Professional Documents
Culture Documents
The 'basic accounting equation' is the foundation for the double-entry bookkeeping
system. For each transaction, the total debits equal the total credits.
• There must be an agreement entered into orally or in writing by the persons who
desire to form a Partnership,
• The object of the agreement must be to share the profits of business intended to be
carried on by the Partnership, and
The business must be carried on by all the partners or any of them acting for all of them.
Every partner has a right to take part in the contact of the business,
Every partner is bound to attend diligently to his duties in the contact of business,
Any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business may be
decided by a majority of partner and no change in the nature of the business shall be
made without the consent of all the partners,
Every partner has as a right to have assess to and to inspect and copy any books of the
firm,
A partner is not entitled to receive remuneration for taking part in the conduct of the
business,
The partners are entitled to share equally the profits earned and shall contribute
equally to the losses sustained by the firm,
Where the partners is entitled to interest on the capital subscribed by them, such
interest shall be payable only out of the profits,
• A partner making, for the purpose of the business, any payment or advance
being the amount of capital he has agreed to subscribed, is entitled to interest
thereon at the rate of 6% P.A,
1. eqity the difference between the market value of a property and the claims held
against it
2. the ownership interest of shareholders in a corporation
3. conformity with rules or standards
4. Debenture : ऋण का सवीकार पत
5. the ability of a customer to obtain goods or services before payment, based on the
trust that payment will be made in the future
6. a certificate or voucher acknowledging a debt
InvestorWords.com
Definition
Borrowing funds to increase capital investment with the hope that the business will be
able to generate returns in excess of the interest charges.
7. Share capital is funds raised by issuing shares in return for cash or other
considerations.
Debenture is any debt obligation backed strictly by the borrower's integrity, e.g.
an unsecured bond. A debenture is documented in an indent
when the stock or capital of a company is not represented by issue of equivalent value,it
is termed as watered capital signifying presence of water in the capital of the company.
Water' is said to be present in the capital when a part of the capital is not represented by
assets. It is considered to be as worthless as water. Sometimes the services of the
promoters are valued at an unduly high price. Similarly, the concern may pay too high a
price for an asset acquired from a going concern. The capital becomes watered to the
extent of the excess price paid for an asset. Thus, if a company pays 1,25,000 on account
of goodwill, which if valued correctly is worth Rs. 50,000 only, the capital is watered to
the extent of Rs. 75,000. 'Watered capital' must be distinguished from 'over
capitalisation'. 'Water enters the capital usually in the initial period-at the time of
promotion. Over capitalisation can, however, be found out only after the company has
worked for sometime. Although watered capital can be a cause of over-capitalisation, yet
it is not exactly the same thing. If the earnings are up to the general expection, a concern
will not be over capitalized even though a part of its capital is watered.
Some collective investment schemes have the power to borrow money to make further
investments; a process known as gearing or leverage. If markets are growing rapidly this
can allow the scheme to take advantage of the growth to a greater extent than if only the
subscribed contributions were invested. However this premise only works if the cost of
the borrowing is less than the increased growth achieved. If the borrowing costs are more
than the growth achieved a net loss is achieved.
This can greatly increase the investment risk of the fund by increased volatility and
exposure to increased capital risk.
Gearing was a major contributory factor in the collapse of the split capital investment
trust debacle in the UK in 2002.[
Companies with high gearing - more long-term liabilities than shareholder equity - are
considered speculative.
• A person who has $15 can either buy a CD or a shirt. If he buys the shirt the
opportunity cost is the CD and if he buys the CD the opportunity cost is the shirt.
If there are more choices than two, the opportunity cost is still only one item,
never all of them.
• A person who invests $10,000 in a stock denies herself or himself the interest that
could have accrued by leaving the $10,000 in a bank account instead. The
opportunity cost of the decision to invest in stock is the value of the interest.
• A person who sells stock for $10,000 denies himself or herself the opportunity to
sell the stock for a higher price (say $12,000) in the future, inheriting an
opportunity cost equal to the future price of $12,000 (and not the future price
minus the sale price). Note that in this case, the opportunity cost can only be
determined in hindsight.
14. The cost informations of a manufacturing
unit are as under—
Rs.
Cost of Material 20,000
Cost of Labour 10,000
Direct Expenses 5,000
Factory Overheads 15,000
Administration
Overheads 10,000
Sales and Distribution
Expenses 3,000
Cost of production in this case
will be—
(A) Rs. 35,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 63,000
15. In which of the following items
does the profit of financial set of
books decrease as compared to
cost books ?
(A) Rent of the factory building
(B) Selling overheads
(C) Payment of pension to the
former employees of the organisation
(D) Salary paid to the works
manager
16. Auditor submits his report to—
(A) Chief Executive Officer of
company
(B) Creditors of the company
(C) Shareholders of the company
(D) Company Registrar
PD/June/2010/2182
17. Management Audit means—
(A) Audit by management
(B) Audit of Management
Account Book
(C) Audit of Policies and Performance
of Management
(D) All of the above
management audit
Mayo – 14 principles
Oliver Sheldon : His basic idea of diff between admin an management
as administration involved thinking while management involved doing.
Board of directors
Administra
tion
President
General Manager
manageme
nt
Work manager
Foreman
raicunas (Gulick and Urwick, 1937) distinguished three types of interactions – direct
single relationships, cross-relationships, and direct group relationships – each of them
contributing to the total amount of interactions within the organization. According to
Graicunas, the number of baw bags can be computed in the following way. Let n be the
number of subordinates reporting to a supervisor. Then, the number of relationships of
direct single type the supervisor could possibly engage into is
n.
n(n − 1)
n(2n / 2 + n − 1)
The sum of these three types of interactions is the number of potential relationships of a
supervisor.
alter the articles, require a special resolution, which has to be passed by a three-quarters
majority of those who vote. At this meeting, each shareholder has the number of votes
conferred by the shares they hold (usually one vote per share). A frequently amended
provision is to fix the quorum as something other than two (the standard provision). This
can be very important as a means of protecting shareholders from an important meeting
being conducted without them.
Credits = 10,000
Outstanding expenses = 10*10000/100 = 1000/-
Current ratio(चालू अनुपात) = Assets(संपित)/liability(दाइतव) =2/1 = x/(10000
+1000) = x/11000
Therefore net assets = 2*11000 = 22000;
Stocks or current assets = 7000/-
Current asset = 22000-7000= 15000/-
To assist you with your deduct-or-capitalize analysis, we've put together the following
list of items that the IRS or the courts have determined to be capital expenditures under
certain circumstances.
the market price at which these were purchased or as per the actuary’s valuation by making a
corresponding credit to the Capital Reserve Account with a note to the accounts of the accounting
treatment followed, or
37. On the death of a partner the
amount of joint life insurance
policy should be credited to the
Capital A/c of—
PD/June/2010/2183
(A) All partners (including
deceased one) in their profit
sharing ratio
(B) Remaining partners in their
old profit sharing ratio
(C) Remaining partners equally
(D) All partners (including
in the profit sharing ratio.
deceased) in their capital ratio
Joint life policy is a precautionary measure to protect the firm from financial crisis,
on account of death of a partner. This is a life insurance policy by which more
than one life is insured. In case of a partnership firm all partners are covered
usually by a single life insurance policy. The firm, not the partner, pays the
premium on this policy. In the event of death of any one of the partners,
the insurance company will pay the full amount assured sum to the
firm. This amount will be regarded as a special income to the firm and
credited to capital accounts of all partners
38. In the absence of any other
agreement, the interest on the
capital of partners—
(A) Is not paid
(B) Is paid at bank rate if profit
is available
(C) @ 6% profit or no profit
(D) @ 6% only if profit available
39. A partner of a firm has gone
insolvent. The loss so caused
according to Indian Partnership
Act will be shared by solvent
partners—
(A) Equally
(B) Profit Sharing Ratio
(C) Capital Ratio
(D) Agreement Basis
40. The following balances appeared
in the books of a company on 31
March 2008—
Rs.
1. Capital Redemption
Reserve
1,50,000
2. Share Premium
A/c
50,000
3. General Reserve 20,000
4. Debit Balance of
P&L A/c
20,000
Company wants to issue bonus
shares. The amount available
would be—
(A) Rs. 2,00,000
(B) Rs. 2,20,000
(C) Rs. 2,40,000
(D) Rs. 1,50,000
41. The following information is
available about a company—
Stock turnover 10
Average collection
period
20 days
The ratio of cash to
credit sale
0·8
Closing stock Rs. 9,000
Assume that a year is of 360 days.
The amount of trade debtors is—
(A) Rs. 2,480 (B) Rs. 2,778
(C) Rs. 2,760 (D) Rs. 2,800
42. A company has a capital of Rs.
10,00,000. Its turnover is 3 times.
Margin on sale is 6%. The Return
on Investment will be—
(A) 20% (B) 15%
(C) 18% (D) 23%
43. If production increases, the fixed
cost per unit—
(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) May increase, may decrease
(Anything may happen)
(D) Decreases
44. The cost records of an organisation
are as under—
1. Raw materials used Rs. 80,000
2. Wages 50% of Raw Material
3. Direct Expenses 10% of Raw
Material
4. Works overhead 40% of
Labour Cost
5. Office overhead 50% of Works
overhead
Unit produced 4,000
The cost per unit would be—
(A) Rs. 40 (B) Rs. 38
(C) Rs. 42 (D) Rs. 50
45. Which of the following is not the
objective of preparing Reconciliation
Statement of Cost and
Financial Account ?
(A) To ascertain causes of differences
of profits
(B) To ascertain accuracy of cost
accounts
(C) To ascertain completion of
cost accounts
(D) To ascertain accuracy and
completion of Financial Books
46. The first auditors of the company
are appointed—
(A) By the Government
(B) By the Board of Directors
(C) In the Statutory Meeting
(D) By the Shareholder having
largest amount of capital
invested in the company
47. ‘An auditor is a watch dog, not
the bloodhound.’ This was
commented by an honourable
Judge in the case of—
(A) Kingston Cotton Mill Co.
(B) Imperial Tobacco Co.
(C) Mohri Bibi Vs. Dharmo Das
Ghosh
(D) Keshav Bharti Vs. Govt. of
India
48. If an auditor is not satisfied he
will give—
(A) Clean Report
(B) Qualified Report
(C) Partial Report
(D) Interim Report
49. The Delegation of Authority
means—
(A) Delegation of Powers
(B) Delegation of Responsibility
(C) Delegation of powers and
responsibility both
(D) None of the above
50. Strategy formulation is a part
of—
(A) Planning
(B) Directing
(C) Control
(D) Communication
51. In testing the difference between
two means, the null hypothesis
is—
(A) There is no significant difference
between two means
(B) There is significant difference
between two means
(C) Both means are independent
(D) Both means are interdependent
52. The responsibility of the Company
Secretary is—
(A) Statutory only
(B) Contractual only
(C) Only civil
(D) Statutory and Contractual
both
53. A Company Secretary is not
authorised for—
(A) Directing, supervising and
controlling the departmental
activities
(B) Borrowing in the name of
company
(C) Filing representation on
behalf of the company
(D) Signing the documents that
need certification from the company
PD/June/2010/2184
54. The appointment of Company
Secretary is made by—
(A) Government of India
(B) Board of Directors
(C) Shareholders
(D) Institute of Company
Secretaries of India
55. Due to reduction of interest rate
from 8% to 7·5% by bank, one
man got Rs. 600 less as compared
to early annual receipts. The
amount deposited in the bank
is—
(A) Rs. 1,00,000
(B) Rs. 1,50,000
(C) Rs. 1,20,000
(D) Rs. 2,00,000
56. A, B and C are partners in a
business. A invested Rs. 10,000
for 5 months, B invested Rs.
20,000 for 3 months and C
invested Rs. 25,000 for 4 months.
In the end business resulted in a
profit of Rs. 6,300. The share of
partners will be as under—
(A) A Rs. 2,000, B Rs. 1,300, C
Rs. 3,000
(B) A Rs. 1,500, B Rs. 1,800, C
Rs. 3,000
(C) A Rs. 3,000, B Rs. 1,500, C
Rs. 1,800
(D) A Rs. 1,800, B Rs. 1,500, C
Rs. 3,000
57. Net working capital means—
(A) Total of all current assets
(B) Total of all liquid assets
(C) Excess of current assets over
current liabilities
(D) Cash at bank + cash in hand
58. Which of the following is not Ecommerce
?
(A) E-marketing
(B) E-banking
(C) E-governance
(D) All of these
59. The functions of SEBI includes—
(A) Registration of market
players
(B) Regulation of primary and
secondary markets
(C) Protection of investors
(D) All of the above
60. Which of the following statements
is true ?
(A) Mutinational Corporations
come into existence as a result of
international Politics
(B) The volume of business of
Multinational Corporation in
India has widened after accepting
the new economic policy
encompassing liberalisation,
globalisation and privatisation
(C) There are number of Multinational
Corporations originated
and registered in India and
making business outside the
country
(D) All of the above
61. Accounting is—
(A) An Art
(B) A Science
(C) A Profession
(D) All of these
62. The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India was established
in the year—
(A) 1947 (B) 1949
(C) 1951 (D) 1956
63. Accounting Standard Board
issuing Accounting Standards in
India belongs to—
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Company Law Board
(C) The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India
(D) None of the above
64. Which of the following Accounting
Standards relates to
accounting for fixed assets ?
(A) AS 3 (B) AS 10
(C) AS 14 (D) AS 16
65. Which of the following statements
is true ?
(A) Accounting and Bookkeeping
are synonymous
(B) Book-keeping and Accounting
are complementary to each
other
(C) Accounting starts from
where Book-keeping ends
(D) Both (B) and (C)
66. The Generally Accepted Accounting
Principles (GAAP) aim at—
(A) Uniformity in accounting
practices
(B) Uniform accounting practices
in all enterprises
(C) Acceptance of globalisation,
liberalisation and privatisation in
the field of accounting
(D) All of the above
67. Revenue is realised—
(A) when sales order is received
(B) when goods are sold
(C) when cash is received
(D) when goods are received by
the purchaser
68. Personal Account relates to—
(A) Persons
(B) All artificial and natural
persons
(C) Representative Personal
Accounts
(D) All of the above
69. The cost of erection of an old
machine will be posted in the
credit side of—
(A) Cash Account
(B) Machinery Account
(C) Repairs and Renewal
Account
(D) None of the above
70. Outstanding Wages is—
(A) Nominal Account
(B) Real Account
(C) Personal Account
(D) Current Account
71. Adjustment Entry for rent received
in advance would be—
(A) Cash A/c Dr.
To Rent Received in
Advance A/c
(B) Cash A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
(C) Rent A/c Dr.
To Rent Received
Advance A/c
(D) Advance Rent A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
72. Accounting treatment of a
Capital Expenditure as Revenue
Expenditure creates—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Revenue Reserve
(C) Capital Reserve
(D) Secret Reserve
73. Partnership comes into existence
through—
(A) Introduction
(B) Promotion
PD/June/2010/2185
(C) Contract
(D) Situation
74. Partnership Deed is always—
(A) Written
(B) Oral
(C) Written or Oral
(D) Written and Oral
75. The number of partners in a
partnership firm is—
(A) Uncertain
(B) Unlimited
(C) Decided by partners
(D) Limited
76. In the absence of partnership
agreement the profit is shared by
the partners—
(A) equally
(B) on the basis of capital
invested
(C) on the basis of decision of
the court
(D) on the basis of time spent
77. At the time of admission of a
new partner the capital brought
by him is shared among existing
partners—
(A) equally
(B) on the basis of capital of the
older partners
(C) on the basis of sacrifice done
(D) untrue statement
78. Because of Retirement/Death of
a partner—
(A) Partnership is dissolved
(B) Partnership firm is dissolved
(C) Partnership and partnership
firm both are dissolved
(D) None of the above
79. The minimum amount called on
application for issue of shares is
……… of face value.
(A) 5% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 40%
80. Shares can be issued—
(A) At par
(B) At discount
(C) At premium
(D) All of the above
81. After re-issue of forfeited shares
the balance of forfeited share
account is transferred to—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Profit & Loss A/c
(C) Capital Reserve
(D) None of these
82. The debentureholders of a company
are company’s—
(A) Owners
(B) Creditors
(C) Customers
(D) All of these
83. Which of the following is not a
current asset ?
(A) Land and Building
(B) Debtors
(C) Stock
(D) Cash at bank
84. The analysis of published
accounts benefits—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Debentureholders
(C) Employees
(D) All of these
85. The object of cost accounting is—
(A) Ascertainment of Cost
(B) Valuation of Stock
(C) Cost Control
(D) All of these
86. Which of the following does not
constitute part of costing ?
(A) Prime cost
(B) Factory cost
(C) Opportunity cost
(D) Office and Administration
cost
87. Direct costs are those which vary
directly with—
(A) Sales
(B) Profit
(C) Production
(D) Time
88. Which of the following is not an
indirect expense ?
(A) Factory Overhead
(B) Direct Labour
(C) Office Overhead
(D) Advertisement
89. Which of the following appears
in Cost Accounts and not in
Profit and Loss Account ?
(A) Raw Materials
(B) Rent of hosue of the owner
of business
(C) Works overhead
(D) Selling and distribution
expenses
90. Tender Price means—
(A) Quotation Price
(B) Probable Sale Price
(C) Price informed to the customer
(D) All of the above
91. The audit of a Joint Stock Public
Company is done—
(A) compulsorily
(B) voluntarily
(C) at the direction of Government
(D) on demand of shareholders
92. The audit aims at—
(A) Examination of correctness
of books of accounts
(B) Examination of truthfulness
of books of accounts
(C) Examination of the authenticity
of books of account
(D) All of the above
93. Current audit is also known as—
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Periodic Audit
(C) Continuous Audit
(D) Interim Audit
94. Vouching relates to—
(A) Cash receipts
(B) Cash payments
(C) Credit transactions
(D) All of these
95. The status of the auditor in a
company is that of—
(A) an employee
(B) a trustee
(C) an independent professional
(D) all of these
96. To submit the audit report is—
(A) Right of Auditor
(B) Liability of Auditor
(C) Duty of Auditor
(D) All of these
97. F. W. Taylor is known as a father
of—
(A) Scientific Management
(B) Management by Objectives
(C) Human Relation based
Management
(D) Management by Motivation
PD/June/2010/2186
98. The person who propounded
theory X and theory Y in Management,
is—
(A) Abraham Maslow
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) Douglas McGregor
99. Management Planning process
begins with—
(A) Policies
(B) Programme
(C) Goals and objectives
(D) Procedure
100. Decision-making is—
(A) A mental process
(B) An intellectual process
(C) A universal functional process
(D) All of the above
101. Which of the following is a nonverbal
communication ?
(A) Body language
(B) Letter
(C) Speech
(D) Poem
102. Which of the following is not a
part of managerial process ?
(A) Planning
(B) Accounting
(C) Coordination
(D) Directing
103. A company secretary has to be—
(A) Firm or body corporate
(B) Registered with Securities
& Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(C) Person with desired professional
degree
(D) Part of any Secretarial
agency
104. Annual General Meeting can be
called by—
(A) Managing Director
(B) Shareholders
(C) Board of Directors
(D) Company Secretary
105. A share certificate is required to
be signed by—
(A) Company Secretary
(B) Two Directors
(C) Two directors and Company
Secretary
(D) All directors and Company
Secretary
106. A Company Secretary should
have sound knowledge of—
(A) Company Law
(B) Tax Laws
(C) Labour Laws
(D) All of these
107. The duties of Company Secretary
regarding company meetings are
restricted upto—
(A) Before company meeting
(B) During company meeting
(C) After company meeting
(D) In all the above situations
108. Transmission of shares takes
place in the following case—
(A) Sale of shares
(B) Theft of shares
(C) Operation of any law
(D) All of these
109. Statistics is the—
(A) Science of Counting
(B) Science of Averages
(C) Arithmetic of human
welfare
(D) All of the above
110. The average of the nos. 2, 4, 6, 8,
10, 12, 14 and 16 is—
(A) 9 (B) 10·2
(C) 8·6 (D) 11
111. In a symmetrical distribution the
relationship of averages is—
(A) Mean < Median < Mode
(B) Mean > Median > Mode
(C) Mean = Median = Mode
(D) Could be anything
112. Which of the following statements
does not hold true in the
case of ratio ?
(A) Ratio dentoes the relation
between the same two quantities
(B) Ratio has a definite unit
(C) Ratio remains unchanged
on multiplying or dividing both
qualities by a number
(D) Ratios can be expressed in
fraction also
113. In how many years will Rs. 9,000
become Rs. 10,890 at the rate of
6% simple interest ?
(A) 3 years
(B) 3 years 6 months
(C) 4 years
(D) 2 years
114. A sum of money placed at a
compound interest doubles itself
in 5 years. In how many years
will this amount become 16
times ?
(A) In 15 years
(B) In 40 years
(C) In 16 years
(D) In 20 years
115. Entrepreneurship is—
(A) An Art
(B) A Science
(C) A Profession
(D) All of these
116. On Stock Exchange the following
are transacted—
(A) Only securities
(B) Only commodities
(C) Listed securities only
(D) Commercial papers
117. Multi-national Corporations—
(A) support the cause of
Swadeshi
(B) develop Swadeshi Movement
(C) oppose Swadeshi Concept
(D) benefit Swadeshi Cause
118. Which of the following is not
related with Business Environment
?
(A) International Economic
Environment
(B) ISO 14000
(C) Political Circumstances
(D) Economic Policies of the
Government
119. Which of the following terms is
E-commerce ?
(A) B2B
(B) B2C
(C) C2C
(D) All of these
120. The application of computers in
business has enhanced—
(A) Productivity of workers
(B) Profitability of organisation
(C) The promptness in disposal
of work
(D) All of the above
Answers with Hints
PD/June
Agriculture
UTTAR PRADESH LECTURERS EXAM., 2009
(Held on 24-1-2010)
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
61. Jalpriya is a variety of—
(A) Maize (B) Jowar
(C) Paddy (D) Barley
62. Sugarcane + Potato is an intercropping
system of—
(A) Autumn season
(B) Zaid season
(C) Spring season
(D) Rainy season
63. Seed-rate of potato per hectare
is—
(A) 25 quintal/hectare
(B) 10 quintal/hectare
(C) 15 quintal/hectare
(D) 40 quintal/hectare
64. Deficiency symptoms of calcium
on plants first appear at—
(A) Lower leaves
(B) Middle leaves
(C) Terminal leaves
(D) All leaves
65. Which weedicide is used to kill
broad leaf weeds in wheat ?
(A) 2, 4 - D.S.S. (WPSS)
(B) 2, 4, 5 - T
(C) 2, 4 - DB
(D) None of these
66. Maya is the variety of—
(A) Potato (B) Gram
(C) Pea (D) Mustard
67. The weed that causes Asthma
is—
(A) Hirankhuri
(B) Bathua
(C) Parthenium
(D) Krishna Neel
68. Which crop requires maximum
amount of nitrogen ?
(A) Potato (B) Wheat
(C) Barley (D) Sugarcane
69. First dwarf variety of paddy
developed in India is—
(A) Jaya (B) Saket-4
(C) Govind (D) Narendra-97
10. Sprinkler irrigation is suitable,
where the soil has—
(A) Clayey texture
(B) Loamy texture
(C) Undulating topography
(D) All of these
11. Endosulphan is also known as—
(A) Lindane (B) Thiodan
(C) Aldrin (D) B.H.C.
12. Which of the following is
systemic poison ?
(A) Metasystox
(B) Phosphomidan
(C) Phorate
(D) All of these
13. DDVP is known as—
(A) Nuvan (B) Malathion
(C) Thiodan (D) Sulfex
14. Seed treatment with Vitavex is
the main controlling method of—
(A) Loose smut
(B) Rust
(C) Downy mildew
(D) All of these
15. Covered smut of barley is a
disease of—
(A) Externally seed-borne
(B) Internally seed-borne
(C) Air-borne
(D) None of these
16. Which of the following cakes is
not edible ?
(A) Castor cake
(B) Mustard cake
(C) Sesame cake
(D) Groundnut cake
17. In India, about 142 million
hectare land is under—
(A) Cultivation
(B) Waste land
(C) Forest
(D) Eroded land
18. The headquarters of Indian
Meteorological Department was
established in 1875 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Calcutta
19. Moisture condensed in small
drops upon cool surface is
called—
(A) Hail (B) Dew
(C) Snow (D) Fog
20. How many agro-climatic zones
(ACZ) are found in India ?
(A) 16 (B) 18
(C) 15 (D) 20
21. Tilt angle of a disc plough is
generally—
(A) 10° (B) 15°
(C) 20° (D) 45°
22. Pudding is done to—
(A) Reduce percolation of water
(B) Pulverise and levelling soil
(C) Kill weeds
(D) All of the above
23. The Community Development
Programme (CDP) was started in
India on—
(A) 2nd October, 1950
(B) 2nd October, 1952
(C) 2nd October, 1951
(D) None of these
24. The main unit of Integrated Rural
Development Programme is—
(A) Family (B) Village
(C) Block (D) District
25. Element of Communication is—
(A) Message (B) Feedback
(C) Channel (D) All of these
26. The first Kshetriya Gramin Bank
(KGB) was opened in India is—
(A) 1972 (B) 1980
(C) 1975 (D) 1969
PD/June/2010/2190
27. The main function of NABARD
is—
(A) Farmers' loaning
(B) Agricultural research
(C) Refinancing to agricultural
financing institutions
(D) Development of agriculture
28. Rent theory of profit was given
by—
(A) Hawley (B) C.P. Blacker
(C) Tanssig (D) F.A. Walker
29. In L.D.R., the profit will be maximum
when—
(A) MC = MP (B) MC > MP
(C) MP = TP (D) MP > TP
30. The period of 11th Five Year Plan
is—
(A) 2000-2005 (B) 2002-2007
(C) 2007-2012 (D) 2008-2012
31. Acid rain contains mainly—
(A) PO4 (B) NO2
(C) NO3 (D) CH4
32. Cell Organelle found only in
plants are—
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi complex
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Plastids
33. Proteins are synthesized in—
(A) Centrosomes
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgi bodies
34. Milk fever is caused due to the
deficiency of—
(A) P (B) Ca
(C) Mg (D) K
35. Milk sugar is a type of—
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose
(C) Lactose (D) Fructose
36. Muriate of Potash is—
(A) K2SO4 (B) KCl
(C) K2HPO4 (D) KNO3
37. Azotobacter fixes atmospheric
nitrogen in the soil by—
(A) Symbiotically
(B) Non-symbiotically
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
38. The chemical formula of iron
pyrites is—
(A) FeSO4 (B) FeS
(C) FeS2 (D) Fe2(SO4)3
39. Rock phosphates are used in—
(A) Saline soil
(B) Sodic soil
(C) Acidic soil
(D) Neutral soil
40. Intervenous chlorosis is caused
due to the deficiency of—
(A) N (B) Mg
(C) S (D) Fe
41. Kinnow is the hybrid variety
of—
(A) Citrus (B) Orange
(C) Mandarin (D) Lemon
42. The permanent preservative,
which is used for preservation of
fruit and vegetables, is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Potassium metabisulphate
(C) Potassium sulphate
(D) Sugar
43. Whip tail disease of cauliflower
is caused by deficiency of—
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Boron
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Zinc
44. The word ‘Agriculture’ is derived
from—
(A) Greek (B) Latin
(C) Arabic (D) French
45. Motha (Grass nut) belongs to the
family of—
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Tiliaceae
(C) Cyperaceae
(D) Graminaceae
46. Which of the followings are short
day crops ?
(A) Maize, Lobia, Bajra
(B) Wheat, Mustard, Gram
(C) Moong, Soybean, Bajra
(D) Wheat, Soybean, Bajra
47. What is the sequence of C4
plants ?
(A) Sudangrass – Sugarcane –
Paddy – Bajra
(B) Sugarcane – Maize – Sudan
grass – Bajra
(C) Sugarcane – Cotton – Paddy
– Maize
(D) Cotton – Maize – Bajra –
Sugarcane
48. Match List-I (crops) with List-II
(water requirement) and select
your answer from the code given
below—
List-I
(a) Jowar (b) Soybean
(c) Cotton (d) Groundnut
List–II
1. 140 mm – 300 mm
2. 350 mm – 450 mm
3. 200 mm – 300 mm
4. 300 mm – 350 mm
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
49. In which state, are there biggest
area, highest production and
number of Sugar Mills in relation
to Sugarcane ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
50. Which is not prepared by potato ?
(A) Acetic Acid
(B) Paper
(C) Wine
(D) Fanina
51. Uttar Pradesh is occupying which
place in India, for Guava production
?
(A) Second (B) First
(C) Third (D) Fifth
52. Which of the following is TPS
variety of Potato ?
(A) JH 222 (B) Chipsona-II
(C) Anand (D) HPS-1/113
53. What is VAM ?
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria
(C) Algae (D) Fungi
54. What is the main function of zinc
in the plants ?
(A) Synthesis of nitrogen
(B) Synthesis of phosphorus
(C) Required for synthesis of
Tryptophos
(D) To increase activity of the
boron
55. What is the area in floriculture
(in 000 hectare) in India ?
PD/June/2010/2191
(A) 40 – 50
(B) 60 – 80
(C) 100 – 120
(D) None of these
56. Which of the following factors
does not affect the nitrification ?
(A) Air
(B) Seed
(C) Temperature
(D) Moisture
57. Which is the correct sequence of
soil erosion ?
(A) Rill – Sheet – Gulley
(B) Gulley – Sheet – Rill
(C) Sheet – Rill – Gulley
(D) Sheet – Gulley – Rill
58. Zinc Sulphate (ZnSO4) should
not be mixed with—
(A) D.A.P.
(B) Compost fertilizer
(C) Ammonium Chloride
(D) Urea
59. Insecticides are specific inhibitors
of—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Nervous system
(D) Blood Circulatory system
60. The credit for the success of
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK)
goes to—
(A) Dr. R. S. Paroda
(B) Dr. Chandrika Prasad
(C) Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta
(D) Dr. Mangla Rai
61. Cauliflower belongs to the
family—
(A) Cruciferae
(B) poacae
(C) Malvaceae
(D) Leguminaceae
62. Which type of soil is best for
knolkhol ?
(A) Loam
(B) Clayey loam
(C) Silty clayey loam
(D) Clay
63. Which of the following soil type
is most suitable for garlic cultivation
?
(A) Loamy sand
(B) Sandy loam
(C) Loam
(D) Clay
64. Average planting distance (R ⋅ P)
of guava is—
(A) 5 m ⋅ 5 m (B) 6 m ⋅ 6 m
(C) 8 m ⋅ 8 m (D) 10 m ⋅ 10 m
65. Which of the following soil type
has the highest field capacity ?
(A) Loam
(B) Silty loam
(C) Clayey loam
(D) Clay
66. The trade name of phorate is—
(A) Temic (B) Thiodan
(C) Phortox (D) Metasystox
67. The sprayers are cleaned before
use by—
(A) 1% chlorine water
(B) 1% hydrochloric acid
(C) 1% ammonia water
(D) 1% bromine water
68. The cyanogas pump is a /an—
(A) Duster (B) Fumigator
(C) Sprayer (D) Emulsifier
69. The main reason of Irish Famine
in Potato was—
(A) Late Blight disease
(B) Bacterial Blight disease
(C) Blast disease
(D) Ear Cockle disease
70. The instrument, which is used
for sowing of seed with
fertilizer together at a time, is—
(A) Seed drill
(B) Dibbler
(C) Seed sowing behind plough
(D) Ferti-cum Seed drill
71. Seed treatment is done to control—
(A) Soil-borne disease
(B) Air-borne disease
(C) Seed-borne disease
(D) None of these
72. Salt tolerant crop is—
(A) Cowpea (B) Field pea
(C) Garlic (D) Longmelon
73. Which of the following is not a
dairy breed of cattle ?
(A) Sahiwal (B) Sindhi
(C) Nagore (D) All these
74. Stored grains can be saved from
insect damage, if the grain
moisture content is—
(A) < 10%
(B) > 10%
(C) 10%
(D) None of these
75. Which of the following pesticides
has been banned in India ?
(A) Rogor
(B) DDT
(C) Metasystox
(D) Dimecron
76. Pulses fit well in cropping
system as they are—
(A) Short duration crops
(B) Disease resistant crops
(C) Long duration crops
(D) Moisture stress resistant
crops
77. Wheat is a—
(A) Cash crop
(B) Cereal crop
(C) Covered crop
(D) None of these
78. Autumn sugarcane is planted in
month of—
(A) February-March
(B) July
(C) October
(D) December
79. Seed-rate for timely sown wheat
is—
(A) 75 kg/ha (B) 100 kg/ha
(C) 125 kg/ha (D) 150 kg/ha
80. Most critical stage in wheat for
irrigation is—
(A) C.R.I. (B) Flowering
(C) Milk (D) Dough
81. Name of most popular variety of
wheat in Uttar Pradesh is—
(A) PBW – 343
(B) U.P. – 2338
(C) K – 7903
(D) K – 9107
82. KPG – 59 (Udai) is a variety of—
(A) Field pea
(B) Vegetable pea
(C) Lentil
(D) Gram
83. In plain, Rajma is cultivated
during—
(A) Kharif
(B) Rabi
(C) Zaid
(D) None of these
PD/June/2010/2192
84. Which crop is recommended for
Zaid season cultivation in Uttar
Pradesh ?
(A) Vegetable pea
(B) Groundnut
(C) Barley
(D) Lentil
85. The most efficient use of potassium
is achieved by—
(A) Broadcasting at the sowing
time
(B) Top dressing after one
month of sowing
(C) Basal placement at the sowing
time
(D) Foliar spray
86. The term ‘Extension’ was first
used in—
(A) U.K. (B) U.S.A.
(C) India (D) France
87. The first K.V.K. (Krishi Vigyan
Kendra) in India was established
in—
(A) Bombay
(B) Port Blair
(C) Pondicherry
(D) Madras
88. ATMA is related to—
(A) NARP
(B) NAARM
(C) NREP
(D) None of these
89. Albert Mayer is the name associated
with—
(A) Nilokheri Development
Project
(B) Firka Development Project
(C) Etawah Pilot Project
(D) Shriniketan Project
90. Co-operative Credit Societies Act
was passed in India in—
(A) 1902 (B) 1904
(C) 1906 (D) 1912
91. Maximum photosynthesis takes
place in—
(A) Blue light
(B) Red light
(C) Violet light
(D) Green light
92. Farm Planning means—
(A) Farm Budgetting
(B) Cropping pattern
(C) Type of enterprises
(D) None of these
93. The first product of photosynthesis
in C3 plant is—
(A) Pyruvic acid
(B) Phospho-glyceric acid
(C) Oxalo-acetic acid
(D) Succinic acid
94. Bending of plants towards light
is called—
(A) Phototropism
(B) Vernalisation
(C) Photo-respiration
(D) None of these
95. Germination is inhibited by—
(A) Red light (B) Blue light
(C) U.V. light (D) I.R. light
96. The best method of milking is—
(A) Knuckling method
(B) Fisting method
(C) Stripping method
(D) None of these
97. Line breeding is a type of—
(A) Inbreeding
(B) Outbreeding
(C) Natural breeding
(D) None of these
98. Match List-I with List-II and
select answer from the codes
given below—
List-I
(a) White Revolution
(b) Grey Revolution
(c) Blue Revolution
(d) Green Revolution
List-II
1. Fertilizer production
2. Fish production
3. Cereal production
4. Milk production
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
99. ‘Tharparkar’ breed of cow is—
(A) Milch breed
(B) Working breed
(C) Dual purpose breed
(D) None of these
100. Cow and buffalo belong to the
family—
(A) Bovidae (B) Suidae
(C) Equidae (D) Cammelidae
101. What is the contribution of
Animal Husbandry Sector in the
agricultural growth ?
(A) 10% (B) 12% – 15%
(C) 7% – 9% (D) 5%
102. How many labourers are
required to run a 30 cows milch
herd ?
(A) 8 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 10
103. What is the availability of per
day per capita milk in India
presently (2008-09) ?
(A) 229 gram
(B) 239 gram
(C) 219 gram
(D) 252 gram
104. Which place is occupied by India
in egg production ?
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) Fourth
105. How much calories (cal) may be
obtained from 100 gram chicken
egg ?
(A) 175 cal (B) 180 cal
(C) 160 cal (D) 130 cal
106. Main function of biofertilizer is—
(A) To increase chemical process
(B) To increase physiological
process
(C) To increase biological
process
(D) To increase photosynthesis
process
107. How much tomato average production
(q.) may be yield from
one hectare ?
(A) 100 (B) 105-150
(C) 250 (D) 160-275
108. Which type of soil is found near
the canal banks ?
(A) Acidic and alkaline
(B) Acidic
(C) Alkaline
(D) None of these
109. Which one is not biofertilizer ?
(A) Multiflex
(B) PSB
(C) Vermicompost
(D) NADEP
110. In which form is nitrogen absorbed
by paddy under waterlogged
condition ?
PD/June/2010/2193
(A) NH4 ion (B) Nitrate ion
(C) NO2 ion (D) N2
111. Which one of the following do
not relate to groundnut ?
(A) Brazil
(B) 2n = 40
(C) Pink disease
(D) Tikka disease
112. Which of the following is produced
highest in India ?
(A) Mango (B) Banana
(C) Papaya (D) Grapes
113. The optimum temperature for
the Banana crop is—
(A) 30°C (B) 23°C
(C) 21·5°C (D) 26·5°C
114. Which one of the following
varieties has been selected to
develop Narendra Aonla-6
variety ?
(A) Chakaiya
(B) Hathijhool
(C) Banarasi
(D) Narendra Aonla-6
115. Red soil is poor in which of the
following nutrients ?
(A) Phosphorus and Sulphur
(B) Phosphorus and Nitrogen
(C) Nitrogen and Zinc
(D) Nitrogen and Potassium
116. A farming system in which
airable crops are grown in alleys
formed by trees or shrubs, to
establish soil fertility and to
enhance soil productivity, is
known as—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Multiple cropping
(C) Alley cropping
(D) Mixed cropping
117. The cropping intensity of
Groundnut + Arhar – Sugarcane
is—
(A) 200% (B) 300%
(C) 150% (D) 250%
118. The scented variety of paddy
is—
(A) Jaya (B) Bala
(C) Type-3 (D) Type-1
119. From which language is the word
‘Agronomy’ taken ?
(A) Latin (B) Greek
(C) French (D) German
120. Tarameera is belonged to which
family ?
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Linaceae
(C) Compositae
(D) Graminae
121. The size of clay particles are—
(A) 1·0 mm
(B) 0·2 – 0·02 mm
(C) < 0·02 mm
(D) < 0·002 mm
122. When one plant has both male
and female flowers separately, is
called—
(A) Monophrodits
(B) Monoecious
(C) Hermaphrodite
(D) Apomixis
123. Aamrapali is the cross of—
(A) Neelam ⋅ Dashaheri
(B) Dashaheri ⋅ Langra
(C) Langra ⋅ Dashaheri
(D) Dashaheri ⋅ Neelam
124. Seed-plot technique is adopted
in—
(A) Onion (B) Potato
(C) Sugarcane (D) Tomato
125. The origin of litchi is—
(A) India (B) Philippines
(C) China (D) Burma
Answers with Hints
PD/June/2010/2194
P.Darpan
Continued from
Geography
UGC-NET/JRF EXAMINATION, 2007
(Held in Dec. 2007)
Paper-II
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
Note—This paper contains fifty
objective-type questions, each question
carrying two marks. Attempt all
of them.
61. Which one of the following
forces is responsible for syncline
formation ?
(A) Crustal faulting
(B) Crustal rifting
(C) Crustal compression
(D) Crustal sinking
62. Pediplains and inselbergs are
features of the old stage of which
cycle of erosion ?
(A) Glacial (B) Karst
(C) Arid (D) Marine
(′ped·ə′plān)
A mountain or rocky mass that has resisted erosion and stands isolated in an essentially
level area. Also called inselberg.
An extensive erosion surface, interrupted by the occasional kopje or inselberg, and found
in semi-arid and savanna landscapes, especially those of Africa. Pediplain formation, or
pediplanation, is thought to result from the coalescence of neighbouring pediments. It is
regarded as the last stage in an arid cycle of erosion or pediplanation cycle. In the early
stages of the cycle, streams are rejuvenated and start eroding headwards from the coast.
Scarps then retreat away from the drainage lines. Compare with peneplanation.
Ultimately, the pediplain comprises an intricate assembly of pediments which slope down
to the local drainage systems, and of basins.
63. Which of the following terms
does not indicate similar processes
?
(A) Diastrophism
(B) Folding
(C) Exfoliation
(D) Warping
64. In which of the following the
direction of flow of streams is
controlled by rock structure ?
(A) Consequent
(B) Subsequent
(C) Insequent
(D) Obsequent
(hydrology) A stream that flows in the general direction of the strike of the underlying
strata and is subsequent to the formation of the consequent stream of which it is a
tributary. Also known as longitudinal stream; strike stream.
Drumlin A smooth, glacially streamlined hill that is elongate in the direction of ice
movement. Drumlins are generally composed of till.
Peneplain An extensive erosion surface worn down almost to sea level. Subsequent
tectonic activity can lift a peneplain to higher elevations.
Earthquake damage is
caused by intense vibrations of the ground generated by seismic waves which spread out
from their point of origin, the focus, or hypocentre. Located at depth, often within the
upper 60 kilometres of the crust, this is the place where rocks suddenly break along a
fault , thus releasing a considerable amount of energy.
69. Surface inversion of temperature
is a phenomenon related to—
(A) Increase in temperature with
increase in elevation
(B) Decrease in temperature
with increasing elevation
(C) Decrease in temperature
with decreasing elevation
(D) Increase in temperature
with decreasing elevation
A layer in the atmosphere in which temperature increases with altitude; the principal
characteristic of an inversion layer is its marked static stability, so that very little
turbulent exchange can occur within it; strong wind shears often occur across inversion
layers, and abrupt changes in concentrations of atmospheric particulates and atmospheric
water vapor may be encountered on ascending through the inversion layer. Also known
as thermal inversion.
(oceanography) A layer of a large body of water in which temperature increases with
depth.
10. Who had used the concept of
evapo transpiration in climate
classification ?
(A) Thornthwaite
(B) Koppen
(C) Kendrew
(D) Austin Miller
11. Eustatic changes in the sea levels
are caused by—
(A) Ice ages
(B) Epirogenic movements
(C) Orogenic movements
(D) Isostatic changes
Sea level change on a global scale. Causes include the switching between ice age and
interglacial periods and changes in the global ocean volume due to plate tectonic
movement. Combined with the isostatic changes make a relative sea level change.
12. Which of the following is a coral
island ?
(A) Tasmania
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Maldives
(D) Rameswaram
lakshadweep islands are called coral islands as polyps, over the years when die forms
layers of land. it is a natural and slow phenomena. thus, like this Lakshadweep is formed
The Chipko movement or Chipko Andolan (literally "to stick" in Hindi) is a socio-
ecological movement that practised the Gandhian methods of satyagraha and non-violent
resistance, through the act of hugging trees to protect them from being felled. The
modern Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of
Uttarakhand,[1]
When surface waves move towards shallow water, such as a beach, they slow down, their
wave height increases and the distance between waves decreases. This behaviour is called
shoaling, and the waves are said to shoal. The waves may or may not build to the point
where they break, depending on how large they were to begin with, and how steep the
slope of the beach is. In particular, waves shoal as they pass over submerged sandbanks
or reefs. This can be treacherous for boats and ships.
The deepest part of the ocean is known as the abyssal plain. Because the abyssal plain is
so deep, it is difficult to explore, since it presents some unique challenges including
extreme pressures. As a result, much of the abyssal plain has not been mapped or
extensively studied, and it considered the great unknown of the Earth; some scientists
believe that we may know more about Mars than we do about the abyssal plain.
Several things characterize the abyssal plain, distinguishing it from other ocean features
like the continental shelf. The extreme depth is obviously the first, but the abyssal plain is
also very flat, with an extremely gentle slope. The flat plain is covered in millions of
years of sediment washed from the continents and deposited by various sea creatures.
Since the abyssal plain is so deep, there is no light, and oxygen saturation levels are also
very low.
The continental slope is a submarine geological feature which connects the continental
shelf to the abyssal plain, beginning at a depth of around 460 feet (140 meters). Together,
the continental slope and the continental shelf are often referred to as the “continental
margin,” in a reference to the fact that the combined features are found at the margins of
the Earth's continent. The continental slope also happens to mark the boundary between
the part of the world's ocean scientists are familiar with and the mysteries of the deep sea.
16. Given below are two statements,