The three currents I1, I2 and I are
At t = ∞, inductor behaves as a conductor
P l
V
So, I =
( R1 R2 )
( R1 + R2 )
v
RΩ RΩ RΩ
20. A particle is moving with velocity v = K yiˆ + xjˆ , ( ) I I2

where K is a constant. The general equation for its
path is I1 Q
(1) y2 = x2 + constant Blv Blv
(1) I 1 = I 2 = ,I=
(2) y = x2 + constant 6R 3R
(3) y2 = x + constant Blv 2 Blv

(2) I 1 = – I 2 = ,I=
(4) xy = constant R R
Ans. (1) Blv 2 Blv

(3) I 1 = I 2 = ,I=
3R 3R
dx dy
Sol. = Ky ; = Kx Blv
dt dt (4) I 1 = I 2 = I =
R
td .)
dy x
= ⇒ ydy = xdx
Ans. (3)
e sL
dx y Sol.
e rvic
a lS
⇒ y2 = x2 + constant
a t i on
u c I1 I I2
21. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor discharging Ed ε = Bvl
through a resistor R. Suppose t1 is the time taken ash
for the energy stored in the capacitor to reduce f A atok R R
o
half its initial value and t2 is the time taken
i s i on for the R
iv value. Then
charge to reduce to one-fourth its initial
(D
t
the ratio 1 will be
t2 ε
2ε
I= =
(1) 2 (2) 1 R 3R
R+
2
1 1 ε ε
I1 = , I2 =
(3) (4) 3R 3R
2 4
where ε = Bvl
Ans. (4)
23. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass
q 2 (q0 )2 –2 t /RC density 0.04 kg m–1 is given by
Sol. U = = e = U 0 e –2t /RC
2C 2C
⎡ ⎛ t x ⎞⎤
y = 0.02(m)sin ⎢ 2 π ⎜ – ⎟⎥ .
q = q0 e – t /RC
⎣⎢ ⎝ 0.04(s ) 0.50(m ) ⎠ ⎦⎥
The tension in the string is
1 1
When charge becomes times, energy becomes (1) 6.25 N (2) 4.0 N
4 16
times. (3) 12.5 N (4) 0.5 N
So, t1 = one half life, while t2 = 4 half lives Ans. (1)
(6)

⎛ 2π ⎞ –v 2 v2
Sol. a = cos θ iˆ – sin θ ˆj
ω ⎜⎝ 0.04 ⎟⎠ 0.50 R R
Sol. v = = = = 12.5 m/s
k ⎛ 2π ⎞ 0.04
⎜ 0.50 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ (R, θ)
θ
a
θ
T
v= ⇒ T = μv 2 = (12.5)2 × 0.04
μ
= 6.25 N
24. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an 26. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle
angle 30º and 60º with the vertical are shown in the θ with the x-axis with an initial velocity v0 in the
figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two x-y plane as shown in the figure. At a time
planes. What is the relative vertical acceleration of v0 sin θ
A with respect to B? t< , the angular momentum of the particle is
g
A y
B v0
θ
x
60º 30º
mg v0 t 2 cos θ iˆ td.)(2) –mg v0 t 2 cos θ ˆj
(1) 4.9 ms–2 in vertical direction 1
(1)
2 sLe
rvic
(2) 4.9 ms–2 in horizontal direction
(3) 9.8 ms–2 in vertical direction lS e 1
(3) mgnva ˆ (4) – mg v0 t cos θ kˆ
2
0 t cos θ k
a ti o 2
du c
(4) Zero
Ans. (1) E
h where
ka s î , ĵ and k̂ are unit vectors along x, y and
Sol. a A(along vertical) = g sin 60º
2
f A a z-axis respectively
o
is i on Ans. (4)
aB(along vertical) = g sin 2 30º v
(D i Sol. Angular momentum, L = ∫ τ dt
⎛3 1⎞ g
⇒ a( A /B ) along vertical = g ⎜ – ⎟ = = 4.9 m/s
2
⎝ 4 4 ⎠ 2
L = – ∫ mg x dt kˆ
25. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the
acceleration a at a point P(R, θ) on the circle of = – ∫ mg v0 cos θ t dt kˆ
radius R is (Here θ is measured from the x-axis)
mg v0 cos θ t 2 ˆ
v2 ˆ v2 ˆ = – k
(1) i+ j 2
R R
27. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by
v2 v2 strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle
(2) – cos θ iˆ + sin θ ˆj of 30° with each other. When suspended in a liquid
R R
of density 0.8 g cm–3, the angle remains the same. If
v2 v2 density of the material of the sphere is 1.6 g cm–3, the
(3) – sin θ iˆ + cos θ ˆj
R R dielectric constant of the liquid is
(1) 1 (2) 4
v2 v2
(4) – cos θ iˆ – sin θ ˆj (3) 3 (4) 2
R R
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
(7)

(12)2 144
Sol. ⇒ ac = = = 7.2 m/s
20 20
θ
dv
T = 12 m/s 2
F dt
mg a= ac2 + at2 = 12 2 + (7.2)2
≈ 14 m/s2
For equilibrium, F = mg tanθ
29. The potential energy function for the force between
in oil F ′ = mg ′ tan θ two atoms in a diatomic molecule is approximately
a b
F g 1 given by U ( x ) = −
, where a and b are
= ⇒k= x x6 12
F′ g′ ⎛ ρ⎞
⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟⎠ constants and x is the distance between the atoms.
σ
If the dissociation energy of the molecule is D =
[U(x = ∞) – Uat equilibrium], D is
1
= =2
1−
0.8 b2 b2
(1) (2)
1.6 6a 2a
28. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on b2 b2

a circular path as shown in the figure. The (3) (4)
12 a 4a
movement of P is such that it sweeps out a length
s = t3 + 5, where s is in metres and t is in seconds. Ans. (4) td .)
The radius of the path is 20 m. The acceleration of
ce sL
P when t = 2 s is nearly brvi
−e
a
Sol. U = 12l S 6
xna x
y a ti o
E du c dU
B
sh At equilibrium =0
P(x, y)
fA a ka dx
o
i on
m
−12 a
is 6b
20
x(D
iv ⇒
x 13
+
x7
=0
O A
12 a 6b
(1) 14 m/s2 (2) 13 m/s2 ⇒ 13
=
x x7
(3) 12 m/s2 (4) 7.2 m/s2
6 2a
Ans. (1) ⇒ x =
b
Sol. S = t3 + 5
a b
⇒ U (at equilibrium) = −
dS ⎛ 2a ⎞
2
⎛ 2a ⎞
= 3t 2 ⎜⎝ ⎟
dt ⎜⎝ ⎟ b ⎠
b ⎠
v = 3t2
b 2 b 2 −b 2
dv = − =
= 6t 4a 2 a 4a
dt
At x = ∞ , U = 0
At t = 2 s
b2
v = 12 m/s ⇒ D=
4a
(8)

30. Two conductors have the same resistance at 0°C but Sol. RS = R1 + R2
their temperature coefficients of resistance are α1 and
α2. The respective temperature coefficients of their dRS dR1 dR2
= + ; Rα s = R1 α 1 + R2 α 2
series and parallel combinations are nearly dT dT dT
As R1 = R2 ⇒ R = R1 + R2 = 2R1
α1 + α2 α1 + α2
(1) , α1 + α 2
2 2 ⇒ α=
2
α 1 + α2 1 1 1
(2) , α1 + α 2 = +
2 RP R1 R2
1 dRP 1 dR1 1 dR2

α1 + α 2 = 2 + 2
(3) α 1 + α 2 , RP2 dT
R1 dT R2 dT
2
αP α1 α 2
α 1α 2 = +
RP R1 R2
(4) α 1 + α 2 , α + α
1 2
α1 + α 2
⇒ αP =
Ans. (1) 2
PART–B : CHEMISTRY
31. In aqueous solution the ionisation constants for 5 × 10–13 = 0.05 × x

carbonic acid are
x = 10–11 M
td .)
K1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and K2 = 4.8 × 10–11 sL
e is (120 × 10–11) or 1.2 × 10–9 g/L
∴ Solubility oficKBr
Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M e rv
S
solution of the carbonic acid. 33. The correct
t i o nal sequence which shows decreasing order
(1) The concentration of H+ is double that of CO 23 −
d u ca
of the ionic radii of the elements is
E (1) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
(2) The concentration of CO 23 − is 0.034 M
ak as h (2) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
fA
(3) The concentration of CO23 − is greater than othat
io n (3) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2– > F–
of HCO 3−
vi s
(D i (4) Na+ > F– > Mg2+ > O2– > Al3+
(4) The concentrations of H+ and HCO 3− are
Ans. (1)
approximately equal
2– – + 2+ 3+
Ans. (4) Sol. O > F > Na > Mg > Al

Sol. Since K2 < < K1 Decreasing ionic radii with increasing effective
nuclear charge for isoelectronic species.
∴ Conc. of H+ and HCO 3− are approximately
same. 34. In the chemical reactions,
32. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 × 10–13. The NH2
quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken as NaNO HBF
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 2
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
4
→B
120 g mol–1) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of HCl , 278 K
silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is
the compounds 'A' and 'B' respectively are
(1) 5.0 × 10–8 g (2) 1.2 × 10–10 g
(1) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
(3) 1.2 × 10–9 g (4) 6.2 × 10–5 g
(2) Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
Ans. (3) (3) Phenol and benzene
Sol. [Ag+] = 0.05, [Br–] = x M
(4) Benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
Ksp = [Ag+] [Br–] Ans. (4)
(9)

Ans. (3)
NH2 N ≡ NCl F Sol. ΔTf = i Kfm
NaNO2 HBF4
Sol. i for Na2SO4 is 3(100% ionisation)
HCl , 278 K Δ
Benzene diazonium Fluorobenzene 0.01
chloride ΔTf = 3 × 1.86 ×
1
35. If 10–4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3 ΔTf = 0.0558 K
flask at 300 K, how many moles of water are in the
vapour phase when equilibrium is established?
38. Three reactions involving H2 PO −4 are given below
(Given : Vapour pressure of H 2 O at 300 K is
3170 Pa; R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1) (i) H3 PO 4 + H2 O → H3 O + + H2 PO −4
(1) 1.27 × 10–3 mol (2) 5.56 × 10–3 mol (ii) H2 PO 4− + H 2 O → H2 PO 42 − + H3 O+

(3) 1.53 × 10–2 mol (4) 4.46 × 10–2 mol (iii) H2 PO 4− + OH− → H3PO 4 + O2 −
Ans. (1)
In which of the above does H2 PO −4 act as an acid?
Sol. PV = nRT
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only
3170 × 10–3 = n × 8.314 × 300
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) only
31.7 × 10−3 Ans. (2)

n= = 1.27 × 10 −3
8.314 × 3
O td .) O
36. From amongst the following alcohols the one that
e sL
would react fastest with conc. HCl and anhydrous vic+ O–H
Sol. O – P – O – rH O – P– O +H – O – H
ZnCl2, is
O l Se
na– H H OH H
t i o
(1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butanol
d u ca Acid Base
s hE
(3) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol (4) 2-Methylpropanol
a ka 39. The main product of the following reaction is
f A
Ans. (3)
io no
i vi s
conc. H SO
C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH(OH)CH(CH 3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4
→?
(D
Sol. Alcohols which give more stable carbocation is more
reactive with Lucas reagent
H5C6CH2CH2
(Anhy. ZnCl2 + conc. HCl) C = CH2
(1)
H3C
OH H5C6 H
| Anhy.ZnCl+ HCl
⊕
CH3 −C −CH2 −CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→CH3 −C −CH2 CH3 (2) C= C
| | H CH(CH3)2
CH3 CH3
More reactive More stable tertiary
carbocation C6H5CH2 CH3
(3) C= C
37. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely
H CH3
dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous
solution, the change in freezing point of water (ΔTf),
when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate is dissolved in C6H5 CH(CH3)2
1 kg of water, is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1) (4) C= C
H H
(1) 0.0186 K (2) 0.0372 K
(3) 0.0558 K (4) 0.0744 K Ans. (2)
(10)

Sol. Ans. (4)
H H 1.4 NV
Sol. %N =
OH CH3 O W
CH3
H
CH2–CH–CH CH2–CH–CH
CH3 1.4 × 0.1 × (20 − 15) 700
CH3 = −3
= = 23.7
29.5 × 10 29.5
CH3 42. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 atom–1. The

CH—CH –C energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of Li2+ is
H (A) (B) H CH3 (1) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1
CH3 (2) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1
(A)
CH = CH–CH
(3) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1
CH3
Extension of conjugation (4) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1
(More stable)
∴ Major product Ans. (3)
CH3
(B) 2
CH2–CH = C EHe+ ZHe +
Sol. E =
(Minor) CH3 Z 2 +2
Li +2 Li
40. The energy required to break one mole of Cl – Cl

bonds in Cl2 is 242 kJ mol–1. The longest wavelength 19.6 × 10 −18 4
=
of light capable of breaking a single Cl – Cl bond is ELi +2 9
(c = 3 × 108 ms–1 and NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) 9

E = × 19.6 × 10 −18 .)
Li +2 4 Lt d
(1) 494 nm (2) 594 nm es
ic–17 J/atom
= 4.41 ×rv10
Se
nal of orbit of Li+2 is –4.41 × 10–17 J/atom
(3) 640 nm (4) 700 nm
∴ Energy
Ans. (1)
u c a ti o
43. dOn mixing, heptane and octane from an ideal
E solution. At 373
h
k as
hc K, the vapour pressures of the two
Sol. E =
λ fA a liquid components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa
no and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure of the
v i si o solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane and
(D i
242 × 103
E= J /atom 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane
6.023 × 10 23
= 100 g mol–1 and of octane = 114 g mol–1)
242 × 103 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 (1) 144.5 kPa (2) 72.0 kPa
∴ =
6.023 × 10 23 λ (3) 36.1 kPa (4) 96.2 kPa
Ans. (2)
19.8 × 10 −26 × 6.023 × 10 23 −6
λ= = 0.494 × 10
242 × 103 Sol. P = X A PA0 + X B PB0
= 494 nm 25
nheptane = = 0.25
41. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing 100
nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's
method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in
35
noctane = = 0.307
20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the acid 114
required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for
complete neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen 0.25 0.307
P= × 105 + × 45
in the compound is 0.25 + 0.307 0.25 + 0.307
(1) 29.5 (2) 59.0 = 47.127 + 24.84 = 71.96
(3) 47.4 (4) 23.7 ≈ 72 kPa
(11)

44. Which one of the following has an optical isomer? 47. Consider the reaction
(1) [Zn(en)2]2+ Cl2 (aq) + H2S (aq) → S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq)
(2) [Zn(en)(NH3)2]2+ The rate equation for this reaction is
(3) [Co(en)3]3+ rate = k [Cl2] [H2S]
(4) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+ Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with
this rate equation?
Ans. (3)
A. Cl2 + H2S → H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow)
N 3+
N 3+
N N N N Cl+ + HS– → H+ + Cl– + S (fast)
Co Co
B. H2S ⇔ H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium)
Sol.
Cl2 + HS– → 2Cl– + H+ + S (slow)
N N N N
N N (1) A only (2) B only
Optically active
(3) Both (A) & (B) (4) Neither (A) nor (B)
3+
Exist as enantiomeric pair ⎡⎣ Co ( en ) 3 ⎤⎦ Ans. (1)
Sol. Rate depends only on slow step
45. Consider the following bromides
Me Me 48. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition Al2O3 at
500°C is as follows
Me Br Me
Br Br 2 4
Al 2 O 3 → Al + O 2 , Δ r G = +966kJ mol −1
(A) (B) (C) 3 3
.)
Lt d
The correct order of SN1 reactivity is The potential difference needed for electrolytic
c e s
(1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A i2 3
reduction of Al O at 500°C is at least
lS
(1) 5.0 V
e rv (2) 4.5 V
na
(3) B > A > C (4) C > B > A
t i o
a 3.0 V
du c
Ans. (2) (3) (4) 2.5 V
Sol. Formation of carbocation is rate determining step in s E (4)
h Ans.
SN1 reaction. Hence alkyl halide which gives more a ka
stable carbocation is more reactive towards
A
of SN1 Sol. 23 Al 2O3 ⎯⎯ 4
→ Al + O 2
n
i si o
reaction 3
i v
Me Me (D ΔG = 966 kJ/mol
⇒ 4e– are involved
> Me > Me Br
Br Br ∴ ΔG = – nFE
decreasing order of SN1 reactivity 966 × 103 = –4 × 96500 × E
46. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis 966

E=− V = −2.5 V
gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular 4 × 965
mass of 44 u. The alkene ∴ 2.5 V potential difference is required
(1) Ethane
49. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given
(2) Propene conjugate bases (R = CH3) is
(3) 1-butene
(1) RCOO < HC ≡ C < NH 2 < R
(4) 2-butene
(2) RCOO < HC ≡ C < R < NH 2
Ans. (4)
(3) R < HC ≡ C < RCOO < NH 2
(i) O3
Sol. CH3 CH CH CH3 CH3 CHO
(ii) Zn-H2O (4) RCOO < NH 2 < HC ≡ C < R
44 amu
Ans. (1)
(12)

52. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T,

Θ
R − COO < HC ≡ C Θ < N H 2 < R ΔH and ΔS were found to be both +ve. If Te is the
Sol. →
increasing basic strength temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be
spontaneous when
As sp 3 C is less electronegative than sp3 N alkyl (1) T = Te (2) Te > T
carbanion ( R ) is more basic than N H 2 . However

Θ
(3) T > Te (4) Te is 5 times T
sp hybridized carbon is more electronegative than Ans. (3)

Θ Θ Sol. ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
sp3 N. Hence N H 2 is more basic than HC ≡ C
For equilibrium ΔG = 0
For spontaneous reaction, ΔG < 0
50. The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an
ionic substance is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation ∴ T > Te
is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is
53. Percentages of free space in cubic close packed
(1) 144 pm structure and in body centered packed structure are
respectively
(2) 288 pm
(1) 48% and 26%
(3) 398 pm
(2) 30% and 26%
(4) 618 pm
(3) 26% and 32%
Ans. (1)
(4) 32% and 48%
a Ans. (3)
d. )
Sol. In fcc crystal, R + r =
2 Lt and bcc lattices are 74% and
Sol. Packing fractions ofsfcc
c e
68% rvi
508 Se
∴ 110 + r = = 254
nal are 26% and 32%
∴ Vacancies
a ti o
2
54.E u c
dThe polymer containing strong intermolecular forces
r = 144 pm h
a k as e.g. hydrogen bonding, is
of A (1) Natural rubber
i on
51. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical
isomerism is i vi s
(D
(2) Teflon
(1) 2-methyl-2-pentene (3) Nylon 6, 6
(2) 3-methyl-2-pentene (4) Polystyrene
(3) 4-methyl-1-pentene Ans. (3)
(4) 3-methyl-1-pentene Sol. Nylon 6, 6 involves amide linkage therefore, it will

also have very strong intermolecular hydrogen
Ans. (4)
Sol. bonding between N H O C group of
two polyamide chains

H H
55. At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg(OH) 2 is
C Et Et C 1.0 × 10 –11 . At which pH, will Mg2+ ions start
1 3
precipitating in the form of Mg(OH) 2 from a
2
Me Me solution of 0.001 M Mg2+ ions?
3-methyl-1-pentene mirror image
(1) 8 (2) 9
Chiral ∴ Chiral
Non superimposable
(3) 10 (4) 11
(13)

Ans. (3) 59. A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl3.6NH3 (molar
Sol. Ksp = [Mg+2] [OH–]2 mass = 267.5 g mol–1) is passed through a cation
exchanger. The chloride ions obtained in solution
1 × 10–11 = 0.001 × [OH–]2 were treated with excess of AgNO3 to give 4.78 g of
∴ [OH–] = 10–4 M AgCl (molar mass = 143.5 g mol–1). The formula of
the complex is
pOH = 4, pH = 10
(At. mass of Ag = 108 u)
56. The correct order of EoM 2 + /M values with negative
(1) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl2
sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe and
Co is (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co (2) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (3) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl
(3) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co (4) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co (4) [CoCl3(NH3)3]
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
Sol. Mn > Cr > Fe > Co 2.675

Sol. Moles of complex = = 0.01
267.5
E oMn2 + /Mn = −1.18
4 − 78
E oCr2 + /Cr = −0.91 Moles of AgCl precipitated = = 0.033
143.5
E oFe2 + /Fe = −0.44 It means 3Cl – are released by one molecule of

complex
E oCO2 + /CO = −0.28 ∴ [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 td .)
sL
rv i ce
57. Biuret test is not given by 60. The standard
l S e enthalpy of formation of
a
NH3 nis –46.0 kJ mol–1. If the enthalpy of formation
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates io
ofatH2 from its atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of
u c
(3) Polypeptides (4) Urea h Ed N2 is – 712 kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy of
s
a ka N — H bond is NH3 is
of A
Ans. (2)
n
i si o
(1) –1102 kJ mol–1
Sol. Biuret test is only given by amides. Carbohydrates are
D i vbiuret
not amides and hence it does not give ( test. (2) –964 kJ mol–1
58. The time for half life period of a certain reaction (3) +352 kJ mol–1
A ⎯⎯ → Products is 1 h. When the initial (4) +1056 kJ mol–1

concentration of the reactant 'A', is 2.0 mol L–1, how
Ans. (3)
much time does it take for its concentration to come
from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L –1 if it is a zero order 1 3
reaction? Sol. N 2 + H2 ⎯⎯
→ NH 3
2 2
(1) 1 h (2) 4 h
ΔHNH3 = −46 kJ
(3) 0.5 h (4) 0.25 h
Ans. (4)
1 3
NH3 ⎯⎯
→ N 2 + H2
2 2
a 2
Sol. K = = =1
2t 1 2 × 1
1 3
2 46 = 3ΔHN −H − × ( 712 ) − × 436
2 2
C 0 − C t 0.5 − 0.25
t= = = 0.25 h ΔH N −H = 352 kJ /mol
K 1
(14)

PART–C : MATHEMATICS
61. Consider the following relations : Sol. α and β are roots of the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0.
R = {(x, y) | x, y are real numbers and x = wy for
⇒ α + β = 1, αβ = 1
some rational number w};
⎧⎪⎛ m p ⎞ 1 ± 3i 1 + 3i 1 – 3i
⇒ x= , ,
S = ⎨⎜ , ⎟ m , n , p and q are integers such that n, 2 2 2
⎪⎩⎝ n q ⎠
⇒ x = –ω or ω2
q ≠ 0 and qm = pn}. Then
(1) R is an equivalence relation but S is not an Thus, α = –ω2, then β = –ω
equivalence relation α = –ω, then β = –ω2 where ω3 = 1
(2) Neither R nor S is an equivalence relation
α2009 + β2009 = (–ω)2009 + (–ω2)2009
(3) S is an equivalence relation but R is not an
equivalence relation = – [(ω3)669.ω2 + (ω3)1337.ω]
(4) R and S both are equivalence relations = –[ω2 + ω] = –(–1) = 1
Ans. (3) 64. Consider the system of linear equations:

Sol. R is not an equivalence relation because 0 R 1 but x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3
1 R 0 , S is an equivalence relation. 2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 3
62. The number of complex numbers z such that
3x1 + 5x2 + 2x3 = 1
|z – 1| = |z + 1| = |z – i| equals
The system has td .)
(1) 0 (2) 1
e sL
(4) ∞ rvic of solutions
(1) Infinite number
l Se
(3) 2
Ans. (2) na 3 solutions
(2) Exactly
ti o
u c a
Sol.
E d(3) A unique solutions
sh
a ka (4) No solution
(0, 1) n of A Ans. (4)
io
(D i vi s Sol. The given system of linear equations can be put in
the matrix form as
(–1, 0) (1, 0)
O ⎡ 1 2 1 ⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 3 ⎤
⎢ 2 3 1 ⎥ ⎢ x ⎥ = ⎢ 3⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ 2⎥ ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ 3 5 2 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ x3 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 1⎥⎦
|z + i|
⎡ 1 2 1 ⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 3 ⎤
We have,
~ ⎢⎢ 0 –1 –1⎥⎥ ⎢⎢ x2 ⎥⎥ = ⎢⎢–3⎥⎥ by R2 → R2 − 2 R1
|z – 1| = |z + 1| = |z – i|
⎢⎣ 0 –1 –1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ x3 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣–8⎥⎦ R3 → R3 − 3R1
Clearly z is the circumcentre of the triangle formed
by the vertices (1, 0) and (0, 1) and (–1, 0), which is
unique.
⎡ 1 2 1⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 3⎤
63. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0,
then α2009 + β2009 = ~ ⎢⎢0 1 1⎥⎥ ⎢⎢x2 ⎥⎥ = ⎢⎢ 3⎥⎥ R3 → R3 − R2
⎢⎣0 0 0 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ x3 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 5⎥⎦
(1) –2 (2) –1
(3) 1 (4) 2 Clearly the given system of equations has no
Ans. (3) solution.
(15)

Alter Sol. We have,
Subtracting the addition of first two equations from f:R→R
third equation, we get,
f (3x )
0 = –5, which is an absurd result. lim =1
x →∞ f (x)
Hence the given system of equation has no solution.
65. There are two urns. Urn A has 3 distinct red balls ⎛2 ⎞
f ⎜ x⎟
and urn B has 9 distinct blue balls. From each urn f (2 x) f (2 x ) 3 ⎠
= . ⎝
two balls are taken out at random and then f (x ) ⎛ 2 ⎞ f ( x)
transferred to the other. The number of ways in f ⎜ x⎟
⎝3 ⎠
which this can be done is
(1) 3 (2) 36
⎛x⎞
(3) 66 (4) 108 f⎜ ⎟
f (2x ) 1 3
Ans. (4) = . . ⎝ ⎠
⎛ 2 ⎞ f (x ) ⎛ 2x ⎞
f ⎜ x⎟ f⎜ ⎟
Sol. ⎝3 ⎠ f ⎛x⎞ ⎝ 3 ⎠
⎜ ⎟
⎝3⎠
3 red balls 9 distinct
blue balls f (2 x )
Taking limit x → ∞ and lim =l
x →∞ f ( x)
We find that,
Urn A Urn B 1 1
l = 1× ×
Two balls from urn A and two balls from urn B can 1 l
be selected in 3C2 × 9C2 ways ⇒ l 2 = 1 ⇒ l = 1.
t d. )
= 3 × 36 = 108
sL
68. Let p(x) be a function defined on R such that
66. Let f : (–1, 1) → R be a differentiable function with
f (3x ) erv
i ce
f(0) = –1 and f ′(0) = 1. Let g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]2. Then lim
x →∞ nf a
l S = 1 p′(x) = p′(1 – x), for all x ∈ [0, 1], p(0)
g′(0) = o (x)
a ti
uc
(1) 4 (2) –4
h Ed 1
k as ∫ p(x )dx
(3) 0 (4) –2 = 1 and p(1) = 41. Then equals
f Aa 0
Ans. (2)
io no
Sol. We have,
(D i vi s (1) 41 (2) 21
f : ( −1, 1) ⎯⎯
→R (3) 41 (4) 42
f (0) = −1 f ′(0) = 1 Ans. (2)
g(x) = [ f(2f(x) + 2)]2 Sol. We have,
g′(x) = 2[ f(2f(x) + 2)] × f ′(2f(x) + 2) × 2f ′(x) p′(x) = p′(1 – x), ∀ x ∈ [0, 1], p(0) = 1, p(1) = 41
⇒ g′(0) = 2[ f(2 f(0) + 2)] × f ′ (2 f(0) + 2) × 2f ′(0) p(x) = –p(1 – x) + C

⇒ 1 = –41 + C
= 2[f(0)] × f ′(0) × 2f ′(0)
⇒ C = 42
= 2 × –1 × 1 × 2 × 1 = –4
⇒ p(x) + p(1 – x) = 42
67. Let f : R → R be a positive increasing function with
f (3x ) f (2x ) 1 1
lim = 1. Then lim = I = ∫ p(x )dx = ∫ p(1 − x )dx
x →∞ f ( x) x →∞ f (x)
0 0
2
(1) 1 (2) 1 1
3
⇒ 2 I = ∫ ( p( x ) + p(1 − x ))dx = ∫ 42.dx = 42
3
(3) (4) 3 0 0
2
Ans. (1) ⇒ I = 21
(16)

69. A person is to count 4500 currency notes. Let an 71. The area bounded by the curves y = cosx and
denote the number of notes he counts in the nth 3π
y = sinx between the ordinates x = 0 and x = is
minute. If a1 = a2 = ... = a10 = 150 and a10, a11, ... are 2
in an AP with common difference –2, then the time
taken by him to count all notes is (1) 4 2 − 2 (2) 4 2 + 2
(1) 24 minutes (2) 34 minutes (3) 4 2 − 1 (4) 4 2 + 1

(3) 125 minutes (4) 135 minutes
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
Sol. Number of notes person counts in 10 minutes.
= 10 × 150 = 1500
3π
Since, a10, a11, a12, ....... are in A.P. with common π 2
difference = –2 O π
⇒ Let n be the time taken to count remaining 3000 2
notes, then
Required area
n π /4 5 π /4
[2 × 148 + (n − 1) × –2] = 3000
2 = ∫ (cos x − sin x )dx + ∫ (sin x − cos x )dx
0 π/4
⇒ n2 – 149n + 3000 = 0
⇒ (n – 24) (n – 125) = 0 3 π /2
⇒ n = 24, 125 + ∫ (cos x − sin x )dx

5 π /4
Time taken by the person to count all notes
= 10 + 24 = 34 minutes = (4 2 − 2) sq. units
td .)
sL
i ce
4
70. The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x + , 72. Solution of the differential equation
x2 e rv
that is parallel to the x-axis, is n al S
tio = y(sin x − y )dx , 0 < x <
cosaxdy
π
du c
(1) y = 0 (2) y = 1 is
2
E
(3) y = 2 (4) y = 3 sh
a ka
(1) secx = (tanx + c)y (2) ysecx = tanx + c
of A
Ans. (4)
(3) ytanx = secx + c (4) tanx = (secx + c)y
n
Sol. We have,
v i si o
(D i
Ans. (1)
4
y = x+ Sol. The given differential equation can be put in the
x2
form
dy 8
⇒ = 1− 3
dx x 1 dy 1
− tan x = − sec x
The tangent is parallel to x-axis, hence y 2 dx y
dy dz 1
=0 ⇒ + ( tan x ) z = + sec x , z =
dx dx y
⇒ x3 = 8
which is linear is z
⇒ x=2
I.F = e ∫
tan x dx
and y = 3 = e ln sec x = sec x
The equation of the tangent to the given curve at The solution is
(2, 3) is
z.sec x = ∫ sec 2 xdx = tan x + c
⎛ dy ⎞
y−3 =⎜ ⎟ ( x − 2) = 0
⎝ dx ⎠(2, 3) where c is a constant of integration
⇒ y=3 ⇒ sec x = y ( tan x + c )
(17)

75. If two tangents drawn from a point P to the
73. Let a = ˆj − kˆ and c = iˆ − ˆj − kˆ. Then the vector b
parabola y 2 = 4x are at right angles, then the locus
satisfying a × b + c = 0 and a . b = 3 is of p is
(1) x = 1 (2) 2x + 1 = 0
(1) −iˆ + ˆj − 2 kˆ (2) 2iˆ – ˆj + 2 kˆ (3) x = –1 (4) 2x – 1 = 0
Ans. (3)
(3) iˆ – ˆj – 2 kˆ (4) iˆ + ˆj – 2 kˆ
Sol. Locus of P from which two perpendicular tangents
Ans. (1) are drawn to the parabola is the directrix of the
parabola
Sol. We have
Hence locus is, x = –1
a×b + c = 0
x y
76. The line L given by + = 1 passes through the
( )
⇒ a× a×b + a×c = 0 5 b
point (13, 32). The line K is parallel to L and has the
( ) ( )
⇒ a .b a − a . a b + a × c = 0 equation
x y
+ = 1. Then the distance between L
c 3
and K is
⇒ 3a − 2b + a × c = 0
23
(1) (2) 17
⇒ 2 b = 3 a + a × c ; a × c = −2 i − j − k 15
17 23
= 3 j − 3k − 2i − j − k (3) (4)
15 17
Ans. (4)
= −2 i + 2 j − 4 k
L t d. )
s
Sol.
13 32
+ = 1⇒
r vic32e = − 8 ∴ b = −20
l Se
⇒ b = −i + j − 2 k 5 b b 5
n a
74. If the vectors a = iˆ − ˆj + 2 kˆ. u c atioline K must have equation
The
d
as hE x y − = a or
x
−
y
=1
b = 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + kˆ and c = λiˆ + ˆj + μkˆ are ak
mutually
fA
5 20 5 a 20 a
o
orthogonal, then (λ, μ) =
i on
(1) (–3, 2) (2) (2, –3)(Di
vi s Comparing with
x y
+ =1
c 3
(3) (–2, 3) (4) (3, –2) ⎛ 3⎞
⎜ Given 20 a = −3, c = 5a = − 4 ⎟
Ans. (1) ⎝ ⎠
Sol. We have Distance between lines is
a .b = 2 − 4 + 2 = 0 −3
−1
a−1 20 23
= = =
a . c = λ − 1 + 2μ = 0 1 1 17 17
+
25 400 400
b . c = 2λ + 4 + μ = 0
77. A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angles
Thus λ = 1 – 2μ 45° and 120° with the positive x-axis and the
positive y-axis respectively. If AB makes an acute
and 2 – 4μ + 4 + μ = 0
angle θ with the positive z-axis, then θ equals
⇒ 3μ = 6, ⇒ μ = 2 (1) 30° (2) 45°
λ = –3 (3) 60° (4) 75°
(λ, μ) = (–3, 2) Ans. (3)
(18)

Sol. cos245° + cos2120° + cos2θ = 1 80. The circle x2 + y2 = 4x + 8y + 5 intersects the line
3x – 4y = m at two distinct points if
1 1
+ + cos2 θ = 1 (1) –85 < m < –35 (2) –35 < m < 15
2 4
(3) 15 < m < 65 (4) 35 < m < 85
1
∴ cos 2 θ =
4 Ans. (2)
Sol. Centre ≡ (2, 4) r2 = 4 + 16 + 5 = 25
1
cos θ = ± ⇒ θ = 60o or 120 o Distance of (2, 4) from 3x – 4y = m must be less than
2
radius
78. Let S be a non-empty subset of R Consider the
following statement : |6 − 16 − m|
∴ <5
5
P : There is a rational number x ∈ S such that
⇒ –25 < 10 + m < 25
x > 0.
∴ –35 < m < 15
Which of the following statements is the negation of 81. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variances are
the statement P ? given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding means
(1) There is a rational number x ∈ S such that are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The variance of
x≤0 the combined data set is
(2) There is no rational number x ∈ S such that 5 11

x≤0 (1) (2)
2 2
(3) Every rational number x ∈ S satisfies x ≤ 0
13
(4) x ∈ S and x ≤ 0 ⇒ x is not rational (3) 6 (4)
2
Ans. (3) Ans. (2) td .)
Sol. E(X2) – (E(X))2 v=ic4e
sL
79. Let cos(α + β) =
4
and let sin(α − β ) =
5
, where ) l=S4 + 4 = 8
∴ E(X2a
er
5 13
a t i on
uc X
Ed ∑
π
2
i = 40
0 ≤ α, β ≤ . Then tan 2α =
4
ka sh E(Y2) – (E(Y))2 = 5
f A a
25 56
n o E(Y2) = 5 + 16 = 21
(1)
16
(2)
33 v i si o
(D i ∑Y = 105
2
∴ i
19 20
(3)
12
(4)
7 ∑X i = 10, ∑ Yi = 20
Ans. (2) ∴ ∑ (X i + Yi ) = 30
Sol. cos( α + β) =
4
⇒ α + β ∈ 1st quadrant ∑ (X 2
i + Yi2 ) = 145
5 145 55 11
∴ Variance(combined data) = −9 = =
10 10 2
5
sin( α − β ) = ⇒ α – β ∈ 1st quadrant 82. An urn contains nine balls of which three are red,
13 four are blue and two are green. Three balls are
2α = (α + β) + (α – β) drawn at random without replacement from the urn.
The probability that the three balls have different
tan(α + β) + tan(α − β) colours is
∴ tan 2 α =
1 − tan(α + β )tan(α − β) 1 2
(1) (2)
3 7
3 5
+ 1 2
56
= 4 12 = (3)
21
(4)
23
3 5 33
1− .
4 12 Ans. (2)
(19)

Sol. Total number of cases = 9C3 = 84
⎛1 * * ⎞
Favourable cases = 3C .4C .2C = 24 ⎜ ⎟
1 1 1 Sol. Consider ⎜ * 1 * ⎟ . By placing a1 in any one of
⎜ * * 1⎟
⎝ ⎠
24 2
p= = the 6 * position and 0 elsewhere. We get 6
84 7
nonsingular matrices.
83. For a regular polygon, let r and R be the radii of the
inscribed and the circumscribed circles. A false ⎛ * * 1⎞
⎜ ⎟
statement among the following is Similarly ⎜ * 1 * ⎟ gives at least one nonsingular
⎜1 * * ⎟
⎝ ⎠
r 1 85. Let f : R → R be defined by
(1) There is a regular polygon with =
R 2
⎧ k − 2 x , if x ≤ −1
r 1 f (x) = ⎨
(2) There is a regular polygon with = ⎩ 2 x + 3, if x > −1
R 2 If f has a local minimum at x = –1, then a possible
value of k is
r 2
(3) There is a regular polygon with = (1) 1 (2) 0
R 3
1
r 3 (3) − (4) –1
(4) There is a regular polygon with = 2
R 2 Ans. (4)
Ans. (3) Sol.
2x + 3
k – 2x
td .)
sL
Sol. i ce
k e+rv2
1
n al S
ti o
R 2π π r –1
n n
u ca
h Ed k+2≤1
a k as ∴ k ≤ –1
fA
a π
io no Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion -
vi s
= sin
(D i
2R n Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains two
statements.
a π r π Statement-1 : (Assertion) and
= tan ∴ = cos
2r n R n
Statement-2 : (Reason).
r 1
n=3 gives = Each of these questions also has four alternative choices,
R 2 only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select
r 1 the correct choice.
n=4 gives =
R 2 86. Four numbers are chosen at random (without
replacement) from the set {1, 2, 3, …, 20}.
r 3
n=6 gives =
R 2 Statement-1 : The probability that the chosen
numbers when arranged in some
84. The number of 3 × 3 non-singular matrices, with 1
four entries as 1 and all other entries as 0, is order will form an AP is .
85
(1) Less than 4 (2) 5
Statement-2 : If the four chosen numbers from an
(3) 6 (4) At least 7 AP, then the set of all possible values
of common difference is {+1, +2, +3,
Ans. (4) +4, +5}.
(20)

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Sol. The image of the point (3, 1, 6) w.r.t. the plane
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for x – y + z = 5 is
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; x − 3 y − 1 z − 6 −2(3 − 1 + 6 − 5)
= = =
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for 1 −1 1 1+1+1
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false x−3 y−1 z−6
⇒ = = = −2
1 −1 1
⇒ x=3–2=1
Ans. (3)
Sol. Statement-2 is false. y=1+2=3
The outcomes 2, 8, 14, 20 is an AP with common z=6–2=4

difference 6. which shows that statement-1 is true.
10 10 We observe that the line segment joining the points
87. Let S1 = ∑ j( j − 1)10 C j , S2 = ∑ j 10C j and A(3, 1, 6) and B(1, 3, 4) has direction ratios 2, –2, 2
j=1 j=1
which one proportional to 1, –1, 1 the direction ratios
10
S3 = ∑ j 2 10
Cj of the normal to the plane. Hence statement-2 is true.
j=1
89. Let f : R → R be a continuous function defined by
Statement-1 : S3 = 55 × 29
1
Statement-2 : S1 = 90 × 28 and S2 = 10 × 28 f ( x) =
e + 2e− x
x

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 1
Statement-1 : f ( c ) = , for some c ∈ R.
3 )
td .
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for e sL
Statement-1 rvic
l Se: 0 < f (x ) ≤
1
Statement-2 , for all x ∈ R.
on a
i 2 2
d u ca t
E (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
sh
a ka
Ans. (3)
10
o fA Statement-1
Sol. S2 = ∑ j 10C j = 10.2 9
i on
vi s
(D i
j=1
∴ Statement-2 is false. Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
Only choice is (3). Statement-1
88. Statement-1 : The point A(3, 1, 6) is the mirror (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
image of the point B(1, 3, 4) in the
plane x – y + z = 5. (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Statement-2 : The plane x – y + z = 5 bisects the
Ans. (1)
line segment joining A(3, 1, 6) and
B(1, 3, 4). 1
Sol. f (0) =
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; 3
∴ Statement-1 is true.
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; 1
f (x) =
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for ex ex
+ + e− x + e− x
Statement-1 2 2
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false By AM – GM
ex ex 1
Ans. (1) + + e− x + e− x ≥ 4 4 = 43/4
2 2 4
(21)

1 1 Statement-1 : Tr(A) = 0.
∴ 0 < f (x ) ≤ =
4 3/4
2 2 Statement-2 : |A| = 1.
Equality holds if ex = 2e–x ⇒ e2x = 2.
1 1 Statement-1
Since ≤ by intermediate value theorem
3 2 2 (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
1
f (c ) = same c ∈ R. Statement-1
3
90. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with non-zero entries and (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
let A2 = I, where I is 2 × 2 identity matrix. Define
Ans. (3)
Tr(A) = sum of diagonal elements of A and Sol. A satisfies A2 – Tr(A). A + (det A)I = 0 comparing
|A| = determinant of matrix A. with A2 – I = 0, it follows Tr A = 0, |A| = –1.
td .)
e sL
e rvic
a lS
a t i on
d u c
s hE
a ka
f A
io no
(D i vi s
(22)

Akash 2010

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DATE : 25/04/2010

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(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

Statement-2 : Principle of conservation of (2) X X′

(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;

(1) A (2) B (3)

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⎡ dq ⎤ (3) NOT gate (4) XOR gate

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15. If a source of power 4 kW produces 1020 photons/ ⎡5 πr 4 ⎤

17. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge R2

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20. A particle is moving with velocity v = K yiˆ + xjˆ , ( ) I I2

(3) y2 = x + constant Blv 2 Blv

Ans. (1) Blv 2 Blv

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mg a= ac2 + at2 = 12 2 + (7.2)2

28. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on b2 b2

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1 dRP 1 dR1 1 dR2

31. In aqueous solution the ionisation constants for 5 × 10–13 = 0.05 × x

Ans. (4) Sol. O > F > Na > Mg > Al

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(1) 1.27 × 10–3 mol (2) 5.56 × 10–3 mol (ii) H2 PO 4− + H 2 O → H2 PO 42 − + H3 O+

31.7 × 10−3 Ans. (2)

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CH3 42. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 atom–1. The

40. The energy required to break one mole of Cl – Cl

(c = 3 × 108 ms–1 and NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) 9

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N N N N Cl+ + HS– → H+ + Cl– + S (fast)

46. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis 966

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52. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T,

carbanion ( R ) is more basic than N H 2 . However

sp hybridized carbon is more electronegative than Ans. (3)

(2) 3-methyl-2-pentene (4) Polystyrene

(3) 4-methyl-1-pentene Ans. (3)

(4) 3-methyl-1-pentene Sol. Nylon 6, 6 involves amide linkage therefore, it will

two polyamide chains

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Ans. (2) Ans. (2)

Sol. Mn > Cr > Fe > Co 2.675

E oFe2 + /Fe = −0.44 It means 3Cl – are released by one molecule of

A ⎯⎯ → Products is 1 h. When the initial (4) +1056 kJ mol–1

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(4) R and S both are equivalence relations = –[ω2 + ω] = –(–1) = 1

Ans. (3) 64. Consider the system of linear equations:

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⇒ g′(0) = 2[ f(2 f(0) + 2)] × f ′ (2 f(0) + 2) × 2f ′(0) p(x) = –p(1 – x) + C

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(1) 24 minutes (2) 34 minutes (3) 4 2 − 1 (4) 4 2 + 1

⇒ n = 24, 125 + ∫ (cos x − sin x )dx

⇒ y=3 ⇒ sec x = y ( tan x + c )

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(2) There is no rational number x ∈ S such that 5 11

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The outcomes 2, 8, 14, 20 is an AP with common z=6–2=4