Microbiology and Parasitology 15. Which of the following species contains a sheathed microfilariae?

Mock Exam a. W. bancrofti c. Loa loa

b. B. malayi d. Oncocercus volvulus
Classmates,
16. Which of the following exhibits nocturnal periodicity?
Sorry kung viro at paras lang ung nagawan ko. Sana makatulong to kahit a. W. bancrofti c. Loa loa
paano kung ndi nyo na mabalikan ung ibang trans. Godbless! b. B. malayi d. Oncocercus volvulus

-teacher  17. All of the following roundworms are treated with Albendazole except
a. A. lumbricoides c. Trichiuris trichiura
1. Which of the following is not true of the causative agent of scabies? b. S. stercoralis d. C. philippinensis
a. It causes a familial disease
b. The classic rash includes burrows, vesicles, papules and pustules? 18. Which of the following will cause anemia?
c. It can be diagnosed by smearing black ink on skin and observing burrows. A. Hookworm c. D. latum
d. It is treated with permethrin b. E. vermicularis d. A and C only

2. Which of the following does not belong to Class Arachnida? 19. The following are found in the small intestine except:
a. mites c. lice a. A. lumbricoides c. Trichiuris trichiura
b. fleas d. scorpions b. S. stercoralis d. C. philippinensis

3. Which of the following protozoa contains cyst? 20. The type of injury that Plasmodium causes to its host
a. Dientamoeba fragilis c. Giardia lambia a. Invasion and destruction of tissues
b. Entamoeba histolytica d. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Interference with the vital processes
c. Deprivation of nutrients
4. All of the following can be used as drugs for Toxoplasma except: d. AOTA
a. Pyrimethamine c. metronidazole e. AOTA e. NOTA
b. Sulfadiazine d. clindamycin
21. All of following exhibit male and female sexes in a single organism except
5. All of the following can cause disease in immunocompromised/ AIDS a. P. westermani c. D. latum e. NOTA
patients except: b. E. ilocanum d. AOTA
a. Isospora belli c. MAC e. AOTA
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Pneumocystis jiroveci 22. The fungus that causes rhinocerebral infection
a. Mucormycosis c. Aspergillus
6. The following drug(s) is/are used to treat asymptomatic/ cyst passers of E. b. C. albicans d. Blastomycosis
histolytica
a. Iodoquinol c. Diloxanide furoate 23. The only fungus tested positive for india ink test
b. Tinidazole d. A and C only a. Coccidiodes c. Candida
e. AOTA b. Cryptococcus d. Aspergillus

7. The following Plasmodium species can cause relapse 24. This type of fungus exhibits buds attached to a parent cell with narrow
a. P. vivax c. P. malariae base
b. P. falciparum d. AOTA a. Paracoccidiodes c. Candida
b. Blastomyces d. Aspergillus
8. The following stages in malaria will occur in the liver
a. Gametogony c. Sporogony 25. All of the following will cause systemic fungal infection except
b. Schizogony d. all of the above a. Paracoccidiodes c. Histoplasma
b. Blastomyces d. Aspergillus
9. The drug of choice used to halt the gametogony stage in malaria
a. Doxycycline c. Primaquine 26. All of the following diseases caused by superficial mycoses except
b. Chloroquine d. Mefloquine a. Tinea c. Keratomycosis
b. Piedra d. NOTA
10. The gold standard for identification of Malarial parasites
a. Microscopic identification c. RDT 26. The agar used for fungal isolation
b. Quantitative Buffy coat d. AOTA a. BAP c. SDA
b. GMS d. AOTA
11. Praziquantel is the drug of choice for all of the following except:
a. Paragonimus westermanii c. Echinostoma ilocanum 27. All of the following diseases are transmitted by vectors except
b. Fasciolopsis buski d. Opisthorchis viverrini a. Malaria c. EEE
b. hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome d. AOTA
12. Lymnea philippinensis is the intermediate host of which of the following
flukes? 28. The drug of choice for CMV infections
a. Fasciola hepatica c. Clonorchis sinensis a. Gancicyclovir c. Ribavirin
b. Fasciolopsis buski d. Opisthorchis viverrini b. Acyclovir d. Lamivudine

13. All of the following Schistosoma species will causes periportal fibrosis 29. All of the following are attenuated vaccines except
except a. Rabies c. Rotavirus
a. S. japonicum c. S. mansoni b. Varicella d. Yellow fever
b. S. hematobium d. AOTA
30. The only Hepa virus that can be transmitted perinatally
14. This cestode exhibits a melon/ vase shaped mature proglottid a. A c. C e. E
a. T. saginata c. D. latum b. B d. D
b. D. caninum d. D. nana
31. If the HBV-DNA is tested positive, what does this mean?
a. the patient had a past or chronic infection b. It can cause non-gonococcal urethritis
b. The virus is no longer replicating c. It lack cell wall.
c. it is used as a monitor to therapy response d. Can be grown in simple cultures
d. it is used to document recovery e. AOTA

32. All of the following diseases are transmitted by the vector Culex except 49. The metabolically active replicating, non-infections form of Chlamydia?
a. St. Louis encephalitis c. OMSK hemorrhagic fever a. reticulate bodies c. psammoma bodies
b. tick borne encephalitis d. Murray valley encephalitis b. elementary bodies d. NOTA

33. A patient with dengue fever had signs of circulatory failure. Under what 50. The biovar of Chlamydia that causes Inclusion Conjuncivitis
grade is the patient classified? a. LGV c. mouse pneumonitis
a. 1 c. 3 b. Trachoma d. AOTA
b. 2 d. 4
51. Under what class is Patient X classified if he has positive history of TB
34. The type of disease characterized as having the presence of mental exposure but negative PPD test?
deterioration, myoclonus and EEG periodic sharp EEG complex? a. 0 c. 2 e. 4
a. CJD c. Kuru b. 1 d. 3
b. GSS d. New variant CJD
52. Middlebrook is a ____ for M. tuberculosis
35. The leading cause of death in AIDS patients a. solid culture c. microscopic technique
a. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. Oral hairy leukoplakia b. liquid culture d. PPD test
b. P. carinii infection d. Toxoplasmosis infection
53. All of the following are characteristics of tuberculous leprosy except
36. Which of the following herpes virus is not a/an alphavirus? a. predominant CMI c. symmetric nerve involvement
a. HSV 1 c. VZV b. paucibacillary d. macular lesions
b. EBV d. HSV-2
54. All of the following are anaerobic gram positive bacilli except
37. The triad of rubella virus include the following organs except: a. Lactobacillus c. Peptostreptococcus
a. eyes c. ears b. Eubacterium d. Bifidobacterium
b. heart d. brain
55. Which of the following culture system is/are considered purely
38. All of the following are enveloped viruses except: anaerobic?
a. Herpesvirus c. Adenovirus a. Brewer’s Gas pack c. Both
b. orthomyxovirus d. Flavivirus b. Candle Jar d. None

39. The mutation driven change in influenza that causes a new subtype
a. Drift c. Both
b. Shift d. none

40. The protein that can cause viral particle release in influenza
a. Hemaglutinins c. nucleoprotein
b. Neuraminidase d. AOTA

41. The characteristic inclusion bodies in poliovirus

a. Negri c. Charcot Leyden
b. Guarneri d. NOTA
42. All of the following ar RNA viruses except:
a. Orthomyxo c. Pox
b. Reo d. Toga

43. The HPV that can cause condylomata acuminate

a. 6 and 11 c. 5
b. 7 d. 16 and 18

44. the virus that can cause foot and mouth disease
a. Apthovirus c. Coxsakie B
b. Coxsakie A d. Theilovirus

45. All DNA virus replicated in the nucleus except

a. Retrovirus c. Herpesvirus
b. Poxvirus d. Adenovirus

46. This organism can be differenitiated by Naegler reaction

A. C. tetani c. D. pertussis
B. C. trachomatis d. C. perfringens

47. The neurotransmitter that is blocked by the microorganism that causes

flaccid paralysis.
a. GABA c. Serotonin
b. Ach d. Dopamine

48. Which of the following is/are true of Mycoplasma?

a. It is the smallest free living bacteria