Professional Documents
Culture Documents
<Answer>
1. Uncertainty of the ability of the investor to exit from an investment is referred as
(a) Business risk
(b) Financial risk
(c) Liquidity risk
(d) Credit risk
(e) Economic risk.
<Answer>
2. Which of the following statements is/are false about the process of portfolio management as described by
Maginn and Tuttle?
I. Identifying and specifying investor’s objectives, preferences and constraints.
II. Developing strategies for choosing maximum financial and minimum real assets.
III. Monitoring the market conditions, relative asset values and investors circumstances.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
<Answer>
3. Which of the following models/theories states that market is made up of information traders and noise traders
(a) Capital Asset Pricing Model
(b) Arbitrage Pricing Theory
(c) Behavioral Asset Pricing Theory
(d) Markowitz Theory
(e) Life Cycle Model.
<Answer>
4. Which of the following statements is/are false about Asset-Liability matching principle?
I. Absolute matching means choosing assets to produce stream of cash flows absolutely different from the
investors liabilities.
II. Absolute matching is easily attainable for every institutional investor.
III. It is possible to ensure that present value of assets and liabilities are influenced by exactly matching
liabilities.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
An investor can get optimal mix of assets suitable to him at a point where <Answer>
5.
I. The indifference curve is tangent to the curve of efficient investment opportunities.
II. The indifference curve cuts the curve of efficient investment opportunities.
III. The indifference curve is below/above the curve of efficient investment opportunities.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (I) and (III) above.
<Answer>
6. Which of the following statements is/are not true about Capital Market Line (CML)?
I. CML represents new efficient frontier only.
1
II. The slope of CML is called market price of risk.
III. The CML represents zero unsystematic risk portfolios.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
Which of the following statements is/are true about benchmark? <Answer>
7.
I. The benchmark should reflect the investor’s objective and management strategy.
II. The benchmark risk and exposure to various factors should be comparable to those of the mandate.
III. The benchmark is constructed at the end of evaluation period.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
8. According to Capital Market Theory, investors with low degrees of risk aversion will leverage their investments<Answer>
in the risky portfolio and choose
(a) A portfolio with the same risk-return characteristics as chosen by investors with high degrees of risk
aversion
(b) A risky portfolio with the same expected return but higher risk than chosen by investors with high
degrees of risk aversion
(c) A risky portfolio with a higher expected return but the same level of risk as chosen by investors with
high degrees of risk aversion
(d) A risky portfolio with a higher expected return and higher level of risk than chosen by investors with
high degrees of risk aversion
(e) The same portfolio irrespective of the degree of risk aversion.
Immunization cannot be considered as a strictly passive strategy because <Answer>
9.
(a) It requires choosing an asset portfolio that matches an index
(b) It is likely to remain a slight gap between the duration of assets and liabilities in most portfolios
(c) Durations of assets and liabilities fall at the same rate
(d) It requires frequent rebalancing as maturities and interest rates change
(e) It requires buying and selling securities with the passage of time.
<Answer>
10.Straddle strategy used under portfolio management involves
(a) Buying a put and a call options on the same underlying stock, each of which has the same exercise price
and same expiration date
(b) Buying as well as selling call options on the same underlying stock, each of which has the same exercise
price but different expiration dates
(c) Buying a put and a call options on the same underlying stock for the same expiration date but at different
exercise prices
(d) Buying one call as well as two puts on the same underlying stock with the same exercise price and
expiration date
(e) Buying two calls as well as one put on the same underlying stock with the same exercise price and
expiration date.
<Answer>
11.A portfolio that lies to the right of the optimal risky portfolio on asset allocation line can be formed by
I. Lending some money at the risk free rate and investing the remainder in the optimal risky portfolio.
II. Borrowing some money at the risk free rate and investing in the optimal risky portfolio.
III. Investing only in risk free assets.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
<Answer>
12.A stock with a beta of 0.70 is currently trading at Rs.38. After one year the price of the stock is expected to be
Rs.40. The market return is 9.5% and the risk-free rate is 6%. If stock pays Rs.2 as dividend during the next year
I. The expected return on stock is 10.53%.
II. The stock alpha is 3.93%.
2
III. The stock is under priced and should be purchased.
IV. The stock is over priced and should be sold.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) Both (II) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) (I), (II) and (III) above.
<Answer>
13.While ranking the portfolios, if the conflict arises between Sharpe’s and Treynor’s measure, then which of the
following approaches is/are better to be used?
I. Jensen’s measure to evaluate the portfolio as it does not assume the portfolio to be fully diversified.
II. Sharpe’s measure to evaluate funds which are not expected to be fully diversified.
III. Treynor’s measure to evaluate funds which are supposed to be well diversified.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
<Answer>
14.Time weighted rate of return, portfolio performance measures are preferred over Money weighted rate of return
because
I. Calculation of time weighted rate of return is fairly easy.
II. The impact of timing of portfolio contributions and withdrawals is nil for time weighted rate of return.
III. Money weighted rate of return indicates the internal rate of return of the portfolio.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
<Answer>
15.The fair value of an index futures contract
I. Increases with the increase in the risk free rate.
II. Increases with the decrease in the risk free rate.
III. Reduces with the reduction in the dividend yield.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
<Answer>
16.The total number of securities in a portfolio is 13. How many estimates of variances, covariances and returns are
required for Markowitz mean-variance model?
(a) 21, 14, 78
(b) 20, 70, 13
(c) 13, 78, 13
(d) 12 ,87, 26
(e) 11, 93, 13.
<Answer>
17.Which of the following models of portfolio selection opines that decision makers usually do not use
mathematical models such as utility analysis but generally focus on reducing the bad outcome?
(a) Stochastic Dominance Model
(b) Safety First Model
(c) Geometric Mean Model
(d) Sharpe Optimization Model
(e) Markowitz Model.
<Answer>
18.If the correlation coefficient between the returns of the market index and a mutual fund is 0.7 and standard
deviation of the mutual fund’s return is 18%, the unsystematic risk of the mutual fund is
(a) 62.50(%)2
(b) 95.04(%)2
3
(c) 114.00(%)2
(d) 165.24(%)2
(e) 179.40(%)2.
<Answer>
19.Consider the following information regarding amount of fund managed by Mr. Kiran and yearly contributions or
withdrawals made by their client during last 3 years:
(Rs.)
Total funds under
Years Contributions/(Withdrawals)
management
0 1,00,000 -
1 1,20,000 10,000
2 1,50,000 15,000
3 (?) -
If the Money Weighted Rate of Return is 15.5%, the value of funds under management at the end of year 3 is
(a) Rs.1,74,745
(b) Rs.1,84,745
(c) Rs.1,94,745
(d) Rs.2,84,745
(e) Rs.3,84,745.
<Answer>
20.Consider the single-index model. The alpha of a stock is 4%. The return on the market index is 18%. The risk-
free rate of return is 5%. The stock earns a return that exceeds the risk-free rate by 13% and there are no firm-
specific events affecting the stock performance. The beta of the stock is
(a) 0.75
(b) 1.00
(c) 1.25
(d) 1.50
(e) 2.00.
<Answer>
21.Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Style Analysis?
I. It uses quadratic programming for the purpose of determining the fund’s exposure to changes in the returns
of asset classes.
II. Its objective is to find the best asset class exposure that sums up to 100%.
III. Its goal is selecting a style that maximizes the variance of difference between the return of the fund and the
passive portfolio with same style.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (I) and (III) above.
<Answer>
22.The beta value of aggressive securities as per Security Market Line (SML) is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.5
(c) 0
(d) Lesser than 1
(e) Greater than 1.
<Answer>
23.Consider the following information:
Portfolio Expected Return (%) Beta
P1 15 1
P2 17 1
Suppose one factor arbitrage model is E(r) = 8 + 7βi. If there is an arbitrage opportunity and the amount used for
the purpose is Rs.20,000, the net gain will be
(a) Rs.100
(b) Rs.200
(c) Rs.400
(d) Rs.600
(e) Rs.800.
4
<Answer>
24.Suppose a stock has a beta of 1.3 with a residual risk 17%. The variance of the market return is 13%. The
tracking error for the stock is
(a) 17.44%
(b) 18.22%
(c) 19.33%
(d) 20.35%
(e) 21.03%
<Answer>
25.Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding optimal portfolio?
I. Optimal portfolio offers maximum expected returns for varying levels of risk.
II. It has minimum standard deviation for varying levels of expected returns.
III. It offers minimum expected return for varying levels of risk.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (I) and (III) above.
<Answer>
26.Which of the following is regarded as forecast of residual return?
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Ex ante alpha
(d) Ex post alpha
(e) Delta.
<Answer>
27.Which of the following passive portfolio replicates a benchmark geared to mimic the performance of a given
common stock factor such as growth, capitalization, or high yield?
(a) Index fund
(b) Infrastructure fund
(c) Style fund
(d) Customized fund
(e) Equity fund.
<Answer>
28.The inability to satisfy the investor’s objective is referred as
(a) Political risk
(b) Performance risk
(c) Call risk
(d) Interest rate risk
(e) Liquidity risk.
<Answer>
29.Duration of a bond portfolio is 6 years and its average YTM is 13.60%. If average YTM decreases to 13.20%,
the percentage change in value of the portfolio is
(a) 1.25%
(b) 1.76%
(c) 1.85%
(d) 1.96%
(e) 2.11%.
<Answer>
30.If the money weighted quarterly rates of return for a portfolio during a year are 7% , 8%, 12% and 5%, its
Linked Internal Rate of Return (LIROR) for the year would be
(a) 28%
(b) 36%
(c) 43%
(d) 49%
(e) 52%.
END OF SECTION A
1. Mr. Neelam has forecasted that the market return has the following relationship: <Answer>
Caselet
Read the caselet carefully and answer the following questions:
4. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of ELSSs over traditional tax saving <Answer>
instruments like PPF and NSC etc. ( 8 marks)
5. As per the caselet, the lock-in period of three years in case of ELSSs provides for <Answer>
unlocking the value and outperforming the comparable equity diversified
schemes. Analyze how the lock-in period provides for unlocking the value. ( 8 marks)
For those who have made investments in Public Provident Fund (PPF), National
Savings Certificate (NSC) and all other famous investment streams and are on
the look out for something new to lock in the funds for saving tax and for high
6
return on investments, here is an option to have a look at. To claim the
exemption, the investment will have to be locked in for a period of 3 years. The
unit holder is free to sell his holdings once this lock in expires at a price based on
the Net Asset Value (NAV). While in the case of an open-ended scheme the units
can be sold anytime after the lock in period, in the case of a closed end scheme,
the units can be redeemed only after the specified due date. However on such
sale, the capital gains will be chargeable to tax. The common retort to the often
asked question by anxious investors, of the best way to save tax, is to invest in
Post Office savings schemes, or perhaps a regular investment in a public
provident fund, or to buy insurance policies. It is unfortunate that the greatly
advantageous Equity Linked Savings Schemes (ELSSs) is hardly ever
mentioned, which is not a surprise, since, even though it is one of the high
yielding products, it remains one of the lesser-known ones. That is another
reason that investors do not yet comprehend the potential benefits of this product.
ELSS holds the advantage of being the only equity-based tax saving instrument
available in the country today and offers tax deduction on investments up to
Rs.1,00,000, under Section 80C of the Income-Tax Act. Experts are of the
opinion that equities, proven time and again to be the best asset class in the long
term, would continue to beat inflation over the next few years, considering the
strong growth rate in the economy and a healthy rise in corporate earnings. It
would be prudent for long-term investors to invest in an asset that will do just that.
The performance of the units can be monitored with the help of the published
reports from the mutual funds. The investments made in the open ended funds
can be withdrawn anytime, after the lock in period, based on the performance of
the units.
ELSSs are similar to non equity diversified schemes that invest across the board
and market segments. Features that differentiate ELSS from an open-ended equity
diversified scheme are tax saving benefit (deductions under Sec 80C) and a lock-
in period of three years. The lock-in period of three years provides for unlocking
the value and outperforming the comparable equity diversified schemes. Also,
one can invest in these schemes in small amounts through a Systematic
Investment Plan and begin with a small fund size to add to this expense (i.e.
entry/exit load) of investing in an ELSS is similar to any other equity scheme.
However, the ELSS has some factors of caution that an investor has to eye upon
before locking the funds with. The return on the investment is not an assured one.
This is because these funds invest in the equity markets, which can get erratic
many a time. Hence, the conditions of the equity market as well as the past
performance of the fund will have to be analysed before making the investments
in this scheme.
ELSS is the right investment option for all those who wish for high returns in
terms of dividend as well as capital appreciation and at the same time is ready to
shoulder high risks, as return and risk go hand in hand. Until FY05, Sec 88 of the
Income Tax Act had fixed an overall ceiling of Rs.1,00,000 for investments in the
tax saving instruments, including a cap of Rs.10,000 for investment in ELSS.
The investors would get a rebate based on his taxable income. However, Budget
2005-06 has scrapped Sec 88 and replaced it with Sec 80C. Under this section,
investments upto Rs.1,00,000 are eligible for deduction from Gross Taxable
Income and the ceiling on investments in ELSS is removed. This investment is
deducted from the Gross Total Income, hence reducing the taxable income.
END OF CASELET
END OF SECTION B
7
Do not spend more than 25 -30 minutes on Section C.
6. There are many reasons to justify the changes in the portfolio of the clients. <Answer>
The portfolio manager becomes alert and sensitive to the changes in the
requirements of the client. Discuss the important factors affecting the client
that makes it necessary to change the portfolio composition. ( 10 marks)
Suggested Answers
Portfolio Management (MB341F) : July 2008
Section A : Basic Concepts
Answer Reason
1. C Uncertainty of the ability of the investor to exit from an investment is referred as liquidity risk <
TOP
>
2. B According to Maginn and Tuttle, Portfolio management can be described as a systematic, <
continuous, dynamic and flexible process which involves: TOP
>
Identifying and specifying an investor’s objectives, preferences and constraints to develop
clear investment policies.
Developing strategies by choosing optimal combinations of financial and real assets
available in the market and implementing the strategies.
Monitoring the market conditions, relative asset values and investor’s circumstances.
Making adjustments in the portfolio to reflect significant changes in one or more relevant
variables.
3. C Behavioral Asset Pricing Theory states that market is made up of information traders and noise <
traders TOP
>
4. D An important principle of institutional investment is to match assets with liabilities. Absolute <
matching would mean choosing assets to produce a stream of cash flows identical to investor’sTOP
liabilities. Unfortunately, absolute matching is unattainable for many institutional investors due >
to non- existence of assets which fit the characteristics of liabilities. But where liabilities are
fixed in monetary terms and are not of too long maturities, it is possible to ensure that the
present value of assets and liabilities are influenced by the same and exactly matching liabilities.
This process is known as immunization.
5. A The optimal mix of asset suitable to an investor is at the point where the indifference curve, <
which represents his view correctly, is tangent to the curve along which the efficient investmentTOP
opportunities lie. The indifference curve should only be tangent to the curve of efficient >
investment opportunities, but should not cut it. Only at the point of tangency will the investor
find the best investment opportunity curve that is suitable to him.
6. A The CML not only represents the new effcient frontier, but it also expresses the equilibrium <
pricing relationship between expected returm (Er) and standard deviation (σ ) for all efficientTOP
portfolios lying along the line. The slope of the “CML = [E(rM) – rf]/ σM “is called market >
price of the risk, and this component is same for all portfolios lying on CML. The CML not only
represents the portfolios that are efficient in risk/ expected return sense, but it also represents
8
zero unsystematic risk portfolios as for efficient set of along the CML, their total risk, as
measured by σi, represents their systematic risk, because all unsystematic risks have been
diversified i.e; efficient frontier not only produces the set of optimal portfolios interms of risk
and expected return, but it also represents most efficient set of diversified portfolios at different
levels of expected returns.
7. D A suitable benchmark should have following characteristics: <
TOP
>
The benchmark should be transparent and reflect the investor’s objective
and management strategy and it should be defined before the
management.
The benchmark should be substantially and formally comparble to the
portfolio in the scope of what securities are considered and in a way
returns are calculated.
The benchmark risk and exposure to various factors should be
comparable to those of the mandate.
The manager has current investment knowledge of securities, which
make up the benchmark.
The benchmark is constructed prior to the start of the evaluation period.
8. D Investors with low risk aversion would like to earn higher returns and would be ready to assume <
a higher risk for the same. They can achieve this by borrowing funds and investing the same inTOP
risky portfolios. They tend to choose a risky portfolio with a higher expected return and higher >
level of risk than chosen by investors with high degrees of risk aversion. Hence the correct
answer is (d).
9. D Immunization is an approach where the bond manager matches the duration of portfolio with the <
current investment horizon to get the promised yield and neutralize the effect of interest rateTOP
change. However, the immunized portfolio require periodic rebalancing because of ever >
changing duration of the bond portfolio as well as the yield which is in contravention of the
assumption under immunization.
10. A Straddle strategy used under portfolio management involves buying a put and a call options on <
the same underlying stock, each of which has the same exercise price and same expiration date TOP
>
Horizontal spread strategy involves buying as well as selling call options on the same
underlying stock, each of which has the same exercise price but different expiration dates.
Strangle strategy involves buying a put and a call options on the same underlying stock for the
same expiration date but at different exercise prices. strip strategy involves Buying one call as
well as two puts on the same underlying stock with the same exercise price and expiration date.
Strap involves buying two calls as well as one put on the same underlying stock with the same
exercise price and expiration date..
11. B This is the characteristic of aggressive investors having higher risk tolerance. The investors take <
the higher risk by borrowing money at the risk free rate (available under the assumption (APM)TOP
and invest the same in the market portfolio. >
12. D 40 38 2 4 <
38 TOP
Expected return = = 38 = 10.53% >
Required rate of return = 6 + 0.70 (9.5 – 6) = 8.45%
alpha = 10.53 –8.45 = 2.08%
As alpha is positive the stock is under priced and should be purchased.
13. E Jensen’s measure calculates the differential return generated by a portfolio and not the absolute <
return. Sharpe’s measure uses standard deviation as a measure of risk and Treynor’s measureTOP
takes beta or systematic risk as a measure of risk. In case of a fully diversified portfolio, the total >
risk will be equal to systematic risk. So it is better to use Sharpe’s measure to evaluate funds
which are not expected to be fully diversified and use Treynor’s ratio to evaluate funds which
are expected to be fully diversified
14. B Time weighted rate of return eliminate the distorting effects of cash flows (contributions and <
withdrawals) so that valid comparison of funds manager’s investment skills can be made. HenceTOP
(II) is correct. MWROR indicates IRR of a portfolio but this does not make it a superior >
9
technique hence (III) is not correct. Calculation of TWROR is not an easy task. Therefore (I) is
also not true.
15. A The fair price of a futures contract is given by <
TOP
Fo = Io + Io Rf – Io Dt >
Where Io = Current value of market index
Rf = Risk-free rate
Dt = Dividend yield on the index.
An increase in risk free rate will increase the fair value of the futures contract other things
remaining constant. So, obviously I is correct and II is not correct. Similarly a reduction in
dividend yield will result into an increase in the fair price of the futures contract. So III is not
correct.
Hence, only statement I is true. So the correct answer is (a).
16. C n (n 1) <
TOP
Markowitz model needs n estimates of variance, n estimates of return and 2 estimates of >
covariance
Variances = 13
13(13 1)
Covariance = 2 = 78
Returns = 13.
17. B Safety first model believe that decision makers do not use mathematical model such as utility <
analysis and focuses on reducing bad outcome. Hence (b) is the answer. TOP
>
18. D Unsystematic risk of the mutual fund = [(1-ρim ) σi2]
2
<
2 2 TOP
= [(1-0.70 )18 ]
>
= 165.24 (%)2
19. B <
Value of fund at the end of 3rd year = 100(1 0.155) 10(1 0.155) 15(1 0.155)
3 2
TOP
= Rs.184.745 = Rs.1,84,745. >
20. B The single index model can be represented as follows: <
TOP
Return on the stock = + Rm >
The return on the market is 18% and return on the stock is 4% + 18% = 22%
Fitting these variables into the model, the beta of the stock is 1.00. Hence (b) is the correct
answer.
21. D Style analysis is defined as the use of quadratic programming for the purpose of determining a <
fund’s exposure to the changes in returns of asset classes. The objective is to find the asset class TOP
that sums up to 100%. The goal of the style analysis is to select a style that minimizes the >
variance of the difference between the return of the fund and passive portfolio with the same
style.
22. E The beta value of aggressive securities as per Security Market Line (SML) is greater than 1 <
TOP
>
23. C Required return on P1 = 8+7 1=15 <
TOP
Required return on P2 = 8+7 1=15 >
Since the expected return from the P2 is greater therefore, there is an arbitrage opportunity.
As P1 is correctly priced and P2 is underpriced, we can sell P1 at Rs.20,000 and invest in P2
Therefore, the net gain can be obtained as:
Portfolio Investment (Rs.) Return (Rs.)
P1 +20,000 -3000
P2 -20,000 +3400
Net gain 400
10
24. A <
2 2 2
Tracking error = 1.3-1 0.13 0.17 0.09 0.0169 0.0289 0.1744 17.44% TOP
>
25. C An optimal portfolio would present the investor with best possible combination of risk and <
return. In otherwords, an optimal portfolio offers maximum expected returns for varying levelsTOP
of risk and minimum risk for varying levels of expected returns. >
28. B The inability to satisfy the investor’s objective is referred as Performance risk. <
TOP
>
29. E Change in YTM = 13.20 – 13.60 = – 0.40% <
TOP
Duration >
ChangeinYTM
Change in price of the bond = 1 YTM
-6
- 0.40
= 1.136 = 2.11%.
30. B LIROR = (1.07) (1.08) (1.12) (1.05) – 1 = 0.35898 = 36%. <
TOP
>
Section B : Problems/Caselet
1.The return on the market = 7 + 7 = 14%. <
The market variance = 25 (%)2 TOP
>
Stock i i Ri = i + i (Rm) σ 2ei Ri – R f (Ri – Rf) / i Rank
ITC 1.72 0.89 14.18 9.35 7.18 8.067 4
SBI 0.89 0.97 14.47 5.92 7.47 7.701 5
Satyam 0.46 1.24 17.82 9.79 10.82 8.726 2
HLL 1.52 1.04 16.08 5.36 9.08 8.731 1
BPL 0.96 1.11 16.50 4.52 9.50 8.559 3
Ri Rf β
σ 2m Σ
(Ri Rf )β i β i2 (Ri Rf ) β i β i2 σ 2ei
Stock Ci
σ 2ei 2 σ 2ei 2
β2
σ ei σ ei 1 σ 2m Σ i
σ 2ei
HLL 1.76 0.202 1.76 0.202 7.2727
Satyam 1.37 0.157 3.13 0.359 7.8446
BPL 2.33 0.273 5.46 0.632 8.1250
ITC 0.68 0.085 6.14 0.717 8.1123
SBI 1.22 0.159 7.36 0.876 8.0360
C* = 8.125
11
i R i R f
C *
2
Zi = ei i
1.04
(8.731 8.125)
ZHLL = 5.36 = 0.1176
1.24
(8.726 8.125)
Zsatyam = 9.79 = 0.0761
1.11
(8.559 8.125)
ZBPL = 4.52
= 0.1066
Zi = 0.1176 + 0.0761 + 0.1066 = 0.3003
0.1176
%HLL = 0.3003 = 0.3916 i.e. 39.16%
0.0761
% Satyam = 0.3003 = 0.2534 i.e., 25.34%
0.1066
%BPL = 0.3003 = 0.3550 i.e., 35.50%
2. <
TOP
Year Rs Ra Rst Rm (R s R s ) (R a R a ) (R st R st ) (R m R m ) >
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 10 4 3 5 –6.5 –13.83 –5.83 –4.78
2 12 7 4 6 –4.5 –10.83 –4.83 –3.78
3 16 19 8 7.5 –0.5 1.17 –0.83 –2.28
4 18 13 11 10.2 1.5 –4.83 2.17 0.42
5 20 29 12 13 3.5 11.17 3.17 3.22
6 23 35 15 17 6.5 17.17 6.17 7.22
99 107 53 58.7
Mean 16.5 17.83 8.83 9.78
12
119.5 105.01 108.05
g 4.89 m 4.58 Cov gm 21.61
5 5 5
752.84 262.3
t 12.27 Cov tm 52.46
5 5
110.84 103.73
b 4.71 Cov bm 20.75
5 5
Beta of the stocks
21.61
g = 21 = 1.03
52.46
t = 21 = 2.5
20.75
b = 21 = 0.99
According to single index model covariance between two stock x and y can be calculated by the
following formula:
Covxy = xym2
Covgt = g t m2
= 1.03 x 2.5 x 21 = 54.1(%)2
Covgb = g b m2
= 1.03 x 0.99 x 21 = 21.41(%)2
Covtb = t b m2
= 2.5 x 0.99 x 21 = 51.98(%)2
Correlation coefficient between stocks
54.1
gt 0.90
4.89 12.27
21.41
gb 0.93
4.89 4.71
51.98
ast 0.90
12.27 4.71
For minimum risk portfolio
A
AB
B where <
A B
4.89
gt 0.90
12.27
= 0.90 > 0.3985
4.71
gb 0.93
4.89
0.93 < 0.96
This satisfies the condition
4.71
tb 0.90
12.27
= 0.90 > 0.3839
Only combination of GAIL and Best is fulfilling the criteria and minimum risk portfolio can be formed
using these two stocks.
13
3.Bond B1: <
TOP
>
Time period Cash flow PV of cash flow @ 10%
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) = (1) * (4)
1 400 363.64 0.05 0.05
2 400 330.56 0.04 0.08
3 400 300.52 0.04 0.12
4 400 273.20 0.03 0.12
5 10400 6,457.36 0.84 4.2
7,725.28 4.57
Bond B2:
Time
Cash flow PV of cash flow @ 10%
period
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) = (1) * (4)
1 800 727.27 0.08 0.08
2 800 661.16 0.07 0.14
3 800 601.05 0.07 0.21
4 800 546.41 0.06 0.24
5 10800 6,705.95 0.72 3.6
9,241.84 Years 4.27
Bond B3:
Time period Cash flow PV of cash flow @ 10%
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) = (1) * (4)
1 1200 1,090.91 0.1 0.1
2 1200 991.74 0.09 0.18
3 1200 901.58 0.08 0.24
4 1200 819.62 0.08 0.32
5 11200 6,954.32 0.65 3.25
10,758.16 Year 4.09
Bond B4:
Time period Cash flow PV of cash flow @ 10%
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) = (1) * (4)
1 1600 1,454.55 0.12 4.09
2 1600 1,322.31 0.11 0.12
3 1600 1,202.10 0.1 0.22
4 1600 1,092.82 0.09 0.3
5 11600 7,202.69 0.59 0.36
12,274.47 Years 3.95
b. Duration of a portfolio:
Proportion of funds
Bond Duration Years D*W
invested
A 0.4 4.57 1.83
B 0.3 4.27 1.28
C 0.2 4.09 0.82
D 0.1 3.95 0.39
4.32 years
4.Advantages of ELSSs <
14
1. Main advantage of ELSS is its short lock-in period. Maturity period of NSC is 6 years and PPF is 15 years. TOP
2. Since it is an equity linked scheme earning potential is very high. >
3. Investor can opt for dividend option and get some gains during the lock-in period
4. Investor can opt for Systematic Investment Plan
5. Some ELSS schemes also offer personal accident death cover insurance
6. Provides 30 to 40% returns compared to 8% in NSC and PPF
Disadvantages of ELSS
1. Risk factor is high compared to NSC and PPF
2. Premature withdrawal is not allowed but it is allowed in other instruments in some specific conditions.
5.The close-ended nature of the Scheme gives the investment team an opportunity to take decisions without the <
pressures of dealing with constant fund cash flow considerations. This would also help to focus on long-term TOP
opportunities in mid-cap and small-cap companies that are strategically placed to take advantage of the robust >
economic growth in India and of the global outsourcing trend. This is because; smaller companies have a greater
amount of growth opportunities than larger companies. Small cap companies also tend to have a more volatile
business environment, and the correction of problems - such as the correction of a funding deficiency - can lead
to a large price appreciation. Finally, small cap stocks tend to have lower stock prices, and these lower prices
mean that price appreciations tend to be larger than those found among large cap stocks. Since the funds would
remain with the fund manager for a long duration, it would give him more flexibility with regards to the illiquid
nature of mid cap space. Therefore, the Fund is likely to perform better than an open-ended scheme.